Networks Questions UGC

The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
Protocol,Medium,Signal,All the above
The information to be communicated in a data communications system is

the _______.
Medium,Protocol,Message,Transmission
Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are

measures of the _______ of a network.
Performance,Reliability,
Security,Feasibility
An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.

Performance,Reliability,
Security,All the above
Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

Mesh,Star,Bus,Ring
Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

A)
Mesh
B)
Star
C)
Bus
D)
Ring
Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves

______________ transmission.
Simplex,Half-duplex,Full-duplex,automatic
A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.

A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
automatic
A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

Point-to-point,Multipoint,Primary,Secondary
In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A)
point-to-point
B)
multipoint
C)
primary
D)
secondary
In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both

communicating devices at all times.
A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
half-simplex
In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.

A)
IMPs,Host computers,Networks,Routers
This was the first network.

A)
CSNET,NSFNET,ANSNET,ARPANET
Which organization has authority over interstate and international

commerce in the communications field?
A)
ITU-T,IEEE,FCC,ISOC
_______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and

standardize new technologies.
A)
Forums,Regulatory agencies,Standards organizations,All of the
above
Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and

electronic signaling specifications?
A)
EIA,ITU-T,ANSI,ISO
_______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.

A)
TCP/IP,NCP,UNIX,ACM
_______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in
which they are presented.
A)
Semantics,Syntax,Timing,All of the above
________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what

action is to be taken based on that interpretation.
A)
Semantics,Syntax,Timing,None of the above
_______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how
fast it can be sent.
A)
Semantics
B)
Syntax
C)
Timing
D)
none of the above
Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.

A)
Simplex,Half-duplex,Full-duplex,All of the above
In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a

dedicated link.
A)
Multipoint,Point-to-point,(a) and (b),None of the above
In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

A)
Multipoint,
B)
point-to-point
C)
(a) and (b)
D)
none of the above
______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.

A)
Data flow,Mode of operation,Topology,None of the above
Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

A)
Mesh,Ring,Bus,All of the above
A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or

campus, or between nearby buildings.
A)
MAN,LAN,WAN,None of the above
A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or

the whole world.
A)
MAN
B)
LAN
C)
WAN
D)
none of the above
________ is a collection of many separate networks.

A)
A WAN,An internet,A LAN,None of the above
There are ______________ Internet service providers.

A)
Local,Regional,National and international,All of the above
A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.

A)
Forum,Protocol,Standard,None of the above
________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.

A)
RCF,RFC,ID,None of the above
The Internet model consists of _______ layers.

A)
Three,Five,Seven,Eight
The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility

of the _______ layer.
A)
Network,Transport,Application,Physical
The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

A)
Physical,Data link,Network,Transport
Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
A)
Data link,Physical,Transport,Application
As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
_______.
A)
Added,Removed,Rearranged,Modified
The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A)
Physical,Data link,Transport,None of the above
Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.
A)
Network,Data link,Transport,None of the above
When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's
layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer.
A)
Physical,Transport,Application,None of the above
The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

A)
Which of the following is an application layer service?

A)
Remote log-in,File transfer and access,Mail service,All the above
Why was the OSI model developed?

A)
Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite,The rate of data
transfer was increasing exponentially,Standards were needed to allow any two
systems to communicate,None of the above
The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought
to be organized.
A)
CCITT,OSI,ISO,ANSI
The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the
physical medium.
A)
Programs,Dialogs,Protocols,Bits
The OSI model consists of _______ layers.
A)
Three,Five,Seven,Eight
In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper
layers, headers are _______.
A)
Added,Removed,Rearranged,Modified
In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the
header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A)
Physical,Transport,Session,Presentation
In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?
A)
Node-to-node delivery,Process-to-process message
delivery,Synchronization,Updating and maintenance of routing tables
In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________
layer.
A)
Transport,Session,Presentation,Application
When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which

address does the router look at?
A)
Port,Logical,Physical,None of the above
To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host,

the _______ address must be consulted.
A)
Port,IP,Physical,None of the above
IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
A)
32,64,128,Variable
ICMPv6 includes _______.

A)
IGMP,ARP,RARP,a and b
The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to
the next.
A)
The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer
that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver.
A)
Physical,Data link,Network,None of the above
The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one

process to another.
A)
Physical,Transport,Network,None of the above
The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.

A)
Reliable,Connection-oriented,Both a and b,None of the above
_______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses,

checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.
A)
TCP,UDP,IP,None of the above
__________ provides full transport layer services to applications.

A)
TCP,UDP,ARP,None of the above
The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a
node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A)
Port,Physical,Logical,None of the above
Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network

interface card (NIC).
A)
32-bit,64-bit,6-byte,None of the above
A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.

A)
32,48,16,None of the above
The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which
allows diverse systems to communicate.
A)
OSI,ISO,IEEE,None of the above
The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of

universally compatible networking protocols.
A)
OSI,ISO,IEEE,None of the above
The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A)
User,Network,Both (a) and (b),Neither (a) nor (b)
The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support
layers.
A)
User
B)
network
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support
layers.
A)
Transport,Network,Data link,Session
The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit

stream over a physical medium.
A)
Transport,Network,Data link,Physical
The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station
to the next without errors.
A)
transport
B)
network
C)
data link
D)
physical
The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a

packet across multiple network links.
A)
transport
B)
network
C)
data link
D)
physical
The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the

entire message.
A)
transport
B)
network
C)
data link
D)
physical
The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions

between communicating devices.
A)
Transport,Network,Session,Physical
The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices

through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.
A)
Transport,Network,Data link,Presentation
The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.

A)
Transport,Application,Data link,Physical
TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.
A)
Seven-layer; before,Five-layer; before,Six-layer; before,Five-layer;
after
The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session,

presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
A)
Application,Network,Data link,Physical
The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a
node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A)
Physical,IP,Port,Specific
The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.

A)
Physical,IP,Port,Specific
The_____ address identifies a process on a host.

A)
physical
B)
IP
C)
port
D)
specific
Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________.

A)
Periodic signals,Electromagnetic signals,Aperiodic signals,Lowfrequency sine waves
A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?

A)
1 Hz,100 Hz,1 KHz,1 MHz
In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.

A)
Peak amplitude,Frequency,Phase,Slope
In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.

A)
Signal amplitude,Frequency,Phase,Time
If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz,

what is the highest frequency?
A)
5 KHz,10 KHz,47 KHz,57 KHz
What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz?

A)
4 MHz,1 KHz,3 MHz,None of the above
As frequency increases, the period ________.

A)
Decreases,Increases,Remains the same,Doubles
Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then
the period of B is ________ that of A.
A)
One-half,Twice,The same as,Indeterminate from
A sine wave is ________.

A)
Periodic and continuous,Aperiodic and continuous,Periodic and
discrete,Aperiodic and discrete
If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude

is ________ V.
A)
2,1,-2,between -2 and 2
A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first

point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________.
A)
P2 is zero,P2 equals P1,P2 is much larger than P1,P2 is much
smaller than P1
________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses

strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium.
A)
Attenuation,Distortion,Noise,Decibel
________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses

strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes
up the signal.
A)
Attenuation
B)
Distortion
C)
Noise
D)
Decibel
________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source

such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
A)
Attenuation
B)
Distortion
C)
Noise
D)
Decibel
When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the

________.
A)
Throughput,Wavelength of the signal,Distortion factor,Distance a
signal or bit has traveled
Data can be ________.

A)
Analog,Digital,(a) or (b),None of the above
_______ data are continuous and take continuous values.

A)
_______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.

A)
Analog
B)
Digital
C)
(a) or (b)
D)
None of the above
Signals can be ________.

A)
Analog,Digital,either (a) or (b),neither (a) nor (b)
_____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.

A)
_______ signals can have only a limited number of values.

A)
Frequency and period are ______.

A)
the above
Inverse of each other,Proportional to each other,The same,None of
________is the rate of change with respect to time.

A)
Amplitude,Time,Frequency,Voltage
_______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0.

A)
Frequency,Phase,Amplitude,Voltage
A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike
in the _____ domain.
A)
Time; frequency,Frequency; time,Time; phase,Phase; time
A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to

send a _______ signal.
A)
Composite; single-frequency,Single-frequency; composite,Singlefrequency; double-frequency,None of the above
The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and
the lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A)
Frequency,Period,Bandwidth,Amplitude
A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite

bandwidth.
A)
Digital,Analog,Either (a) or (b),Neither (a) nor (b)
Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____

channel.
A)
Low-pass,Bandpass,Low rate,High rate
If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal

directly to the channel.
A)
low-pass
B)
bandpass
C)
low rate
D)
high rate
For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical
maximum bit rate.
A)
noisy
B)
noiseless
C)
bandpass
D)
low-pass
For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
A)
Noisy,Noiseless,Bandpass,Low-pass
_________ can impair a signal.
A)
Attenuation,Distortion,Noise,All of the above
The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A)
amplitude
Bandwidth-period,Frequency-amplitude,Bandwidth-delay,Delay-
Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.

A)
Line,Block,NRZ,Manchester
_______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

A)
RZ,Manchester,Differential Manchester,All the above
_______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.

A)
RZ,Manchester,Differential Manchester,All the above
PCM is an example of _______ conversion.

A)
Digital-to-digital,Digital-to-analog,Analog-to-analog,Analog-to-digital
If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the

highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the
Nyquist theorem?
A)
200 samples/s,500 samples/s,1000 samples/s,1200 samples/s
The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______.
A)
Equal to the lowest frequency of a signal,Equal to the highest
frequency of a signal,Twice the bandwidth of a signal,Twice the highest frequency
of a signal
Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for

synchronization?
A)
NRZ-L,RZ,NRZ-I,Manchester
Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for
1s?
A)
NRZ-I,RZ,Manchester,AMI
Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the

signal?
A)
2,8,16,32
Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.

A)
Synchronization,Error detection,Attenuation,(a) and (b)
In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across

its own wire.
A)
Asynchronous serial,Synchronous serial,Parallel,(a) and (b)
In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a

time.
A)
Asynchronous serial,Synchronous serial,Parallel,(a) and (b)
In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
A)
asynchronous serial
B)
synchronous serial
C)
parallel
D)
(a) and (b)
In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.

A)
Fixed,Variable,A function of the data rate,Zero
___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block

coding, and scrambling.
A)
Analog-to-digital,Digital-to-analog,Analog-to-analog,Digital-to-digital
________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.

A)
Block coding,Line coding,Scrambling,None of the above
A)
Block coding
B)
Line coding
C)
Scrambling
D)
None of the above
________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit

group with an n-bit group.
A)
Block coding,Line coding,Scrambling,None of the above
________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.

A)
Scrambling,Line coding,Block coding,None of the above
Two common scrambling techniques are ________.

A)
NRZ and RZ,AMI and NRZ,B8ZS and HDB3,Manchester and
differential Manchester
The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is

called __________.
A)
PAL,PCM,Sampling,None of the above
The first step in PCM is ________.

A)
Quantization,Modulation,Sampling,None of the above
There are three sampling methods: __________.

A)
Quantized, sampled, and ideal,Ideal, sampled, and flat-top,Ideal,
natural, and flat-top,None of the above
______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds
the change from the previous sample.
A)
DM; PCM,PCM; DM,DM; CM,None of the above
While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are)
three subclass(es) of serial transmission.
A)
One; two,Two; three,One; three,None of the above
In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or

more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte.
A)
Synchronous,Asynchronous,Isochronous,None of the above
In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or

stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits.
A)
synchronous
B)
asynchronous
C)
isochronous
D)
none of the above
The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits
must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate.
A)
synchronous
B)
asynchronous
C)
isochronous
D)
none of the above
A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being

transmitted.
A)
above
Self-synchronizing,Self-modulated,Self-transmitted,None of the
In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of

the received signal power, called the _______.
A)
Baseline,Base,Line,None of the above
The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the
______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s.
A)
Data; signal,Signal; data,Baud; bit,None of the above
The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.

A)
Baud,Bit,Signal,None of the above
The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.

A)
Baud,Bit,Signal,None of the above
In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis,
either above or below.
A)
Polar,Bipolar,Unipolar,All of the above
In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For
example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can
be negative.
A)
polar
B)
bipolar
C)
unipolar
D)
all of the above
In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
A)
NRZ-I,NRZ-L,Both (a) and (b),Neither (a) nor (b)
In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage

determines the value of the bit.
A)
NRZ-I
B)
NRZ-L
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________
scheme.
A)
Manchester,Differential Manchester,Both (a) and (b),Neither (a) nor
(b)
The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________
scheme.
A)
Manchester
B)
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The
voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in
the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization.
A)
Manchester
B)
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the
bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is
a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none.
A)
Manchester
B)
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the

middle of the bit is used for __________.
A)
Bit transfer,Baud transfer,Synchronization,None of the above
The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____

that of NRZ.
A)
The same as,Twice,Thrice,None of the above
In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.

A)
Unipolar,Bipolar,Polar,None of the above
The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit
patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal.
A)
4B5B,2B1Q,MLT-3,None of the above
The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition
rules to move between the levels.
A)
4B5B
B)
2B1Q
C)
MLT-3
D)
none of the above
______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.

A)
B4B8,HDB3,B8ZS,None of the above
______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V

A)
B4B8,HDB3,B8ZSf,None of the above
ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.

A)
AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.

A)
In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
A)
Frequency and amplitude,Phase and frequency,Amplitude and
phase,None of the above
If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
A)
If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A)
100,400,800,1600a
300,400,600,1200
If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A)
300
B)
400
C)
600
D)
1200
If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?
A)
300
B)
400
C)
1000
D)
1200
If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate?
A)
300
B)
400
C)
1000
D)
12000
9
Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highestfrequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal?
A)
700 KHz,705 KHz,710 KHz,Cannot be determined from given
information
10
_______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of
an analog signal based on the information in the digital data.
A)
Digital-to-analog,Analog-to-analog,Analog-to-digital,Digital-to-digital
11
Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion?

A)
ASK,PSK,FSK,AM
12
In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal
elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant.
A)
ASK,PSK,
C)
FSK
D)
QAM
13
In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data.
Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant.
A)
ASK
B)
PSK
C)
FSK
D)
QAM
14
In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more
different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant.
A)
ASK
B)
PSK
C)
FSK
D)
QAM
15
A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element,
particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature).
A)
Amplitude and phase,Amplitude and frequency,Frequency and
phase,None of the above
16
Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.

