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Buzzwords for the Boards: USMLE Step I

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4.

What is associated with: Starry sky pattern?: Burkitt's


lymphoma
Which organ most commonly recieves mets?: Adrenal gland
(rich blood supply)
What is the most common testicular tumor in children? in
Men?: Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
What is associated with: Auer's rods?: Acute myelocytic
leukemia (AML)-M3

30.

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What is associated with: Cafe au fait spot on the skin?:


Neurofibromatosis
What is associated with: Streaky ovaries?: Turner's
syndrome
What is associated with: Keratin pearls?: Squamous cell
carcinoma
What is associated with: Signet ring cells?: Gastric carcinoma
What is associated with: Mallory's bodies?: Chronic
alcoholism

5.

What is associated with: Aschoff's bodies?: Rheumatic fever

6.

What is associated with: Birbeck granules?: Histiocytosis X

35.

What is associated with: Neurofibrillary tangles?: Alzheimer's


disease

36.

What is associated with: Bence-Jones proteinuria?: Multiple


myeloma

37.

What is associated with: Senile plaques?: Alzheimer's disease

38.

What is associated with: WBCs in the urine?: Acute cystitis

7.

8.

9.

What is associated with: Cal-Exner bodies?: Granulosa/thecal


cell tumor of the ovary

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39.

What is associated with: Cowdry type A bodies?: Herpes


virus

40.

What is associated with: Codman's triangle on an x-ray?:


Osteosarcoma

41.

What is associated with: Councilman bodies?: Toxic or viral


hepatitis

42.

What is associated with: Calf pseudohypertrophy?:


Duchenne's muscular dystrophy

43.

What is associated with: Reed-Sternberg cells?: Hodgkin's


lymphoma

44.

What is associated with: Heinz bodies?: G-6-PD deficiency


What is associated with: Homer-Wright rosettes?:
Neuroblastoma
What is associated with: Curschmann's spirals?: Bronchial
asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
What is associated with: Kayser-Fleischer rings?: Wilson's
disease
What is associated with: Lewy bodies?: Parkinson's disease
What is associated with: Orphan Annie cells?: Papillary
carcinoma of the ovary

21.

What is associated with: Russell bodies?: Multiple myeloma

22.

What is associated with: Reinke's crystals?: Leydig cell tumor

45.

46.

47.

48.
49.

50.

What is associated with: Blue sclera?: Osteogenesis


imperfecta

51.

What is associated with: Soap-bubble appearance on an xray?: Giant cell tumor of the bone

52.

25.

What is associated with: Pseudorosettes?: Ewing's sarcoma

53.

26.

What is associated with: Lucid interval?: Epidural hematoma

23.

24.

27.

28.

29.

What is associated with: Bloody tap on lumbar puncture?:


Subarachnoid hemorrhage

54.
55.

What is associated with: Pseudopalisades?: Glioblastoma


multiforme

56.

What is associated with: Charcot-Leyden crystals?: Bronchial


asthma (eosinophil membranes)

57.

What is associated with: Blue-domed cysts?: Fibrocystic


change of the breast
What is associated with: Schiller-Duval bodies?: Yolk sac
tumor

What is associated with: RBCs in the urine?: Bladder


carcinoma
What is associated with: RBC casts in the urine?: Acute
glomerulonephritis
What is associated with: WBC casts in the urine?: Acute
pyelonephritis
What is associated with: Renal epithelial casts in the urine?:
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
What is associated with: Waxy casts?: Chronic end-stage
renal disease
What is the most common: Cause of chronic metal
poisoning?: Lead
What is the most common: Cause of congenital cyanotic
heart disease?: Tetralogy of Fallot
What is the most common: Congenital cardiac anomaly?:
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
What is the most common: Cardiac tumor?: Left atrial
myxoma
What is the most common: Vasculitis?: Temporal arteritis
What is the most common: Primary tumor of the liver?:
Hemangioma (benign)
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the
lungs?: Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
What is the most common: Cause of nephrotic syndrome?:
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
What is the most common: cause of nephrotic syndrome in
children?: Lipoid nephrosis
What is the most common: Organism that causes
pyelonephritis?: Escherichia coli
What is the most common: Renal cell cancer type?: Clear cell
What is the most common: Tumor of the liver?: Metastatic
cancer (GI, breast, lungs)
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the
esophagus?: Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Tumor arising within the bone?:
Multiple myeloma

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What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the


female genital tract in the world?: Cervical neoplasia
What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the
female genital tract in the US?: Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
What is the most common: Tumor of the female
genitourinary tract?: Leiomyoma
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the ovary?:
Serocystadenoma
What is the most common: Benign tumor of the breast?:
Fibroadenoma
What is the most common: Benign lesion that affects the
breast?: Fibrocystic change of the breast
What is the most common: Malignant tumor of the breast?:
Invasive ductal carcinoma
What is the most common: Tumor in men between the ages
of 15 and 35?: Testicular tumors
What is the most common: Germ cell tumor in men?:
Seminoma
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in infants and
children?: Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common: Malignant germ cell tumor in
women?: Choriocarcinoma

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96.

What is the most common: Solid tumor in the body?:


Nephroblastoma

97.

What is the most common: Acquired GI emergency of


infancy?: Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy

98.

What is the most common: Cause of urinary tract


obstruction?: BPH
What is the most common: Eye tumor in children?:
Retinoblastoma
What is the most common: Intraspinal tumor?:
Ependymoma
What is the most common: Lymph node affected in nonHodgkin's lymphoma?: Periaortic lymph nodes
What is the most common: Renal pathology in patients
with SLE?: Diffuse proliferative GN
What is the most common: Cause of cirrhosis in the USA?:
Alcohol
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in women?:
Breast
What is the most common: Cancer of the vulva?: Squamous
cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Testicular tumor in children?:
Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common: Benign GI tumor?: Leiomyoma
What is the most common: Thyroid cancer?: Papillary
carcinoma
What is the most common: Malignancy in children?: ALL
What is the most common: Cause of diarrhea in children?:
Rotavirus
What is the most common: Cause of hospitalization in
children younger than 1 year of age?: Respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV)

What is the most common: Primary malignant tumor of the


ovary?: Serocystadenocarcinoma

99.

What is the most common: Cardiac tumor of infancy?:


Rhabdomyoma

100.

What is the most common: Acute metal poisoning?: Arsenic


What is the most common: Proliferative abnormality of an
internal organ?: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
What is the most common: Malignant tumor in the bone of
teenagers?: Osteosarcoma
What is the most common: Site of a cerebral infarct?:
Middle cerebral artery
What is the most common: Cause of dementia between the
ages of 60 and 90 years?: Alzheimer's disease
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in adults?:
Glioblastoma multiforme
What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor in
children?: Medullablastoma
What is the most common: Tumor on sun-exposed sites?:
Basal cell carcinoma
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder?: Down
syndrome (trisomy 21)
What is the most common: Heart defect in Down
syndrome?: Endocardial cushion defect
What is the most common: Chromosomal disorder
involving sex chromosomes?: Kleinfelter's syndrome
What is the most common: Cardiac pathology in patients
with SLE?: Libman-Sacks endocarditis

What is the most common: Helminthic parasite


worldwide?: Ascaris lumbricoides
What is the most common: Cause of anovulation?:
Polycystic ovaries
What is the most common: Cause of death in neonates?:
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)

101.

What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in children?:


Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

102.

What is the most common: Congenital heart defect in


adults?: Atrial septal defect (ASD)

103.

What is the most common: Complication of PDA?:


Subacute bacterial endocarditis

104.

What is the most common: Cardiac anomaly in Turner's


syndrome?: Coarctation of the aorta

105.

What is the most common: Cause of restrictive


cardiomyopathy?: Amyloidosis

106.

What is the most common: Cause of pulmonary


hypertension in children?: VSD

107.

What is the most common: Cause of reversible


hypertension in the USA?: Alcohol abuse

108.

What is the most common: Inflammatory arthritis?:


Rheumatoid arthritis

109.

What is the most common: Cause of spontaneous


pneumothorax?: Emphysematous bleb

110.

What is the most common: Cause of nonorganic


pneumoconiosis?: Asbestosis

111.

What is the most common: Cause of painless hematuria?:


Renal cell carcinoma

112.

113.

What is the most common: Cause of hematuria?: Infection

What is the most common: Hematologic cause of papillary


necrosis?: Sickle cell disease

114.

What is the most common: Organ involved in


amyloidosis?: Kidney

115.

What is the most common: Cause of rectal bleeding?:


Diverticulosis

140.

What chromosomal translocation is associated with:


Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML?: Chromosome 9,22
(Philadelphia chromosome)

141.

142.

What chromosome: Ewing's sarcoma?: Chromosome 11,22

What chromosome: Adult familial polyposis?: Chromosome


5,21

143.

What is the most common: Cause of abnormal bleeding?:


Thrombocytopenia

144.

What is the most common: Cause of a nontraumatic


splenic rupture?: Malaria

145.

What is the most common: Cause of death in SLE?: Renal


failure

146.

What is the most common: Cause of infection for a patient


on a ventilator?: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

147.

What is the most common: Esophageal carcinoma?:


Squamous cell carcinoma

148.

What chromosome: Patau's syndrome?: Chromosome 13

149.

What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis I?: Chromosome 17

150.

What chromosome: Huntington's disease?: Chromosome 4p

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What is the most common: Cause of chronic pancreatitis?:


Alcohol abuse

121.

What chromosome: Burkitt's lymphoma?: Chromosome


8,14
What chromosome: Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)?:
Chromosome 15,17
What chromosome: Follicular lymphoma?: Chromosome
14,18
What chromosome is associated with: Cru di chat?:
Chromosome 5p

What is the most common: Cause of infectious


pancreatitis?: Mumps

151.

What is the most common: Complication of nasogastric


tube feeding?: Aspiration pneumonia

152.

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123.

What chromosome: Familial hypercholesterolemia?:


Chromosome 19
What chromosome: Gaucher's disease?: Chromosome 1

What chromosome: Neimann-Pick disease?: Chromosome


11p

153.

124.

What is the most common learning disability?: Dyslexia

125.

What is the most common: Cause of insomnia?: Depression

154.

What chromosome: Tay-Sachs disease?: Chromosome 15q

126.

What is the most common: Form of necrosis?: Coagulative

155.

What chromosome: Cystic fibrosis?: Chromosome 7

156.

What chromosome: Albinism?: Chromosome llp

What is the most common: Cause of blindness


worldwide?: Chlamydia trachomatis

127.

What is the most common: Cause of blindness in the USA?:


Diabetes mellitus

128.

What is the most common: Cause of the croup?:


Parainfluenza virus

129.

What chromosome: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?:


Chromosome 12

157.

158.

What chromosome: Marfan's disease?: Chromosome 15

What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis II?: Chromosome


22q

159.

What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the winter


and summer?: Coronavirus

160.

What chromosome: Down syndrome?: Chromosome 21

What is the most common: Cause of a cold in the spring


and fall?: Rhinovirus

161.

What chromosome: Edward's syndrome?: Chromosome 18

162.

130.

131.

What mineral is associated with impaired glucose


tolerance?: Chromium (Cr)

What is the most common: Cause of viral pneumonia


leading to death?: RSV

163.

What is the most common: Pituitary tumor?:


Chromophobe adenoma

164.

What is the most common: Cause of panhypopituitarism?:


Sheehan's syndrome

165.

What is the most common: Cause of Cushing's syndrome?:


Pituitary adenoma

166.

What is the most common: Kidney stone type?: Calcium


oxalate

167.

What is the most common: Site of ischemia in the GI


tract?: Splenic flexure

168.

What is the most common: Cause of intestinal


obstructions in adults?: Adhesions and hernias

169.

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138.

What is the most common: Cause of neonatal bowel


obstruction?: Hirschsprung's disease

139.

What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?: Iodine


(I)
What mineral is an important component of the enzyme
xanthine oxidase?: Molybdenum (Mb)
What vitamin deficiency has the following signs: angular
stomatitis, glossitis, and cheilosis?: Riboflavin (B2) deficiency
What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine
pyrophosphate (TPP)?: Thymine (Bl)
Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?: Biotin.
Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency?: 1. Diarrhea 2.
Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
What mineral is an important component of glutathione
peroxidase?: Selenium (Se)

What mineral deficiency in children is associated with


poor growth and impaired sexual development?: Zinc (Zn)
deficiency

170.

What is the antidote for an overdose with:


Organophosphates?: Atropine, 2-PAM

193.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Warfarin?:


Vitamin K

194.

What mineral, via excessive depositions in the liver, causes


hemochromatosis?: Iron (Fe)

195.

What vitamin is needed in the production of heme?:


Pyridoxine (B6)

196.

What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid


synthase and acyl CoA?: Pantothenic acid

197.

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What is the antidote for an overdose with: Copper?: DPenicillamine


What is the antidote for an overdose with: Heparin?:
Protamine sulfate
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Iron?:
Deferoxamine

What vitamin deficiency has the following signs:


homocysteinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?:
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency [Folic acid deficiency has only
homocysteinuria as a sign.]

198.

What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by the following


signs: poor wound healing, loose teeth, bleeding gums,
petechiae, and ecchymosis?: Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
deficiency (These are the signs of scurvy.)

200.

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175.

What vitamin is given as prophylactic treatment for


patients who suffer from alcoholism?: Thiamine (B1)-to
prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's
encephalopathy

176.

What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require


biotin?: 1. Pyruvate 2. Acetyl CoA 3.Propionyl CoA carboxylase

177.

What vitamin requires intrinsic factor (IF) for absorption?:


Cyanocobalamin (B12)

178.

What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3?: Copper


(Cu)

179.

Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental deterioration are


signs of what mineral deficiency?: Copper (Cu) deficiency

180.

What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking


neuropathy seen in alcoholics?: Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency

181.

What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?:


Copper (Cu) deficiency

182.

Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of


what vitamin deficiency?: Folic acid deficiency

183.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Cyanide?: Amyl


nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Methyl
alcohol?: Ethyl alcohol

199.

What is the antidote for an overdose with:


Acetaminophen?: N-Acetylcysteine
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Nitrates?:
Methylene blue

201.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Lead?: EDTA


(calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol, succimer

202.

What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?: The


mouth

203.

What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that


is of mesodermal origin?: Spleen

204.

In which direction and how far does the gut rotate?:


Counterclockwise 270 degrees

205.

What structure connects the primitive gut to the yolk


sac?: The yolk stalk (vitelline duct)

206.

What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?: The celiac


artery

207.

When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo?:


6 weeks

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209.

What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does


not return to the embryo?: Omphalocele and gastroschisis

210.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Carbon


monoxide?: Oxygen

211.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Mercury?:


Dimercaprol

212.

184.

185.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Isoniazid?:


Pyridoxine

186.

Around what structure does the midgut rotate?: Superior


mesenteric artery
What three things cause the indifferent gonad to become a
testis?: 1.Testis-determining factor (TDF) from the short arm of
the Y chromosome 2.Miillerian inhibiting factor (MIF) from Sertoli
cells 3.Testosterone from Leydig cells

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Atropine?:


Physostigmine

213.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Arsenic?:


Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine

214.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Digoxin?:


Antidigoxin Fab fragments

215.

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188.

189.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Gold?:


Dimercaprol

190.

What is the antidote for an overdose with: Ethylene


glycol?: Ethyl alcohol

191.

What is the antidote for an overdose with:


Opiates/narcotics?: Naloxone, naltrexone

192.

When does it return back into the embryo?: 10 weeks

Where does the embryologic foregutend?: At the first part of


the duodenum
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?: The inferior
mesenteric artery
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?: 1.
Cytotrophoblast 2. Symcytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembrvonic
mesoderm
Which neuropore closes last?: Caudal-and it is the first to
open, too.

216.

What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?: The superior


mesenteric artery

217.

From where are nephrons derived embryonically?:


Metanephros

218.

What are the five derivatives of the ventral mesentery?: 1.


Falciform ligament 2. Hepatoduodenal ligament 3. Hepatogastric
ligament 4 and 5. Coronary and triangular ligaments of the liver.
All else is derived from the dorsal mesentery.

219.

When do the septum primum and the septum secundum


of the heart fuse?: After birth

220.

The palatine tonsils are derived from what embryonic


structure?: Second pharyngeal pouch

242.

What are the sixth aortic arch derivatives?: Right and left
pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus

243.

The stapedial artery is derived from what?: Second aortic


arch

244.

The mesonephric ducts contribute to what renal


structures?: The collecting ducts, calyx, renal pelvis, and
ureters

245.

The cerebral cortex is a derivative of what?: The


telencephalon

246.

What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the:


Umbilical vein?: Ligamentum teres

247.

What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the:


Ductus venosus?: Ligamentum venosum

248.

What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the:


Foramen ovule?: Fossa ovule

249.

What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the:


Ductus arteriosus?: Ligamentum arteriosum

250.

What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the:


Umbilical artery?: Medial umbilical ligament

251.

Where does the hindgut end?: At the superior portion of the


anal canal

252.

Where does the midgut end?: At the right two thirds of the
transverse colon

253.

From where is the tongue musculature derived?: Occipital


somites

254.

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226.

227.

228.

229.

What two branchial arches contribute to the formation of


the anterior two thirds of the tongue?: First and some of the
second

230.

Of what embryonic structureis the coronary sinus a


derivative?: The left horn of the sinus venosus
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: First
pharyngeal arch?: CN V
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Second
pharyngeal arch?: CN VII
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Third
pharyngeal arch?: CN IX
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fourth
pharyngeal arch?: CN X
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fifth
pharyngeal arch?: None-it degenerates
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Sixth
pharyngeal arch?: CN X
From where is the external auditory meatus derived?: First
pharyngeal groove
From where is the smooth portion of the right atrium
derived?: Right horn of the sinus venosus
Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of what embryonic
structure?: Vitelline duct (yolk stalk)

255.

What are the two fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives?:


Superior parathyroid glands and the ultimobranchial body

256.

What two structures are derived from the fourth aortic


arch?: Arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery

257.

What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?:


Muscles of the internal eye

258.

What structure is derived from the first pharyngeal


pouch?: The middle ear

259.

What two branchial arches contribute to the posterior


two thirds of the tongue?: Third and part of the fourth

260.

What are the two third pharyngeal pouch derivatives?:


Inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus

261.

What structure is derived from the first aortic arch?:


Maxillary artery

262.

From what are the urinary bladder and the urethra


derived?: Urogenital sinus

263.

From what are the pulmonary trunk and the ascending


aorta derived?: Truncus arteriosum

264.

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236.

237.

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239.

What disorder will result when there is a failure of the


urachus to close, causing a leakage of urine out of the
umbilicus?: Urachal fistula

240.

The common carotid and the internal carotid arteries are


derivatives of what embryonic structure?: Third aortic arch

241.

The pons and cerebellum are derived from what portion of


the embryonic neural tissue?: Metencephalon
The medulla is a derivative of what portion of the
embryonic neural tissue?: Myelencephalon
What structure "tells" the overlying cells to begin
neurulation?: The notochord
What structure splits the cloacal membrane, resulting in
the formation of the perineum?: Urorectal septum
In the adult, the thoracic veins are derived from what
structure?: The cardinal veins
The gastrointestinal tract and abdominal veins are derived
from what structure?: Vitelline veins
From what is the thyroid gland derived?: The floor of the
endoderm (the posterior aspect of the tongue)
The thalamus and its related structures are derivatives of
what?: The diencephalon
Transcriptionally active DNA is known as what?:
Euchromatin

265.

