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BUS 335 Week 7 Quiz Strayer

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Chapter 8 and 9
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants. True False

2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods. True False

3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be
expected by relying just on job titles. True False

4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requireme
of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants. True False

5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job. True False

6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job. True Fals

7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is
known as a discriminant validity study. True False

8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefi
True False

9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications
be considered for further assessment. True False

10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiv
passing a medical exam or a drug test. True False

11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that: A. indicators of an
applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performanceB. indicators of a person's degree o
success in past situations should be predictive of future job successC. predictors of job performance are
correlated with KSAOsD. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance

12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting
employees? A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approachB. qualifications
carry over from one job to anotherC. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experience
D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy

13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used. A. essay
B. speedC. powerD. objective

14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills. A. oral communicationB. written communicati
C. interpersonalD. none of the above

15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________. A. a select
plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicantsB. a selection plan matches applicants to
outcome criteriaC. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform t
jobD. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria

16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________. A. reliabilit
B. validityC. utilityD. instrumentality

17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity. A. moderate to lowB. high to very high
C. moderately high to highD. moderate

18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false? A. The list
KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrixB. The process of develop
a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quicklyC. One reason KSAOs may be deemed
unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the jobD. Possible methods for assessing ever
identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed

19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying. True False

20. Although employers can outsource rsum collection to rsum-tracking services, in practice this type
outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost. True False

21. Rsum scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs. True False

22. Video rsums have become a major component of selection in most large organizations. True False

23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information
related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank. True False

24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance. True False

25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades. True False

26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the lab
market. True False

27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they
accurately reflect job knowledge. True False

28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection.
True False

29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance.
True False

30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application
blanks. True False

31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions. True False

32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, "the best
predictor of future behavior is past behavior." True False

33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring. True False

34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external
references rather than applicant surveys. True False

35. Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed. True False

36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive
ability. True False

37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive. True False

38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability. True False

39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories. True False

40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from
moderately qualified applicants. True False

41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for
two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person. True Fals

42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues wh
worked in the same position. True False

43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former
employees because they are afraid of being sued. True False

44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks. True False

45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees h
criminal records or inaccurate reporting on rsums, has risen dramatically in recent years. True False

46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems.
True False

47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches.
True False

48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment. True False

49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants.
True False

50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity. True False

51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience,
reference checks, and initial interview. True False

52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants. True False

53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods? A. Rsums and cover lettersB. Applicatio
blanksC. Biographical informationD. All of the above

54. Which of the following are common sources of rsum fraud? A. inflated titlesB. inflated education o
"purchased" degreesC. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemploymentD. all of the above

55. Which of the following statements regarding rsums is true? A. Even background checks cannot redu
the problem of rsum fraudB. Most surveys suggest that around half of all rsums have substantial
inaccuracies or distortionsC. Video rsums are highly respected by most employersD. Extensive evidenc
suggests that rsums are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance

56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false?
A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of
education.B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high scho
diploma in predicting job performance.C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance.D. High-lev
degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degree
from accredited schools.

57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?
A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.B. GPAs
one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.C. Grades do not vary widely by field
D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.

58. When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should
_________. A. use extracurricular activities whenever possibleB. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular
activitiesC. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnelD. use extracurricul
activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job

59. Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significan
accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______. A. behavioral consistency
methodB. experiential summary methodC. biodata approachD. none of the above

60. The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job
performance are _________. A. 1.00B. .80C. .20D. .60E. .40

61. Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted
include _________. A. previous employersB. reasons for leaving previous jobsC. previous positions held
D. all of the above are true

62. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, ________. A. The best predictor of
future behavior is motivation levelB. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOsC. The best predicto
future behavior is education levelD. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior

63. Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests? A. Background information is
obtained through interviews and conversations with references.B. They are two different names for the sa
thing.C. Only background tests look into an applicant's past.D. Biodata is used primarily when screening
applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.

