Airbus Tech Quiz 2

A330 Specific A340-300 Specific ETOPS Limitations Miscellaneous/Operational Performance, Weight and
Balance Air Conditioning - Pressurisation Autoflight - FMGS Comm Electrical Fire Protection Flight
Controls Fuel Hydraulics Ice and Rain Indicating Recording System Landing Gear Navigation Oxygen APU Pneumatics Power Plant
ATA21 Air Conditioning - Pressurisation
What does the pack anti-ice valve do after a pack controller dual channelfailure:It controls the corresponding pack
outlet temperature at 5 Degrees C +/- 4Degrees C.It runs to the full cold position.It runs to the full hot
position.1.21.10 p10On the ground with passengers on board:Two ground air conditioning units should be
connected.It is not recommended to exceed a duration of 20 minutes without airconditioning.Ground air
conditioning must be connected if APU is INOP.3.04.21 p1Pack flow should be selected to:LO if the APU is
supplying air to the packs.HI for abnormally Hot or humid conditions.
LO if less than 175 seats in economy class are occupied.Since changed 3.03.06 p4How is the bulk cargo
compartment temperature controlled?Depending on the temperature selected from the bulk cargo
temperatureselector, hot or cold air is pumped into the bulk compartment via the trim airvalve or cold air valve.If
the temp sensor indicates the bulk compartment is cooler than what hasbeen selected via the overhead temp selector,
then an electric heater willoperate at all times on the ground or in the air.Air from the cabin passes through an
electric heater which only operateswhen the temp sensor indicates that the compartment temperature is lessthan the
selected temperature and the BULK cargo door is closed.1.21.40 p3In the event of a PACK 1 + 2 FAULT, which is
correct?The FAULT light will extinguish when the respective pack is selected off.The rate of cabin altitude
increase can be minimised by closing the CARGOISOL VALVES.RAM AIR should be selected on when DIFF
PR/5-1 PSI and below 10,000ft3.02.21 p3What will happen if, on the ground with LP Ground Air connected, all
doorsclosed, the DITCHING pb is selected ON?Pressurization will not be possible.The outflow valves will be
driven fully open.A differential pressure will build up.1.21.20 p12Where does the cockpit air supply come from?
It is supplied with fresh air from the mixer unit.It is supplied directly from Pack 2.It is supplied from the
recirculation fans.1.21.10 p2What condition(s) could trigger ENG 1(2) BLEED FAULT?An overheat, overpressure or low pressure condition.A Low pressure condition coupled with a loss of the backflow
protectionfunction.Selection of the X - BLEED valve to "CLOSE".
1.36.20
p7top
ATA22 Auto Flight / FMGS
With all engines operating, and autothrust disconnected, and regardless of thrust lever positions, alpha floor
is:Available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach at speeds < M.53.Only available when the aircraft is above
100 ft RA and the flaps areretracted, provided de-rated takeoff thrust is not selected.Not available at speeds <
M.53.1.22.30 p88The windshear detection function is active:At all times.Below 2,000 ft RA with the aircraft
configured for landing.On landing, between 1300 ft and 50 ft RA, with at least Config 1.1.22.40 p5In order to
access BACKUP NAV mode on the MCDU MENU, it is necessary tohave the FM source select switch in
position:Both on 1.Both on 2.NORM position.4.06.10 p5To intercept a glideslope from above:Select V/S,
set FCU target altitude above the aircraft crossing altitude anddescend to the glideslope.Select the FCU target
altitude above the aircraft crossing altitude, and pullfor OP DES to maintain thrust at idle.Select NAV and OPEN
DES.Not quite correct FCTM 6.40.2When are the ADF frequencies autotuned:Never.If an NDB approach has
been selected, or if the TO or FROM waypoint is anNDB.At any time that a manual selection has not been
made.1.22.20 p16During an ILS approach, when does data lock prevent selection of anotherILS frequency?When
established and below 1,500 ft RA.At 700 ft RA.At 400 ft RA.3.04.91 p23
not use the MCDU with this message displayed.4.03.30 p8On the Position Monitor page of the MCDU, the IRS 1, 2
and 3 deviationsare:Deviation in nm from the Mix IRS position.Deviation in nm from the on-side FMGC
position.Always the same on both MCDU 1 and 2.4.4.03.20 p83Which statement is correct, if, while flying a fully
managed non-precisionapproach, you receive a NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE message (FMA modeis in
FINAL APP)?You must revert to selected guidance, and continue the approach.You can continue to fly a
managed approach if raw data indicates that theguidance is satisfactory.In IMC, you must immediately initiate a

missed approach.3.03.19 p3The FMGS is certified for Required Navigation Performance RNP/RNAVoperations.