Transcriptionally inactive DNA is called?: Heterochromatin

What is the only histone not found inside the


nucleosomes?: H1 histone-Its function is to bind nucleosomes
together.

266.

What coating protects proteins from intracellular


degradation?: Clathrin coating

267.

A nucleosome is made up of what two components?:


Histories and DNA

268.

What are the four functions of smooth endoplasmic


reticulum (SER)?: 1. Steroid synthesis 2. Drug detoxification 3.
Ca2+ handling 4. TAG resynthesis

269.

What vitamin is needed for the hydroxylation of proline


and lysine in collagen synthesis?: Vitamin C - Survy

291.

What are the two amino acids that cross-link elastin


molecules?: Desmosine and isodesmosine

292.

What is the major inorganic component of bone?:


Hydroxyapatite

293.

What are the long microvilli found in the inner ear and the
male reproductive tract called?: Stereocilia

294.

What cell junction type allows for communication


between two adjacent cells?: Gap junctions (nexus)

295.

Where are the enzymes for ATP production and the ETC
located?: Inner fold of the mitochondria membrane

296.

270.

271.

272.

What cell membrane structure increases the surface area


of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its
structure?: Microvillus

273.

What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic


system?: Osteoclasts
What are the two types of cells located in the
perichondrium of cartilage?: Fibroblasts and chondroblasts
What cell in the CNS is part of the mononuclear
phagocytic system?: Microglia
What substance, found in eosinophils, is toxic to parasitic
worms?: Major basic protein

297.

What is the function of desmosomes?: To hold adjacent cells


together (i.e., adhesion)

298.

What is the microtubule configuration of a basal body?: 9 +


0 microtubule arrangement

299.

274.

275.

What are the four components of the basement


membrane?: 1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3.
Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen

276.

The proteins that are to stay within the cell are produced
by what organelle?: Free polysome (polyribosome)

277.

What is the lysosomal post- translational modification of


proteins?: Phosphorylation of mannose residues

278.

What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and


respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?: Cilia

279.

What protein binds hemidesmosomes to the basal


lamina?: Integrin

280.

What intermediate filament is found in the zona


adherens?: Actin

281.

The proteins to be exported or incorporated into the


lysosome are produced by what organelle?: Bound polysome
(polyribosome), attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

282.

What is the function of the zonula occludens and the


zonula adherens?: To provide attachment between contiguous
cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier

283.

The following intermediate filaments are associated with


what cell types: Desmin?: Muscle cells

284.

The following intermediate filaments are associated with


what cell types: Cytokeratins?: Epithelial cells

285.

The following intermediate filaments are associated with


what cell types: Vimentin?: Mesenchymal cells

286.

The following intermediate filaments are associated with


what cell types: Neurofilaments?: Neurons

287.

The following intermediate filaments are associated with


what cell types: Glial filaments?: Astrocytes

288.

The basal lamina + the reticular lamina = what?: The


basement membrane

289.

What is the name of the organelle where collagen is made?:


Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

290.

Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen


fibril?: Extracellularly
What cell surface extension allows osteocytes in the
lacunaeto "talk" to each other?: Canaliculi
What cell type produces myelin in the CNS?:
Oligodendrocytes

300.

In which ventricles is/are choroid plexus found?: All four


ventricles

301.

302.

What muscle type has calmodulin?: Smooth muscle

What element is needed for the proper alignment of the


tropocollagen molecules?: Copper (Cu+)

303.

What is added to the procollagen molecules to prevent


intracellular precipitation?: Registration peptides

304.

In what tissue can you find intercalated disks?: Cardiac


muscle

305.

What are intercalated disks?: Dense bands containing


intercellular junctions that link adjacent cells mechanically and
electrically

306.

Of what are intercalated disks composed?: Fascia adherens


(mainly) Desmosomes Gap junctions

307.

What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?:


Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate

308.

What is the only glycosamino- glycan (GAG) that binds to


the linker portion of the proteoglycan?: Hyaluronic acid (all
sulfates bind to the core portion)

309.

What is the portion of an axon that lacks myelin and is rich


in Na+/K+ pumps?: Node of Ranvier

310.

What type of CNS cells have cilia, line the ventricles, and
contribute to the blood-brain barrier?: Ependymal cells

311.

What are the largest glial cells in the CNS (Hint: They
contribute to the blood- brain barrier.)?: Astrocytes

312.

Myelin is produced by what type of PNS cells?: Schwann


cells

313.

What is the dominant cell type in the lacunae of cartilage?:


Chondrocytes

314.

What structure runs perpendicular to the Haversian canals


in the bone?: Volkmann's canal

315.

What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the


blood-brain barrier?: 1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack
fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries

316.

317.

What types of muscle have troponin?: Skeletal and cardiac

What type of muscle is uninuclear and nonstriated?:


Smooth muscle - it lacks T tubules and has gap junctions

318.

On what area of the spleen are the APCs located?: Marginal


zone

319.

What is the dominant cell type in the red pulp of the


spleen?: Red blood cells

320.

On what area of the lymph node can you locate plasma


cells?: Medulla

321.

Which organs have fenestrated capillaries with


diaphragms?: Kidney, Intestines, Endocrine organs

341.

What secondary lymphoid tissue is encapsulated and has


germinal centers?: Peyer's patches

342.

What organs have sinusoid capillaries (leakiest type)?:


Liver, Bone marrow, Spleen

343.

What type of vessel has a thick tunica media?: Arteries.


Veins have a thick tunica adventitia.

344.

Is the spleen a capsulated organ with trabeculae?: Yesalthough it does not have cortical or medullary regions

345.

What secondary lymphoid organ is found just below the


stratified squamous epithel- ium and is partially
capsulated?: Tonsils

346.

What is the name of the area in the thymus where T cells


are produced?: Hassall's corpuscle

347.

What type of muscle is striated and multinuclear?: Skeletal


muscle- it of T tubules and SR at the A-I junction

348.

In what region of the spleen are the germinal centers


located?: White pulp-where B cell differentiation takes place

349.

What layer of the skin is missing in thin skin?: Stratum


lucidum

350.

What are the phagocytic cells of the GI tract called?:


Paneth cells (Paneth's granular cells)

351.

Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in


the GI tract?: IgA

352.

In what area of the spleen are the T cells located?:


Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)

353.

In what area of the lymph node are the T cells and the APCs
located?: Paracortical (thymic-dependent) area

354.

322.

323.

324.

325.

326.

327.

328.

329.

What type of muscle is striated, branched, and


uninuclear?: Cardiac muscle-dyadic T tubules with SR at the Z
line

330.

What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do


not?: An internal elastic lamina

331.

What two layers of skin makeup the malphighian layer?:


Stratum basalis and spinosus (mitotic area)

332.

What type of skin cells have the mature melanin granules?:


Keratinocytes. Melanocytes inject melanosomes into the
keratinocytes and mature there.

333.

What type of skin cells are part of the mononuclear


phagocytic system?: Langerhans' cells

334.

What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest,


act as mechano- receptors?: Merkel's cells (Merkel's tactile
cells)

335.

What type of capillary lacks fenestrations and has


pinocytotic vesicles?: Continuous capillary
What region of the body has fenestrated capillaries
without diaphragms?: Kidney glomeruli
Does the thymus have germinal centers?: No. Germinal
centers are associated with B cells.
What cell of the liver is part of the mononuclear
phagocytic system?: Kupffer cells
What papillae are respons- ible for sweet taste?:
Circumvalate papillae
What are the three epi- dermal derivatives?: 1. Nails 2. Hair
3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN
VII?: Fungiform papillae
What is the area of mitotic activity in the GI tract?: The
crypts of Lieberkuhn
What cells of the GI tract secrete HCl and intrinsic factor?:
Parietal cells of the stomach

355.

What type of sweat gland is under cholinergic


stimulation?: Eccrine gland

356.

What gland produces a serous secretion that is


approximately 20% of the total saliva produced?: Parotid
gland

357.

What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send


their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?: Filiform
papillae

358.

Secretin and CCK are produced in what portion of the GI


tract?: Small intestine

359.

360.

What cell type produces dentin of the teeth?: Odontoblasts


(neural crest)

361.

What layer of the epidermis acts as a sealant to protect


against desiccation?: Stratum granulosum

362.

What layer of the skin is composed of non-nucleated cells


full of keratin?: Stratum corneum

363.

336.

337.

What are the antigen- presenting cells in the Peyer's


patches of the GI known as?: M cells

338.

What are the three "tunica" layers of a blood vessel wall?: 1.


Tunica intima 2. Tunica media 3. Tunica adventitia

339.

Within what layer of the heart are the nerves and


conducting fibers located?: Subendocardial space

340.

What cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?: Chief cells

What cell type produces enamel of the teeth?: Ameloblasts


(ectoderm)
What gland produces 70% of the total salivary secretions
and is a mixture of serous (predominantly) and mucous
alveoli and secretory units?: Submandibular gland
What type of cells of the respiratory system secrete
surfactant?: Type II pneumocytes

364.

What zone of the liver is the first to be affected in times of


hypoxia?: Central region (around the central vein)

365.

In what region of the respiratory system do you first see


Clara cells?: Terminal bronchioles

366.

Elevated levels of what hormone cause the endometrium


to enter the secretory phase of the female cycle?:
Progesterone

389.

What substance does the juxtaglomerular cells of the


kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?: Renin

390.

In what region of the liver is fat stored?: Space of Disse -Ito


cells and Vit A also

391.

In what region of the GI tract does exfoliation take place?:


At the tip of the villi

392.

367.

368.

369.

What are the mucus secreting cells in the respiratory tract


above the level of the terminal bronchioles?: Goblet cells

370.

What cells of the distal convoluted tubule are sensitive to


the low ion content of the urine?: Macula densa

371.

What cells comprise 95% of the alveolar surface and are


responsible for gas exchange?: Type I pneumocytes

372.

What are the two hormones secreted by the posterior


pituitary gland via the para- ventricular supranuclei?: ADH
and oxytocin

373.

What area of the nephron is impermeable to water?:


Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

374.

What region of the kidney is affected by ADH?: Collecting


duct for water reabsorption- but the DCT is also affected by
ADH

375.

What portion of the kidney actively pumps Cl- out of the


tubule?: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

376.

What region of the kidney has a countercurrent multiplier producing a gradient of hypertonicity in the tubule
lumen?: Loop of Henle

377.

What region of the liver is first affected in toxic doses of


drugs?: Peripheral zone (because extraction of substances
occurs there first)

378.

What are the two acidophilic hormones secreted by the


adenohypophysis?: GH and prolactin "(,Pp;~

379.

In what region of the kidney does the greatest extraction


of nutrients occur?: Proximal convoluted tubule (-66% of
nutrient extraction occurs here)

380.

What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?:


Parafollicular C cells (new4 ash,

381.

What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce


parathyroid hormone (PTH)?: Chief cells
What hormone produced during the night causes a
decrease in gonadal function?: Melatonin
What are the four basophilic hormones released from the
adenohypophysis?: 1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. Luteinizing hormone
(LH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

393.

394.

What cells form the blood-testis barrier?: Sertoli's cells

395.

What is the chromosome number of-G1?: 46 (2n)

396.

What is the chromosome number of-S phase?: 46 (4n)

397.

What is the chromosome number of-G2?: 46 (4n)

What is the chromosome number of-Mitosis?: 46 (4n) to 46


(2n)

398.

What is the chromosome number of a primary


spermatocyte?: 46 (4n)

399.

In females, meiosis is arrested twice - when and at what


stages of meiosis?: 1. First, in utero at prophase I, 2. Second, at
ovulation in metaphase II

400.

What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone;


secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and
phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?: Sertoli
cell

401.

What must occur for an egg to complete ovulation?: It


needs to be fertilized by a sperm. If it is not, the egg is released
in metaphase II and meiosis is incomplete.

402.

What is the chromosome number at the end of meiosis I?:


23 (2n)-it is the reductive phase of meiosis.

403.

What is the major androgen released from the zona


reticularis?: Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

404.

What hormone causes an increase in the accumulation of


adipose and collagenous tissue of the breast and an
increase in the branching of the ducts of the breast?:
Estrogen

405.

What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest


derivatives?: Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)

406.

What cells secrete glucagon?: Alpha cells of the islet of


Langerhans

407.

What hormone inhibits glucagon release and pancreatic


exocrine secretions?: Somatostatin

408.

382.

383.

384.

385.

What hormone causes milk letdown?: Oxytocin

Low levels of what hormone stimulates the uterus to go


into its proliferative stage?: Estrogen

386.

What cells of the genito- urinary system secrete


testosterone?: Leydig cells (stimulated by LH)

387.

What is the mucus-secreting gland in the male


reproductive system?: Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's
glands)

388.

Where is melatonin produced?: Pineal gland

What promotes further prolactin and oxytocin release?:


Suckling
What part of the placenta is derived from the mother?:
Decidua basalis
What is the most common site of fertilization?: Ampulla of
the fallopian tube
What is the only cranial nerve that comes off the dorsal
surface of the brain stem?: CN IV

409.

What type of fiber is carried in the dorsal root?: Sensory or


motor. Sensory only

410.

How would a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion present?:


Hyporeflexia, fasiculations and flaccid paralysis (always
ipsilateral)

411.

What is the name of the brain stem tract in which the


dorsal columns run?: Medial lemniscus

412.

What is the ability to tell what something is without


looking at it and using only your hands?: Stereognosis

413.

In what tract do pain and temperature fibers run?:


Spinothalamic tract

414.

What gyrus in the cerebral cortex receives information


from fibers of the dorsal column tract?: Postcentral gyrus

415.

The lens: If there is a total anopsia of the left eye, where is the
lesion?

436.

Optic nerve of the left eye: What is the center for ipsilateral
gaze?

437.

The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF): What


fluid of the inner ear has an electrolyte content like that of the
extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?

438.

What area of the brain is responsible for contralateral


gaze?: Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)

439.

What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system?:


Lateral geniculate body (LGB)

440.

What is the function of the ossicles?: They increase the


intensity of sound

441.

What muscle in the eye is responsible for


accommodation?: Ciliary muscle

442.

What area of the eye has the greatest visual acuity?: Fovea
(it is made up soley of cones)

443.

416.

417.

418.

419.

420.

What cell type in the eye is for color vision?: Cones (Cones
and color)

421.

If there is macula sparing in a visual deficit, where is the


lesion?: In the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex (optic
radiations)

422.

423.

...: Which way do the eyes drift in a frontal eye field lesion?

To the side of the lesion: What is the thalamic relay nucleus


that CN V needs to "speak" to in order to pass its information on
to the cerebral cortex?

424.

Ventroposteromedial (VPM): Cell bodies of what fibers are


found in the mesencephalic nucleus of CN V?

425.

Proprioception of the face (CN V) and motor (jaw jerk


reflex): If a patient presented with an LMN lesion in CN V, CN
VII, or CN XII, what would you see?

426.

Ipsilateral paresis: What is the motor relay nucleus of the


thalamus?

427.

Ventrolateral (VL) nucleus of thalamus: What is the only cell


type to leave the cerebellum?

428.

Purkinje (inhibitory) - GABA: If a patient presented with a


right-sided cerebellar lesion, which way would the patient fall if
he closed his eyes?

429.

To the right: What is the function of the superior olivary


nucleus?

430.

To localize and detemine the nature of sounds (Sound and


superior start with S.): If a patient presents with a left
nystagmus, where is the lesion?

431.

On the right, because the nvstagmus is named for the fast


component, and the fast component is to the unaffected
side.: What region of the cerebellum is responsible for the
planning of movements?

432.

Cerebellar hemisphere: What is the thalamic relay nucleus for


the limbic system?

433.

Perilymph: What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory


system?
MGB: What region of the cerebellum is responsible for balance
and eye movement?
Flocculonodular lobe: What is the only cell in the cerebellum
to have an excitatory neurotransmitter?
Granule cell: What does the nystagmus look like if cold water is
placed in the right ear?
Slow drift to the right, fast drift to the left: COWS = Cold
Opposite - Warm Same (named in reference to the fast
component)
Information from the cerebellum leaves via what?:
Superior cerebellar peduncle

444.

In what portion of the internal capsule are you if you can


see the caudate nucleus?: Anterior limb

445.

What type of memory is lost in a hippocampal lesion?:


Long-term memory

446.

In what region of the brain stem does the corticospinal


tract cross over?: Medullary decussation

447.

From what gyrus of the brain does the corticospinal tract


originate?: Precentral gyrus

448.

What type of fibers are carried in the ventral rami?: Both


sensory and motor (from the spinal nerve on both sensory and
motor fibers)

449.

What are the hallmark signs of an upper motor neuron


(UMN) lesion?: 1. Hyperreflexia 2. Spastic paralysis 3. Positive
Babinski sign

450.

What tract carriers fibers for voluntary refined movements


of the distal extremities?: Corticospinal tract

451.

What is the name of the tract in which the dorsal columns


from the lower extremities run?: Fasciculus gracilis (It is
medial of the two tracts on a cross-section of the spinal cord; the
lateral tract is the fasciculus cuneatus.) Remember: Lower
extremities dancing-graceful-gracilis.

452.

What is the function of the superior colliculi?: Cell bodies


that are to be relayed to the thalamus for sight are found there.
(Sight and superior start with S.)

453.

In order for sensory information from the dorsal columns


and the spinothalamic tract to get to the cerebral cortex,
they must use what thalamic relay nucleus?:
Ventroposterolateral (VPL)

454.

In which region of the spinal cord does the spinothalamic


tract cross over?: Ventral white commissure (VWC)

Anterior nucleus: What fluid is found in the anterior chamber


of the eye?

455.

Aqueous humor: What is the dividing line between the


anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?

456.

434.

435.

Sensory information from the spinothalamic tract sends


its information to what region of the cerebral cortex?:
Postcentral gyrus

In which region of the brain stem do the dorsal columns


cross over?: Lower medulla (synapse on nucleus gracilis or
cuneatus)

457.

What tract carries conscious proprioception,fine touch,


two-point discrimination, and vibratory sense?: Dorsal
column tract (all senses except pain and temperature)

458.

What tract of the spinal cord carries dorsal column


information from the upper extremities?: Fasciculus
cuneatus

459.

If the right side of the corticobulbar tract to the muscles of


facial expression were damaged, where would the deficit be
seen?: In the contralateral lower face (left)

460.

If the corticobulbar tract for CN V and CN XII were cut on


the right side, where would the lesion be?: There would be
no deficit, because the corticobulbar tract receives bilateral
input.

461.

What type of fibers are carried in the ventral root?: Motor


only

462.

What peduncle(s) carry information into the cerebellum?:


Inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles

463.

Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the trigeminal


ganglion?: Touch, pain, and temperature

464.

When the head moves, what causes the eyes to move in the
opposite direction?: Vestibular system

465.

Unconscious proprioception, body sense, and motor


execution are functions of what part of the cerebellum?:
Vermis and intermediate lobe

466.

What three structures contain perilymph?: 1. Scala tympani


2. Scala vestibuli 3. Semicircular canals

467.

The gravity receptors for changes in the position of the


head are located in what part of the inner ear?: Saccule and
utricle

468.

What structures of the inner ear contain endolymph?: 1.