A)
17
ASK and FSK,ASK and PSK,PSK and FSK,None of the above
________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.
A)
ASK,PSK,FSK,QAM
18
_________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an
analog signal.
A)
Digital-to-analog,Analog-to-analog,Analog-to-digital,Digital-to-digital
19
Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is
_______.
A)
20
Low-pass,Band-pass,Either (a) or (b),Neither (a) nor (b)
Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion?

A)
AM,PM,FM,QAM
21
In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude
varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal.
A)
AM,PM,FM,None of the above
22
In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to
follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak
amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude
of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes
correspondingly.
A)
AM
B)
PM
C)
FM
D)
none of the above
23
In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow
the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal.
A)
AM
B)
PM
C)
FM
D)
none of the above
24
In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the
same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency.
A)
25
PSK,OOK,FSK,None of the above
How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?

A)
26
27
28
29
How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
30
31
32
The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.

A)
33
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each
AM station.
A)
34
The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each
FM station.
A)
The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called
_______.
A)
Modulation,Encoding,Line discipline,Multiplexing
Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?

A)
FDM,TDM,WDM,(a) and (c)
Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?

A)
FDM,TDM,WDM,None of the above
4
Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency?
A)
FDM,TDM,Both (a) and (b),None of the above
5
In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each
frame contains _______ slots.
A)
n,n + 1,n 1,0 to n
6
In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the
sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
A)
Greater than,Less than,Equal to,Not related to
Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?

A)
8
_________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific
goals.
A)
Frequency,Bandwidth,Amplitude,None of the above
9
________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by
using spreading.
A)
Efficiency; privacy and antijamming,Privacy and antijamming;
efficiency,Privacy and efficiency; antijamming,Efficiency and antijamming;
privacy
10
________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission
of multiple signals across a single data link.
A)
11
Demodulating,Multiplexing,Compressing,None of the above
In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.

A)
1; n,1; 1,n; 1,n; n
12
The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a
transmission.
A)
Channel; link,Link; channel,Lne; channel,Line; link
13
______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater
than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.
A)
TDM,FDM,Both (a) or (b),Neither (a) or (b)
14
FSM is an _________technique.
A)
15
____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.

A)
16
Analog,Digital,Either (a) or (b),None of the above
______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.

A)
FDM,
B)
TDM
C)
WDM
D)
None of the above
17
_____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high
bandwidth of a link.
A)
FDM,TDM,WDM
D)
None of the above
18
_____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate
channels into one high-rate one.
A)
FDM
B)
TDM
C)
WDM
D)
None of the above
19
We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.

A)
FDM
B)
TDM
C)
WDM
D)
none of the above
20
In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output
even if it is not sending data.
A)
Synchronous,Statistical,Isochronous,None of the above
21
In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth
efficiency.
A)
Synchronous,Statistical,Isochronous,None of the above
22
In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger
bandwidth.
A)
Spread spectrum,Line coding,Block coding,None of the above
23
_______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations
must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and
without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder.
A)
Spread spectrum,Multiplexing,Modulation,None of the above.
24
The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are
modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier
frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency.
A)
FDM,DSSS,FHSS,TDM
25
The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each
data bit with n bits.
1.
A)
FDM
B)
DSSS
C)
FHSS
D)
TDM
transmission media are usually categorized as _______.
A)
Fixed or unfixed,Guided or unguided,Determinate or
indeterminate,Metallic or nonmetallic
Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.

A)
Physical,Network,Transport,Application
3
_______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting
outer sheath.
A)
In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.

A)
Twisted-pair,Coaxial,Fiber-optic,Shielded twisted-pair
Light,Radio,Infrared,Very low-frequency
Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
A)
Cellular telephone system,Local telephone system,Satellite
communications,Radio broadcasting
Which of the following is not a guided medium?

A)
Twisted-pair cable,Coaxial cable,Fiber-optic cable,Atmosphere
7
What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise
than twisted-pair cable?
A)
material
In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.

A)
Inner conductor,Diameter of cable,Outer conductor,Insulating
Denser than,Less dense than,The same density as,Another name for
The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.

A)
Glass or plastic,Copper,Bimetallic,Liquid
10
When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if
the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs.
A)
Reflection,Refraction,Incidence,Criticism
11
When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam
bends along the interface.
A)
More than,Less than,Equal to,None of the above
12
Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.

A)
Ground,Sky,Line-of-sight,None of the above
13
Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______
propagation.
A)
14
15
Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation.

A)
ground
B)
sky
C)
line-of-sight
D)
none of the above
A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.

A)
16
Ground,Sky,Line-of-sight,None of the above
Omnidirectional,Bidirectional,Unidirectional,Horn
A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.
A)
Guided,Unguided,Either (a) or (b),None of the above
A)
Coaxial,Fiber-optic,Twisted-pair,None of the above
17
18
_______ cable is used for voice and data communications.
A)
19
20
Coaxial,Fiber-optic,Twisted-pair,None of the above
__________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.

A)
Coaxial
B)
Fiber-optic
C)
Twisted-pair
D)
none of the above
_____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable.
A)
Twisted-pair; Fiber-optic,Coaxial; fiber-optic,Coaxial; twistedpair,None of the above
21
______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by
cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
22
A)
Coaxial,Fiber-optic
C)
Twisted-pair
D)
none of the above
______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.

A)
Coaxial
B)
Fiber-optic
C)
Twisted-pair
D)
none of the above
23
In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by
_______.
A)
Reflection,Refraction,Modulation,None of the above
24
_________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a
physical conductor.
A)
25
Unguided,Either (a) or (b),None of the above
Radio waves are _________.

A)
26
Guided,
Omnidirectional,Unidirectional,Bidirectional,None of the above
Microwaves are _________.

A)
omnidirectional
B)
unidirectional
C)
bidirectional
D)
none of the above
27
_______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN
communications.
A)
Radio waves,Microwaves,Infrared waves,None of the above
28
________ are used for short-range communications such as those between
a PC and a peripheral device.
A)
Radio waves
B)
Microwaves
C)
Infrared waves
D)
none of the above
Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important.

A)
Four,Three,Five,Six
We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.

A)
four
B)
three
C)
five
D)
two
3
Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories:
virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks
A)
Four,Three,Two,Five
4
A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical
links, in which each link is divided into n channels.
A)
Line-switched,Frame-switched,Circuit-switched,None of the above
Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.

A)
Data line,Physical,Network,Transport
6
In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the
resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until
the teardown phase.
A)
Datagram switching,Circuit switching,Frame switching,None of the
above
10
In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.

A)
datagram switching
B)
circuit switching
C)
frame switching
D)
none of the above
In _________, resources are allocated on demand.

A)
datagram switching
B)
circuit switching
C)
frame switching
D)
none of the above
In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.

A)
datagram switching
B)
circuit switching
C)
frame switching
D)
none of the above
In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.

A)
datagram switching
B)
circuit switching
C)
frame switching
D)
none of the above
11
A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a
datagram network. It has some characteristics of both.
A)
12
We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components.

A)
13
Virtual-circuit,Packet-switched,Frame-switched,None of the above
Two,Three,Four,None of the above
The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch.

A)
Crosspoint,Crossbar,TSI,STS
14
A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage
that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string.
A)
15
Crossbar,TSI,Banyan,None of the above
In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.

A)
8,4,3,2
16
In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____
microswitches at each stage.
A)
B)
C)
D)
17
A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies
to take advantage of the best of both.
A)
TST,SSS,TTT,None of the above
18
The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the
_________.
A)
STI,ITS,TSI,None of the above
19
Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater
than ____.
A)
10,20,30,40
20
Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater
than ____.
A)
21,19,31,41
21
Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of
crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______.
A)
15200,18000,42000,20000
22
In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints
is ______.
A)
10000,20000,40000,30000
23
In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of
crosspoints is ______.
A)
40000,Greater than 40000,Less than 40000,Greater than 100000
24
A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three)
stages.
A)
Multistage,Multiple crossbar,Multiple path,None of the above
25
In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one
another spatially.
A)
26
Time-division,Space-division,Two-dimensional,Three-dimensional
A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.

A)
Virtual-circuit,Datagram,Circuit-switched,None of the above
27
In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and
local.
A)
28
Virtual-circuit,Datagram,Circuit-switched,None of the above
The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network.

A)
virtual-circuit
B)
datagram
C)
circuit-switched
D)
none of the above
29
A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the
______ address.
A)
Source,Destination,Local,None of the above
30
The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network
normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet.
A)
Source,Destination,Local,None of the above
A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

A)
packet-switched
B)
circuit-switched
C)
message-switched
D)
none of the above
2
The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to
the nearest end office.
A)
twisted-pair
B)
coaxial
C)
fiber-optic
D)
none of the above
Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals.
A)
analog; analog
B)
analog; digital
C)
digital; digital
D)
digital; analog
4
_______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and
downstream data rates.
A)
VDSL
B)
ADSL
C)
SDSL
D)
(a) and (b)
5
DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and
_______.
A)
FDM; TDM
B)
QDM; QAM
C)
FDM; QAM
D)
PSK; FSK
The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.

A)
voice communication
B)
upstream data
C)
downstream data
D)
control data
_______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.
10
A)
VDSL
B)
ADSL
C)
SDSL
D)
HDSL
HDSL encodes data using _______.

A)
4B/5B
B)
2B1Q
C)
1B2Q
D)
6B/8T
Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.

A)
splitter
B)
fiber node
C)
combiner
D)
head end
A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.

A)
upstream
B)
downstream
C)
upstream and downstream
D)
none of the above
11
In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______
modulation technique.
A)
PSK
B)
QAM
C)
PCM
D)
ASK
12
In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______
modulation technique.
13
A)
QAM
B)
QPSK
C)
PCM
D)
ASK
The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______.
A)
MCNS
B)
DOCSIS
C)
CMTS
D)
ADSL
14
The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old
telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system.
A)
digital
B)
analog
C)
digital as well as analog
D)
none of the above
15
16
17
18
The modern telephone network is now ________.

A)
digital
B)
analog
C)
digital as well as analog
D)
none of the above
The telephone network is made of ______ major components.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The United States is divided into many _______.

A)
LECs
B)
LATAs
C)
IXCs
D)
none of the above
The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ .

A)
POP
B)
IXC
C)
LEC
D)
none of the above
19
20
The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.

A)
POP
B)
IXC
C)
LEC
D)
none of the above
In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.
A)
in-band
B)
out-of-band
C)
mixed
D)
none of the above
21
In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and
another portion for data.
A)
in-band
B)
out-of-band
C)
mixed
D)
none of the above
22
The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called
______.
A)
POP
B)
SSS
C)
SS7
D)
none of the above
23
Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______
services and analog _____services.
24
A)
switched; in-band
B)
out-of-band; in-band
C)
switched; leased
D)
leased; out-of-band
The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______.
A)
switched/56; switched/64
B)
switched/56; DDS
C)
DDS; swiched 64
D)
leased; out-of-band
25
The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional
entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______.
26
A)
modulator; demodulator
B)
demodulator; modulator
C)
modern; demo
D)
none of the above
Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards.

A)
V-series
B)
X-series
C)
VX-series
D)
none of the above
27
______technology is a set of technologies develpoed by the telephone
companies to provide high data rate transmission.
28
29
30
A)
ASL
B)
DSL
C)
LDS
D)
none of the above
The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end.

A)
twisted-pair
B)
coaxial
C)
fiber-optic
D)
none of the above
The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network.

A)
HFC
B)
HCF
C)
CFH
D)
none of the above
The HFC network uses _______ cable.

A)
twisted-pair
B)
coaxial
C)
fiber-optic
D)
a combination of (b) and (c)
31
To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a
______ and a _________
A)
CM; CMS
B)
CT; CMTS
C)
CM; CMTS
D)
none of the above
Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

A)
Simple parity check
B)
Two-dimensional parity check
C)
CRC
D)
Checksum
2
Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data
unit?
A)
Simple parity check
B)
Two-dimensional parity check
C)
CRC
D)
Checksum
In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?

A)
The divisor
B)
The quotient
C)
The dividend
D)
The remainder
In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.

A)
The same size as
B)
one bit less than
C)
one bit more than
D)
none of the above
A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.
A)
double-bit
B)
burst
C)
single-bit
D)
none of the above
6
In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting
retransmission.
A)
backward
B)
onward
C)
forward
D)
none of the above
7
In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data
again.
A)
backward
B)
retransmission
C)
forward
D)
none of the above
8
We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and
______coding.
A)
block; linear
B)
linear; nonlinear
C)
block; convolution
D)
none of the above
In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.

A)
addition and multiplication
B)
addition and division
C)
addition and subtraction
D)
none of the above
10
In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and
subtraction.
11
___.
A)
XOR
B)
OR
C)
AND
D)
none of the above
In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called
A)
block; blockwords
B)
linear; datawords
C)
block; datawords
D)
none of the above
12
We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The
resulting n-bit blocks are called _________.
A)
datawords
B)
blockwords
C)
codewords
D)
none of the above
13
The ________ between two words is the number of differences between
corresponding bits.
A)
Hamming code
B)
Hamming distance
C)
Hamming rule
D)
none of the above
14
To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum
Hamming distance in a block code must be _______.
A)
B)
C)
11
D)
none of the above
15
To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum
Hamming distance in a block code must be ________.
A)
B)
C)
11
D)
none of the above
16
In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates
another valid codeword.
17
A)
XORing
B)
ORing
C)
ANDing
D)
none of the above
A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors.

A)
an even-number of
B)
two
C)
no errors
D)
an odd-number of
18
_______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a
codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword.
A)
Non-linear
B)
Convolution
C)
Cyclic
D)
none of the above
19
The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.

A)
correction; detection
B)
detection; correction
C)
creation; correction
D)
creation; detection
20
In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______,
inclusive.
21
22
A)
1 to 10
B)
1 to 11
C)
0 to 10
D)
none of the above
In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.

A)
1 and 2
B)
0 and 2
C)
0 and 1
D)
none of the above
Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
23
24
25
In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
26
In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two
codewords is ________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
27
If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding
codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error.
28
29
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial.

A)
range
B)
degree
C)
power
D)
none of the above
The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________.

