.7.

Testbank.Document.Questions
for Testbank PE4PARTB

Page
1
25-SEP-2001

The symbols below are used as indicated:

+
add
x
multiply
subtract
/
divide
sqr
square root
**
exponent
**
exponent
NOTE:
Round off to 3 decimal places unless otherwise stated.
FROM

Heat Engines, Prime Movers & The Simple Steam Engine

010100020021000B
A prime mover is

b)

a steam turbine

010100020021000C
Large power production plants tend to be of the thermal type
because they can burn solid fuels and:

c)

the heat cycle they use is the most efficient

010100020021000A
A steam engine will have the steam supply to the cylinder
shut off once the piston has travelled

a)

25 to 35% or 1/4 to 1/3 of its stroke

010100020021000D
The reciprocating motion of a steam engine is converted to
rotary motion

d)

at the crankshaft

010100020021000B
The crosshead of a steam engine

b)

is where linear motion becomes angular motion

010100020021000D
A steam engine piston

d)

moves fastest at the beginning of its stroke

010100020021000A
A routine inspection of an operating steam engine should
cover first and foremost

a)

lubricators
1

010100020021000C
Whenever feasibly possible, when checking bearings on running
pieces of equipment it is wise to

c) get accustomed to normal running temperature

and vibration by feel
010100020021000A
One of the first ways to detect a fault in a reciprocating
engine is

a)

by sound

010100020021000D
The slide valve of a steam engine is designed to

d) provide for the steam to enter and leave the

cylinder
Steam Turbines I
010100020021000D
A steam turbine's exhaust can often supply a process with
steam because

d)

it is free of oil

010100020021000C
The exhaust steam from a steam turbine is more acceptable for
process than the exhaust from a steam engine because

c)

it is free of oil

010100020021000E
The exhaust steam from a condensing steam turbine
has more moisture than the exhaust from a steam engine:

e)

has more moisture

010100020021000D
Turbines often have segmental carbon ring sealing glands
which are held in place by garter springs

d)

garter springs

010100020021000D
A steam turbine should trip or shut down when normal

operating speed is exceeded by 10 to 15%

010100020021000B
Condensing turbines

b) will have a vacuum in the last row of rotating

blades
010100020021000B
Which turbine uses a condenser?

b)

a turbine exhausting to a vacuum

010100020021000E
The shrouding installed on the blading of a steam turbine serves
to:

e)

confine the steam to the blades

010100020021000A
The turbine overspeed trip:

2.
4.
5.

prevents the turbine exceeding the maximum rated speed

will close the steam stop valve
should be tested before the turbine is placed in service

010100020021000B
The overspeed trip of a steam turbine

b)

is installed on all turbines

010100020021000B
Turbine overspeed trip

b)

will close the steam stop valve to the turbine

010100020021000D
Turbine lubricating oil

d)

can be used to operate the turbine governor

010100020021000C
The purpose of turbine glands is to prevent

c)

steam escaping from the turbine

010100020021000E
Shaft sealing in high output turbines is done with

e)

labyrinth seals
3

010100020021000B
When the steam pressure drop occurs in only the stationary
members or components of a turbine, the turbine is known as an impulse unit

b)

an impulse unit

010100020021000E
A large reaction turbine will have steam pressure dropping through BOTH moving
and stationary sections Reaction = steam pressure drops over BOTH

e) steam pressure dropping through moving and

stationary sections
010100020021000D
Turbine speed can be "fine tuned" with a device which will be
limited to about 10% over the rated speed. This device is
the

d)

hand speed control

010100020021000C
Turbine thrust bearings are fixed to the casing and prevent
axial movement of the spindle by contacting a component on
the shaft known as a

c)

collar

010100020021000D
Shaft sealing carbon glands are

d)

self-lubricating

010100020021000C
The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize
the

c)

mechanical centrifugal principle

010100020021000B
Reaction turbines

b) have a pressure drop through the moving and

stationary blades
010100020021000B
Reaction turbines

b)

have a velocity increase in the fixed blading

010100020021000B
In an impulse turbine

b)

the steam pressure is reduced in the nozzles

010100020021000E
The steam turbine that has a pressure drop across
every set of blades is the reaction turbine.

e) reaction
010100020021000D
When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to

d) test the overspeed trip as soon as running

speed is attained
Cooling Towers
010100020021000D
The average amount of water volume which evaporates from a
cooling tower is 5%
010100020021000A
Natural draft cooling towers operate most effectively in
large open spaces and

a)

where wind is relatively constant

010100020021000B
Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may
cause
a)

b)

louvers to become broken

high water drift or losses

010100020021000C
Compared to a crossflow tower, a counterflow tower

c)

requires less floor space

010100020021000E
Water contained in the airstream at the discharge of a
cooling tower is removed

e)

with drift eliminators

010100020021000C
A cooling tower which requires neither fan nor fill is the

c)

venturi unit

010100020021000E

A valve which prevents water flow over the fill of a tower

during cold weather should not be closed until the
temperature reaches 27C
e) + 27 degrees C
010100020021000B
To prevent cooling tower basin water from freezing during
cold weather many units are equipped with

b)

electric basin heaters

010100020021000D
You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings
because

d)

the rotor was rubbing the stator

010100020021000D
Scaling is not as severe in towers when compared to boilers
because

d)

temperatures are not as high

Gas Turbines I
010100020021000C
A gas turbine compressor is usually

c)

dynamic axial design

010100020021000A
The compressor on the gas turbine

a)

can be driven by the load turbine

010100020021000C
The combustion chamber of a gas turbine

c)

burns fuel with excess air

010100020021000D
Many typical steam plant auxiliaries are eliminated with a
gas turbine due to its

d)

simplicity

010100020021000B
Gas turbines are very popular where

b)

water is scarce

010100020021000B
Gas turbines are ideal when considering

b)

emergency power generation

010100020021000A
A two shaft gas turbine

a) has the load turbine downstream from the

compressor turbine
010100020021000C
A gas turbine is not self-starting. It must be rotated at
20% to 20% of its maximum speed before fuel is turned on.

c)

20% to 30%

010100020021000C
Early gas turbines were handicapped by

c) metals not standing the high temperatures

involved
010100020021000D
The temperature to which the air can be raised at the turbine
inlet is

d)

an indication of the unit's efficiency

010100020021000A
The output power of a gas turbine is directly related to the

a) mass of gas passing through the turbine per

second
010100020021000E
The low installation cost of a gas turbine is

e)

because less auxiliary equipment is needed

010100020021000C
Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better
choice over other prime movers are:

1. low maintenance
2. minimum cooling water
7

4.

rapid start-up and loading

010100020021000E
The air side of a gas turbine regenerator is located

e)

downstream of the compressor

010100020021000D
A gas turbine performs most effectively if

d)

ambient air temperature is low

010100020021000B
A combined steam and gas turbine arrangement can be termed

b)

a cogeneration system

010100020021000B
The purpose of a regenerator is

b)

to improve the efficiency of the turbine

Internal Combustion Engines I

010100020021000B
In a compression ignition engine the fuel is ignited by

b)

the compressed air temperature

010100020021000C
Diesel engine governing is accomplished by

c)

varying the fuel quantity

010100020021000C
The fuel for a diesel engine is

c)

mechanically atomized by high pressure

010100020021000A
Four-stroke cycle engine valves are

a)

operated by cams

010100020021000C
An engine which develops one power stroke with every other
turn of the crankshaft is the

c)

four stroke natural gas engine

010100020021000A
Four cycle engine lubrication is usually

a)

forced by pump

010100020021000C
An example of an engine which gives high torque at low speeds
would be that of a

c)

four stroke motocross motorcycle

010100020021000D
A two cycle engine

d) "pops" twice as often as an equivalent

cylinder four stroke engine
010100020021000A
Pre-mixing lube oil and fuel or having a special lube oil
injection system is typical of the average

a)

snowmobile engine

010100020021000E
A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine
is

e)

exhausting the spent gases from the cylinder

010100020021000E

e) is of more simple construction than a four

cycle
010100020021000C
Cylinder scavenging

c) is the removal of exhaust gases from the

cylinder
010100020021000A
The purpose of a spark plug is

a) to ignite the fuel air mixture in a gasoline

engine
010100020021000B

Compression ignition engines

b) will compress air only on the compression

stroke
010100020021000E
The injection pump of a diesel engine is driven by

e)

the camshaft

010100020021000D
Ignition in a diesel engine is started by

d)

compression in the cylinder

010100020021000A
Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of
starting a

a)

large stationary diesel engine

010100020021000D
When using compressed air to each cylinder for starting
purposes, the pressure is approximately 2100kPa

d)

2,100 kPa

010100020021000C
Reduction in sealing qualities between the piston rings and
cylinder wall by the lube oil may be the result of

c)

high cooling water temperature

Types of Pumps
010100020021000E
A pump is capable of suction lift due to
e)

atmospheric pressure

010100020021000C
Centrifugal pumps do not develop good suction lift because
c)

their internal component clearances are too high

010100020021000A
It is generally accurate to say that
a)

9.8 kPa pressure results from every metre of water depth

or height

10

010100020021000E
Preferably, dynamic pumps should be located
e)

below the liquid source when suction head is involved

010100020021000E
The vertical distance from the liquid surface up to the pump
centre-line plus the vertical distance from the pump
centre-line up to the surface of the liquid in the discharge
tank is
e)

total static head

010100020021000A
The difference between static suction head and static
discharge head is
a)

total static head

010100020021000B
When a pump discharges into a vessel operating at 300 kPa,
the 300 kPa is referred to as
b)

equivalent head

010100020021000B
The total static head of a pump
b)

is the difference between the static suction head and

the static discharge head

010100020021000B
When a reciprocating pump discharges while its piston or
plunger moves in only one direction, it is termed a
b)

single acting unit

010100020021000D
Centrifugal pumps convert rotating mechanical energy into
kinetic energy then
d)

into potential energy in the form of pressure

010100020021000C
A hot water heating system circulator should
c)

be very quiet in operation

010100020021000A
The capacity of a centrifugal pump
a)

varies with discharge pressure

010100020021000B

11

Centrifugal pump power requirements are decreased when

b)

the litres moved per minute is decreased

010100020021000C
A rotary pump
c)

should be equipped with a relief valve

010100020021000B
When starting-up a rotary pump you must be sure that the
b)

discharge valve is open

010100020021000C
Rotary pumps:
1.
4.

are high pressure pumps

are positive displacement pumps

010100020021000E
A double-acting pump
e)

is a positive displacement pump

010100020021000B
A volute type pump
b)

has a progressively expanding spiral casing

010100020021000D
A diffuser pump:
1.
2.

has stationary guide vanes surrounding the impeller

has a higher efficiency than a volute type

010100020021000C
Turbine pumps:
2.
3.

are high pressure pumps

has the liquid gain energy in a number of impulses

010100020021000A
A centrifugal pump consists of
a)

an impeller surrounded by a casing

010100020021000E
The capacity of a centrifugal pump should only be reduced by
e)

closing in the discharge valve

010100020021000B
Cavitation of a pump refers to, when:

12

b)

the pump is filled with vapour

010100020021000D
Rotary pumps:
1.
3.
4.

have tight clearances on all moving parts

are positive displacement units
should not be started with discharge closed

010100020021000E
If a pump is cavitating what can you do to prevent
or reduce the cavitation?
e)

raise the suction pressure

010100020021000D
A positive displacement stand by-pump will have
d)

the suction valve open and the discharge valve open

010100020021000B
Pumps handling cryogenic materials operate
b) at extremely low temperatures
\
010100020021000A
A circulating pump is usually
a)

connected with some type of heat exchanger system

010100020021000C
A multi-stage pump would be used
c)

when the head is great

010100020021000B
Turbine pumps are best suited for
b)

low capacity high pressure service

Pump Operation and Maintenance

010100020021000A
Pump wear rings are installed on an impeller by set screws,
threading or
a)

shrinking

010100020021000C
Wear rings are usually constructed of

13

c)

bronze or cast iron

010100020021000B
Wearing rings:
1.
2.
4.

are used on impellers

are used on the casing
reduce the maintenance cost of the pump

010100020021000E
A stuffing box:
1.

stops air leaking into the casing when the pressure is

below atmospheric
decreases leakage out of the casing when the pressure
is above atmospheric
is filled with packing

2.
4.

010100020021000B
Mechanical seals:
1.
2.
3.

are used where leakage is objectionable

replace stuffing boxes
provide a better seal than packing

010100020021000D
Compression type packing:
1.
2.

prevents air from entering the pump

reduces the maintenance cost on pumps

010100020021000C
Lantern rings:
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
2,
3,
1,

are fed by a liquid

provide a seal to prevent air from entering the pump
are mostly used on high lift pumps
2, 3
3
3, 4
4
2

010100020021000C
The seal cage on the shaft of a centrifugal pump
c)

distributes sealing water to the packing

010100020021000B
The main advantage of a pump using a mechanical seal is
b)

less maintenance

010100020021000D

14

A slight leakage is desired between the pump shaft and

packing of the majority of pumps in order to
d)

lubricate the surfaces

010100020021000B
If a stuffing box is to prevent the ingress of air, it is
equipped with
b)

a seal cage

010100020021000E
Any leakage occurring through the surfaces of a mechanical
seal will
e)

be radial to the shaft

010100020021000D
The component of a mechanical seal which prevents axial
leakage is
d)

the O-ring

010100020021000E
What size of packing should you use, to repack a pump gland having the
following dimensions:
stuffing box bore
------------- 8.6 cm
pump shaft diameter ------------- 6.7 cm
e)

.95 cm

010100020021000B
New pump packing should be installed
b)

loose enough to allow leakage for lubrication

010100020021000B
Flexible couplings will compensate for
b) axial shaft misalignment
010100020021000A
Shaft misalignment during operation of a pump can be caused
by bearing wear, thermal expansion, and
a)

shaft flexing

010100020021000D
Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially
if
d) a mechanical seal is used
010100020021000B
Priming of a centrifugal pump refers to
b)

filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air

15

010100020021000D
Priming a water pump means
d)

filling the pumps casing and suction line with water

010100020021000B
If the packing gland of a centrifugal water pump is leaking too
much, you should
b)

tighten up the gland but permit a slight amount of leakage

010100020021000E
When lubricating equipment, the operator should also check for:
1.
2.
3.
4.

unusual machine noises

unusual consumption of lubricant
excessive heat in bearing housing
excessive leakage of lubricant

010100020021000C
Most pump failures, damage, or both occurs
d)

due to wrong rotation

010100020021000C
When a pump is operating, your inspection should include the
following:
c)

you should check the discharge pressure

010100020021000E
A plugged impeller symptom or result will be
e)

no liquid being delivered

010100020021000A
If pump speed is too high
a)

the driver may be overloaded

010100020021000D
If a pump is running and has no discharge pressure, what will
you do?
d)

check to see if the suction valve is open

010100020021000A
You discover that your feed water pump is not delivering sufficient
water. A possible cause is
a)

the impeller is plugged

16

Air Compression
010100020021000A
Compressed air machinery would most likely be used in
a)

coal mines

010100020021000D
Compressed air tools tend to be
d)

more expensive than electrical tools

010100020021000A
In a centrifugal compressor the kinetic energy is converted
to potential energy in the
a)

volute, diffuser, or both

010100020021000D
The compressor which would favour volume over pressure would
be the
d) centrifugal
010100020021000B
Positive displacement air compressor types are
b)

gear compressors

010100020021000D
Single stage reciprocating air compressors
d)

could have two cylinders

010100020021000E
A belt driven lubricator is very popular on a
e)

sliding vane unit

010100020021000B
Higher gearing is commonly used on
b)

screw units

010100020021000A
Relative to a dry-pipe fire system, an automatic air supply
shall be connected so that proper pressure can be maintained
in each system, is a statement of the
a) National Fire Protection Association Code
\
010100020021000D
In order to protect the driver, a start-stop air compressor
should be equipped with
d)

pre-start automatic unloading

17

010100020021000A
The valves on a reciprocating compressor are opened by
a)

a pressure difference

010100020021000C
Compressor unloaders
c)

could keep the suction valve open

010100020021000B
Where pistons move in a cylinder it is necessary
for the lubricant to provide
b)

sealing

010100020021000C
An air compressor which gives two compression strokes per
crankshaft revolution is
c)

single cylinder double acting

010100020021000A
To reduce air temperature between stages, we would use
a)

an intercooler

010100020021000B
An air receiver used in an air compression, system will perform the
following functions:
1.
2.
3.

act as a storage vessel

eliminates pulsation in discharge lines
will separate out water from the air

010100020021000C
An air compressor auxiliary which will decrease the power
requirement is the
c)

intercooler

010100020021000B
Intercoolers should be equipped with
b)

safety valves

010100020021000C
Intercoolers
c)

should have a safety valve

010100020021000A
Intercoolers
a)

must have a drain

18

010100020021000D
Air receivers
d)

must have a safety valve

Lubrication Principles
010100020021000A
Relative to lubrication, one place where wear is beneficial
is
a)

new babbit bearing surfaces which wear smooth

010100020021000D
The intermeshing of gear teeth is a place where lubrication
d)

shock absorption is very important

010100020021000D
The lubricant performs a number of functions.
of the following are the most important:
1.
4.

Indicate which

reduce wear
reduce friction

010100020021000D
A material which is commonly used as a solid lubricant is
d)

molybdenum disulphide

010100020021000E
Grease is not a suitable lubricant
e)

if a large amount of cooling is desired

010100020021000C
A semi-solid lubricant:
c)

is less likely to drip or splash from bearings

010100020021000E
Lubricant for an anti-friction bearing is
e)

barium and lithium base grease

010100020021000D
Which type of grease is the cheapest and most commonly used?
d)

calcium base

010100020021000A
The property of an oil which indicates its ability to support
a load is

19

a)

viscosity

010100020021000A
If an oil's viscosity changes much with little temperature
change then it will have a
a)

low viscosity index

010100020021000D
Which of the following has the greatest effect on
the viscosity of a lubrication oil?
d)

temperature

010100020021000D
The resistance of a liquid to internal deformation
or shear is known as:
d) viscosity
010100020021000A
Which type of oil produces higher fluid friction?
a)

a high viscosity oil

010100020021000A
Oil additives
a)

should not affect all other characteristics greatly

010100020021000B
If you desire an oil to flow at a much lower temperature you
would most likely add
b)

pour point depressants

010100020021000C
High capacity steam turbine oils should
c)

be fire resistant

010100020021000B
Air compressor oil should
b)

have low carbon residue

010100020021000A
High viscosity oils are normally used for the following applications:
a)

low speed, high load

Types of Bearing Lubrication

010100020021000C
A lubricant characteristic which will indicate its ability to
support a heavy load at low speed is

20

d)

density

010100020021000E
A form of lubrication which requires continual motion of a
shaft or surface is
e) fluid film lubrication
010100020021000A
Fluid film lubrication
a)

is used for heavy loads

010100020021000B
Fluid film lubrication
b)

is also called flood lubrication

010100020021000E
In a forced lubrication system, a pump supplies oil
Under pressure for the bearings.
010100020021000D
Large journal or sleeve bearings have grooves
d)

in the non-pressure area

010100020021000B
A large journal bearing which is running hotter than normal
can be cooled by
b)

loosening the bearing caps

010100020021000B
A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge
principle of lubrication is the
b)

collar type

010100020021000B
One of the main functions of the lubricant in a sealed,
grease type antifriction bearing is
b)

sealing

010100020021000E
A journal bearing
e)

supports a shaft

010100020021000A
Thrust bearings:
1.
2.

are used on reaction turbines

prevent the turbine rotor moving axially

21

4.

are lubricated with the same oil as the main bearings

010100020021000C
The lubricant for an anti-friction bearing
c)

could be a semi-solid lubricant

010100020021000B
A collar thrust bearing:
2.
3.

can prevent a rotating shaft from moving both axial

directions
has boundary lubrication

010100020021000B
A thrust bearing
b)

prevents axial movement of the shaft

010100020021000A
An anti-friction bearing
a)

could be a thrust bearing

010100020021000E
A collar thrust bearing
e)

has boundary lubrication

010100020021000C
A type of anti-friction bearing is the ball bearing.

