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VISION IAS

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Test Booklet Series (Test Code

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GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2016 Test - 1

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1

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1.

2.

3.

With reference to Constitutionalism, which


of the following statements is most
appropriate?
(a) It is an ideology which promotes
supremacy of a written Constitution.
(b) It means Constitution is necessary in a
democratic country.
(c) It denotes the principle that the
government derives its authority from a
body of fundamental law and is limited
by it.
(d) It means that Constitution must provide
certain inalienable rights to the citizens.
Which of the following functions were
performed by the Constituent Assembly?
1. It passed certain statutes as a legislative
assembly
2. It ratified India's membership of the
Commonwealth
3. It abolished the office of the Secretary of
State of India and transferred his
functions to the President of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to Dicey's "Rule of Law",
which of the following elements has/have
been imbibed in the Constitution of India?
1. Absence of Arbitrary Power
2. Equal subjection of all classes to the
ordinary law
3. The Constitution is the result of the
rights of an individual
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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4.

The beginning of Parliamentary System in


India can be traced back to which of the
following Acts?
(a) Charter Act of 1853
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

5.

Which of the following is not the reason for


the bulky Indian Constitution?
(a) Country's diversity
(b) Elaborate provisions for centre and state
(c) Cater the needs of huge population of
the country
(d) To enable smooth functioning of Infant
democracy of India at the time of
independence

6.

The Second Schedule contain the provisions


related to which of the following ?
1. The President
2. The Speaker of the legislative Assembly
in the States
3. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India
4. The Chairman, Union Public Service
Commission
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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7.

Which of the following provisions of the

10.

'All the lands, minerals and other things of

Constitution of India have a bearing on

value underlying the ocean within the

Education?

territorial waters or the continental shelf of

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

India' vests in
(a) respective States along the coasts

2. Fundamental Rights

(b) land is vested with the union, mineral

3. Preamble

resources comes under the state

4. Fundamental Duties

(c) land comes under the state and mineral

Select the correct answer using the code

resources are vested in the Union.

given below.

(d) all of them are vested in the Union

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

11.

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

With

reference

reorganisation

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

of

to

the

States,

linguistic

consider

the

following statements:
1. Dhar Commission recommended the

8.

Which of the following is a federal feature of

reorganization of the states mainly on

the government?

linguistic basis.
2. JVP Committee accepted language as

(a) Written constitution

the basis for reorganization of the states.

(b) All India Services

3. Fazal Ali Commission rejected 'one

(c) Integrated Judiciary

language one state theory'.

(d) Single Citizenship


9.

Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?

Match the following pairs:


1. Japanese

(a) election of Rajya

Constitution

Sabha members

2. Irish

(b) Rule of law

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Constitution
3. British

(c) nomination of

Constitution

members to Rajya

Act,

Sabha

statements:

(d) Procedure

1. It made a provision for classification of

4. South Africa

established by law
Select the correct answer using the code

With reference to the Government of India


1919,

consider

the

following

the central and provincial subjects.


2. It divided the central subjects into
reserved and transferred.

given below.

Select the correct answer using the code

(a) 1-b ; 2-a ; 3-d ; 4-c

given below.

(b) 1-d ; 2-c ; 3-b ; 4-a

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) 1-a ; 2-b ; 3-c ; 4-d

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1-b ; 2-c ; 3-d ; 4-a


3

12.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


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13.

With reference to Caretaker Government,

15.

Which of the following exercised the most

which of the following statements is/are

profound influence in framing the Indian

correct?

Constitution?

1. There is no provision in the Constitution

(a) British Constitution

of India for a Caretaker Government.

(b) U.S. Constitution

2. President may ask the Council of

(c) Irish Constitution


(d) The Government of India Act, 1935

Ministers to continue as Caretaker


Government till alternative arrangements
16.

are made.

the

following

marked

(b) Government of India Act, 1935

(a) 1 only

(c) Morley Minto Reforms

(b) 2 only

(d) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

(c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17.