A)
degree
B)
generator
C)
redundancy
D)
none of the above
30
A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered
errors.
A)
B)
x+1
C)
D)
none of the above
31
Checksums use _________ arithmetic.

A)
two's complement arithmetic
B)
one's complement arithmetic
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
32
In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is
________.
33
34
A)
1111
B)
1101
C)
1000
D)
none of the above
The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________.

A)
1111
B)
0000
C)
1110
D)
0111
The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________.

A)
1111
B)
0000
C)
1110
D)
0111
1
In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of
sequence numbers?
A)
0 to 63
B)
0 to 64
C)
1 to 63
D)
1 to 64
2
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the
receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender.
A)
B)
C)
D)
any of the above
ARQ stands for _______.

A)
Automatic repeat quantization
B)
Automatic repeat request
C)
Automatic retransmission request
D)
Acknowledge repeat request
4
For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______
acknowledgments are needed.
A)
exactly 10
B)
less than 10
C)
more than 10
D)
none of the above
HDLC is an acronym for _______.

A)
High-duplex line communication
B)
High-level data link control
C)
Half-duplex digital link combination
D)
Host double-level circuit
6
Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______
communication.
A)
node-to-node
B)
host-to-host
C)
process-to-process
D)
none of the above
7
_______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a
destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other
destinations.
A)
Digitizing
B)
Controlling
C)
Framing
D)
none of the above
In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.

A)
fixed-size
B)
variable-size
C)
standard
D)
none of the above
9
In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of
two frames.
A)
fixed-size
B)
variable-size
C)
standard
D)
none of the above
10
_________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and
bit-oriented.
A)
Fixed-size
B)
Variable-size
C)
Standard
D)
None of the above
11
In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of
characters.
12
A)
bit-oriented
B)
character-oriented
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.
13
A)
byte-oriented
B)
bit-oriented
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
In _________ protocols, we use ________.

A)
character-oriented; byte stuffing
B)
character-oriented; bit stuffing
C)
bit-oriented; character stuffing
D)
none of the above
14
Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame
when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______.
15
A)
header
B)
trailer
C)
flag
D)
none of the above
In ________ protocols, we use ________.

A)
byte-oriented; bit stuffing
B)
character-oriented; bit stuffing
C)
bit-oriented; bit stuffing
D)
none of the above
16
Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when
there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________.
A)
header
B)
trailer
C)
flag
D)
none of the above
17
_______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of
data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
18
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.

A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
19
The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______
channels.
A)
noisy
B)
noiseless
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
20
The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ
are for ______ channels.
21
22
23
A)
noisy
B)
noiseless
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.

A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.

A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.

A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
D)
both (b) and (c)
24
In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no
regard to the receiver.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
25
In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives
confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
26
The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
C)
Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
none of the above
27
In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we
resend all outstanding frames.
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
D)
none of the above
28
In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending
only frames that are corrupted.
29
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
D)
none of the above
Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________.

A)
sliding frame
B)
sliding window
C)
sliding packet
D)
none of the above
30
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of the send window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
31
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
32
In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
33
In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
34
High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for
communication over point-to-point and multipoint links.
A)
bit-oriented
B)
byte-oriented
C)
character-oriented
D)
none of the above
35
The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point
Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol.
A)
bit-oriented
B)
byte-oriented
C)
character-oriented
D)
none of the above
36
_______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of
data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
37
_________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat
request, which is the retransmission of data.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
38
In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames.
The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic.
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo-4
C)
modulo-m
D)
none of the above
39
In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in
______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo-4
C)
modulo-m
D)
none of the above
40
In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the
sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic,
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo- 8
C)
modulo-256
D)
none of the above
41
Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of
the send window is 1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
42
In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary
station and multiple secondary stations.
A)
ABM
B)
NRM
C)
ARM
D)
NBM
43
In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and
each station can function as a primary and a secondary.
A)
ABM
B)
NRM
C)
ARM
D)
NBM
44
In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining,
configuring, and terminating links.
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
45
In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step
process:
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
46
In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in
which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online.
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send.
A)
pure ALOHA
B)
slotted ALOHA
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.
A)
the same as
B)
two times
C)
three times
D)
none of the above
The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A)
12.2
B)
18.4
C)
36.8
D)
none of the above
4
In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the
time slot.
A)
pure ALOHA
B)
slotted ALOHA
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
5
In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission
time.
A)
the same as
B)
two times
C)
three times
D)
none of the above
The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A)
12.2
B)
18.4
C)
36.8
D)
none of the above
The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

A)
the same as
B)
two times
C)
three times
D)
none of the above
8
In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its
frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it
finds it idle.
A)
nonpersistent
B)
1-persistent
C)
p-persistent
D)
none of the above
9
In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line.
If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random
amount of time and then senses the line again.
A)
nonpersistent
B)
1-persistent
C)
p-persistent
D)
none of the above
10
In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain
from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is
busy, it tries again.
11
A)
nonpersistent
B)
1-persistent
C)
p-persistent
D)
none of the above
We have categorized access methods into _______ groups.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
12
In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none
is assigned the control over another.
A)
random access
B)
controlled access
C)
channelization
D)
none of the above
13
In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the
medium before trying to use it.
A)
MA
B)
CSMA
C)
FDMA
D)
CDMA
14
________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before
sending.
15
A)
MA
B)
CSMA
C)
FDMA
D)
CDMA
__________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision.

A)
CSMA/CA
B)
CSMA/CD
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
16
In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if
the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is
a collision, the frame is sent again.
17
A)
CSMA/CA
B)
CSMA/CD
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented.

A)
CSMA/CA
B)
CSMA/CD
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
18
In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the
interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments.
A)
CSMA/CA
B)
CSMA/CD
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
19
In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station
has the right to send.
A)
random access
B)
controlled access
C)
channelization
D)
none of the above
20
In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by
other stations.
21
A)
random access
B)
controlled access
C)
channelization
D)
none of the above
We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
22
In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before
sending data. Time is divided into intervals.
A)
reservation
B)
polling
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
23
In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a
reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval.
A)
reservation
B)
polling
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
24
In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the
primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device.
A)
reservation
B)
polling
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
25
In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary
devices follow its instructions.
A)
reservation
B)
polling
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
26
In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical
ring.
A)
reservation
B)
polling
27
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor.

A)
reservation
B)
polling
C)
token passing
D)
none of the above
28
In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through
the ring.
A)
reservation: control frame
B)
polling: poll request
C)
token passing: token
D)
none of the above
29
_________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of
a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations.
30
A)
Random access
B)
Controlled access
C)
Channelization
D)
none of the above
We discussed ________ channelization protocols.

A)
two
31
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
32
In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words,
each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the
time.
33
A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
34
In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data.
Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
35
36
A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
37
_______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called
chips.
A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
38
In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the
Walsh tables.
A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001

01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?
A)
5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
B)
5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C)
5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D)
5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
2
If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a
______ address.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
any of the above
3
If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a
______ address.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
any of the above
Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?

A)
43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B)
44:AA:C1:23:45:32
C)
46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D)
48:32:21:21:4D:34
Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?

A)
B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B)
7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
C)
7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D)
83:32:21:21:4D:34
_______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.

A)
Token Ring
B)
Token Bus
C)
Ethernet
D)
none of the above
7
The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method
for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet.
A)
1-persistent
B)
p-persistent
C)
non-persistent
D)
none of the above
8
The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC
sublayer.
A)
data link
B)
physical
C)
network
D)
none of the above
9
The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access
method and framing.
A)
LLC
B)
MII
C)
MAC
D)
none of the above
10
Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address
imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).
11
A)
5-byte
B)
32-bit
C)
48-bit
D)
none of the above
The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.

A)
32
B)
80
C)
128
D)
12
13
14
none of the above
The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.

A)
1518
B)
1500
C)
1200
D)
none of the above
_________ uses thick coaxial cable.

A)
10Base5
B)
10Base2
C)
10Base-T
D)
10Base-F
__________ uses thin coaxial cable.

A)
10Base5
B)
10Base2
C)
10Base-T
D)
10Base-F
15
_________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a
common hub.
A)
10Base5
B)
10Base2
C)
10Base-T
D)
16
17
10Base-F
________ uses fiber-optic cable.

A)
10Base5
B)
10Base2
C)
10Base-T
D)
10Base-F
Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

A)
10
B)
100
C)
1000
D)
10,000
18
In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or
data rate of operation.
19
A)
Standard
B)
Fast Ethernet
C)
Gigabit Ethernet
D)
Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
__________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.

A)
100Base-TX
B)
100Base-FX
C)
100Base-T4
D)
20
21
22
23
none of the above
_________ uses two fiber-optic cables.

A)
100Base-TX
B)
100Base-FX
C)
100Base-T4
D)
none of the above
_________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.

A)
100Base-TX
B)
100Base-FX
C)
100Base-T4
D)
none of the above
Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

A)
10
B)
100
C)
1000
D)
10,000
Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.

A)
half-duplex
B)
full-duplex
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
24
25
26
27
neither (a) nor (b)
__________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,

A)
1000Base-SX
B)
1000Base-LX
C)
1000Base-T
D)
none of the above
__________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.

A)
1000Base-SX
B)
1000Base-LX
C)
1000Base-T
D)
none of the above
__________ uses four twisted pairs.

A)
1000Base-SX
B)
1000Base-LX
C)
1000Base-T
D)
none of the above
________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.

A)
10GBase-S
B)
10GBase-L
C)
10GBase-E
D)
28
29
none of the above
________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.

A)
10GBase-S
B)
10GBase-L
C)
10GBase-E
D)
none of the above
________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.

A)
10GBase-S
B)
10GBase-L
C)
10GBase-E
D)
none of the above
30
In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the
address is _________.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
31
In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the
address is _________.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
32
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
33
______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of
HDLC.
A)
MAC
B)
LLC
C)
LLU
D)
none of the above
34
The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the
upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services
A)
MAC
B)
LLC
C)
LLU
D)
none of the above
35
In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and
is not (formally) part of the frame.
A)
CRC
B)
preamble
C)
address
D)
none of the above
36
In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection
information.
37
38
39
A)
CRC
B)
preamble
C)
address
D)
none of the above
Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding

A)
NRZ
B)
AMI
C)
Manchester
D)
100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.

A)
4B/5B; NRZ
B)
8B/10B; NRZ
C)
4B/5B; MLT-3
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
40
A)
4B/5B; NRZ-I
B)
8B/10B; NRZ
C)
4B/5B; MLT-3
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding.

A)
NRZ
B)
8B6T
C)
MLT-3
D)
Manchester
41
1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding
and ________ line coding.
42
A)
4B/5B; NRZ
B)
8B/10B; NRZ
C)
4B/5B; MLT-3
D)
8B/10B; NRZ
1000Base-T uses ________ line coding.

A)
4D-PAM5
B)
8B6T
C)
MLT-3
D)
Manchester
IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which
covers the physical and data link layers.
A)
IEEE 802.3
B)
IEEE 802.5
C)
IEEE 802.11
D)
IEEE 802.2
2
In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and
an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP).
A)
ESS
B)
BSS
C)
CSS
D)
none of the above
In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.

A)
an ad hoc architecture
B)
an infrastructure network
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.

A)
an ad hoc architecture
B)
an infrastructure network
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
5
In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs
usually occurs via two ________.
A)
BSSs
B)
ESSs
C)
APs
D)
none of the above
6
In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not
moving) or moving only inside a BSS.
A)
no-transition
B)
BSS-transition
C)
ESS-transition
D)
none of the above
7
In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to
another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS.
A)
no-transition
B)
BSS-transition
C)
ESS-transition
D)
none of the above
8
In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to
another.
A)
no-transition
B)
BSS-transition
C)
ESS-transition
D)
none of the above
9
In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be
implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network).
A)
DCF
B)
PCF
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
10
In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another
without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____
A)
00
B)
01
C)
10
D)
11
11
In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station,
the address flag is _______.
A)
00
B)
01
C)
10
D)
11
12
In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address
flag is _____.
A)
00
B)
01
C)
10
D)
11
13
In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a
wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____
A)
00
B)
01
C)
10
D)
11
14
The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______
and _______.
15
16
A)
BSS; ASS
B)
ESS; SSS
C)
BSS; ESS
D)
BSS; DCF
In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________.
A)
ALOHA
B)
CSMA/CA
C)
CSMA/CD
D)
none of the above
In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.
A)
contention
B)
controlled
17
18
C)
polling
D)
none of the above
In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance.

A)
NAV
B)
BSS
C)
ESS
D)
none of the above
In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.

A)
four
B)
five
C)
six
D)
none of the above
19
In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to
______addresses.
20
A)
four
B)
five
C)
six
D)
none of the above
The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.

A)
FHSS
B)
DSSS
21
22
23
24
C)
OFDM
D)
either (a) or (b)
The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.

A)
FHSS
B)
DSSS
C)
OFDM
D)
either (a) or (b)
The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.

A)
FHSS
B)
DSSS
C)
OFDM
D)
either (a) or (b)
The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.

A)
FHSS
B)
DSSS
C)
OFDM
D)
either (a) or (b)
The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A)
B)
25
26
27
28
C)
11
D)
22
IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A)
B)
C)
5.5
D)
none of the above
IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A)
B)
C)
11
D)
22
The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.

A)
four
B)
five
C)
six
D)
none of the above
29
Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in
a small area.
30
31
A)
wired LAN
B)
wireless LAN
C)
VLAN
D)
none of the above
A Bluetooth network is called a ________.

A)
piconet
B)
scatternet
C)
bluenet
D)
none of the above
In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.

A)
scatternet; piconets
B)
piconets: scatternet
C)
piconets: bluenet
D)
bluenet; scatternet
32
A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____
secondary devices.
A)
one; five
B)
five; three
C)
two; six
D)
one; seven
33
The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station
problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station
problem.
34
A)
can; cannot
B)
cannot; can
C)
can; can
D)
cannot; cannot
In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps

A)
B)
C)
11
D)
none of the above
35
In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of
the Internet model.
A)
radio
B)
baseband
C)
L2CAP
D)
none of the above
36
In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in
LANs.
A)
radio
B)
baseband
C)
L2CAP
D)
none of the above
37
In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer
in LANs.
38
A)
radio
B)
baseband
C)
L2CAP
D)
none of the above
The access method in Bluetooth is ________.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDD-TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
39
In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data
delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery).
A)
SCO
B)
ACL
C)
ACO
D)
SCL
40
In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important
than avoiding latency.
A)
SCO
B)
ACL
C)
ACO
D)
SCL
41
Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference
from other devices or other networks.
A)
DSSS
B)
FHSS
C)
FDMA
D)
none of the above
A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the

Internet model.
A)
physical
B)
data link
C)
network
D)
all of the above
2
A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no
filtering capability.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
3
A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link
layers of the Internet model.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
4
A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its
forwarding table.
A)
simple
B)
dual
C)
transparent
D)
none of the above
A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology.