010100020021000C
Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing
c)

will cause the bearing to become "pitted"

010100020021000A
When replacing or removing an antifriction ball bearing, the
applied force should
a)

not be transmitted through the bearing balls

010100020021000E
Applying installation forces through the balls of a bearing
can cause
e)

brinelling

010100020021000D
A normal antifriction bearing temperature operating range is
d)

65 to 70 degrees C

22

010100020021000B
When grease is used in an antifriction bearing, the bearing
housing should not be filled more than 1/3 full.
010100020021000D
Causes of anti-friction bearing failures are:
1.
2.
3.
4.

improper fitting
false brinelling
high operating temperature
poor quality lubricant

Basic Electricity
010100020021000C
In an atom the electrons
d) are large in size when compared to the protons
010100020021000A
When a number of electrons pass a given point over a specific
time period the energy may be referred to as
a)

an ampere

010100020021000A
A basic law of electricity is, unlike charges attract each
other and like charges
a)

repel each other

010100020021000B
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction is called
b) electrical current flow
010100020021000C
Since the discovery of electrons, it has been determined that
electrons are a negative charge and flow from
c)

negative to positive

010100020021000D
An open circuit is one in which
d)

a switch is open

010100020021000A
A triple pole single throw switch is one
a)

which opens and closes three wires of an electric circuit

010100020021000E
The purpose of having an upward movement of a switch handle to

23

close the switch is

e)

to prevent the switch from closing due to gravity

010100020021000C
The battery of an electrical circuit
c) supplies electromotive force
010100020021000D
The unit of measure for electrical current flow is the
d)

Ampere

010100020021000E
Atoms that have greater numbers of electrons in the outer shell
are
e)

not good conductors

010100020021000B
Electrons are negatively charged particles
b)

orbiting about the nucleus of an atom

010100020021000D
Conventional current flow is from positive to negative.
d)

Conventional

010100020021000A
If an electrical potential is placed across a
conductor, the electrons will drift from the negative end
towards the positive end of the conductor, assuming the
electron theory.
010100020021000B
A material that conducts electrical current is called
b)

a conductor

010100020021000A
The electrical pressure that causes current flow through a
circuit is
a)

electromotive force

010100020021000D
The flow of electrons in a uniform direction from atom to atom
through a circuit, is known as
d)

current

010100020021000E
An insulator is material that will not conduct
an electrical current.

24

010100020021000E
A closed electrical circuit will allow current to flow
010100020021000D
An electrical device which is designed to start and stop
current flow is the switch
010100020021000A
Ohms Law can be stated as
a)

IR

010100020021000C
The voltage drop across a 20 ohm resistor with 10 amps
flowing would be
c)

200

010100020021000C
In an equivalent circuit developed from a multi-resistor
series circuit the sum of voltage drops across the original resistances
will be equal to the voltage drop of the equivalent circuit
010100020021000A
Three resistances of 20, 50 and 80 ohms make up a series
circuit. Supply voltage is 400. The current flowing would
be
a)

2.67 amps

010100020021000B
Equivalent resistance is decreased when a circuit is in parallel
010100020021000C
Three resistors of 20, 60 and 120 ohms are connected in
parallel and the circuit amperage is 60. The applied voltage
would be
c)

800

010100020021000C
The unit for opposition to current flow is the ohm
010100020021000E
The voltage required to force a current of 15 amps through a
resistance of 5 ohms would be75 volts
010100020021000A
Current flow is proportional to the applied voltage
010100020021000B
When one ampere of current flows through a resistance by the
application of one volt the resistance will be

25

b)

one ohm

010100020021000C
Current flow is inversely proportional to the
c)

resistance

010100020021000D
The value of the current flow in an electric circuit, where
the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 3 ohms is
d) 4 amperes
010100020021000A
The total resistance of three resistances in a series
circuit can be given as
a)

R1 + R2 + R3

010100020021000B
The equivalent resistance of three resistances 10 ohms,
25 ohms and 50 ohms connected in parallel is
b)

6.25 ohms

010100020021000C
A conductor's resistance is
c)

inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area

010100020021000A
Most conductors tend to
a)

increase in resistance with increase in temperature

010100020021000D
If the applied voltage in a circuit is 120 volts
and the current flow is 3 amperes the resistance
of this circuit is
d)

40 Ohms

010100020021000C
Voltage is
c)

electromotive force

010100020021000A
Electromotive force
a)

is capable of moving a quantity of electrons at

some rate per period of time

010100020021000C
An ampere is the

measurement of current flow.

26

010100020021000E
The volt is an electromotive force.
010100020021000B
Under normal circumstances, the heat produced by the electrical
wires of a circuit is very small due to the
b)

low resistance of the conductor

010100020021000C
The force required to produce a current of one ampere through
a resistance of one ohm, is
c) one volt
010100020021000B
The unit of current flow is the
b)

ampere

010100020021000A
The opposition a device or material offers to the flow of
electric current, is known as:
a)

a resistance

0503000200420006600;95;
An electric motor is designed for a current of 30 amperes
with an applied voltage of 220 volts.
a)

calculate the power consumed

b) calculate the efficiency of the motor if the rated output

is 6.27 kW
Answers:
a) = _____6600_________ watts
b) = _________95_______ %
010100020021000D
What power is dissipated by a resistor with a supply voltage of
120 volts and current of 8 amperes?
d)

960 watts

010100020021000A
Electrical power can be determined by the formula
a)

P = IE

010100020021000B
The basic unit of mechanical or electric power is the

27

b)

watt

010100020021000E
The voltage required to be supplied to a 12 kW motor drawing
24 amperes is
e)

500 volts

010100020021000D
If the power dissipated by a resistor is 1.2 kW when supplied with
110 volts, the amperage will be
d) 10.909 amperes
010100020021000B
Neglecting the efficiency of a 15 kW motor connected to a 400
volt supply, the amperage will be
b)

37.5 amperes

010100020021000D
The watt is an electrical unit of measure for
d)

power

010100020021000C
The basic unit of electrical power is the watt, which is the
result of
c) volts times amperes

Magnetism and Electromagnetism

010100020021000B
Magnetic flux can be said to be
b)

lines of force outside a magnet and flowing N to S

010100020021000A
Current flow direction and intensity will
a)

affect magnetic field direction and intensity

010100020021000C
When a material or substance does not form a magnetic flux
easily it is said to have
c)

reluctance

010100020021000E
The space or zone around a magnet through which lines of
force travel is termed
e) magnetic field
010100020021000B

28

Faraday discovered
b)

that a conductor will have a voltage induced if it cuts

magnetic flux

010100020021000C
If a conductor is held stationary and a magnetic field is
moved across it, it forms what is known as
c)

generator action

Magnetism and Electromagnetism

010100020021000D
When a conductor is moved to cut magnetic flux lines at an
angle of 90 degrees
d)

voltage generated will be maximum

010100020021000D
When magnetic flux lines travel and meet in opposing
directions the result can be
d)

motor action

010100020021000A
A conductor supplied with current while in a magnetic field
will
a)

tend to move at right angles to the flux lines

010100020021000D
If two unlike poles are placed adjacent to each other there is
d)

a force of attraction between the magnets

010100020021000E
When current flows in a conductor
e)

a circular magnetic field is set up around the conductor

010100020021000C
The total number of lines of force per square metre
in a magnetic field is
c)

called the magnetic flux

010100020021000D
Magnetic field direction and intensity depend on the
d)

direction and intensity of current flow

010100020021000D
When like poles of a magnet are placed adjacent to each other

29

they will
d)

repel each other

010100020021000E
A property of a magnet is that it will always point in the north
and south direction, when
e)

freely suspended in the air

010100020021000D
Iron and steel may be magnetized by rubbing the metal with
d)

a magnet

010100020021000E
The property which determines whether or not a material will
be easily magnetized or not is called
e)

permeability

010100020021000B
The property of resistance to conducting magnetic lines of force
is known as
b)

reluctance

010100020021000C
The maximum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
force at an angle of
c)

90 degrees

010100020021000D
When using Fleming's Left Hand Rule, the index finger
represents
d)

motor action flux direction

010100020021000E
A current carrying conductor being moved by a
magnetic field is the principle known as
e)

motor action

010100020021000A
The direction of the force due to motor action
may be determined using the Left Hand Rule.
010100020021000D
The minimum voltage generated by a single loop DC generator
occurs when the conductor is cutting the magnetic lines of
forces at an angle of
d)

180 degrees

30

010100020021000B
The right hand rule is used to
b)

determine the direction of induced current flow

Electrical Metering Devices

010100020021000D
Batteries
d)

produce a steady DC voltage

010100020021000D
The most common measurement made with a meter is
d)

voltage

010100020021000A
When using an electrical meter to check that a circuit is
safe to work on, it is important to verify the proper scale,
current, or both that is being used because
a)

it may appear that no voltage or current is present and

therefore safe

010100020021000C
A clamp-on ammeter measures current flow by using
c)

a basic transformer principle

010100020021000A
Clamp-on ammeter readings may be inaccurate if
a)

jaws are dirty or misaligned

010100020021000C
A kilowatt hour meter has a small motor which
c)

has a speed proportional to power consumption

010100020021000E
Utility companies have a surcharge to their customers based
on
e)

peak demand

010100020021000D
A voltmeter is connected to a circuit
d)

in parallel

010100020021000C
Ammeters are connected with the negative or black
lead connected to the

31

c)

negative side of the circuit

010100020021000D
When reading the dials of a power meter, read
d)

them from right to left

010100020021000E
The black demand pointer of a power meter
e)

must be manually reset

010100020021000C
A power meter
c)

reads only a small percentage of the actual load

Motors and Generators

010100020021000C
The electromagnetic field for a DC machine is termed the
c)

field poles

010100020021000D
There are three main types of DC generators; series, shunt
and compound wound. Each is
d)

self-excited

010100020021000E
Alternators must run at constant speed in order to maintain
e)

frequency

010100020021000A
The output voltage of a shunt DC generator may be varied by
adjusting the
a)

field rheostat

010100020021000B
The main components of a DC machine are the yoke or frame
which supports the field poles and the rotor
which is called an armature.
010100020021000A
In order to produce the strength of magnetic flux required in
larger DC machines
a)

electromagnets are used

32

010100020021000E
The armature core of a DC machine is built up of laminations
of
e) silicon steel plates
010100020021000B
A shunt type DC generator has nearly constant output voltage.
010100020021000E
The magnetic field in a DC machine may be supplied by permanent
magnets in small units. Large DC machines use field poles that
are essentially
e)

electromagnets

010100020021000A
The three main types of DC generators are the:
1.
3.
5.

compound wound
series wound
shunt wound

010100020021000D
The load current has no effect on the field excitation of a
d) separately excited generator
010100020021000B
Three factors which control the electromotive force developed
by a DC generator are the:
2.
3.
5.

speed with which conductors cut the magnetic lines of

force
number of conductors cutting the magnetic lines of force
strength of the magnetic flux

010100020021000A
The voltage produced in each phase of a three phase generator
is displaced by 120 electrical degrees from the other
phases.
010100020021000A
The field strength of an alternator can be adjusted by varying
the amplitude of the DC power supplied to the
a)

rotating field

010100020021000B
The field strength of an alternator may be changed by
varying the amplitude of the DC power, supplied to the
rotating field by:
1.
4.

the use of a field rheostat

electronic control

33

010100020021000C
An advantage of having an alternator with a rotating field is,
that the size of the rotating mass is
c)

reduced

050500020021000
Determine the speed of a synchronous motor operating with a line
frequency of 60 Hz where the motor has ## poles.
Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(2,14,2)
.SOLUTIONS
N=60*60/(P/2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",N:3,.01
010100020021000D
The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with
power
d)

is a commutator

010100020021000C
The space around a magnet, through which the imaginary magnetic
lines of force are considered to travel, is known as the
c)

magnetic field

010100020021000A
A common use for a DC generator is
a)
\

power supply for an elevator

010100020021000C
In a series wound DC generator2
c)

load current passes through the field windings

010100020021000A
A rheostat or "voltage regulator" of a DC shunt wound
generator is used to
a)

regulate the strength of the electromagnetic field

010100020021000A
When synchronizing an alternator; voltage, phase and
frequency must all be the same as well as
a)

phase sequence

010100020021000C
The field rheostat in a DC generator is used to adjust the
_______________ of the motor.

34

c)

output voltage

010100020021000E
The coils or windings on a DC machine armature, are placed in
_____________ cut in the face of the armature.
e)

slots

010100020021000B
The commutator of a DC machine is made of copper bars
mounted in
b)

micanite

010100020021000A
The field rheostat changes the output voltage in
a DC generator.
010100020021000D
A compound wound DC generator has a combination of shunt and
series characteristics, depending on the
predominance of each type of winding.
010100020021000B
The strength of the magnetic field produced in a shunt wound
generator
b)

is fairly constant

010100020021000C
A compound wound DC generator may have three characteristics
which are a:
1.
3.
5.

decreasing output voltage versus load

constant output voltage
rising output voltage versus load

010100020021000E
The output voltage rises sharply from minimum load to full load
conditions for DC wound generators, if constructed with one of
the following systems:
e)

series

010100020021000D
The rotating field of an alternator is obtained by exciting
the windings on the rotor with
d)

DC power

010100020021000B
The stator of an alternator is built of silicon steel
mounted in a frame.
b)

silicon steel

35

010100020021000D
A 6 pole alternator producing 60 Hz power must turn at
d)

1200 rpm

010100020021000E
Alternators are constructed to use slip rings made of
brass or
e) steel
010100020021000C
The number of cycles per unit of time measured in Hz, is known
as
c)

frequency

010100020021000E
Field poles are used on motors and generators
to set up a magnetic field.
e)

Field poles

010100020021000D
A rheostat is also known as a
d)

variable resistor

010100020021000B
Shunt wound DC motors are common where speed must remain
constant regardless of load such as on
b)

machinist lathes

010100020021000D
Three types of DC motors are shunt, series and
d)

compound

010100020021000D
Compound motors combine the characteristics of shunt and
series motors, as desired by the designer.
010100020021000A
The armature of a DC machine is built up
of laminated steel plates mounted on the shaft. The coils
are connected to a commutator mounted on one end of the
rotor shaft.
010100020021000D
The yoke that supports the main components of the DC machine
is frequently made of
d)

cast steel or iron

36

010100020021000E
Synchronous motors have construction that is identical to
e)

alternators

010100020021000D
An AC motor which will drop out of synchronism and simply
trip when overloaded is the
d)

synchronous motor

010100020021000D
Permanent magnets are used for
d)

the smallest DC motors and generators

010100020021000C
Brush gear for DC machines have brushes made from carbon
because they:
1.
2.
5.

are softer
wear to a smooth finish
have a low coefficient of friction

010100020021000D
A rheostat is used to vary the field strength in a DC
machine.
010100020021000D
Synchronous motors are used to
d)

improve the power factor of a power system

010100020021000D
To transfer the power to or from the rotor of alternators or
some AC motors
d) slip rings are employed
010100020021000C
Apparent power is the power
c)

supplied by the utility

Transformers
010100020021000A
When AC action causes a counter current in a coil it is
termed
a)

self inductance

37

010100020021000C
When magnetic flux produced by one coil induces an EMF in a
second coil it is called
c)

mutual inductance

010100020021000B
A transformer works on the principle of
b)

magnetic induction

010100020021000E
If E / E = N / N then N will equal
p
s
p
s
s
e)

/ E

010100020021000C
Three major losses which occur in a transformer are iron
losses, copper losses and
c) flux leakage
010100020021000C
Copper losses in a transformer are reduced by
c)

using larger diameter wire

010100020021000D
An active current transformer should never
d)

have its secondary circuit opened

010100020021000E
A phenomena produced by electronic switchgear which can
result in excessively high voltages in transformers are known
as
e)

harmonic distortion

010100020021000D
A device used to change the voltage and current from one level
to another, is known as a/an
d)

transformer

010100020021000C
An instrument transformer used to measure voltage is called a
c)

potential transformer

010100020021000E
Transformers are rated in terms of:
1.
3.

Volt amperes
Kilovolt amperes

38

010100020021000A
The capacity of a transformer can be increased by:
1.
3.
5.

submerging the core and windings in a tank of oil

forced air cooling the oil in a heat exchanger
forced air cooling of the core

010100020021000C
A transformer has a primary voltage of 500 volts and 20 turns
on the primary winding. If the secondary winding has 5 turns
the voltage of the secondary is
c)

125 volts

010100020021000E
The voltage induced in the secondary windings of the
transformer, is inversely proportional to the turns ratio of the
transformer.
010100020021000E
Current transformers step down the current rather than the
e)

voltage

010100020021000A
Transformer cooling oil has
a)

a very high specific heat

010100020021000C
Some of the hazards of transformer cooling oil can be
compensated for by adding
c)

chlorinated hydrocarbons

010100020021000D
Transformers should be inspected at least
d) annually

Electrical Distribution Circuits

010100020021000C
A typical extra low voltage device would be a
c)

door bell

010100020021000C
A prime factor in determining the voltage to be used in a
circuit is

39

c)

degree of access to equipment

010100020021000B
Low voltage systems may have an acceptable voltage variation
of plus or minus
b)

5%

010100020021000E
The ability of an electrical circuit to store a charge of
electricity even after the circuit is opened is termed
e)

capacitance

010100020021000C
When working with high voltage systems, the minimum distance
of approach should be
c)

2 metres

010100020021000B
The best type of diagram for showing supply and distribution
systems is the
b)

one-line diagram

010100020021000C
An electrical distribution system is composed of service,
feeders and
c)

branch circuits

010100020021000B
The utility's responsibility will not go beyond the
b)

first overcurrent device

Introduction to Instrumentation
010100020021000B
When a process variable has no method of sending information
to the final control element the system is known as
b)

an open loop system

010100020021000D
An open loop control system requires
d)

constant attention

010100020021000C
A process variable which is adjusted in order to maintain or
achieve some desired value of another variable is termed the

40

c)

manipulated variable

010100020021000E
A control loop controller
e)

constantly compares input signals to the set point

010100020021000E
A common air pressure range for pneumatic control systems is
e)

20 to 100 kPa

010100020021000B
A very important requirement for a pneumatic control system
is
b)

air supply must be clean and dry

010100020021000D
The apparatus which converts current signals to pneumatic and
pneumatic to current signals is called a
d)

transducer

010100020021000D
A control device which will change one form of energy into
another form of energy is the
d)

transducer

010100020021000A
A device which will cause a visible light signal to become an
instrument analog signal is the
a)

photoelectric transducer

010100020021000B
A "control" should be considered as a special device which
b)

tries to maintain a set point

010100020021000C
Automatic systems which can make decisions are termed
c)

logic systems

Introduction to Process Measurement

010100020021000A
An inclined manometer is commonly used
a)

when very low pressures or vacuums are being measured

41

010100020021000D
A Bourdon tube is often in the shape of a spiral so that
d)

more power and travel of the output occurs

010100020021000C
When a diaphragm device is used for boiler water level
measurement, the boiler pressure is compensated for or
off-set by
c)

applying the pressure to both sides of the diaphragm

010100020021000E
One of the most widely used process variables in a system is
e)

flow

010100020021000C
In a glass stem thermometer the space above the liquid is
usually
c)

maximum vacuum

010100020021000D
A thermocouple will produce a DC millivoltage which
d)

is not quite proportional to temperature differences

010100020021000E
The Bourdon tube is often shaped in the form of a "C", having an
arc span of about
e)

