UNIT 1

SOLID STATE (Marks : 4)

NUMERICALS:
SECTION 1-A:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6

Name and define various types of unit cells.

Name the seven types of primitive unit cells (crystal systems).
Name and define the various type of cubic unit cells.
Calculate the number of atoms in (i) a simple cubic unit cell, (ii) a body
centered cubic unit cell and (iii) a face centered cubic unit cell.
How many three dimensional lattices are possible and what are they called?
What is the number of nearest neighbors for given lattice point in a facecentered cubic lattice?

Q-7

A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms Q are at the corners of
the cube and P at the body centre. What is the formula of the compounds
and what are the co-ordination numbers of P and Q?

Q-8

Calculate the number of atoms in a cubic based unit-cell having one atom on
each corner and two atoms on each body diagonal.

Q-9

An alloy of gold and cadmium crystallizes with a cubic structure in which

gold atoms occupy the corners and cadmium atoms fit into the face centers.
What formula would you assign to the alloy?

Q-10 Define the term voids.

Q-11 How many tetrahedral and octahedral voids are present in a cubic closepacked structure of A spheres.
Q-12 What is the co-ordination number of an (i) octahedral void and (ii)
tetrahedral void?
Q-13 In a compound B ions form a close packed structure and A ions occupy all
the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Q-14 In a compound B ions form a close packed lattice and A ions occupy
alternate tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Q-15 In a crystalline solid, anions C are arranged in cubic close-packing, cations A
occupy 50% of the tetrahedral voids and cations B occupy 50% of octahedral
voids. What is the formula of the solid?
Q-16 Ferric oxide crystallizes in a hexagonal close packed array of oxide ions with
two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. Derive the
formula of the ferric oxide.
Q-17 A solid has a cubic structure in which X atoms are located at the corners of
the cube, Y atoms are at the cube centers and O atoms are at the edge
centers. What is the formula of the compound?
Page 1 of 57

Q-18 A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallize in the cubic structure

where X atoms are at the centers of the cube and Y atoms are present only
at one set of opposite faces. What is the formula of the compound?
Q-19 A compound formed by elements A and B crystallizes in the cubic structure
where A atoms are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the centre
of the cube. What is the formula of the compounds?
Q-20 A compound forms hexagonal-cubic close packed structure. What is the total
number of voids in 0.5 mol of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids?

ANSWERS
SECTION 1-A:
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9
Q-11
Q-12
Q-13
Q-14
Q-15
Q-16
Q-17
Q-18
Q-19
Q-20

(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 4

14 lattices, Brevais lattices
6
PQ and the co-ordination number of each element is 8.
9 atoms
AuCd3
2A tetrahedral and A octahedral voids
(i) 6 and (ii) 4
A2B
AB
A2BC2
Fe2O3
XYO3
XY
AB
9.033 x 1023 voids;
6.022 x 1023 voids

SECTION 1-B:
Q-1
Q-2

Calculate the percentage of free space in a face-centered cubic unit cell.

Calculate the packing efficiency in case of a metal crystal for face-centered
cubic.

Q-3
Q-4

Calculate the percentage of free space in a body-centered cubic unit cell.

Calculate the packing efficiency in case of a metal crystal for body-centered
cubic.

Q-5
Q-6

Calculate the percentage of free space in a simple cubic unit cell.

Calculate the packing efficiency in case of a metal crystal for simple cubic.

Q-7

An element A crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice with the edge

length of 100 pm. What is the radius of atom A and nearest neighbor
distance in the lattice? What is the length of its face-diagonal?
Page 2 of 57

Q-8

The length of the unit-cell of body-centered cubic metal crystal is 352 pm.
Calculate the radius of an atom of the metal.

Q-9

The face-diagonal of a cubic close packed unit cell is 4 . What is its facelength?

Q-10 Which of the following lattices have the highest packing efficiency: (i) simple
cubic (ii) body-centered cubic and (iii) hexagonal close-packed lattice?

ANSWERS
SECTION 1-B:
Q-1 & Q-2 Descriptive
Q-3 & Q-4 Descriptive
Q-5 & Q-6 Descriptive
Q-7 r = 35.4 pm ; d = 70.8 pm ; 141.6 pm
Q-8 152.4 pm
Q-9 2.83
Q-10 Hexagonal close-packed

SECTION 1-C:
Q-1

What is the number of formula units in a unit cell of CsCl?

Q-3

MgO has NaCl structure and its unit cell edge is 421 pm. Calculate its
density.

Q-4

CuCl has zinc blende structure. Its density is 3.4 gm cm-3. what is the length
of the edge of the unit cell?

Q-5

Copper which crystallizes as a face centered cubic lattice has a density of

8.93 g/cm3 at 20o C. Calculate the length of the unit cell. (atomic mass of Cu
= 63.5 gm mol-1).

Q-6

The density of chromium metal is 7.2 gm cm-3. If the unit cell is cubic with an
edge length of 289 pm, determine the type of the unit cell (simple, bodycentered or face-centered). Atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu.

Q-7

An element crystallizes in BCC structure. The edge of its unit cell is 288 pm.
If the density is 7.2 gm cm-3, calculate the atomic mass of the element.

Q-8

Silver crystallizes in fcc lattice. If edge length of the cell is 4.077 x 10 -8 cm

and density is 10.5 gm cm-3, calculate the atomic mass of silver.

Q-9

Sodium crystallizes in the cubic lattice and the edge length of the unit cell is
430 pm. Calculate the number of atoms in the unit cell. (Atomic mass of Na
= 23 amu, density of sodium = 0.9623 gm cm-3).
Page 3 of 57

Q-10 An element crystallizes in FCC structure. 200 gm of this element has 4.12 x
1024 atoms. The density of A is 7.2 gm cm -3, calculate the edge length of the
unit cell.
Q-11 Calculate the distance between Na+ and Cl- ions in NaCl crystal if the density
is 2.165 gm cm-3. (Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 gm mol-1)
Q-12 Aluminum forms face centered cubic lattice whose unit-cell edge length is
404 pm. Calculate the density of aluminium.
Q-13 Niobium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure. Its density is 8.55
gm cm-3; calculate the atomic radius of niobium. (At. Mass of Nb = 92.91
amu).
Q-14 Aluminum crystallizes in a cubic close structure. Its metallic radius is 125
pm.
(a)
(b)

What is the length of the side of the unit cell?

How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm3 of aluminium?

Q-15 Iron has body centered cubic lattice structure. The edge length of the unit
cell is found to be 286 pm. What is the radius of an iron atom?
Q-16 A solid AB has CsCl type of structure. The edge length of the unit cell is 4.04
. What is the distance of closest approach between A+ and B- ?
Q-17 KF has rock salt structure. Calculate the value of Avogadros number from
the following date:
Density of KF = 2.48 gm cm-3
Distance between K+ and F- in KF = 268 pm
Q-18 The unit cube length fro LiCl (NaCl structure) is 5.41 . Assuming anion
anion contact, calculate the ionic radius of chloride ion.
Q-19 An element has body centered cubic structure with a cell edge of 288 pm.
The density of the element is 7.2 gm cm -3. Calculate the number of atoms
present in 208 gm of the element.
Q-20 Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallizes in face centered unit cell. What
is the length of a side of the unit cell?

ANSWERS
SECTION 1-C:
Q-1
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6

One
3.56 gm cm-3
537 pm
362 pm
No. of atoms per unit cell = 2
Page 4 of 57

Q-7
Q-8
Q-9
Q-10
Q-11
Q-12
Q-13
Q-14
Q-15
Q-16
Q-17
Q-18
Q-19
Q-20

52
107.8 amu
No. of atoms per unit cell = 2
300 pm
282 pm
143 pm
(a) 354 pm
124 pm
3.5
6.07 x 1023
1.82
2.418 x 1024
0.407 nm

(b)

2.26 x 1022 atoms

SECTION 1- D:
Q-1

Analysis show that nickel oxide has formula Ni0.98O1.00 . What fractions of the
nickel exist as Ni2+ and Ni3+ ?

Q-2

The composition of a sample of Wustite is Fe0.93O1.00 . What percentage of

the iron is present in the form of Fe (III) ?

ANSWERS
SECTION 1- E:
Q-1

Fraction of nickel as Ni2+ = 96%

Fraction of nickel as Ni3+ = 4%

Q-2

The percentage of Fe atoms in Fe (III) state = 15.05 %

___________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________
THEORETICAL QUESTIONS:
Q-1

How are solids classified?

Q-2

Define the term amorphous with example.

Q-3

The window panes of the old buildings are thick at the bottom. Why?

Q-4

Differentiate between amorphous and crystalline solids with reference to

(i)
(ii)

Melting point
Cleavage property
Page 5 of 57

(iii)

Nature

Q-5

How are crystalline solids classified on the basis of nature of bonding?

Explain with examples.

Q-6
Q-7

What is a unit cell?

Name three types of cubic unit cells?

Q-8

How many atoms are there in a unit cell of a metal crystallizing in a:

(a)
(b)

Q-9

fcc structure
bcc structure

What is the contribution of an atom per unit cell if the atom is:
(a)
(b)
(c)

At the corner of the cube.

On the face of the cube.
In the centre of the cube.

Q-10 Calculate the no. of atoms in a cubic based unit cell having one atom on
each corner and two atoms on each body diagonal.
Q-11 What is the no. of octahedral and tetrahedral voids present in a lattice?
Q-12 What is the coordination number in:
(a)
(b)

Square close packing

Hexagonal close packing.

Q-13 What is the packing efficiency in:

(a)
(b)
(c)

hcp structure
bcc structure
Simple cubic structure

Q-14 In a compound, B ions form a close packed structure & A ions occupy all
the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Q-15 What is the meaning of term defect with reference to crystal?
Q-16 Define two main types of defects.
Q-17 Name the types of point defect.
Q-18 Which type of ionic substances show?
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
Q-19
Q-20
Q-21
Q-22

Which defect is observed in a solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl? Explain.

Excess of lithium makes LiCl crystal pink. Explain.
What are F centres ?
Give an example which shows both Frenkel and Schottky defects.
Page 6 of 57

Q-23 Define the term doping.

Q-24 What is the meaning of 13 15 compounds?
Q-25 Name an element which can be added to silicon to give a:
(i)
(ii)

p type semiconductor
n type semiconductor.

Q-26 What is the difference between ferromagnetic and paramagnetic

substances?
Q-27 Define the terms Intrinsic semiconductor and extrinsic semiconductor.
Q-28 Give two examples of each:
(a)
(b)
UNIT 2

Ferromagnetic substances
Ferrimagnetic substances
SOLUTIONS

(Marks : 5)

NUMERICALS:
SECTION 2-A:
(Mole-fraction, Molality and Molarity)
Q-1

Calculate the percentage composition in terms of a mass of a solution

obtained by mixing 300 gm of a 25% and 400 gm of a 40% solution by mass.

Q-2

Calculate the mole fractions in a solution that is made up of 20.0 gm of ethyl

alcohol, C2H5OH, and 80.0 gm of water, H2O.

Q-3

Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass in

carbon tetrachloride.

Q-4

A solution is 25% water, 25% ethanol and 50% acetic acid by mass.
Calculate the mole fraction of each component.

Q-5

What is the mole fraction of H2O2 and H2O in 20% aqueous hydrogen
peroxide?

Q-6

A sugar syrup of mass 214.2 gm contains 34.2 gm of sugar. Calculate the

mole fraction of sugar.

Q-7

How many moles of naphthalene are present in 2 liters of 0.05 M

naphthalene dissolved in benzene?