1. Advisory Committee

Jawahar Lal

on Fundamental Rights

Nehru

2. Minorities Sub-

J.B. Kripalani

following Schedule of Indian Constitution?


(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Fifth Schedule

Committee
3. States Committee

Vallabh Bhai

(Committee for

Patel

Negotiating with

States and Union territories and their


territorial spread are dealt in which of the

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly


matched?

18.

With reference to Indian Constitution,


consider the following statements:
1. Indian constitution has no provision for

States)

ban on cow slaughter.


Dr Rajendra
Prasad

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly


matched?

2. Free legal aid to the poor is a justiciable


right under the Indian constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(c) 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) 4 only
4

the

(a) Government of India Act, 1858

given below.

4. Steering Committee

of

beginning of bicameralism system in India?

Select the correct answer using the code

14.

Which

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19.

Which

of

the

following

restricts

the

21.

1935 consider the following statements:

supremacy of the Indian Parliament?

1. It provided for the establishment of an

1. Written Nature of Constitution

All-India Federation.

2. Federal System of Government

2. It provided for the establishment of


Reserve Bank of India.

3. System of Judicial Review

3. It abolished Dyarchy in the provinces

4. Directive principle of state policy

but provided for the adoption of

5. Fundamental rights

Dyarchy at the Centre.

Select the correct answer using the code

4. It provided for the establishment of a


Federal court.

given below.

Which of the statements given above is/are

(a) 1 only

correct?

(b) 1 and 3 only

20.

With reference to Government of India Act,

(a) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only


(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

With regard to Fundamental Rights as


enshrined

in

the

Indian

22.

The First Law Commission was established


under which of the following?

Constitution,

(a) Charter ct of 1833

consider the following statements:

(b) Government of India Act, 1858

1. Right against discrimination on ground

(c) Indian Council Act, 1861

of religion, race, caste, sex or place of

(d) Charter Act of 1853

birth.
2. Equality before law and equal protection
of law.

Which of the above is/are classified under


the Right to Freedom of Religion?
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds

3. Right to elementary education.


4. Freedom of speech and expression.
5. Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Which of the fundamental rights given above
are available to both citizens of India and

of religion.
2. Freedom

of

conscience

and

free

profession of religion.
3. Protection of culture of minorities.
4. Freedom to manage religious institution
and affairs.
Select the correct answer using the code

foreigners?

given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 2 and 4 only


(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only


5

23.

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24.

25.

26.

With reference to Pitts Act of 1784,


consider the following statements:
1. It laid down the foundations of Central
administration in India.
2. It made the Governor General of Bengal
as the Governor General of India.
3. It gave the British Government supreme
control over the Company's affairs and
administration in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
With reference to 'Right to the Constitutional
Remedies',
consider
the
following
statements:
1. An aggrieved person can approach the
Supreme Court under Right to
Constitutional Remedies if any of the
Constitutional Rights are violated.
2. 'Right to the Constitutional Remedies'
cannot be amended by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following strengthens


Indian federalism?
1. Rule of law
2. Written Constitution
3. Rigidity of Constitution
4. Emergency
provisions in the
Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

27.

With reference to Citizenship (Amendment)


Act,

2015,

consider

the

following

statements:
1. Citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh are
eligible

to

apply

for

Overseas

Citizenship of India
2. An Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)
cardholder can buy agricultural land or
plantation properties
3. Persons of Indian Origin may be
provided a life-long visa just like
Overseas Citizens of India
4. If a person renounces his overseas
citizenship, their minor children and
spouse can still be the overseas citizen of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
28.

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only

With reference to writs issued by the


Supreme Court and High Courts in India,
consider the following statements :
1. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued
against public authorities only.
2. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued
against a private individual or body.
3. The writ of Prohibition can be issued
only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities.
4. The writ of Certiorari is available
against legislative bodies and private
individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

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29.

30.

31.