Scala media 2. Semicircular ducts 3. Saccule Utricle

479.

With what type of lesions do you see tremors at rest?:


Lesions of the basal ganglia

480.

What muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?:


Dilator pupillae (part of the iris)

481.

Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right


nasal hemianopsia?: Right internal carotid artery compression
on the optic chiasm

482.

What part of the inner ear functions in head movement?:


Semicircular ducts

483.

What part of the internal capsule are you in if you see the
thalamus?: Posterior limb of the internal capsule

484.

What region of the basal ganglia is affected in Parkinson's


disease?: Substantia nigra (degeneration)

485.

Hemorrhagic destruction of the contralateral subthalamic


nuclei results in what disorder?: Herniballismus (wild flailing
movements)

486.

Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are caused by what?:


Hypermyelinization of the corpus striatum and the thalamus
(seen in cerebral palsy)

487.

Atrophy of the striatum of the basal ganglia results in


what?: Chorea (involuntary quick movements)

488.

What tracts are found in the genu of the internal capsule?:


Corticobulbar tracts

489.

What tracts are found in the posterior limb of the IC?:


Corticospinal Spinothalamic Dorsal column Thalamocortical

490.

What tracts are found in the anterior limb of the IC?:


Thalamocortical tracts

491.

If warm water is placed in the right ear, what does the


nystagmus look like?: Slow drift to the left and fast drift to the
right (COWS = Cold Opposite & Warm Same)

492.

What cells are for black and white vision (night vision)?:
Rods

493.

What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?:


Vitreous humor

494.

What type of fluid in the inner ear has the consistency of


intracellular fluid (ICF)?: Endolymph (high levels of K+)

495.

469.

470.

471.

Name three lesions that can cause left homonymous


hemianopsia?: 1. Lesion of the right optic tract 2. Lesion of the
lateral geniculate body (LGB) 3. Lesion of the optic radiation

472.

What lesion causes a bitemporal hemianopsia?: Optic


chiasm lesion
What area of the brain is known as the motor speech area?:
Broca's area
What does Meyer's loop lesion cause?: Contralateral
homonymous superior quadrantopia
Blood supply to the head/neck area and the upper limb on
a homunculus map in the cerebral cortex comes from what
artery?: Middle cerebral artery

496.

What lesion produces a tremor upon movement?: A


cerebellar lesion

497.

What part of the inner ear is sensitive to angular


acceleration and deceleration?: Semicircular canals

498.

473.

474.

475.

What is the normal volume of CSF?: Approximately 140 ml

What muscle of the eye is under parasympathetic control?:


Sphincter pupillae (part of iris)

476.

What area of the brain is known for language


comprehension?: Wernicke's area
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right
homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?: Left upper loop
lesion
What region of the cerebellum is affected if a patient has
dystaxia of the legs and trunk during walking?: Anterior
vermis (It is most commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse.)

499.

What cranial nerve receives sensory information from the


cornea?: CN VI (ophthalmic division)

500.

What artery supplies blood to the trunk and the lower


extremities on a homunculus map of the cerebral cortex?:
Anterior cerebral artery

501.

477.

478.

Where is the lesion in a patient who presents with a broadbased gait, hypotonia, intention tremors, nystagmus, and
ataxia?: Cerebellum
What are the functions of the external auditory meatus?:
Sound collection and protection of the tympanic membrane

What is the function of the inferior colliculi?: To receive


bilateral auditory input and arrange the input tonotopically

502.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral pain and
temperature loss of the face?: Anterior inferior cerebellar
artery-spinal nucleus of CN V

517.

If a patient presents with nystagmus, dystaxia, and


hypotonia of the ipsilateral limbs, what area of the
cerebellum is affected?: Hemisphere

518.

What lesion of the cerebellum is usually caused by an


ependymoma or medulloblastoma, resulting in dystaxia of
the trunk with an inability to maintain an upright
posture?: Posterior vermis lesion

519.

503.

504.

What spinal cord injury results in flaccid paralysis and


muscle atrophy?: Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)

505.

What spinal cord lesion results in a lower motor neuron


(LMN) lesion at the level of the lesion and an upper motor
neuron (UMN) lesion below the level of the lesion?:
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease

506.

What arterial occlusion would result in a loss of all tracts


in the spinal cord except the dorsal columns?: Anterior
spinal artery occlusion (posterior spinal artery supplies the
dorsal columns)

507.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral pain and
temperature of the body?: Anterior inferior cerebellar arteryspinotbalamic tract
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes
(Name artery and specific region.): Nystagmus away from
the lesion?: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- vestibular
nuclei
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes
(Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral Horner's
syndrome?: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- descending
autonomics

520.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral facial
paralysis?: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN Vll

521.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Deafness?: Anterior
inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll

What spinal cord lesion results in a bilateral loss of pain


and temperature at the level of the lesion?: Syringomyelia
(VWC lesion)

522.

What spinal cord lesion causes a bilateral dorsal column


loss below the level of the lesion?: Tabes dorsalis
(neurosyphilis)

523.

What disease is associated with demyelination of the


dorsal column, spinocerebellar tract, and corticospinal
tract?: Subacute combined degeneration

524.

508.

509.

510.

What arterial occlusion results in contralateral spastic


hemiparesis, contralateral spastic lower face, and
ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (dilated, ptosis, eye down and
out)?: Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain
syndrome)

511.

What syndrome is associated with an ipsilateral UMN


lesion below the level of the lesion, ipsilateral dorsal
column loss at and below the level of the lesion, an LMN
lesion at the level of the lesion, bilateral loss of pain and
temperature at the level and contralateral below the level
of the lesion, and Horner's syndrome if it is above the level
of C6?: Brown-Sequard syndrome (heimisection of the spinal
cord)

512.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral spastic
hemiparesis of the body?: Vertebral artery-pyramid

513.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral loss of
position and vibration?: Vertebral artery-medial lemniscus

514.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of
the tongue?: Vertebral artery-CN XII

515.

What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes


(Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia?:
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-inferior cerebellar peduncle

516.

What is the name for the most prominent spinous process


in the spine?: Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in
20%, T1 in 10%)
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the
notochord?: Nucleus pulposus
What three muscles comprise the erector spinae?: 1.
Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis

525.

What are the names given to the first and second cervical
vertebrae?: C1-atlas C2-axis

526.

To what vertebral level does the spinal cord extend?: LI to


L2

527.

What is the name of the extension of the dura mater that


attaches at the level of S2?: External filum terminale

528.

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?:
31 pairs

529.

What is the name of the region where the manubrium and


the body of the sternum articulate?: Sternal angle of Louis

530.

What muscle originates from the third to the fifth ribs and
inserts into the coracoid process?: Pectoralis minor

531.

Damage to what nerve will give you "winged scapula'."?:


Long thoracic nerve To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and
lateral thoracic artery: Long has an "n" for nerve; lateral 3 & has
an "a" for artery.

532.

The ventral rami of what regions of the spinal cord make


up the brachial plexus?: C5-TI

533.

What bone houses the ulnar groove?: Humerus (between


the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)

534.

What muscle initiates Abduction of the arm?:


Supraspinakis

535.

What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?:


Deltoid

536.

What nerve is damaged if a patient presents with "wrist


drop"?: Radial nerve

537.

What forms the anatomic snuff box?: Extensor pollicis


longus, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis

538.

What vein, in the antecubital fossa, forms the communication between the basilic vein and the cephalic vein?:
Median cubital vein (most common site for venipuncture)

539.

What two muscles are inner- vated by the axillary nerve?:


Deltoid and teres minor

540.

What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?:


Median nerve

541.

In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus


femoris artery found?: Anterior compartment (it's the blood
supply to the posterior compartment)

542.

"Foot drop" is caused by a compromise in what nerve?:


Common peroneal nerve

543.

What nerve is damaged if the patient cannot ADduct the


thigh?: Obturator nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of
the thigh)

544.

545.

What is the longest muscle of the body?: Sartorius

What two nerves innervate the pectineus muscle?: Femoral


and obturator nerves

546.

What superficial vein empties into the popliteal fossa?:


Short saphenous vein

547.

What is the artery of the anterior compartment of the leg?:


Anterior tibia] artery

548.

What nerve supplies the lateral compartment of the leg?:


Superficial peroneal nerve

549.

What sensory nerve are you testing when you touch the
first web space of the toes?: Deep peroneal nerve

550.

The peroneal artery is a branch of what artery?: Posterior


tibial

551.

At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?: T4-T5


(It is known as the carina.)

562.

What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary


muscles in the heart?: Chordae tendineae

563.

Around what thoracic structure does the right recurrent


laryngeal nerve loop before ascending into the larynx?:
Right subclavian artery

564.

565.

At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the


common iliac arteries?: L4-L5

566.

The obturator artery is a branch of what major artery?:


Internal iliac artery

567.

What is the first branch off the abdominal artery?: Inferior


phrenic artery

568.

Into what vessel does the right gonadal vein drain?: The
inferior vena cava

569.

Into what vessel does the left gonadal vein drain?: The left
renal vein

570.

At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery


bifurcate?: C4

571.

572.

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?: Internal


carotid artery
What forms the portal vein?: The union of the superior
mesenteric and the splenic veins

574.

Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain?: The splenic


vein

575.

What vein is formed by the union of the right and left


brachiocephalic veins?: Superior vena cava

576.

What is the only muscle in the larynx that is not innervated by the recurrent laryn- geal nerve?: Cricothyroid (It's
innervated by the external laryngeal nerve.)

577.

578.

What is the prominent "bump" on the lateral aspect of the


knee?: Head of the fibula

579.

553.

How many ribs articulate with the sternum?: Seven (Ribs 8,


9, and 10 articulate with the costal cartilage of rib 7.)

554.

What is the part of the lung that extends above the level of
the first rib?: The cupula

555.

What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the


organ?: Visceral pleura

556.

557.

How many lobes does the right lung have?: Three

How are they separated?: By the oblique and the transverse


fissures

558.

Into what chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins


empty?: Left atrium (Remember-the pulmonary veins carry
oxygenated blood.)

559.

The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as


what?: Rugae
What comprises the portal triad?: 1. Common bile duct 2.
Hepatic artery 3. Portal vein
What structures differentiate the anatomic right and left
lobes of the liver?: Ligamentum teres and ligamentum
venosum

581.

What structure "runs" along the transverse processes of


the lumbar vertebrae?: Ureters

582.

To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, you must traverse


through what foramen?: Foramen of Winslow

583.

What is another name for the rectouterine pouch?: Pouch


of Douglas

584.

What bones comprise the acetabulum?: Pubis, ilium, and


ischium

585.

586.

What vein travels with the right coronary artery?: Small


cardiac vein

587.

561.

What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?: Celiac artery

580.

What is the only valve in the heart that has two cusps?:
Mitral (bicuspid) valve

560.

At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found?: C3

573.

Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa is often referred to


as what?: Housemaid's knee

552.

At what vertebral level does the esophagus originate?: C6

What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the


gubernaculum?: Bound and ovarian ligaments
What muscles comprise the deep perineal space (the
urogenital diaphragm)?: Deep transverse perineal and
sphincter urethrae

What three ligaments com- prise the broad ligament of the


uterus?: 1. Mesosalpinx 2. Mesovarium 3. Mesometrium

588.

What structure traverses the diaphragm at the level of T8?:


IVC

589.

What are the components of the pudendal canal?:


Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery and vein

590.

What range of movements can be performed at the


metacarpal/phalangealjoint?: Flexion/extension, ABduction,
and ADduction

591.

A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will most


likely damage what nerve?: Axillary nerve

592.

What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion


of the hip and extension of the knee?: Anterior compartment
of the thigh

593.

What nerve roots comprise the lumbosacral plexus?: L4 to


S4

594.

What is the function of gray rami communicans?: They are


postganglionic sympathetic axons.

595.

What compartment of the lower extremities allows


ADduction of the thigh and flexion of the hip?: Medial
compartment of the thigh

596.

What are the only splanchnics in the body that carry


preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?: Pelvic splanchnics (P
begins preganglionic, parasympathetic, and pelvic.)

597.

What postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion is


associated with CN III?: Ciliary ganglion

598.

What is the name of the ganglion that houses the cell


bodies for the postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the
head and neck?: Superior cervical ganglion

599.

Where does the parotid (Stenson's) duct enter the oral


cavity?: Opposite the second upper molar tooth

611.

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?:


Resorb CSF into the blood

612.

What muscle is the most superiorly situated muscle in the


orbit?: Levator palpebrae superioris

613.

What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?: Miosis, ptosis, and


anhydrosis

614.

What bone of the middle ear articulates with the tympanic


membrane?: Malleus

615.

What chamber of the eye is located between the iris and


the lens?: Posterior chamber

616.

617.

What is the only muscle of the tongue not innervated by


the hypoglossal nerve?: Palatoglossus

618.

Where does the nasolacrimal duct terminate?: Inferior


meatus of the nasal cavity

619.

What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?:


Thyroid gland

620.

What two regions of the vertebral column are con- sidered


primary curvatures?: Thoracic and sacral

621.

What are the only muscles in the body innervated by


dorsal rami?: Intrinsic (deep) muscles of the back (All other
muscles are innervated by ventral rami.)

622.

What is the portion of the second cervical vertebra that


projects superiorly to act as the body for C1?: Odontoid
(dens) process

623.

What is the actual space that contains CSF?: Subarachnoid


space

624.

What two muscles do you test to see if CN XI is intact?:


Trapezius and sternocleidoinastoid

625.

What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII


deficit?: Motor aspect

626.

600.

601.

Toward what side would the uvula point if the right CN X


were damaged?: The left (points to the unaffected side)

602.

What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters


enter and the urethra exits?: Urinary trigone

603.

What is the protective covering that is adherent to the


spinal cord and CNS tissue?: Pia mater
What is the name of the spinal cord that passes within the
subarachnoid space that forms the spinal nerves that exit
the lumbar and sacral foramina?: Cauda equina
What are the names ligaments that would pierced, in
order, by a lumbar puncture?: 1. Supraspinous ligament 2.
Interspinous ligament 3. Ligamentum flavum

627.

What is the only organ in the body supplied by


preganglionic sympathetic fibers?: Adrenal rnedulla

628.

The pudendal canal is formed by splitting the fascia of


what muscle?: Obturator internus

629.

604.

605.

What is the name of the duct formed by the union of the


vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle?: Ejaculatory
duct

606.

What are the fingerlike projections at the end of the


fallopian (uterine) tubes?: Fimbriae

607.

Where is the seminal vesicle located?: On the posterior


aspect of the urinary bladder

608.

What is the inferiormost segment of the sternum?: Xiphoid


process
True or false-the pectoralis major medially rotates the
arm?: True; it also ADducts and flexes the arm.
What are the borders of the axillary artery?: Lateral border
of the first rib to the inferior border of the teres major

630.

What vessels arise from the three segments of the axillary


artery?: 1. Superior thoracic artery 2. Lateral thoracic artery
and thoracoacromial trunk 3. Subscapular artery, and the
anterior and posterior humeral circumflex One artery from the
first segment, two arteries from the second segment, and three
arteries from the third segment

631.

What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?:


Subclavian vein

632.

What muscle divides the anterior from the posterior


triangles of the neck?: Sternocleidomastoid

633.

609.

610.

What bone houses the ear?: Temporal bone

What muscle is the main lateral rotator of the arm?:


Infraspinatus muscle
What innervates the flexor compartment of the arm?:
Musculocutaneus nerve

What nerve is most commonly affected when there is a


fracture of the midshaft of the humerus?: Radial nerve C
deer "(Int4.1 a .

634.

What vein courses along the medial aspect of the forearm?:


Basilic vein

635.

What is the blood vessel in the upper extremity most


commonly palpated while taking a pulse?: Radial artery

636.

What is the nerve supply to the forearm?: Median nerve


(except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digiti profundus
muscles of the pinkie and ring finger, which are supplied by the
ulnar)

637.

What are the "LOAF" muscles of the hand?: LOAF stands for
the muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve:
Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and
Flexor pollicis brevis; All other intrinsic muscles in the hand are
innervated by the ulnar nerve

638.

If you were to do a pleural tap, what region of the


intercostal space would your needle enter?: The superior
border of the rib

655.

Why?: Because the neurovascular bundle is located on the


inner surface of the inferior border of the rib

656.

What muscles of the foot are supplied by the medial


plantar nerve (Hint: Think about the median nerve
distribution in the hand.)?: LAFF-Lumbricalis (1st), Abductor
hallucis, Flexor 3X hallucis brevis, Flexor digitorum brevis. All
other intrinsic muscles in the foot are supplied by the lateral
plantar nerve.

657.

What remnant of the middle lobe of the lung is found on


the left side?: The lingula

658.

The ventral rami of what cervical vertebrae innervate


diaphragm?: C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!

659.

At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides


into what two arteries?: Musculophrenic and superior
epigastric arteries

660.

What muscles in the hand ADduct the fingers?: The palmer


interosseus adducts, whereas the dorsal interosseus abducts
(PAD and DAB)

661.

In order to pronate the hand, what bones need to cross?:


Radius crosses over the ulna

662.

At what point does the femoral artery become the


popliteal artery?: When it traverses the adductor hiatus

663.

639.

640.

641.

Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs results in


Trendelenburg gait; what nerve is compromised to cause
this?: Superior gluteal nerve

642.

What two arteries join together to form the super- ficial


and deep palmar arches of the hand?: Uhiar and radial
arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)

643.

644.

What muscle "fills" the greater sciatic foramen?: Piriformis

What nerve is affected when a patient has difficulty rising


from a sitting position?: Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the
gluteus maximus)

645.

Why are IM injections in the gluteal mass given in the


upper outer quadrant?: To avoid damage to the sciatic nerve

646.

What two nerves innervate the adductor magnus?:


Obturator and tibial nerves

647.

What two nerves innervate the biceps femoris?: Common


peroneal and tibial nerves

648.

Going from lateral to medial, what structures pass deep to


the inguinal ligament?: NAVEL-Nerve, Arterv, Vein, Empty
space, and Lacunar ligament or Lymphatics

649.

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses


the extensor retinaculum?: Anterior tibial artery

650.

What is the nerve for the anterior compartment of the


leg?: Deep peroneal nerve

651.

What is the artery for the posterior compartment of the


leg?: Posterior tibial arterv

652.

Where is the "magical plane" that divides the superior


from the inferior media- stinum?: A horizontal line from T4-T5
to the sternal angle of Louis

653.

What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?:


Hemiazygous vein

654.

What portion of the peri- cardium is adherent to the


tunica adventitia of the great vessels?: Fibrous pericardium
The left anterior descending artery of the heart travels
with what vein?: Great cardiac vein
What is the largest muscle in the body?: Gluteus maximus

The middle cardiac vein of the heart travels with what


artery?: Posterior intraventricular artery

664.

What is the ratio of the myocardial thickness of the atria:


right ventricle: left ventricle?: 1:3:9

665.

What chamber of the heart comprises the: Sternal


surface?: Right ventricle

666.

667.

Diaphragmatic surface?: Right ventricle and left ventricle

668.

Left margin?: Left ventricle and left atrium

669.

Right margin?: Right atria

670.

Base?: Left atria

What structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve


loop around before it ascends into the larynx?: The arch of
the aorta

671.

At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial


artery?: When it crosses the teres major

672.