Q-8

Calculate the molarity of each of the following solutions:

(i)

30 gm of Co(NO3)2.6H2O in 4.3 L of solution. (Atomic mass of Co = 59)

Page 7 of 57

(ii)
Q-9

30 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4 diluted to 500 mL

Calculate the volume of water which should be added to 20 mL of 0.65 M HCl

to dilute the solution to 0.2 M.

Q-10 Calculate the amount of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) required to prepare 250
mL of 0.15 M solution in methanol.
Q-11 A solution contains 3.2 gm methanol per 500 cm3 of the solution. Calculate
its molarity.
Q-12 How would you prepare 50 cm3 of 0.001 M potassium dichromate dissolved
in water? (K = 39 amu; Cr = 52 amu).
Q-13 What is the molarity of a solution prepared by mixing 2.5 L of 0.5 M urea
solution and 500 mL of 2 M urea solution?
Q-14 Calculate the molarity of pure water. Density of water is 1.0 gm mL-1.
Q-15 A 12 M HCl solution contains 37% HCl by mass. What is the density of the
solution?
Q-16 0.212 gm sodium carbonate (molecular mass = 106 gm mol -1) is dissolved in
250 cm3 (1 mL = 1 cm3) of solution. Calculate the molarity of sodium
carbonate in solution.
Q-17 When 1 Liter of 0.5 M HCl is heated in a beaker, its volume reduced to 600
mL and 1.825 gm HCl was lost as vapor. Calculate the molarity of the
resulting solution.
Q-18 Concentrated nitric acid used in laboratory work is 68% nitric acid by mass
in aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such a sample of the
acid if the density of the solution is 1.504 g mL1?
Q-19 Determine the molality of solution formed by dissolving 0.85 gm ammonia in
100 gm water.
Q-20 A solution of glucose in water is labeled as 10% w/w, what would be the
molality and mole fraction of each component in the solution? If the density
of solution is 1.2 g mL1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Q-21 An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol (C 2H6O2)
and 200 g of water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of
the solution is 1.072 g mL1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Q-22 Find the molarity and molality of a 15% solution of H2SO4. The density of
H2SO4 solution is 1.10 gm cm-3 and molecular mass of H2SO4 is 98 amu.
Q-23 Calculate the molality of 1 M solution of sodium nitrate. The density of the
solution is 1.25 gm cm-3.
Page 8 of 57

Q-24 Calculate the molality of a solution of 93% H2SO4 (w/v) when the density of
the solution is 1.84 gm cm-3. (Atomic masses: S = 32; O = 16; H = 1)
Q-25 The molarity of a solution of sulphuric acid is 1.35 M. Calculate its molality.
The density of acid solution is 1.02 gm cm-3.
Q-26 Calculate the mole fraction of ethanol and water in a sample of rectified
spirit which contains 46% ethanol by mass.
Q-27 Calculate (a) molality (b) molarity and (c) mole fraction of KI if the density of
20% (mass/mass) aqueous KI is 1.202 g mL-1.
Q-28 An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol (C 2H6O2)
and 200 g of water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of
the solution is 1.072 g mL1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Q-29 A sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with
chloroform (CHCl3) supposed to be a carcinogen. The level of contamination
was 15 ppm (by mass):
(i) Express this in percent by mass
(ii) Determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.
Q-30 If the density of some lake water is 1.25 g mL 1 and contains 92 g of
Na+ ions per kg of water, calculate the molality of Na+ ions in the lake.

ANSWERS
SECTION 2-A:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9
Q-10
Q-11
Q-12
Q-13
Q-14
Q-15
Q-16
Q-17

33.57% (w/w) and 66.43% (w/w)

0.0864 and 0.9136
0.46
0.503, 0.196 and 0.301
XH2O2 = 0.117 ; XH2O = 0.883
0.0999
0.1 mol
(i) 0.024 M (ii) 0.03 M
45 mL
4.575 gm
0.2 M
0.0147 gm
0.75 M
55.55 M
1.19 gm mL-1
0.008 M
0.75 M
Page 9 of 57

Q-18 16.23 M
Q-19 0.5 m
Q-20 0.62 m ; Mole fraction of glucose = 0.011; Mole fraction of water = 0.989 ;
0.67 M
Q-21 17.95 m ; 9.11 M
Q-22 1.68 M ; 1.8 m
Q-23 0.858 m
Q-24 10.43 m
Q-25 1.52 m
Q-26 Xethanol = 0.25
Q-27 (a) 1.506 m
(b) 1.45 M
(c) 0.0263
Q-28 17.95 m ; 9.11 M
Q-29 1.5 105 % ; 1.26 104 m
Q-30 4 m

SECTION 2-B:
(Henrys law of solubility of gases in water)
Q-1

The partial pressure of O 2 in air is 0.20 bar. The solubility of O 2 in water in

presence of air at 250C is 3.2 x 10-4 M. Calculate Henrys constant.

Q-2

The solubility of O2 in water is 0.06945 gm per liter at STP. Calculate the

pressure at which 1 Liter of water dissolves 2.0 gm of oxygen at 00C.

Q-3

The solubility of nitrogen in water is 0.026 gm per liter at 5 0C and 1 atm

pressure. Calculate the mass of nitrogen that can be dissolved per liter water
at 50C and 3.5 atm pressure.

Q-4

The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution containing 6.56 x

10-2 gm of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution contains 5.0 x 10 -2 gm of ethane,
then what shall be the partial pressure of the gas?

Q-5

H2S a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell is used for the quantitative
analysis. If the solubility of H 2S in water at STP is 0.195 m, calculate Henrys
law constant.

Q-6

Henrys law constant for CO2 in water is 1.67 x 108 Pa at 298 K. Calculate the
quantity of CO2 in 500 mL of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO 2
pressure at 298 K.

Q-7

Henrys law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 297 K is 4.27
x 105 mm Hg. Calculate the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under
760 mm Hg.

Q-8

The air is a mixture of number of gases. The major components are oxygen
and nitrogen with approximate proportion of 20% to 79% by volume at 298K.
The water is in equilibrium with air at a pressure of 10 atm at 298 K. If the
Henry law constants for oxygen and nitrogen at 298K are 3.30 x 10 7 mm and
Page 10 of 57

6.51 x 107 mm respectively, calculate the composition of these gases in

water.
Q-9

If O2 is bubbled through water at 393 K, how many milli moles of O 2 gas

would dissolve in 1 liter of water? Assume that O 2 exerts a pressure of 0.95
bar. Given: KH for O2 at 393K = 46.82 bar.

ANSWERS
SECTION 2-B:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9

625 bar / M
28.2 atm
0.091 gm N2
0.762 bar
2.865 x 104 atm
1.8315 gm CO2
1.78 x 10-3 m
XO2 (water) = 4.652 x 10-5
1.126 milli moles

&

XN2 (water) = 9.31 x 10-5

SECTION 2-C:
Colligative Properties:
Q-1

Vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17.535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour

pressure of water at 293K when 25 gm of glucose is dissolved in 450 gm of
water.

Q-2

Urea forms an ideal solution. Determine its vapour pressure of an aqueous

solution containing 10% by mass of urea at 400C.

Q-3

An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar

at the normal boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the
solute?

Q-4

Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures
of the two liquid components are 105.2 k Pa and 46.8 k Pa respectively. What
will be the vapour pressure of a mixture of 26.0 g of heptane and 35 g of
octane?

Q-5

The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 kPa at 300 K. Calculate vapour pressure
of 1 molal solution of a non-volatile solute in it.

Q-6

Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 g mol 1) which

should be dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%.
A solution containing 30 g of non-volatile solute exactly in 90 g of water has
a vapour pressure of 2.8 k Pa at 298 K. Further, 18 g of water is then added

Q-7

Page 11 of 57

to the solution and the new vapour pressure becomes 2.9 k Pa at 298 K.
Calculate:
i.
ii.

molar mass of the solute

Vapour pressure of water at 298 K.

Q-8

A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of 271 K.
Calculate the freezing point of 5% glucose in water if freezing point of pure
water is 273.15 K.

Q-9

Two elements A and B form compounds having formula AB 2 and AB4. When
dissolved in 20 g of benzene (C 6H6), 1 g of AB2 lowers the freezing point by
2.3 K whereas 1.0 g of AB 4 lowers it by 1.3 K. The molar depression constant
for benzene is 5.1 K kg mol1. Calculate atomic masses of A and B.

Q-10 At 300 K, 36 g of glucose present in a liter of its solution has an osmotic

pressure of 4.98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of the solution is 1.52 bars at
the same temperature, what would be its concentration?
Q-11 Calculate the depression in the freezing point of water when 10 gm of
CH3CH2CHClCOOH is added to 250 g of water. Ka = 1.4 103, Kf = 1.86 K kg
mol1.
Q-12 19.5 g of CH2FCOOH is dissolved in 500 g of water. The depression in the
freezing point of water observed is 1.0C. Calculate the vant Hoff factor and
dissociation constant of fluoroacetic acid.
Q-13 100 g of liquid A (molar mass 140 g mol 1) was dissolved in 1000 g of liquid
B (molar mass 180 g mol1). The vapour pressure of pure liquid B was found
to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and its vapour
pressure in the solution if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 475
Torr.
Q-14 Determine the amount of CaCl2 (i = 2.47) dissolved in 2.5 liter of water such
that its osmotic pressure is 0.75 atm at 27C.
Q-15 Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg
of K2SO4 in 2 liter of water at 25 C, assuming that it is completely
dissociated.
Q-16 0.90 gm of a non-electrolyte was dissolved in 87.90 gm benzene. This raised
the boiling point of benzene by 0.25 0C. If the molecular mass of nonelectrolyte is 103.0 gm mol-1, calculate the molal elevation constant for
benzene.
Q-17 On dissolving 3.24 gm of sulphur in 40 gm of benzene, boiling point of
solution was higher than that of benzene by 0.81 K. Kb value of benzene is
2.53 K kg mol-1. What is the molecular formula of sulphur? (Atomic mass of
sulphur = 32 gm mol-1).
Page 12 of 57

Q-18 Estimate the freezing point of an aqueous solution of 0.520 gm glucose,

C6H12O6, dissolved in 80.20 gm of water. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol-1.
Q-19 Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (vitamin C, C 6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75
gm of acetic acid to lower its melting point by 1.50C. Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1.
Q-20 The molal freezing point depression constant of benzene (C 6H6) is 4.90 K kg
mol-1. Selenium is known to exist as a polymer Se x. When 3.26 gm of
selenium is dissolved in 226 gm of benzene, the observed freezing point is
0.1120C lower than for pure benzene. Deduce the molecular formula of
selenium. (Atomic mass of Se = 78.8 gm mol-1).

ANSWERS
SECTION 2-C:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9
Q-10
Q-11
Q-12
Q-13
Q-14
Q-15
Q-16
Q-17
Q-18
Q-19
Q-20

17.44 mm
53.52 mm
41.35 g mol1
73.43 kPa
12.08 kPa.
8 gm
(i) 23 g mol1. (ii) 3.53 kPa
269.06 K
The atomic masses of A and B are 25.59 u and 42.64 u respectively
0.061 mol
0.65 K
i = 1.0753 ; Ka = 3.07 x 10-3
280.7 torr
3.42 gm
5.27 x 10-3 atm
2.514 K kg mol-1
S8
272.933 K
5.0769 gm
Se8

SECTION 2-D:
Vant Hoff factor for associated and dissociated solutes
Q-1

A decimolar solution of potassium ferrocyanide is 50% dissociated at 300K.