With reference to the Constituent Assembly,


consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was not a part of the
assembly.
2. Mohammad Ali Jinnah was part of the
assembly, however he did not head any
committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to Directive Principles of
State
Policy,consider
the
following
statements:
1. Directives addressed to State are found
only in Part IV of the Constitution.
2. State Government's refusal to follow
Union Governments directions for
implementing DPSP constitutes as a
ground to impose Presidents rule.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to Directive Principles,
consider the following statements:
1. The harmony between fundamental
rights and directive principles of state
policy is a part of basic structure of the
constitution.
2. No law which seek to implement the
directive principles under Art. 39(b) and
(c) shall be void on the ground of
contraventions of any of the fundamental
rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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32.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution


serves which of the following purpose?
1. It indicates authority of the Government
is derived from the people.
2. It lays down the objectives which the
Constitution seeks to accomplish.
3. It helps Judiciary to interpret provisions
of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

33.

With reference to Shyama Prasad Mukherji


Rurban Mission, consider the following
statements:
1. The mission aims to develop a cluster of
smart villages.
2. The Centre will identify the clusters and
states will implement the framework
prepared by the ministry of rural
development
3. There would be a separate approach for
selection of clusters in Tribal and NonTribal Districts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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34.

With reference to

Neeranchal National

37.

Which of the following is/are explicitly


mentioned in the National food security act
2013?
1. Mid-day meal scheme
2. Integrated child development services
3. Targeted Public distribution system
4. Priority households
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

38.

With reference to the Preamble as enshrined


in the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. Equality means removing all the
differences among the citizens of India.
2. Secular means government will not
interfere at all in the matters of religion.
3. Republic means the Head of the State
is an indirectly elected person.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

39.

With reference to the Preamble as enshrined


in the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. The Preamble was the first part of the
Constitution to be enacted.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment
added three new words 'Socialist',
'Secular' and 'Integrity' into the
Preamble.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Watershed Project by Government of India,


consider the following statements:
1. It is a World Bank assisted project.
2. It aims to achieve the objective of the
watershed component of the Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35.

Which of the following has/have been


accorded 'Geographical Indication' status?
1. Bikaneri Bhujia
2. Hyderabad Haleem
3. Lucknowi Kebab
4. Chengalikodan Banana
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

36.

The term 'MAST' was recently in news for


which of the following reasons?
(a) It was a scheme launched by Ministry of
Urban Development for mass transport
in Tier-II cities.
(b) A Multi Application Solar Telescope
was operationalised at Udaipur Solar
Observatory.
(c) It is a Marine Science and Technology
Institute recently opened in Cochin.
(d) It is a Multi-Application Sonar Tool
developed by DRDO.

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40.

Which of the following bodies are expected

42.

to follow the Directive Principles of State

Consider the following statements:


1. The Constitution (86th) Amendment Act

Policy?

2002, inserted Article 21A in the

1. Union and State executive organs.

constitution.

2. Union and State legislative organs.

2. Under Article 21 A of the Constitution,

3. Local self Government

free and compulsory education is a

4. LIC

fundamental right of all the children

Select the correct answer using the code

between the age of six to fourteen years.

given below.

3. Article 21 A and Right to Education Act

(a) 1 and 2 only

2009 can be enforced against unaided

(b) 2 only

minority and non-minority schools.

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

correct?
41.

With reference to Directive Principle of

(a) 1 and 2 only

State

(b) 2 only

Policy,

consider

the

following

statements:

(c) 2 and 3 only

1. It fosters respect for international law

(d) 1, 2 and 3

and treaty obligations.


2. It encourages settlement of international
disputes through arbitration.
3. It work towards disarmament and nonproliferation.

Which of the following rights are construed


as a part of 'Right to life and personal liberty'
under Article 21?
1. Right to good health.

4. It aims to maintain just and honourable


relations between nations.
5. It seeks co-operation with other nations
for mutual benefits.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.

2. Right against solitary confinement.


3. Right to die with dignity.
4. Right to sound sleep.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 3, 4 and 5 only

43.