What is the anatomic posi- tioning of the right and left


gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through
the diaphragm?: LARP-Left goes Anterior and Right goes
Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut -Remember your
embryology!)

673.

What muscles comprise the rotator cuff?: SITSSubscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, & Supraspinatus

674.

What are the five branches off the median cord of the
brachial plexus?: Four Ms and a U- 1. Median 2. Medial
antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 3X 5.
Ulnar

675.

What are the five branches off the posterior cord of the
brachial plexus?: STARS- 1. Upper Subscapularis 2.
Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary ; & 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis

676.

What are the three branches off the lateral cord of the
brachial plexus?: 1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the
median 3. Musculocutaneus

677.

What are the four branches off the brachial plexus that
arise prior to the first rib?: 1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular
3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius

678.

What nerve innervates the extensor compartment of the


arm?: Radial nerve (It also innervates the extensor
compartment of the forearm.)

679.

What muscles insert in/on the intertubercular groove of


the humerus?: "Lady between two Majors"- latissimus dorsi,
pectoralis major, and teres major

680.

What artery is found in the lateral compartment of the


leg?: None. The peroneal artery is in the posterior compartment
of the leg.

681.

What muscle laterally rotates the femur to "unlock" the


knee?: Popliteus

682.

What bursa is inflamed in "clergyman's knee"?: Infrapatellar


bursa

683.

Where does the great saphenous vein terminate?: In the


femoral vein

684.

What comprises the "unhappy triad" of the knee?: 1. Medial


collateral ligament 2. Medial meniscus 3. Anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) The severity of injury to these ligaments is
ranked from bad to worst in relation to how many of them are
damaged, and they are usually damaged in the order listed.

685.

What are the two branches off the external iliac artery
before it becomes the femoral artery?: Circumflex iliac and
inferior epigastric arteries

686.

From which three sources does the adrenal gland get its
blood supply?: 1. Superior suprarenal artery (off inferior
phrenic artery) 2. Directly off the abdominal aorta as the middle
suprarenal artery 3. Inferior suprarenal artery off the renal
artery

687.

What connects the third and the fourth ventricles


together?: Cerebral aqueduct

696.

How does cerebrospinal fluid leave the fourth ventricle?:


Through the foramina of Magendie (medial) and Luschka
(lateral) M in Magendie = medial; L in Luschka = lateral.

697.

What is the lymphatic drainage of the gonads?: Lumbar


trunk nodes (Lymphatic drainage follows blood supply.)

698.

What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?:


Internal iliac nodes

699.

What are the five clinical signs of portal hypertension?: 1.


Caput medusae 2. Hemorrhoids 3. Retroperitoneal varices 4.
Splenomegaly 5. Esophageal varices

700.

What is the region of the body where all tonsillar tissue


can be found?: Waldeyer's ring

701.

What are the three functions of the nasal cavity?: It warms,


moistens, and filters inspired air.

702.

What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube


enter?: Nasopharynx

703.

In which segment of the duodenum is the ampulla of Vater


located?: Second segment

704.

The duodenal/jejunal flexure is suspended from the


posterior abdominal wall by what?: Ligament of Treitz

705.

What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the
rectum?: 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages

706.

What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?: Superior


mesenteric artery

707.

What two ligaments together comprise the lesser


omentum?: Gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal

708.

The quadrate and the caudate lobes are part of what side
of the anatomic liver?: The right

709.

What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?: Inferior


mesenteric artery

710.

The hepatic duct and the cystic duct come together to


form what?: Common bile duct

What are the three branches off the celiac artery?: 1.


Common hepatic artery 2. Splenic artery 3. Left gastric artery

711.

What are the three main branches off the inferior


mesenteric artery?: 1. Left colic artery 2. Superior rectal artery
3. Sigmoid artery

712.

688.

689.

The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of what vessel?:


Thyrocervical trunk

690.

What is the area of the carotid artery that is an 02


receptor?: Carotid body (The carotid sinus is a pressure
receptor.)

691.

What arteries join together forming the basilar artery?: Left


and right vertebral arteries

692.

What is the major difference between the veins in the face


and the veins in the rest of the body?: No valves and no
smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face

693.

At what point does the sig- moid sinus become the


internal jugular vein?: When it crosses the jugular foramina

694.

What connects the lateral ventricles to the third


ventricle?: Foramen of Monro

695.

What muscle forms the "bed" for the kidney?: Quadratus


lumborum
What ligament of the uterus houses the ovarian vessels?:
Suspensory ligament of the ovary

713.

What three muscles comprise the pes anserinus?: 1.


Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous

714.

What are the 10 retro- peritoneal organs?: 1. Duodenum 2.


Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Suprarenals 6.
Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. Inferior
vena cava

715.

What is the only cranial nerve with the ability to


regenerate?: CN I

716.

What duct transmits secretions from the sub- mandibular


gland to the oral cavity?: Wharton's duct

717.

What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle of the


neck?: The stern ocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle

718.

What are the contents of the adductor canal?: Femoral


artery and vein and saphenous nerve

719.

What are the contents of the submandibular triangle of


the neck?: Submandibular gland, facial artery and vein, nerve
to the mylohyoid

720.

What carpal bones articulate with the radius?: Scaphoid


and lunate

721.

What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?:


Sternocleidomastoid, mandible, and midline of the neck

722.

What are the six cranial nerves that innervate structures in


the orbit?: 1. CN II-vision 2. CN Vl-sensory (ophthalmic division)
3. CN VII-lacrimal gland LR6 (S04)3 (to remember nerves below):
4. CN VI-lateral rectus 5. CN IV-superior oblique 6. CN III-all
other muscles of the eye

723.

What compartment of the lower extremity allows


dorsiflexion, extension of the toes, and inversion of the
foot?: Anterior compartment of the leg

739.

What cervical nerves comprise the cervical plexus?: C1 to


C4

740.

What compartment of the lower extremity allows eversion


and plantar flexion of the foot?: Lateral compartment of the
leg

741.

If the left hypoglossal nerve was damaged, which way


would the tongue point?: To the left (The uvula points to
affected side.)

742.

In women, what is the name of the pouch between the


bladder and the uterus called?: Uterovesical pouch

743.

What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval


window?: Stapedius muscle

744.

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photo


receptors?: The optic disk is the blind spot.

745.

724.

725.

What muscles are found in the superficial perineal pouch?:


Superficial transverse perineal, ischiocavernous, and
bulbocavernous muscles

726.

What gland is found in the deep perineal pouch in men?:


Bulbourethral gland; no gland is found in this pouch in women.

727.

What pouch of the peri- neum houses the superficial fascia


and the inferior fascia?: The deep perineal pouch (same as the
urogenital diaphragm)

728.

What gland is found in the superficial perineal pouch in


men and women?: None in men, the greater vestibular gland
in women

729.

What are the five structures that traverse the spermatic


cord?: 1. Pampiniform plexus of veins 2. Vas deferens 3.
Testicular artery 4. Nerves 5. Lymphatics

730.

What are the borders of Hesselbach's triangle?: Rectus


abdominis medially, Inferior epigastric vessels laterally, Inguinal
ligament as the base

731.

Which type of hernia goes through both the deep inguinal


and superficial inguinal ring?: Indirect; a direct hernia goes
directly through Hesselbach's triangle

732.

What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of


T10?: Esophagus and gastric plexus of nerves

733.

What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of


T12?: Aorta, azygous vein, and thoracic duct Remember: One at
Ts, two at Tlo,three at T,Z.

734.

What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion


of the toe, inversion of the foot, and plantar flexion of the
foot?: Posterior compartment of the leg

735.

How are the arm and the forearm positioned in "waiter's


tip hand"?: The arm is medially rotated, and the forearm is
extended and pronated.

736.

What is the function of white rami communicans?: They


are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because
they are myelinated.

737.

What compartment of the lower extremity allows


extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?: Posterior
compartment of the thigh

738.

What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal


sling (muscle of continence)?: Puborectalis
What is the name of the comma-shaped structure that is
attached to the posterior aspect of the testes?: Epididymis
What is the structure of the uterus that projects above the
opening of the uterine tubes?: Fundus

746.

What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization


most commonly occurs?: Ampulla

747.

How can you access the lowermost point in the peritoneal


cavity in women?: Via the posterior fomix of the vagina

748.

Which type of hemorrhoids are painful?: External


hemorrhoids; internal hemorrhoids lack pain fibers.

749.

What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?: 1.


Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two
Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)

750.

What two vessels come together to form the external


jugular vein?: 1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of
the retromandibular vein

751.

What is the position of the eyeball if CN VI is lost?:


Adducted

752.

The thyroid gland receives blood from what two different


sources?: 1. Inferior thyroid off the thyrocervical trunk 2.
Superior thyroid artery off the external carotid artery, and
sometimes off the arch of the aorta as the thyroid ima artery

753.

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is


associated with: CN VII?: COPS Submandibular ganglion

754.

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is


associated with: CN IX?: Pterygopalatine and otic ganglion

755.

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is


associated with: CN X?: Terminal ganglion

756.

What type of fibers are carried in the thoracic and lumbar


splanchnics?: Preganglionic sympathetic fibers

757.

How are preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried to


the embryonic hindgut?: Via pelvic splanchnics

758.

What is the only portion of CN V that carries motor fibers?:


Mandibular division (V3)

759.

What portion of CN V is affected if the corneal reflex is


lost?: Ophthalmic division (VI)

760.

What cranial nerve is affected if you have a laterally


deviated eye that is dilated with a ptosed eyelid?: CN III

761.

Which cranial nerves are found in the midline of the brain


stem?: CN I, 11, 111, VI, and XII ARN Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = VXF
3,1+2+3=6,1+2+ 3+6=12

762.

What are the four muscles of mastication?: 1. Masseter 2.


Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid

763.

What three circumstances allow a child to be committed


to institutional care?: 1. The child poses an imminent danger
to self or others. 2. The child is unable to care for himself daily (at
the appropriate developmental level). 3. The parents/guardians
have absolutely no control over the child, or will not promise to
ensure the child's safety even though refusing hospitalization.

782.

What happens to prevalence as: Incidence increases?:


Increases

783.

What happens to prevalence as: Duration increases?:


Increases

784.

764.

765.

What year of marriage is the peak year for divorce?: Fourth


year

766.

What is the formula for IQ?: MA/CA x 100 (MA = mental age,
CA = chronologic age)

767.

What are the three stages that children (aged 7 months to 5


years) go through when they are separated from a primary
caregiver for a prolonged period of time?: 1. Protest 2.
Despair 3. Detachment

768.

In statistics, what is the measured rate for: A whole


population?: Crude rate

769.

770.

A subgroup of a population?: Specific rate

What percentage of suicides are committed by white


men?: 66%

771.

What is the primary method of nonverbal communication


of emotional states?: Facial expression (the second is vocal
intonation)

772.

In what age group is illness perceived as a punishment?: 0


to 5 years

773.

In screening tests, what happens to sensitivity as incidence


increases?: Nothing; screening tests have nothing to do with
incidence.

774.

What are the four exceptions to informed consent?: 1.


Emergency 2. Waiver by parents 3. Competency (only courts
determine) 4. Short-term intervention

775.

In what age group are children more afraid of mutilation


or separation from a parent than of death?: 4 to 6 years of
age

776.

Which variable can an experimenter manipulate?:


Independent variable

777.

What percentage of dementia cases are caused by


Alzheimer's disease?: 66%

778.

When is the only time that it is okay to break doctorpatient confidentiality?: If there is a threat of harm to others
(Tarasoff's Duty to Warn)

779.

Do newborns perceive a three dimensional world?: It is


believed that newborns DO perceive a three-dimensional
world, because in experiments they react defensively when an
object is thrust in front of their faces.

780.

What stage of sleep is associated with high pulse, blood


pressure, and respiration rates, and is characterized by
increased brain oxygen use, penile erection in males, and
total paralysis of the skeletal muscles?: REM sleep
(Remember as: Awake brain & paralyzed body.)

781.

What is the leading cause of death in African American


men between the ages of 15 and 24 years of age?: Homicide
What is the pattern of motor development?: Grasp before
release Palms up before palms down Proximal to distal
progression Ulnar to radial progression
What stage of sleep is associated with slow pulse and
respiratory rates, a decrease in blood pressure, and
involuntary skeletal muscle contractions?: Non-rapid eye
movement (NREM) sleep (Remember as: Idle brain in an awake
body.)

785.

What type of study is prospective-that is, it "looks to see


who gets sick" by defining a population at risk of being
exposed to a disease?: Cohort study (also called prospective,
follow-up, longitudinal, or incidence study)

786.

What percentage of babies with an HIV-positive mother


will test HIV-positive at birth?: 100%. At birth the mother's
HIV-infected cells can be detected in the baby's serum. Six
months later, however, only 30% of these babies test positive.

787.

What disorder begins before 30 years of age; occurs


predominantly in women; and presents with multiple
medical complaints, with at least four pain symptoms, two
gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one
neurological symptom?: Somatization disorder (Symptoms
are NOT intentionally produced.)

788.

What is the progression of copying shapes?: Circle, cross,


rectangle, square, triangle (alphabetic order)

789.

790.

What stage of sleep occupies the most time?: Stage 2

What statistical analysis is used when you want to bring


together many different variables to determine one
conclusion?: Meta-analysis

791.

What is the leading cause of school dropouts among girls?:


Pregnancy

792.

What is the name of the somatoform disorder in which the


person has symptoms or deficits suggestive of a medical
condition, which are initiated or made worse by stressors?:
Conversion disorder (The male-to-female ratio is about 1:5.)

793.

In what stage of psychosexual development (according to


Freud) do children resolve the Oedipus complex?: Latency
stage (6 to 12 years)

794.

On what part of the body does sleep deprivation have the


greatest effect?: Cerebral cortex

795.

796.

What is the square of the standard deviation?: Variance

What is the application of an unavoidable stimulus


followed by an animal's failure to cope (when coping would
otherwise be possible) known as?: Learned helplessness (e.g.,
Skinner box)

797.

In what somatoform disorder does the person present


with a fear of illness despite appropriate medical
evaluation and reassurance, and often uses the opening line
"I think I have . . . "?: Hypochondriasis

798.

In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required to


increase power?: 1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3.
Type I error is greater

799.

True or false-IQ is a predictor of academic achievement?:


True-it is a predictor but not an indicator.

800.

801.

At what age does IQ become stable?: Age 5

On the psychosocial stressor scale, what factor receives


the highest rating?: Death of a spouse

802.

What is the term for the biologic predisposition to be


sensitive to particular stimuli and to associate them with
an unconditioned stimulus?: Preparedness

803.

In biostatistics, what type of error is due to chance?:


Random error

818.

Dementia is associated with a decrease in what


neurotransmitter in the amygdala, hippocampus, and
temporal neocortex?: Acetylcholine (ACh)

819.

Name the incurable disease affecting adults which is a


spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion ; is fatal
usually within 1 year of onset; results in cortical and
cerebellar atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly
progressive dementia with myoclonus and EEG
abnormalities?: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

820.

What disease, occurring in patients approximately 40 years


of age, is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance
associated with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate
nucleus, choreoathetoid movements, and progressive
dementia (Hint: Patients commonly commit suicide.)?:
Huntington's chorea

821.

In what somatoform disorder with two subtypes does the


patient experiences pain in a body part without any
discernible organic cause (One subtype is associated with
psychological factors, and the other with both physical and
psychological factors.)?: Pain disorder

822.

In what type of somatoform disorder does a person have


an unrealistically negative evaluation of some aspect of his
or her personal appearance?: Body dysmorphic disorder

823.

804.

805.

At what stage of psychosexual development (according to


Freud) do children fear castration?: Phallic stage (4 to 6 years)

806.

True or false-only men have sexual refractory periods?:


True-some women can have multiple successive orgasms
without a break.

807.

What is the term for involuntary vulgar or obscene


utterances?: Coprolalia (seen 30% of the time as a feature of
Tourette's syndrome)

808.

At what stage of cognitive development (according to


Piaget) do children: See death as irreversible?: Concrete
operations (6 to 12 years)

809.

At what stage of cognitive development (according to


Piaget) do children: Have abstract thinking?: Formal
operations ( > 12 years)

810.

At what stage of cognitive development (according to


Piaget) do children: Lack law of conservation and are
egocentric?: Preoperational (2 to 6 years)

811.

812.

What hormone is inhibited by sleep?: TSH

What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would the following patient


fulfill: perfectionist, male, first born, preoccupied with
rules, harsh discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor,
inflexible, miserly?: Obsessive-compulsive
What symptoms of schizophrenia associated with
dopamine receptors include delusions, hallucinations, and
agitation?: Positive symptoms (type I)
In biostatistics, what type of error has unanticipated
factors that obscure the relationship and cause a bias?:
Confounding error

824.

825.

What is the difference between the highest and the lowest


scores in a set?: Range
What type of study has diffusional effects if you separate
the groups and test the entire population?: Community trial

827.

What type of study is under the greatest possible degree of


control of the investigator?: Experimental study

828.

In what type of skew is the tail to the right and the mean
greater than the median?: Positive skew

829.

In what type of error is the null hypothesis rejected when


it is true?: Type I error (alpha error)

830.

If the P-value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to


the null hypothesis?: Reject it

831.

What is the single best predictor of suicide?: Previous


suicide attempt

832.

With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?:


REM=`remember them" ;&

833.

With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?:


Stage 4-they are not remembered

834.

What percentage of patients with HIV have AIDS dementia


complex before death?: 70% to 95%

835.

What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?:


Dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence

836.

813.

814.

815.

816.

What category of symptoms of schizophrenia associated


with muscarinic receptors include affective flattening,
social withdrawal, apathy, anhedonia, poverty of thought
and of content of speech, and lack of interest?: Negative
symptoms (type II)

817.

What is the most frequently occurring value in a set?: Mode

826.

What is the leading cause of death in men between the


ages of 25 and 44 years of age?: AIDS
What is the foremost cause of cancer death in both men
and women?: Lung cancer
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?: 1. Birth
defects 2. Low birth weight 3. SIDS
What is the most common form of sexually transmitted
disease (STD)?: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
What is the primary cause of injury to American women?:
Domestic abuse

837.

What is the leading cause of preventable mental


retardation?: Fetal alcohol syndrome

838.

What is the most abused drug for people of all ages?:


Alcohol

839.

What is the most common bacterial STD?: Chlamydia


trachomatis infection

840.

How many teenagers become pregnant each year?:


1,000,000

841.

What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by


blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?: Disulfiram

842.

Which drug is used to treat opiate withdrawal, attention


deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD), and sometimes
Tourette's syndrome?: Clonidine

843.

Which drug is used to treat the respiratory depression


associated with an overdose of opioids?: Naloxone or
naltrexone

844.

Which opioid agonist, more addictive than heroin, is used


in the treatment of heroin dependence?: Methadone

845.

What type of reinforcement strengthens each response


and involves fast learning and fast extinction?: Continuous
reinforcement

846.

What was the first formal IQ test, which is used for persons
2 to 18 years of age, proves best for children who are 6 years
of age, and is used for the very bright or the impaired?:
Stanford-Binet scale

859.

860.

What court case decided by the New York Court of Appeals


is know as the "best interest standard" case (In the situation
of an incompetent patient, this case supports decision
making based on what a reasonable person would want,
given the patient's condition.)?: Brother Fox (Eichner v.
Dillon)
What court case states that a woman has a right to privacy
and to abort a fetus?: Roe v. Wade

862.