64. Biographical information is like application blanks, except _______. A. biographical information is
based on history, but application blanks are based on current eventsB. application blanks are more likely t
be used for substantive selection decisionsC. biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicants
D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions

65. Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified? A. historical vs.
nonverifiableB. invasive vs. firsthandC. objective vs. subjectiveD. equal access vs. easy access

66. The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain thes
and the format is unstandardized. A. certificationsB. biodata formsC. letters of recommendationD. MBAs

67. The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______. A. a written statement of t
accomplishmentB. when the accomplishment took placeC. any recognition for the accomplishmentD. all
the above

68. Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance? A. Initial interviews
B. Handwriting analysisC. BiodataD. Unweighted application blanks

69. Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories.
A. very positiveB. negativeC. positiveD. neutral

70. One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________. A. are too lengthy to be
usefulB. are not structured or standardizedC. are too ambiguous to interpretD. all of the above are correct

71. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________. A. form
coworkersB. HR department at his/her former employerC. former supervisorD. friends

72. Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant. A. integrityB. reliability
C. personal adjustmentsD. all of the above

73. One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is
______. A. expensiveB. not related to job performanceC. easy to fakeD. inefficient

74. Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening? A. It helps to screen out people who will
perform poorly on the job.B. It is used widely by companies in the U.S.C. It helps to screen out people wh
are susceptible to certain diseases.D. A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the
Americans with Disabilities Act.

75. One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____. A. ask questions which
assess the most basic KSAOsB. make them long and rigorousC. ask each applicant different questionsD.
and B are correct

76. The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______. A. validity
B. reliabilityC. variabilityD. central tendency

77. An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________. A. biographica
informationB. initial interviewsC. application blanksD. resumes

78. _________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be
rejected using this predictor. A. Low reliabilityB. Adverse impactC. UtilityD. Habeas corpus

79. Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights. True False

80. Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire, termin
or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process. True Fa

81. Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit.
True False

82. The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a
reference check that might damage an applicant's chances of getting a job. True False

83. Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check, it cannot be
used in staffing decisions. True False

84. It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a
protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with
business necessity. True False

85. Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase. True False

86. Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically
upheld by the courts. True False

87. Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may
rejected using a given predictor. True False

88. The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and
may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person. True Fals

89. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, or
national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification. True False

90. The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims. True False

91. A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often
accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____. A. providential statementB. disclaimer
C. waiverD. requisition

92. Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women
and/or minorities include ______. A. education levelB. quality of schoolC. training and experienceD. all o

the above are correct

93. Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of
_______. A. labor contractsB. employment clausesC. disclaimersD. discharge policies

94. Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)? A. They have little potential
being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process.B. Organizations rarely make
inappropriate and illegal PIs.C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regardin
PIs.D. The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.

95. Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for
employment purposes? A. Americans with Disadvantaged Access ActB. Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977D. National Labor Rights Act

96. According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer st
of assessment process? A. Ask if the applicant has any disabilities.B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perfo
the job, with or without reasonable accommodation.C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could
perform the job.D. None of the above are permissible.

97. Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use? A. One
sex has an inability to perform the work.B. Personal contact with others requires same sex.C. Customers
have a preference for dealing with one sex.D. All of the above are potential justifications.

Chapter 9
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. True False

2. Personality tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment methods. True False

3. Discretionary assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. True Fa

4. Contingent assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients meet certain
qualifications for the job. True False

5. Currently, personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection methods.
True False

6. The Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits that capture 20% of an
individual's personality. True False

7. The traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought about entirely by life
environments, and not by genetics. True False

8. Surveys are the most common means of assessing personality. True False

9. Conscientiousness is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job satisfaction, bette
leadership performance, and higher retention. True False

10. Extraversion is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability. True False

11. Individuals who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career success and ar
less able to cope with conflicts. True False

12. There is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel selection. True False

13. Evidence suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality tests. True False

14. Socially desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn't end once someone tak
a job. True False

15. Evidence suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards personality testing.
True False

16. The two major types of ability tests are aptitude and achievement. True False

17. 80% of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection decisions. True False

18. Measures of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general intelligence. True False

19. The Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations, because it requires lon
face-to-face sessions with a trained psychologist. True False