Calculate the osmotic pressure of the solution.

Q-2

Assuming complete dissociation, calculate the expected freezing point of a

solution prepared by dissolving 6.0 gm of Glaubers salt (Na 2SO4.10H2O) in
0.10 kg of water. (given for water , Kf = 1.86 k kg mol-1).

Page 13 of 57

Q-3

The freezing point of a solution containing 0.3 gm of acetic acid in 30.0 gm

of benzene is lowered by 0.45 0C. Calculate vant Hoff factor. (K f for benzene
= 5.12 K kg mol-1).

Q-4

The osmotic pressure of a 0.0103 molar solution of an electrolyte is found to

be 0.70 atm at 270C. Calculate the vant Hoff factor (R = 0.082 L atm K-1
mol-1). What conclusion do you draw about the molecular state of the solute
in the solution?

Q-5

2.0 gm of benzoic acid dissolved in 25.0 gm of benzene shows a depression

in freezing point equal to 1.62 K. Molal depression constant (K f) for benzene
is 4.9 k kg mol-1. What is the percentage association of the acid?

Q-6

Calculate the amount of KCl which must be added to 1.0 kg of water so that
its freezing point is depressed by 2.0 K. (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1,
atomic masses K = 39 , Cl = 35.5)

Q-7

The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO 3)2 in a dilute solution containing 7.0 gm

of the salt per 100 gm of water at 100 0C is 70%. If the vapour pressure of
water at 1000C is 760 mm. calculate the vapour pressure of the solution.

Q-8

Acetic acid (CH3COOH) associates in benzene to form dimers. When 1.80 gm

of acetic acid is dissolved in 100 gm of benzene, it raised the boiling point by
0.395 K. calculate the vant Hoff factor and the degree of association of
acetic acid in benzene. (Molal elevation constant of benzene is 2.57 k kg
mol-1).

Q-9

19.5 gm of CH2FCOOH is dissolved in 500 gm of water. The depression in

the freezing point observed is 1.00C. Calculate the vant Hoff factor and
dissociation constant of fluoroacetic acid. Kf for water is 1.86 k kg mol-1.

Q-10 Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg

of K2SO4 in 2.0 liters of water at 25 0C, assuming that it is completely
dissociated.

ANSWERS
SECTION 2-D:
A-1
A-2
A-3
A-4

7.389 atm
271.96 K
0.527
2.76
Since the value of vant Hoff factor (i) is greater than one,
therefore, the
electrolyte undergoes dissociation in solution.

A-5
A-6
A-7
A-8
A-9

99.2 %
40.23 gm
746 atm
vant Hoff factor (i) = 0.512 and degree of association () = 97.6 %
vant Hoff factor (i) = 0.0753 and dissociation constant (Ka) = 2.835 x 10-3
Page 14 of 57

A-10 5.27 x 10-3 atm

UNIT 3

ELECTROCHEMISTRY:

(Marks : 5)

NUMERICALS:
SECTION 3-A:
Q-1

If E0red for copper electrode is +0.34 V. How will you calculate its electrode
potential when it is in contact with 0.1M Cu2+ ions? How does electrode
potential change if concentration of Cu2+ in solution is decreased?

Q-2

What is the electrode potential of Mg2+ / Mg electrode in which

concentration of Mg2+ is 0.01 M?
E0 Mg2+/Mg = - 2.36 V

Q-3

Calculate the Ered of the following electrode:

Pt, Cl2 (1.5 bar) / 2 Cl- (0.01M)

Q-4

Given standard electrode potentials in volts in 1M acidic solution Fe 2+/Fe = 0.4 V; Fe3+/Fe2+ = 0.8 V; Mn2+ / Mn = - 1.2 V ; Mn3+ / Mn2+ = + 1.5 V
(i)
(ii)

Q-5

Comment on relative stability of +2 and +3 oxidation states of iron

and Mn.
Which of the two metals is more easily oxidized to +2 state?

Standard reduction potentials of Li+/Li, Zn2+/Zn, H+/H2, Ag+/Ag are

respectively, - 3.05 V, - 0.762 V, 0.0 V and +0.80 V. Which among
these elements has highest reducing capacity?

Q-6 In which of the following vessel 1 M solution of iron (II) sulphate be

stored?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Cu vessel
Zn vessel
Al vessel

Given:
E0Fe2+/Fe, E0Cu2+/Cu, E0Zn2+/Zn, E0Al3+/Al, are -0.44 V, +0.34 V,
-0.76 V, -1.66 V respectively.
Q-7

Calculate the reduction potential of zinc-zinc ion electrode in which the zinc
ion activity is 0.001 M. Given that E0Zn2+/Zn is 0.76 V.

Q-8

At what pH of HCl solution will hydrogen gas electrode show electrode

potential of -0.118 V? H2 gas is bubbled at 298 K and 1 atm pressure.
Page 15 of 57

Q-9

The standard electrode potential of copper E 0Cu2+/Cu is + 0.34 V. At

what concentration of copper (II) ions the value of electrode
potential be zero?

ANSWERS
SECTION 3-A:
A-1
A-2
A-3
A-4

0.3105 V ; the potential will further decrease.

- 2.42 V
1.483 V
(i)
Fe (II) > Fe (III) because Fe2+ Fe3+ have negative value of E0
whereas
Fe3+ Fe2+ has positive value.
Similarly, Mn(II) > Mn (III)
(ii)

Mn will be more easily oxidized to Mn(II) state.

A-5

Li has highest reducing power because it has least tendency to gain electron
(Li+ + e- Li). On the other hand it has highest tendency to lose electron.

A-6
A-7
A-8
A-9

Only in copper vessel.

-0.848 V
pH = 2
3.0 x 10-12 M

SECTION 3-B:
Q-1

Write Nernst equation and calculate the e.m.f. of the following cell at 298K
Cu (s) | Cu2+ (0.130M) Ag+ (1.0 x 10-4 M) | Ag (s)
Given the values of E0Cu2+/Cu and E0Ag+/Ag as + 0.34 V and + 0.80 V
respectively.

Q-2

A galvanic cell is constructed with E0Ag+/Ag and Fe3+/Fe2+ electrodes. Find the
concentration of Ag+ at which the e.m.f. of the cell is zero at equimolar
concentrations of Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions.
(E0

Q-3

Ag+/Ag

= 0.80 V; E0

Fe3+/Fe2+

= 0.77 V)

Calculate the cell potential of the following cell:

Cr (s) | Cr3+ (0.01 M) Fe3+ (0.01 M) | Fe (s)
E0

Q-4

Cr3+/Cr

= - 0.74 V ; E0

Fe2+/Fe

= - 0.44 V

Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Page 16 of 57

Ni (s) + 2 Ag+ (0.02 M) Ni2+ (0.160 M) + 2 Ag (s)

Given that E0Cell = 1.05 V
Q-5

Calculate the cell potential for the following cell:

Pb (s) | Pb2+ (1.0 x 10-3 M) Pt, Cl2 (1 bar) | Cl- (0.1 M)
Given that E0

Q-6

Pb2+/Pb

= - 0.13 V and E0

Cl2 / Cl-

= 1.358

Represents the cell in which following reaction takes place:

Mg (s) + 2 Ag+ (0.0001M) Mg2+ (0.130 M) + 2 Ag (s)
Calculate its ECell if E0Cell is 3.17 V.

Q-7

Calculate the ECell for the cell with following cell reaction
Sn4+ (1.50 M) + Zn (s) Sn2+ (0.50 M) + Zn2+ (2.0 M)
The value of E0Cell is 0.89 V. If the concentration of Sn4+ is increased what will
happen to cell potential?

Q-8

Write Nernst equation and find out the emf of the following cell:
Pt, Br2 (l) | Br- (0.010 M) H+ (0.030 M) | H2 (1 bar)

Q-9

E0 Br2/2Br- = + 1.80 V
Determine the emf of the galvanic cell given below
Ag | AgNO3 (0.001 M) AgNO3 (0.1 M) | Ag
E0

Ag+/Ag

= 0.80 V

ANSWERS
SECTION 3-B:
A-1
A-2
A-3
A-4
A-5
A-6

0.250 V
[Ag+] = 0.3102 M
0.2804 V
ECell = 0.914 V
1.635 V
Mg (s) | Mg2+ (0.130 M) Ag+ (0.0001 M) | Ag (s) and ECell = 2.96 V

A-7
A-8
A-9

0.895 V ; Increase
- 1.05 V
0.1182 V

Page 17 of 57

SECTION 3-C:
Q-1

Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction:

Ni (s) + Cu2+ (aq) Ni2+ (aq) + Cu (s)
Given the values of E0Ni2+/Ni and E0Cu2+/Cu as 0.25 V and + 0.34 V respectively.

Q-2

Calculate at 250C the equilibrium constant for the reaction

Cu (s) + 2Ag+ (aq) Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
At 250C, E0Cell = 0.46 V and R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1

Q-3

Calculate the equilibrium constant for the following cell reaction

4Br- + O2 + 4H+ 2Br2 + 2H2O
Given that E0Cell = 0.16 V

Q-4

Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction

3Sn4+ + 2Cr 3Sn2+ + 2Cr3+

Q-5

E0 = 0.885 V

Calculate equilibrium constant for the reaction

Cl2 (g) + 2I- (aq) 2Cl- (aq) + I2 (s)
Given that E0Cl2/2Cl- = 1.36 V and E0I2/2I- = 0.536 V

Q-6

Calculate the maximum work that can be obtained from the Daniell cell
Zn | Zn2+ (aq) Cu2+ (aq) | Cu
Given that E0Zn2+/Zn and E0Cu2+/Cu as 0.76 V and + 0.34 V respectively.

Q-7

For a cell,
Mg | Mg2+ (aq) Ag+ (aq) | Ag
calculate the equilibrium constant at 250C and also the maximum work that
can be obtained by operating the cell. (E0Mg2+/Mg = 2.37 V and E0Ag+/Ag = +
0.80 V)

Q-8

The standard emf (E0Cell) of the cell reaction,

3Sn4+ + 2Cr 3Sn2+ + 2Cr3+
is 0.89 V. What is the value of G0 for the reaction?

Page 18 of 57

ANSWERS
SECTION 3-C:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8

Kc = 1.0 x 1020
Kc = 3.92 x 1015
Kc = 7.01 x 1010
Kc = 1.0 x 1090
Kc = 8.556 x 1027
Wmax = 212.30 kJ
Kc = 2.864 x 10107
G0 = 515.31 kJ

and Wmax = 611.81 kJ

SECTION 3-D:
Q-1

The conductivity of 2 M KCl solution is 0.3704 S cm -1. The resistance of 2 M

KCl solution in a conductivity cell is 1.5 ohm. What is the cell constant of the
conductivity cell?

Q-2

The conductivity of an aqueous solution of sodium chloride in a cell is 92

ohm cm-1. The resistance offered by this cell is 247.8 ohm. Calculate the cell
constant for this cell.

Q-3

A 0.05 M NaOH solution offered a resistance of 31.6 ohm in a conductivity

cell. If the cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm -1, find out the molar
conductivity of the sodium hydroxide solution.

Q-4

The resistance of a conductivity cell with 0.1 M KCl solution is 200 ohm.
When the same cell is filled with 0.02 M NaCl solution, the resistance is 1100
ohms. Given that the conductivity of 0.1 M KCl solution is 1.29 ohm-1 m-1.
Calculate the cell constant and molar conductivity of 0.02 M NaCl solution.

