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Homework 2
Due Wednesday, 21st January 2004
Jacob Lewis Bourjaily
1. Feynman Parametrization
We are to prove Feynmans Formula,
n
!
Z 1
X
1
(n 1)!
(n)
=
dx1 dxn
xi 1
.
A1 An
[x1 A1 + + xn An ]n
0
i=1
(1.1)
(1.2)
(1.3)
We will solve this integral by making the substitution u (x1 A1 +(1x1 )A2 ) so that du = (A1 A2 )dx1 .
Substituting u in the integral above and noting the change in the limits of integration we see immediately
that
Z A1
du
1
1
1 1
1
1
1
1
=
=
,
(1.4)
=
2
A1 A2
(A1 A2 )
u A 2
A1 A2 A2
A1
A2 (A1 A2 ) u
Z 1
1
1
(x
+
x
1)
.
1
2
1
2
A1 An2
[xa A1 + x2 A2 ]n+1
0
(1.6)
This lemma will be proved by induction. We have shown that for n = 1 equation (1.6) holds. Now, let
us suppose that (1.6) is true for some exponent m 1. We must show that this implies that (1.6) is
satisfied for m + 1. So our induction hypothesis is given by
Z 1
1
mxm1
(2)
2
=
dx
dx
(x
+
x
1)
.
(1.7)
1
2
1
2
m+1
A1 A2m
[x
A
+
x
a
1
2 A2 ]
0
Let us differentiate both side of equation (1.7) with respect to A2 . This becomes
Z
1
m(m + 1)xm1
x2
2
m
,
dx1 dx2 (2) (x1 + x2 1)
m+1 =
[x1 A1 + x2 A2 ]m+2
A1 A2
1
=
A1 Am+1
2
(1.8)
Z
dx1 dx2 (2) (x1 + x2
(m + 1)xm
2
1)
.
[x1 A1 + x2 A2 ]m+2
(1.9)
o
Now we are ready to complete the entire proof. Because we have shown that Feynmans formula is
1
true for A11A2 , we may prove by induction to A1 A
. Let us assume therefore that Feynmans formula
n
is valid for some n = m 2. We must show that it is valid for m + 1.
We will begin this proof by direct calculation. For this derivation, we will use the following notational
conveniences:
U (x1 A1 + + xn Am ),
ui (1 um+1 )xi ,
Note that um+1 is an ordinary integration variable and is not set by the above. By our induction
hypothesis, we have that
m
!
Z 1
X
(m 1)!
1
(m)
=
dx1 dxm
xi 1
.
A1 Am
[x1 A1 + + xm Am ]m
0
i=1
We also note the property of the Dirac -functional that (f (x)/a) = a(f (x)). Now, let us make the
following calculation
1
1
1
=
,
A1 Am+1
Am+1 A1 Am
m
!
Z 1
X
1
(m 1)!
=
dx1 dxm
,
xi 1
Am+1 0
[x1 A1 + + xm Am ]m
i=1
m
!
Z 1
X
1
1
=
dx1 dxm
xi 1 (m 1)! m
,
U
A
m+1
0
i=1
!
m
Z 1
Z 1
X
m(1 um+1 )m1
xi 1 (m 1)!
dum+1
=
dx1 dxm
,
[(1 um1 )U + um+1 Am+1 ]m+1
0
0
i=1
m
!
Z 1um+1
Z 1
X
(1 um+1 )m1
m!
=
du1 dum
xi 1
du
,
m+1
(1 xm+1 )m 0
[u1 A1 + + um Am + um+1 Am+1 ]m+1
0
i=1
m
!
Z 1
Z 1um+1
X
ui
m!
1
,
=
dum+1
du1 dum
(1
u
)
(1
u
)[u
A
+
+ um+1 Am+1 ]m+1
m+1
m+1
1
1
0
0
i=1
m+1
!
Z 1
Z 1um+1
X
m!
ui 1
=
dum+1
du1 dum
.
[u1 A1 + + um+1 Am+1 ]m+1
0
0
i=1
We note that because of the -functional within the integral (and because um+1 is always positive),
when the domain of the interior integral is extended to 1 the integral will not pick up any additional
contribution. So we may put the integral above into a more symmetric form,
m+1
!
Z 1
X
1
m!
=
du1 dum+1
ui 1
.
(1.10)
A1 Am+1
[u
A
+
+
um+1 Am+1 ]m+1
1 1
0
i=1
Therefore, by induction on m we see that for all values n 2,
n
!
Z 1
X
(n 1)!
1
(n)
=
dx1 dxn
xi 1
.
A1 An
[x
A
+
+ xn An ]n
1
1
0
i=1
(1.11)
o
2. Loop Integrals
a) We are to demonstrate that
Z
d4 `
1
i(1)m
1
1
=
4
2
m
2
m2
(2) [` ]
(4) (m 1)(m 2)
for m > 2.
To compute this integral, we will first note that the two poles, at ` = , are covered
by the same contour in the complex `0 plane when the contour is analytically extended to the
imaginary axis. Therefore, without loss of generality, we may make the substitution ` = i`E .
Doing this, we may compute directly. Note the substitution u `2E + in the fifth line. Also
notice that the derivation is only valid for m > 2 because the integral will diverge for m 2.