270 degrees

010100020021000B
The purpose of a spiral or a helix Bourdon tube is
b)

to provide a greater degree of rotation

010100020021000C
Glass thermometers with a mercury fill are sometimes
pressurized with nitrogen so
c)

that they can be used at higher temperatures

010100020021000E
Temperatures are measured by
e)

thermocouples

010100020021000D
The variable area meter consists of
d) a tapered tube in which the fluid being measured flows
through the tube from the bottom to the top
010100020021000E
A bimetal thermostat reacts to changes of

42

e)

temperature

010100020021000B
When a float is used for measuring level, and installation
within a vessel is impractical, a device often used is the
b)

float cage

010100020021000D
Relative to flow, velocity is kinetic energy and when
velocity increases, the
d)

potential energy in the form of pressure will decrease

010100020021000C
Liquid must be in its vapour form
c)

when a chromatograph is being used

0020021000B
A chromatograph uses electronic devices which
b)

have inverse resistance properties relative to

temperature

010100020021000D
The electrical output from a thermocouple is measured by a
d)

millivoltmeter

010100020021000B
A thermocouple consists of
b)

two dissimilar wires connected together to form a hot

and a cold junction

Basic Control Loop Components

010100020021000B
A flapper-nozzle assembly is basic to all
b)

transmitters

010100020021000C
The nozzle receives a constant air supply pressure of
approximately
c)

140 kPa

010100020021000A
The output pressure signal of a transmitter relay is usually
a)

direct and proportional to nozzle pressure

43

010100020021000A
A two-position controller compares conditions to a set point
and
a)

will start or stop a process

010100020021000E
When controller output is proportional to the amount of
deviation, the controller is
e) proportional
010100020021000B
A proportional only controller
b)

cannot maintain set point except at 50%

010100020021000B
A recorder utilizing a spiral Bourdon tube will have a pen
movement
b)

proportional to the change in tube pressure

010100020021000D
When a recorder receives a signal from a transmitter, the
recorder incorporates a
d)

capsule or bellows

010100020021000A
When an operator uses CRT displays, the computer control
panel
a)

often has a number of dedicated recorders

010100020021000B
A control valve
b)

is a form of variable resistance in a piping system

010100020021000D
A valve actuator
d)
e)

position is a function of controller output

causes a valve to always fail open

010100020021000D
Most solenoid valves are unlike globe valves in that upstream
line pressure will
d)

act to close the valve

44

Basic Boiler Instrumentation and Control Systems

010100020021000B
On a packaged boiler a number of electrical switches
connected in series can be categorized as
b)

interlocks

010100020021000D
A combustion air proving switch
d)

senses windbox pressure

010100020021000A
A lead sulphide cell is sensitive to IR rays and
a)

its resistance to current flow varies inversely with ray

emissions

010100020021000C
To operate the type of flame failure device which incorporates
a lead sulphide cell, it must receive
c)

infrared rays

010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to
b)

shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?
e)

scanner

010100020021000D
A flame failure device
d)

will shut off the fuel to the burner

010100020021000E
Boiler modulating feedwater control flow rate depends on
e)

set point, level, and valve position

010100020021000B
With single element feedwater control the level transmitter
output is
b)

proportional to drum level

010100020021000E
The second element of a two element feedwater control system

45

compensates for or offsets

e)

shrink and swell

010100020021000A
A boiler control transfer or selector station
a)

can be used to manually override automatic control loops

010100020021000C
An automatic feedwater regulator is used to
c)

maintain a constant water level in the boiler

010100020021000A
In a two element feedwater control the following items are
measured:
a)

boiler water level and steam flow

010100020021000C
On a steam boiler with single element feedwater control,
the following item is measured:
c)

boiler water level

010100020021000A
An automatic boiler ON-OFF or operating control switch has an
adjustment for cut-in or cut-out value and another for
a)

a differential between the two

010100020021000E
A packaged steam boiler modulating combustion control system
will routinely
e)

maintain boiler steam pressure within a desired range

010100020021000A
Modulating combustion control will
a)

change air and fuel flow proportionally to steam pressure

change

010100020021000B
Modulating pressure control
b)

will control the fuel and air flow to the boiler

010100020021000C
Modulating combustion control on a heating boiler is accomplished
by
c) changing the amount of fuel and air to the burner

46

Low-water Fuel Cutoffs

010100020021000C
A float operated low-water fuel cutoff has its switch
separated from boiler pressure by
c)

a flexible diaphragm

010100020021000B
A mercury switch bulb is under high vacuum and contains inert
gas
b)

to prevent corrosion of the contacts

010100020021000C
A float operated level control
c)

is only used on small boilers

010100020021000A
Overheating of boiler heating surfaces due to low water
a)

is the main cause of boiler failure

010100020021000D
A low water fuel cut-off is fitted to a boiler to prevent
d) damage to the boiler from an overheated condition
010100020021000E
The purpose of a low water fuel cut-off is to
e)

shut off the fuel supply when the water level gets too low

010100020021000A
A low water fuel cut-off may be activated by
a)

lowering the water level in the boiler

010100020021000E
The CSA code states that a boiler not under continuous
attendance must be equipped with a low-water fuel cutoff
which
e)

serves no other purpose

010100020021000A
A low-water fuel cutoff which serves no other purpose
a)

cannot be equipped with isolation valves

010100020021000C
A low-water fuel cutoff switch should close the automatic
fuel valve(s) when the water level is

47

c)

1 to 2.5 cm above the bottom gage glass nut

010100020021000B
A hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff
b)

cannot be tested during routine boiler operation

010100020021000C
The drain of a hot water boiler low-water fuel cutoff should
be opened to flush out any debris
c)

weekly

010100020021000B
To test a low water fuel cut-off
b)

lower the water level until the burner shuts down

010100020021000A
The float chamber of the low water cut-off is blown out often
to prevent
a)

the chamber collecting sediment

010100020021000C
The most reliable method of checking or testing a low-water fuel
cut off is to
c) lower the water in the boiler to the level where the
burner should cut out
010100020021000C
The low water cut-off can be tested by
c) shutting off the feedwater

Boiler Programming Controls

010100020021000C
Automatic boiler programming controls
c)

require an ON-OFF or two-position control switch

010100020021000D
An interrupted pilot of an automatic boiler
d) lights, completes a trial, and extinguishes after a main
flame trial
010100020021000C
The function of a programming control is
c)

to regulate combustion controls during start-up

010100020021000D

48

Boiler furnaces are purged

d) so that combustibles are fully removed prior to ignition
010100020021000A
Automatic boiler liquid fuel manual valves should be opened
a)

prior to pre-purging

010100020021000A
The operating pressure control will control the
a)

steam pressure in the boiler

010100020021000C
The second from last step in an automatic boiler programmed
shutdown sequence is
c)

post purge

010100020021000C
With automatic fuel fired boiler programmed control the
normal firing period begins approximately
c) 60 seconds after FD fan starts
010100020021000A
On a gas fired automatic boiler a normal programmed start-up
takes approximately
a)

105 seconds

010100020021000C
During a programmed start-up if an ignitor spark is visible
but no flame appears the operator should suspect
c)

the pilot manual fuel valve is closed

010100020021000A
If a shutdown occurs during normal firing of a boiler and the
steam pressure is below the normal cut-out value, the problem
could be
a)

the sensing line to the combustion air proving switch has

broken

010100020021000A
On a boiler with high-low fire control, if the damper
positioning switch is in the wrong position
a)

the damper motor may not operate

Introduction to Process Computer Applications

49

010100020021000B
The main function of a mainframe computer system is to
b)

rapidly process large amounts of data

010100020021000A
A typical use of a mainframe computer system in a process
would be
a)

the operation of a modulating control valve

010100020021000E
Sharing and transferring information between computers is
termed
e)

networking

010100020021000D
A multiplexing sequence may be repeated as high as
d) four times per second
010100020021000B
Computer "soft keying" is
b)

done to make the computer quicker and easier to use

010100020021000C
A digital input computer is protected from harmful voltages
by means of
c)

isolating circuits

010100020021000B
Transmitters which transmit digital codes directly to a
computer are known as
b)

smart transmitters

010100020021000E
The common standard control modes for a plant control system
are
e)

derivative, proportional, and integral

010100020021000A
Inputs for logic and supervisory computer functions are
mainly
a)

by switch contacts

010100020021000D
Computer "Run Time Totals" are commonly used
d)

for maintenance management

50

Watertube and Tubular Heating Boilers

010100020021000D
The combustion chamber of a serpentine tube watertube boiler
is
d)

located below the tube

010100020021000D
One of the reasons that industrial type watertube boilers are
seldom selected for low pressure heating plants is
d)

high cost

010100020021000C
A membrane waterwall
c)

has metal connecting the tubes

010100020021000E
What limits the height of a packaged boiler is
e)

transportation requirements

010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to
c)

radiant heat

010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the
d)

shell or drum

010100020021000C
In a low pressure serpentine tube watertube boiler, the
serpentine tubes are attached to upper and lower headers with
__________ connections.
c)

threaded

010100020021000B
The furnace walls in a bent-tube watertube boiler are formed
by water filled tubes and these walls are called
b)

water walls

010100020021000D
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is
d) corrosion resistance

51

010100020021000B
An initial problem with the tubular boiler being used as a
steam unit was
b)

dissolved impurities forming scale on the tube

010100020021000E
An advantage of a packaged low pressure tubular or watertube
boiler is
e) safety due to the low volume of water it contains
010100020021000D
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine tube
watertube boilers is
d)

ease of replacement of defective tubes

010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the low pressure serpentine
watertube boiler is
c) virtually eliminates expansion and contraction stresses
010100020021000A
A reason for preferring copper tubing in a tubular boiler is
a)

faster heat transfer rate

010100020021000C
A packaged tubular steam boiler often has a steel sheathing
in front of the waterwall tubes due to
c)

the erosive action of the flame

010100020021000A
In order to keep salt concentrations within safe limits the
packaged tubular steam boiler utilizes
a)

an automatic blowdown

010100020021000B
A disadvantage of the watertube or tubular boiler is
b)

water treatment monitoring

010100020021000A
The copper tube tubular boiler
a)

can be gas or oil fired

Cast-iron Sectional and Modular Boilers

52

010100020021000A
Sectional cast-iron boiler sections are connected with
a)

push nipples

010100020021000C
Cast-iron boiler sections maximize heat transfer by
c)

exposing as large a surface as possible to the hot gases

010100020021000A
Boiler water legs
a)

increase the heating surface

010100020021000D
Boiler sections are held together with
d)

tie rods

010100020021000C
The ratio of heat released to heat transferred to boiler
water is known as
c)

boiler efficiency

010100020021000C
Most low capacity cast-iron boilers
c) will pass through standard size doorways
010100020021000E
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are
connected by
e) push nipples
010100020021000D
The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler
are held together by
d)

tie rods

010100020021000B
In a vertical sectional boiler the sections are places
b)

side by side

010100020021000D
The sections of cast iron boilers are mainly designed to
obtain maximum
d)

heat transfer

010100020021000A
The fins cast on the flat surface of the sections of a cast
iron sectional boiler are used for the purpose of increasing
the

53

a)

effectiveness of heat transfer

010100020021000E
To prevent flue gases from escaping in a cast iron sectional
boiler, the spaces between the sections are sealed with high
temperature
e)

asbestos rope

010100020021000C
Heating boilers attain maximum efficiency only when they are
operated
c)

continuously at full load

010100020021000A
Modular cast-iron boiler water flow is
a)

continuous through all modules

010100020021000B
In a cast iron modular heating boiler, the operation of the
burner of each module is controlled by a __________ which
starts or stops modules in sequence as load demand increases
or decreases.
b)

step controller

010100020021000E
A cast-iron boiler disadvantage is
e) its pressure limitations
010100020021000D
A cast-iron boiler advantage is
d)

the choice of assembly location

010100020021000B
Cast-iron boiler capacity
b)

can be increased by simply adding sections

Firetube Heating Boilers

010100020021000C
One of the earliest firetube boilers was the
c)

HRT boiler

010100020021000C
An internally fired boiler

54

c)

has the furnace surrounded by water

010100020021000E
The forerunner of the modern packaged firetube boiler was
the
e) Scotch Marine boiler
010100020021000A
Initially the firetube boiler was not up to manufacturing
expectations because
a)

too many equipment suppliers were involved in its

manufacture

010100020021000A
Smaller firetube boilers are low cost and
a)

have simple rugged construction

010100020021000A
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a power boiler
rather than a heating unit
a)

it will have a much stronger design

010100020021000E
The steam pressure must not exceed 103
to be considered a heating boiler.

kPa for a boiler

010100020021000D
The temperature of a boiler must not exceed 121
degrees Celsius or the pressure exceed 1130 kPa for it to be
considered a heating boiler.
010100020021000B
To maintain high gas velocities throughout all gas passes in
a four-pass firetube boiler, the cross-sectional area of each
succeeding pass is
b)

decreased

010100020021000C
A firetube boiler commonly used for hot water heating systems
in residences and small apartments is the
c) steel plate vertical unit
010100020021000E
A steel plate vertical firetube unit is divided into two
sections and the upper part is often called the
e)

heat exchanger

010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which

55

are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a

e)

firetube boiler

010100020021000C
Packaged firetube boilers
c)

require relatively small building volumes

010100020021000D
When a packaged firetube boiler is used as a hot water unit
d)

forced circulation is required

010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

lower freight costs because of less handling

lower initial cost because they are mass produced
quality control is easier to implement
the boilers can be factory tested before being sent
to the customer
it requires little time to put the unit into operation
at the plant site

010100020021000C
The chief advantage of a packaged boiler is that it can be
c)

mass produced

010100020021000C
One of the advantages of the firetube boiler over the
watertube and tubular boiler is in the
c) water treatment area
010100020021000A
The advantage of a vertical firetube boiler is that it
requires
a)

very little floor space

Oil Burners for Heating Boilers

010100020021000D
The reducing of oil into very small particles is termed
d)

atomization

010100020021000B
Before atomization can occur, heavy oils are heated to
approximately
b)

95 degrees C

010100020021000E
An air atomizing burner utilizes an air pressure of

56

approximately
e)

100 kPa

010100020021000D
An air atomizing compressor is usually
d) a positive displacement type
010100020021000A
The capacity of a constant capacity mechanical atomizer is a
function of
a)

orifice size

010100020021000B
A modulating pressure atomizer has its return oil flow
regulated by
b)

a modulating valve in the return line

010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?
a)

mechanical atomizing burner

010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization
c) high pump pressure is required
010100020021000A
Oil burners can be divided into three classes:
1.
2.
3.

air and steam atomizing burners

mechanical or pressure atomizing burners
centrifugal or rotary cup burners

010100020021000B
The compressed air used as atomizing air in the air atomizing
oil burner is also called
b)

primary air

010100020021000B
The two basic varieties of mechanical atomizing oil burners
are:
2.
3.

constant capacity burner

modulating burner

010100020021000D
A multi-burner cluster has secondary and tertiary nozzles
ignited by
d)

the primary burner

57

010100020021000B
When a greater than normal amount of combustible mixture is
ignited the result may be
b)

a puff-back

010100020021000C
A fuel filter consists of
c)

three main parts

010100020021000D
Burner light oil supply pressure range is approximately
d) 550 to 700 kPa
010100020021000B
A relief valve is placed on the discharge of a fuel oil pump
b)

so burner design pressure is not exceeded

010100020021000B
A time delay oil valve
b)

opens once ignition is verified

010100020021000C
In order to prevent the possibility of a furnace explosion it
is important that the furnace is purged before the
ignitor is energized and fuel is supplied to the burner
nozzle(s).

010100020021000E
Intermediate and high fire burner nozzles have higher
capacities than the primary burner nozzle
e) to allow better boiler warm-ups
010100020021000A
Oil flow rate to a modulating burner is regulated by
a)

a return line modulating valve

010100020021000C
The minimum distance from furnace to oil storage tank is
c) 2.1 m
010100020021000E
Maximum static pressure in a fuel oil line is approximately
e)

70 kPa

Gas Burners for Heating Boilers

010100020021000C

58

The main function of a gas burner is

c)

provision of O -fuel contact

2

010100020021000B
An atmospheric burner has air entering around the burner
which is termed
b)

secondary air

010100020021000D
The amount of pre-mix air to an atmospheric burner should be
d)

30 to 40%

010100020021000A
A refractory burner disadvantage is
a)

high initial cost

010100020021000A
A very popular packaged boiler gas burner is the
a)

ring burner

010100020021000D
An atmospheric burner head which is very popular on heating
boilers is the
d)

rectangular type

010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly
a)

it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips

010100020021000D
Gas burners for heating boilers can be divided into two
general classes and they are the
d)

pre and after mix burners

010100020021000B
The Venturi tube in the atmospheric burner mixing head has a
b)

gradually increasing cross-sectional area

010100020021000E
Rectangular burner heads are most common for use in heating
boilers.
010100020021000B

59

One of the advantages of the refractory (gas) burner is the

b)

gas and air mixture is thoroughly preheated before it

enters the furnace

010100020021000D
The purpose of the deflector vanes in the centre of a ring
(gas) burner is to
d) promote turbulence of the gas and air mixture
010100020021000A
One of the advantages of using natural gas as a fuel in a
boiler is
a)

that no storage space is required

010100020021000C
An intermittent pilot

c)

lights the main flame and remains on with it

010100020021000C
The pilot burner for gas fired heating equipment can be:

3.
4.
5.

intermittent
interrupted
automatic

010100020021000E
The

continuous

pilot is most often used on small boilers.

010100020021000D
Large capacity burners

d)

should have minimum flow on ignition

010100020021000B
A hydramotor valve

b)

helps to prevent puff-backs

010100020021000A
A solenoid type fuel valve

a)

is held closed by fuel pressure

010100020021000B
If the power is cut off to an automatic gas valve, the valve
will be

b)

closed immediately

010100020021000A

60

The advantage of a motorized (hydramotor) gas valve is that

the valve opens

slowly

thus preventing "furnace puff".

Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers I

010100020021000C
A function of a Bourdon tube gage hairspring is

c)

eliminate backlash

010100020021000A
An LP steam pressure gage range shall be between

a)

210 and 420 kPa

010100020021000E
An inspectors' test connection

e)

is not mandatory on LP boilers

010100020021000D
When installing a siphon it

d)

should be first filled with water

010100020021000B
An indication of a pressure gage not performing properly is

b) the needle not returning to zero on

depressurizing
010100020021000A
When using a dead weight tester, the effect of friction

a)

is reduced by rotating the platform

010100020021000D
The working medium in the dead weight tester is

d)

medium weight oil

010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the
steam pressure gage is

d)

a siphon

010100020021000E
A steam pressure gauge is graduated in

61

e)

kilopascals

010100020021000C
The prime importance of boiler fittings are

c)

safety

010100020021000A
All boiler fittings not properly or clearly identified should
be

a)

rejected

010100020021000C
The purpose of the test connection on a boiler pressure gauge
is to

c)

install the boiler inspector's pressure gauge

010100020021000A
As the boiler pressure increases, the bourdon tube of the
pressure gauge will

a)

tend to straighten

010100020021000E
The cross-section of a Bourdon tube is generally

e)

oval

010100020021000D
An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam
pressure gauge is a

d)

siphon

010100020021000C
The purpose of the pipe siphon installed between the boiler
and the pressure gauge is to prevent

c)

hot steam from entering the gauge

010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not less than

a)

210 kPa
62

010100020021000B
According to the ASME code, the scale on the dial of the
steam gauge for a low pressure steam heating boiler shall be
graduated to not more than

b)

420 kPa

010100020021000B
An LP steam boiler safety valve shall not be smaller than

b)

12.7 mm

010100020021000D
In order to ensure a safety valve seats properly, it uses

d)

guides and bushings

010100020021000A
The force of the steam pressure acting on the safety valve
disc is a function of

a)

disc area

010100020021000C
The minimum blowdown of an LP safety valve is

c)

14 kPa

010100020021000C
Popping pressure of an LP safety valve may be adjusted

c)

up to 5%

010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the

d)

adjusting ring

010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?

c)

a seal

010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve

e)

allows it to "pop" open

010100020021000D
A safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller than

d)

13 mm
63

010100020021000D
According to the ASME code, steam heating boilers shall have
one or more safety valves, adjusted and sealed to discharge
at a pressure not exceeding 103 kPa.
010100020021000A
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be smaller
than

a)

12.7 mm (1/2 in.)