A)
binary tree
B)
spanning tree
C)
multiway tree
D)
none of the above
A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected.

A)
backbone
B)
wireless
C)
wired
D)
10
none of the above
A backbone is usually a ______.

A)
bus
B)
star
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________.

A)
software
B)
physical wiring
C)
hardware
D)
none of the above
Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.

A)
port numbers
B)
MAC addresses
C)
IP addresses
D)
all of the above
VLANs can_________.
A)
reduce network traffic
B)
provide an extra measure of security
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
11
both (a) and (b)
_________ is just a connector.

A)
An active hub
B)
A passive hub
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
12
In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals
coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point.
A)
An active hub
B)
A passive hub
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
13
________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the
physical layer.
14
A)
An active hub
B)
A passive hub
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.

A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
router
15
A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted,
regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal.
16
A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
router
A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability.

A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
router
17
________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create
connections between stations in a physical star topology.
18
A)
An active hub
B)
A passive hub
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.
A)
passive hub
19
20
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
router
A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame.

A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
router
A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.

A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
bridge
D)
none of the above
21
A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its
existence.
A)
passive hub
B)
repeater
C)
simple bridge
D)
transparent bridge
22
IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent
bridges.
23
A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____.

A)
node
B)
branch
C)
loop
D)
arc
24
In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each
LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only.
25
26
A)
spanning tree
B)
binary tree
C)
unary tree
D)
none of the above
A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.

A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
A two-layer switch is a ______.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
27
Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been
designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the
header of the frame.
A)
cut-through
B)
go-through
C)
come-through
D)
none of the above
28
A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their
logical addresses.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
29
A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table
that is used for making decisions about the route.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
none of the above
30
A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router.

A)
two-layer
B)
three-layer
C)
four-layer
D)
none of the above
31
A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the
Internet model or seven layers of OSI model.
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
gateway
32
A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks
that use different models.
33
A)
repeater
B)
bridge
C)
router
D)
gateway
In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.

A)
bus
B)
ring
C)
star
D)
none of the above
34
A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote
bridges.
35
A)
point-to-point
B)
multipoint
C)
multidrop
D)
none of the above
VLANs create _________ domains.

A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
36
In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers,
the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software.
A)
manual
B)
automatic
C)
semiautomatic
D)
none of the above
37
In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or
disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator.
A)
manual
B)
automatic
C)
semiautomatic
D)
none of the above
38
In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with
migrations done automatically.
A)
manual
B)
automatic
C)
semiautomatic
D)
none of the above
_______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.

A)
AMPS
B)
D-AMPS
C)
GSM
D)
none of the above
__________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.

A)
AMPS
B)
D-AMPS
C)
GSM
D)
none of the above
____________ is a digital version of AMPS.

A)
GSM
B)
D-AMPS
C)
IS-95
D)
none of the above
___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.

A)
GSM
B)
D-AMPS
C)
IS-95
D)
none of the above
5
________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and
DSSS.
A)
GSM
B)
D-AMPS
C)
IS-95
D)
none of the above
6
The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal
communication.
A)
first-generation
B)
second-generation
C)
third-generation
D)
none of the above
7
In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base
station.
A)
hard
B)
soft
C)
medium
D)
none of the above
8
In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base
stations at the same time.
10
A)
hard
B)
soft
C)
medium
D)
none of the above
_______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA.

A)
AMPS
B)
D-AMPS
C)
GSM
D)
none of the above
AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band.

A)
800-MHz
B)
900-MHz
C)
1800-MHz
D)
none of the above
11
12
13
14
In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.

A)
800
B)
900
C)
1000
D)
none of the above
AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______.

A)
B)
C)
D)
AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
none of the above
D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
both (a) and (b)
15
16
17
18
GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.

A)
B)
C)
D)
GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________.

A)
FDMA
B)
TDMA
C)
CDMA
D)
both (a) and (b)
IS-95 is based on ____________.

A)
FDMA
B)
CDMA
C)
DSSS
D)
all of the above
IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.

A)
800-MHz
B)
900-MHz
C)
1900-MHz
D)
either (a) or (c)
19
20
21
22
IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.

A)
GPS
B)
Teledesic
C)
Iridium
D)
none of the above
In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.

A)
B)
C)
D)
In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.

A)
IMT-DS
B)
IMT-MC
C)
IMT-TC
D)
IMT-SC
In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.

A)
IMT-DS
B)
IMT-MC
C)
IMT-TC
D)
IMT-SC
23
In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of WCDMA and TDMA.
24
A)
IMT-DS
B)
IMT-MC
C)
IMT-TC
D)
IMT-SC
In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.

A)
IMT-DS
B)
IMT-MC
C)
IMT-TC
D)
IMT-SC
25
The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a
complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law.
A)
Kepler's
B)
Newton's
C)
Ohm's
D)
none of the above
26
The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the
_________.
A)
path
B)
effect
C)
footprint
D)
27
28
29
30
none of the above
There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.

A)
one
B)
two
C)
many
D)
none of the above
MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km.

A)
3000 and 5000
B)
5000 and 10,000
C)
5000 and 15,000
D)
none of the above
LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km.

A)
1000
B)
2000
C)
3000
D)
none of the above
______ is based on a principle called trilateration.

A)
GPS
B)
Teledesic
C)
Iridium
D)
31
32
33
none of the above
Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.

A)
equatorial
B)
polar
C)
inclined
D)
none of the above
A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth.

A)
equatorial
B)
polar
C)
inclined
D)
none of the above
GPS satellites are ________ satellites.

A)
GEO
B)
MEO
C)
LEO
D)
none of the above
34
________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and
ships.
A)
GPS
B)
Iridium
C)
Teledesic
D)
35
none of the above
Iridium satellites are ________satellites.

A)
GEO
B)
MEO
C)
LEO
D)
none of the above
36
________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data
communications for handheld terminals.
37
38
A)
GPS
B)
Iridium
C)
Teledesic
D)
none of the above
Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.

A)
GEO
B)
MEO
C)
LEO
D)
none of the above
________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.

A)
GPS
B)
Iridium
C)
Teledesic
D)
none of the above
_______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks.

A)
SONET
B)
SDH
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
_______ is a standard developed by ITU-T.

A)
SONET
B)
SDH
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.

A)
STSs
B)
STMs
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.

A)
STSs
B)
STMs
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal.

A)
OC-n
B)
TDM-n
C)
FDM-n
D)
none of the above
.SONET defines _______ layers.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
SONET is a _______ TDM system.

A)
asynchronous
B)
synchronous
C)
statistical
D)
none of the above
A SONET system can use _________.

A)
STS multiplexers
B)
regenerators
C)
add/drop multiplexers
D)
all of the above
10
11
12
SONET sends ________ frames per second

A)
1000
B)
2000
C)
4000
D)
8000
In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.

A)
20
B)
64
C)
128
D)
none of the above
An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows

A)
B)
C)
90
D)
none of the above
An STS-1 frame is made ______columns

A)
B)
C)
90
D)
none of the above
13
14
15
16
An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows.

A)
B)
C)
27
D)
none of the above
An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns.

A)
B)
90
C)
270
D)
none of the above
SONET network topologies can be __________.

A)
linear
B)
ring
C)
mesh
D)
all of the above
A linear SONET network can be __________.

A)
point-to-point
B)
multipoint
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
17
A ring SONET network can be _________.

A)
unidirectional
B)
bidirectional.
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
18
To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame
design includes a system of.
19
20
A)
OCs
B)
STMs
C)
STSs
D)
VTs
A ________ is a repeater.
A)
regenerator
B)
ADM
C)
STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
D)
none of the above
__________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.

A)
regenerators
B)
ADMs
C)
STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
D)
none of the above
21
22
A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices.

A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
none of the above
A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers.

A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
none of the above
23
A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS
multiplexers.
A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
none of the above
24
The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its
optical source to its optical destination.
A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
photonic
25
The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a
physical line.
A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
photonic
26
The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a
physical section.
27
28
A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
photonic
The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model.
A)
section
B)
line
C)
path
D)
photonic
An STS multiplexer is a ______ device.

A)
one-layer
B)
two-layer
29
30
31
32
C)
three-layer
D)
four-layer
An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device.

A)
one-layer
B)
two-layer
C)
three-layer
D)
four-layer
A regenerator is a ________ device.

A)
one-layer
B)
two-layer
C)
three-layer
D)
four-layer
In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________.

A)
from left to the right, top to bottom
B)
from right to the left, bottom to top
C)
from left to the right, bottom to top
D)
from right to the left, top to bottom
In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________.

A)
from least significant to the most significant
B)
from most significant to the least significant
33
34
35
36
C)
two at a time
D)
three at a time
Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel.

A)
bit
B)
byte
C)
frame
D)
none of the above
The section overhead consists of ______octets.

A)
B)
C)
D)
18
Line overhead consists of ________ bytes.

A)
B)
C)
D)
18
The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.

A)
B)
C)
D)
18
37
In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one
protection line. Both lines are active all the time.
A)
one-plus-one
B)
one-to-one
C)
one-to-many
D)
none of the above
38
In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data
are normally sent on the working line until it fails.
A)
one-plus-one
B)
one-to-one
C)
one-to-many
D)
none of the above
39
In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines.
When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes
control until the failed line is repaired.
A)
one-plus-one
B)
one-to-one
C)
one-to-many
D)
none of the above
________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to

demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s.
A)
X.25
B)
Frame Relay
C)
ATM
D)
none of the above
Frame Relay provides ________.

A)
PVCs
B)
SVCs
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.

A)
PVC
B)
SVC
C)
DLCIs
D)
none of the above
4
In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is
recorded for all switches by the administrator
A)
PVC
B)
SVC
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
5
In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and
terminating phases
A)
a PVC
B)
an SVC
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
Frame Relay has _______.

A)
only the physical layer
B)
only the data link
C)
the physical and data link layers
D)
the physical, data link, and network layers
7
At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports
_____control.
A)
flow
B)
error
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.

A)
only 2
B)
2 to 3
C)
2 to 4
D)
none of the above
9
In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the
last byte of the address.
A)
B)
C)
D)
10
To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device
called a _________.
A)
VOFR
B)
FRAD
C)
MUX
D)
none of the above
11
Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends
voice through the network.
A)
VOFR
B)
FRAD
C)
MUX
D)
none of the above
12
________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum
and adopted by the ITU-T.
A)
X.25
B)
Frame Relay
C)
ATM
D)
13
14
15
16
none of the above
A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information.

A)
frame
B)
packet
C)
cell
D)
none of the above
In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________.

A)
VPI
B)
VCI
C)
DLCI
D)
a combination of (a) and (b)
The ATM standard defines ______ layers.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length.

A)
B)
12
C)
16
D)
17
18
24
The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length.

A)
B)
12
C)
16
D)
24
The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.

A)
40
B)
50
C)
52
D)
53
19
______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size
packets.
20
A)
X.25
B)
Frame Relay
C)
ATM
D)
all of the above
A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.

A)
UNI
B)
NNI
C)
NNN
D)
21
None of the above
_________ is the interface between two ATM switches.

A)
UNI
B)
NNI
C)
NNN
D)
none of the above
22
In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through
_______.
A)
TPs
B)
VPs
C)
VCs
D)
all of the above
23
In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services
and maps them into ATM cells.
A)
physical
B)
ATM
C)
AAL
D)
none of the above
24
In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching,
and multiplexing services.
A)
physical
B)
ATM
C)
AAL
D)
none of the above
25
In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission,
encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation.
26
27
28
A)
physical
B)
ATM layer
C)
AAL
D)
none of the above
The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data.

A)
AAL1
B)
AAL2
C)
AAL3/4
D)
AAL5
In ATM, _______is for short packets.

A)
AAL1
B)
AAL2
C)
AAL3/4
D)
AAL5
29
In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach
or datagram approach).
A)
AAL1
B)
AAL2
C)
AAL3/4
D)
AAL5
30
In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control
mechanism.
31
32
A)
AAL1
B)
AAL2
C)
AAL3/4
D)
AAL5
________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).

A)
X.25
B)
Frame Relay
C)
ATM
D)
none of the above
In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.
A)
pure
B)
legacy
C)
mixed architecture
D)
none of the above
33
In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses
ATM technology.
A)
pure
B)
legacy
C)
mixed architecture
D)
none of the above
34
A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM
LAN.
A)
pure
B)
legacy
C)
mixed architecture
D)
none of the above
An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.
A)
B)
C)
32
D)
64
In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
10
A)
255
B)
15
C)
D)
none of the above

A)
255
B)
15
C)
D)
none of the above

A)
254
B)
14
C)
D)
none of the above

A)
192
B)
65
C)
64
D)
none of the above
Which one is not a contiguous mask?
11
12
13
A)
255.255.255.254
B)
255.255.224.0
C)
255.148.0.0
D)
all are
The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.

A)
65,534
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
The number of addresses in a class B block is _______.

A)
65,536
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
The number of addresses in a class A block is _______.