When GPS Primary mode is available, the minimum RNP's forapproach have been demonstrated to be?0.3 nm
(0.31 nm in some aircraft) when AP or FD are used or AP and FDOFF.0.5 nm (0.51 nm in some aircraft) when AP
or FD are used and 1.0 nm inmanual control.0.3 nm (0.31 nm in some aircraft) when AP or FD are used.3.01.22
p1Which of the following must the pilot check before commencing a GPSapproach?GPS PRIMARY is displayed
on the NDAt least 1 GPS is operatingBoth GPS are in NAV on the GPS Monitor pageQRH 3.03The FM
database may contain an altitude constraint window (2 altitudesbetween which the aircraft must fly passing a given
waypoint). When canthe pilot enter such a constraint?Can only enter such a constraint on the ground.Can only
enter such a constraint during flight phase 6.Cannot enter such a constraint manually.4.03.20 p50
When will a time constraint, entered in the F-PLN, be automatically deleted?Entering a holding pattern, or in the
event of an engine failure.If either FMGEC fails.When an OPT STEP is inserted.4.03.30 p11Which of the
following statements is correct in regards to the GO AROUNDphase of flight?According to the FMGS, prediction
are available.GA TRACK will automatically sequence to NAV provided the TO waypointhas been
sequenced.In order to engage NAV mode, the HEADING knob must be pushed.4.05.80 p4The SRS flight
guidance laws provide speed targets in SRS and includessome attitude protection. In the case of windshear, what
maximum attitudedoes the guidance law reduce the aircraft nose-up attitude to, duringtakeoff?17.5
degrees.22.5 degrees.30 degrees.1.22.30 p56There are 4 main different navigation modes to update the FM
position. (Indecreasing priority they are: IRS-GPS, IRS-DME/VOR, IRS-VOR/DME, IRSONLY.) In IRS ONLY
navigation mode which statement is true concerningestimated Position Error (EPE)?EPE increases continuously
at 8 nm / hour for the first 21 minutes and 2nm / hour thereafter.EPE increases at 8 nm / hour for the first 21
minutes and 2 nm / hourthereafter until a maximum predetermined maximum EPE is reached.Because of the high
EPE there will never be a NAV ACCY HIGH indication onthe PROGRESS Page.1.22.20 p9An aircraft encountering
windshear (below a certain energy threshold) willgenerate a signal. When is this detectionfunction active?At all
times that the aircraft is configured with flaps/slats extended.At takeoff when up to 1,000 ft RA or, below 2,000 ft
with the aircraftconfigured for landing.Lift off to 1300 ft on takeoff, and 1300 ft to 50 ft on landing, with at
leastConfig 1 selected.1.22.40 p5
For a circling approach, which of the following statements is correct?The secondary flight plan should be a copy
of the active with the landingrunway revised and this should be activated by the PNF on downwind.The
secondary flight plan should have the route and approach to thealternate, and this should be activated by the PNF on
downwind in casevisual reference is lost.It is recommended to disengage the autopilot as soon as visual reference
isestablished.FCTM 6.6.1How is the failure of an ILS transmitter (after LOC and G/S Capture) initiallyindicated?