010100020021000E
According to the ASME code, the valve seat diameter of the
safety valve on a steam heating boiler must not be larger
than

e)

110 mm (4 1/2 in.)

010100020021000E
For a steam heating boiler, the safety valve shall be such
that, with the fuel burning equipment installed and operated
at maximum capacity, the pressure cannot rise more than
34 kPa above the maximum allowable working pressure
when all steam outlets are closed.
010100020021000D
The safety valve shall be installed in __________ position
and located in the highest practicable part of the boiler
proper.

d)

a vertical

010100020021000C
An LP safety valve lever test should be performed

c)

monthly

010100020021000C
LP boiler safety valves can be repaired

c) by a qualified boiler operator after

permission from theinspector
010100020021000B

b) increasing the boiler pressure until the valve

opens and noting the pressure on the pressure gage
when the valve opened
010100020021000B

64

Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method, is

considered good practice when carried out on a

b)

monthly basis

010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should

c) operate the try lever several times to blow

away foreign material
010100020021000D
If you found the safety valve on your heating boiler stuck in the
closed position while the boiler was in operation, the best thing
to do is

d) shut down the boiler and repair or replace the

safety valve
Basic Fittings for Low-pressure Steam Boilers II
010100020021000C
LP steam boilers must be equipped with a marker indicating
the

c)

lowest permissible water line

010100020021000D
A gage glass may be surrounded by a number of thin rods

d)

to protect the glass from damage

010100020021000E
Quick-closing gage glass valves

e)

require 90 degrees for full travel

010100020021000B
A disadvantage of a gage glass safety-shutoff valve is

b)

it requires more maintenance

010100020021000D
Should the steam line or water line to a gage glass become
plugged with sludge

d)

the gage glass will read high

65

010100020021000B
Water column supply line crosses will

b)

allow for piping cleaning and inspection

010100020021000B
Gage glass rupture may be caused by

b)

a cold draft

010100020021000D
When gage glass nuts are leaking

d) the glass should be isolated and depressurized

before tightening
010100020021000A
When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes
plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after
a while, that is

a)

higher than the level in the boiler

010100020021000A
The lowest visible part of the water gauge glass shall be at
least 25 mm above the lowest permissible water level
recommended by the manufacturer.
010100020021000D
The ASME code states that each steam boiler shall have one or
more water gauge glasses attached either directly to the
boiler or to a water column by means of valve fittings not
less than 13 mm pipe size.
010100020021000B
On a multiple steam boiler heating system, a stop valve must
be placed at each boiler outlet to

b)

allow boiler isolation from the system

010100020021000A
Boiler outlet valves are usually

a) gate valves because of their low resistance to

flow
010100020021000B
An outside screw and yoke valve

66

b)

readily shows its operating position

010100020021000B
The quick closing valves on the water gauge requires only
a quarter of a turn of the valve spindle to change the
valve from the full open to the full closed position and vice
versa.
010100020021000D
The feedwater pipe, before it enters the boiler must be
fitted with a check valve adjacent to the boiler.
010100020021000E
A boiler feedwater stop valve
e)

is used to isolate the feedwater line

010100020021000B
A globe valve should be used in the feedwater line

b)

whenever it may be used for control purposes

010100020021000B
A stop valve is fitted between the boiler and the feed water check
valve

b) for isolation and to provide a positive shutoff

010100020021000D
Boiler water foaming may be the result of

d)

high TDS

010100020021000C
Boiler blowdown lines have a specific size range based on

c)

boiler capacity

010100020021000B
Boiler blowdown piping

b)

must be full size to the point of discharge

010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to

c) discharge sediment and scale forming matter

from the boiler
67

010100020021000D
The purpose of the small vent valve or cock located on top
of the shell or on top of the water column on most boilers is

d) to allow air to escape from the boiler when

the boiler is being filled with water
Basic Fittings for Hot Water Boilers
010100020021000C
A pressure or altitude gage for a hot water boiler
c) does not require a siphon
010100020021000A
When a closed expansion tank is used and the system is cold

a) the auto fill valve will maintain a system

minimum pressure
010100020021000D
An altitude gage on hot water heating boilers is used to indicate

d)
e)

height of the highest radiator in system

the height of the boiler

010100020021000D
Siphon is not required between a pressure or an altitude
gauge and a hot water boiler since these boilers are

d)

filled with water

010100020021000B
The lever handle of the shut-off cock between a pressure or
altitude gauge and a hot water boiler should be PARALLEL to
the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.

b)

parallel

010100020021000A
The scale on the dial of a pressure gauge should be graduated
to not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable
working pressure.
010100020021000E
The dial of a pressure gauge on a hot water boiler indicating
SI units can be graduated in kPa

68

010100020021000E
When the pressure pointer of a closed system reads lower than
the altitude pointer the

e)

system requires water

010100020021000D
The temperature indicator of a hot water boiler should
indicate water temperature

d)

at the boiler outlet

010100020021000B
On a pressure temperature indicator, if the pressure pointer
falls below the altitude pointer

b)

the system is low on water

010100020021000A
Hot water heating boilers must be equipped with a

a)

thermometer

010100020021000E
With the fusible plug type of temperature relief device, the
fusible plug will melt at 99C degrees Celsius and
allow hot water to escape.
010100020021000D
The expansion and contraction rod type of temperature relief
device will open the valve at 99C degrees Celsius and
close it at 71C degrees Celsius.
010100020021000B
A boiler pressure relief valve
a)

shall be installed on the boiler

c)
d)
e)

must be at least 51 mm pipe size

does not require annual checking or testing
can be installed with an isolation valve

b) can be installed anywhere in the system but

preferably close to the expansion tank

010100020021000A
For hot water boilers operating up to 414 kPa, a pressure
relief valve opening pressure variation may be as much as

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

14 kPa
5%
14%
5 kPa
10%

69

010100020021000E
A hot water boiler is protected from over pressure by means of
a)
b)
c)
d)

e)

a safety pop valve

a high limit pressure control
an expansion valve
an air release valve

a safety relief valve

010100020021000A
ASME Section IV, states
shall have at least one
valve set to relieve at
working pressure of the

that each hot water heating boiler

officially rated pressure relief
or below the maximum allowable
boiler.

010100020021000E
Hot water boilers have stop valves in their inlet and outlet
piping

e) so that the boiler can be drained without

draining the system
010100020021000C
Boiler stop valves shall be

c)

identified with durable tags

010100020021000B
During warm-up of a cold hot water boiler excessive pressure
build-up is prevented by

b)

an expansion tank

010100020021000D
In a closed expansion tank system an air separator

d)

directs air into the expansion tank

010100020021000C
In a hot water heating system, the closed type expansion tank
should be

c)

partly filled with water

010100020021000B
When a closed type expansion tank on a hot water boiler is completely
filled with water and the water in the system is raised in temperature so that
it expands, the result will be that

70

b) the pressure build-up opens the safety relief

valve
010100020021000C
An expansion tank is used to

c)

allow for the expansion of the water

010100020021000D
The head of water in the hot water heating system employing
an open type of expansion is referred to the vertical
distance from the gauge of the boiler to the level in the
expansion tank, which is considered the highest level of the
water in the system.

d)

expansion tank

010100020021000C
An automatic fill valve

c)

is not mandatory

010100020021000A
A closed expansion tank is usually equipped with

a)

a gage glass

Hot Water Steam Heating Boiler Operations

010100020021000B
Before starting up a new boiler or one that has been out of
service the following must be ensured

b)

the boiler has a valid inspection certificate

010100020021000D
It is very important that boilers should be

d)

warmed up slowly to prevent thermal shock

010100020021000A
When cutting in an additional boiler into the heating system

a) the stop valves in the supply and return lines

are both closed
010100020021000D

71

One of the most important points that should be observed

before a new boiler is started and put into continuous
operation is to

d)

make sure the inspection certificate is valid

010100020021000D
When preparing a boiler for startup and the boiler is
equipped with a modulating combustion control, it is best to

d) set the manual-auto switch to "manual" and set

the flame control switch in the lowest position
010100020021000B
If the low-water fuel cutoff and/or the high limit control
are equipped with a trip-out device on a boiler, it is
recommended as part of the startup preparation to

b) push the reset button to assure that the

switches are closed
010100020021000D
In hot water boiler operation the maximum operating
temperature should never exceed

d)

121 degrees C

010100020021000C
The pressure relief valve on a hot water heating boiler
should be set

c)

25% above operating pressure

010100020021000C
A gradual increase in stack temperature is an indication of

c)

unclean heating surfaces

010100020021000D
The discharge pressure of steam heating pressure relief
valves should never exceed

d)

103 kPa/15 psi

010100020021000A
How often would you test the low level fuel cut-off on a low
pressure steam heating boiler by blowing out the float chamber?

72

a)

daily

010100020021000B
The maximum pressure of a low pressure steam heating boiler is

b)

103 kPa/ 15 psi

010100020021000D
The maximum operating temperature of a hot water heating
boiler is

d)

121 degrees Celsius

010100020021000E
Should any abnormal condition occur during light-off or the
temperature building-up period
a)

continue to run the boiler but reduce the steam and fuel

e) shut down the boiler immediately and close the

stop valves in the fuel lines
010100020021000C
There are two conditions that may occur during the warm up
period which may seem to be abnormal to the operator but will
disappear after the boiler heats up. These conditions are

c)

slight smoking and condensation

010100020021000B
During the warm-up period of a heating boiler the main burner
goes out. The operator should

b) shut down the boiler, close the fuel valves,

and determine the cause of the problem
010100020021000E
Thermal shock to boilers can be reduced by

a) warming up boilers slowly

b) keeping the boiler free of scale build-up
c) covering the tube sheets with refractory
d) not allowing full flow of cold water into a
warm hot water boiler
e)

all of the above

010100020021000B
The most important rule in safe operation of a steam heating
boiler is

73

b) keep the water level in the boiler at the

proper level
010100020021000B
To reduce the effects of uneven expansion and thermal shock
and to protect a boiler against damage during startup, one of
the precautions that should be taken is

b)

always warm up the boiler slowly

010100020021000D
It is recommended that the differential between the safety
relief valve set pressure and the operating pressure of a hot
water boiler be kept to a minimum of 69 kPa (10 psi) or
25% of the relief valve setting.

010100020021000A
Smoking conditions during the operation of a boiler can be
caused by

a)

improper air/fuel ratio

Steam Heating Equipment

010100020021000C
Unit heaters differ from convectors in that they use blowers
to increase heat transfer.

c)

blowers

010100020021000A
Convectors use metal fins to increase heat transfer.

a)

metal fins

010100020021000C
Radiators can be classified as

c)

wall-hung, floor, legless, and window

010100020021000C
In fin coil type heaters, individual room temperature is
controlled by

c)

dampers

010100020021000D
Unit ventilators use

74

d)

a mixture of inside and outside air

010100020021000D
The difference between a convector and a radiator is

d) that one is made of cast iron and the other of

steel or copper
010100020021000A
Large areas such as warehouses, are usually heated with

a)

unit heaters

010100020021000A
Air can be removed from steam heating systems by

a)

air vents

010100020021000E
A radiator valve is used to control the amount of

e)

steam entering the radiator

010100020021000E
A radiator trap is a device that is used to

e)

allow only water to leave the radiator

010100020021000C
The vacuum pump performs the following function:

c) returns the condensate (water) back to the

boiler
010100020021000A
The level in the condensate receiver is automatically
controlled by a

a)

float switch

010100020021000C
The purpose of a radiator trap is to

c)

drain condensate from the radiator

010100020021000B
Air vents are used to

75

b)

expel the air from heating systems

010100020021000E
The purpose of a radiator trap is to

e) pass condensate and retain steam in the

radiator
Steam Heating Systems
010100020021000C
The piping and heating units of a steam heating system must
be so arranged that

c)

steam can flow freely to all heating units

010100020021000B
In a gravity return system the boiler should be placed

b)

well below the lowest radiator

010100020021000C
The Hartford Loop prevents the water in the boiler from

c)

dropping below a safe level

010100020021000A
All supply and drain lines of a steam heating system must be
pitched to

a)

allow for drainage of condensate

010100020021000C
When starting up a steam heating boiler it should be filled
to

c)

1/2 of a gage glass

010100020021000D
If the water level falls too low during operation of a steam
heating boiler the operator should

d)

shut the boiler down

010100020021000E
In the case of radiators and convectors, the main sources of
trouble are the

76

e)

valves and traps

010100020021000D
Finned convectors should be kept free of

d)

dust

010100020021000B
Slow or insufficient heat throughout a building heated by
steam can be caused by

b)

too low a firing rate

010100020021000A
Slow or insufficient heat in one or more rooms in a steam
heated building can be caused by a

a)

faulty steam trap

Hot Water Heating Systems

010100020021000C
The maximum temperature of water in a gravity hot water
system is 87C
C
010100020021000B
In a forced circulation system the expansion tank
allows the system to operate at

b)

a pressure well above atmospheric pressure

010100020021000E
A forced hot water circulating system can be classified as
the following type:

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

loop system
one pipe system
two pipe direct return system
two pipe reverse return system
all of the above

010100020021000A
In a one pipe hot water system the fitting that directs the
water to each converter is called the

77

a)

diverter

010100020021000C
In a radiant heating system the maximum surface temperature
is

c)

30 degrees C

010100020021000A
In radiant heating system changes are

a)

difficult to make

010100020021000E
Automatic snow melting systems can use

a) hot water and antifreeze mixed

b) electric resistance heating
c) infrared lamps mounted above sidewalks and
ramps
d) hot water and ethylene glycol mixed
e)

all of the above

010100020021000C
Snow melting systems are usually filled with

c)

ethylene glycol and water

010100020021000A
Advantages of the forced circulation hot water heating
systems are

a) reduction in pipe size and greater heat

storage capacity
010100020021000B
A hot water boiler of the same output is

b)

smaller than a steam boiler

010100020021000B
In a hot water system compared to a steam heating system, if
there is a leak damage will

b)

be greater in the hot water system

010100020021000E
Which of the following use a boiler in the system?

78

1.
3.
4.

steam heating
steam to hot water system
hot water heating

- Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation

010100020021000B
Diverter fittings are used in the supply lines to heating
units

when a higher heating output is required from

the heating unit
010100020021000A
An air separator should always be installed in

a)

a horizontal pipe

010100020021000D
The air removed by the air separator is vented to the

d)

expansion tank

010100020021000E

e)

balancing valve is used

010100020021000D
The temperature control on a steam to hot water converter, controls

d)

the steam control valve

Hot Water Heating System Equipment and Operation

010100020021000C
Excessive pressure build-up due to a rise in temperature and
the resulting expansion of the water in the system is
prevented by the use of

c)

an expansion tank

010100020021000A
To prevent corrosion in the expansion tank it is sometimes
filled with

a)

nitrogen
79

010100020021000E
Improper location of the circulating pump and expansion tank
can cause

a) the circulating pump to cavitate

b) some points in the system to be under negative
pressure
c) air to be drawn into the system
d) vapour bubbles to form in the circulating pump
e)

all of the above

010100020021000A
The expansion tank is normally attached to the

a) boiler or the hot water supply line near the

boiler
010100020021000D
The minimum reading on an altitude gage of a boiler in a
large plant is from the top of the boiler to the highest
point in the system plus 1.2m
010100020021000B
The purpose of a pressure reducing valve is to

b)

automatically reduce pressure and maintain it

010100020021000B
What type of boiler would you expect to find in a hot water
system, incorporating a converter?

b)

steam boiler

Warm Air Heating System Equipment

010100020021000B
In a warm air heating system the cold air return registers
are located

b)

in interior locations

010100020021000A
The major disadvantage of an electric resistance coil furnace
for warm air heating is

a)

the high cost of electricity

80

010100020021000E
Lowboy furnaces are just over 1.2 m in height
010100020021000C
The advantage of having duct furnaces instead of a large
central furnace is

c) better control of heat in each zone of the

building
10100020021000C
The power supply for an electric resistance coil furnace is

c)

240 V

010100020021000A
In a fin-coil heat exchanger the primary source of heat for
the exchanger is

a)

steam or hot water

010100020021000D
A type of directly fired space heater is

a)
b)
c)

a unit heater
a floor furnace
a wall furnace

010100020021000B
High efficiency furnaces and heaters range in annual fuel
utilization efficiency (AFUE) from

b)

80 - 95%

010100020021000B
In high efficiency furnaces if the temperature of the flue
gas drops below 65 degrees C the

b)

water vapour will condense

010100020021000A
In a pulse combination furnace the stated efficiency is

a)

94 - 98%

Warm Air Furnace Components and Maintenance

010100020021000D

81

Heat exchangers in gas fired furnaces are made of

d)

steel

010100020021000E
Air filters can be divided into two groups

e)

mechanical and electronic

010100020021000B
Electronic filters will remove

b)

fine particles from the air

010100020021000C
The perimeter loop system of furnace ducting is ideal for a
building with

c)

no basement

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a type of outlet in a warm air
heating system?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a

grill
register
ceiling diffuser
perforated panel

all of the above

010100020021000D
Supply outlets should always be located

d)

to best prevent cold drafts

010100020021000C
In a warm air heating system, the heated air should enter the
rooms preferably via the

c)

baseboard registers on the outside wall

010100020021000C
Sleeve bearings on furnace fans require

c)

a few drops of oil every six months

010100020021000A
Furnace heat exchangers should be checked for corrosion
because

82

a)

carbon monoxide could leak into the building

010100020021000B
Insufficient heat throughout a building is likely caused by

b)

insufficient heat input

010100020021000E
Rooms that are stuffy and dry are created by
e) none of the above

Ventilation and Air Filters

010100020021000D
Actual ventilation rates may vary per person from
d)

0.14 to 1.5 cubic metres/min

010100020021000B
Ventilation can be divided into two basic methods: mechanical and natural
010100020021000A
Natural ventilation is improved by the use of a roof ventilator
010100020021000B
Mechanical ventilation can be divided into which types? mechanical air intake,
natural exhaust
010100020021000D
In a mechanical air intake, natural exhaust ventilation
system the pressure in the building is slightly above atmospheric pressure
010100020021000C
Living organisms that must be removed from the air are bacteria and spores
010100020021000E
Mechanical filters can be divided into two broad classes: throwaway and
renewable
010100020021000D
Viscous filters are highly efficient in the removal of dust and pollen
010100020021000B
Electrostatic filters are highly efficient in the removal of fine dust, smoke,
and fumes

83

010100020021000C
Ultraviolet light is used to remove bacteria and spores from the air.