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44.

45.

46.

10

Which of the following rights are implicit


under Right to Freedom of Speech and
Expression ?
1. Freedom of silence
2. Right to demonstrate and strike
3. Right against tapping of telephonic
conversation
4. Right to know about government
activities
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
With reference to Inner Line permit system,
consider the following statements:
1. It is issued by the Government of India
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru introduced this to
protect the cultural heritage of tribal
communities in his first term.
3. Recently, Sikkim has been demanding
ILP to protect its cultural diversity.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
With reference to the Global Gender Gap
Index, 2015, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a report brought by United Nation.
2. India has improved its ranking comapred
to last year.
3. Among the BRICS grouping, India has
the lowest rank.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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47.

With reference to Fundamental Rights as


enshrined

in

the

Indian

Constitution,

consider the following statements:


1. Fundamental Rights are included in Part
III of the Constitution.
2. Fundamental

Rights

safeguard

individual liberty and restrict liberty of


the state.
3. The

Parliament

cannot

amend

Fundamental Rights.
4. Any new law which restricts the scope
of

Fundamental

Rights

can

be

challenged in the Supreme Court.


Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
48.

1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only

With reference to Freedom of Speech and


Expression,

consider

the

following

statements:
1. Freedom of expression includes the right
to express the views of others as well.
2. Right to Freedom of Expression is not an
absolute

right

and

is

subject

to

limitations.
3. If any expression of opinion, published
in a newspaper, undermines the dignity
of a court, then the court is entitled to
exercise the power under contempt
provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

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49.

Consider the following statements:

51.

With reference to the Constitution of India,


consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Preamble
Which of the above provisions of the
Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the
National Food Security Act launched by the
Government of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

52.

Which of the following is true about Gelatin


sticks?
(a) Processed protein
(b) Artificial addictive
(c) Blasting material
(d) Binder bone glue

53.

The Long Range Surface to Air Missile


(LRSAM), is developed by India in
collaboration with which country?
(a) Israel
(b) Russia
(c) UK
(d) France

54.

The term 'AUSINDEX15' was recently in


news in which context?
(a) The term was coined recently concluded
nucler deal between India and Australia.
(b) It was a bilateral maritime exercise
between India and Australia
(c) It is an index developed by both India
and Australia to keep track on imports
and exports between two countries.
(d) It is a MoU signed between Indian and
Australian Government aiming for
improving Human Development Index
of its people

1. Alteration of boundaries, areas or names


of existing states are done by ordinary
legislative process.
2. Boundary dispute between India and
other countries can be settled without
any constitutional amendment.
3. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign
country by amending Indian constitution
under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50.

Which of the following Articles were added


by 42nd Amendment Act to Directive
Principles of State Policy?
1. Promote equal justice and provide free
legal aid to the poor.
2. To minimise inequalities in income,
status, facilities and opportunities.
3. Secure

opportunities

for

healthy

development of children.
4. Take steps to secure the participation of
workers in the management of the
industries.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11

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55.

With reference to Sahitya Akademi, consider

57.

the following statements:

part of UNESCO's Creative Cities Network?

1. It is India's National Akademi of Letters,

1. Jaipur
2. Mysore

dedicated to promotion of literature.


2. The

Akademi

functions

as

3. Varanasi

an

4. Madurai

autonomous organisation.

Select the correct answer using the code

3. Other than the languages mentioned

given below.

under Schedule VIII of the Constitution,


its

literary

programmes

can

(a) 1 and 2 only

be

(b) 1 and 3 only

implemented in English and Rajasthani

(c) 2 and 4 only

only.
4. It

(d) 3 and 4 only

awards

the

prestigious

Jnanpith

Award.

58.

Which of the following is/are part of the

Which of the statements given above is/are

'Basic Structure' of the Indian Constitution?

correct?

1. Effective access to justice.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

2. Limited power of parliament to amend


the constitution.