Red LOC and G/S flags on the PFD and ND.Amber LOC and G/S flags on the PFD and ND.FD bars, LOC
and G/S scales flashing, deviation indices lost.4.05.70 p16top
ATA23 Comm
In later aircraft an ATSU is installed which manages ADS, datalinkcommunication on the DCDU (CPDLC), and the
ACARS function. The ATSUtransmits through various communication links, one of which is VHF3. If thisfails will
CPDLC (and other functions) still be available?Yes, available using VHF 2 or SATCOM.Yes, available using
SATCOM or HF1 (If HF Datalink Installed).No, not available.1.23.45 p1 1.46.10 p2Must the pilot do anything in
order to inform ATC that the aircraft is capableof Datalink Communications?ATS Facilities Notification (AFN) is
necessary, however no pilot action isrequired.A CPDLC downlink message must be sent to each applicable ATC
centre.AFN is necessary and the pilot initiates this.V2P2 3-1-6 5.3 [Ops Man Pt A 8.3.13.23.1]Which statement is
correct concerning Automatic Dependent Surveillance(ADS)?It must be manually armed by the crew before ATC
centres can connect.It is normally armed but the crew can select it off on the CONNECTIONSTATUS page.It is
normally armed and the crew can connect themselves to up to 4 ATC
centres.1.46.55 p1What message will occur in the case of a Datalink Communication lossbetween the aircraft and
ground?A COM DATALINK STBY ECAM message is displayed.A pulsing green DATALINK STBY memo
message is displayed.A steady green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.1.46.20 p2top
ATA24 Electrical
The No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) function:Avoids bar power interruptions on the ground only.May take
up to 5 seconds for the APU GEN, with GPU connected.Is available on the ground and in flight.1.24.10
p7Following a DC BUS 2 FAULT, the PRIM 2 (A340) / SEC 2 (A330) FAULT lighton the overhead panel is
illuminated. A PRIM 2 / SEC 2 reset:Should NOT be attempted, as this light is unduly illuminated.Should be

attempted after checking on the ECAM STATUS page that it isnot forbidden.Should be attempted, as this is
normal procedure and is called for in theECAM procedure.3.02.24 p18With the APU running and external power A
and B available:External Power A supplies the left side and External Power B supplies theright side.The APU
supplies the left side and External Power A supplies the right side.The APU supplies the left side and External
Power B supplies the right side.1.24.10 p10With EMER EXIT LTS set to ARM, when will the cabin emergency
lightingautomatically illuminate?Only when the DC ESS bus fails.Only when the normal aircraft electrical
power fails.Both of the above failures will cause automatic illumination.1.33.30 p4
What would occur if the MAN ON Pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressedwhile the green hydraulic system
is pressurized?The RAT would deploy whether the aircraft is on the ground or in flight.The emergency
generator starts running and connects to the electricalnetwork whether on the ground or in flight.The emergency
generator would connect the charging circuit to the busbars if the battery voltage is less than 23.5V.1.24.20 p10Once
the EMERG GEN is running, when and how can it be turned "OFF"?It can be manually selected off by the crew,
after landing during the taxiphase.It cannot be manually selected off by the crew.It can be deselected by the
crew, once normal electrical power has beenrestored.No direct reference infer from 1.24.10 p18Which statement is
true regarding the IDG Pb?It must be held for at least 3 seconds to ensure proper IDG disconnection.It contains
a Fault light, which illuminates when oil temperature falls belowa pre-determined value.It should not be held for
more than about 3 seconds to ensure proper IDGdisconnection.1.24.20 p5When and, by whom, does the pre flight
Battery voltage check need to beperformed?The PNF, if the aircraft has not been electrically supplied (i.e. Full
ElectricalPower Up required).The PNF, on every crew change or when transiting Hong Kong.It is not
considered a crew duty as this is a maintenance procedure.3.04.24 p2top
ATA26 Fire Protection
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE Pb will perform numerous functions,these include:Silence the aural fire
warning, closes the low and high pressure fuel valves,arms the fire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire
valve and closesthe pack flow control valve.Silence the aural fire warning, closes the high pressure fuel valve,
arms thefire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the pack
flow control valve.Silence the aural fire warning, closes the low pressure fuel valve, arms thefire extinguisher
squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the packflow control valve.1.26.20 p5In the event of smoke in the
cabin:The cockpit window should not be opened unless dense smoke is in thecockpit.The cockpit window
should not be opened before the RAM AIR Pb isselected OFF.Packs should be selected to LO to reduce
ventilation.Barry Badenhorst said (a)If an APU fire is detected in flight:An automatic APU shutdown and agent
discharge will occur.An automatic APU shutdown will occur; manual agent discharge is required.The APU Fire
Pb must be pressed.(c)What operations/actions are required for smoke detected in the avionicscompartment?