Infrared and Electric Heating

010100020021000D
Infrared radiant energy is directed towards floors
010100020021000A
Infrared heaters are usually mounted overhead
010100020021000B
Gas-fired infrared heaters use the principle of heating a solid surface
010100020021000B
In an internally fired, gas fired infrared heater, the
surface temperature is about 400 degrees C
010100020021000D
A low temperature catalytic heater contains a layer of glass wool impregnated
with a catalyst
010100020021000B
The quartz lamp heating element will respond in a few seconds
010100020021000D
The main disadvantage of electric heating is the high operating cost
010100020021000E
In an open wire type heating element the resistance wire is
made of nickel-chromium
010100020021000B
Electrical heating can be divided into two general groups: direct and indirect
010100020021000C
In an electric snow melting unit, a thermostat should be used
to automatically shut the system down when the outdoor
temperature is above 2 degrees C
010100020021000D
The basic types of heating systems are:

1.
2.

steam heating
hot water heating
84

3.
4.

warm air heating

electric heating

Heating Boiler Feedwater Controls

010100020021000B
When a boiler equipped with a combination feedwater control
and low-water cutoff device shuts down due to a low-water
condition level must be restored to above the cutoff line before
the unit can be restarted

010100020021000C
An electric feeder valve will open before the low-water cutoff line is reached
010100020021000E
A float operated mechanical feeder valve should not open until the level is well
below the feed pump
cut-in level

010100020021000A
In nearly all LP steam heating systems the feedwater is usually condensate
010100020021000D
A Hartford loop will prevent boiler water level from going below the LPWL
010100020021000C
Because of variations in flow rate, nearly all large steam
heating plants utilize a condensate receiver
010100020021000A
Heating plants with multiple boilers often have independent boiler feedwater
control from a header
010100020021000A
Dissolved oxygen in condensate will cause pitting in a boiler
010100020021000A
Neutralizing amines raise the pH of condensate
010100020021000B
The result of a condensate receiver which is too small could
Be loss of condensate to the sewer

85

010100020021000C
A feedwater make-up system should be able to satisfy normal firing needs
010100020021000A
Equalizing lines on a condensate receiver float chamber will dampen level
fluctuations
010100020021000B
A condensate receiver low level cutoff switch will stop the feedpump thereby
preventing damage to it

Heating Boiler Operating Controls

010100020021000B
An ON-OFF steam boiler operates most efficiently at continuous firing
010100020021000C
A modulating control steam heating boiler has very efficient operation
010100020021000A
An operating control switch for an ON-OFF boiler uses a differential spring to
reduce cycling
010100020021000E
A levelling indicator is found on an ON-OFF operating control switch
010100020021000B
An item found upstream of an operating control switch is a siphon
010100020021000B
On a multiburner boiler the high fire nozzle will operate continuously when
steam demand exceeds boiler
capacity

010100020021000D
A manual "high-low" switch should be switched to "high" or
"auto" when the boiler has been properly warmed up
010100020021000A
A resistance control or "potentiometer" for modulating
Control works in conjunction with a modutrol motor
010100020021000A
A potentiometer control varies electrical current to a modutrol motor
010100020021000E

86

A high limit control switch must be used when a boiler is not under continuous
supervision

010100020021000C
Prior to a boiler safety valve popping during routine boiler
Operation the high limit switch should open
010100020021000C
A hot water boiler operating control can be a pressure switch utilizing a closed
liquid filled system
010100020021000B
A thermal element is capable of sensing temperature and converting it to a
pressure signal
010100020021000B
An aquastat is like a thermal element without a capillary tube
010100020021000E
A low fire switch acts as an interlock to ensure minimum damper setting
010100020021000C
What is the purpose of the high limit temperature control on
a hot water boiler? to shut down the burner if the water temperature rises
too high
010100020021000C
Combustion air safety switches are commonly found on boilers utilizing a forced
draft fan
010100020021000E
A high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch opens when gas pressure is too high
010100020021000A
A test lead or "jumper wire" is required when testing high steam pressure or
water temperature limiting controls

010100020021000D
Quickly closing the main burner manual cock valve during
boiler operation should check the high gas pressure fuel cut-off
010100020021000E
The combustion air proving switch should be checked when air flow is maximum

Heating Boiler Combustion Controls

87

010100020021000B
Fuel should be shut off immediately if it fails to ignite to prevent furnace
explosions
010100020021000B
A thermocouple produces an electric signal
010100020021000C
Thermocouples are connected in series to increase the sensitivity of the
detection system
010100020021000C
A flame rod forms an electric circuit with the rod, flame and burner
010100020021000D
A flame scanner
(1) requires a photoelectric cell
(3) requires a clear line of sight to the flame
010100020021000B
The function of a flame failure device is to
b)

shut off the fuel when the burner flame goes out

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a flame sensing device?
e)

scanner

010100020021000D
A flame failure device
d)

will shut off the fuel to the burner

010100020021000C
The maximum allowable temperature for the water in a hot
water heating boiler is
c)

120 degrees C

010100020021000E
High limit temperature controls
e)

shut off the fuel if the water temperature is too high

010100020021000C
Flame rods
c)

should shut off the fuel within four seconds of flame

failure

010100020021000E
All flame safeguard devices

88

e)

close the main fuel valve in case of pilot flame failure

or main burner failure

010100020021000E
Flame safeguard devices
e)

should be tested following the manufacturers instructions

Pneumatic Controls for Heating Systems

010100020021000A
The device used to maintain a constant pressure throughout a
pneumatic control system is called a
a)

reducing valve

010100020021000D
Pneumatic controllers are divided into two basic classes
d)

bleed and non-bleed

010100020021000A
A pneumatic control system
a)

uses a sensing device to change pressures in the control

line

010100020021000B
In a non-bleed type controller the device that senses a
change in room temperature is called a
b)

bellows

010100020021000C
In a self-contained control system the energy for operation
is provided by
c)

the reaction of the sensing device

010100020021000C
Parallel blade dampers are usually used for
c)

turning the air flow on or off

010100020021000E
An example of final control device for a heating system is a
e) all of the above
010100020021000D
The most common type of damper operator is a
d)

piston

010100020021000B

89

An example of an auxiliary device for a pneumatic control

system would be a
b)

three way air valve

010100020021000D
A pneumatic relay can also be called a
d)

cumulator

Electric Controls for Heating Systems

010100020021000D
A device used to position dampers and control valves is
termed
d)

an actuator

010100020021000E
Thermostats may be classified according to their

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

application
type of temperature sensing element
type of control action provided
temperature range
all of the above

010100020021000A
On-off thermostats are equipped with
a)

an open contact switch

010100020021000D
A bimetal thermostat's operating range is between
d) 10 and 32 degrees C
010100020021000E
A room thermostat should be mounted on an inside wall about
e) 1.5 m above the floor
010100020021000B
Pressure controllers can be divided into two classes
b)

high and low pressure

010100020021000A
An example of a controlled device would be
a)

a damper motor operating air louvers

010100020021000C
Control motors are divided into two classifications

90

c)

valve operators and damper operators

010100020021000D
In a basic electrical control system the device that senses a
drop in air temperature is called the
d)

thermostat

010100020021000E
In a basic electric control system an example of a controlled
device is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a fuel valve
a louver
a diverter valve
an electric switch

all of the above

010100020021000B
An electronic control system is comprised of a
b)

sensor, controller, and final control element

010100020021000A
An advantage of an electronic control system is that
a)

the controllers can accept a wide variety of inputs

010100020021000D
An example of a final control element is a
d)

damper

010100020021000B
An electronic controller is
b)

used to position an actuator

010100020021000B
The electrical resistance of a thermistor will
b)

decrease when heated

010100020021000B
Resistance temperature devices can provide a relatively
linear resistance variation from
b)

-40 to 120 degrees C

010100020021000E
Transmitters or transducers can measure

91

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

temperature
air flow
air flow velocity
water flow
all of the above

010100020021000C
A pressure sensor converts pressure changes into
c)

variables such as voltage, current, or resistance

010100020021000D
Electronic controllers can be divided into two types
d) on or off and modulating
010100020021000C
A transducer is a device that is used to
c)

convert an electronic signal to a pneumatic output

Lighting Systems
010100020021000D
A luminaire is a
d)

complete lighting unit

010100020021000D
When designing a lighting system which of the following
should be considered?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

initial cost
operating cost
maintenance cost

all of the above

none of the above

010100020021000A
Ambient lighting can be improved by two types of lighting:
a)

direct and indirect

010100020021000C
Direct lighting systems
c)

are more energy efficient than indirect lighting

010100020021000E
When control for multiple locations is required

92

e)

two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches are used

010100020021000E
An advantage of low voltage switching is

a) that local and remote control of lights is

permitted
b) the wiring does not require conduits
c) changes are simple and economical
d)
e)

a and b are correct

a, b and c are correct

010100020021000C
Occupancy sensors are
c)

automatic switches

010100020021000C
Most dimmer switches sold today
c)

save most of the power not being used by the luminaire

010100020021000D
The life safety code requires that emergency lighting be
provided for means of exit in
d)

all educational and institutional occupancies

010100020021000A
In large buildings approximately what percentage of the
electrical load is lighting?
a)

60%

Building Water Supply Systems

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about a constant pressure
system with Pneumatic Tank is false?
b)

This system is primarily used in larger buildings.

010100020021000D
The system which has a storage tank above the highest fixture
in the system is called
d)

a downfeed system

010100020021000C
When the maximum building demand for water is always less
than the maximum flow available from a municipal or local
distribution system which of the following systems can be
used?

93

c)

Tankless constant pressure system

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about Non-Circulating hot
water systems is true?
e)

The systems force large amounts of water to be wasted

before hot water is available in each fixture.

010100020021000A
Which of the following is not an element found in a
circulating hot water system?
a)

A fire recoil element

010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system the municipal distribution
systems and/or local storage tanks are used for which of the
following reasons.
b)

Water supply to heaters only

010100020021000B
In a circulating hot water system automatic air vents serve
which of the following functions?
b)

They remove air that is released when water is heated.

010100020021000C
The backflow prevention method which consists of two
independently acting check valves with an automatic operating
pressure differential relief valve located between the two
check valves is called
c)

reduced pressure principal device

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about pressure relief
valves is false?
b)

The valve must be directly connected to a drain or vent

pipe.

010100020021000B
Temperature relief devices are effective in eliminating the
following problem:
b)

flashing of water into steam when faucets are opened

Sanitary Drainage Systems

010100020021000D
Drain traps serve which of the following purposes:

94

i)
ii)

to seal the outlet fixture

to prevent back flow of sewer gas

010100020021000A
Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the
fixture?
a)

water closet

010100020021000A
Sewer smells coming from a floor drain in a washroom can be a
problem if the floors of the washroom are not cleaned often.
Which of the following courses of action is the simplest way
to stop the smell from coming out of the drain?
a)

Pour a pail of water in the drain.

010100020021000C
Negative pressure in a drainage system may result in which of
the following problems?
c)

drawing out of sealing liquids in traps

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?
c)

The stack vent and loop vents allow equalization of

pressure in the system.

010100020021000E
Corrugations in outside aluminum sheet metal conductors is
required
e)

to permit expansion.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about footing drains is
true?

a) Installed to prevent an accumulation of ground

water
around the building foundations.
b) Used to reduce the hydrostatic pressure on the
walls
below ground level.
c) Perforated or porous pipe is used to collect
the water
near the footings
95

d) The collected water is drained to a remote

area or into a
sump.
e)

All of the above

010100020021000D
The blow off valve in a storage heater is used to
d) remove sediment carried to the heater through the water
line.
010100020021000B
What is the correct sequence, from start to finish, needed to
replace a washer in a faucet?
iv)
Shut off the water at the nearest isolation valve.
i)
Unscrew the packing nut and remove the spindle.
iii) Remove the washer from the end of the spindle.
v)
Place the new washer on the end of the spindle.
ii)
If the valve seat is smooth and serviceable, replace
the spindle and tighten the packing nut.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

i, ii,
iv, i,
v, iv,
iv, i,
v, ii,

iii, iv, v
iii, v, ii
iii, ii, i
v, ii
i, iv, iii

010100020021000C
The pounding or banging of pipes and shuddering of fixtures
caused by a shock wave resulting from a sudden stop of water
flow in a pipe results in which of the following sounds?
c)

water hammer

Thermodynamics of Refrigeration
010100020021000D
In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat
transfers is correct?
d)

Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.

010100020021000E
Which of the following is an example of a loss of latent
heat?
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water evaporating
ice melting
refrigerant evaporating
air cooling

iv only
iii only
i, iii, and iv
both i and iii
none of the above

96

010100020021000B
The function of the condenser is to
b)

change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and
temperature is false?
a)

The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be

5 - 10 degrees C higher than that of the cooled medium.

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about high-side pressure
and temperature is true?
b)

The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20

degrees C higher than the temperature of the medium
used in the condenser.

010100020021000C
The rate at which a system will remove heat from the
refrigerated medium is defined as
c) refrigeration capacity
010100020021000B
Refrigerant mediums will evaporate
b)

when temperature is increased

010100020021000C
One tonne of refrigeration is
c)

233 kJ per minute

010100020021000E
If a cooled medium had an evaporation temperature of 2
degrees C, the evaporation temperature of the liquid
refrigerant should be approximately
e)

-8 to -3 degrees C

010100020021000B
Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute
pressure in kPa?
b)

Column 2

Refrigerants
010100020021000A
Which of the following characteristics is common in all of
the group B refrigerants?

97

a)

High toxicity

010100020021000C
R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable.
does it belong to?

c)

Which group

Group A1

010100020021000B
What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following
characteristics? It is nonflammable, odourless, nontoxic, it
does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present
and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of -40.6
degrees C.

b)

Freon-22

010100020021000D
The ideal commercial refrigerant should

d)

be environmentally friendly

010100020021000D
Ammonia refrigerants

d)

are well suited for industrial refrigeration

010100020021000E
The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group

e)

group "A1"

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of
heat?

a)
b)
c)
d)

entropy
enthalpy
density
volume

010100020021000D
The property which has to be known for the calculation of the
size of control valve and piping etc, is

d)

density

010100020021000A
The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is

98

a)

equal to its latent heat of vaporization

010100020021000B
The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and
machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard
conditions are:

b) 30 degrees Celsius condensing and -15 degrees

Celsius evaporating
010100020021000B
The latent heat of fusion of ice

b)

is 335 kJ per 1 kg

010100020021000E
The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and
vice versa is called

e)

miscibility

010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a physical property of
refrigerants?

d)

Density

010100020021000C
Ammonia is the only commonly used refrigerant which has the
physical property of

c)

flammability

010100020021000B
Molecular mass is a dependent factor in which of the
following physical properties?

b)

leakage tendency

010100020021000E
Freon 22 refrigerant

e)

is a heat transferring medium

Compression Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000D
Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle
compression refrigeration system?

ii)

Evaporator

99

iii)
iv)

Compressor
Condenser

010100020021000A
Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the
refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling
medium is the function of the

a)

compressor

010100020021000A
Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure
side of the system?

a)

compressor discharge

010100020021000C
The temperature in the evaporator

c)

depends on the pressure in the evaporator

010100020021000B
A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve
is

b) to regulate the refrigerant flow to the

evaporator
010100020021000B
Refrigerant condensers

b) cool the gas refrigerant discharged from the

compressor
010100020021000D
For a direct expansion system which of the following
statements is true?

d) The evaporator can be located in air

circulating ducts communicating with the material
or space being refrigerated.
010100020021000E
The primary difference between direct and indirect
refrigeration systems is the

e)

evaporator location

100

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about a system that
circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is
true?

d)

The evaporator cools the brine or water.

010100020021000B
The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink
refrigeration systems is usually

b)

calcium chloride

010100020021000C
Refrigerant evaporators

c) may have brine pumped past the coils in an

indirect system
010100020021000B
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a factory
assembled packaged refrigerant?

b)

Parts can be ordered and installed separately.

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about the economisers is
false?

a)

FALSE: It controls the flow of liquid

refrigerant from the low pressure evaporator
to the high pressure condenser.

b)

b) TRUE:economizer is composed of two chambers.

c) TRUE:In an economizer the upper float chamber is connected to the bottom of
the
condenser.
d) TRUE:The economiser float chamber is connected via the motor
to the second stage inlet of the compressor.
e) TRUE:Liquid refrigerant levels in each chamber of the economizer are
controlled by a float operated valve in the evaporator.
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a result of an economiser on the
refrigeration system?

a) an intercooling effect on the compressor

b) reduction of the power required for
compression in the second stage compressor
101

c) reduction of flash vapour in the evaporator

d) increase in the refrigerating capacity of a
system
e)

all of the above

010100020021000B
In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop
through each side of the system due to

b) friction in the evaporator, condenser, and

piping
Refrigeration Compressors
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a function of the compressor in
a refrigeration system?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

YES draw low pressure refrigerant out of the evaporator

YES draw low temperature refrigerant out of the evaporator
NO lower the temperature of the refrigerant
YES maintain sufficiently low pressure in the evaporator
YES raise the pressure of the refrigerant

010100020021000E
Which of the following is the compressor responsible for
doing?

i)
YES Maintains a high pressure in the
condenser
ii)
YES Maintains a low pressure in the
evaporator
iii) YES Raises the pressure of the refrigerant
010100020021000A
In a refrigeration system, the purpose of the compressor is to

a)

establish two pressure levels

010100020021000A
Which of the following compressor types uses impellers to
draw in vapour?

a)

Centrifugal compressors

010100020021000D
One negative factor of Hermetic type reciprocating
compressors is

102

d)

field servicing is not possible

010100020021000A
In a rotating vane design rotary compressor, a good seal is
maintained between the vanes and the cylinder by

a)

centrifugal force

010100020021000B
For a Helical Rotor Design rotary compressor which of the
following statements is true?

b) The driving rotor has less helical lobes than

the driven rotor has flute.
010100020021000C
Piston displacement is defined as

c) the volume of refrigerant that can be

circulated through all the cylinders per unit time
010100020021000B
Refrigerant compressors

b)

could be a centrifugal type

010100020021000A
Pistons and connecting rods are found in which of the
following types of compressors?

a)

Reciprocating

0503000200210001.037 %.05;
Consider a single stage, single acting reciprocating compressor.
Calculate the piston displacement in cubic metres per minute, if
given the following:
piston stroke
piston diameter
piston speed

12 cm
10 cm
1100 working strokes per minute

Answer = ____________________

cubic metres per minute

010100020021000C
A typical stationary crankshaft seal consisting of a metallic
bellows soldered at one end to a ring (seal nose) which bears
either against a shoulder on the shaft or against a seal ring
on the shaft is called a

c)

bellows seal
103

010100020021000E
In rotating mechanical seals the sealing ring is held in
position by

e)

a spring

Heat Exchangers for Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000B
The two types of evaporators, dry evaporators and flooded
evaporators differ principally in what respect?

b)

method of refrigerant circulation

010100020021000A
An evaporator that contains only a small amount of liquid
refrigerant at any time is what type of evaporator?

a)

Dry evaporator

010100020021000E
Refrigerant evaporators

e)

are used to transfer heat

010100020021000D
The evaporator which increases heat exchange by crimping thin
metal plates to its form is which type of evaporator?

d)

Finned tube

010100020021000C
An evaporator which can easily be cleaned and defrosted
manually without interrupting the cooling process is which
type of evaporator?

c)

Plate surface

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about the shell and tube
evaporator type is false?

e) The liquid to be cooled circulates through the

tubes in the direct-expansion operation.
010100020021000A
Air-cooled condensers of large capacity are found mainly in
which of the following locations?

