1.

The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which
microorganism?
Haemophilus influenzae
A
Morbillivirus
B
Streptococcus pneumoniae
C
Neisseria meningitidis
D

2.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Kopliks spot and you may see
Kopliks spot by inspecting the:
Nasal mucosa
A
Buccal mucosa
B
Skin on the abdomen
C
Skin on neck
D

3.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the
color of the nail bed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
3 seconds
A
6 seconds
B
9 seconds
C

10 seconds
D

4.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions
generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT
always require urgent referral to a hospital?
Mastoiditis
A
Severe dehydration
B
Severe pneumonia
C
Severe febrile disease
D

5.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a
population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
45 infants
A
50 infants
B
55 infants
C
65 infants
D

6.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)
should NOT be stored in the freezer?

DPT
A
Oral polio vaccine
B
Measles vaccine
C
MMR
D

7.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area?

Use of molluscicides
A
Building of foot bridges
B
Proper use of sanitary toilets
C
Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
D

8.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be
classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
A
3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
B
5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
C
5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
D

9.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of
the following is an early sign of leprosy?
Macular lesions
A
Inability to close eyelids
B
Thickened painful nerves
C
Sinking of the nose bridge
D

10.Marie brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to
consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do?
Perform a tourniquet test.
A
Ask where the family resides.
B
Get a specimen for blood smear.
C
Ask if the fever is present everyday.
D

11.Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI
assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to
a hospital?
Inability to drink
A
High grade fever
B

Signs of severe dehydration

C
Cough for more than 30 days
D

12.Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed baggy pants. As a nurse, using the IMCI guidelines, how will you
manage Jimmy?
Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
A
Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program.
B
Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child.
C

Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal
parasitism.

13.Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to
do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her to:
Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.
A
Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.
B
Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician.
C
Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
D

14.Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea for 4
to 5 times a day. Her skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI
guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?
No signs of dehydration
A
Some dehydration
B
Severe dehydration
C
The data is insufficient.
D

15.Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her mother to the health center because of cough. His
respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of
assessment, his breathing is considered as:
Fast
A
Slow
B
Normal
C
Insignificant
D

16.Maylene had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will have
protection against tetanus for
10 years
A
5 years
B

3 years
C
Lifetime
D

17.Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be discarded after how many hours of reconstitution?
2 hours
A
4 hours
B
8 hours
C
At the end of the day
D

18.The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the babys
nutrient needs only up to:
5 months
A
6 months
B
1 year
C
2 years
D

19.Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a conceptus that is considered viable (able to live
outside the womb) is:

8 weeks
A
12 weeks
B
24 weeks
C
32 weeks
D

20.When teaching parents of a neonate the proper position for the neonates sleep, the nurse Patricia
stresses the importance of placing the neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which of the following?
Aspiration
A
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
B
Suffocation
C
Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
D

21.Which finding might be seen in baby James a neonate suspected of having an infection?
Flushed cheeks
A
Increased temperature
B
Decreased temperature
C
Increased activity level
D

22.Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is at increased risk during the transitional period for which
complication?
Anemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
A
Hyperthermia due to decreased glycogen stores
B
Hyperglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores
C
Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
D

23.Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks gestation. When the nurse assessing the neonate, which
physical finding is expected?
A sleepy, lethargic baby
A
Lanugo covering the body
B
Desquamation of the epidermis
C
Vernix caseosa covering the body
D

24.After reviewing the Myrnas maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition
would nurse Richard anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
Hypoglycemia
A
Jitteriness
B
Respiratory depression
C

Tachycardia
D

25.Which symptom would indicate the Baby Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extra-uterine life
without difficulty?
Nasal flaring
A
Light audible grunting
B
Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
C
Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute
D

26.When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a new mother, the nurse Jenny would include which
information?
Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change
A
Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing
B
Keep the cord dry and open to air
C
Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath.
D

27.Nurse John is performing an assessment on a neonate. Which of the following findings is considered
common in the healthy neonate?
Simian crease
A

Conjunctival hemorrhage
B
Cystic hygroma
C
Bulging fontanelle
D

28.Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the membranes of a mother who is on labor. Following this
procedure, the nurse Hazel checks the fetal heart tones for which the following reasons?
To determine fetal well-being.
A
To assess for prolapsed cord
B
To assess fetal position
C
To prepare for an imminent delivery.
D