20. Validities for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower validities in the
European Union relative to the United States. True False

21. Cognitive ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but they are of no
value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar jobs. True False

22. The true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly .50. True False

23. The biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the difficulty associated with the
administration. True False

24. A concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against African Americans.
True False

25. Most experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by standardized tests.
True False

26. Physical ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible to
repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel syndrome. True False

27. Sensory/perceptual abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental stimuli.
True False

28. Research suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting job performance
True False

29. Individuals who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their own
emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others' emotions), and good at making use of or managing th
aware-ness. True False

30. Some critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to intelligence and
personality, once you control for these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer. True False

31. Measures of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a selection contex
because they have little similarity to personality. True False

32. Performance tests and work samples assess applicants' underlying capacities and dispositions.
True False

33. A low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual tasks of the job.

True False

34. Performance tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job relevant. True False

35. Performance tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be supplemented with oth
predictors because they do not have high content validity. True False

36. The major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that the former deals w
future hypothetical job situations, and the latter explicitly taps the content of the job. True False

37. Integrity tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant's honesty
and moral character. True False

38. Interviewer evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like judges and
psychologists can detect lying most of the time. True False

39. The construct of "integrity" is well understood. True False

40. Although applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the evidence sugges
that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity of these tests in predicting job performance an
deviant workplace behavior. True False

41. The Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest inventory. True False

42. Interest inventories play a key role in organizational selection decisions. True False

43. Interest inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the organization or the job.

True False

44. A typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative questions. True False

45. Applicant appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured interview. True False

46. The starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards matrix. True False

47. Situational interviews assess an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the
future. True False

48. Research has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job performance beyon
cognitive ability tests. True False

49. The interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the job and organizatio
True False

50. Applicants tend to react very negatively to the interview. True False

51. When developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for each KSAO
targeted for assessment by the structured interview. True False

52. ________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. A. Initial
B. SubstantiveC. DiscretionaryD. Contingent

53. Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits __________.
A. ConscientiousnessB. ExtroversionC. General mental abilityD. Neuroticism

54. Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors? A. They are reasonably vali
in predicting job performance.B. They represent emotional traits.C. They represent cognitive abilities.
D. None of the above.

55. This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower
adaptability on the job. A. NeuroticismB. ExtraversionC. AgreeablenessD. ConscientiousnessE. Opennes
experience

56. This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping w
conflicts. A. NeuroticismB. ExtraversionC. AgreeablenessD. ConscientiousnessE. Openness to experienc

57. This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment
one's employer. A. NeuroticismB. ExtraversionC. AgreeablenessD. ConscientiousnessE. Openness to
experience

58. What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts? A. Concientiousness,
emotional stability, extraversionB. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience
C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversionD. Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional
stability

59. Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process?
A. Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly.
B. The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness.C. The C
Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance.D. None
the above.

60. Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests?
A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups.B. Openness to experience does n
predict training performance.C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs.D. All of the above a
true.

61. Which of the following statements is false? A. There is little evidence that people fake their scores on

personality tests in the hiring contextsB. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selectio
their observed scores tend to increaseC. Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests
D. None of the above statements is false

62. Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______. A. inte
inventoriesB. ability testsC. personality testsD. knowledge tests

63. Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence? A. verbal abilities
B. quantitative abilitiesC. reasoning abilitiesD. All of the above are correct

64. The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____. A. MMPI
B. Myers-BriggsC. Wonderlic Personnel TestD. Job Characteristics Inventory

65. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests? A. Cognitive ability tests are among t
least valid methods of selection.B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizatio
and jobs.C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial
returns.D. All of the above are true.

66. Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that
intelligent employees have greater _____. A. job knowledgeB. presentation skillsC. social networking
capacityD. diligence

67. The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________. A. they ar
too expensive.B. they are too time-consuming.C. they are difficult to administer.D. they have an adverse
impact on minorities.