Q-5

The molar conductivity of CH3COONa, HCl and NaCl at infinite dilution is 91,
426.16 and 126.45 S cm2 mol-1. Calculate m for CH3COOH.

Q-6

Molar conductivity of 0.1 M NH 4OH solution is 3.6 S cm 2 mol-1. Molar

conductivity of NH4OH at infinite dilution is 271.1 S cm 2 mol-1. Calculate the
degree of dissociation of 0.1 M NH4OH.

Q-7

Conductivity of 0.00241 M acetic acid is 7.896 x 10 -5 S cm2 mol-1. Calculate

its molar conductivity. If 0m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol-1, what would
be its dissociation constant ?

Q-8

The specific conductance of 10-2 M acetic acid solution at 27 0C is 1.65 x 10-4

S cm-1. If 0 (H+) and 0 (CH3COO-) is 349.1 and 40.9 S cm 2 mol-1
respectively, then calculate dissociation constant (Ka) of acetic acid.

Page 19 of 57

ANSWERS
SECTION 3-D:
A-1
A-2
A-3
A-4
A-5
A-6
A-7
A-8

0.5556 cm-1
22797.6 cm-1
232.3 ohm cm-1
Cell Constant = 258 m-1 and m = 117.5 S cm2 mol-1
390.71 S cm2 mol-1
= 0.0133 or 1.33 %
m = 32.76 S cm2 mol-1 and Ka = 1.85 x 10-5
= 0.0423 or 4.23 % and Ka = 1.85 x 10-5

SECTION 3-E:
Q-1

How many coulombs are required to for the following oxidations:

(i)
(ii)

1 mol of H2O to O2
1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3

Q-2

How many electrons are required to reduce one gram mole of Na + to Na

metal?

Q-3

How many faradays are needed to reduce three gram mole of Cu 2+ to Cu

metal?

Q-4

A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a

current of 5 ampere for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the
cathode?
How much electricity in terms of faraday is required to produce:

Q-5

(i)
(ii)
Q-6

20.0 gm of Ca from molten CaCl2, and

40.0 gm of Al from molten Al2O3

Consider the reaction:

Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 6e- 2 Cr3+ + 8H2O
what is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mol of
Cr2O72- ?

Q-7

How many hours does it take to reduce 3 mol of Fe 3+ to Fe2+ with 2.0 A
current?

Q-8

Three electrolytic cells A, B and C containing electrolytes zinc sulphate,

silver nitrate and copper sulphate respectively, were connected in series. A
steady current of 1.50 ampere was passed through them until 1.45 gm of
silver were deposited at the cathode of cell B.
(i)
(ii)

How long did the current flow?

What weight of copper and zinc were deposited?
Page 20 of 57

Q-9

How many electrons flow when a current of 5 ampere is passed through a

solution for 2 hours? Given: F = 96500 C; NA = 6.022 x 1023 mol-1

Q-10 Silver is electrodeposited on a metallic vessel of surface area of 900 cm 2 by

passing a current of 0.5 amperes for 2 hours. Calculate the thickness of
silver deposited, given density is 10.5 g/cm3. (Atomic weight of Ag = 108)
Q-11 There are two possible anode reactions in the electrolysis of aqueous sodium
chloride:
(i)

2Cl- (aq) Cl2 (g) + 2e-

(ii)

2H2O (l) O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e- ;

E0 = 1.36 V

E0 = 1.23 V

Which reaction actually occurs in the electrolysis of aqueous sodium

chloride?
Q-12 There are two possible cathode reactions in the electrolysis of aqueous
sodium chloride:
Na+ (aq) + e- Na (s)
;
E0 = - 2.71 V
2H2O (l) + 2e H2 (g) + 2OH (aq) ;
E0 = - 0.83 V
Which reaction takes place preferentially and why?
Q-13 Explain why electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl gives H 2 at cathode and
Cl2 at anode. Write over all reaction.
E

Na+ / Na

= - 2.71 V

H2O/H2

= - 0.83 V

Cl2 / Cl-

= + 1.36 V

H+ / O2 / H2O

= 1.23 V

Q-14 What are the products of electrolysis of molten and aqueous sodium
chloride?
Q-15 There are two possible cathode reactions in the electrolysis of aqueous zinc
chloride:
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e- Zn (s)

E0 = - 0.76 V

2H2O (l) + 2e- H2 (g) + 2OH- (aq)

E0 = - 0.83 V

Which reaction actually occurs in the electrolysis of aqueous zinc chloride?

Q-16 In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium bromide, there are two possible anode
reactions:
2H2O (l) O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e- ;
2Br- (aq) Br2 (g) + 2e;

E0 = 1.23 V
E0 = 1.08 V
Page 21 of 57

Which reaction occurs at anode?

Q-17 Predict the products of electrolysis of each of the following on each
electrode:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with silver electrodes.

An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with platinum (inert) electrodes
An aqueous solution of CuSO4 with copper electrodes.
An aqueous solution of CuSO4 with platinum (inert) electrodes
A dilute aqueous solution of H2SO4
An aqueous acidified solution of cupric chloride using platinum
electrodes.

ANSWERS
SECTION 3-E:
A-1
A-2
A-3
A-4
A-5
A-6
A-7
A-8
A-9
A-10
A-11

(i)
1.93 x 105 C
(ii)
96500 C
6.022 x 1023 electrons
6 faradays
1.803 gms
(i)
1F
(ii)
4.44 F
459000 C
42.208 hours
(i)
t = 865 seconds
(ii)
0.427 gm of Cu & 0.44 gm of Zn
2.2465 x 1023 electrons
4.26 x 10-4 cm
In competing electrolysis, the reaction that occurs at anode is the one which
has lower reduction potential. BUT, in this case, reaction (i) occurs:
2Cl- (aq) Cl2 (g) + 2e-

E0 = 1.36 V

Reaction (ii) does not occur because it is slow kinetically. It can be made to
occur if extra voltage known as over-voltage is applied.
A-12 In competing electrolysis, the reaction that occurs at cathode is the one
which has higher reduction potential. Therefore, water is reduced to
hydrogen at cathode:
2H2O (l) + 2e- H2 (g) + 2OH- (aq)
A-13 Based on Q-11 and Q-12
A-14

1.

Molten NaCl:

2.

Aqueous NaCl:

at anode Cl2

and

at cathode

Na
at anode Cl2

and

at cathode H2

A-15 Zn2+ has higher reduction potential (-0.76V) than H2O (-0.83V) and
therefore, Zn2+ ion is reduced to zinc preferentially at cathode.
Page 22 of 57

A-16 The anode reaction that occurs is the one which ahs lower reduction
potential. Br- (aq) has lower reduction potential (1.08V) than water (1.23V)
and therefore, Br- ion is oxidized to bromine gas.

UNIT 4

CHEMICAL KINETICS

(Marks : 5)

NUMERICALS:
SECTION 4 A:
Q-1

Describe the relationship between rate of reaction, rate of disappearance of

X, Y and rate of appearance of X2Y3 in the reaction
2X + 3Y X2Y3

Q-2

A gaseous hypothetical reaction, 2A 4B + C is carried out in a closed

vessel. The concentration of B is found to increase by 5.0 x 10-3 mol L-1 in 10
seconds. Calculate:

(a)
(b)
(c)

rate of appearance of B
rate of reaction, and
rate of disappearance of A
Q-3

For the reaction,

2N2O5 (g) 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
if the concentration of NO2 increases by 3.0 x 10-3 mol L-1 in six seconds,
then what is the rate of reaction?

Q-4

The following reaction was carried out in water:

Cl2 + 2I- 2Cl- + I2
The initial concentration of I- was 0.50 mol L-1 and the concentration after 10
minutes was 0.46 mol L-1 . Calculate the rate of disappearance of I- and rate
of appearance of iodine.

Q-5

The rate of formation of nitric oxide (NO) in the following reaction is 3.6 x 103
mol L-1 sec-1.
4NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) 4NO (g) + 6H2O (g)
Find the rate of disappearance of oxygen.

Q-5

Express the rates of the following reactions in terms of the concentrations of

reactants and products:
(i)
(ii)

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

N2 + 3H2 2NH3
Page 23 of 57

(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Q-6

2NO2 + F2
2NO2F
2N2O5
4NO2 + O2
2ICl (g) + H2 (g)
I2 (g) + 2HCl

For the following gaseous reaction,

2NO2
(i)
(ii)

Q-7

2NO + O2
Write the expression for the rate of the reaction.
If the rate of decrease of concentration of NO2 is 4.0 x 10-13 sec-1,
what are corresponding rates of increase in NO and O2
concentrations?

Dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) decomposes into NO2 according to the equation:

N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
If the pressure of N2O4 falls from 0.46 atm to 0.28 atm in 30 minutes, what is
the rate of appearance of NO2?

Q-8

For the decomposition of Dinitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) at 200 0C:

N2O5 (g) N2O4 (g) + O2 (g)
if the initial pressure is 114 mm and after 25 minutes of reaction the total
pressure of gaseous mixture is 133 mm, calculate the average rate of
reaction in (a) atmosphere min-1 and (b) mol L-1 sec-1.

Q-9

For the reaction R P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0.03 M

to 0.02 M in 25 minutes. Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of
time both in minutes and seconds.

Q-10 In a reaction, 2A Products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol

L1 to 0.4 mol L1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the rate during this interval?

ANSWERS
SECTION 4-A:
A-2
A-3
A-5
A-7
mol

(a)
5.0 x 10-4 mol L-1 sec-1
(b)
1.25 x 10-4 mol L-1 sec-1
(c)
2.5 x 10-4 mol L-1 sec-1
1.25 x 10-4 mol L-1 sec-1 A-4 0.004 mol L-1 min-1 and 0.002 mol L-1 min-1
4.5 x 10-3 mol L-1 sec-1
A-6 (i)
4.0 x 10-13 mol L-1 sec-1
(ii) 2.0 x 10-13 mol L-1 sec-1
1.2 x 10-2 atm min-1
A-8 (a)
0.002 atm min-1 (b)
8.58 x 10-7
-1
-1
L sec
Hint:

N2O5 (g)

N2O4 (g)

O2 (g)
Page 24 of 57

Initial Conc.
After 25 minutes

114 mm
114

( = Change in pressure due to decomposition of N2O5)

Solve and calculate.
A-9 4.0 x 10-4 mol L-1 min-1
and
6.67 x 10-6 mol L-1 s-1
1
1
-3
A-10 0.005 mol L min
and 5 x 10 mol L-1 min-1

SECTION 4-B:
Q-1

(a)

Draw a schematic graph showing how the rate of a first order reaction
changes with change in concentration of the reactants.

(b)

Rate of reaction is given by the equation:

Rate = k [A]2[B]2
What are the units for rate and rate constant for this reaction?

Q-2

State the order w.r.t. each reactant, order of overall reaction and units of
rate constants in each of the following reactions:
(a)

(b)
[CO]2[Cl2]1/2
(c)
Q-3

Q-5

2NO + Br2 2NOBr

Rate = k [H2O2]
Rate = k
Rate = k [NO]2[Br2]

Identify the reaction order from each of the following rate constants:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Q-4

H2O2 + 3I- + 2H+ 2H2O + I3- (aq)

[I-]
CO + Cl2 COCl2

k = 3.1 x 10-4 s-1

k = 4.2 x 10-5 L mol-1 s-1
k = 6.5 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1

The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If

concentration of X is increased to three times how will it affect the rate of
formation of Y?
The decomposition of dimethyl ether leads to the formation of CH4, H2 and
CO and the reaction rate is given by
Rate = k [CH3OCH3]3/2
The rate of reaction is followed by increase in pressure in a closed vessel, so
the rate can also be expressed in terms of the partial pressure of dimethyl
ether, i.e.,
Rate = k [ pCH3OCH3]3/2
Page 25 of 57

If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then what are the
units of rate and rate constants?
Q-6

A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of

reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is
(i) doubled

Q-7

(ii)

reduced to half?