A)
65,534
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
14
The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless
addressing _______.
A)
can be any number
B)
must be a multiple of 256
C)
must be a power of 2
D)
none of the above
15
The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing
_______.
A)
must be a power of 4
B)
must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
C)
must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
D)
none of the above
16
Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless
addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.16
C)
2.4.6.64
D)
none of the above
17
addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.15
C)
2.4.6.62
D)
none of the above
18
addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.15
C)
2.4.6.0
D)
none of the above
19
What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
addresses is 12.2.2.76/27?
A)
12.2.2.0
B)
12.2.2.32
C)
12.2.2.64
D)
none of the above
20
A)
12.0.0.0
B)
12.2.0.0
C)
12.2.2.2
D)
none of the above
21
A)
12.2.2.0
B)
12.2.2.96
C)
12.2.2.112
D)
none of the above
22
Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of
the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.
A)
32
B)
64
C)
256
D)
none of the above
23
Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of
the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
24
What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
A)
12.2.2.16
B)
12.2.2.112
C)
12.2.2.127
D)
none of the above
25
What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
A)
12.2.2.2
B)
12.2.2.6
C)
12.2.2.7
D)
none of the above
26
An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The
organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?
A)
/20
B)
/24
C)
/25
D)
none of the above
27
An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the
subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets?
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
28
An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting
address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted?
A)
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
29
A)
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
30
31
32
A)
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?

A)
/9
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?

A)
/9
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
33
What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?

A)
/24
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
34
In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of
the address range.
A)
suffix
B)
prefix
C)
netid
D)
none of the above
35
In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the
hostid).
36
A)
suffix
B)
prefix
C)
hostid
D)
none of the above
In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.

A)
netid
B)
hostid
C)
mask
D)
none of the above
37
38
39
40
In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?

A)
255.255.255.0
B)
255.255.242.0
C)
255.255.0.0
D)
none of the above
In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?

A)
255.254.0.0
B)
255.255.255.0
C)
255.255.255.128
D)
none of the above
In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?

A)
/20
B)
/28
C)
/18
D)
none of the above
An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.

A)
32
B)
64
C)
128
D)
none of the above
41
42
An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);

A)
B)
C)
16
D)
none of the above
To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation.

A)
dotted decimal
B)
hexadecimal colon
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
43
In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______
sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length.
44
A)
8: 2
B)
8: 3
C)
8: 4
D)
none of the above
An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
45
46
An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits.

A)
16
B)
32
C)
D)
none of the above
In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.

A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
47
In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that
have the same prefix.
48
A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.

A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
49
In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.

A)
type
B)
purpose
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
50
In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a
unicast address.
A)
provider-based unicast
B)
link local
C)
site local
D)
none of the above
51
In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of
one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
52
In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by
32 bits of IPv4 address.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
53
In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is
not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
54
In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the
Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.
A)
error checking
B)
error correction
C)
datagram acknowledgment
D)
none of the above
In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A)
there are 10 bytes of options
B)
C)
there are 10 bytes in the header
D)
3
In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is
28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes?
A)
428
B)
407
C)
107
D)
427
4
In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and
total length value of 40,000?
A)
39,988
B)
40,012
C)
40,048
D)
39,952
5
An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of
the following is true?
A)
The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
B)
The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
C)
The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
D)
The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.
A)
the datagram has not been fragmented
B)
the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C)
the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
D)
the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
7
In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a
fragment?
A)
Identification number
B)
Offset number
C)
Total length
D)
(b) and (c)
The IPv4 header size _______.

A)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
B)
is always 20 bytes long
C)
is always 60 bytes long
D)
depends on the MTU
Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?

A)
Base header
B)
Extension header
C)
Data packet from the upper layer
D)
(a) and (c)
10
In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a
datagram.
A)
version
B)
next-header
C)
hop limit
D)
neighbor-advertisement
11
The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP
suite.
12
A)
ARP
B)
IP
C)
RARP
D)
none of the above
IP is _________ datagram protocol.

A)
an unreliable
B)
a connectionless
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
13
The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP
assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a
transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees.
A)
reliable delivery
B)
connection-oriented delivery
C)
best-effort delivery
D)
none of the above
14
In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
15
In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as
a fragment?
16
A)
Do not fragment bit ? 0
B)
More Fragment bit ? 0
C)
Fragment offset = 1000
D)
none of the above
The IPv4 header size _______.

A)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
B)
is 20 bytes long
C)
is 60 bytes long
D)
none of the above
17
In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the
datagram must be less than the _______.
A)
MUT
B)
MAT
C)
MTU
D)
none of the above
18
The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now
called the _______ field.
A)
IETF
B)
checksum
C)
differentiated services
D)
none of the above
19
In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________
data.
20
A)
base header; extension header
B)
base header; upper-layer data
C)
base header; frame header
D)
none of the above
IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.

A)
more
B)
less
C)
the same level
D)
none of the above
21
In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network,
the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header.
A)
hop limit
B)
priority
C)
next header
D)
none of the above
22
In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address
combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data.
A)
flow label
B)
next header
C)
hop limit
D)
destination IP address
A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction.
A)
physical
B)
logical
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.

A)
port
B)
IP
C)
Email
D)
none of the above
A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.

A)
physical
B)
logical
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
4
If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the
same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is
______.
A)
the destination IP address in the datagram header
B)
the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
5
If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on
another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address
is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
6
The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on
another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address
is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
7
the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical
address is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
8
In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is
updated manually.
A)
static mapping
B)
dynamic mapping
C)
physical mapping
D)
none of the above
9
_______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found
for a given logical address.
10
A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.

A)
0x000000000000
B)
0.0.0.0
C)
variable
D)
class dependent
11
12
13
14
An ARP reply is normally _______.

A)
broadcast
B)
multicast
C)
unicast
D)
none of the above
An ARP request is normally _______.

A)
broadcast
B)
multicast
C)
unicast
D)
none of the above
A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect.

A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
proxy ARP
D)
none of the above
A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.

A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
proxy ARP
D)
none of the above
15
16
17
18
ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.

A)
data link
B)
transport
C)
network
D)
none of the above
ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________.

A)
query and error reporting messages
B)
request and response messages
C)
request and reply messages
D)
none of the above
An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.

A)
a 16-byte
B)
a 32-byte
C)
an 8-byte
D)
none of the above
Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?
A)
message.
An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error
B)
An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment.
C)
An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
D)
none is true
19
A)
message.
B)
fragment.
An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first
20
21
C)
D)
none is true
IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.

A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
ICM
D)
none of the above
IGMP is _______ protocol.

A)
an error reporting
B)
a group management
C)
a transmission
D)
none of the above
22
IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members
related to each router interface.
A)
broadcast
B)
unicast
23
24
25
26
C)
multicast
D)
none of the above
IGMP operates __________.

A)
locally
B)
globally
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.

A)
host; host
B)
host; router
C)
router; host or router
D)
none of the above
The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report.

A)
general query message
B)
special query message
C)
membership report
D)
none of the above
The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________.

A)
multicast router
B)
host
27
28
C)
multicast group
D)
none of the above
The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message.
A)
version
B)
type
C)
group address
D)
none of the above
A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

A)
one source; one destination
B)
one source; multiple destinations
C)
multiple sources; one destination
D)
none of the above
29
In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing,
multicasting can be accomplished through _______.
A)
mapping
B)
queries
C)
tunneling
D)
none of the above
30
If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent
in response to a general query message.
A)
one membership report is
31
32
33
B)
two membership reports are
C)
three membership reports are
D)
none of the above
In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.

A)
once
B)
twice
C)
three times
D)
none of the above
In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group.

A)
does not define a particular
B)
explicitly defines a
C)
can define more than one
D)
none of the above
An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.

A)
UDP
B)
IP
C)
Ethernet frame
D)
none of the above
34
The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its
protocol field.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction.
A)
physical
B)
logical
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.

A)
port
B)
IP
C)
Email
D)
none of the above
A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.

A)
physical
B)
logical
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
4
If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the
same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is
______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
5
If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on
another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address
is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
6
another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address
is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
7
the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical
address is ______.
A)
B)
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
8
In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is
updated manually.
A)
static mapping
B)
dynamic mapping
C)
physical mapping
D)
none of the above
9
_______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found
for a given logical address.
10
11
A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.

A)
0x000000000000
B)
0.0.0.0
C)
variable
D)
class dependent
An ARP reply is normally _______.

A)
broadcast
B)
multicast
C)
unicast
D)
none of the above
12
13
14
15
An ARP request is normally _______.

A)
broadcast
B)
multicast
C)
unicast
D)
none of the above
A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect.

A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
proxy ARP
D)
none of the above
A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.

A)
ARP
B)
RARP
C)
proxy ARP
D)
none of the above
ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.

A)
data link
B)
transport
C)
network
D)
none of the above
16
17
18
ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________.

A)
query and error reporting messages
B)
request and response messages
C)
request and reply messages
D)
none of the above
An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.

A)
a 16-byte
B)
a 32-byte
C)
an 8-byte
D)
none of the above
A)
message.
19
B)
An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment.
C)
D)
none is true
A)
message.
B)
fragment.
An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first
C)
D)
20
21
none is true
IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.

A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
ICM
D)
none of the above
IGMP is _______ protocol.

A)
an error reporting
B)
a group management
C)
a transmission
D)
none of the above
22
IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members
related to each router interface.
23
A)
broadcast
B)
unicast
C)
multicast
D)
none of the above
IGMP operates __________.

A)
locally
B)
globally
C)
both a and b
D)
24
25
26
27
none of the above
An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.

A)
host; host
B)
host; router
C)
router; host or router
D)
none of the above
The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report.

A)
general query message
B)
special query message
C)
membership report
D)
none of the above
The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________.

A)
multicast router
B)
host
C)
multicast group
D)
none of the above
The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message.
A)
version
B)
type
C)
group address
D)
28
none of the above
A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

A)
one source; one destination
B)
one source; multiple destinations
C)
multiple sources; one destination
D)
none of the above
29
In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing,
multicasting can be accomplished through _______.
A)
mapping
B)
queries
C)
tunneling
D)
none of the above
30
If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent
in response to a general query message.
31
A)
one membership report is
B)
two membership reports are
C)
three membership reports are
D)
none of the above
In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.

A)
once
B)
twice
32
33
C)
three times
D)
none of the above
In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group.

A)
does not define a particular
B)
explicitly defines a
C)
can define more than one
D)
none of the above
An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.

A)
UDP
B)
IP
C)
Ethernet frame
D)
none of the above
34
The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its
protocol field.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination
are on the same network.
A)
a connectionless
B)
a direct
C)
an indirect
D)
none of the above
2
In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are
on different networks.
A)
a connection-oriented
B)
a direct
C)
an indirect
D)
none of the above
3
In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the
routing table.
A)
next-hop
B)
network-specific
C)
host-specific
D)
default
4
In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0
in the routing table.
A)
next-hop
B)
network-specific
C)
host-specific
D)
default
5
In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the
routing table.
A)
next-hop
B)
network-specific
C)
host-specific
D)
default
6
In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next
hop instead of complete route information.
A)
next-hop
B)
network-specific
C)
host-specific
D)
default
7
The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in
routing table entries when using ________.
A)
classful addressing
B)
classless addressing
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
8
The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the
longest mask to the shortest mask.
A)
first mask matching
B)
shortest mask matching
C)
longest mask matching
D)
none of the above
9
The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing
tables.
10
11
A)
reduce
B)
increase
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
_______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables.
A)
Forwarding
B)
Routing
C)
Directing
D)
None of the above
A _______ routing table contains information entered manually.

A)
static
B)
dynamic
C)
hierarchical
D)
none of the above
12
A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic
routing protocols.
A)
static
B)
dynamic
C)
hierarchical
D)
none of the above
13
The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions
of the router.
A)
physical and data link
B)
network
C)
transport
D)
none of the above
14
The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of
the router.
A)
physical and data link
B)
network
C)
transport
D)
none of the above
15
The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue
in a router is done by _________.
16
A)
input and output ports
B)
routing processor
C)
switching fabrics
D)
none of the above
A static table is one _______.

A)
with manual entries
B)
which is updated automatically
C)
either a or b
D)
17
18
none of the above
A dynamic table is one _______.

A)
with manual entries
B)
which is updated automatically
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________.

A)
wide area networks
B)
autonomous networks
C)
autonomous systems
D)
none of the above
19
____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a
single administration.
20
A)
An autonomous system
B)
An area
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________.

A)
interdomain routing
B)
intradomain routing
C)
both a and b
D)
21
none of the above
Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________.

A)
interdomain routing
B)
intradomain routing
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
22
In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route
with the minimum distance.
A)
path vector
B)
distance vector
C)
link state
D)
none of the above
23
In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to
every node.
A)
path vector
B)
distance vector
C)
link state
D)
none of the above
24
In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table
with _________ and whenever there is a change.
A)
every other node
B)
its immediate neighbors
C)
one neighbor
D)
none of the above
25
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on
_________ routing.
26
27
A)
distance vector
B)
link state
C)
path vector
D)
none of the above
The metric used by _______ is the hop count.

A)
OSPF
B)
RIP
C)
BGP
D)
none of the above
The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.
A)
distance vector
B)
link state
C)
path vector
D)
none of the above
28
The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing
protocol based on _______ routing.
A)
distance vector
B)
link state
C)
path vector
D)
none of the above
29
The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the
metric, to each route.
A)
OSPF
B)
RIP
C)
BGP
D)
none of the above
30
In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or
router in between.
31
A)
point-to-point
B)
transient
C)
stub
D)
none of the above
In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it.

A)
point-to-point
B)
transient
C)
stub
D)
none of the above
32
In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router.

A)
point-to-point
B)
transient
C)
stub
D)
none of the above
33
In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration
may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes
through several routers.
A)
point-to-point
B)
transient
C)
stub
D)
none of the above
34
In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each
autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system.
35
A)
distant vector
B)
path vector
C)
link state
D)
none of the above
___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.

A)
BGP
B)
RIP
C)
OSPF
D)
none of the above
36
To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an
________ message.
37
A)
open
B)
update
C)
keepalive
D)
none of the above
An area is _______.
A)
part of an AS
B)
composed of at least two ASs
C)
another term for an AS
D)
none of the above
38
A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a
network is classified as a _______ communication.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
39
A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of
hosts is classified as a _______ communication.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
40
A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is
classified as a _______ communication.
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
41
In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its
interfaces.
A)
unicasting
B)
multicasting
C)
broadcasting
D)
none of the above
42
In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of
its interfaces.
A)
unicasting
B)
multicasting
C)
broadcasting
D)
none of the above
43
Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create
long delays.
A)
unicasting; multiple unicasting
B)
multicasting; multiple unicasting
C)
broadcasting; multicasting
D)
none of the above
44
In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a
______ path tree to possible destinations.
A)
average
B)
longest
C)
shortest
D)
none of the above
45
In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________
path tree for each group.
A)
average
B)
longest
C)
shortest
D)
none of the above
46
In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path
tree for each group.
A)
group-shared
B)
source-based
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
47
48
In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting.