29.Which of the following would be least likely to indicate anticipated bonding behaviors by new
parents?
The parents willingness to touch and hold the newborn.
A
The parents expression of interest about the size of the newborn.
B
The parents indication that they want to see the newborn.
C
The parents interactions with each other.
D

30.Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the clients vagina reveals a fourth-degree

laceration. Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client?
Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours.
A
Instructing the client to use two or more peri pads to cushion the area.
B
Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered.
C
Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (kegel) exercises.
D

31.A pregnant woman accompanied by her husband, seeks admission to the labor and delivery area.
She states that shes in labor and says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal care. Which question
should the nurse Oliver ask her first?
Do you have any chronic illnesses?
A
Do you have any allergies?
B
What is your expected due date?
C
Who will be with you during labor?
D

32.A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the nurse do first?
Calm the neonate.
A
Notify the physician.
B
Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered
C

Aspirate the neonates nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.

D

33.When a client states that her water broke, which of the following actions would be inappropriate
for the nurse to do?
Observing the pooling of straw-colored fluid.
A
Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper.
B
Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an amniotic fluid index.
C
Observing for flakes of vernix in the vaginal discharge.
D

34.A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature. At birth, she has no spontaneous respirations but is
successfully resuscitated. Within several hours she develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis, tachypnea,
nasal flaring, and retractions. Shes diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome, intubated, and
placed on a ventilator. Which nursing action should be included in the babys plan of care to prevent
retinopathy of prematurity?
Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.
A
Keep her body temperature low.
B
Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (Pao2) levels.
C
Humidify the oxygen.
D

35.Which of the following is normal newborn calorie intake?

110 to 130 calories per kg.

A
30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight.
B
At least 2 ml per feeding
C
90 to 100 calories per kg
D

36.Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually individual twins will grow appropriately and at the same
rate as singletons until how many weeks?
16 to 18 weeks
A
18 to 22 weeks
B
30 to 32 weeks
C
38 to 40 weeks
D

37.Which of the following classifications applies to monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the
fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days after fertilization?
conjoined twins
A
diamniotic dichorionic twins
B
diamniotic monochorionic twin
C
monoamniotic monochorionic twins
D

38.Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa.
Which of the following procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?
Amniocentesis
A
Digital or speculum examination
B
External fetal monitoring
C
Ultrasound
D

39.Nurse Arnold knows that the following changes in respiratory functioning during pregnancy is
considered normal:
Increased tidal volume
A
Increased expiratory volume
B
Decreased inspiratory capacity
C
Decreased oxygen consumption
D

40.Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually managed by which of the following therapy?
Diet
A
Long-acting insulin
B
Oral hypoglycemic
C

Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin

D

41.Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with preeclampsia to prevent which of the following
condition?
Hemorrhage
A
Hypertension
B
Hypomagnesemia
C
Seizure
D

42.Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy.
Aggressive management of a sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures?
Antihypertensive agents
A
Diuretic agents
B
I.V. fluids
C
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain
D

43.Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
A

Hydralazine (Apresoline)
B
Naloxone (Narcan)
C
Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
D

44.Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of
purified protein derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to have a positive
test for which of the following results?
An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.
A
An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
B
A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.
C
A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
D

45.Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks pregnant arrives at her physicians office with complaints of fever,
nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the
following diagnoses is most likely?
Asymptomatic bacteriuria
A
Bacterial vaginosis
B
Pyelonephritis
C
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
D

46.Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client develops during which of the following conditions?
Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
A

Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal

antibodies.
Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal
antibodies.
Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.

47.To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client to assume certain positions and
avoid others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
Lateral position
A
Squatting position
B
Supine position
C
Standing position
D

48.Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancy delivers a neonate. When assessing the neonate, the
nurse Lynnette expects to find:
Lethargy 2 days after birth.
A
Irritability and poor sucking.
B

A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips.

C
Congenital defects such as limb anomalies.
D

.
49.The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which of the following time frames?
7th to 9th day postpartum.
A
2 weeks postpartum.
B
End of 6th week postpartum.
C
When the lochia changes to alba.
D

50.Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted delivery of
twins. Her labor was unusually long and required oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse whos
caring for her should stay alert for:
Uterine inversion
A
Uterine atony
B
Uterine involution
C
Uterine discomfort
D