If short-term memory and long-term memory are spared,


but new learning is impaired, what is the location of the
lesion?: Medial temporal lobe lesion

863.

What is the term for return to an earlier stage of


development?: Regression

864.

What is the defense mechanism in which the person


perceives his or her unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or
impulses as belonging to another person?: Projection

865.

According to operant conditioning theory, what type of


reinforcement is occurring in avoidance behaviors such as
phobias and compulsive rituals?: Negative reinforcement

866.

What form of learning occurs when, for example, a child


watches her mother react in fear to a snake, and learns to
be afraid of snakes?: Modeling or observational learning

867.

847.

848.

What is the term for silently removing a reinforcement


without the patient's awareness?: Fading

849.

What is the name of the technique used to treat avoidance


or obsessive-compulsive behaviors, in which patients are
gradually confronted with the objects or situations they
fear?: Exposure

850.

In what type of conditioning is the stimulus that produces


a deviant behavior paired with an unpleasant stimulus?:
Aversive conditioning

851.

What four characteristics define the sick role?: 1. Exempt


from normal responsibilities 2. Not to blame for the illness 3.
Obligated to get well 4. Obligated to seek help
What is the defense mechanism in which a patient projects
his or her thoughts, feelings, or wishes onto the physician
or therapist?: Transference
What is the term for the state of being arrested in a stage of
development?: Fixation

868.

According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents


the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?:
Superego

869.

What term refers to acting out the reverse of an


unacceptable behavior?: Undoing

870.

What is the defense mechanism which involves


"unconscious forgetting"?: Repression

What is the term for removal of a stimulus in order to stop


a behavior?: Extinction

871.

True or false according to social learning theory, people


who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others
control their fate have an internal locus of control?: Falsethese beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus
of control.

872.

852.

853.

Which IQ test is used for children between 4 and 6 years of


age?: Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
(WPPSI)

854.

What is the most widely used projective test?: Rorschach


ink blot test

855.

856.

What is the range of the low-average IQ?: 80 to 89

What term describes the ability of a test to measure


something consistently?: Reliability

857.

What is the name of the most widely used personality test


consisting of 550 true/ false questions, in which the overall
score is more important than an evaluation on an
individual scale?: Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
(MMPI)

858.

What is the range of the borderline IQ?: 70 to 79

861.

In psychoanalytic theory, which mature defense


mechanism uses comedy to express feelings and thoughts
without causing personal discomfort?: Humor
Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and
aggression (instincts) associated?: Id

873.

What is the term for: Wasting away due to malnutrition?:


Cachexia

874.

875.

What is the term for: Sexual energy?: Cathexis

876.

What is the term for: A purging of emotions?: Catharsis

Which defense mechanism involves preparation for future


events?: Anticipation

877.

878.

What term describes conscious forgetting?: Suppression

What is the term for the mature defense mechanism


whereby one helps others with no apparent expectation of
help in return?: Altruism

879.

What five qualities in an object attract a newborn's


attention?: 1. Largeness 2. Brightness 3. Contrasts 4. Curves 5.
Complex design

880.

What type of depression can occur in an infant if there is


prolonged separation from the primary caregiver?: Anaclitic
depression

881.

School phobia can result from failure to resolve what?:


Separation anxiety

882.

At what stage of sleep do you see sleep spindles and K


complexes on EEG?: Stage 2

883.

What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?:


Prolactin

884.

Which stages of sleep decrease in length when a person


grows older?: REM, non-REM, and total sleep time

885.

What hormone increases at nighttime and is associated


with seasonal affective disorder?: Melatonin

886.

What are the five Kiibler-Ross stages of adjustment to


dying?: 1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5.
Acceptance

887.

What five things are checked in the APGAR test?: 1. Sldn


color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate
APGAR Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

888.

889.

A baby's smile at birth is known as what?: Endogenous smile

What is the term for a baby's fear of unfamiliar people that


begins at about 6 months of age, peaks at about 8 months,
and is usually gone at 12 months?: Stranger anxiety

890.

What stage of sleep is assodated with theta waves and the


disappearance of alpha waves?: Stage 1

891.

At what stage of sleep is human chorionic gonadotropin


(hCG) output elevated?: Stage 4

892.

What is the most prevalent sexual disorder in men?:


Secondary impotence

893.

What is the term used when someone has sexual


orientation distress?: Ego-dystonic sexual orientation

894.

What is the name of the painful involuntary muscle


contraction of the outer one third of the vagina?:
Vaginismus

895.

What is the term for inability to have an orgasm?:


Anorgasmia (occurs in 35% of women)

896.

What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain during


intercourse?: Dyspareunia

897.

What neurotransmitter produces arousal and


wakefulness?: Dopamine

898.

899.

What hormone initiates sleep?: Serotonin

What three laboratory tests are used to test for probable


depression?: 1. Test for decreased levels of 3-methoxy-4hydroxyphenlyglycol (MHPG), which is an NE metabolite 2. TRH
stimulation test 3. Dexamethasone suppression test

906.

What is the most common psychiatric illness in women,


which presents as a vague feeling of apprehension or
worrying accompanied by one or more body sensations?:
Generalized anxiety disorder

907.

An adult with a 2-year history of depressed mood, low


energy, feelings of hopelessness, and low selfesteem, but
with no major depressive episodes or manic episodes has
what disorder?: Dysthymic disorder

908.

What is the disorder in which the patient has concurrent


symptoms of schizophrenia and depression or mania?:
Schizoaffective disorder

909.

In statistics, what form of bias is at work when the


experimenter's expectation induces results?: Pygmalion
effect

910.

Someone who is excessively shy, has a fear of rejection,


and is socially isolated has what type of personality
disorder?: Avoidant personality disorder

911.

Name the personality disorders described below: A person


who has a longstanding feeling of mistrust or suspicion, no
hallucinations, no delusions, and no antisocial behavior?:
Paranoid personality disorder

912.

Name the personality disorders described below: A person


who is uncomfortable not being the center of attention, is
an attention seeker, and has seductive behavior that is
colorful, dramatic, and extroverted?: Histrionic personality
disorder

913.

Name the personality disorders described below: A person


who gets others to assume responsibility, has difficulty
expressing disagreement, and often has an abusive spouse?:
Dependent personality disorder

914.

What type of seizure is associated with young children and


involves a brief loss of consciousness with minor motor
activity?: Petit mal (absence) seizure

915.

What is the drug of choice for treatment of Petit Mal


seizures?: Ethosuximide

916.

What neurotransmitter is responsible for allergic


conditions, and regulates emotions and acid secretions in
the stomach?: Histamine

917.

What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter of the


brain?: Glutamic acid

What hormone increases during REM sleep?: Acetylcholine


(ACh)

918.

What is the term for the lack of respiration during sleep?:


Sleep apnea

919.

What hormone decreases during REM sleep?:


Norepinephrine (NE)

920.

900.

901.

902.

What are the four pathognomonic signs of narcolepsy?: 1.


Cataplexy 2. Sleep attacks 3. Sleep paralysis 4. Hypnagogic and
hypnopompic hallucinations (disorders of REM)

903.

At what stage of sleep does bruxism (grinding of the teeth)


occur?: Stage 2

904.

905.

What is an irrational fear called?: A phobia

What is the major neurotransmitter of sensory neurons for


pain?: Substance P
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, released from
the raphe nuclei of the brain stem, is used to treat
depression and also to regulate homeostasis?: Serotonin
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of
opiates?: Enkephalins

921.

What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with


frontal and temporal lobe atrophy and is manifested
primarily as dementia?: Pick's disease

922.

What disease causes ceruloplasmin deficiency,


hepatolenticular degeneration, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?:
Wilson's disease

923.

What statement is the opposite of what the experimenter


hopes to prove?: Null hypothesis

945.

What is the degree to whichtwo measures are related?:


Correlation coefficient (does not employ causality)

946.

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter to the spinal


cord and the brain stem?: Glycine

947.

The effect on a person's behavior caused by the act of being


studied is called what?: Hawthorns effect

948.

What type of bias is involved when you ask leading


questions?: Sampling bias

949.

924.

925.

926.

What level of retardation is involved if a person has an IQ


of 20 to 34 and cannot be trained but can learn basic
habits?: Severe

927.

What term denotes the probability that the null


hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false?: Power
What is used to predict one variable from another with
interval data only?: Regression
What type of error is made when you fail to reject the null
hypothesis when it is indeed false?: Type II error (beta error)
What do you do with the null hypothesis if the P-value is
greater than .05?: Do not reject the null hypothesis.

950.

What is the half-way point on the x-axis of a gaussian


curve?: Median

951.

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Sensitivity?: No


change

952.

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Specificity?: No


change

953.

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Positive


predictive value?: Increases

954.

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Negative


predictive value?: Decreases

955.

928.

929.

930.

931.

932.

In medical screening, what is the term for: The proportion


of individ uals with a positive test result for the disease that
the test is intended to reveal?: Sensitivity

933.

In medical screening, what is the term for: The total


percentage of correctly identified subjects for what you are
testing?: Accuracy

934.

If the confidence interval contains 1.0, what would this


indicate?: There is no significant effect.
What test is used to compare two interval scales?: Pearson
correlation
What type of scale ranks with an equal distance between
groups?: Interval scale
What type of scale ranks without distance or set spaces
between the groups?: Ordinal scale
What percentage of a normal curve falls between 1
standard deviation?: 68%
A 95% confidence score means the z score is equal to
what?: 2.0

956.

What is the term for the hypothesis that the experimenter


hopes to prove true?: Alternative hypothesis

957.

What test compares two ordinal levels?: Spearman


correlation

958.

What rate is represented by the total number of cases


divided by the population at risk?: Prevalence rate

959.

What is the name for the type of study in which neither the
investigator nor the subjects know which participants are
receiving the placebo (i.e., the control group) and which
are receiving the test drug?: Double-blind study

960.

935.

936.

What is the term for the form of bias in which


preconception leads to a biased interpretation?: Prejudice

937.

What is the most scientifically rigorous study in which


subjects in a population are randomly allocated into
groups?: Randomized controlled study

938.

In what form of trial is it unethical to withhold treatment


from any specific group?: Crossover trial (e.g., azidothymidine
[AZT] trials)

What does a one-tailed null hypothesis state?: That one


group is better or worse than the other (depending on what is
asked); it is directional
What does a two-tailed null hypothesis state?: That two
groups are not the same; they are nondirectional
What test is used when one interval scale and two nominal
data sets are available?: Two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)

961.

On a normal curve, what percentage of the curve falls


between 2 standard deviations?: 95.5%

962.

963.

What is the most common cancer in men?: Prostate

964.

What is the most common cancer in women?: Breast

965.

What is the most commonly reported STD?: Gonorrhea

939.

In what type of skew is the tail to the left, and the median
greater than the mean?: Negative skew

940.

In what form of drug trial do researchers administer


regimens to humans to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a
drug?: Clinical trial

941.

942.

What term describes the average on a normal curve?: Mean

In reference to the tail on a curve, what is the greatest


value-the mean, median, or mode?: The mean (mean >
median > mode)

943.

What type of scale has a true zero point and orders items
with equal intervals?: Ratio scale

944.

What is the most commonly made diagnosis in men?:


Hypertension

966.

What is the most commonly made diagnosis in women?:


Pregnancy

967.

What is the most common cause of: Hospital admissions?:


GI disturbances

968.

What is the most common cause of: Hospital days?:


Cardiovascular disease

969.

What is the most common cause of: Days lost from work?:
Upper respiratory tract infection

970.

What is the most common cause of: Ambulatory clinic


visits?: Back pain

971.

What is the most common cause of: Work-related injury?:


Musculoskeletal problem

972.

What are the CAGE questions of alcoholism?: 1. Cut down 2.


Annoyed about criticism 3. Guilty 4. Eye opener

973.

What type of learning is described as an old response to a


new behavior?: Classical conditioning

974.

What type of learning is described as a new response to an


old behavior?: Operant conditioning

975.

What is the tendency to respond to related stimuli with


the same response or a similar response?: Stimulus
generalization

976.

What term describes any stimulus that will increase the


probability of a response?: Reinforcement

977.

In classical conditioning, what is the cause of the original


response?: Unconditioned stimulus

978.

What response occurs when a conditioned stimulus is


added to an unconditioned stimulus?: Conditioned response

979.

What is used to stop stimulus generalization and


discontinue a reinforcement that is maintaining an
operant?: Extinction

980.

What sort of ratio is on a fixed time and has a continuous


schedule?: Fixed interval ratio

981.

In this form of reinforcement, not every response is


reinforced, and the response is hard to extinguish and slow
to be learned?: Intermittent reinforcement

982.

What technique uses successive reinforcements to


establish a behavior?: Shaping (funneling)

983.

What treatment used to treat anxiety and phobias is slow,


stepwise, and based on counterconditioning?: Systemic
desensitization

984.

What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To


encourage a particular behavior?: Positive reinforcement

985.

What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To


stop a behavior?: Punishment

986.

What is it called when a stimulus unconsciously controls a


behavior?: Stimulus control

987.

What type of learning provides the organism with


information about internal functioning via monitoring of
autonomic function?: Biofeedback

988.

What method of learning involves a faced number of


responses to obtain reinforcement?: Fixed ratio

989.

According to Rotter's social learning theory, people who


feel that they are in control of their own lives, and who
believe that effort, care, and persistence pays off have what
locus of control?: Internal locus of control

990.

What IQ test is used for persons aged 6 to 17?: Wechsler


Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R)

991.

What method of learning involves a varying number of


responses to give reinforcement?: Variable ratio schedule

992.

993.

What is the range of the average IQ?: 90-109

Which IQ test is used for persons 17 years of age and older?:


Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R)

994.

Below what IQ level is a person perceived as being


mentally retarded?: Below 69

995.

What method of learning delivers the reinforcement after


an unpredictable period of time?: Variable interval ratio

996.

What are the three advanced directives?: 1. Oral directive 2.


Living will 3. Healthy power of attorney

997.

What defense mechanism involves temporary inhibition of


thoughts or impulses, in which the person is aware that he
is "forgetting"?: Blocking

998.

What defense mechanism involves defining things as either


"bad" or "good"?: Splitting

999.

The qualities of an object are internalized, obliterating


the distinction between subject and object, in what
defense mechanism?: Introjection

1000.

What defense mechanism is operating when a person


avoids becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality?:
Denial

1001.

What term describes the accuracy of a test?: Validity (You


need reliability for validity.)

1002.

What court case upheld the parents' decision to forgo


potentially lifesaving surgery for their infant with Down
syndrome and tracheoesophageal fistula (known as the
"letting nature take its course" case)?: The Infant Doe case

1003.

What are the three surrogate criteria?: 1. What did the


patient want, 2. What would the patient say, 3. What is in the
patient's best interests

1004.

What court case established that the right of decision


belongs to the incompetent patient by virtue of the right of
autonomy and privacy, and that a surrogate can draw a
conclusion about the wants and needs of the incompetent
person, based on knowing the patient?: Karen Ann Quinlan
case

1005.

What are the four most common defense mechanisms


used by obsessive-compulsive persons?: Isolation of affect,
Undoing, Reaction formation, Intellectualization

1006.

What defense mechanism shifts an emotion or drive from


one idea or object to another?: Displacement

1007.

What defense mechanism involves the separation of


oneself from one's experiences?: Dissociation

1008.

What mature defense mechanism substitutes socially


acceptable intentions for those that are unacceptable,
allowing instincts to be refocused rather than blocked?:
Sublimation

1009.

The indirect expression of hostility is known as what?:


Passive-aggressive behavior

1010.

What defense mechanism consists of an emotional or


behavioral outburst to cover up an underlying feeling or
idea?: Acting out

1011.

What is the defense methanism in which the person uses a


self-serving explanation for a belief or behavior in order to
avoid the stress of admitting his or her true motivation?:
Rationalization

1012.

What defense mechanism involves the separation of ideas


from the feelings origiinally associated with them?: Isolation

1013.

What type of smile appears at 8 weeks of age in reaction


to faces?: Exogenous smile

1014.

What defense mechanism involves excessive thinking to


avoid affective expression?: Intellectualization

1015.

In what stages of sleep, known as "deep sleep," are delta


waves seen on EEG?: Stages 3 and 4

1016.

In what stage of sleep, comprising 25% of total sleep time,


are saw-tooth waves seen on EEG?: REM stage

1017.

What type of smile occurs when a 14-month-old baby


smiles at her mother?: Preferential smile

1018.

What are the three characteristics of attention deficit


hyperactive disorder (ADHD)?: 1. Short attention span 2.
Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity

1019.

What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?:


Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

1020.

Describe the normal bereavement period?: The person


identifies with the deceased. The person has low suicidal
tendencies. The period lasts for less than 6 months.

1021.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


Trazodone?: Priapism

1034.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


Dopamine agonists?: Increased erection and libido

1035.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


Neuroleptics?: Erectile dysfunction

1036.

What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of


50 to 70 who is self-supportive with help (This category
includes approximately 85% of all mentally retarded
persons.)?: Mild

1037.

What is the diagnosis of a child who is oblivious to the


external world; has delayed language development and
pronoun reversal; participates in head-banging; inflicts selfinjury; and has no separation anxiety?: Autism

1038.

What is the probable diagnosis of a person who has a


depressed mood and hypomania for more than 2 years (not
caused by substance abuse)?: Cyclothymic (non-psychotic
bipolar) disorder

1039.

What four factors are indicators of a good prognosis for a


person with schizophrenia?: 1. Late onset 2. Acute onset 3.
Presence of positive symptoms 4. Paranoid type

What percentage of stage 4, REM, and total sleep time is


"made up" after sleep deprivation?: Stage 4-80% REM-50%
Total sleep-33%

1040.

Name the reaction that appears in babies when they are


temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This
reaction usually begins around 6 months of age, peaks
around 8 months, and decreases at 12 months.)?: Separation
anxiety

1041.

1022.

1023.

What are the characteristics of pathologic grief


(depression)?: Greater than I year in duration, Abnormal
identification with the deceased, Suicidal tendencies

1024.

What is the term used to describe ejaculation before or


just after beginning a sexual encounter?: Premature
ejaculation

1025.

What disorder is defined by the following criteria: occurs


during stages 3 and 4 of sleep; can't be diagnosed until 5
years of age; occurs more often in boys; occurs at least 2x a
week for at least 3 consecutive months; and causes distress
or impairment in social functioning?: Enuresis (bedwetting)

1026.

In what lobe of the cerebral cortex is the visual center


located?: Occipital lobe

1027.

What disorder seen in late adolescence is characterized by


normal weight, cavities, calluses on the back of hands,
enlarged parotid glands, esophageal scars, and electrolyte
imbalances?: Bulimia

1028.

Name the level of retardation in which the person has an


IQ of 35 to 49 and is considered "trainable"?: Moderate

1029.

What is the level of retardation of a person with an IQ of


less than 20 who requires total care?: Profound

1030.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


alpha-Blockers?: Impaired ejaculation

1031.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


Serotonin?: Inhibited orgasm

1032.

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with:


beta-Blockers?: Impotence

1033.