When smoke is detected immediate actions include setting the Vent Extractpb to OVRD with or without ECAM
activation, however, after the ECAM isdisplayed the ECAM checklist must be followed even if non avionics smoke
issuspected.When air conditioning smoke is suspected the crew should set the VentExtract pb to OVRD and may
continue with the paper checklist or switch tothe ECAM procedure when displayed.The Vent Extract pb should be
set to OVRD once Emergency ElectricalConfiguration has been established.QRH 1.10 not well writtenIn the event
of smoke in the cabin, several actions are available. Which of the following apply?The cockpit window should not
be opened unless dense smoke persists inthe cockpit and the aircraft is at FL100.The cockpit window should not
be opened before the RAM AIR Pb isselected to "OFF" and the aircraft altitude is FL100.Packs should be selected
to LO to reduce ventilation and decrease the cabinaltitude.QRH 1.12

centres.1.46.55 p1What message will occur in the case of a Datalink Communication lossbetween the aircraft and
ground?A COM DATALINK STBY ECAM message is displayed.A pulsing green DATALINK STBY memo
message is displayed.A steady green DATALINK STBY memo message is displayed.1.46.20 p2top
ATA24 Electrical
The No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) function:Avoids bar power interruptions on the ground only.May take
up to 5 seconds for the APU GEN, with GPU connected.Is available on the ground and in flight.1.24.10

p7Following a DC BUS 2 FAULT, the PRIM 2 (A340) / SEC 2 (A330) FAULT lighton the overhead panel is
illuminated. A PRIM 2 / SEC 2 reset:Should NOT be attempted, as this light is unduly illuminated.Should be
attempted after checking on the ECAM STATUS page that it isnot forbidden.Should be attempted, as this is
normal procedure and is called for in theECAM procedure.3.02.24 p18With the APU running and external power A
and B available:External Power A supplies the left side and External Power B supplies theright side.The APU
supplies the left side and External Power A supplies the right side.The APU supplies the left side and External
Power B supplies the right side.1.24.10 p10With EMER EXIT LTS set to ARM, when will the cabin emergency
lightingautomatically illuminate?Only when the DC ESS bus fails.Only when the normal aircraft electrical
power fails.Both of the above failures will cause automatic illumination.1.33.30 p4
What would occur if the MAN ON Pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressedwhile the green hydraulic system
is pressurized?The RAT would deploy whether the aircraft is on the ground or in flight.The emergency
generator starts running and connects to the electricalnetwork whether on the ground or in flight.The emergency
generator would connect the charging circuit to the busbars if the battery voltage is less than 23.5V.1.24.20 p10Once
the EMERG GEN is running, when and how can it be turned "OFF"?It can be manually selected off by the crew,
after landing during the taxiphase.It cannot be manually selected off by the crew.It can be deselected by the
crew, once normal electrical power has beenrestored.No direct reference infer from 1.24.10 p18Which statement is
true regarding the IDG Pb?It must be held for at least 3 seconds to ensure proper IDG disconnection.It contains
a Fault light, which illuminates when oil temperature falls belowa pre-determined value.It should not be held for
more than about 3 seconds to ensure proper IDGdisconnection.1.24.20 p5When and, by whom, does the pre flight
Battery voltage check need to beperformed?The PNF, if the aircraft has not been electrically supplied (i.e. Full
ElectricalPower Up required).The PNF, on every crew change or when transiting Hong Kong.It is not
considered a crew duty as this is a maintenance procedure.3.04.24 p2top
ATA26 Fire Protection
Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE Pb will perform numerous functions,these include:Silence the aural fire
warning, closes the low and high pressure fuel valves,arms the fire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire
valve and closesthe pack flow control valve.Silence the aural fire warning, closes the high pressure fuel valve,
arms thefire extinguisher squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the pack
flow control valve.Silence the aural fire warning, closes the low pressure fuel valve, arms thefire extinguisher
squibs, closes the hydraulic fire valve and closes the packflow control valve.1.26.20 p5In the event of smoke in the
cabin:The cockpit window should not be opened unless dense smoke is in thecockpit.The cockpit window
should not be opened before the RAM AIR Pb isselected OFF.Packs should be selected to LO to reduce
ventilation.Barry Badenhorst said (a)If an APU fire is detected in flight:An automatic APU shutdown and agent
discharge will occur.An automatic APU shutdown will occur; manual agent discharge is required.The APU Fire
Pb must be pressed.(c)What operations/actions are required for smoke detected in the avionicscompartment?