A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.

(i) Write the differential rate equation.

(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of B

three times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and
B are doubled?
Q-8

Show by using rate law, how much the rate of reaction

2NO (g) + O2

NO2 (g)

will change if the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced to 1/3rd.

Q-9

Give an example of a pseudo first order reaction.

Q-10 For a reaction A

B, the rate of reaction becomes twenty seven
times when the concentration of A is increased three times. What is
the order of the reaction?
Q-11 The initial rate of the reaction,
A + B2 C2 + D
is doubled if the initial concentration of A is doubled, but is quadrupled if the
initial concentration of B2 is doubled:
(i)
(ii)

What is the order with respect to each of the reactants?

What is the overall order of the reaction?

ANSWERS
SECTION 4-B:
A-1

(a)
Page 26 of 57

(b)
A-2

mol L-1
(a)
(b)
(c)

A-3

A-4
A-5
A-6
A-7

(i)
(ii)
(iv)

and mol L-1 sec-1

Overall Order, n = 2
Units of k = mol-1 L sec-1
Overall Order, n = 2.5
Units of k = mol-3/2 L3/2 sec-1
Overall Order, n = 3
Units of k = mol-2 L2 sec-1
1st Order
nd
2 Order
Zero Order

The rate of formation will increase by 9 times.

Unit of rate = bar min1
Unit of rate constant, k = bar-1/2 min-1
(i)
The rate of the reaction would increase by 4 times.
(ii)
The rate of the reaction would be reduced to 1/4th.
(i)

The differential rate

equation:

(ii)
(iii)

The rate of reaction will increase 9 times.

The rate of reaction will increase 8 times.

A-8 The rate of reaction will increase 27 times.

A-9 Acid catalyzed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is an example of a pseudo first
order reaction:
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O

CH3COOH + C2H5OH

A-10 Order of the reaction, n = 3

A-11 Order of the reaction w.r.t A = 1
Order of the reaction w.r.t B = 2

SECTION 4-C:
Q-1 Give the units of rate constants of 1 st order, 2nd order, 3rd order and nth order
reaction.
Q-2

What is meant by half-life period? Calculate the half-life period of a first

order reaction where the specific rate constant is 200 sec-1.

Q-3

The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction

N2O5 (g) 2NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
Page 27 of 57

was 1.24 x 10-2 mol L-1 at 318K. The concentration of N 2O5 after 60 minutes
was 0.20 x 10-2 mol L-1. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318K.
Q-4

12.75% of a reaction of first order was completed in 32 minutes. Calculate

the rate constant of the reaction.

Q-5

A first order reaction is 40% complete in 50 minutes. Calculate the value of

rate constant. In what time will the reaction be 80% complete?

Q-6

A reaction that is of first order with respect to a reactant A, has a rate

constant
6.0 x 10-2 min-1. If we start with [A] = 0.5 mol L -1, when would [A] reach the
value
0.05 mol L-1?

Q-7

The half life period of a first order reaction is 100 sec. Calculate its rate
constant.

Q-8

The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological

artifact containing wood had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree.
Estimate the age of the sample.

Q-9

The t1/2 of a first order reaction is 60 minutes. What percentage will be left
after 240 minutes?

Q-10 Show that in a first order reaction, time taken for completion of
99.9% is 10 times of half-life (t1/2) of the reaction.
Q-11 The half life period for a first order reaction is 100 sec. How long will it take
for two-third of the reaction to be completed?
Q-12 The decomposition of H2O2 is a first order reaction. Calculate the half change
time and the rate constant for the decomposition from the fact the fraction
decomposed at end of 50 minutes is 0.75.
Q-13 Rate constant for first order reaction has been found to be 5.4 x 10 -4 sec-1.
Calculate its two-third change time (t2/3).
Q-14 A first order reaction is 75% complete in 60 minutes. Find t0.5 of the reaction.
Q-15 A first order reaction is 15% complete in 20 minutes. How long will it take to
be 60% complete?
Q-16 A first order reaction takes 5 minutes for the initial concentration of 0.6 mol
L-1 to become 0.4 mol L-1. How long will it take to become 0.3 mol L-1?
Q-17 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10 -3 sec-1. How much time
will it take for 10 g of the reactant to reduce to 2.5 g?

Page 28 of 57

Q-18 A first order reaction has k equal to 1.5 x 10 -6 sec-1 at 2400C. If the reaction
is allowed to run for 10 hours, what percentage of the initial concentration
would have changed into products? What is the half-life period of this
reaction?
Q-19 The rate constant for a zero order reaction is 0.25 mol L -1 hour-1.
What will be the initial concentration of the reactant if after 30
minutes its concentration is 0.075 mol L-1?
Q-20 A reaction is of first order w.r.t. reactant A with a rate constant of 6 min -1. If
we start with [A] = 0.5 mol L-1, when would [A] reach the value 0.05 mol L-1?
Q-21 During nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with half-life of 28.1
years. If 1g of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead
of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years and 60 years if it is not
lost metabolically.

ANSWERS
SECTION 4-C:
A-1

Unit for rate constant, k for:

1st order reaction =
2nd order reaction =
3rd order reaction =
nth order reaction

A-2

Half life, t1/2 =

A-3

k = 0.0304 min-1

A-4

k = 1.048 x 10-3 s-1

sec-1
mol-1 L s-1
mol-2 L2 s-1
=
(mol L-1)1-n s-1

3.47 sec (approximately)

k = 0.0102 min-1 and 157.6 min

38.4 min
k = 6.93 x 10-3 sec-1
1845 years (approximately)
6.25%
300 sec
25 minutes and 2.77 x 10-2 min-1
2.01 x 103 sec.
30 minutes
112.72 minutes
8.55 minutes
1386 sec.
5.2% of the initial concentration has changed into products
4.62 x 105 sec.
A-19 [R0] = 0.2 mol L-1
A-5
A-6
A-7
A-8
A-9
A-11
A-12
A-13
A-14
A-15
A-16
A-17
A-18

and

t 1/2 =

Page 29 of 57

A-20 0.383 minutes

A-21 0.7814 g of 90Sr will remain after 10 years
remain after 60 years.

and

0.2278 g of

90

Sr will

SECTION 4-D:
Q-1

The rate of a reaction triples when the temperature changes from 20 0C to

500C. Calculate the energy of activation. (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1).

Q-2

The rate of a reaction is found to quadruples when temperature changes

from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation for such a reaction.

Q-3

The specific rate constant for the reaction of H 2 to I2 to form HI is 0.43 at 673
K. If the activation energy is 171.5 kJ mol -1, what is the rate constant at 773
K?

Q-4

The decomposition of A into product has value of k as 4.5 103 s1 at 10C

and energy of activation 60 kJ mol 1. At what temperature would k be 1.5
104 s1?

Q-5

The activation energy of a first order reaction at 27 0C is 54 kJ mol-1.

In the presence of a catalyst the activation energy of the same
reaction lowers to 44 kJ mol -1 at 270C. How many times the reaction
rate changes in the presence of a catalyst at 270C?

Q-6

The activation energy of reaction is 75.2 KJ/mol in the absence of a

catalyst and 50.14 kJ/mol in the presence of a catalyst. How many
times will the reaction grow in the presence of a catalyst, if the
reaction proceeds at 250C?

Q-7

The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 x 10 7 sec-1 at 500C and 4.5 x

107 sec-1 at 1000C. Evaluate the Ea and Arrhenius parameter A.

ANSWERS
SECTION 4-D:
A-1

Ea = 28.8 kJ mol-1

A-2

52.86 kJ mol-1

A-3

22.66

A-4

297 K or 240C

A-5

55 times

A-6

24650 times
Page 30 of 57

A-7

Ea = 22.01 kJ mol-1

A = 5.443 x 1010 sec-1

THEORY QUESTIONS:
1.
2.
4.
5.

Define the rate of reaction?

What is average rate of a reaction?
What is instantaneous rate of a reaction?
For the following reactions, write the rate of reaction expression in terms
of reactants and products?
(i)
(ii)

6.
7.
8.
9.
[B]3/2
10.

4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4NO (g) + 6H2O (g)

2N2O5 2NO2 + O2

Define the terms: (i)

Order of a reaction
(ii) Molecularity of a reaction.
What are elementary and complex reactions?
Differentiate between order and molecularity of a reaction?
Determine the overall order of a reaction which has the rate law R = K [A] 5/2
What are the units of a rate constant of a:
(a) First order reaction
(b) nth order reaction.

11.

Identify the reaction order for from each of the following rate constant:
(a) k = 2.3 10-5 L mol-1 s-1
(b) k = 3.1 10-4 s-1

12.

Consider the equation:

2 NO (g) +

2H2 (g)

N2 (g)

2H2O (g)

The rate law for this equation is first order with respect to H 2 and second
order with respect to NO. Write the rate law for this reaction.
13.

The rate Law for the reaction A + B C is rate = K [A]2 [B] . What
would the reaction rate be when concentration of both A and B are doubled?

13.

Write the integrated rate equation for:

(i)
(ii)

Zero order reaction.

First order reaction.

14.

Give an example of pseudo first order reaction?

15.

Write the expression for half life period of a first order reaction?

16.

Write Arrhenius equation.

Page 31 of 57

17.

What is the effect of catalyst on rate constant?

18.

How does the number of collisions change on increasing the temperature?

19.

There is no bar on the no. of collisions among the reacting species. Why
most of the reactions do not take place under normal conditions?

UNIT 5

SURFACE CHEMISTRY (Marks : 4)

1.

What do you mean by the term Adsorption ?

2.

Explain the terms Adsorbate and Adsorbent ?

3.

Give some example of adsorbate and adsorbent ?

4.

Define the term desorption?

5.

Give two differences between adsorption and absorption ?

6.

Write the four differences between physisorption and chemisorption?

9.

Adsorption is an exothermic process . Explain.

10. (a)
carbon

Which gas is adsorbed more readily on charcoal lump: ammonia or

dioxide and why ?

(b)
13.

Which adsorbs more of carbon monoxide: charcoal lump or charcoal

powder & why?

Name the factors which influence the extent of adsorption of a gas on solid.
Page 32 of 57

14.

What is adsorption isotherm?

15.

H for chemisorption is high. Why?

16.

Explain Freundlich adsorption isotherm.

17.

Give an equation showing

concentration of a solution?

18.

Name the adsorbent used:

(a)
(b)
(c)

variation

of

extent

of

adsorption

with

To remove coloured impurities from sugar solution.

In gas masks to remove chlorine.
To remove moisture from air.

19.

Define the terms catalysis and catalyst.

20.

What are positive and negative catalysts?

21. What are homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis? Give

example.
23.

What is meant by activity and selectivity of a catalyst?

25. What is shape selective catalysis? Give an example of shape

selective catalyst.
29.

Name some important industrial catalytic process and their catalysts.

32.

Give two examples of reactions catalysed by zeolites.

33.

What are colloids? What is the range of particle size in colloids?

35. What is dispersed phase and dispersion medium in (i) sol (ii)
Aerosol (iii) Foam?
36.

Give two examples of solid Sol and Gel?

37.

Differentiate between lyophobic and lyophillic sol?