A)
only the core router is
B)
all routers are
C)
only some routers are
D)
none of the above
Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach.

A)
source-based
B)
group-shared
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
49
The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of
the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The
protocol is based on _______ routing.
50
A)
distance vector
B)
link state
C)
path vector
D)
none of the above
MOSPF is a _______ protocol.

A)
data-driven
B)
command-driven
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
51
_________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems.

A)
Forwarding
B)
Flooding
C)
Backwarding
D)
none of the above
52
In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path
from the source to the router.
53
A)
shortest
B)
longest
C)
average
D)
none of the above
RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process.

A)
forwarding
B)
backwarding
C)
flooding
D)
none of the above
54
RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast
packet.
A)
one copy
B)
two copies
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
55
RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each
destination.
56
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet.

A)
one copy
B)
no copies
C)
multiple copies
D)
none of the above
57
In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have
active members for that particular group.
A)
RPF
B)
RPB
C)
RPM
D)
none of the above
58
_______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest
path tree that supports dynamic membership changes.
A)
RPM; RPB
B)
RPB; RPM
C)
RPF: RPM
D)
none of the above
59
__________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a
source-based routing protocol, based on RIP.
60
61
A)
MOSPF
B)
DVMRP
C)
CBT
D)
none of the above
DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.

A)
source-based
B)
group-shared
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.

A)
RPF
B)
RPB
C)
RPM
D)
none of the above
62
A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast
messages for a specific group through a specific router.
A)
weed
B)
graft
C)
prune
D)
none of the above
63
A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast
messages for a specific group through a specific router.
64
65
66
A)
weed
B)
graft
C)
prune
D)
none of the above
CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.
A)
source-based
B)
group-shared
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN.

A)
dense
B)
sparse
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN.
A)
dense
B)
sparse
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
67
In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the multicast
packet inside a unicast packet.
A)
UNIBONE
B)
MULTBONE
C)
MBONE
D)
none of the above
One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a ______

communication.
A)
host-to-host
B)
process-to-process
C)
node-to-node
D)
none of the above
UDP is called a ________________transport protocol.

A)
connectionless, reliable
B)
connection-oriented, unreliable
C)
connectionless, unreliable
D)
none of the above
3
UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing
_______ communication.
A)
node-to-node
B)
process-to-process
C)
host-to-host
D)
none of the above
UDP is an acronym for _______.

A)
User Delivery Protocol
B)
User Datagram Procedure
C)
User Datagram Protocol
D)
none of the above
5
Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process
communication, the most common is through the __________ paradigm.
A)
client-server
B)
client-client
C)
server-server
D)
none of the above
6
The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To
define the processes, we need second identifiers called ____________.
A)
UDP addresses
B)
transport addresses
C)
port addresses
D)
none of the above
7
The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or
private port numbers. They are called the ________ ports.
10
A)
well-known
B)
registered
C)
dynamic
D)
none of the above
In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer.
A)
application
B)
transport
C)
IP
D)
none of the above
In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer.
A)
application
B)
transport
C)
IP
D)
none of the above
UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.

A)
data link
B)
network
C)
transport
D)
none of the above
11
12
Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A)
process-to-process communication
B)
host-to-host communication
C)
end-to-end reliable data delivery
D)
none of the above
When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______.

A)
delivery is complete
B)
a transport layer protocol takes over
C)
a header is added
D)
none of the above
13
UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct
application process.
14
A)
port
B)
application
C)
internet
D)
none of the above
A port address in UDP is _______bits long.

A)
B)
16
C)
32
D)
any of the above
15
16
Which of the following does UDP guarantee?

A)
flow control
B)
connection-oriented delivery
C)
flow control
D)
none of the above
The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______.
A)
the sending computer
B)
the receiving computer
C)
the process running on the sending computer
D)
none of the above
17
The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a
____________.
18
A)
transport address
B)
network address
C)
socket address
D)
none of the above
To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses.

A)
four
B)
two
C)
three
D)
none of the above
19
20
21
UDP packets are called __________.

A)
user datagrams
B)
segments
C)
frames
D)
none of the above
UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.

A)
16
B)
C)
40
D)
none of the above
UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.

A)
an Ethernet frame
B)
an TCP segment
C)
an IP datagram
D)
none of the above
22
UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple
processes on one host.
A)
flow control
B)
multiplexing
C)
demultiplexing
D)
none of the above
23
UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different
processes on the same host.
24
A)
flow control
B)
multiplexing
C)
demultiplexing
D)
none of the above
TCP is a __________protocol.
A)
stream-oriented
B)
message-oriented
C)
block-oriented
D)
none of the above
25
TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes and
allows the receiving process to obtain data as a _________ of bytes.
A)
message; message
B)
stream; stream
C)
block; block
D)
none of the above
26
Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read
data at the same speed, TCP ________.
A)
speeds up the slower process
B)
slows down the faster process
27
28
29
30
C)
uses buffers
D)
none of the above
TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________.

A)
user datagram
B)
segment
C)
datagram
D)
none of the above
TCP is a ___________ protocol.

A)
connection-oriented
B)
connectionless
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.

A)
unreliable
B)
best-effort delivery
C)
reliable
D)
none of the above
TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
A)
an acknowledgment mechanism
B)
out-of-band signalling
C)
the services of another protocol
D)
none of the above
31
The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by
TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________.
A)
B)
C)
randomly generated number
D)
none of the above
32
TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The
sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in
that segment.
33
A)
first
B)
last
C)
middle
D)
none of the above
Communication in TCP is ___________.

A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
none of the above
34
The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number
of the ______byte a party expects to receive.
35
36
37
38
A)
first
B)
last
C)
next
D)
none of the above
The acknowledgment number is ________.

A)
independent
B)
randomly generated
C)
cumulative
D)
none of the above
The value of the window size is determined by _________.

A)
the sender
B)
the receiver
C)
both the sender and receiver
D)
none of the above
The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.

A)
optional
B)
mandatory
C)
at the discretion of the application program
D)
none of the above
A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.
39
40
A)
an IP datagram
B)
an Ethernet frame
C)
a UDP user datagram
D)
none of the above
Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking.

A)
two-way
B)
four-way
C)
one-way
D)
none of the above
A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).

A)
no
B)
one
C)
two
D)
none of the above
41
A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence
number(s).
A)
no
B)
three
C)
two
D)
none of the above
42
An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence
number(s).
A)
no
B)
one
C)
two
D)
none of the above
43
The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious
security problem called the _________ attack.
A)
ACK flooding
B)
FIN flooding
C)
SYN flooding
D)
none of the above
44
The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a
_____ attack.
A)
denial of service
B)
replay
C)
man-in-the middle
D)
none of the above
45
The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry
data.
A)
two
B)
three
C)
no
D)
none of the above
46
The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not
carry data.
A)
two
B)
three
C)
one
D)
none of the above
47
In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is
called a ______.
A)
half-close
B)
half-open
C)
one-way termination
D)
none of the above
48
A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of
states.
A)
infinite state
B)
finite state
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
49
__________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send before
receiving an acknowledgment from the destination.
A)
Error
B)
Flow
50
51
C)
Congestion
D)
none of the above
To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol.

A)
limited-size
B)
sliding
C)
fixed-size
D)
none of the above
TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.

A)
packet
B)
segment
C)
byte
D)
none of the above
52
ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______
acknowledged.
53
A)
no; are not
B)
one; are not
C)
no; are
D)
none of the above
TCP delivers _______ out-of-order segments to the process.

A)
all
B)
no
C)
some
D)
none of the above
54
IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is responsible for
_______ communication.
A)
host-to-host; process-to-process
B)
process-to-process; host-to-host
C)
process-to-process; network-to-network
D)
none of the above
55
If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this is called
_______.
A)
backpacking
B)
piggybacking
C)
piggypacking
D)
none of the above
56
Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of
bytes in the TCP header.
A)
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
57
Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the
_______ field.
58
59
A)
control
B)
offset
C)
sequence number
D)
none of the above
The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes.
A)
10
B)
20
C)
40
D)
none of the above
If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.
A)
199
B)
200
C)
201
D)
none of the above
60
Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new
_____________protocol.
61
A)
reliable, character-oriented
B)
reliable, message-oriented
C)
unreliable, message-oriented
D)
none of the above
SCTP allows __________ service in each association.
62
63
64
A)
single stream
B)
multistream
C)
double stream
D)
none of the above
SCTP association allows _____________ for each end.

A)
only one IP address
B)
multiple IP addresses
C)
only two IP address
D)
none of the above
In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.

A)
a TSN
B)
an SI
C)
an SSN
D)
none of the above
To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________.

A)
a TSN
B)
an SI
C)
an SSN
D)
none of the above
65
To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same
stream, SCTP uses ___________.
66
67
68
A)
TSNs
B)
SIs
C)
SSNs
D)
none of the above
TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.

A)
packets; segments
B)
segments; packets
C)
segments; frames
D)
none of the above
The control information in SCTP is included in the ________.

A)
header control field
B)
control chunks
C)
data chunks
D)
none of the above
An SCTP packet can carry __________.

A)
only one data chunk
B)
several data chunks
C)
no data chunks
D)
none of the above
69
In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each
________.
A)
data chunk
B)
control chunk
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
70
There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because
________________.
71
72
A)
there are no options in the general header
B)
the size of the header is fixed
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits.

A)
16
B)
32
C)
64
D)
none of the above
The association identifier in SCTP is __________________.

A)
a unique verification tag
B)
a combination of logical and port addresses
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
73
In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in _______
chunks.
A)
the same chunk
B)
different chunks
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
74
In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge
_____________.
75
76
A)
both data chunks and control chunks
B)
only control chunks
C)
only data chunks
D)
none of the above
In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks.

A)
after
B)
before
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk.

A)
only data chunks
B)
only control chunks
C)
no other chunk
D)
none of the above
77
A connection in SCTP is called an ____________.

A)
negotiation
B)
association
C)
transmission
D)
none of the above
In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.
A)
congestion control
B)
quality of service
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the traffic.

A)
congestion control
B)
quality of service
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow.

A)
controls
B)
descriptors
C)
values
D)
none of the above
The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic.
A)
peak data rate
B)
maximum burst size
C)
effective bandwidth
D)
none of the above
5
The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic is
generated at the peak rate.
A)
peak data rate
B)
maximum burst size
C)
effective bandwidth
D)
none of the above
6
The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak data
rate, and maximum burst size.
A)
peak data rate
B)
maximum burst size
C)
effective bandwidth
D)
none of the above
A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change.
A)
constant bit rate
B)
variable bit rate
C)
bursty
D)
none of the above
8
In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time,
with the changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp.
A)
constant bit rate
B)
variable bit rate
C)
bursty
D)
none of the above
9
In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short
time.
10
A)
constant bit rate
B)
variable bit rate
C)
bursty
D)
none of the above
_______ happens in any system that involves waiting.

A)
Congestion
B)
Jamming
C)
Error
D)
none of the above
11
Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and
switches have _______.
A)
tables
B)
queues
C)
crosspoints
D)
none of the above
12
In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network,
the delay is _________.
A)
at a maximum
B)
at a minimum
C)
constant
D)
none of the above
13
In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay
_______.
A)
increases sharply
B)
decreases sharply
C)
remains constant
D)
cannot be predicted
14
In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the
throughput ______________.
15
A)
increases sharply
B)
increases proportionally with the load
C)
declines sharply
D)
declines proportionally with the load
In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______.

A)
increases sharply
B)
increases proportionally with the load
C)
declines sharply
D)
declines proportionally with the load
16
In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion
before it happens.
A)
open-loop
B)
closed-loop
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
17
In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion
after it happens.
A)
open-loop
B)
closed-loop
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
18
The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in
which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node
or nodes.
A)
backpressure
B)
choke packet
C)
implicit signaling
D)
explicit signaling
19
A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of
congestion.
A)
backpressure
B)
choke packet
C)
implicit signaling
D)
explicit signaling
20
In __________, there is no communication between the congested node or
nodes and the source. The source guesses that there is a congestion somewhere
in the network from other symptoms.
A)
backpressure
B)
choke packet
C)
implicit signaling
D)
explicit signaling
21
In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that carry
data.
A)
backpressure
B)
choke packet
C)
implicit signaling
D)
explicit signaling
22
In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window
increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
A)
slow-start
B)
congestion avoidance
C)
congestion detection
D)
none of the above
23
In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window
increases additively until congestion is detected.
A)
slow-start
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
24
In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped to
one-half, a multiplicative decrease.
A)
slow-start
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
25
In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in the
network.
A)
BECN
B)
FECN
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
26
In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of congestion
in the network.
A)
BECN
27
B)
FECN
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a flow.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
28
_________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing a
packet or acknowledgment, which entails retransmission.
A)
Reliability
B)
Delay
C)
Jitter
D)
Bandwidth
29
_______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different
degrees.
30
A)
Reliability
B)
Delay
C)
Jitter
D)
Bandwidth
________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow.
A)
Reliability
B)
Delay
C)
Jitter
D)
Bandwidth
31
In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node (router
or switch) is ready to process them.
A)
FIFO
B)
priority
C)
weighted fair
D)
none of the above
32
In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. Each
class has its own queue.
A)
FIFO
B)
priority
C)
weighted fair
D)
none of the above
33
In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and
admitted to different queues. The queues, however, are weighted based on the
priority of the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The system
processes packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the number of
packets selected from each queue based on the corresponding weight.
A)
FIFO
B)
priority
C)
weighted fair
D)
none of the above
34
In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and
sent out at an average rate.
A)
leaky
B)
token
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
35
The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit for the
future in the form of tokens.
A)
leaky
B)
token
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
36
In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define a flow
specification.
37
A)
Integrated Services
B)
Differentiated Services
C)
Connectionless
D)
Connection-Oriented
_________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP.

A)
Integrated Services
B)
Differentiated Services
38
C)
Connectionless
D)
Connection-Oriented
In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________.