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

3. Reasonableness

(c) 2 and 4 only

4. Bicameralism in states.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56.

Which of the following Indian cities are a

Select the correct answer using the code


below.

With reference to the Constituent Assembly,

(a) 1 only

consider the following statements:

(b) 1 and 3 only

1. It was composed roughly along the lines

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

of the plan suggested by the Cabinet

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Mission.
2. The

members

of

the

Constituent

The term 'Co-operatives' can be found in

Assembly were elected indirectly by the

which of the following part/parts of the

members of the provincial legislative

Constitution?

assemblies

1. Part III

3. The Constituent Assembly was partly


elected and partly nominated body.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?

2. Part IV
3. Part IX-B
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only
12

59.

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60.

61.

62.

13

Consider the following statements with


regards to fundamental rights:
1. President, on advice of council of
ministers can impose reasonable
restrictions on the fundamental rights of
the citizens.
2. Parliament
decides
upon
the
reasonableness of the restrictions placed
on the fundamental rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to provisions related to
Panchayats and Muncipalities in the
Government of India Act, 1935, consider the
following statements:
1. The act had specifically given powers to
Provincial
Legislatures
to
enact
legislation related to Panchayats.
2. The act also provided for vesting of
powers related to criminal justice in
Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements with
reference to the Objectives Resolution
moved by Nehru in the Constituent
Assembly:
1. The Objectives Resolution was inspired
from the Indian Nationalist Movement
2. It stated the firm resolve of the
Constituent Assembly to proclaim India
as an Independent Socialist Democracy
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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63.

Consider the following statements:


1. Presidents Rule
2. National Emergency
3. Martial Rule
Which of the above special circumstances
has/have an effect on the Fundamental
Rights of the Indian citizens?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

64.

Consider the following statements with


reference to 'Right to Freedom of Speech
and Expression' under Article 19 of the
Indian Constitution:
1. The Right to acquire, hold and dispose
of property was originally a right
guaranteed by Article 19.
2. Rights guaranteed by Article 19 are
protected against only state and not
against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

65.

With the reference to the Fundamental


Rights as enshrined in the Indian
Constitution, which one of the following
statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. All Fundamental Rights are available
against the arbitrary action of the State
only.
2. Some of them are justiciable in nature
while others are non-justiciable.
3. The Parliament can curtail or repeal
them, but only by a constitutional
amendment.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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66.

With reference to Directive Principles of

68.

State Policy (DPSP), consider the following

amendment of the Constitution as laid down

statements:

in

1. It aims to establish a welfare state.

statements:

2. It seeks to promote social and economic

1. The bill can be introduced by a minister

368,

consider

the

following

3. Supreme Court cannot declare an act of

2. The provisions of the Constitution which

Parliament ultra vires if it violates any of

can be amended by a simple majority are

the principles of DPSP.

outside the scope of Article 368.


3. The Constitution Amendment Bill does

Which of the statements given above is/are

not require a

correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) 2 only

correct?

(c) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following Directive Principles

(d) 2 and 3 only

of State Policy may be classified as


Gandhian Principles?
1. To

prohibit

prior permission of the

President.

(a) 1 only

the

consumption

of

intoxiacting drinks
2. To protect and improve the environment
and to safeguard forests and wildlife

69.

In which of the following cases was the


principle of "Basic Structure Doctrine" used
by the Supreme Court to strike down the
provisions of Constitutional Amendment
Acts?

3. To raise the level of nutrition and

1. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala

standard of living of people and to

2. Minerva Mills vs Union of India

improve public health

3. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -

4. To

promote

the

educational

and

economic interets of SCs, STs and other


weaker sections of the society

14

Art

only and not by a private member.

democracy.

67.

With reference to the procedure for the

Association and another vs Union of


India, 2015
4. Golaknath vs State of Punjab

Select the correct answer using the code

Select the correct answer using the code

given below.

given below.

(a) 1 only

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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70.

Which of the following provisions can be

73.