68. The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____.
A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wordingB. decreasing over timeC. lower when tests are give
in an open-ended formatD. both b and c

69. Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests? A. relative
strongB. no supportC. very weakD. some

70. The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and aski
them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________. A. situational
judgment testsB. behavioral implementation testsC. work sample testsD. Job simulation tests

71. The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate
actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test. A. job knowledgeB. psychomotorC. high fidelityD. low
fidelity

72. Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to
use in __________ jobs. A. customer serviceB. assemblyC. bank tellerD. none of the above

73. Situational judgment tests ______. A. have very high adverse impactB. involve applicants' description
of how they would behave in work scenariosC. are based on applicants' evaluations of photographsD. hav
very low validity

74. Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests? A. Their use has declined in the past decade.
B. They are used to reduce employee accidents.C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized
measures.D. The construct of integrity is well understood.

75. Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for
different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____. A. are about as predictive of job
performance as ability testsB. are more predictive of job performance than ability testsC. are not strongly
predictive of job performanceD. are prohibited by law

76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview? A. It is usually carefully
planned.B. The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidateC. It consists of formal,
objective questioning.D. The interviewer is highly prepared.

77. Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews? A. Low reliability
between interviewers.B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings.C. Primacy effects
D. All of the above are true.

78. The first step of the structured interview process is __________. A. selecting and training interviewer
B. developing the selection planC. consulting the job requirements matrixD. developing selection goals

79. The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior
would be in the future is the ____________ interview. A. situationalB. experience-basedC. projective
D. KSAO-based

80. Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews? A. The validity of structu
interviews is low.B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews.C. Panel interviews
were less valid than individual interviews.D. All of the above are true.

81. The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________. A. positive
B. zeroC. moderately negativeD. very negative

82. Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________. A. very favorableB. somewhat favorable
C. neutralD. somewhat unfavorable

83. Selection for team contexts ____. A. is not much different than for selection in generalB. should
emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOsC. should not involve members of the team,
because that only leads to resentmentD. all of the above

84. Discretionary assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the intuition of t
decision maker. True False

85. Contingent assessment methods are always used in the selection process. True False

86. Studies suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be injured at work.
True False

87. Individuals who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and counterproducti
work behaviors. True False

88. Federal law prohibits drug testing for a majority of jobs. True False

89. Drug test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper procedures are followed.
True False

90. Some organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke tobacco. True False

91. Drug testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered necessary to use retestin
to validate samples from an initial screening test. True False

92. Organizations may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job offer.
True False

93. A medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job applicants. True False

94. Which of the following is true regarding drug testing? A. Applicants were twice as likely to be tested
alcohol use as drug use.B. The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent yearsC. Upper-level
employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees.D. All of the above are true.

95. Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs? A. Drug testing
should be done with all jobs.B. Do not inform applicants of the test results.C. Provide rejected applicants
with an opportunity to appeal.D. All of the above

96. Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____? A. drug tests do not "catch" many people

B. the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicleC. drug tests are extrem
expensiveD. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results

97. Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer? A. make medical inquiriesB. conduct
background checksC. discuss job responsibilitiesD. none of the above

98. The UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing adverse impact, and if
so, the validation requirements for the procedure. True False

99. Any selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the UGESP unless it
has been shown to be valid. True False

100. There three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face validity,
construct validity, and administrative validity. True False

101. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection procedure is job-related
and consistent with business necessity. True False

102. An organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job offer conditional,
pending the results of a medical exam. True False

103. There are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by law. True False

104. Records for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence, although
most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with supervisors and members of the work grou
the employer deems it wise. True False

105. The best description of UGESP is that they are _____. A. regulations for drug testing in the workplac
B. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights ActC. a set of

regulations relating only to disabled individualsD. regulations that deal only with gender equity and job
selection

106. The UGESP requires employers to ____. A. keep records based on religion and marital status for all
employeesB. perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employeesC. consider suitable
alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impactD. assess employee
history of drug abuse

107. Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with
Disabilities Act? A. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is
consistent with a business necessityB. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reas
C. It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection contextD. The
employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong
preference for not encountering disabled staff

108. Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer? A. Questions about history
illegal drug useB. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illnessC. Oral or written questions abou
the existence of a disabilityD. None of the above