When smoke is detected immediate actions include setting the Vent Extractpb to OVRD with or without ECAM
activation, however, after the ECAM isdisplayed the ECAM checklist must be followed even if non avionics smoke
issuspected.When air conditioning smoke is suspected the crew should set the VentExtract pb to OVRD and may
continue with the paper checklist or switch tothe ECAM procedure when displayed.The Vent Extract pb should be
set to OVRD once Emergency ElectricalConfiguration has been established.QRH 1.10 not well writtenIn the event
of smoke in the cabin, several actions are available. Which of the following apply?The cockpit window should not
be opened unless dense smoke persists inthe cockpit and the aircraft is at FL100.The cockpit window should not
be opened before the RAM AIR Pb isselected to "OFF" and the aircraft altitude is FL100.Packs should be selected
to LO to reduce ventilation and decrease the cabinaltitude.QRH 1.12
How are aural or visual warnings cancelled with an ENG FIRE?The aural warning stops when the ENG
MASTER switch is selected OFF.The ENG FIRE Pb light will extinguish when the Pb is pressed.The aural
warning stops when the ENG FIRE Pb is pushed.1.26.20 p7During an engine fire procedure how would the crew
ascertain that the firehas been extinguished?The aural warning stops when fire conditions no longer exist.The
ENG FIRE pushbutton light extinguishes when fire conditions no longerexist.In any event AGENT 1 must be
discharged regardless of the state of thewarning.1.26.20 p5 3.02.26 p2Which of the following statements correctly
represent the operation of theagent Squib light?The SQUIB light illuminates white when the flight crew release
the ENGFIRE button.The SQUIB light illuminates white when the AGENT Pb is pressed, with orwithout a

detected fire.The SQUIB light illuminates amber when the associated fire extinguisherbottle has lost
pressure.1.26.20 p5Why should the Fire pb not be pushed during a Tailpipe Fire?This would disable the engine
fire bottles from discharging.The fire pushbutton shuts off the engine bleed valves shutting off starterair.This
would de-energize FADEC and prevent the motoring sequence.1.36.10 p3 QRH 2.25How can the Smoke Detection
System be reset in flight?Pull FWC 1 reset button, wait 3 seconds then push it. Then perform thesame action with
FWC 2.Simultaneously pull SDCU 1 and 2 reset buttons wait 3 seconds, then pushthem.Pull SDCU 1 and
SDCU 2 reset buttons, wait 1 second then push them.QRH 2.35 TRWhile operating an Olympus Class aircraft, what
occurs if smoke is detectedin the air extraction duct of the Inflight Entertainment Centre?An ECAM smoke
warning is triggered and a red SMOKE light comes on inthe IFEC pushbutton on the overhead panel.
The power to the IFEC is shutdown immediately.Visual and Aural warnings are provided in the cabin, the
power to the IFECentre has to be switched off at the VCC.1.26.56 p1top
ATA27 Flight Controls
The "A LOCK" message:Replaces the F symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.Appears when
speed falls below 148 kt if the flaps are up.Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has
beenactivated.1.27.50 p9During a GA from the runway in CONF FULL, after application of TOGA, thecrew would
expect:Continuous Repetitive Chime, Master Warning and ECAM CONFIG FLAPSNOT IN TO
CONFIG.FLAP/MCDU DISAGREE message.No warnings due flight phase inhibit.FCTM 7.20.3"USE MAN
PITCH TRIM" message is displayed on the PFD:In amber when in Direct Law.Indicates that manual pitch trim
must be used to control the aircraftattitude in pitch.Indicates that the alpha floor function, Overspeed and Stall
Warnings areinoperative.1.1.27.30 p5When and where does the "A LOCK" message appear?Replaces the F
symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.Replaces the S symbol when speed falls below 148 kt if the
flaps arealready up.Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has beenactivated, preventing flap
retracting from 1 to 0.1.27.50 p7When is the overspeed ECAM warning provided?At VMO.At VMO + 4
Knots.