39.

Give two examples of substances that form:

(a)
(b)

Hydrophobic sol.
Hydrophilic sol.

40.

Differentiate between multimolucular and macromolecular colloid?

41.

What are associated colloids? Give an example?

42.

What is CMC and Krafts temperature?

Page 33 of 57

43.

Write the equation for formation of:

(a)
(b)

Sulphur sol.
Ferric hydroxide sol.

44.

Define the term peptization?

45.

How is a colloidal solution purified by dialysis?

46.

What is observed when light is passed through a colloidal solution?

47.

Define the terms (a) Brownian movement (b) Electrophoresis?

48.

State Hardy- Schulze rule?

49.

What is flocculation (or coagulation) ?

50.

Which of the following electrolytes is most effective for the coagulation of (a)
Ferric oxide sol, and (b)
As2O3 sol :
NaCl, Na2SO4, Na3PO4, K2SO4

51.

Alum is used for purification of water. Why?

52.

Give three applications of colloidal solutions?

53.

What are the two types of emulsions?

54.

How does an emulsifying agent work? Give an example of emulsifying agent.

55. Why alum is used to stop bleeding ? OR Why FeCl3 is used to stop
bleeding ?

UNIT 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of

Elements
Q-1

Differentiate between minerals and ores.

Q-2

What is the role of depressant in froth floatation process ?

Q-3

What are depressants ? How does NaCN act as depressant in preventing ZnS
from forming froth ?

Q-4

Describe the role of NaCN in the extraction of silver from a silver ore.

Page 34 of 57

Q-5

The ore galena (PbS) is contaminated with zinc blende (ZnS). Name one
chemical which can be used to concentrate galena by froth floatation
process.

Q-6

Giving examples, differentiate between roasting and calcination.

Q-7

State the role of silica (SiO2) in the metallurgy of copper.

Q-8

What is the role of :

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Q-9

Silica in the extraction of copper

Cryolite in the metallurgy of Al
Lime stone in the metallurgy of iron.

Why is froth floatation method selected for the concentration of sulphide

ores ?

Q-10 What is meant by the term pyrometallurgy ?

Q-11 Describe a method for refining nickel OR role of carbon monoxide in the
purification of nickel.
Q-12 Write the chemical equations for :
(i)
(ii)

Mond process
van Arkel method

Q-13 Name the method used for refining of :

(i)
(ii)

Nickel
Zirconium

Q-14 Describe the role of following:

(i)
(ii)

Iodine in the refining of titanium

NaCN in the extraction of gold from gold ore.

Q-15 Describe how the following changes are brought about:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Pig iron into steel

Impure titanium to pure titanium
Zinc oxide to metallic zinc

Q-16 What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium ?

Q-17 What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Q-18 Outline the principles of refining of metals by the following methods:
(i)
(ii)

Zone refining
Vapour phase refining
Page 35 of 57

(iii)

Electrolytic refining

Q-19 What do you mean by vapour phase refining ? Describe van Arkel method
used for purification of metals.
Q-20 Answer the following:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
gallium ?
(iv)

Which process is commonly used for the concentration of sulphid ore ?

Which metal is refined by van Arkel method ?
Which method is used to get extremely pure form of silicon and
Complete and balance the following reactions:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)

UNIT 7

Al2O3 + NaOH
Al(OH)3 + Heat
Cu2S + Cu2O
Ag2S + NaCN
FeO + SiO2
Cr2O3 + Al
Fe2O3 + Al
CuO + Mg
SnO2 + C
ZnO + C
CaO2 + SiO2
Ni + CO

P BLOCK ELEMENTS

(Marks : 8)

SECTION 7-A:
Q-1

What is inert-pair effect with reference to the chemistry of Group 15

elements?
Page 36 of 57

Q-3
Q-6
Q-7
Q-9
Q-11
Q-16
Q-17
Q-18

Why does nitrogen not form NCl5 although it possesses 5 valence electrons?
Or, PCl5 is known but NCl5 is not. Explain.
Or, Nitrogen does not form any pentahalide like phosphorus. Explain.
Why does R3P = O exist but R3N = O does not (R = Alkyl group)?
SbF5 is known whereas BiF5 is not known. Explain.
Why bismuth is strong oxidizing agent in pentavalent state?
Molecular nitrogen, N2, is not reactive. Give reason.
Or, N2 is a fairly inert gas. Give reason.
Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule whereas phosphorus exists as tetra
atomic molecule, P4. Explain.
Why is melting point of red phosphorus higher than that of white
phosphorus?
Give reason:
(a)
Thermal stability of Group 15 hydrides decreases in descending down
the group.
(b)
Basicity of Group 15 hydrides decreases in descending down the
group.
(c)
PH3 is a weaker base than NH3.
(d)
The order of boiling points of Group 15 hydrides is:
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(e)
Ammonia has higher boiling point than phosphene.
(f)
NH3 form hydrogen bonds but PH3 does not.
(g)
Ammonia is soluble in water whereas other Group 15 hydrides are
insoluble.
(h)
The reducing character of Group 15 hydrides decreases in descending
down the group.

Q-24 Write the reaction of thermal decomposition of sodium azide.

Q-26 Mention the conditions required to maximize the yield of ammonia by
Habers process.
Q-27 How does ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ions?
Q-28 What is co-valence of N in N2O5?
Q-29 Give electron dot structure of NO2.
Q-33 Why does PCl3 fumes in moist air?
Q-34 H3PO3 is diprotic (or dibasic). Why?
Q-36 Describe the method of isolation of elemental phosphorus from Ca3(PO4)2.
Q-38 What happens when PCl5 is heated?
Q-39 What is basicity of H3PO4?
Q-40 What happens when H3PO3 is heated?
Q-41 Complete the following reactions:
(i)

Ca3P2

+ H2O

(ii)

P4 + KOH

Q-42 Write structures of the following compounds:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

P4O6
P4O10
H3PO2
H3PO3
Page 37 of 57

(v)

H3PO4

Q-43 Describe Ostwalds process for the manufacture of nitric acid. Write
balanced equations.
Q-45 State giving equations what happens when copper reacts with:
(i)
(ii)

dil. HNO3
conc. HNO3.

Q-47 Why is white phosphorus kept under water?

Q-48 How is phosphene prepared in the laboratory?
Q-49 Bond angle in PH4+ is higher than that in PH3. Why?
Q-50 What is the formula of phosphorus (V) chloride in the (i) gaseous state and
(ii) solid state?
Q-51 H3PO2 behaves as a monoprotonic acid. Give reason.

SECTION 7-B:
Q-1
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5

Why does Sulphur in vapor state exhibit paramagnetic behavior.

Which has larger bond angle: H2S or H2O and why?
Why is H2O a liquid while H2S is a gas at room temperature?
Thermal stability of Group 16 hydrides decreases down the group from H2O
to H2Po. Give reason.
Q-6 Acidic character increases from H2S to H2Te.
Q-7 Reducing character of Group 16 hydrides increases from H2O to H2S.
Q-9 H2S is a better reducing agent than water. Explain.
Q-10 Why is oxygen a gas whereas Sulphur a solid at room temperature?
Q-11 Draw the structures of oxo-acids of Sulphur.
Q-14 What happens when ozone reacts with potassium iodide solution?
Q-15 What happens when ozone reacts with moist iodine?
Q-16 What happens when SO2 reacts with (i) acidified KMnO4 solution and (ii)
acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
Q-17 Describe the manufacture of sulphuric acid by Contact process. (Write
balanced chemical equations).

SECTION 7-C:

Page 38 of 57

Q-18 Find
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

the oxidation state of halogen in the following compounds:

Cl2O
ClO2
KBrO2
NaClO4

Q-19 Why is the bond dissociation enthalpy of fluorine less than that of
chlorine?
Q-21 Although electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative as
compared to chlorine,
fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than
chlorine. Why?
Q-22 How is it that HF is the least volatile and HCl the most volatile among
hydrogen halides?
Or, Why HF liquefies more easily than HCl?
Or, Why is HF a liquid whereas hydrides of other halogens are gases at
room temperature?
Or, Hydrogen fluoride has higher boiling point than hydrogen chloride.
Give reason.
Q-26 Arrange the hydrogen halides in the decreasing order of thermal stability.
Give reasons
for the same.
Q-27 Arrange the hydrogen halides in the increasing order of reducing power. Give
reasons.
Q-28 In aqueous solution, hydrofluoric acid is a weaker acid than hydrochloric
acid. Give reason.
Q-29 NO2 readily forms a dimer whereas ClO2 does. Give reason.
Q-30 Chlorine on passing through HI liberates I2 but iodine does not liberate
chlorine from
HCl. Why?
Q-32 Identify X in the following reaction:
Cl2 + 2X 2Cl + X2
Q-33 Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength. Justify
your answer
with reason: HBrO, HClO, HIO
Q-34 Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength. Justify
your answer
with reason: HClO3, HClO2, HClO, HClO4
Q-35 Describe the reaction of chlorine with ammonia.
Q-36 How does chlorine react with alkalis?
Q-37 Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of Cl2 with
hot and conc. NaOH. Is this reaction a disproportionation reaction?
Justify.
Q-39 Why are interhalogen compounds more reactive than molecular halogens?
Q-40 Draw the structures of the following molecules:
(i)
BrF3
(ii)
IF7
Q-41 Arrange HClO4, HIO4 and HBrO4 in the order of their increasing oxidizing
ability.
Page 39 of 57

Q-42 Which one among the following is the strongest oxidizing agent: ClO4- , BrO4and IO4Q-43 Arrange the following in the decreasing order of property indicated:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

F2, Cl2, Br2, I2

HF, HCl, HBr, HI
:
M F, M Cl, M Br, M I
ClO4- , BrO4- , IO4:

:
Bond energy
Acid strength in water
:
Ionic character
Oxidizing power

Section 7 D:
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3

Why do noble gases have very low boiling points?

What prompted N. Bartlett for carrying out reaction between Xe and PtF6.
Give the formula and describe the structure of a noble gas species which is
iso-structural with:
(i)

Q-4
Q-5
Q-6

ICl4

(iii)

(i)

XeF2

(ii)
(iii)

XeF4

+
XeF4

H2O
+ 12 H2O

XeF6
XeF6
XeF6

+
+
+

BrO3

2 H2O

H2O
2 H2O
3 H2O

Complete and balance the following chemical equations:

(i)
(ii)
(ii)

Q-8

IBr2

Why only F and O form compounds with the inert gas Xenon?
Most of the known noble gas compounds are those of xenon, why?
Give balanced chemical equations for the following:

(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Q-7

(ii)

XeF2 +
PF5
XeF4 + SbF5
XeF6 +
MF
Cs)

(M may be Na, K, Rb or

Draw the structures of the following compounds:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)

XeF2
XeF4
XeF6
XeOF2
XeOF4
XeO3
XeO4
Page 40 of 57

UNIT 8

d- & f BLOCK ELEMENTS:

(Marks : 5)

Q-1
Q-2

Write the general configuration of d- block elements.

Zinc, cadmium and mercury are not considered as transition metals. Why?

Q-3

Give reasons:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Q-4
Q-5

Transition metals have high melting points.

Second and third transition series have similar radii.
Second ionization is difficult from Cu and Cr whereas it is easy for Zn.
Most of the transition elements are paramagnetic.
Transition elements form alloys.

What are the factors that decide the ionization potential?

Transition metals generally form coloured ions. Why? Which of the following
will be colored?
Sc3+, V2+, Mn2+ , Cu+, Ni2+.

Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9
Q-10
Q-11
Q-12
Q-13
Q-14
Q-15

Give an explanation for the catalytic properties shown by transition metals.

Write some characteristics of interstitial compounds.
What is the ore of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 ?
Explain the steps of preparation of potassium dichromate?
What is the effect of adding a base to potassium dichromate?
Draw the structure of chromate and dichromate ions?
Describe the steps of preparation of KMnO4?
Give some of the uses of KMnO4?
Draw the structure of manganate and permanganate ions?
Complete and balance the following reactions:
(i)

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

5Fe2+ + MnO4- + 8H+

5NO2- + 2MnO4- + 6H+
2MnO4- + H2O + I-
8MnO4- + 3S2O82- + H2O
Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 6Fe2+
Cr2O72- + Sn2+ + 14H+

Q-16 Name the two series of f-block.

Q-17 What is the general valance configuration of f-block elements?
Page 41 of 57

Q-18
Q-19
Q-20
Q-21
have

What is the lanthanoid contraction? What are its causes and consequences?
What is the most common oxidation state of lanthanoids and actionoids?
Actionoid contraction is more than lanthanoid contraction. Give reason.
Why the second and third members in each group of transition elements
very similar atomic radii?
Or, Why do Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties?
Q-22 Why the ions Sm2+, Eu2+ and Yb2+ in solution are good reducing agents
whereas Ce4+ (aq.)
is a good oxidizing agent?
Q-23 La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3. Explain.
Q-24 What is the composition of mischmetal? Give its one use.
Q-25 Actionoids show larger number of oxidation states than lanthanoids. Why?
Q-26 Ce3+ is readily oxidized to Ce4+. Explain.

UNIT 9
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5

[Co (NH3)6]3+
[Fe (C2O4)3]3[Ni (CN)4]2[Pt(NH3)4 Cl2]2+
[NiCl4]2[Co(NH3)5 ONO]2+
[Co (NH3)5Cl]Cl2
[Cr (CN) (H2O)5]2+
[Co (NO2)6]3[Co (en)3]Cl3

Write formula for the following compounds.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Q-7

(Marks : 3)

What were the two valences given by Werner for coordination compounds?
What are ligands? Explain different types of ligands.
What do you understand by the term chelation ?
Distinguish between homoleptic and hetroleptic ligands.
What IUPAC names of following complexes?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Q-6

CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Hexammineplatinum (VI) Chloride

Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) ion
diamminedichloridoplatinum (III) ion
Tetramminedichloridocobalt (III) ion
Annine chlorobis (elhylenediamine) cobalt (III) ion.
Hexaamminechromium (III) hexacyanocobaltate (III)
Pentramminenitro N- Cobalt (III) Chloride.
Pentramminebromidoocobalt (III) sulphate
triamminediaquachlorocobalt (III) Chloride
Tetramminedichloridooplatinum (IV) Bromide

What is geometric isomerism? When can a compound show:

Page 42 of 57

(i)
(ii)

Cis Trans isomerism

Fac and Mer isomerism.

Q-8
Q-9

How do optical isomer differ from each other?

Make the cis and trans forms of the complex [CrCl 2(en)2]+ . Which one of
these will be optically active?
Q-10 Which isomerism is shown by a compound having ambidentate ligand? Give
example.
Q-11 What is ionization isomerism? Give an example.
Q-12 How do solvate isomers differ from each other?
Q-13 Draw the geometrical isomers of [Cr (NH3 )2 (CN)4)- ?
Q-14 Give an example of coordination isomerism?
Q-15 Explain that the complex [Co (NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic on the basis of valence
bond theory.
Q-16 [Ni(CO)4]2+ is square planar whereas [NiBr4]2- is tetrahedral . Explain.
Q-17 State crystal field theory.
Q-18 What is crystal field splitting?
Q-19 Show with diagram, the crystal field splitting of d- orbital in an octahedral
field.
Q-20 Why are complexes colored?
Q-21 What is the shape of [Fe (CO)5]?
Q-22 Explain the role of complexes in metallurgy with an example.
Q-23 Give some example showing importance of complexes in biological system?

Page 43 of 57

UNIT 10
Q-1

Write the strucres of the following compounds:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Q-2

2 chloro 3 methylpentane
1 chloro 4 ethylcyclohexane
1, 4 dibromobut 2 ene

Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling points:

(a)
(b)

Q-3

HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

Bromomethane, bromoform, chloromethane, dibromomethane

1 chloropropane, isopropyl chloride, 1 chlorobutane

Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more
rapidly by SN2 mechanism ? Explain your answer.
(i)

(ii)

(iii)
Page 44 of 57

Q-4

In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes

faster SN1 reaction ?
(i)

(ii)
Q-5

Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2

displacement:
(a)
(b)
(c)

2 bromo 2 mthylbutane, 1 bromopentane, 2 bromopentane

1 bromo 3 methylbutane, 2 bromo 2 methylbutane, 2
bromo 3 methylbutane
1 bromobutane, 1 bromo 2, 2 dimethylpropane, 1 bromo 2
methylbutane, 1 bromo 3 methylbutane

Q-6 In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which would undergo SN2
reaction faster ?
(i)

(ii)

Q-5

Arrange the following halides in order of increasing SN2 reactivity:

CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl

Q-6

What are ambident nucleophiles ? Explain with an example.

Q-7

Explain why :
(a)
(b)

the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower that of cyclohexyl

chloride.
alky halides, though polar, are immiscible in water.

Q-8 Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5, which is more easily hydrolyzed by aq.
KOH ?
Q-9

What is known as a racemic mixture ?

Q-10 Differentiate between chiral and achiral molecules.

Page 45 of 57

Q-11 What are chiral objects? Indicate the presence of centre of chirality, if any,
in the molecules of 3 bromopent 1 ene.
Q-12 Identify and indicate the presence of center of chirality, if any, in the
following molecules? How many stereoisomers are possible for each:
(a) 2 Aminobutane
(b) 3 Bromopent 1 ene
(c) 1, 2 dichloropropane
(d)3 Methylpent 1 ene
Q-13 What are enantiomers? Draw the structures of the possible enantiomers of 3
methylpent 1 ene.
Q-14 Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of the
following halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major
alkene:
(a) 1 bromo 1 methylcyclohexane
(b)2 chloro 2 methylbutane
(c) 2,2,3 trimethyl 3 - bromopentane
Q-15 Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following
reaction:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)

CH3CH2CH2Cl + NaI (in presence of acetone / heat)

(CH3)3CBr + KOH (alcoholic / heat)
CH3CH(Br)CH2CH3 + NaOH (aqueous)
CH3CH2Br + KCN (alcoholic)
C6H5ONa + C2H5Cl
CH3CH2CH2OH + SOCl2
CH3CH2CH = CH2 + HBr (in presence of peroxide)
CH3CH = C(CH3)2 + HBr

Q-16 How the following conversions can be carried out?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)

propene to propan 1 ol
toluene to benzyl alcohol
benzyl alcohol to 2 phenylethanoic acid
ethanol to propanenitrile
aniline to chlorobenzene
2 methyl 1 propene to 2 chloro 2 methylpropane
ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
2 chloropropane to 1 propanol
chlorobenzene to p - nitrophenol
2 bromopropane to 1 - bromopropane
aniline to phenyl isocyanide

Q-17 Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound
(B). Compound (B) is reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A).
Page 46 of 57

When (A) is reacted with sodium metal it gives compound (D), C 8H18 which is
different from the compound formed when n butyl bromide is reacted with
sodium. Give the structural formula of (A) and write the equations for all the
reactions.
Q-18 What happens when?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)

n butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH

bromobenzene is treated with Mg in presence of dry ether
chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis
ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH
methyl bromide is treated with sodium in presence of dry ether
methyl chloride is treated with KCN

UNIT 11 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8

Write the acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to ethane.

Why ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol ?
Why phenol is acidic and hexanol (alcohol) is neutral towards NaOH ?
Give reasons for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to
methoxymethane.
Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of hydrocarbon,
butane ?
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of
comparable molecular masses. Explain why ?
Why ortho nitrophenol is more volatile than that of para
nitrophenol ?
Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the
following ethers by Williamsons synthesis:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Q-9

1 propoxypropane
Ethoxybenzene
2 Methyl 2 methoxypropane
Methoxyethane

Give equations for the following reactions:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Oxidation of propan 1 ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution

Bromine in CS2 with phenol
Dilute nitric acid with phenol
Traeting phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH

Q-10 Explain the following with an example:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Kolbes reaction
Riemer Tiemann reaction
Williamsons ether synthesis

Q-11 Give the equation of reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Page 47 of 57

Q-12 Write chemical equation for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Q-13 Write the mechanism of hydration of ethane to ethanol.
Q-14 Write the equation for the reaction of hydrogen iodide (HI) with :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

1 propoxypropane
Methoxybenzene
Benzyl ethyl ether

Q-15 Arrange the following in decreasing order of their acidic character :

Para methoxyphenol, para nitrophenol, phenol
Q-16 Name a compound which is used as an antiseptic as well as
disinfectant.
Q-17 What happens when benzene diazonium chloride is heated with water ?
Q-18 How will you carry out the following conversions:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)

Phenol to picric acid (2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol)

2 methylpropanol to 2 methylpropene
Propene to propan 2 ol
Phenol to toluene
Ethyl magnesium chloride to propan 1 ol
Phenol to benzoquinone
Butan -2 one to butan 2 ol

Q-19 Give structures of products you would expect when each of the following
alcohol reacts with (a) HCl ZnCl2 , (b) HBr and (c) SOCl2.
(i)
(ii)

Butane 1 ol
2 methylbutane 2 ol

Q-20 How will you differentiate between the following compounds :

(i)

10, 20 and 30 alcohols

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)

Methyl alcohol
Methyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Propan 1 ol
Propan 1 ol
Propan 1 ol
Propan 2 ol

and

and
and
and

and ethyl alcohol

phenol
and benzyl alcohol
and phenol
and acetaldehyde
and propanone
and propan 2 ol
propan 2 ol
2 methyl 2 propanol
diethyl ether
and
benzyl alcohol
Page 48 of 57

(xiii)
(xiv)
(xv)
(xvi)

Butan 1 ol
Phenol
Phenol
Phenol

and
and
and
and

butan 2 ol
cylcohexanol
benzyl alcohol
benzoic acid

UNIT -12 ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

Q-1

Write the IUPAC names of the following:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)

Q-2

Write structures of the following compounds:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Q-3

3 oxopentanal
2 chloro 3 methylpentanal
1 phenylpentan 1 one
Pent 2 enal

Give equations for the following reactions:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)

Q-4

CH3 CH2 CH = CH CHO

CH3 C C CH = CH COOH
CH3 CO CH = C(CH3)2
CH3 C(OH)(CH3) CH2 CO CH3
(CH3)2CH CO CH(CH3)2
CH3 CH2 CO C6H5
CH3 CO CH2 CH(Cl) CH3
CH3 CH2 CO CH2 CHO
CH3 CH = CH CHO
C5H9 CHO
C6H5 CH = CH CHO
CH3 CO CH2 CO CH3
(CH3)3C CH2 - COOH

Aldol condensation (along with crossed aldol condensation)

Cannizzaro reaction
Clemmensen reduction
Gattermann Koch reaction
Iodoform reaction (haloform reaction)
Rosenmund reduction
Wolf Kishner reduction
Hell Volhard Zelinsky reaction

How will you differentiate between the following compounds in each pair:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Acetophenone
Benzaldehyde
Ethanal
Ethanal

and
and
and
and

benzophenone
propanone
propanal
propanone
Page 49 of 57

(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Q-5

and
and
and
and
and
and

benzaldehyde
acetic acid
acetaldehyde
pentan 3 one
propanone
ethanol

How will you carry out the following conversions:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)

Q-6

Ethanal
Ethanal
Formaldehyde
Pentan 2 one
Propanal
Propanone

Benzaldehyde
Benzaldehyde
Benzene
Chloromethane
Ethyne
Ethanol
Ethanal
Methanol
Phenol
Propanone
Propanone

to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to

acetophenone
benzophonone
benzophenone
propanone
pentan 2 one
propanone
propanal
propanone
to
acetophenone
propene
tert butyl alcohol

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:

CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3

Q-7 Why is there a large difference in the boiling points of butanal and butan 1
ol?
Q-8

Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than

carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why ?