A)
access rate
B)
committed burst size
C)
committed information rate
D)
excess burst size
39
In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a
predefined time that the network is committed to transfer without discarding any
frame or setting the DE bit.
A)
access rate
B)
C)
D)
excess burst size
40
In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits per
second.
A)
access rate
B)
C)
D)
excess burst size
41
In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in excess
of Bc that a user can send during a predefined time.
A)
access rate
B)
C)
D)
excess burst size
42
In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time
audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated
line such as a T line.
A)
CBR
B)
VBR
C)
ABR
D)
UBR
43
In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBRRT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need
real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use compression
techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who
do not need real-time services but use compression techniques to create a
variable bit rate.
A)
CBR
B)
VBR
C)
ABR
D)
UBR
44
In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more
network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded.
A)
CBR
B)
VBR
C)
ABR
D)
UBR
45
In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not
guarantee anything.
A)
CBR
B)
VBR
C)
ABR
D)
UBR
1
In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this
space is a sequence of characters without structure.
A)
flat
B)
hierarchical
C)
organized
D)
none of the above
In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts.

A)
flat
B)
hierarchical
C)
organized
D)
none of the above
To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed.

A)
domain space
B)
domain name
C)
domain name space
D)
none of the above
In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.

A)
a linear list
B)
an inverted-tree
C)
a graph
D)
none of the above
5
Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum of
___ characters.
A)
label; 127
B)
name; 255
C)
label; 63
D)
none of the above
The root of the DNS tree is _______.

A)
a string of characters
B)
a string of 63 characters
C)
an empty string
D)
none of the above
A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.

A)
semicolons
B)
dots
10
11
C)
colons
D)
none of the above
If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A)
PQDN
B)
FQDN
C)
SQDN
D)
none of the above
If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A)
PQDN
B)
FQDN
C)
SQDN
D)
none of the above
A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.

A)
label
B)
name
C)
domain
D)
none of the above
What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________.

A)
domain
B)
label
12
13
14
C)
zone
D)
none of the above
A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.

A)
domain server
B)
zone server
C)
root server
D)
none of the above
A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.

A)
primary
B)
secondary
C)
zone
D)
none of the above
A ________ server loads all information from the primary server.

A)
primary
B)
secondary
C)
zone
D)
none of the above
15
When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called
______ transfer.
A)
domain
B)
zone
C)
label
D)
none of the above
16
In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______
different sections:
A)
three
B)
two
C)
four
D)
none of the above
17
The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic
behavior.
18
19
A)
generic
B)
country
C)
inverse
D)
none of the above
The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible labels.
A)
10
B)
12
C)
16
D)
none of the above
The ____________ domain section uses two-character country abbreviations.

A)
generic
20
B)
country
C)
inverse
D)
none of the above
The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name.

A)
generic
B)
country
C)
inverse
D)
none of the above
21
In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final
answer.
A)
iterative
B)
recursive
C)
straight
D)
none of the above
22
In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that
it thinks can resolve the query.
23
A)
iterative
B)
recursive
C)
straight
D)
none of the above
In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific label.
24
A)
chal
B)
atc
C)
edu
D)
none of the above
In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label.

A)
chal
B)
atc
C)
fhda
D)
none of the above
25
A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level of
the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.)
26
27
A)
third
B)
fourth
C)
fifth
D)
none of the above
A pointer query involves the _______ domain.

A)
inverse
B)
reverse
C)
root
D)
none of the above
DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.
A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________.

A)
terminal network
B)
telephone network
C)
telecommunication network
D)
none of the above
TELNET is a ________ client-server application program.

A)
specific-purpose
B)
general-purpose
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
3
When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________
login.
A)
local
B)
remote
C)
temporary
D)
none of the above
4
When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a
remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login.
A)
local
B)
remote
C)
temporary
D)
none of the above
NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________.
A)
sending; receiving
B)
request; reply
C)
data; control
D)
none of the above
6
For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to
______.
A)
B)
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
7
For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to
______.
A)
B)
C)
a or b
D)
none of the above
8
TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port and
the client uses ________ port.
A)
a well-known; another well-known
B)
an ephemeral; another ephemeral
C)
a well-known; an ephemeral
D)
none of the above
9
To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control
characters is preceded by a special control character called ________.
10
A)
ICA
B)
IAC
C)
AIC
D)
none of the above
In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client.

A)
default
B)
character
C)
line
D)
none of the above
11
In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the
server.
A)
default
B)
character
C)
line
D)
none of the above
12
In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing, and
so on) is done by the client.
A)
default
B)
character
C)
line
D)
none of the above
13
The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the
remote system to receive characters from a TELNET server.
14
A)
terminal driver
B)
pseudoterminal driver
C)
TELNET client
D)
none of the above
The _______ translates local characters into NVT form.

A)
terminal driver
B)
TELNET client
C)
TELNET server
D)
none of the above
15
The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the
remote operating system.
A)
terminal driver
B)
TELNET client
16
17
C)
TELNET server
D)
none of the above
If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command.

A)
WILL
B)
DO
C)
WONT
D)
none of the above
If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command.

A)
WILL
B)
DO
C)
WONT
D)
none of the above
18
If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a _______
command.
A)
WILL
B)
DO
C)
DONT
D)
none of the above
19
If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a _______
command.
A)
WILL
B)
DO
C)
WONT
D)
none of the above
20
_______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a file
from one host to another.
21
A)
TELNET
B)
SMTP
C)
TFTP
D)
none of the above
FTP uses the services of ________.

A)
UDP
B)
IP
C)
TCP
D)
none of the above
22
In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the
well-known port ________ for the data connection.
A)
21; 22
B)
21; 20
C)
20; 21
D)
none of the above
23
In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is
an interactive connection between a user (human) and a server.
24
25
26
A)
maximize throughput
B)
minimize delay
C)
minimize error
D)
none of the above
For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set
A)
regular ASCII
B)
EBCDIC
C)
NVT ASCII
D)
none of the above
During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______.

A)
exactly once
B)
exactly twice
C)
as many times as necessary
D)
none of the above
During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______.

A)
exactly once
B)
exactly twice
C)
as many times as necessary
D)
none of the above
27
In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes.
These are types of an attribute called _______.
28
29
30
A)
file types
B)
data structures
C)
transmission modes
D)
none of the above
In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed.
A)
file types
B)
data structures
C)
transmission modes
D)
none of the above
In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______.

A)
file type
B)
data structure
C)
transmission mode
D)
none of the above
In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client.

A)
retrieve a file
B)
retrieve a list
C)
a and c
D)
none of the above
31
In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server.

A)
retrieve a file
B)
store a file
C)
retrieve a list
D)
none of the above
32
________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission
restrictions.
A)
A message
B)
A response
C)
An agent
D)
None of the above
33
When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we
need only ___________.
A)
one UA
B)
two UAs
C)
one UA and one MTA
D)
none of the above
34
When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we
need only _____________.
A)
one MTA
B)
two UAs
C)
two UAs and one pair of MTAs
D)
none of the above
35
When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we
need ______________.
A)
two MTA
B)
two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C)
two UAs and a pair of MTAs
D)
none of the above
36
When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN
or a WAN, we need ___________________.
A)
two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
B)
two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs
C)
two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs
D)
none of the above
37
________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending and
receiving a message easier.
38
A)
An MTA
B)
An MAA
C)
A UA
D)
none of the above
Which of the following services is not provided by a UA?

A)
composing messages
B)
reading messages
39
C)
replying messages
D)
all are
There are two types of user agents: _________ and ___________.

A)
command-driven; data-driven
B)
command-driven; GUI-based
C)
command-based and data-based
D)
none of the above
40
The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver address,
and other information.
41
A)
message
B)
envelope
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The message contains the ________ and the __________.

A)
header; envelop
B)
header; body
C)
envelop; body
D)
none of the above
42
In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and a
_______.
A)
local part; domain name
B)
global part; domain name
C)
label; domain name
D)
none of the above
43
_________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent
through email.
44
A)
JPEG
B)
MPEG
C)
MIME
D)
none of the above
The actual mail transfer is done through ____________.

A)
UAs
B)
MTAs
C)
MAAs
D)
none of the above
45
The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet
is called ___________.
46
A)
SMTP
B)
SNMP
C)
TELNET
D)
none of the above
The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ phases.
47
48
49
A)
two
B)
four
C)
five
D)
none of the above
SMTP is a __________protocol.
A)
pull
B)
push
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol.

A)
pull
B)
push
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol.

A)
UA
B)
MTA
C)
MAA
D)
none of the above
50
Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and
_________.
A)
POP3; IMAP2
B)
POP4; IMAP1
C)
POP3; IMAP4
D)
none of the above
51
Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver
names?
A)
envelope
B)
address
C)
header
D)
none of the above
52
The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the body
of the message.
53
A)
content-type
B)
content-transfer-encoding
C)
content-description
D)
none of the above
_______ is more powerful and complex than _______.

A)
POP3; IMAP4
B)
IMAP4; POP3
C)
SMTP; POP3
D)
none of the above
1
_________ is a repository of information linked together from points all over
the world.
A)
The WWW
B)
HTTP
C)
HTML
D)
none of the above
2
The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a
browser can access a service using a server.
A)
limited
B)
vast
C)
distributed
D)
none of the above
3
The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the
Internet.
A)
URL
B)
ULR
C)
RLU
D)
none of the above
4
In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the
document.
A)
path
B)
protocol
C)
host
D)
none of the above
In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located.

A)
path
B)
protocol
C)
host
D)
none of the above
6
In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and the
path, and it is separated from the host by a colon.
A)
path
B)
protocol
C)
host
D)
none of the above
7
In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information is
located.
A)
path
B)
protocol
C)
host
D)
none of the above
A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________.

A)
client; client
B)
client; server
C)
server; server
D)
none of the above
The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad categories.
A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
10
A _______ document is a fixed-content document that is created and stored
in a server. The client can get a copy of the document only.
11
A)
static
B)
dynamic
C)
active
D)
none of the above
_____________ is a language for creating Web pages.

A)
HTTP
B)
HTML
C)
FTTP
D)
none of the above
12
A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser
requests the document.
A)
static
B)
dynamic
13
C)
active
D)
none of the above
___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents.

A)
GIC
B)
CGI
C)
GCI
D)
none of the above
14
Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic
documents.
A)
client-site
B)
server-site
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
15
For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the
client site. These are called _______________ documents.
16
A)
static
B)
dynamic
C)
active
D)
none of the above
One way to create an active document is to use __________.

A)
CGI
B)
Java stand-alone programs
C)
Java applets
D)
none of the above
17
Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic
documents.
18
A)
client-site
B)
server-site
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80.

A)
UDP
B)
IP
C)
TCP
D)
none of the above
19
In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first
line in the response message is called the ________ line.
A)
request; response
B)
response; request
C)
response; status
D)
none of the above
20
In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each
request/response.
A)
persistent
B)
nonpersistent
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
21
In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more
requests after sending a response.
22
A)
persistent
B)
nonpersistent
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default.

A)
persistent
B)
nonpersistent
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
23
In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to
recent requests.
A)
regular
B)
proxy
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
24
An HTTP request message always contains _______.

A)
a header and a body
B)
a request line and a header
C)
a status line, a header, and a body
D)
none of the above
25
Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status
line?
A)
HTTP version number
B)
URL
C)
status code
D)
none of the above
26
The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document
from the server.
A)
GET
B)
POST
C)
COPY
D)
none of the above
27
A user needs to send the server some information. The request line
method is _______.
A)
OPTION
B)
PATCH
C)
POST
D)
none of the above
28
The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about
a document without retrieving the document itself.
29
30
A)
HEAD
B)
POST
C)
COPY
D)
none of the above
A response message always contains _______.

A)
a header and a body
B)
a request line and a header
C)
a status line and a header
D)
none of the above
An applet is _______ document application program.

A)
a static
B)
an active
C)
a passive
D)
a dynamic
1
SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an
agent and vice versa.
A)
format of the packets
B)
encoding of the packets
C)
number of packets
D)
none of the above
A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process.

A)
client
B)
server
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process.

A)
client
B)
server
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________.

A)
MIB; SMTP
B)
SMI; MIB
C)
FTP; SMI
D)
none of the above
5
________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object
types, and showing how to encode objects and values.
A)
MIB
B)
BER
C)
SMI
D)
none of the above
6
We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a
program. Both tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by
___________.
A)
SMNP
B)
MIB
C)
SMI
D)
none of the above
7
program. Both tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is
handled by _________.
A)
SMNP
B)
MIB
C)
SMI
D)
none of the above
8
program. Both tasks have actions performed by statements. In network
management this is handled by _______.
A)
SMNP
B)
MIB
C)
SMI
D)
none of the above
9
SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and
_________.
A)
name; data type; size
B)
name; size; encoding method
C)
name; data type; encoding method
D)
none of the above
10
To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a
hierarchical identifier based on a _______ structure
A)
linear
B)
tree
C)
graph
D)
none of the above
11
All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object
identifier always starts with _______.
A)
1.3.6.1.2.1
B)
1.3.6.1.2.2
C)
1.3.6.1.2.3
D)
none of the above
12
To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds
some new definitions.
A)
AMS.1
B)
ASN.1
C)
ASN.2
D)
none of the above
13
14
15
SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______.
A)
simple; complex
B)
simple; structured
C)
structured; unstructured
D)
none of the above
The _______ data types are atomic data types.

A)
structure
B)
simple
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________.

A)
sequence; atomic
B)
sequence; sequence of
C)
a sequence of; array
D)
none of the above
16
SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted
over the network.
A)
MIB
B)
ANS.1
C)
BER
D)
none of the above
17
The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of variables one
after another by defining the first variable.
A)
lexicographic
B)
linear
C)
non-linear
D)
none of the above
18
The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________ to retrieve
the value of a variable or a set of variables.
A)
client; server
B)
server; client
C)
server; network
D)
none of the above
19
The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response to
GetRequest or GetNextRequest.
20
A)
server; client
B)
client; server
C)
network; host
D)
none of the above
The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an event.
A)
server; client
B)
client; server
C)
network; host
D)
none of the above
21
SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and
_______.
A)
161; 162
B)
160; 161
C)
160; 162
D)
none of the above
22
_______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP server
program.
A)
A manager; a manager
B)
An agent; an agent
C)
A manager; an agent
D)
An agent; a manager
23
INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are _______ definitions used
by SMI.
24
A)
MIB
B)
SNMP
C)
ASN.1
D)
none of the above
Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier?
25
26
27
28
A)
1.3.6.1.2.1.1
B)
1.3.6.1.2.2.1
C)
2.3.6.1.2.1.2
D)
none of the above
Which is a manager duty?