104

a)

roof tops

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about double tube
condensers is true?

c) Water flow in the inner tube is in the

opposite direction of the flow of refrigerant.
010100020021000B
The condenser which is very expensive to clean and requires
the tubes to be cleaned with acid and neutralized is the

b)

shell and coil condenser

010100020021000C
The amount of water used in an evaporative condenser is only
a small percentage of that used in a water condenser of the
same capacity. This is due primarily to what?

c) Water evaporating requires a large amount of

latent heat.
010100020021000A
The common types of water-cooled condensers used in
refrigeration systems are:

1.
2.
3.

the shell and tube

the shell and coil
the double tube

010100020021000E
Defective condenser operation is a result of the presence of
all of the following except

e)

compressor lubricating oil

010100020021000B
The purpose of a condenser in a refrigeration system is

b)

to remove the latent heat from the refrigerant

Refrigeration Metering Devices & Capacity Controls

010100020021000A
The most widely used refrigerant control which consists of a
bellows or a diaphragm chamber connected to a temperature
sensing bulb by means of a small capillary tube is a/an

105

a)

thermostatic expansion valve

010100020021000E
Which of the statements about automatic expansion valves is
false?
e) The control may be used with multiple cooling coils
connected to the same compressor.
010100020021000C
Which control is used to maintain a constant level of liquid
refrigerant in a flooded evaporator in the liquid reserve
tank?
c)

low pressure float valve

010100020021000D
The simple control which restricts the flow of liquid from
the condenser to the evaporator and maintains a pressure
difference between the two units by using a considerable
pressure drop resulting from resistance between the devices
length and small bore is called
d)

a capillary tube

010100020021000D
In a system controlled by a high pressure float valve
insufficient liquid will cause which of the following
results?
d)

starving the evaporator and reducing the capacity of the

system

010100020021000D
One method of controlling the capacity of reciprocating
compressors is to bypass the discharge from one or more
cylinders back to the suction side of the compressor. The
control is called
d)

cylinder bypass

010100020021000C
Sectional evaporators control the capacity of the evaporator
by which of the following means?
c)

Divided multipart evaporators which have refrigerant

control valves which can be shut off independently as the
load decreases.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about evaporator dampers is
true?
a)
b)

These dampers decrease the resistance to the passage of

air.
When the damper is closed the quantity of air passing
over the evaporator coils is at a maximum.

106

c)
d)
e)

Depending on the damper position the quantity of air

passing through the duct varies widely.
Multispeed blowers cannot be used in combination with
evaporator dampers.
None of the above.

010100020021000A
The type of operation which stops the compressor when the
desired low temperature of the substance to be cooled is
reached and starts the compressor up again when the
temperature rises to a set level is called
a)

intermittent operation

010100020021000C
The control which is replacing suction throttling and
operates by swirling the refrigerant in the same direction as
the compressor impeller, resulting in a reduction of power
required by the compressor is which of the following
controls?
c)

Variable Inlet Guide Vanes

Refrigeration Cycle Controls

010100020021000B
Starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor is usually
done by all of the following operating controls except
b)

viscosity activated control

010100020021000D
The operating control which uses a bimetal element is a
d) temperature actuated control
010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about pressure stats is
false?
c)

A pressure-stat can be used in conjunction with an

automatic expansion valve.

010100020021000A
The operating control which consists of a hygroscopic element
made of material similar to multiple strands of human hair is
called a
a)

humidistat

010100020021000E
Which of the following actuating control valves is
electromagnetically operated?
e)

Solenoid valve

107

010100020021000A
In many cases evaporator pressure must not be allowed to drop
below a certain level to prevent which of the following
results?
a)

frosting of coils

010100020021000E
Safety controls serve what function?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

They stop operation

They stop operation
They stop operation
They stop operation
All of the above

if the temperature gets too high.

when the pressure gets too high.
when the pressure is too low.
when the temperature is too low.

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about flow switches is
false?
d)

They can only be used to regulate liquid flow (i.e. not

air flow).

010100020021000C
The safety control which uses a current transformer with a
resistor in the motor circuit is known as
c)

motor overload protection

010100020021000D
Oil pressure failure switches are used to perform which of
the following functions?
d)

Shut down the compressor when the oil pressure drops

below the minimum.

Refrigeration Accessories
010100020021000D
A simple trap located in the suction line before the
compressor that collects liquid, where it evaporates and
returns to the compressor as a gas, is called
d)

an accumulator

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about strainers is false?
b)

Piping must be disconnected to clean the strainer.

010100020021000C
A chemical dot placed under the glass lens of a sight glass
which is exposed to the liquid serves what function?
c)

To monitor the presence of moisture

108

010100020021000A
The function of vibration absorbers is to
a)

lower noise levels

010100020021000B
Which of the following pipe joints should be used for high
pressure 1 1/4 inch or smaller piping?
b)

screwed

010100020021000E
Moisture in a system can result in which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

formation of ice
acid formation
corrosion
deterioration of motor insulation
all of the above

010100020021000E
The accessory which maintains efficient heat transfer by
collecting oil that coats the tubes of the condenser is
called
e)

an oil separator

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about pressure gages is
true?
a)

They indicate pressures and corresponding temperatures in

a system.

010100020021000C
A direct expansion type evaporator that has more than 1
refrigerant circuit in it requires what to have even
refrigerant flow in each circuit?
c)

A distributor

010100020021000D
Emergency discharge is used to counter which of the following
problems?
d)

Dangerously high system pressures

010100020021000B
The emergency discharge line in a refrigeration system
b)

should have a shut-off valve outside the building

Compression Refrigeration System Prestart-up Procedures

010100020021000B

109

Higher than normal head pressure is undesirable for all of

the following reasons except
b)

it decreases condenser capacity

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Manual Purging
Systems is false?
d)

Refrigerant vapour in the purger is always expelled with

the noncondensable gases.

010100020021000E
The chilling coil in an automatic purger has a primary
function to
e)

separate refrigerant vapour from the noncondensable gases

to be purged.

010100020021000C
When using lighted sulphur candles to test for ammonia leaks in a
refrigeration system, the presence of ammonia will be indicated by
c)

heavy white smoke

010100020021000D
Leak testing for tightness under pressure of a refrigeration system
d)

is done with an inert gas

010100020021000C
Leak testing on a refrigeration system
c) is done with a sulphur candle for ammonia
010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a recommended step for the
procedure in which dry nitrogen is used for a system leak
test?
d)
e)

Open the liquid line shut-off valve.

Set the pressure reducing valve for the minimum design
pressure of the high side.

010100020021000B
A sulphur candle is a test for
b)

ammonia leaks

010100020021000E
Before charging a system which of the following needs to be
done?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Interlocks need to be tested

Controls need to be set
Controls need to be set
Required valves need to be opened
All of the above

110

010100020021000A
The initial refrigerant charge is given where on the system?
a)

The high side of the system

010100020021000C
Frost formation on the suction line indicates what?
c)

Overcharging the system

010100020021000D
The liquid line shutoff valve is
d) required to be closed when charging the system
010100020021000B
Charging a refrigeration system
b)

is done by adding refrigerant between the liquid shutoff

valve and the expansion valve

010100020021000E
When charging a refrigeration system it
e)

should be done with the liquid line shutoff valve closed

010100020021000B
When initially charging a refrigeration system
b)

it is done with a liquid refrigerant

010100020021000E
What can cause a high discharge pressure with refrigeration
systems?
e)

unit over-charged with refrigerant

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about adding oil to a
system is true?
a)

Oil is added by charging it into the crankcase.

010100020021000C
It is very important to open oil drain valves and plugs in
the crankcase for which of the following reasons?
c)

Residual pressure in the crankcase may blow refrigerant

vapour and oil out.

010100020021000B
Oil added to refrigeration compressors
b)

is done with a vacuum on the crankcase

111

Compression Refrigeration System Operations

010100020021000D
Which of the following steps is not a step in the startup of
a reciprocating or rotary compressor refrigerating system?
d)

Valves in lines connecting suction gages should be

closed.

010100020021000A
To avoid liquid slugging in a direct expansion evaporator
after shutting down a reciprocating or rotary compressor
refrigerating system which of the following measures needs to
be taken?
a)

Pump down the evaporator

010100020021000C
Which of the following steps is NOT part of the startup
procedure of centrifugal compressor refrigerating systems.
c)

Open the main circuit breakers.

010100020021000B
A centrifugal compressor refrigerating system can be stopped
simply by pressing the stop button unless which of the
following circumstances is true?
b)

The system's auxiliary equipment is not electrically

interlocked.

010100020021000E
The safety control in a centrifugal compressor which ensures
the compressor to only be started under a no-load condition
is called
e) vane closed switch
010100020021000C
If a compressor fails to start but the motor is running,
which of the following could be a cause?
c)

The coupling is sheared or broken

010100020021000A
A system of regularly scheduled inspections and lubrications
along with the adjustments, minor parts replacement and minor
repairs necessary to keep the refrigerating plant and
equipment in good operating condition is defined as
a)

preventative maintenance

010100020021000E
Checking the condition of electrical starters and contactors
is categorised under which of the following maintenance
schedules?

112

e)

Annual maintenance

Absorption Refrigeration Systems

010100020021000D
In an Ammonia Absorption System what is used as the
absorbent?
d)

Water

010100020021000B
Which of the following is not found on the low side of an
ammonia system?
b)

Generator

010100020021000C
Ammonia systems are seldom used for air conditioning purposes
in large buildings mainly because
c)

ammonia is too toxic

010100020021000C
In comparing absorption and compression systems which of the
following comparisons is true?
c)

Cooling water requirements are larger for an absorption

system than for a compression system.

010100020021000D
In a Lithium Bromide System which of the following is the
refrigerant?
d) Water
010100020021000A
In order to lower the boiling point of the refrigerant it is
important that the system maintain
a)

an extremely high vacuum

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about Lithium bromide
systems is false?
d)

As water vapour is absorbed by the Lithium Bromide the

vacuum decreases.

010100020021000D
The absorber is equipped with a pump for which of the
following reasons?
d)

To speed the absorption of water vapour

010100020021000B
What is the function of the concentrator (generator)?

113

b)

To increase the absorbency potential of used Lithium

Bromide

010100020021000E
Most absorbency systems are put in place where there is cheap
excess or waste heat available. What is this heat primarily
used for?
e)

To evaporate the water out of the weak Lithium Bromide

Absorption Refrigeration System Operation & Maintenance

010100020021000C
This occurs when the temperature of a strong but still
unsaturated solution is lowered so far that its salt
concentration exceeds the maximum concentration possible at
the lower temperature.
c)

Crystallization

010100020021000A
When the temperature of a solution increases, which of the
following statements is true?
a)

The vapour pressure is high

010100020021000D
The concentration of Lithium Bromide in an absorption
refrigerating system will change during which of the
following steps?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Going through the expansion valve

Going through the suction valve
Cooling through the heat exchanger
Absorbing water vapour in the absorber
None of the above

010100020021000E
Concentration of the Lithium Bromide can be most easily
controlled by which of the following means?
e) Controlling the temperature in the generator.
010100020021000C
Which of the following is NOT a result of having
noncondensable gases in the absorption systems?
c)

Lower than normal temperatures of the chilled water

leaving the evaporator

010100020021000E
Which of the following are elements of a mechanical purging
system?
i)
purge pickup tube

114

ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
vi)

purge chamber
manual shutoff valve
safety solenoid valve
oil trap
vacuum pump

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a step in the seasonal prestart
service?
c)

turn on energy sources

010100020021000D
During seasonal startup, when should the purge pump be
started?
d)

About one half hour after the absorption unit is started

010100020021000B
When shutting down the refrigeration system for a weekend or
less which of the following is a correct shutdown procedure?
b)

Close the manual steam or hot water supply valve

010100020021000D
If there is a crystallization upon shutdown a possible
corrective action is to
d) check pump operation

Psychrometric Properties of Air

010100020021000C
Air is approximately what composition by volume?
c)

79% N

and 21% O

010100020021000B
Dalton's Law of partial pressure states that
b) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a
partial pressure which is equal to the pressure that it
would exert if it filled that space alone
010100020021000A
Relative humidity is
a)

the ratio of water vapour in the air compared to the

total amount water vapour the air could contain at a
given temperature

010100020021000E
The dewpoint is the

115

e)

temperature below which water vapour will start to

condense out of the air

010100020021000D
The volume of standard air is
d)

0.833 kg/cubic metres of dry air

010100020021000C
The heat content of air is called the
c)

enthalpy of the air

010100020021000D
Psychrometry is
d)

the study of the behaviour of mixtures of air and water

vapour

010100020021000C
The composition of pure dry air is generally taken to be
c) 23.2% oxygen and 76.8% nitrogen by weight
010100020021000B
Air conditioning involves
b)

the control of the air temperature, the control of

humidity, air circulation, and the removal of
contaminants

010100020021000A
The term "relative humidity" applies to
a)

the percentage of moisture in the air as compared to the amount

of moisture the air can hold at a specific temperature

010100020021000D
A device for measuring relative humidity is called
d) a psychrometer
010100020021000A
The difference between the wet and dry bulb readings is
called the
a)

wet bulb depression

010100020021000C
Which law describes the existence of moisture in the air in
vapour or evaporated state?
c) Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
010100020021000A
Absolute or specific humidity is
a)

the actual mass of moisture present in a specific amount

of air

116

010100020021000B
Relative humidity is
b)

the ratio of the mass of moisture contained in a specific

amount of air to the maximum amount of moisture this
specific amount of air can contain

010100020021000E
Dewpoint can be best defined as
e)

the temperature at which air, upon cooling, becomes

saturated and will begin to condense out water vapour
below this temperature

010100020021000D
Dry-bulb temperature is
d)

the temperature of the air measured with an ordinary

thermometer

010100020021000A
Wet-bulb temperature is
a)

the temperature indicated by a thermometer having its

bulb covered by a water-wetted wick or cloth and the wet
bulb is exposed to a rapidly moving stream of air

010100020021000D
What is wet-bulb depression?
d) difference between the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature
010100020021000E
Psychrometers are
e)

instruments used to determine the relative humidity of

air

010100020021000B
Which of the following instruments use a battery-operated fan
to draw air over the thermometer bulbs?
b)

aspirating psychrometer

010100020021000C
The specific volume of air is
c) the volume of 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure
expressed in cubic metres
010100020021000D
Standard air is
a)
d)

the volume of 1 kg of air at 15 degrees Celsius and 100

the volume occupied by 1 kg of dry air at 21 degrees
Celsius and atmospheric pressure at sea level or 101.325
kpa

117

010100020021000A
Enthalpy of air depends on
a)

the pressure, temperature, and relative humidity of the

air

010100020021000A
To find various properties of air
a)

a psychrometric chart is used

010100020021000D
In the SI (metric) system the enthalpy of air is measured in
d)

kJ/kg of dry air

010100020021000E
The dry-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
e)

along the horizontal axis on the bottom of the chart

010100020021000C
The wet-bulb temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
c)

along the saturation line and slope downward to the right

010100020021000B
The dewpoint temperature scale is read on a psychrometric
chart
b)

along the saturation line, same scale as wet-bulb

temperature, but is plotted along horizontal lines

010100020021000A
Relative humidity is plotted on a psychrometric chart
a)

on lines curved upwards from the lower left to the right

side of the chart

010100020021000C
Specific humidity is
c)

the actual moisture content of air expressed as kg of

moisture per kg of dry air

010100020021000B
Specific humidity scale on a psychrometric chart is
b)

along the vertical axis of the chart and right side of

chart

010100020021000D
Specific volume on a psychrometric chart
d)

has its lines originate on the volume scale along the

118

horizontal axis and they slope steeply upwards to the

left of the chart
010100020021000A
Enthalpy values are found on a psychrometric chart by
a)

plotting a line through the required point on the chart

parallel to the lines of the two enthalpy scales, one on
the left side and the other on the right side of chart

Application of the Psychrometric Chart and Comfort

Condition
010100020021000B
Which of the following properties cannot be found on the
psychrometric chart?
b)

partial pressure

010100020021000C
The intersection between the line running vertically from the
point on the dry-bulb scale and the downward diagonally
running line from the wet-bulb scale is defined as
c)

the reference point

010100020021000E
During sensible heating which of the following results is
true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dry-bulb temperature lowers

wet-bulb temperature remains constant
relative humidity increases
enthalpy remains constant
none of the above

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about cooling and
dehumidification is false?
d) Dry bulb temperatures are increased.
010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees Celsius and the
wet-bulb temperature is 15 degrees Celsius.
b)

58%

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
c) 11.5 degrees C

119

010100020021000D
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
d)

0.0085 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
e)

42 kJ/kg

010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume if
the dry-bulb temperature is 20 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 15 degrees C.
b)

0.842 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 25 degrees C.
c)

100%

010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the relative humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
c)

52%

010100020021000A
Using the psychrometric chart, find the dewpoint temperature
if the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
a)

17.5 degrees C

010100020021000C
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific humidity if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
c)

0.0125 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air

010100020021000B
Using the psychrometric chart, find the enthalpy if the
dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
b)

57 kJ/kg

120

010100020021000E
Using the psychrometric chart, find the specific volume, if
the dry-bulb temperature is 25 degrees C and the wet-bulb
temperature is 20 degrees C.
e)

0.862 cubic metres / kg

010100020021000A
During sensible heating the dry-bulb temperature and the
wet-bulb temperature are raised, and
a)

the dewpoint remains unchanged

010100020021000E
During sensible heating, only
e)

the relative humidity decreases

010100020021000D
During sensible cooling
d)

relative humidity increases

010100020021000A
If 5.0 cubic metres/second of air enters a heating coil at 20
degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and leaves the
heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the mass of
air flowing?
a)

5.94 kg/sec

010100020021000C
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
volume of air leaving the coil?
c)

5.17 cubic metres per second

010100020021000E
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
change in enthalpy?
e) 10 kJ/kg
010100020021000B
If 5.0 cubic metres per second of air enters a heating coil
at 20 degrees C dry-bulb and 15 degrees C wet-bulb, and
leaves the heating coil at 30 degrees C dry-bulb, what is the
heating capacity of the coil?
b)

59.4 kW

010100020021000C
Evaporative cooling is

121

c)

cooling and humidification of the air

010100020021000C
The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric
conditions surrounding them. Which of the following is not
an atmospheric condition which affects comfort?
c)

Saturation temperature

010100020021000A
The body needs considerable time to adjust when moving from
one space to another when temperature and humidity conditions
vary widely. This may be described as
a)

shock effect

010100020021000E
The comfort of human beings is affected by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

temperature
relative humidity
air cleanliness
air movement
all of the above

010100020021000C
Shock Effect is
c)

the discomfort felt when a person moves from a much hotter

space to a much cooler space or vice versa

010100020021000B
Air used for ventilating purposes in an office building should be
kept within certain range of relative humidity as indicated below.
b)

30 to 70

010100020021000E
An increased air flow increases heat loss of the body by
which of the following methods:
i)
convection
ii)
conduction
iii) evaporation
010100020021000C
An average effective temperature chart can be applicable
under the following conditions except when
c)

activity is high or heavy muscular work is being done

010100020021000B
A measure of comfort which involves the combined effects of
the dry-bulb temperature, relative humidity and air movement
is defined as
b) effective temperature
010100020021000C

122

Which of the following statements about effective temperature

is true?
c)

For each combination air velocity remains constant.

010100020021000E
The relative humidity should be maintained between
e)

30% and 70% during the summer and the winter

010100020021000E
Effective temperature is defined as a measure of comfort
which involves
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
the
the
all

effects of relative humidity

effects of air movement
effects of dry-bulb temperature
effects of wet-bulb temperature
of the above

010100020021000D
During the winter, the majority of people feel comfortable
d) 17.2 and 21.7 degrees C
010100020021000E
During the summer, the majority of people feel comfortable
when the effective temperature is between
e)

19 and 24 degrees C

Fans for Air Distribution Systems

010100020021000B
The group of fans which consist of a rotor or wheel having
several radial blades, which is mounted on a shaft within the
fan housings is
b)

Centrifugal

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a centrifugal fan?
c)

the propeller fan

010100020021000D
Two fan wheels are rotating at the same speed. One wheel has
forward curved blades and the other has backward inclined
blades. The velocity of the air leaving the forward curved
blades is considerably higher for which of the following
reasons?
d) The inclination of the blades in the forward curved fan
increases the resultant force vector while the backward
curved blade inclination decreases the resultant vector.
010100020021000E

123

When comparing the tube axial fan with the vane axial fan the
main difference between the two is the
e)

motion of the discharge air

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about fan performance
curves is false?
a)

They are plotted from theoretical calculations.