What form of schizophrenia has no prominent psychotic


symptoms at evaluation?: Residual or treated
What disorder that carries a high mortality rate is most
often associated with girls in their mid-teens who weigh
less than 85% of ideal body weight, have primary or
secondary amenorrhea and presence of lanugo?: Anorexia
nervosa

1042.

What disorder is described by the following


characteristics: 41-year-old woman of low socioeconomic
status; decreased levels of dopamine, thyroid-stimulating
hormone, and norepinephrine; depressed mood most of
the time; diminished interest and pleasure; feelings of
worthless; loss of energy and hypersomnia; weight loss;
symptoms lasting longer than 2 weeks?: Major depression
(unipolar)

1043.

What is the disorder associated with an abnormally and


persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood (manic
episode) that alternates with depression?: Bipolar disorder

1044.

What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for


emotion, memory, and language?: Temporal lobe

1045.

What neurotransmitter plays a significant role in


Alzheimer's disease and memory function, and is also
responsible for erections in men?: Acetylcholine (ACh)

1046.

What lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for speech,


personality, memory, abstract thoughts, and high-order
functions?: Frontal lobe

1047.

What is the term for bilateral occlusion of the posterior


cerebral arteries resulting in cortical blindness, where the
patient denies he or she is blind?: Anton's syndrome (Visual
hallucinations are common in relation to occipital epileptic foci.)

1048.

What lobe of the cerebral cortex is associated with


motivation, memory, emotion, violent behaviors, and
social-sexual behaviors?: Limbic lobe

1049.

What hemisphere is used for language and (for most


people) is the dominant hemisphere?: Left hemisphere (Left
= Language.)

1050.

What lobe is responsible for intellectual processing of


sensory information for visual-spatial tasks?: The
nondominant parietal lobe (usually the right)

1051.

What is the name of a report made from the outcome of a


single clinical subject?: Case report

1052.

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain


that is associated with anxiety?: Gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA)

1053.

Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine


pathway (what part of the brain)?: Nigrostriatal pathways
(basal ganglia)

1054.

What neurotransmitter is low in depression and high in


mania, is found in the locus ceruleus, and is the
neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?:
Norepinephrine (NE)

1055.

In which syndrome does a person present with


intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent
to assume the "sick role"?: Munchausen's syndrome
(factitious disorder)

1056.

What dopamine pathway is associated with the "positive"


symptoms of psychosis?: Mesolimbic-cortical pathway

1057.

The tuberoinfundibular system is associated with what


two hormones?: 1. Dopamine (prolactin inhibitory protein
[PIP])-inhibits release of prolactin 2. Prolactin

1058.

In medical screening, what is the term for the proportion


of truly disease-free individuals who are correctly identified
as not having the disease?: Specificity

1059.

Of the number of people who are tested as being negative,


the percentage that is truly negative is known as what?:
Negative predictive value

1060.

What type of study looks forward in time (the subjects are


followed into the future) and takes a long time to
complete?: Prospective study

1061.

What type of study examines the relationship between


diseases and other variables at one particular time, but not
causality?: Cross-sectional study

1062.

What study reports on the outcome of a group of clinical


subjects?: Case series reports

1063.

What type of study looks back in time to provide some


indication of past circumstances?: Retrospective study

1064.

Of the people who tested positive, what is the term for


the percentage that is actually positive for the disease?:
Positive predictive value

1065.

What test is used when you have one interval data, one
set of nominal data, and only two groups?: T-test

1066.

In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is


between: 3 standard deviations (SDs)?: 99.7%

1067.

In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is


between: The mean and 1 SD?: 34%

1068.

In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is


between: 1 SD and 2 SDs?: 13.5%

1069.

In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is


between: 2 SDs and 3 SDs?: 2.4%

1070.

In a classic gaussian curve, what percentage of the curve is


between: 3 SDs?: 0.1501%

1071.

1072.

What is the range for a high-average IQ?: 110 to 119

What test is used when you have one set of interval data
and one set of nominal data with more than two groups?:
One-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)

1073.

What test measures spatial construction and drawing


tasks?: Benton visual retention test

1074.

What type of personality is impatient, competitive,


preoccupied with deadlines, highly involved with work,
and has a high prevalence and incidence of coronary
attacks?: Type A personality

1075.

What test uses nominal data only and has more than 25
subjects associated with the study?: Chi square

1076.

What test uses nominal data only, uses a 2 X 2 table, and


has fewer than 25 subjects?: Fischer exact test

1077.

In what two areas of learning do boys often excel?:


Mathematics and visual-spatial tasks

1078.

1079.

What is the range of superior IQ?: 120 to 129

What form of test shows one or more persons in


ambiguous situations and then requires the patient to tell a
story about what is going on in the picture?: Thematic
apperception test (TAT)

1080.

Name the disorder described by the following symptoms:


delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech,
disorganized or catatonic behavior, affective flattening,
social dysfunction; persistence for at least 6 months?:
Schizophrenia

1081.

Name the type of schizophrenia in which the person is


preoccupied with delusions of persecution, frequently has
auditory hallucinations, and shows little or no impairment
in cognitive testing?: Paranoid schizophrenia

1082.

In what form of schizophrenia is the person child-like,


primitively active but aimless, and most regressed?:
Disorganized schizophrenia

1083.

Name the form of schizophrenia in which the person


presents in complete stupor, has a rigid posture with
violent/destructive outbursts, is mute, and has
psychomotor disturbances?: Catatonic schizophrenia

1084.

What personality disorder does an estimated 75% of the


total prison population have?: Antisocial personality disorder

1085.

What is the probable diagnosis of a person who suddenly


and unexpectedly leaves home, cannot recall his past, and
is confused about his identity?: Dissociative fugue

1086.

What form of amnesia is usually retrograde, with the


patient unable to remember facts about himself?:
Psychogenic amnesia (Amnesia associated with head trauma is
usually antegrade.)

1087.

What is the probable personality disorder of: A person


who is shy and who has always been eccentric and content
to be alone?: Schizoid personality disorder

1088.

What is the probable personality disorder of: A person


who seems a little odd and who has magical thinking, ideas
of reference, and illusions?: Schizotypal personality disorder

1089.

How does 1-tryptophan affect sleep?: It increases REM and


total sleep time.

1090.

What disorder is described by the following: associated


with great apprehension and fear; the person has three or
more attacks in a 3-week period; the attacks can happen
"out of the blue" and can be induced; the drug of choice is
alprazolam (Xanax)?: Panic disorder

1091.

In what personality disorder may a person be frequently


suicidal, impulsive, have intense, unstable relationships,
engage in risky behaviors, have fear of abandonment, and
even self-mutilate?: Borderline personality disorder

1092.

The typical person with this disorder is an obsessivecompulsive 7-year-old boy with an elevated dopamine
level, ADHD, and multiple motor/vocal tics for longer than
1 year?: Tourette's syndrome

1093.

What is the most common dementia in persons older


than 65 years of age that is more common in women, and
that involves diffuse atrophy, flattened cortical sulci, senile
plaques, enlarged cerebral ventricles, neuro6brillary
tangles, granulovascular changes, and -2 amyloid with T
proteins?: Alzheimer's disease

1103.

A lesion in what lobe of the cerebral cortex would present


with euphoria, auditory hallucinations, delusions, and
thought disorders?: Dominant temporal lobe lesion

1104.

What form of dementia is found in hypertensive patients,


usually affects men between the ages of 60 and 70 years, is
characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in
cognitive function owing to the cardiovascular disease, is
of sudden onset, and has a step-wise progression?: Multiinfarct dementia (vascular)

1105.

With what lesion do you see irritability and a decreased


visual and music ability?: Lesion in right temporal lobe

1106.

Where is the lesion if the patient has apathy, aggression,


and memory problems?: Limbic system

1107.

What medications are used to treat this disorder?:


Haloperidol (Haldol), pimozide, and clonidine

1108.

What type of seizure involves no loss of consciousness,


altered sensory perception, and an EEG focal spike or a
spike with a slow wave pattern?: Simple partial seizure

1109.

1094.

1095.

What is the probable diagnosis of a person with fragile


self-esteem who is prone to depression, has a grandiose
sense of self-importance, and needs constant attention?:
Narcissistic personality disorder

1096.

Where is the lesion if the patient presents with apathy,


decreased drive, poor grooming, decreased attention span,
and a poor ability to abstract?: Dorsal prefrontal cortex lesion
In what disease does the patient present with a history of
insidious onset, worsening cognition, a normal level of
consciousness, and often "sundowning"?: Dementia
What reversible disease is characterized by a rapid onset
in days to weeks, fluctuating levels of consciousness,
impaired memory, and visual hallucinations?: Delirium

1110.

What type of seizure is characterized by major motor


activity, loss of consciousness, and no true aura?: Grand mal
seizure

1111.

Name the type of seizure in which the person smells


"burning rubber," has hallucinations and illusions,
demonstrates automatism after aura, experiences focal
sensory perceptions, and loses consciousness?: Complex
partial seizure

1112.

What acute and reversible disease involving a thiamine


deficiency is characterized by ataxia, nystagmus, and
ophthalmoplegia?: Wernicke's encephalopathy

1113.

1097.

1098.

1099.

What disorder involving a lesion of the frontal lobe


(Brodmann's area 44) is characterized by the following:
there is no problem with comprehension; the person has
trouble repeating statements; speech is broken,
telegraphic, and ungrammatical; the person may be mute;
and the person may be very frustrated?: Broca's aphasia

1100.

Where is the lesion if the person refuses to accept that


there is a problem, neglects the left side, and has
constructional apraxia?: Right parietal lobe

1101.

What disease involves a lesion of the superior temporal


gyros (Brodmann's area 22), impaired comprehension,
fluent but incoherent and rapid speech, and hyperactivity,
but no muscle weakness?: Wernicke's aphasia

1102.

Where is the lesion if the patient presents with


fearfulness, explosive moods, decreased inhibition,
withdrawal, and violent outbursts?: Orbitomedial frontal
cortex lesion
What syndrome is characterized by the following:
bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, placidity,
hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual
stimuli, and visual agnosia?: Kliiver-Bucy syndrome
If there is a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus, how does
the patient present?: With anorexia and starvation
In what chronic and irreversible disease does the patient
present with thiamine deficiency, confusion,
confabulations, and amnesia?: Korsakoff's syndrome (alcohol
induced amnestic syndrome)

1114.

Where is the lesion if short-term memory is spared, while


long-term memory and new learning are impaired?:
Hippocampus

1115.

Where is the lesion if the patient presents with


hyperphagia and obesity?: Ventromedial hypothalamus

1116.

How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol


intoxication?: Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during
withdrawal

1117.

What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4 sleep


during major depression?: Increased REM sleep, decreased
REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early
morning awakening

1118.

What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine


use?: They decrease REM and stage 4 sleep

1119.

How do barbiturates affect sleep?: Rebound insomnia,


Decrease in REM sleep

1120.

1121.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycolysis?: PFK-1

What is the rate-limiting step of: Gluconeogenesis?:


Pyruvate carboxylase

1122.

In what benign condition do you see excretion of large


amounts of fructose after ingestion?: Essential fructosuria
(fructokinase deficiency)

1144.

What is the glycolysis enzyme found only in the liver?:


Glucokinase

1145.

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA?: 12 (Not 15that would be the answer if you included the pyruvate to acetyl
CoA step.)

1146.

What is the rate-limiting step of: TCA (Krebs) cycle?:


Isocitrate dehydrogenase

1147.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenesis (glycogen


synthesis)?: Glycogen synthase

1148.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Glycogenolysis?:


Glycogen phosphorylase

1149.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Hexose monophosphate


(HMP) shunt?: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD)

1150.

1123.

1124.

1125.

1126.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Fatty acid synthesis?:


Acetyl CoA carboxylase

1127.

What is the rate-limiting step of: -Oxidation?: Carnithine


acyltransferase I

1128.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Ketogenolysis?: HMG CoA


synthase

1129.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Cholesterol synthesis?:


HMG CoA reductase

1130.

What enzyme is associated with the substrate-level


phosphorylation in the TCA cycle?: Succinate thiokinase
The availability of OAA and acetyl CoA regulates what
pathway?: TCA cycle
What complex of the electron transport chain (ETC) is
inhibited by malonate?: Complex II
What drug blocks the FO portion of the adenosine
triphosphatase (ATPase) system of the electron transport
chain (ETC)?: Oligomycin
In what two places is glycogen made and stored?: 1. Liver
2. Muscle: Liver stores are for blood glucose; muscle stores are
for energy reserves.

1151.

What drug blocks the ETC by attaching itself to K+ for


passage through the membrane, negating the charge
gradient?: Valinomycin

1152.

At what step of the TCA cycle is FADH2 generated?:


Succinate dehydrogenase (inhibited by malonate)

What is the rate-limiting step of: Urea cycle?: Carbamoyl


phosphate synthetase I

1153.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Heme synthesis?: DeltaAminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase

1154.

1131.

1132.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Pyrimidine synthesis?:


Aspartate transcarbomylase

1133.

What is the rate-limiting step of: Purine synthesis?:


Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) glutamyl amido
transferase

1134.

What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?:


Propionic acid

1135.

1136.

Aldose reductase converts galactose to what?: Galactitol

1137.

How many ATPs are generated from glycolysis?: 8

In the mitochondria, what complex is needed in order for


pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from
pyruvate to OAA?: Biotin, ATP, and COZ

1138.

What inhibits the ATP/ADP translocase of the ETC?:


Atractyloside
Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is associated with what
three enzymes?: 1. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pynivate
dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase

1156.

1157.

Deficiency in what enzyme leads to insoluble glycogen


formation?: A-1,6 transferase
The reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
phosphate (NADPH) generated from the G-6-PD reaction is
used exclusively for what?: Fatty acid synthesis

1159.

What enzyme requires selenium (Se) to function?:


Glutathione peroxidase

1160.

What are the two essential fatty acids?: 1. Linoleic acid 2.


Linolenic acid

1161.

What three substrates control the enzyme


phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the
conversion of OAA to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?: 1. Cortisol
(stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. Guanine triphosphate (GTP)

1162.

What is released from the reaction of


phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) for the
conversion of OAA to pyruvate?: C02

1164.

1140.

1141.

What enzyme deficiency causes cataracts, galactosemia,


and galactosuria?: Galactokinase deficiency

1142.

The addition of D-2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (D-2,3-BPG) to


HbA does what to the 02 saturation curve?: Shifts it to the
right

1143.

What hormone stimulates glycogen synthesis?: Insulin

1158.

What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in


glycolysis?: Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

1139.

What inhibits complex III of the ETC?: Antimycin A

1155.

What intermediate of the HMP pathway is used to


generate nucleotides?: Ribose-5-phosphate
A deficiency in what enzyme causes a decrease in
oxidoreductase activity in neutrophils?: G-6-PD

1163.

What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt?:


Transketolase and transaldolase
Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?:
Reversible

1165.

A patient who presents with cardiomegaly and


hepatomegaly has what glycogen storage disease?: Pompe's
disease (lysosomal glucosidase deficiency)

1166.

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) remnants are known


as what?: Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)

1167.

What carries triacylglycerols (TAGS) and cholesterol from


the diet?: Chylomicrons

1168.

What protein is required for the uptake of low-density


lipoproteins (LDLs) in the peripheral tissue?: Apoprotein B100

1169.

What 3 apoproteins are on the surface of chylomicrons?:


Apoprotein B-48, C-II, and E

1170.

What happens to affinity if you increase K?: Affinity


decreases (they are inversely proportional)

1195.

What two amino acids disrupt an a-helix?: 1. Glycine 2.


Proline

1196.

1197.

What enzyme requires molybdenum (Mo) as a cofactor?:


Xanthine oxidase

1198.

What determines the rate of a reaction?: The energy of


activation (Ea)

1199.

What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?: Albumin

1200.

What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when blood


glucose levels decrease?: Hormone-sensitive lipase

1201.

In the P-oxidation pathway, what enzyme generates the


FADH2?: Acyl CoA dehydrogenase

1202.

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA in [3oxidation?: 5

1203.

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA from [3oxidation if it is run through the TCA cycle?: 12

1204.

What is the only organ in the body that can produce


ketone bodies?: The liver (in the mitochondria)

1205.

1171.
1172.

1173.

1174.

1175.

1176.

What two tissues prefer ketone bodies over glucose?: 1.


Heart muscle 2. Renal cortex

1177.

What amino acid is a phenol?: Tyrosine

What substrate concentration is required to produce 1/2


Vmax?: Km
What enzyme is blocked by allopurinol?: Xanthine oxidase
("suicide inhibitor")
What enzyme is stimulated by PTH to produce 1,25
vitamin D3?: 1-a-Hydroxylase
What three organs are used to produce vitamin D?: 1. Skin
2. Liver 3. Kidney
What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?:
Vitamin A
What G protein is stimulated by activated rhodopsin?: Gt
(transducin), which decreases cyclic guanosine monophosphate
(cGMP) and closes the Na+ channels, causing nerve
transmission

What enzyme is absent in the liver so that ketogenolysis


cannot occur?: Thiophorase

1206.

What pathway utilizes HMG-CoA synthetase in the


cytoplasm?: Cholesterol biosynthesis

1207.

What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in


contact with acetaldehyde?: 1. Thiamine 2. Folate

1208.

What is the activated form of vitamin E?: Alpha-tocopherol

What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?: Ceramide

1209.

What elements make up a nucleoside?: A base and a sugar

1210.

What is the most common methylated base?: Cytosine

1211.

DNA is replicated at what phase of the cell cycle?: S phase

1212.

At which end of DNA are new bases added?: 3' end

1178.

1179.

1180.

1181.

What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?: 1.


Glucose 2. Galactose

1182.

Where does the energy for the urea cycle come from?: Fat
metabolism

1183.

What are the two major carriers of nitrogen from tissues?:


1. Glutamine (most tissues) 2. Alanine (muscle)

1184.

1185.

What are the ketogenic amino acids?: Leucine and lysine

1186.

What is the storage form of folate?: N-methyl folate

What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme


tyrosinase?: Albinism (Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the
enzyme tyrosinase.)

1187.

What are the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors?: 2, 7,


9, and 10
What vitamin is connected to selenium (Se) metabolism?:
Vitamin E

What keeps single-strand DNA (ssDNA) from re-annealing


during DNA replication?: Single-strand (ss) binding protein

1213.

What enzyme is responsible for producing a single-strand


(ss) cut in the DNA to relieve the coil tension?:
Topoisomerase I (relaxase)

1214.

What two amino acids are found in high concentrations


in the nucleosome?: 1. Arginine 2. Lysine

1215.

What three bases are pyrimidines?: 1. Cytosine 2. Uracil


(only in RNA) 3. Thymidine

1216.

What two enzymes are blocked by lead?: 1. ALA


dehydratase 2. Ferrochelatase

1217.

Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?:


Reticular endothelial system (RES)

1218.

What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice?:


Indirect or unconjugated

1219.

1188.

1189.

1190.

What enzyme creates a short sequence of RNA to start


DNA replication?: Primase
What type of enzyme is reverse transcriptase?: RNAdependent DNA polymerise

What is the primary end product of pyrimidine


synthesis?: Uridine monophosphate (UMP)

1220.

All amino acids have titration plateaus at what pH


values?: PH of 2 and 9

1221.

1191.

1192.

1193.

What amino acid is a good buffer at a pH of 7?: Histidine

What is the only way to increase maximum velocity


(VmaY)?: Increase enzyme concentrations

1194.