Which of the following basic features are


incorporated in the Constitution of India
from Universal Declaration of Human
Rights?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

74.

With reference to the 44th Constitution


Amendment Act, 1978, consider the
following statements:
1. It provided that Fundamental Rights
under Article 20 and 21 cannot be
suspended during National Emergency.
2. It deleted the Right to Property from Part
III of the Indian Constitution.
3. It made a provision to bind the President
by the advice of cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

75.

Which of the following duties of citizens


form a part of Fundamental Duties under
Art.51A?
1. Duty to provide early childhood care and
education to the child till the age of six
years.
2. Duty to render national service
whenever called upon to do so.
3. Duty to pay taxes.
4. Duty to develop scientific temper.
Select the correct answer using the code
below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

amended by a simple majority of both the


Houses of the Parliament?
1. Delimitation of the constituencies.
2. Extent of the executive power of the
Union and States.
3. Use of official language.
4. Elections to the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
71.

Which of the following is not a Fundamental


Duty as enshrined in the Constitution of
India?
(a) To develop scientific temper
(b) To promote brotherhood and strive to be
a good human being
(c) To respect the ideals of the Constitution
(d) To develop spirit of enquiry

72.

Which of the above is/are the features of the


federal system?
1. Pooling

of

resources

to

provide

maximum benefit to the people.


2. Supreme Court to arbitrate any disputes
between the Union and the States.
3. All powers are vested with the Central
Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
15

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76.

With

reference

to

Indian

Citizenship

79.

With reference to the provisions of


Citizenship under the Indian Constitution,
consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution enumerates the
provisions related to acquisition and loss
of citizenship subsequent to the
commencement of the Constitution.
2. Parliament is empowered to enact laws
to provide for matters related to
citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80.

Which of the following statements is true


regarding
National
Investment
and
Infrastructure Fund?
1. The fund will be used in both
commercially viable and stalled projects.
2. The fund will be used to raise debt and
in turn invest it as equity in
infrastructure finance companies.
3. It is set up by Ministry of Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above

81.

Consider the following statements:


1. In a Parliamentary system, the executive
leader is elected from the legislative
branch directly.
2. In case of differing opinions of the
legislature and the executive, it is easier
to enact legislation under the
Presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

consider the following statements:


1. An illegal migrant can acquire the
Citizenship of India by naturalization if
he is ordinarily resident in India for 12
years.
2. Government of India may terminate the
citizenship of a person acquired by
Naturalization or Registration if he/she
is imprisoned in any country for two
years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
77.

Which of the following feature is similar in


the USA and Indian Constitution?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

78.

Independent Judiciary
Independent Centre and state
Appointment of Governors
Citizenship

Which of the following institutions has/have


bearing on the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
1. Supreme Court
2. Panchayati Raj Institutions
3. Archeological Survey of India
4. Khadi

and

Village

Industries

Commission
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16

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82.

Pay commissions final report is submitted:

85.

Consider the following statements:


1. Protection of basic human rights

(a) To the President who in turn places it

2. Dispute Redressal mechanism

before the Parliament

3. Independent judiciary

(b) To the Finance minister, who in turn

4. Right to recall

places it before the Cabinet

Which of the above are the necessary

(c) To the Finance Minister who in turn

features

places it before the PAC

of

modern

representative

democracy?

(d) To the Prime minister, who in turn sends

(a) 1 and 3 only

to the Parliament for approval

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only


(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

83.

Which of the above scheme targets to reduce

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

the physical demand for gold?


86.

1. Sovereign gold bonds

Assertion (A): Sitting during the National


Anthem mean disrespect for the National

2. Gold Monetisation

Anthem under article 51-A.

3. Indian Gold Coin scheme

Reason (R): It is a constitutional duty of

Select the correct answer using the code

every citizen under article 51-A to respect

given below.

the ideals and institutions, the national flag

(a) 1 only

and the national anthem.

(b) 2 and 3 only

(a) A and R both are true and R is the

(c) 1, 2 and 3

correct explanation of A.