010100020021000C
When a fan outlet is considered fully open which of the
following statements is true?
c)

There is free air volume delivery.

010100020021000A
Which of the following devices has a de-clutching feature?
a)

A fluid drive

010100020021000E
The two general groups of fans are
e)

centrifugal and axial flow

010100020021000E
Centrifugal fans are classified as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

backward inclined
straight
backward inclined with airfoil blades
forward curved
all of the above

010100020021000D
Axial flow fans are classified as
d) vane axial, tube axial, and propeller
010100020021000A
Forward curved centrifugal fans
a)

operate at a lower speed than backward inclined fans for

the same air volume

010100020021000B
Backward inclined centrifugal fans
b)

are quieter than forward curved fans

010100020021000D
The vane axial flow fan
d)

has a less spiral air flow, less friction, and better

efficiency than the tube axial fan

124

010100020021000A
The fan which discharges maximum air delivery at the lowest
power requirement and is used mainly to produce large air
movements at low pressures is
a)

the propeller fan

010100020021000B
The devices which are used to minimize vibration problems and
premature wearing of the belts are called
b)

V-belt drives

010100020021000D
Control of the static pressure and horsepower requirements at
a given speed is obtained by using
d) variable inlet vane control
010100020021000C
Backward inclined airfoil fans
c)

are mostly used for high capacity, high pressure

applications

010100020021000B
Forward curved fans
b)

are desirable when air handling units have two or more

fans mounted on a common shaft

010100020021000D
The propeller axial flow fan is used
d)

for high capacity, low pressure applications

010100020021000E
The propeller axial flow fan
e)

finds application in unit heaters, air-cooled condensers,

and as an exhaust fan for ventilation purposes

010100020021000A
The tube axial flow fan
a)

has higher friction losses in ducts than the straight air

flow of a centrifugal fan

010100020021000B
Axial flow fans
b) have minimum horsepower at maximum or free air delivery
010100020021000C
What are the three different kinds of pressure developed by a
fan?
c) static pressure, velocity pressure, total pressure
010100020021000A

125

Static pressure exerted by air is measured by connecting

a)

a manometer at right angles to the air duct

010100020021000B
Velocity pressure exerted by the air is measured by
connecting a
b)

manometer with the opening facing the air flow in the air
duct

010100020021000D
Total pressure exerted by the air is the sum of
d) static pressure and velocity pressure

Air Conditioning Duct Systems

010100020021000C
A ventilation V system leading from a fume hood in a
chemistry lab would have which duct material used for its
ductwork?
c)

Cement asbestos

010100020021000A
Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased to
a)

provide stiffness

010100020021000B
Short radius elbows should be provided with
b)

turning vanes

010100020021000D
The main function of an air conditioning duct system is
d)

to transmit supply and return air between the air

handling apparatus and the space to be conditioned

010100020021000B
Classifications of air conditioning ducts include
b)

low pressure, medium pressure, and high pressure

010100020021000E
Medium and high pressure duct systems require less space than
low pressure duct systems, but this feature is partly offset
by
a)
b)
c)

higher operating cost and higher initial cost of air

handling apparatus
costly special control devices and costly noise
suppressing devices
higher first cost for special equipment required to

126

d)
e)

reduce the air velocity before distribution to the air space

more costly fabrication and installation of ductwork
all of the above

010100020021000E
Fibreglass ducts are used
e)

in some low pressure systems

010100020021000D
Materials used in sheet metal ducts are
d)

galvanized or black steel, aluminum, copper, and

stainless steel

010100020021000E
Ducts are fabricated of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sheet metal
cement asbestos
plastic
fibreglass
all of the above

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about duct leakage losses
is true?
e)

Losses due to air leakage from furred supply air ducts

within the conditioned space can only be evaluated on the
basis of judgement.

010100020021000C
Seepage in return air ducts turned within the conditioned
space may have what kind of effect?
c)

It will increase the load on the air system in terms of

volumes of air.

010100020021000A
When all supply air duct is outside the conditioned space
there is a certain leakage. This leakage must be calculated
how?
a)

It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat

load.

010100020021000D
Semi-rigid fibrous glass blankets attached to the insides
of the ducts are in place to mainly
d)

attenuate airborne noises

010100020021000C
Supply air duct leakage loss calculations include
c)

10% leakage loss when all the supply air duct is outside

127

the conditioned space

010100020021000A
Return air duct leakage calculations include
a)

3% seepage if the return air duct is outside the

conditioned space

010100020021000B
Duct liners
b)

reduce the noise level of air flowing in the duct system

010100020021000B
A mixing box is an example of which kind of damper?
b)

A modulating damper

010100020021000D
The function of a check valve is similar to the function of
which type of damper?
d)

A relief damper

010100020021000A
The purpose of dampers in an air handling system is
a)

to control the flow of air

010100020021000C
Dampers in air handling systems
c)

may be modulating, manual, or two position

010100020021000E
Modulating dampers in air handling systems are used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

as mixing boxes to proportion the amounts of two

different air flows such as outdoor air and recirculated
air
to modulate the volume of conditioned air needed to meet
load requirements
as face dampers to modulate the volume of air that goes
through a cooling or heating coil
as bypass dampers to throttle the balance of the constant
total air flow around a heating or cooling coil
all of the above

010100020021000B
Relief dampers
b)

allow air flow in one direction only

010100020021000C
Damper designs include
c)

opposed blade, parallel blade, and single blade types

128

010100020021000D
Parallel blade dampers
d)

are often used on mixing boxes where two sets of dampers

are mounted with blades direct

010100020021000D
Air louvers
d) are used in fresh air intake openings to minimize the
amount of water and snow entering the air handling system
010100020021000E
Which of the following is NOT a function of terminal air
distribution devices?
d)

Provide adequate air motion

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a function of terminal air
distribution devices?
c)

maintain comfortable conditions mainly along the ceiling

and outside walls within the occupied zone

010100020021000C
Functions of terminal air distribution devices are
accomplished
c)

by aspiration, entrainment, induction, and diffusion

Coil Types
010100020021000C
Which type of coil circuiting is designed to produce a high
heat capacity with a limited water quantity?
c)

Half serpentine

010100020021000A
Air venting is required for which of the following reasons?
a)

To assure adequate water distribution in supply and

return lines

010100020021000E
Steam Coils must be designed to:
v)
constantly eliminate air venting
In order to provide uniform steam distribution to the
individual tubes, which of the above design parameters
is/are true?
i)
ii)

constantly eliminate air

constantly eliminate condensate

129

iii)
iv)
v)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

constantly eliminate noncondensable gases

constantly maintain face velocity
constantly eliminate air venting

ii, iii, and v

iii only
ii and iv
i, iii, iv, and v
i, ii, and iii

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about steam distributing
coils is true?
b)

The coils distribute steam evenly over the entire coil

010100020021000A
To obtain full rated capacity of water coils what should be
done?
a)

Connect the water supply for counterflow

010100020021000B
Fin spacing of 6.35 to 1.814 mm is most normally used in
which of the following cases?
b)

Steam and hot water heating coils

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about water coils is false?
d)

Circuiting should minimize the performance of the water

flow versus the pressure drop through the coil.

010100020021000D
A factor limiting the number of fins that can be used on
coils is
d)

the resistance to airflow

010100020021000E
Proper performance of heating and cooling water coils depends
on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

adequate air velocity over the finned surface

counterflow arrangement of air and water
air venting from the system and the coil
tube circuiting and finning
all of the above

010100020021000C
With counterflow arrangement of air and water
c)

the water supply connection is on the same side as the

leaving air

010100020021000A

130

The most commonly used types of water coil circuiting are

a)

single serpentine, double serpentine, and half serpentine

010100020021000D
Single serpentine water coil circuiting is used
d) where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and
2.4 m/s
010100020021000B
Double serpentine water coil circuiting is used
b)

where the water velocity in the tubes is more than

2.4 m/s

010100020021000E
Half serpentine water coil circuiting is used
e)

where the water velocity in the tubes is less than

0.3 m/s

010100020021000B
To assure proper air venting, the
b)

supply water connection should be at the bottom of the

coil

010100020021000E
Which one of the following methods is not a method of
ensuring uniform steam distribution in steam coils?
e)

controlling the face velocity of the air flowing over

coils

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about coil surfaces is
false?
d)

All fins must be crimped

010100020021000C
To ensure effective heat transfer which of the following is
the most vital element?
c)

A good bond must exist between the tube and fin

010100020021000D
Which of the following is a limiting factor for the number of
fins that can be used?
d)

Resistance to airflow

010100020021000C
Finned tube coils in air handling systems are often called
c)

extended surface coils

131

010100020021000B
Fin surface area is called
b)

secondary surface area

010100020021000A
Two types of modern coils used for heating and cooling
services in air handling systems are
a)

the continuous-plate finned surface and the spiral-finned

surface

010100020021000D
Flat-finned surface type coils are normally used for
d)

low temperature application where ice may form

010100020021000C
Rippled-finned surface type coils
c)

increase the heat transfer efficiency by creating more

turbulence at fin surfaces

010100020021000D
Face velocity is the
d)

average velocity of the air flowing over the face area of

the fin surface

Coil Operation
010100020021000C
To prevent freezing of downstream equipment in a coil
handling a large amount of outdoor air, which of the
following is required?
c)

A preheat coil

010100020021000A
It is good practice to select steam coils which require at
least 40% of coil capacity when air temperature is 1 degree C
for which of the following reasons?
a)

Steam flow is high enough at high temperature and

prevents build-up and freezing of condensate

010100020021000D
Steam coils with a short tube length of 1.1 m or less
d)

are less likely to freeze if the steam trap is properly

chosen and the coil is properly piped

010100020021000B
Steam coils with long tube lengths

132

b)

have the greatest freezing problems at temperatures of

about -2 to -1 degrees C

010100020021000A
Freezing problems in steam coils with long tube lengths,
handling a large amount of low temperature outside air
a)

are minimized by using preheat coils controlled by an

outdoor temperature controller

010100020021000E
To prevent freezing of the steam coil when steam pressure at
the coil inlet is too low or is lost
e)

provisions are made to stop the fan and close the outdoor
air dampers

010100020021000B
It is good design practice to select a steam coil size
b) so that at least 40% of the coil capacity is needed when
the air temperature entering the coil is -1 degree C
010100020021000D
The purpose of a vacuum breaker used with steam coils is to
d)

prevent possible freezing caused by a vacuum or negative

pressure in the steam coil

010100020021000B
In a hot water coil which of the following is not included
for providing a good guideline for the correct application of
the system with minimal possibility of freeze-up?
b)

The air velocity should exceed 10 m/s

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a cause of freezing in hot
water coils?
c)

very high circulating water velocity

010100020021000A
The purpose of the "freeze-stat" temperature controller used
with hot water coils is to
a)

close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
heat source fails or the low limit temperature controller
malfunctions

010100020021000D
The purpose of the flow switch or sail switch used with hot
water coils is to
d)

close the outside air dampers and stop the fan if the
flow of water is interrupted due to pump failure or
closing of the hand valves

133

010100020021000B
The flow arrangement best suited for hot water coils is
b)

the parallel flow arrangement because it gives better

protection against freezing

010100020021000E
The use of ethylene glycol solution will result in which of
the following:
i)
Lower heat transfer rate
ii)
Better protection against freezing
iii) Increased friction losses in the coil and piping
iv)
The requirement of a larger pump with more horsepower
010100020021000D
For a glycol system using hot water as its heat source which
of the following statements is false?
d)

Flow Switch FS automatically starts the glycol pump

automatically after V-3 is opened.

010100020021000E
Ethylene glycol used in glycol coils
d)

has much lower pressure drops through the coil and piping

010100020021000B
Glycol coils using ethylene glycol
b)

are not recommended for use in heating and air

conditioning systems in the food industry

010100020021000D
A thermostat which is sometimes installed in the return air
duct serves which main function?
d) To minimize temperature fluctuations in discharge air
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about vacuum breakers is
false?
b)

The vacuum breaker must be installed before the control

valve and as near as possible to the outlet connection
of the coil.

010100020021000E
The greatest fears in hot water coil installations handling
subfreezing air are:
iii) failure of the circulating pipe
v)
failure of the heat source
010100020021000B
Which of the following is not an installation recommendation
for steam traps?
b) Locate the steam trap so that its outlet is at least 30
cm (12 in) above the coil return connection.

134

010100020021000C
Steam coil piping and trapping
c)

differs from the hot water and glycol coil because it

carries more fluids: steam, air, water, and
non-condensable gases

010100020021000A
Steam coils
a)

should be installed with tubes in a vertical position to

ensure positive condensate drainage

010100020021000C
Which of the following steam traps are preferred for use with
steam coils operating at low and medium steam pressure?
c)

F & T trap (float and thermostatic)

010100020021000A
The inverted bucket steam trap is
a)

used when the coil steam pressure is higher than 172 kpa
or 25 psig

010100020021000D
A modulating control valve
d)

can be used to control steam coils when the entering air

temperature is above 1.5 degrees C

010100020021000C
Air vents are
c)

not required at the steam coil if a float and

thermostatic (F & T) trap is used at the steam coil with
an atmospheric return and the steam main is adequately
vented

Humidification
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not a result of very low humidity?
c)

Evaporation of moisture on the skin decreases

010100020021000D
If air at 13 degrees C can hold a maximum of 0.0032 kg of
moisture per kilogram of air, what is the relative humidity
if the air contains 0.0015 kg of moisture per 1 kg of air?
d)

47%

010100020021000A
The outside temperature 18 - 25 degrees C is saturated (Air

135

at -25 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.0005 kg of moisture/kg

of water). This air is drawn into the building and heated to
21 degrees C (air at 21 degrees C holds a maximum of 0.015 kg
of moisture/kg of water). What is the relative humidity of
the air inside?
a)

3.3%

010100020021000D
Humidity in the air
d) decreases when the air temperature decreases
010100020021000A
Relative humidity is the amount of
a)

moisture contained in the air compared to the maximum

amount of moisture the air is capable of holding at the
stated temperature

010100020021000B
The purpose of humidification is to
b)

add humidity to the air during the heating season

010100020021000C
Relative humidity
c)

decreases when the air temperature is raised without the

addition of moisture to the air

010100020021000E
Humidification in residences equipped with ducted warm air
heating systems
e)

is provided for by placing a single humidifier in the

furnace plenum or in the warm air duct

010100020021000D
The residential humidifier which is commonly used in the
supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces and consists of a
shallow tray partially filled with water is called a
e)

power type humidifier

010100020021000C
Which type of humidifier breaks water up into a mist or fog?
c)

An atomizing humidifier

010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about Air washers is false?
b)

Air washers can remove tobacco smoke.

010100020021000D
To keep humidifiers in top condition the plates of plate type
units should be cleaned by soaking them in a slightly acidic

136

solution and then washing them in soapy water to

d) remove mineral salts
010100020021000C
Dehumidification occurs in an Air washer when which of the
following occurs?
c)

If spray water is cooled to a temperature below the dew

point

010100020021000E
It is not recommended to use an on-off switch for steam grid
humidifiers because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fogging would occur

overheating would occur
misting would occur
wide fluctuations in relative humidity would occur
all of the above

010100020021000D
Humidifying units which use a small fan to draw warmer air
from the furnace plenum or from the room, force the air
through the wetted pad, and return the air to the room, are
called
d)

power type wetted element humidifiers

010100020021000D
The types of humidifiers used for residential purposes are
d)

atomizing, wetted element, and pan

010100020021000C
Pan type humidifiers with plates
c)

consist of a shallow pan, partially filled with water in

which absorbent plates are placed and the pan is
installed in the supply plenum of smaller warm air furnaces

010100020021000B
Wetted element humidifiers
b)
e)

can be either the power type or the bypass type

are the same as the atomizing humidifiers

010100020021000A
Atomizing humidifiers
a)

break up the water for humidification into small

particles by either a spinning disc or spray nozzle and
are placed either in the warm air supply duct or in the
area to be humidified

010100020021000E
A disadvantage of the atomizing humidifier is

137

e)

the salts that were in the water before atomization and

evaporation settle as white dust in rooms and ducts

010100020021000D
Air washers used in air conditioning systems
d)

humidify, heat, cool, dehumidify, and clean the air

010100020021000C
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve heating
and humidification by
c)

heating the spray water to a temperature above the dry

bulb temperature of the entering air

010100020021000B
Air washers used in air conditioning systems achieve cooling
and dehumidification by
b) cooling the spray water to a temperature below the dew
point temperature of the entering air
010100020021000A
Which is not a method employed to maintain the desired
temperature of the spray water in air washers used in air
conditioning systems?
a)

an electric heater and fan

010100020021000C
Steam grid humidifiers used in air conditioning systems
achieve humidification by
c)

injecting steam in the supply air stream

Air Conditioning Systems I

010100020021000C
The category of air conditioning which is responsible for
getting outside air into the building to replenish the oxygen
supply for the occupants is
c)

ventilation

010100020021000D
To offset the heat gain through the building's exterior shell
from solar radiation, the atmosphere surrounding the
building, and from internal sources of heat, what is required?
d)

a cooling source

010100020021000E
A small residence located in a tropical climate may require
which of the following elements of an air conditioning
system:
ii)
cooling

138

iv)
v)

dehumidification
ventilation

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about air handling units is
true?
a)

In any system the air is mainly conditioned in the units

010100020021000B
The intake section arrangement which draws in room air,
conditions it, and then returns it into the room is called
b)

full recirculation

010100020021000C
The unitary air conditioning system which uses a direct
expansion refrigeration system to provide cooling and
dehumidification in a local area without ductwork is called
c)

a window air conditioner

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about the unit ventilators
is false?
c)

The units provide cooling only

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about central air
conditioning systems is false?
e) Unitary systems are able to control noise and vibration
better than central systems.
010100020021000A
The most common system installed in most residences where the
furnace is located in the basement and provides conditioned
air via ducts to each room is called
a)

a forced air system

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements about multizone systems is
true?
c)

When the hot deck is fully opened the cold deck is fully
closed

Air Conditioning Systems II

010100020021000D
Supplementary units located in each zone provide

139

d)

heating

010100020021000C
In a constant air volume system with perimeter heating which
of the following elements are fluids in the air handling
unit?
ii)
Cooling coils
iii) An air mixing section
iv)
Filters
v)
A humidifier
010100020021000D
A system used extensively in hotels and motels due to its
minimal space requirement, relatively low initial cost, and
high degree of individual zone control is called
d)

a fan coil unit with make up air system

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about fan coil units makeup
air systems is false?
e)

Humidity is controlled by the fan coil units.

010100020021000A
An induction system gets its name from which property of the
system?
a)

The way air in the room is circulated

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about two-pipe arrangements
is false?
e)

The system can heat and cool at the same time.

010100020021000B
A system which provides cooling and heating all year round is
highly energy efficient but has a high initial cost. The
system consists of two separate supply and return piping
systems which are connected to separate coils. Which of the
following systems fits this description?
a)

A single pipe system

010100020021000B
The funds available for the air conditioning portion of the
building refers to which factor of system selection?
b)

Capital cost

010100020021000A
If operating personnel from an old building are going to be
transferred to the new building the system installed in the
new building will be the same as in the older building
because all the personnel are familiar with that system.