What is the direction of transcription?: 5' to 3' direction

Where is the TATA box in located eukaryotes?: 25 bases


downstream (-25)(promoter)
What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?: The
poly(A) site on the DNA
What protein binds to the promoter region in eukaryotes
to initiate transcription?: TF II D (transcription factor)

1222.

What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the ShineDalgarno sequence?: 16S subunit

1223.

1224.

What is the start codon for translation?: AUG

What amino acid is broken down into N20, causing an


increase in eGMP of smooth muscle resulting in
vasodilatation?: Arginine

1248.

What hormone phosphorylates enzymes to decrease their


activity?: Glucagon

What is the enzyme that activates the amino acids for the
tRNA?: Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

1249.

What is needed to direct enzymes to a lysosome?:


Phosphorylation of mannose residues

1250.

1225.

1226.

1227.

What cofactor is needed for lysyl oxidase?: Cu2+

Lack of what enzyme can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff


syndrome through lack of activity in the HMP shunt?:
Thiamine pyrophospate (TPP)
What enzyme found in the liver catalyzes glycerol to
glycerol-3-phosphate?: Glycerol kinase

What part of the 50S and 60S ribosomal subunit is needed


for elongation?: Peptidyl transferase

1251.

In the lac operon: At which site is the repressor gene


encoded?: I gene

1252.

To which site does the repressor protein bind in order to


inhibit transcription?: Operator

1253.

What amplification technique is used to generate a larger


amount of DNA?: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

1254.

What test is used to determine whether a gene is


expressed?: Northern blotting

1255.

1228.

1229.

1230.

1231.

1232.

1233.

At what organ in the body is urea produced?: Liver

What regulatory proteins work during fetal development


to ensure that cells become a specific cell type (If there is a
defect here, there can be profound structural mutations.)?:
Homeobox genes

1234.

What is the mode of inheritance in which a trait is seen in


every generation and is passed on only by females?:
Mitochondrial inheritance

1235.

Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the


cytoplasm for ketogenesis?: Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II
Which enzyme is deficient in phenylketonuria (PKU)?:
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
After approximately how many days of a prolonged fast
does death occur in humans?: 60 days
What is the cause of death?: The breakdown of the essential
proteins of the heart and brain
All the carbons in a fatty acid are derived from what
source?: Cytoplasmic acetyl CoA that left the mitochondria as
citrate

1256.

What enzyme is deficient in alcaptonuria?: Homogentisic


acid

1257.

In a diabetic patient, glucose is converted by aldose


reductase to what?: Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)

1258.

What glycolytic intermediate can be used to synthesize


triglycerides and phospholipids?: DHAP

1259.

What is the name for the process of going from mRNA to


proteins?: Translation

1260.

What are the components of a nucleotide?: A base, a


sugar, and a phosphate

1261.

What enzymes hydrolyze 3'-5' phosphodiesterase bonds


from the outside of the strand in?: Exonucleases

1262.

What type of organisms have monocistronic mRNA?:


Eukaryotes

1263.

1236.

1237.

1238.

1239.

In collagen, every third amino acid is this amino acid.:


Glycine

1240.

What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has no


introns or regulatory elements?: c-DNA, when it is made from
mRNA

1241.

What proteins stimulate a cell to enter the S phase?:


Growth factors

1242.

At what pH is there no net charge on the structure?: pI


(isoelectric point)

1243.

1244.

What complex of the ETC contains Cue+?: Complex 4

What two shuttles are needed to keep NAD+ in the


reduced state?: Malate/aspartate and glycerol-3-phosphate
shuttles

1245.

What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax high Km and low


affinity for glucose?: Glucokinase
What is the main inhibitor of pyrnvate dehydrogenase?:
Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
What are the two substrate-level phosphorylations in
glycolysis?: 1. Pyruvate kinase 2. Phosphoglycerate kinase
What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?: 1. Fructokinase
2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate
carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate 8.
Glucose-6-phosphate
In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is
converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being
taken back to the liver?: Alanine cycle

1264.

In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is


converted to lactate, and then returned to the liver?: Cori
cycle

1265.

What four substances increase the rate of


gluconeogenesis?: 1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP

1266.

What enzyme is deficient in a patient who presents with:


Liver damage and severe hypoglycemia?: Aldolase B
(hereditary fructose intolerance)

1267.

What vitamin is required for y-carboxylation of many


Cat+-binding proteins?: Vitamin K

1268.

From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?: Oxidation of fatty acids

1269.

1246.

1247.

Jaundice, vomiting, lethargy, cat, galactosemia, and


galactosuria?: Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
What three substances stimulate glycogenolysis?: 1.
Cat+:calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon
What are the two inhibitors of complex I of the ETC?: 1.
Rotenone 2. Amytai (barbiturates)

1270.

What are the five factors that constitute the pyruvate


dehydrogenase complex?: 1. TPP 2. Lipoic acid 3. CoASH 4. FAD
5. NAD

1271.

What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into


the mitochondria without going through the ATPgenerating system?: 24-Dinitrophenol

1272.

How many NADPHs are used per addition of each of acetyl


CoA into a fatty acid chain?: 2 NADPHs/acetyl CoA

1293.

What apoprotein activates lipoprotein lipase in the


capillary epithelium to hydrolyze TAGS?: Apoprotein C-II

1294.

What apoproteins are on the surface of IDL?: Apoproteins


B-100 and E

1295.

What are the two decarboxylation steps of the TCA cycle?:


1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 2. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

1296.

What are the three inhibitors of complex IV of the ETC?: 1.


Cyanide 2. CO 3. Azide

1297.

1273.

1274.

What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?: 1.


Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. aKetoglutarate dehydrogenase

1275.

What disease presents with weakness and cramps on


exercise without an increase in blood lactate levels?:
McArdle's disease (muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency)

1276.

NADPH generated from the HMP shunt is used for what?:


Fatty acid synthesis, nucleotide synthesis, and glutathione
reductase

1277.

Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or -6 fatty acid?: Omega-3;


linoleic is omega-6

1278.

Is the oxidative reaction of the HMP shunt reversible or


irreversible?: Irreversible (G-6-PD and 6-phosphogluconate
dehydrogenase)

1279.

What disease presents with an enlarged liver and kidneys,


dwarfism, hypoglycemia, acidosis, and hyperlipidemia?:
Von Gierke's disease (glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency)

1280.

At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into


glycolysis?: 1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 1

1281.

Deficiency in the liver glycogen phosphorylase enzyme is


known as what?: Hers disease

1282.

What causes the lysis of red blood cells by oxidizing


agents in a glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency?: The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results
in a decrease in NADPH production, leaving glutathione in the
reduced state.

1283.

What disease presents with hepatomegaly and a normal


EKG?: Glycogen storage disease, type III (Forbes disease, Cori
disease)

1284.

What apoprotein is on the surface of LDL?: Apoprotein B100

1285.

From which two substances are phospholipids made?: 1.


DAGs 2. Phosphatidic acid
What apoproteins are on the surface of HDL?: Apoprotein
A-I, C-II, and E
What is needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid
chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?: NADPH, O2, and
cytochrome b5

1298.

What apoprotein activates lecithin cholesterol acyl


transferase to esterify cholesterol from tissue?: Apoprotein
A-I

1299.

What apoproteins are on the surface of VLDL?:


Apoproteins B-100, C-II, and E

1300.

At the end of each round of -oxidation, what is


released?: Acetyl CoA, FADH, and NADH

1301.

What two enzymes are vitamin B12 dependent?: 1.


Homocysteine methyl transferase 2. Methylmalonyl CoA
transferase

1302.

What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?: Aldehyde


dehydrogenase

1303.

What hormone hydrolyzes TAGS to free fatty acids and


glycerol?: Hormone-sensitive lipase

1304.

What enzyme is deficient in a patient 2 years of age or


younger who presents with vomiting, lethargy, coma,
hypoketosis, and hypoglycemia following a fast of more
than 12 hours?: Medium-chain acyl dehydrogenase

1305.

What form of alcohol did the patient drink if he became


blind as a result?: Methanol (wood alcohol)

1306.

What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?: The


rate of -oxidation

1307.

What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into


the TCA cycle?: Succinyl CoA

1308.

What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and


palmitoyl CoA?: Sphingosine

1309.

What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors


proteins in the membranes and forms CoQ?: Farnesyl
pyrophosphate (FPP)

1310.

What carries cholesterol from the tissues back to the


liver?: HDLs

1311.

What apoprotein mediates the uptake of remnants by the


liver?: Apoprotein E

1312.

What is the complex needed for acetyl CoA carboxylase?:


Biotin, ATP, and G02 (acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA)

1313.

What are the three tissues where TAGS are produced?: 1.


Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue

1314.

1286.

1287.

1288.

1289.

1290.

What delivers cholesterol to the tissues?: LDLs

What apoprotein is produced by the intestinal


epithelium?: Apoprotein B-48

1291.

1292.

What carries TAGS to the peripheral tissues?: VLDLs

What is the complex needed for propionyl CoA


carboxylase?: Biotin, ATP, and C02
What are the three ketone bodies?: 1. Acetoacetate 2.
Acetone 3. -hydroxybutyrate
What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking
ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?: Nephrotoxic oxylate stones
What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and
p04?: Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it is not a sphingolipid)
What is the order of fuel utilization in a prolonged fast?: 1.
Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3.
Body protein 4. Body fat

1315.

Sialic acid and amino sugars are needed to produce what


sphingolipid?: Ganglioside

1316.

What substrates are needed to produce carbamoyl P04


(de novo pyrimidine synthesis)?: Glutamine, CO2, and ATP via
carbamoyl PO4 synthetase II

1340.

What vitamin is needed as a cofactor for decarboxylation


and transaminase reactions?: Vitamin B6

1341.

What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the
urea cycle?: 1. Aspartate 2. Carbomoyl PO4

1342.

1317.

1318.

What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N5 methyl


folate?: Homocysteine methyl transferase

1319.

What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood


ammonia and an increase in uracil and orotate
concentrations in both the blood and urine?: Ornithine
transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency-also called ornithine
carbamoyltransverase (OCT) deficiency

1320.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: Serotonin?: Tryptophan

1321.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: GABA?: Glutamate

1322.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: Histamine?: Histidine

1323.

What enzyme is blocked by


methotrexate/trimethoprim?: Dihydrofolate reductase
What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson
syndrome?: Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia (It is a
transport defect.)
What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?:
Unconjugated (indirect)

1343.

In what disease is there a genetic absence of


UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in an increase in free
unconjugated bilirubin?: Crigler-Najjar syndrome

1344.

What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent


porphyria?: Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase

1345.

What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic


porphyria?: Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase

1346.

1347.

What two amino acids have a pKa of 10?: 1. Lysine 2.


Tyrosine

1348.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: Creatine?: Glycine/arginine

1349.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: NAD?: Tryptophan

1350.

What amino acid is a precursor of the following


substances: N20?: Arginine

1351.

1324.

1325.

1326.

What enzyme deficiency will result in an increase in blood


ammonia, but no increase in uracil concentrations?:
Carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase

1327.

What are the glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?:


Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Threonine

1328.

What two amino acids have a pKa of 4?: 1. Aspartic acid 2.


Glutamic acid
What disease has a genetic deficiency in adenosine
deaminase?: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
What type of charge does the molecule have if the pH is
greater than the pI (isoelectric point)?: A net negative charge
In what disease is there a deficiency in hypoxanthine
guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)?: Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome

1352.

1353.

What are the three diseases of sphingolipids?: 1. NiemannPick disease 2. Gaucher's disease 3. Tay-Sachs disease

1354.

What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?:


Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia

1355.

What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP?:


Orotic acid

1356.

1329.

1330.

1331.

What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?:


Ganglioside GM2
On a Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has
both plots crossing the y-axis in the same spot?: Competitive,
reversible inhibition (Vmax is the same, increase Km)

1357.

What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?: Ribonucleotide


reductase

1358.

1333.

1334.

What is the primary end product of purine synthesis?: IMP

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via GS protein to increase


CAMP?: Cholera toxin
What vitamin derivatives are used for growth and
differentiation of epithelium for reproductive and
embryonic development?: Vitamin A

What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?:


Ferrochelatase

1359.

What are the two precursors of heme?: 1. Glycine 2.


Succinyl-CoA

1360.

1335.

1336.

1337.

What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?: Thymidylate synthetase

Light causes isomerization of what in the eyes?: 11-cisretinal to traps-retinal (activated rhodopsin)
What are the two actions of calcitonin?: 1. Increases Ca2+
excretion from the kidney 2. Increases bone mineralization
What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Cat+,
as well as P04 absorption from the GI tract and kidney
tubules?: Vitamin D

What disease has a genetically low level of


UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in elevated free
unconjugated bilirubin?: Gilbert's syndrome

1361.

What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?:


Unconjugated free bilirubin

1362.

1338.

1339.

What is the end product of purine catabolism?: Uric acid

What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell


immunodeficiency?: Purine nucleoside phosphorylase

What three amino acids are used to synthesize the purine


ring?: 1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine

1332.

What amino acid has a pKa of 13?: Arginine

On the Lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has


both plots crossing the x-axis in the same spot?:
Noncompetitive, reversible binding (decrease in Vmax; Km is
same)

What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount


of enzyme?: Vmax

1363.

What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki


fragments, 3' exonuclease activity, and 5' exonuclease
activity?: DNA polymerase I

1387.

To what are intracellular glucose levels inversely related?:


cAMP levels

1388.

Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?: No;


unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds

1389.

1364.

1365.

What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?: 1. A decrease


in blood Ca2+ 2. A decrease in PO4 concentrations

1366.

What in the human genome differs in each individual that


can serve as an identification marker?: RFLP-restriction
fragment length polymorphism

1367.

What test is used to identify HIV-positive patients?: ELISAenzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

1368.

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via G to increase cAMP?:


Pertussis toxin

1369.

What vitamin is essential for normal Ca2+ and P04


metabolism?: Vitamin D

1370.

What vitamin is deficient in a person who has impaired


taste, night blindness, and increased risk for having an
abortion?: Vitamin A

1371.

What bond does an endonuclease cleave?: 3', 5' internal


phosphodiesterase bond

1372.

What protein separates base pairs and unwinds the DNA


at the replication fork?: Helicase (It is an ATP-dependent
enzyme.)

1373.

What vitamin deficiency would cause liver necrosis and


red blood cell fragility?: Vitamin E deficiency

1374.

What protein catalyzes the formation of the last


phosphodiester bond (PDE) between the Okazaki fragments
to produce a continuous strand?: DNA ligase

1375.

What is the hypochromic effect?: Increased absorption as


DNA goes from double stranded to single stranded

1376.

What type of mutation has the same amino acid coded


for, but with a different codonsequence?: Silent mutation
At what position of the anticodon does the "wobble"
hypothesis occur?: Position 1 of the anticodon (the 5' end)which is the same as position 3 of the codon (the 3' end)

1390.

What stops transcription in procaryotes?: Rho factor or a


hairpin loop

1391.

What are the three post-transcriptional modifications?: 1.


7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A)
tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns

1392.

In what type of mutation is a different codon added,


resulting in formation of a different amino acid?: Missense
mutation

1393.

What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in


eukaryotes?: Methionine

1394.

What enzyme makes tRNA and the SsRNA?: RNA


polymerase III

1395.

What structure of a protein describes the interaction


among subunits?: Quaternary structure

1396.

What two amino acids require vitamin C for


hydroxylation?: 1. Proline 2. Lysine

1397.

What is determined by the secondary structure of an


amino acid?: The folding of an amino acid chain

1398.

Which mutation has a stop codon put in place of the


previous codon?: Nonsense mutation

1399.

What amino acid is attached to the 3' end of the tRNA in


prokaryotes?: f-Methionine

1400.

What enzyme makes rRNA (barring the 5s subunit)?: RNA


polymerase I

1401.

1377.

What technique uses DNA for analysis?: Southern blotting

1378.

In what direction is a new DNA strand made?: 5' to 3'

1402.

What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis activity and a 3'


exonuclease activity?: DNA polymerase III

1403.

1379.

What enzyme makes a double-stranded cut through DNA,


needs ATP, and introduces negative supercoiling?:
Topoisomerase II

1380.

What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA


replication?: a- and delta-polymerase

1381.

What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: Replication


in mitochondria?: gamma-Polymerase

1382.

What eukaryotic DNA polymerase is used for: DNA


repair?: -Polymerase

1383.

What is the site of action of cycloheximide?: Peptidyl


transferase (60S)
What translation factor is blocked by erythromycin?:
Elongation factore G (EF-G)
What is the charge of the molecule if the pH is less than
the pI (isoelectric point)?: A net positive charge

1404.

What technique uses the separation of proteins on a gel


electrophoresis?: Western blot

1405.

Lack of what vitamin causes multiple carboxylase


deficiency?: Biotin

1406.

1407.

What enzyme is deficient in cystathioninuria?:


Cystathionase

1409.

What is the location of the TATA box in procaryotes?: 10


bases downstream

1410.

What binds to the promoter region in procaryotes?: Sigma


factor

1411.

1385.

1386.

What enzyme makes hnRNA/mRNA?: RNA polymerase II

1408.

What is the orientation of the gene sequence strand?: 5' to


3' (same as RNA)

1384.

What are the three "stop" codons?: 1. UAA 2. UAG 3. UGA

What enzyme is deficient in maple syrup urine disease?:


Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase
What type of mutation has the addition or deletion of a
base?: Frameshift
What is the site of action of puromycin?: Aminoacyl tRNA
(A site)

What translational factor is blocked by both diphtheria


and Pseudomonas toxins?: Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)

1412.

What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?:


Glucosyl cerebroside

1413.

What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria?:


Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine synthetase

1414.

What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?:


Tyrosine kinase

1415.

What is the second messenger system used by growth


factors?: Sphingomyelin

1416.

What is the name of the sequence on mRNA that precedes


the start codon in prokaryotes?: Shine-Dalgarno sequence

1417.

1418.

What amino acid undergoes N-glycosylation?: Asparagine

What translational factor is blocked by tetracycline?:


Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)

1419.

1420.

What translational factor is blocked by streptomycin?: IF-

What virus is associated with intranuclear inclusions


known as "owl's eye" inclusions?: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

1437.

1438.

What virus is associated with Negri bodies?: Rabies virus

What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?: Variola


virus -7-ox vtrcs

1439.

What virus causes small, pink, benign wart-like tumors


and is associated with HIV-positive patients?: Molluscum
contagiosum

1440.

What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?:


Human papilloma viruses (HPVs) 16 and 18

1441.

What virus is associated with erythema infectiosum or


fifth disease?: Parvovirus B-19

1442.

What virus binds to: CD4?: Human immunodeficiency virus


(HIV)

1443.

What virus binds to: 2-Microglobulin?: Cytomegalovirus


(CMV)

1444.

1445.

Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?: Prokaryotes:


Polycistonic and prokaryotes both start with P.

1446.

What virus binds to: ACh receptors?: Rabies virus

1447.

What is the only dsRNA virus?: Reovirus

1421.

In what disease are lysosomal enzymes released into the


extracellular space where an accumulation of inclusion
bodies compromises the cell's function?: I-cell disease

1422.

What virus binds to: Complement factor C3?: Epstein-Barr


virus (EBV) - Qp7_1

What are the three non-enveloped RNA viruses?: 1.