A)
Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.
B)
Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
C)
a and b
D)
none of the above
For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length?
A)
127
B)
128
C)
255
D)
none of the above
An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the _______.

A)
variable; table
B)
table; variable
C)
variable; variable contents
D)
none of the above
An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.
29
A)
GetRequest
B)
SetRequest
C)
Trap
D)
none of the above
An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.

A)
Response
B)
GetRequest
C)
SetRequest
D)
none of the above
30
The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in
error.
31
A)
community
B)
enterprise
C)
error index
D)
none of the above
The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response message.
A)
community
B)
enterprise
C)
error status
D)
none of the above
32
The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables and
their corresponding values.
A)
version
B)
community
C)
VarBindList
D)
none of the above
We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories.
A)
three
B)
two
C)
four
D)
none of the above
2
________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests for compressed
audio/video files.
A)
Streaming live
B)
Streaming stored
C)
Interactive
D)
none of the above
3
___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV
programs through the Internet.
A)
Interactive
B)
Streaming live
C)
Streaming stored
D)
none of the above
4
_________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive
audio/video applications.
A)
Interactive
B)
Streaming live
C)
Streaming stored
D)
none of the above
5
According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal
________times the highest frequency.
A)
three
B)
two
C)
four
D)
none of the above
6
In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are encoded
instead of encoding all the sampled values.
A)
predictive
B)
perceptual
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
7
__________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which is
the study of how people perceive sound.
A)
Predictive
B)
Perceptual
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
10
11
____________ is used to compress images.

A)
MPEG
B)
JPEG
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
____________ is used to compress video.

A)
MPEG
B)
JPEG
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
The first phase of JPEG is ___________.

A)
DCT transformation
B)
quantization
C)
data compression
D)
none of the above
The second phase of JPEG is ___________.

A)
DCT transformation
B)
quantization
C)
data compression
D)
none of the above
12
13
The third phase of JPEG is ___________.

A)
DCT transformation
B)
quantization
C)
data compression
D)
none of the above
Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________.

A)
error caused during transmission
B)
delay between packets
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
14
To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate the
arrival time from the playback time.
15
A)
error
B)
jitter
C)
either a or b
D)
none of the above
A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic.

A)
playback
B)
reordering
C)
sorting
D)
none of the above
16
17
A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic.

A)
timestamp
B)
sequence number
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________.

A)
broadcasting
B)
multicasting
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
18
__________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower quality to
match the bandwidth of the receiving network.
19
A)
Translation
B)
Mixing
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
__________ means combining several streams of traffic into one stream.

A)
Translation
B)
Mixing
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
20
_________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it
retransmits packets in case of errors.
A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
21
__________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the
Internet.
22
23
A)
TCP
B)
UDP
C)
RTP
D)
none of the above
RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port.

A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of data.

A)
RTP
B)
RTCP
C)
UDP
D)
none of the above
24
RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port
number selected for RTP.
A)
UDP
B)
TCP
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
25
___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages, and
terminates a multimedia session
A)
RIP
B)
SIP
C)
DIP
D)
none of the above
26
_______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone network
to talk to computers connected to the Internet.
A)
SIP
B)
H.323
C)
Q.991
D)
none of the above
27
A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system,
the viewer spends _______ minutes watching the performance.
A)
less than 10
B)
more than 10
C)
exactly 10
D)
none of the above
28
A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first or
previous packet.
29
A)
timestamp
B)
playback buffer
C)
sequence number
D)
none of the above
_______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission.

A)
Timestamps
B)
Playback buffers
C)
Sequence numbers
D)
none of the above
30
In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the
client sites.
31
A)
unicast
B)
multicast
C)
broadcast
D)
none of the above
A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single signal.
A)
timestamp
B)
sequence number
C)
mixer
D)
none of the above
32
A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower
quality narrow-bandwidth signal.
33
A)
timestamp
B)
sequence number
C)
translator
D)
none of the above
An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______.

A)
a UDP user datagram
B)
a TCP segment
C)
an IP datagram
D)
none of the above
34
When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the
mixer.
A)
synchronization source
B)
contributor
C)
timestamp
D)
none of the above
________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure
and immune to attacks.
A)
Cryptography
B)
Cryptoanalysis
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
The ________is the original message before transformation.

A)
ciphertext
B)
plaintext
C)
secret-text
D)
none of the above
The ________ is the message after transformation.

A)
ciphertext
B)
plaintext
C)
secret-text
D)
none of the above
A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext

A)
encryption
B)
decryption
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext.
A)
encryption
B)
decryption
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
6
A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is
called a ________.
A)
cipher
B)
secret
C)
key
D)
none of the above
The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates.

A)
cipher
B)
secret
C)
key
D)
none of the above
8
In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and
receiver.
A)
symmetric-key
B)
asymmetric-key
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
10
11
12
In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key.

A)
symmetric-key
B)
asymmetric-key
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used.

A)
symmetric-key
B)
asymmetric-key
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key.

A)
private
B)
public
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key.

A)
private
B)
public
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
13
A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character.

A)
substitution
B)
transposition
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
14
_________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories:
monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic.
A)
Substitution
B)
Transposition
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
15
The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular
arithmetic with a modulus of 26.
16
A)
transposition
B)
additive
C)
shift
D)
none of the above
The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3.

A)
transposition
B)
additive
C)
shift
D)
none of the above
17
The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a
ciphertext.
A)
substitution
B)
transposition
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
18
A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs
that uses a formula to define the relationship between the input stream and the
output stream.
A)
S-box
B)
P-box
C)
T-box
D)
none of the above
19
A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M outputs
that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream and the
output stream.
A)
S-box
B)
P-box
C)
T-box
D)
none of the above
20
A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a combination
of different simple ciphers.
A)
round
B)
circle
21
22
23
24
C)
square
D)
none of the above
DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government.

A)
symmetric-key
B)
asymmetric-key
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds.
A)
14
B)
15
C)
16
D)
none of the above
The DES function has _______ components.

A)
B)
C)
D)
DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys.

A)
32-bit
B)
48-bit
25
C)
54-bit
D)
42-bit
________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key
A)
Double
B)
Triple
C)
Quadruple
D)
none of the above
26
_______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128bit block of data.
27
28
A)
AEE
B)
AED
C)
AER
D)
AES
AES has _____ different configurations

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.

A)
block
B)
stream
C)
field
D)
none of the above
29
One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______
algorithm.
30
A)
RSS
B)
RAS
C)
RSA
D)
RAA
The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties.
A)
Diffie-Hellman
B)
RSA
C)
DES
D)
AES
31
The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman
method if two parties are not authenticated to each other.
A)
man-in-the-middle
B)
ciphertext attack
C)
plaintext attack
D)
none of the above
Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy.
A)
confidentiality
B)
integrity
C)
authentication
D)
none of the above
2
Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as
sent.
A)
confidentiality
B)
integrity
C)
authentication
D)
none of the above
3
Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is
coming from the intended sender, not an imposter.
A)
confidentiality
B)
integrity
C)
authentication
D)
none of the above
4
_________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a
message that he sent.
A)
Confidentiality
B)
Integrity
C)
Authentication
D)
Nonrepudiation
5
________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the
system's resources.
A)
Message authentication
B)
Entity authentication
C)
Message confidentiality
D)
none of the above
6
A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a
message.
A)
message digest
B)
message summary
C)
encrypted message
D)
none of the above
A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message.

A)
encryption
B)
decryption
C)
hash
D)
none of the above
A hash function must meet ________ criteria.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
none of the above
A _______ message digest is used as an MDC.

A)
keyless
10
B)
keyed
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______.

A)
MDC
B)
MAC
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
11
A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ signature is a
separate entity.
12
13
A)
conventional; digital
B)
digital; digital
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
Digital signature provides ________.

A)
authentication
B)
nonrepudiation
C)
both (a) and (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message.

A)
integrity
14
15
16
B)
confidentiality
C)
nonrepudiation
D)
authentication
If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the scheme.

A)
integrity
B)
confidentiality
C)
nonrepudiation
D)
authentication
A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system.

A)
symmetric-key
B)
asymmetric-key
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
A witness used in entity authentication is ____________.

A)
something known
B)
something possessed
C)
something inherent
D)
all of the above
17
In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one of the
three kinds of witnesses.
A)
message authentication
B)
entity authentication
C)
message confidentiality
D)
message integrity
18
Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories:
_______ and _______.
A)
fixed; variable
B)
time-stamped; fixed
C)
fixed; one-time
D)
none of the above
19
In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a secret
without actually sending it.
20
A)
password-based
B)
challenge-response
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________.

A)
symmetric-key ciphers
B)
asymmetric-key ciphers
C)
keyed-hash functions
D)
all of the above
21
A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two
parties.
22
A)
KDC
B)
CA
C)
KDD
D)
none of the above
A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the center.
A)
CA
B)
KDC
C)
KDD
D)
none of the above
23
The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key
when two members contact KDC.
A)
public
B)
session
C)
complimentary
D)
none of the above
24
__________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an
authentication server and a ticket-granting server.
A)
KDC
B)
Kerberos
C)
CA
D)
none of the above
25
A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key to an
entity and issues a certificate.
A)
KDC
B)
Kerberos
C)
CA
D)
none of the above
26
A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key
certification.
A)
KDC
B)
PKI
C)
CA
D)
none of the above
27
The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or impossible
to create the message if the message digest is given.
28
A)
one-wayness
B)
weak-collision-resistance
C)
strong-collision-resistance
D)
none of the above
The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be forged.

A)
one-wayness
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
29
The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that hash
to the same digest.
A)
one-wayness
B)
C)
D)
none of the above
1
_________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet
Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the network level.
A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
PGP
D)
none of the above
_________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.

A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
PGP
D)
none of the above
3
In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport
layer to the network layer.
A)
transport
B)
tunnel
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header.

A)
transport
B)
tunnel
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
5
The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-toend) protection of data.
A)
transport
B)
tunnel
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
6
In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the
original IP header.
A)
transport
B)
tunnel
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________.
A)
AH; SSL
B)
PGP; ESP
C)
AH; ESP
D)
none of the above
______ provides authentication at the IP level.

A)
AH
B)
ESP
C)
PGP
D)
SSL
9
______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets at
the IP level.
10
A)
AH
B)
ESP
C)
PGP
D)
SSL
IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________.

A)
SAD
B)
SAB
C)
SADB
D)
none of the above
11
______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both
inbound and outbound.
12
13
14
A)
SA
B)
CA
C)
KDC
D)
IKE
IKE creates SAs for _____.

A)
SSL
B)
PGP
C)
IPSec
D)
VP
IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols.

A)
two
B)
three
C)
four
D)
five
IKE uses _______.

A)
Oakley
B)
SKEME
C)
ISAKMP
D)
all of the above
15
16
17
18
A _______network is used inside an organization.

A)
private
B)
public
C)
semi-private
D)
semi-public
An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model.

A)
intranet
B)
internet
C)
extranet
D)
none of the above
An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside users.

A)
intranet
B)
internet
C)
extranet
D)
none of the above
The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______.

A)
intranets
B)
internets
C)
extranets
D)
none of the above
19
A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the
global Internet.
A)
VPP
B)
VNP
C)
VNN
D)
VPN
20
A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security services for
applications.
21
22
A)
data link
B)
network
C)
transport
D)
none of the above
______ is actually an IETF version of _____

A)
TLS; TSS
B)
SSL; TLS
C)
TLS; SSL
D)
SSL; SLT
_______ provide security at the transport layer.

A)
SSL
B)
TLS
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
23
______ is designed to provide security and compression services to data
generated from the application layer.
A)
SSL
B)
TLS
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
24
Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application layer
protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
25
A)
SSL
B)
TLS
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
SSL provides _________.

A)
message integrity
B)
confidentiality
C)
compression
D)
all of the above
26
The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms
defines a ________ for each SSL session.
A)
list of protocols
B)
cipher suite
C)
list of keys
D)
none of the above
27
In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the
message.
28
29
30
A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
TLS
D)
PGP
One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________.

A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
PGP
D)
none of the above
______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.

A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
PGP
D)
none of the above
________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail.

A)
IPSec
B)
SSL
C)
PGP
D)
31
none of the above
In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______ keys.

A)
secret
B)
public
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
both (a) and (b)
32
In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any
certificate.
A)
X509
B)
PGP
C)
KDC
D)
none of the above
33
In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted
authorities.
34
A)
X509
B)
PGP
C)
KDC
D)
none of the above
_______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.

A)
X509
B)
PGP
C)
KDC
D)
none of the above

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The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.

Protocol,Medium,Signal,All the above

The information to be communicated in a data communications system is

Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are

An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.

Security,All the above

Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves

A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.

A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both

In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.

This was the first network.

Which organization has authority over interstate and international

_______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and

Forums,Regulatory agencies,Standards organizations,All of the

Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and

_______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.

Semantics,Syntax,Timing,All of the above

________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what

Semantics,Syntax,Timing,None of the above

none of the above

Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.

Simplex,Half-duplex,Full-duplex,All of the above

In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a

Multipoint,Point-to-point,(a) and (b),None of the above

In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

(a) and (b)

none of the above

______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.

Data flow,Mode of operation,Topology,None of the above

Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

Mesh,Ring,Bus,All of the above

A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or

MAN,LAN,WAN,None of the above

A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or

none of the above

________ is a collection of many separate networks.

A WAN,An internet,A LAN,None of the above

There are ______________ Internet service providers.

Local,Regional,National and international,All of the above

A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.

Forum,Protocol,Standard,None of the above

________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.

RCF,RFC,ID,None of the above

The Internet model consists of _______ layers.

The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility

The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

Physical,Data link,Transport,None of the above

Network,Data link,Transport,None of the above

Physical,Transport,Application,None of the above

The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

Physical,Data link,Transport,None of the above

Which of the following is an application layer service?

Remote log-in,File transfer and access,Mail service,All the above

Why was the OSI model developed?

The OSI model consists of _______ layers.

When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which

Port,Logical,Physical,None of the above

To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host,

Port,IP,Physical,None of the above

IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.

ICMPv6 includes _______.