140

This type of system selection is based mainly on which of the

following factors?
a)

Building owner's considerations

010100020021000B
When looking at building function to select a system which of
the following factors are considered?
iii) Amount of zoning required
v)
Occupancy periods
vi)
Need to operate certain areas off-hours

Air Conditioning Heat Recovery Systems

010100020021000B
The recovery system which employs a single exchange unit
consisting of a casing split into two sections and a
segmented rotating wheel 300 mm (12 in) thick and 1 to 3.7 m
(3 to 12 ft) in diameter is called a
b)

thermal wheel

010100020021000E
The recovery system which has a capillary wick structure
consisting of fine circumferential striations machined on its
external surface is called a
e)

heat pipe

010100020021000C
A system consists of two finned tube heat exchangers.
is the preconditioning coil of this system located?
c)

Where

In the duct work handling the ventilation into the

process

010100020021000A
What is the name of the system that consists of two finned
tube heat exchangers?
a)

runaround system

010100020021000D
The system which runs as a refrigeration system used for air
conditioning purposes in the summer and can be modified to
run in reverse in cooler weather is called a
d)

heat pipe

010100020021000D
The system which makes use of a coil installed underground
below frost levels is called a
d) heat pump
010100020021000D
Cross contamination is a disadvantage for which of the

141

following systems?
d) A thermal wheel
010100020021000C
Which of the following is not an advantage for a runaround
system?
c)

Piping is not required in the system.

010100020021000B
The fact that the system can be treated against corrosion is
an advantage for which system?
b)

A heat pipe

010100020021000E
When is the capacity of a heat pipe at a maximum?
e)

When the evaporator is lowered below the horizontal

Air Conditioning System Controls

010100020021000D
When the outdoor air damper increases the flow of fresh air,
which of the following is true?
d)

The return air damper throttles down to reduce the volume

of returned air.

010100020021000A
To provide a two position damper, equipped with a fan that
provides 100% outdoor air, with a ratio of damper opening
what is required?
a)

A gradual switch

010100020021000C
In severely cold weather what adjustment must be made to
properly preheat the outside air?
c)

Two separate preheater coils should be installed

010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a correct method of heat
regulation?
e)

Modulating the valve and the face and the bypass damper
30 degrees out of phase.

010100020021000E
Air conditioning with respect to heating coils is achieved in
which of the following ways?
a)
b)

A combination of tempering control functions

The selected mixing of warm return air and cooler outside

142

c)
d)
e)

air
Selective heating by passing air through the heating
coils
Proportioning the amount of air flow through the face
damper for heat addition, or through the bypass dampers
for no heat addition.
All of the above

010100020021000B
A main advantage of steam type humidifiers over pan type
humidifiers is that
b)

there is minimal time lag with steam type humidifiers

010100020021000C
Dehumidification is achieved by
c)

cooling the air to a corresponding dew point temperature

010100020021000E
To prevent too frequent starting and stopping of the
compressor in a cooling system what should be done?
e)

Run the compressor continuously and modulate refrigerant

flow

010100020021000C
To control static pressure in the air ducts a differential
pressure controller is installed. How does the controller
control static pressure?
c)

By modulating the damper on the suction side of the fan

010100020021000A
When complete control systems become very complex, which
control signal medium is preferred?
a)

Pneumatic

Heat Gains and Losses

010100020021000B
Conduction heat gains are calculated on the assumption that
b)

solar heat gains are not included

010100020021000D
Two methods of calculating air infiltration into a building
are
d)

the air change and crack method

010100020021000A
In calculating air infiltration the quickest method is

143

a)

the air change method

010100020021000D
Air ventilation is based on the larger of these two
requirements:
d)

infiltration rate and CFM rate per person

010100020021000D
Heat load from people in a room is mostly affected by
d) the activity of the people
010100020021000D
To calculate the heat gain from fluorescent lighting, add the
wattage ratings and multiply by
d)

1.2

010100020021000A
Electric motors give off sensible heat while running.
010100020021000C
If exhaust fans are used over cooking only
c)

50% of the heat gain is used in calculations

010100020021000D
Heat is lost from a building in the following ways:
d)

conduction, radiation, and convection

010100020021000C
Heat lost from a building is
c)

affected by wind speed

Powerhouse Maintenance I
010100020021000C
Relative to plant maintenance, a power engineer should have
easy access to
c)

the Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention

Regulations

010100020021000A
Damaged tools
a)

are best disposed of or properly repaired

010100020021000A
Who is responsible for providing safe working conditions in
the plant?
a)

Management

144

010100020021000B
A file which is always single cut is the
b)

mill file

010100020021000E
Taper, plug, and bottoming are types of
b)

dies

010100020021000E
A collet is
e)

a holder for a thread die

010100020021000A
The thread pitch of a metric micrometer is
a)

0.5 mm

010100020021000D
To measure valve tappet clearances one would most aptly use
d) feeler gauges
010100020021000E
Copper sulphate may be used
e)

as a marking material

010100020021000C
In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would
use a
c)

surface plate

010100020021000A
A dressing tool is used to
a)

square the edges of a grinding wheel

010100020021000B
Flutes are found on
b)

the body of a twist drill bit

010100020021000C
A screwdriver having a square tip is known as a robertson
type.
010100020021000E
A 300 mm tungsten hacksaw blade with a .78 mm teeth pitch is used
to cut
e)

thin wall tubing

145

010100020021000E
Whatever the size of a micrometer, the working parts can only
move a distance of
e)

25 mm

010100020021000C
Micrometers are available in a variety of types and are used
mainly for the measurement of
c)

outside, inside and depth dimensions of relatively small

openings of objects

010100020021000B
The accuracy of the completed job depends
largely on the care taken during laying out.
010100020021000D
Chalk or blue vitrol may be used to rub on the surface
of rough castings as a marking material.
010100020021000D
A taper tap is tapered from the end for approximately
d) 6 threads
010100020021000E
The tap drill is always smaller than the tap, to leave sufficient
material for the tap to produce 75 per cent of thread.
010100020021000D
Hand taps are usually made in sets of three called
d)

plug, taper, and bottoming

010100020021000D
The point angle of a properly ground drill should be
d) 118 degrees
010100020021000C
When storing a hacksaw
c)

strain should be removed by loosening the blade

Powerhouse Maintenance II
010100020021000B
A government agency which covers several aspects of work
platforms is the
b)

Workers' Compensation Board Accident Prevention

Regulations

010100020021000D

146

When working on a platform it is important to

d)

warn people on the ground of hazards

010100020021000A
When using a step ladder it is best to
a)

not work higher than the top three rungs

010100020021000E
A rung ladder should
e)

be inclined with a 4:1 slope

010100020021000D
A scaffold should always be erected
d)

plumb and level

010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold
c)

is partially supported by a building

010100020021000C
The top of a ladder should extend approximately __________
above the level of the upper landing to which it provides
access.
c) 0.9 metres
010100020021000E
Ladders constructed on the job must comply with the
e)

WCB regulations

010100020021000D
Platforms should have a raised edge going around them to
prevent objects from rolling off.
010100020021000C
A single pole scaffold
c) is partially supported by the building
010100020021000E
WCB Regulations state: Tubular and similar type section
scaffolding shall be erected plumb and level
010100020021000B
Prior to hoisting an object it is best to
e) measure the width
010100020021000E
The maximum % error we should use when calculating the mass
of a light object is 20%

147

010100020021000B
Chain blocks are designed
e)

for lifting very long objects

010100020021000C
Whenever two or more sling eyes are used in lifting an object
they should be
c) held in a shackle
010100020021000D
The most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an
object's mass is by estimating it.
010100020021000C
To determine the mass of an object you may
c)

use specification sheets

010100020021000C
Safe practice in rigging, when calculating weight of objects,
should be accurate within plus or minus 20% for light
objects.
010100020021000D
The approximate mass of a 15 cm "I" beam is
d)

26 kg per running metre

Powerhouse Maintenance III

010100020021000C
Wire rope classified as 8 x 12 means it has
c)

8 strands with 12 wires per strand

010100020021000A
An eye made by using a Crosby clip will have a strength
factor of 80%
010100020021000D
A strand of fibre rope is
d)

composed of yarns twisted left-handed

010100020021000C
In order to keep rope from untwisting under load
c) it is made with left- and right-handed counteracting
twists
010100020021000E
A knot used to pull at right angles to a pipe or pole is the

148

e)

clove hitch

010100020021000B
When joining two ropes of different diameters we use a
b)

sheet bend

010100020021000D
Eye bolts should be
d)

hot forged

010100020021000C
Natural ropes are made of
c)

manila

010100020021000B
What factor of safety should be used, to determine safe load for
a new fibre rope?
b)

010100020021000A
The clove hitch is used for attaching a rope to pull
a)

at right angles

010100020021000B
Stove bolt nuts are usually
b)

square

010100020021000C
An M24 course thread bolt has
c)

3 mm per thread

010100020021000D
To prevent damage to a work surface while fastening
d)

use flat washers

010100020021000E
Castle nuts are used
e) with a split pin
010100020021000B
Mechanical steel fasteners that are commonly used in the
automotive industry and on various plant machinery are
classed as
b)

machine bolts

010100020021000D
Machine bolts are most commonly supplied with

149

d)

hexagon heads

Boiler Maintenance
010100020021000A
A boiler circulating pump gland should have some leakage
a)

to prevent the packing from drying out

010100020021000D
Manway gaskets should be coated with an anti-seize compound
d)

to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating

surfaces

010100020021000E
When plugging off a tube in a boiler, the plug taper should
Be 20 to 1
010100020021000B
When the fireside of a boiler is first opened up, small leak
seepage spots can be detected by
b)

white salt deposits resulting from water evaporation

010100020021000D
A black light crack detection utilizes ultraviolet light and
d)

fluorescent penetrant

010100020021000D
A substance which will absorb humidity inside a boiler
during dry lay up is
d) activated alumina
010100020021000B
A water tank should be installed above the boiler and
attached to the vent connection during a wet lay up in order
to
b)

prevent air from entering the boiler during water

contraction

010100020021000E
When working inside a steel heating boiler, which of the following
safety precautions should you take?
1.
2.
4.

boiler must be cooled and vented

valves must be closed and locked, and all lines to and
from the boiler must be blanked
always have one man standing outside, whenever anyone is
inside the boiler

150

010100020021000E
Before a welder is allowed to weld on a boiler he must have a
e)

certificate of qualification and a performance

qualification card

010100020021000D
When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube should
extend beyond the tubesheet
d)

two tube wall thickness'

010100020021000C
The final step in replacing a firetube is
c)

applying a hydrostatic test

010100020021000E
The purpose of annealing tube ends is
e)

to soften the tube ends

010100020021000B
A tube beading tool
b)

is used on firetube boilers

Boiler Cleaning
010100020021000A
One of the main purposes of an external inspection is to
a)

observe operation and maintenance practices

010100020021000D
When the boiler is removed from service, it can be drained
once the temperature reaches approximately
d)

90 degrees C

010100020021000D
Just before entering the waterside of the boiler it is
important to
d)

test the atmosphere with an oxygen "sniffer"

010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to
a)

prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler

010100020021000A
Before cleaning the waterside and as far as is possible

151

a)

a visual inspection of pressure parts should be completed

010100020021000B
One of the legal responsibilities of the engineer during an
inspection is to
b)

point out any known or suspected defects to the inspector

010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler
a)

may include making sure the valves are in good operating

condition

010100020021000B
A boiler inspection
b)

must be done when the boiler inspector requests it

010100020021000A
A hydrostatic test on a high pressure steam boiler
a)

must be done on a new boiler

010100020021000E
Chemical cleaning of smaller boilers is not usually done
because
e)

the cost to do so is not warranted or justified

010100020021000D
For an alkaline boil out, the boiler is maintained at a
desired steam pressure for about
e)

24 hours

010100020021000A
A relatively new and safer chemical used in boiler cleaning
and treatment is
a)

chelates

010100020021000A
An inhibitor, when added to acid, will
a)

minimize the effect the acid has on the metal

010100020021000B
The most popular acid for boiler cleaning is
b)

hydrochloric

Hot Oil Systems

010100020021000B

152

In hot oil heaters, hot gases moving through the furnace

transfers the heat to
b)

a convection heater

010100020021000C
Extended type tubes used with oil heaters are tubes
c) with fins on their outer surfaces
010100020021000B
The extended type tubes have fins on their outer surfaces.
010100020021000C
The most commonly applied oil heater, is the combination
convection and radiant type heater because of its efficiency.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

superheater
conduction
radiant
stationary
portable

010100020021000C
The most typical fired heater model is the
c)

up-draft

010100020021000D
The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater
are located in the
d)

breeching

010100020021000A
The gas burners of a horizontal rectangular direct-fired oil
heaters, are located
a)

on the floor of the furnace

010100020021000D
The inner walls and floor of a furnace in a fired heater, are
usually lined with
d)

refractory brick

010100020021000A
The most important piece of equipment of a hot oil system is
a)

the heater

010100020021000A
The most common oil heater is the combination of the
radiant and convection type.

153

010100020021000D
The approximate efficiency of a hot oil radiant heater is
d)

40 - 50%

010100020021000E
Hot oil convection heaters have an approximate efficiency of
e)

75 - 85 percent

010100020021000B
A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from
b)

teflon

010100020021000E
The maximum temperature of oil which can be pumped by a hot
oil pump if teflon is used as a non-metallic part of the
mechanical seal is
e)

200 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
The flow through an oil heater is controlled
a)

automatically

010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction is located
d)

below the surge tank level

010100020021000D
An oil used as thermal transfer fluid must not only be readily
available, it must also be at
d)

reasonable cost

010100020021000A
To avoid start-up difficulties in cold weather a thermal fluid
must have
a)

a low pour point

010100020021000A
Petroleum oils are widely used as heat transfer media for systems
operating up to
a)

290 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
Small diameter pipe used in building hot oil systems is
a)

25.4 mm or smaller

010100020021000D
The vapour space of the surge tank is

154

d)

the space in the tank above the level of the oil

010100020021000C
When filling a hot oil system with oil and replacing nitrogen
gas used to purge air from the system, __________ should be
followed.
c)

a pattern

010100020021000B
How long should the circulating pump be run to ensure the
system is full when filling a hot oil system?
b)

3 or 4 hours

010100020021000D
A hot oil pump suction strainer should be inspected and cleaned
after how long, following initial circulation of oil through
the system?
d)

3 - 4 hours

010100020021000A
Temperature rise in a hot oil system during the period that
the refractory is drying out is allowed at a rate of
a)

not more than 55 degrees Celsius per hour

010100020021000A
While refractory is drying in a heater, circulated oil in
the tubes is
a)

allowed to rise in temperature at not more than

55 degrees Celsius per hour

010100020021000C
What piece of equipment in a hot oil system requires the most
operator attention?
c)

the heater

010100020021000D
With regard to oil leaving each heater pass, of particular
importance is the
d)

temperature

010100020021000A
Compatibility of oils is determined by
a)

analysis

010100020021000E
How far from a furnace heater dike is the drain pit located?
e)

about 50 meters

155

010100020021000B
The safety valve discharge on a hot oil system returns to
b)

the surge tank

010100020021000A
The automatic shutdown devices on a hot oil system are called
a)

interlocks

010100020021000B
A low hot oil flow shutdown (FSDL) is always
installed in the outlet line of an oil heater.
010100020021000B
Low oil flow shutdowns (FSDL) are usually installed
b)

on the outlet line of the oil heater

010100020021000C
Hot oil high temperature (TSDH1) shutdown switches are installed
on
c)

the suction line of the pump

010100020021000B
Most heater fuel controls are interlocked to prevent pilot
burner fuel supply if hot oil flow is below a preset limit.
010100020021000B
In order to keep some hot oil flowing backwards through a standby
pump and around the discharge check valve, it is important that
the suction valve be left open.
010100020021000E
Vapour bubbles in a pump can cause the pump to
e)

cavitate

010100020021000B
Dikes are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond
the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube.
010100020021000C
In order not to be harmful to the metals used in hot oil
systems the thermal fluid must
c)

be noncorrosive

010100020021000E
A high flash point in oil reduces the risk of

156

e)

fire

010100020021000A
When petroleum oils break down or crack due to high temperature
the products formed are insoluble and
a)

more viscous

010100020021000B
Coke deposits on the inner walls of a heater tube produce
a dull sound when the tube is tapped lightly with a hammer?
010100020021000D
The presence of coke deposits in a heater tube can be
confirmed by
d)

radiographic inspection

010100020021000A
It is important to drain an hot oil heater prior to attempting a
radiographic inspection, because
a)

oil and coke appear similar on the x-ray picture

010100020021000B
Cracks in the refractory of a hot oil heater may indicate that
b)

there may have been hot spots at this point

010100020021000D
During shutdown, oil heater pilots and main burners are checked
for
d)

cleanliness

010100020021000B
Indicate which extinguishing agents are most suitable for hot
oil fires.
b)

foam and dry chemical

Introduction to Gas Plants and Pulp Mills

010100020021000D
The authority charged with responsibility for drafting
regulations to cover the use of natural gas is the
d)

Gas Conservation Board

010100020021000B
Hydrocarbons in a natural gas may include
b)

ethane

157

010100020021000A
The contaminants in a natural gas may include
a)

hydrogen sulphide

010100020021000B
The purpose of an inlet separator in a natural gas plant is
b)

the removal of liquids from the gas

010100020021000D
The purpose of the absorber in a natural gas plant is to
d)

remove hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the gas

010100020021000E
The removal of hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide from the
natural gas
e)

can be done with amine

010100020021000B
The purpose of stabilization in natural gas treatment plants is
b)

to flash off the gases at low pressure from the liquid

hydrocarbons

010100020021000A
The purpose of dehydration in natural gas treatment plants is
a)

to remove water vapour and remaining hydrocarbon

condensates from the main gas stream

010100020021000E
The two types of wood pulping processes are
the mechanical and the
e) chemical
010100020021000B
The two chief methods of chemical pulping are:
1.
3.

the sulphite process

the sulphate process

010100020021000E
In the kraft process, the chipped wood is further processed in
one of the following:
e) digester
010100020021000D
The raw material used in pulp and paper mills is
d)

wood chips

010100020021000B
Wood pulp production by chemical means, requires the removal of
lignin in order to obtain the cellulosic fibre.

158

Steam Related Oil, Food, and Sawmill Processes

010100020021000A
The main disadvantage of a sawmill gangsaw is
a)

the logs cannot be turned, nor the thickness varied

010100020021000C
Kiln-dried lumber refers to drying lumber
c)

by automatically maintaining temperature, humidity, and

ventilation by using forced ventilation and steam coils

010100020021000B
Hog fuel is a term used to describe a
b)

mixture of waste wood and bark used as boiler fuel in a

sawmill

010100020021000E
Which of the following is not a steam user in a meat
processing plant?
e)

blast freezer

010100020021000D
The overall purposes of an oil refinery are to
d) remove crude oil contaminants and process the crude oil
into specific end products
010100020021000A
The purpose of the vacuum unit in an oil refinery is
a)

to receive the "reduced crude" and recover more gas oils by

further distilling under high temperature and low pressure

010100020021000C
The purpose of the fluid catalytic cracking unit (F.C.C.U.)
in an oil refinery is
c)

to cause the heavy hydrocarbons to be transformed into

lighter hydrocarbons

010100020021000B
The purpose of the naphtha hydrotreater in an oil refinery is
b)

to remove the sulphur and nitrogen compounds before the

naphtha goes to the platformer

010100020021000D
A diesel hydrotreater in an oil refinery
d)

removes the sulphur and nitrogen compounds from the

diesel before the diesel goes to storage

159

010100020021000A
The purpose of a reformer in an oil refinery is
a)

to cause the molecular structure of the naphtha to change

so that the octane rating is increased and also to produce
the hydrogen for the hydrotreaters

010100020021000B
A gas sweetening unit in an oil refinery
b)

uses an amine contactor to absorb the hydrogen sulphide

from the sour gas

160