Z
Z
d4 `
1
i
1
=
d4 `E
,
(2)4 [`2 ]m
(2)4
[`2E ]m
Z
i(1)m
1
d4 `E 2
=
,
(2)4
[`E + ]m
Z
Z
i(1)m
`3E
=
d
d`
,
4
E
(2)4
[`2E + ]m
0
Z
2i(1)m
`3E
=
d`
,
E
(4)2
[`2E + ]m
0
Z
2i(1)m du `3E
=
,
m
(4)2
2`E u
Z
i(1)m u
du m ,
=
(4)2
u
i(1)m
1
1
1
,
=
2
m1
m2
(4)
(m 1) u
(m 2) u
m
i(1)
1
1
1
1
=
,
2
m2
m2
(4)
(m 2)
(m 1)
Z
1
i(1)m
1
1
d4 `
=
for m > 2.
(2.1)
(2)4 [`2 ]m
(4)2 (m 1)(m 2) m2
o
b) We are to demonstrate that
Z
`2
i(1)m1
2
1
d4 `
=
(2)4 [`2 ]m
(4)2 (m 1)(m 2)(m 3) m3
for m > 3.
Z
i(1)m1 `4E
=
du m ,
(4)2
u
m1
i(1)
(u2 2u + 2 )
=
du
,
(4)2
um
i(1)m1
1
1
1
2
1
2
=
,
(4)2
(m 3) um3
(m 2) um2
(m 1) um1
1
2
1
i(1)m1 1
+
,
=
(4)2 m3 (m 3) (m 2) (m 1)
Z
d4 `
`2
i(1)m1
2
1
=
for m > 3.
(2.2)
(2)4 [`2 ]m
(4)2 (m 1)(m 2)(m 3) m3
o
Z
d4 `
`2
`2
i
=
ln
(2)4 [`2 ]3
[`2 ]3
(4)2
To prove this identity we will differentiate both sides with respect to . Doing this, the right
hand side trivially becomes (noting the definition of ),
z2
i
i
i z2
.
(2.3)
ln
=
=
2
2
2
(4)
(4)
(4)2
Differentiating the left hand side and using equation (2.2) we see that,
Z
Z
d4 `
d4 `
`2
`2
`2
`2
=3
,
2
2
(2)4 [`2 ]3
[` ]3
(2)4 [`2 ]4
[` ]4
i(1)3 2
1
1
=3
,
(4)2 (3 2 1)
i
1
1
=
,
(4)2
i
=
,
(4)2
i z2
,
=
(4)2
Therefore the derivatives of each sides of the desired identity with respect to are equal. We
note that, by direct calculation, the constant of integration is zero.
Z
d4 `
`2
`2
i
2
=
ln
.
(2.4)
(2)4 [`2 ]3
[` ]3
(4)2
o
3. The Volume Element in D-Dimensions
a) We note that evaluating the trivial Gaussian integral yields
Z
2
I=
dx ex = .
(3.1)
We note that a general procedure for computing such Gaussian integrals is to convert it into an
integral over spherical coordinates. Let us compute I n directly this way. When needed, we will
define the substitution variable u r2 .
Z
Z
2
n
I = dn1
dr rn1 er ,
Z
Z0
du n1 u
= dn1
r
e ,
2r
0
Z
Z
1
du u(n2)/2 eu ,
= dn1
2 0
1
= (n/2)n1 ,
2
c) Using our result above we see that (D/2) = D1 1/2(D/2). Therefore it is clear that
D1 =
2 D/2
.
(D/2)
(3.2)
2 = 4,
3 = 2 2 ,
4 =
8 2
.
3
(3.3)
N = u(p0 ) 6 ` 6 ` y(1 y)6 q 6 q zy6 q 6 p +z(1 y)6 p 6 q +z 2 6 p 6 p +m2 2m(1 2y)q 4mzp u(p).
| {z }
| {z }
| {z }
| {z }
| {z }
i
ii
iii
iv
ii.
iii.
iv.
6 p 6 q = 2p 6 q 6 p 6 q = 2 p q + m 6 q = 2p q + m 6 p0 m2 ,
|{z}
0
= 2p q + 2mp0 2m2 .
Notice, however, that
2p q = p q + p q = p q + p0 q q 2 = p02 + p0 p p0 p p2 q 2 = m2 m2 q 2 = q 2 .
Therefore,
6 p 6 q = q 2 + mp0 2m2 .
v.
6 p 6 p = m 6 p = 2mp m2 .
A
z
}|
{
1
of the integrand.
2Here and later in the derivation we make use of the identity p
6 2 = p2 . This is seen by simple algebra:
p6 2 = p p = 2p2 p p = 2p2 p6 2 . So 2 p6 2 = 2p2 = p6 2 = p2 .
Let us simplify the parts A and B separately. To do this, we will make repeated use of the fact that
x + y + z = 1 by the Dirac -functional of these Feynman parameters. Let us begin with part A .
1
A = `2 + q 2 (y(1 y) + z(1 y)) + m2 2yz 2z(1 y) z 2 + 1 ,
2
1
= `2 + q 2 ((1 x z)(1 z) + z(1 y)) + m2 (2yz 2z + 2yz + 1) ,
2
1 2
= ` + q 2 (1 x)(1 y) + m2 (1 2z z 2 ).
2
Now let us simplify part B. This process will not seem beautiful or elegant, but in the words of
Pascal, I apologize for this [derivations] length for I did not have time to make it short.
B = 2myzp + 2mz(1 y)p0 + 2mz 2 p 2m(1 2y)q 4mzp ,
When we combine these simplifications into the entire expression for the numerator, we see that
1
N = u(p0 ) `2 + (1 x)(1 y)q 2 + m2 (1 2z z 2 ) + mz(z 1) (p0 + p ) + m(z 2)(x y)q .
2
o