(d) None of the above

(b) A and R both are true but R is not a


correct explanation of A.

84.

(c) A is true but R is false.

Consider the following statements with

(d) A is false but R is true.

regards to Article 20:


1. It prohibits the state from enacting any
type of ex-post facto legislation.
2. It

protects

person

against

self

incrimination.

The term 'recurrent slope lineae' is in the


context of:
(a) Artificial neural network exhibiting
internal memory

Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?

(b) A new form of cancer therapy targeting


diseased cells only

(a) 1 only

(c) Dark streaks on the walls of certain

(b) 2 only

Martian craters that seem to wax and

(c) Both 1 and 2

wane with seasons


(d) Regular bursts of plasma from a star

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17

87.

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88.

Which of the above programs helped in

91.

Consider the following goverment projects:


1. Project Mausam is a project concerning
the creation of cultural links with Indias
maritime neighbours.
2. Project Sagarmala is an initiative to
enable port-led development confined to
infrastructure creation in Indian ports
only.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

92.

With reference to Morley-Minto Reforms


consider the following statements:
1. It enacted the Government of India Act,
1909.
2. It allowed the provincial legislative
councils to have non-official majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither of the above

93.

With reference to the Indian Parliament,


consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can add subjects enlisted in
the Union list under article 368 without
the consent from the half of the state
legislatures.
2. Parliament can delete subjects enlisted in
the State list under article 368 with
ratification from half of the state
legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus elimination


in India?
1. National Rural Health Mission
2. Janani Suraksha Yojana
3. Mission Indradhanush
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
89.

With reference to Fundamental Duties as


enshrined in the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements:
1. Supreme Court may take these duties in
consideration

to

determine

the

Constitutionality of any law.


2. Supreme Court has held that the duties
are obligatory for the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90.

With reference to Fundamental Duties,


consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental duties place civic as well
as moral duties on the citizen.
2. Some fundamental duties also extend to
foreigners.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18

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94.

Which of the followings are the differences

96.

With reference to the composition of the


Constituent
Assembly,
consider
the
following statements:
1. Seats alloted to the Provinces and
Princely States were in proportion to the
area.
2. Seats allocated to each British provinces
were to be decided among Hindus and
Muslims only.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97.

With reference to Fundamental Rights,


consider the following statements:
1. All Fundamental Rights are negative in
nature, that is, they place limitations on
the authority of the State.
2. All Fundamental Rights are horizontal in
nature, that is, they are available against
the arbitrary action of the State and not
against the action of private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

98.

Which of the following was/were Union


Territories before becoming States?
1. Goa
2. Manipur
3. Sikkim
4. Tripura
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

between Millennium Development Goals


(MDG) and Sustainable Development Goals
(SDG)?
1. MDG were in effect from 2000 to 2015
while SDG will remain in effect from
2015 to 2030.
2. MDG consisted of 21 targets, while
SDG consists of 169 targets.
3. There are specific targets in SDGs called
Urban Goals which were not included
under the MDGs.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

95.

Which of the following statements is/ are


true about Arbitration and Conciliation
(Amendment) Bill, 2015?
1. The arbitrators should settle disputes
within a period of one year.
2. The bill empowers arbitration tribunals
to grant all kinds of interim measures
that a court would provide.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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99.

With reference to 100th Constitutional


Amendment Act, 2015 which provided for a
land boundary agreement with Bangladesh,
consider the following statements:
1. The Act helped in settling boundary
disputes in the states of Meghalaya,
Assam, West Bengal and Tripura.
2. The Act amended the First Schedule of
the Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

100.

Consider the following statements:


1. Hyderabad and Junagarh were integrated
with India by means of referendum.
2. Kashmir

was

integrated

by

the

instrument of accession.
3. Both

Nagaland and

Mizoram was

integrated to India with the use of army


after independence.
4. Chhattisgarh,

Uttarakhand

and

Jharkhand were made new states based


on linguistic reorganisation
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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