Q-9

Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling points:

(i)
(ii)

C2H5OC2H5, C4H9COOH, C4H9OH

C3H7CHO, CH3OC2H5, C2H5COOCH3, (CH3CO)2O

Q-10 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
CH3CH2CH2CHO, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, H5C2 O C2H5, CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
Q-11 There are two NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However only one is involved
in the formation of semicarbazones.
Q-12 Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophiles. Why ?
Q-13 The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than that o the
corresponding acids. Why ?
Q-14 State reasons for the following:
Page 50 of 57

(i)

Monochloroacetic acid has a higher pKa value than dichloroethanoic

(ii)

Ethanoic acid is weaker vthan benzoic acid.

acid.

Q-15 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in

nucleophilic addition reactions:
(i)
(ii)

Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone

Benzaldehyde, p Tolualdehyde, p Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone

(Consider steric effect and electronic effect)

Q-16 An alkene A (mol formula C5H10) on ozonolyss gives a mixture of two
compounds B and C. Compound B gives positive Fehlings test and also
forms iodoform on treatment with I2 and NaOH. Compound C does not give
Fehlings test but forms iodoform. Identify the compounds A, B and C. Write
the reaction for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C
Q-17 An aliphatic compound A with a molecular formula of C 3H6O reacts with
phenylhydrazine to give compound B. Reaction of A with I 2 in alkaline
medium on warming, gives a yellow precipitate C. Identify the compounds
A, B and C.
Q-18 Two moles of organic compound A on treatment with a strong base gives
two compounds B and C. Compound B on dehydrogenation with Cu gives
A while acidification of C yields carboxylic acid D having molecular
formula of CH2O2. Identify the compounds A, B, C and D.
Q-19 An organic compound A with molecular formula C 8H8O forms an orange red
precipitate with 2,4 DNP reagent and gives yellow precipitate on heating
with iodine in the presence of sodium hydroxide. It neither reduces Tollens
or Fehlings solution, nor does it decolorize bromine water or Baeyers
reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, it gives a carboxylic acid B
having molecular formula C7H6O2. Identify the compounds A and B and
explain the reactions involved.
Q-20 An organic compound A having the formula, C 3H8O, on treatment with
copper at 573 K, gives B. The compound B does not reduce Fehlings
solution but gives a yellow precipitate of the compound C with I 2 and NaOH.
Deduce the structures of A, B and C.
Q-21 A compound A (molecular formula C2H6O) on oxidation by PCC gave B,
which on treatment with aqueous alkali and subsequent heating furnished
C. The compound B on oxidation by KMnO4, forms a monobasic carboxylic
acid with molar mass 60 g mol-1. Deduce the structures of A, B and C.
Q-22 An organic compound A of molecular formula C 8H16O2 was hydrolyzed with
H2SO4 to give a carboxylic acid B and an alcohol C . Oxidation of C with
chromic acid also produced B. On dehydration C gives but 1 ene. Write
equations for the reactions involved.
Page 51 of 57

Q-23 An organic compound A on treatment with acetic acid in the presence of

sulphuric acid produces an ester B. The compound A on mild oxidation
gives C. The compound C upon reacting with 50% KOH followed by
acidification with dilute HCl generates A and D. Te compound D reacts
with PCl5 follwoed by reaction withn ammonia gives E which on dehydration
produces hydrocyanic acid. Identify the compounds A, B, C, D and E.
Q-24 An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and the
rest is oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not
reduce Tollens reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium
hydrogen sulphite and gives a positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation
it gives ethanoic acid and propanoic acid. Deduce the possible structure of
the organic compound.

UNIT 13
Q-1

Account for the following:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5

pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine.

Ethylamine is soluble in water, whereas aniline does not.
An alkylamine is more basic than ammonia.
Primary amines has higher boiling point than tertiary amines.
Aliphatic amines are stronger bases than aromatic amines.

Out of ethylamine and ethyl alcohol which has higher boiling point and why ?
Amino group is ortho and para directing for aromatic electrophilic
substitution. Why does aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m
nitroaniline ?
Aniline does not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction. Why ?
Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

Q-6

ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING NITROGEN

C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2, NH3, C6H5CH2NH2, (C2H5)2NH

C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH2, (C2H5)3N, C6H5NH2
CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, C6H5NH2, C6H5CH2NH2

Arrange the following:

(i)

In decreasing order of pKb values:

C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH, C6H5NH2

(ii)

In increasing order of basic strength:

(a)
(b)
(c)

Q-7

C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH, CH3NH2

C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
Aniline, p nitroaniline, p - toluidine

Arrange the following in decreasing order of their basic strength:

Page 52 of 57

C6H5NH2, C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, NH3

Q-8

Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of basic strengths in

their aqueous solutions:
NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N

Q-9

Arrange the compounds C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C2H5NH2

(i)
(ii)

in an increasing order of basic strength in water

in a decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase

Q-10 Give equations for the following reactions:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)

Carbylamine reaction
Coupling reaction
Diazotization
Decraboxylation reaction
Esterification reaction (also Trans-esterification reaction)
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Gattermann reaction
Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction
Mendius reaction
Sandmeyer reaction
Reaction of aniline with Br2 water
Reaction of aniline with conc. HNO3

Q-11 How will you differentiate between the following compounds in each pair:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Aniline
Aniline
Aniline
Methylamine

and
and
and
and

N methylaniline
benzylamine
ethylamine
dimethylamine

Q-12 Describe a method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary
amines. Also write chemical equations of reactions involved.
Q-13 How will you carry out the following conversions:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)

Aniline
Aniline
Aniline
Aniline
Benzene
Benzene
Benzoic acid
Benzyl chloride
Chloroethane
Chlorobenzene

to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to

benzonitrile
chlorobenzene
benzyl alcohol
nitrobenzene
aniline
N, N dimethylaniline
aniline
2 phenylethanamine
propan 1 amine
p chloroaniline
Page 53 of 57

(xi)
(xii)
(xiii)

Ethanamine
Ethanoic acid
Ethanamine

(xiv)
(xv)
(xvi)
(xvii)
(xviii)
(xix)
(xx)
(xxi)
(xxii)
(xiii)

Ethanamine
Ethyl bromide
Ethyl chloride
Hexanenitrile
Methanamine
Nitrobenzene
Nitrobenzene
Nitrobenzene
Nitromethane
Toluene

to
to
to

ethanoic acid
methanamine
methanamine

to

N ethylethanamide
propan 1 ol
propanamine
1 aminopentane
ethanamine
acetanilide
benzoic acid
phenol
dimethylamine
p toluidine

to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to
to

Q-14 A compound Z with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a
solid, insoluble in alkali. Identify Z.
Q-15 An aromatic compound A on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating
forms compound B which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound
C of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of
compounds A, B and C.

Q-16 A hydrocarbon A (C4H8) on reaction with HCl gives a compound B, (C 4H9Cl),

which on reaction with one mol of NH 3 gives compound C, (C4H11N). On
reacting with NaNO2 and HCl followed by treatment with water, compound
C yields an optically active alcohol D. Ozonolysis of A gives two moles of
acetaldehyde. Identify compounds A, B, C and D.
Q-17
Q-18
Q-19
Q-20

UNIT 14 BIOMOLECULES (Marks : 4)

Page 54 of 57

Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8

What is meant by reducing and non-reducing sugars? What is the structural

feature characterizing reducing sugar?
What is meant by inversion of sugar or invert sugar?
What is glycosidic linkage?
What products are expected when lactose, sucrose and maltose are
hydrolyzed?
Describe four functions of carbohydrates in the living organisms.
Why are carbohydrates generally optically active?
Starch is a food for human beings but not the cellulose. Why?
What are the chief sources of the following sugars (carbohydrates):
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.

Glucose
Fructose
Maltose
Lactose
Starch
Cellulose

Q-9 What are anomers and anomeric carbon?

Q-10 What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give three examples for
each.
Q-11 What is the Zwitter ion. Give an example.
Q-12 On electrolysis in acidic solution, amino acids migrate towards cathode while
in alkaline solution these migrate towards anode. Give reason.
Q-13 Explain the term Iso-electric point of an amino acid.
Q-14 Name the disease which is caused by the lack of essential amino acid in diet.
Q-15 How are oligopeptides different from polypeptide?
Q-16 What is a peptide linkage?

Unit 15
Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7

POLYMERS:

(Marks : 3)

What are homopolymers and copolymers? Give examples for each type.
What are addition and condensation polymers? Give examples of each type.
Mention the classification of polymers based on intermolecular forces.
What is an elastomer? Give one example.
What is the difference between elastomers and fibers?
Write short notes on the following giving suitable examples for each:
(i)
(ii)

Thermoplastic polymers
Thermosetting polymers.

Q-8 State two properties each for thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers.
Q-9 State the difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers.
Q-11 Write monomers of the following:
(i)
(ii)

Teflon
Glyptal
Page 55 of 57

(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)

Nylon-66
Nylon-6
Bakelite
Buna S
Buna N

Q-15 What is Vulcanization of rubber? How does vulcanization changes the

character of a natural rubber?
Q-17 What are biopolymers (bio-degradable synthetic polymers)?
Q-19 What is PHBV? State its properties and uses.
Q-20 Give two examples of biodegradable polymers. Mention their uses.

UNIT 16 CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

Q-1
Q-2
Q-3
Q-4
Q-5
Q-6
Q-7
Q-8
Q-9

(Marks : 3)

What are antacids? List some of the compounds which are used as antacids.
What are antihistamines? Give examples.
What are tranquilizers and hypnotics? Give examples.
What are anti-depressants? Give examples.
What are antibiotics? Name the first antibiotic discovered.
What are broad spectrum antibiotics? Give three examples.
What type of drug is chloramphenicol?
Name a broad spectrum antibiotic and state two diseases for which it is
used.
Define and explain the following terms:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Antipyretics
Narcotics
Anaesthetics
Analgesic

Q-10 State some uses of aspirin.

Q-11 Name one substance that is used as an antimicrobial agent.
Q-13 Define and explain the term antiseptics
Q-14 Explain the term Disinfectant.
Q-15 State the difference between antiseptics and disinfectants. Give two
examples for each.
Q-16 Name a substance that can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Q-18 What is tincture iodine?
Q-19 Name a drug used in case of mental depression.
Q-20 Describe the following with suitable examples:
(i)
(ii)

Food preservatives
Edible colors

Q-21 What is an artificial sweetener? Name any two artificial sweeteners.

Q-22 Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweet for a diabetic
patient.
Q-23 Why is use of Aspartame limited to cold foods and drinks?
Q-24 What are detergents? Give their scheme of classification. Why are
detergents preferred over soaps?
Page 56 of 57

Q-25 What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents?

Page 57 of 57