How are aural or visual warnings cancelled with an ENG FIRE?The aural warning stops when the ENG
MASTER switch is selected OFF.The ENG FIRE Pb light will extinguish when the Pb is pressed.The aural
warning stops when the ENG FIRE Pb is pushed.1.26.20 p7During an engine fire procedure how would the crew
ascertain that the firehas been extinguished?The aural warning stops when fire conditions no longer exist.The
ENG FIRE pushbutton light extinguishes when fire conditions no longerexist.In any event AGENT 1 must be
discharged regardless of the state of thewarning.1.26.20 p5 3.02.26 p2Which of the following statements correctly
represent the operation of theagent Squib light?The SQUIB light illuminates white when the flight crew release
the ENGFIRE button.The SQUIB light illuminates white when the AGENT Pb is pressed, with orwithout a
detected fire.The SQUIB light illuminates amber when the associated fire extinguisherbottle has lost
pressure.1.26.20 p5Why should the Fire pb not be pushed during a Tailpipe Fire?This would disable the engine
fire bottles from discharging.The fire pushbutton shuts off the engine bleed valves shutting off starterair.This
would de-energize FADEC and prevent the motoring sequence.1.36.10 p3 QRH 2.25How can the Smoke Detection
System be reset in flight?Pull FWC 1 reset button, wait 3 seconds then push it. Then perform thesame action with
FWC 2.Simultaneously pull SDCU 1 and 2 reset buttons wait 3 seconds, then pushthem.Pull SDCU 1 and
SDCU 2 reset buttons, wait 1 second then push them.QRH 2.35 TRWhile operating an Olympus Class aircraft, what
occurs if smoke is detectedin the air extraction duct of the Inflight Entertainment Centre?An ECAM smoke
warning is triggered and a red SMOKE light comes on inthe IFEC pushbutton on the overhead panel.
The power to the IFEC is shutdown immediately.Visual and Aural warnings are provided in the cabin, the
power to the IFECentre has to be switched off at the VCC.1.26.56 p1top
ATA27 Flight Controls
The "A LOCK" message:Replaces the F symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.Appears when
speed falls below 148 kt if the flaps are up.Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has
beenactivated.1.27.50 p9During a GA from the runway in CONF FULL, after application of TOGA, thecrew would
expect:Continuous Repetitive Chime, Master Warning and ECAM CONFIG FLAPSNOT IN TO
CONFIG.FLAP/MCDU DISAGREE message.No warnings due flight phase inhibit.FCTM 7.20.3"USE MAN
PITCH TRIM" message is displayed on the PFD:In amber when in Direct Law.Indicates that manual pitch trim

must be used to control the aircraftattitude in pitch.Indicates that the alpha floor function, Overspeed and Stall
Warnings areinoperative.1.1.27.30 p5When and where does the "A LOCK" message appear?Replaces the F
symbol when a wing tip brake is applied to the flaps.Replaces the S symbol when speed falls below 148 kt if the
flaps arealready up.Replaces the S symbol when the alpha/speed lock function has beenactivated, preventing flap
retracting from 1 to 0.1.27.50 p7When is the overspeed ECAM warning provided?At VMO.At VMO + 4
Knots.
At VMO + 6 Knots.1.27.20 p6When does the sidestick priority "Red Arrow" illuminate in front of a pilot?
When that pilot has lost authority.When that pilot has regained authority.When the opposite sidestick is not at
neutral.1.27.40 p7Condition shown in [deleted] graphic: After Take-Off, with trailing edge flapsat a CONF 1 + F
configuration. Which is correct for the conditions/ actionsstated?Correctly indicating above 200 kt, speed
increasing select flaps to "Zero".Correctly indicating above 210 kt, speed increasing select flaps "UP" assoon as
the flaps "F" begins retracting.Correctly indicating at 215 kt, speed increasing, trailing edge flaps
willautomatically retract and be confirmed on the flap indication.1.27.50 p4Which statement is correct if one SFCC
is inoperative?Flaps and Slats operate at half normal speed.Flaps and slats both operate at normal speed.Slats
operate normally, but the flaps operate at half speed.1.27.50 p2When does the pitch flight control laws change from
flare mode to groundmode?When RA is < 50 Feet.Immediately the wheels are on the ground.5 seconds after
the ground condition has been confirmed, provided pitchattitude is < 2.5 Degrees.1.27.20 p1Which statement is
correct in relation to the Flap Load Relief System (FLRS)?It is available in CONF 1, 2, 3 and FULL.In case of
FLRS activation, an Flashing overspeed warning is provided onECAM.The upper ECAM shows a flashing
"RELIEF" message when the FLRS isactivated.1.27.50 p4If the rudder pedals become jammed, what is the
recommended procedurefor directional control on landing?Use nosewheel steering handle as soon as the
nosewheels touch down.
Use asymmetric reverse thrust ASAP.Use differential braking ASAP.QRH 2.02top
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