Picornavirns 2. Calicivirns 3. Reovirns (PCR)

1448.

What is the site of action of chloramphenicol?: Peptidyl


transferase (50s)

1449.

What is needed to initiate translation?: IF and GTP (OF for


eukaryotes)

1450.

What is the name of the process of going from DNA to


mRNA?: Transcription

1451.

Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5'
end?: 3' end. Phosphate (P04) is at the 5' end.

1452.

What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the


enzyme affects?: Ea (activation energy)

1453.

1423.

1424.

1425.

1426.

1427.

What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell from


entering S phase when no growth factors are present?: Rb
gene

1428.

What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell with


damaged DNA from entering the S phase?: p53 gene

1429.

What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?:


EF-Tu or EF-is and GTP

1430.

What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A


intranuclear inclusions?: Herpes virus I and II
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?:
Calicivirns
What virus affects the motor neurons in the anterior
horn?: Poliovirus
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?:
Adenovirns /Ro.S.mftg
What virus lies dormant in the: Trigeminal ganglia?:
Herpes I
What virus lies dormant in the: Dorsal root ganglia?:
Varicella

1454.

What virus lies dormant in the: Sensory ganglia of S2 and


S3?: Herpes II

1455.

1456.

What are the four segmented RNA viruses?: 1. Bunyavirns


2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Reovirns 4. Arenavirus (BORA)

1457.

What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?:


EF-2 and GTP

1458.

What type of inheritance involves carriers, affects only


males, and skips generations?: X-linked recessive

1459.

1431.

1432.

What type of separation technique uses RNA on an


electrophoresis?: Northern blotting

1433.

What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?:


EF-1 and GTP

1434.

What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?:


EF-G and GTP

1435.

What type of inheritance has no male-to-male


transmission, and every daughter is affected from the father
in every generation?: X-linked recessive

1436.

With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?: EBV

Koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear are


indicative of what virus?: HPV
What bacteria constitute the most common cause of
nosocomial infections in burn patients and in patients with
cystic fibrosis?: Pseudomonas
What organism is associated with pneumonia acquired
from air conditioners?: Legionella

1460.

What species of bacteria is associated with whooping


cough?: Bordetella pertus,sis

1461.

What two bacteria are associated with drinking


unpasteurized milk?: 1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling
motility)

1462.

What organism is associated with gastritis and ulcers?:


Helicobacter pylori

1463.

What species of bacteria is associated with traveler's


diarrhea?: Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)

1464.

With what organism is "currant jelly" sputum associated?:


Klebsiella pneumoniae

1465.

What is the most common cause of enterocolitis?:


Salmonella enteritidis

1466.

What is the causative agent of orchitis, parotids, and


pancreatitis?: Mumps virus

1490.

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?: Vesicular


stomatitis virus

1491.

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in


children 1 year old or younger?: Respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV)

1492.

What organism is so infective that it takes only 1 to 10


organisms to cause an infection?: Shigella

1493.

What organism stains bipolar and causes buboes?: Yersinia


pesos

1494.

1467.

1468.

Rice water stools are indicative of what organism?: Vibrio


cholerae

1469.

With what organism are intracellular gram-negative


inclusions in neutrophils associated?: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

1470.

What organism is most likely to cause an infection if you


are bitten by a dog or a cat?: Pasteurella

1471.

What organism needs factor X and NAD in order to grow


on growth medium?: Haemophilu.s influenzae type B

1472.

What organism is associated with a rigid belly and rose


spots on the belly?: Salnwnella typhi

1473.

What organism will cause an infection if undercooked or


raw seafood is eaten?: Vibrio parahaemolyticus

1474.

What virus is the most common cause of the common


cold in the winter and early spring?: Coronavinzs
What fungus is a facultative intracellular parasite of the
reticular endothelial system?: Histoplasma capsulatum

1495.

What virus is helical and has HN and F glycoprotein


spikes?: Paramyxovirus

1496.

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in persons


with underlying health problems?: Klebsiella pneumoniae

1497.

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young


children?: Mycoplasma

1498.

What virus causes epidemic keratoconjunetivitis?:


Adenovirus

1499.

1500.

What two viruses have neuraminidase activity?: 1.


Influenza 2. Mumps

1502.

What infective bacteria are found in undercooked


hamburgers?: Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss

1503.

1476.

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?:


Rotavirus

What organism is said to have a "spaghetti and meatball"


arrangement under a microscope?: Malassezia furfur

1504.

What fungus is associated with rose gardener's disease?:


Sporothrix schenckii

1505.

What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?:


Chromomycosis

1506.

1477.

1478.

1479.

What fungus is found in soil with bird or bat feces?:


Histoplasma cap.sulatum

1480.

Which organism causes San Joaquin fever?: Coccidioides


immitis

1481.

What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?:


Candida albicans

1482.

With what two viruses are Reye's syndrome associated?: 1.


Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
What is the most common cause of meningitis in:
Children younger than 3 months of age?: Streptococcus
agalactiae or Escherichia Coli
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Nonimmunized children 12 months to 6 years old?: Haemophilus
influenzae type b

1507.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in:


Immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?:
Streptococcus pneumoniae

1508.

1509.

What fungus is seen as a yeast with broad-based buds and


a double refractile cell wall?: Blastomyces dermatitidis

1510.

1484.

What fungus is stained positive with India ink?:


Cryptococcus neoforrnans

1485.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Military


recruits?: Neisseria meningitidis
What is the most common cause of meningitis in:
HIV+/immunocompromised persons?: Cryptococcus
neoformans
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Adults?:
Streptococcus pneunwniae

What virus is the most common causative agent of the


common cold in the summer and the fall?: Rhiuovirus

1511.

To what family of viruses do dengue, St. Louis, and yellow


fever belong?: Flavivirus

1512.

What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?: Rhabdovirus

1513.

1486.

1487.

1488.

What virus is responsible for causing the croup and also


the common cold in the young and the old?: Paraiuflueuza
virus

1489.

What is the reservoir for the togavirus?: Birds

What two viruses cause pancreatitis?: 1. Mumps 2.


Coxsackie B40

What fungus is found in pigeon droppings?: Cryptococcus


neoformans

1483.

What is the most common cold virus?: Rhinovirus

1501.

What organism is likely to infect you if you get cut by a


shell at the beach?: Vibrio vulnificus

1475.

What yeast is urease positive?: Cryptococcus neoformans

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in


children?: RSV
What is the most common cause of urinary tract
infections?: Escherichia coli
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative
mononucleosis?: 1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria

1514.

1515.

What two genera are spore formers?: 1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus

What bacteria are responsi- ble for woolsorters' disease?:


Bacillus anthracis

1516.

What is the most common cause of bacterial


pneumonia?: Streptococcus pneumoniae

1517.

Which organism releases endotoxins PRIOR to cell death?:


Neisseria meningitidis

1544.

1545.

What is the only DNA virus to replicate in the cytoplasm?:


Poxvirus

What bacteria cause subacute endocarditis and dental


caries?: Streptococcus viridans

1547.

Which two organisms can cause sulfur granules in the


pus?: 1. Actinomyces 2. Nocardia

1548.

What species of bacteria is responsible for causing


endocarditis in IV drug users?: Staphylococcus epidermidis

1549.

What bacteria are responsible for food poisoning from


rice, fried rice, and reheated foods?: Bacillus cereus

1550.

Which bacteria present as a common cause of meningitis


in renal transplant patients?: Listeria

1551.

1518.

1519.

1520.

1521.

1522.

What bacteria get inoculated into the body by a puncture


wound in the skin and also inhibit glycine and GABA?:
Clostridium tetani

1523.

What bacteria are found in poorly preserved canned food


and cause flaccid paralysis?: Clostridium botulinum

1524.

1525.

What bacteria cause myonecrosis?: Clostridium perfringens

What bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis?:


Clostridium difficile

1526.

What are the three naked DNA viruses?: 1. Parvovirus 2.


Adenovirus 3. Papovavirus (PAP)
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse
transcriptase enzyme?: Hepadnavirus
Which hepatitis virus is an RNA viroid-like virus that
needs hepatitis B to be infective?: Hepatitis D
Which hepatitis virus is an enveloped RNA flavivirus,
which is known for postinfusional hepatitis?: Hepatitis C
What antigen is needed to diagnose an infectious patient
with hepatitis B?: Hepatitis Be antigen
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular
carcinoma?: Hepatitis B 4- C

1552.

1553.

Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?: Hepatitis A


(infectious)
What two antigens need to be positive for a patient to
have chronic active hepatitis?: 1. Hepatitis Bs 2. Hepatitis A
antigen

1555.

1556.

What three bacteria are quellung reactive test positive?: 1.


Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

1557.

1528.

Which organism causes a painful chancre?: Haemophilus


ducreyi

1529.

1530.

What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?: RSV

What is the predominant anaerobe in the colon?: Bacillus


fragilis

1531.

1532.

Which organism causes trench mouth?: Fusobacterium

1533.

Which organism causes Lyme disease?: Borrelia burgdorferi

1534.

Which organism causes Weil's disease?: Leptospira

1535.

What organism causes Q fever?: Coxiella burnetii

Which agent causes pneumonia in college students and


military recruits?: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

1536.

What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?: Rigors,


leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in
temperature

1537.

Which spirochete causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?:


Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)

1538.

Which organism causes trench fever?: Rochalimaea


quintana

1539.

Which organism causes epidemic typhus?: Rickettsia


prowazekii (trunk to periphery rash)

1540.

Which organism causes pneumonia in bird owners?:


Chlamydia psittaci

1541.

Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen


switching?: Borrelia recurrentis

1542.

Which organism has protein A for an anti-opsonization


defense?: Staphylococcus aureus

1543.

Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?: Hepatitis E (enteric)

1554.

What bacteria are associated with food poisoning from


ham, potato salad, and custards?: Staphylococcus aureus

1527.

What is the only ssDNA virus?: Parvovirus

1546.

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which


antibodies do you see?: Hepatitis Be and c antibodies; You see
the antibodies c and e.
Which virus is found in the urine of rodents?: Arenavirus

Which virus is associated with hairy T cell leukemia?:


HTLV-I and HTLV-II

1558.

What are the components of the rubella triad?: 1. Patent


ductus arteriosus (PDA) 2. Cataracts 3. Mental retardation

1559.

What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV encephalitis?:


Vidarabine

1560.

What is the drug of choice to treat: RSV pneumonia?:


Ribavirin

1561.

What is the drug of choice to treat: CMV


retinitis/infection?: Ganciclovir

1562.

What is the drug of choice to treat: Influenza A?:


Amantadine

1563.

1564.

What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV?: Acyclovir

1565.

What is the drug of choice to treat: HPV?: Interferon alpha

What does Candida albicana do that distinguishes it from


other fungi?: It forms a germinal tube at 37C.

1566.

Which organism, transmitted by sexual contact, is almost


diagnostic by the foul-smelling, green discharge from the
vagina and its associated itch?: Trichomonas vaginalis

1567.

Which organism is associated with a diffuse bilateral


interstitial pneumonia and with HIV-positive patients with
CD4 counts of 200 or lower?: Pneumocysti.s carinii

1568.

What three organs can be affected by Trypanoaoma


cruzi?: 1. Heart 2. Esophagus 3. Colon Remember-you get
"megas:" 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Megaesophagus 3. Megacolon

1569.

What organism causes kala-azar, which is associated with


hyperpigmentation of the skin, enlargement of the spleen,
and decreased bone marrow activity?: Leishmania donovani

1570.

What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in a


heterophil-positive mononucleosis?: T cells not the B cells

1597.

What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate


among pregnant women?: Hepatitis E

1598.

Which type of malaria is associated with dark urine?:


Plasmodium falciparum (malignant)

1599.

What people are "protected" from malaria?: People with


heterogenous sickle cell trait

1600.

1571.

1572.

What type of Plasmodium is banana or crescent shaped


when stained with Giemsa stain?: Plasmodium falciparum

1573.

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?:


Plasmodium malarize; the others are tertian.

1574.

What types of Plasmodium produce latent hypnozoites in


the liver, which can cause a relapse?: Plasmodium vivax and
Plasmodium ovale

1575.

What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to


be infective?: Hepatitis Bs antigen as its envelope
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic
and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?: 1.
Hepatitis B 2. Hepatitis C
What are the only two viruses where naked dsDNA is NOT
infectious?: 1. Poxvirus 2. Hepatitis B virus

1601.

1602.

What types) of immune response is the body capable of


making when presented with a live vaccine?: Humoral and
cell mediated

What organism is associated with liver abscess, t ulcers,


and perforated diaphragms?: Entamoeba histolytica

1604.

What type of Plasmodium affects: Only mature RBCs?:


Plasmodium malariae

1605.

1576.

1577.

What type of Plasmodium affects: Only redculocytes?:


Plasmodium vivax

1578.

What type of Plasmodium affects: RBCs of all ages?:


Plasmodium falciparum

1579.

What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?: 1.


Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharvngeal 3. Thymic

1580.

What IIPV is the causative agent of anogenital warts?: HPV


6 and 11
What types) of immune response is the body capable of
making when presented with a killed vaccine?: Humoral
only
Who are the "typical" women who present with
endometrial carcinoma?: Older, non-sexually active women
(whereas young, sexually active women present with cervical
carcinoma)

1606.

What type of vaccine is the MMR vaccine?: Live, attenuated


vaccine

What is the direction of the strand if a virus has infectious


+RNA?: 5' to 3' RNA

1607.

What two viruses do not get their envelope from budding


but actually from coding?: HIV and poxvirus

1608.

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?:


GP41

1609.

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?:


GP120

1610.

What protein of the HIV virus is used to detect if a patient


is HIV-positive by ELISA?: P24

1611.

What two viruses cause progressive multifocal


encephalitis?: 1. Simian (SV40) virus 2. JC virus

1612.

With what virus do you see Koplik's spots and WorthinFinkeldy cells, and possibly subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis?: Rubeola (measles)

1613.

1581.

1582.

1583.

1584.

1585.

1586.

1587.

1588.

What are known as jumping genes?: Transposons

With what virus is postauricular lymphadenopathy


associated?: Measles (rubella) virus
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to
congenital rubella syndrome?: The first trimester
What is the order of the antibodies, from first to last, in
an infected patient with hepatitis?: Hepatitis Be, e, s
What is the first antigen seen in an individual with
hepatitis?: Hepatitis Bs antigen (incubation period)
What antibody is an indication of low transmissibility for
hepatitis?: Hepatitis Be antibody
What antibody is an indication of recurrent disease for
hepatitis?: Hepatitis Be antibody
Antibodies to what hepatitis B antigen provide
immunity?: Antibodies to hepatitis Bs antigen

1614.

What are the three C's of measles?: 1. Cough 2. Coryza 3.


Conjunctivitis

What is the most common viral cause of myocarditis?:


Coxsackie B

1615.

What virus is associated with heterophil-positive


mononucleosis?: EBV

1616.

1589.

1590.

1591.

What is the only virus to be eradicated?: Smallpox virus

What vector is associated with malaria?: Anopheles


mosquito

1617.

What virus attaches to fibroblastic growth factor?: Herpes


simplex I

1619.

1593.

What is the most prevalent coral infection in the USA?:


Varicella-zoster virus

1594.

1595.

What is the only herpes virus to cross the placenta?: CMV

1596.

Of what virus are Guarnieri bodies diagnostic?: Smallpox

What is the vector for yellow fever?: Aedes mosquito

What are the only two picornaviruses that do NOT lead to


aseptic meningitis?: 1. Rhinovirus 2. Hepatitis A virus

What virus, which creates painful vesicular lesions, is a


cause of aseptic meningitis?: Herpes simplex II

1618.

1592.

What is the only diploid virus?: Retrovirus

1603.

Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a


prion?: No. Prions are infectious proteins; thus, antibiotics are
useless.
What is the only part of the virus that is "detectable"
during the eclipse period of the viral growth cycle?: The
viral nucleic acid .

1620.

What is the only virus to carry its own ribosomes?:


Arenavirus

1621.

What is the term for the period from the onset of an


infection to the appearance of the virus extracellularly?:
Latent period

1622.

What is the leading cause of diarrhea in the USA?:


Campylobacter jejuni

1623.

What organism would cause a patient to present with


constant diarrhea after drinking mountain stream water on
a camping trip?: Giardia lamblia

1624.

What form of transplantation crosses the species barrier?:


Xenograft

1645.

What subdivision of MHC is found on all nucleated cells?:


MHC class I (three subtypes: -A,-B,-C)

1646.

What protein is used to differentiate MHC class I from


MHC class II, and on what chromosome is it found?: 2Microglobulin, on chromosome 15

1647.

What cell type recognizes MHC class I?: Cytotoxic T cell


(CD8)

1648.

What is the predominant antibody of a secondary


immune response in the mucosal route?: IgA

1649.

What parasite can cause vitamin B12 deficiencies?:


Diphyllobothrium latum

1650.

What viral infection is associated with black vomit?:


Yellow Fever (flavivirus)

1651.

What are the two nonspecific chemical defenses of the


body?: Acidic pH and lysozymes

1652.

What are the two nonspecific physical defenses of the


body?: Skin and mucus

1653.

What immunoglobulin is the first antibody in an immune


response?: IgM

1654.

1625.

1626.

1627.

1628.

1629.

1630.

What is the major antibody of external secretions?: IgA

What substance is secreted by activated helper T cells to


induce T and B cell division?: IL-2
What type of antigen do B cells recognize?: Free,
unprocessed antigen
What type of antigen do T cells recognize?: Processed
antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule
Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins
within an MHC class II cell?: Invariant chain
In a binding of helper T cells and an antigen-presenting
cell (APC), which is the first cell to secrete activating
signals?: Helper T cells (cytokines to activate the APCs)

What is the major antibody of internal secretions (blood,


CSF, lymph)?: IgG

1655.

What is the valence of an immunoglobulin molecule


equal to?: The number of antigens that the antibody can bind

1656.

What immunoglobulin is a marker for mature B cells and


is the antigen receptor for B cells?: IgD

1657.

What is the only IgG that cannot bind to Staphylococcus


protein A?: IgG3

1658.

1631.

1632.

1633.

1634.

By which process do antibodies make microorganisms


more easily ingested via phagocytosis?: Opsonization

1635.

Which type of cell is responsible for immunologic


memory?: Memory B cell
What region of the immunoglobulin does not change
with class switching?: Hypervariable region
What type of cell does an antigen-stimulated B cell turn
into if there is a continuous supply of antigen?: Plasma cell
What three cells are essential for T cell differentiation in
the thymus?: 1. Dendritic cells 2. Macrophages 3. Thymic
epithelial cells
What type of T cell leaves the bone marrow?: Pre-T cell
(unable to recognize antigen)

Which immunoglobulin is found as a pentamer and


activates complement?: IgM

1659.

What is synthesized by epithelial cells, protects IgA from


degradation, and transports IgA across epithelial barriers?:
Secretory component of IgA

1660.

1636.

1637.

1638.

Which IgG cannot activate complement?: IgG4

What cell surface marker is used to distinguish different


stages in the maturation of T cells?: CD3

1639.

What form of graft involves tissue or organ


transplantation between genetically identical twins?:
Isograft (isogenic graft, syngraft)

1640.

True or false: antigen. antibody binding is irreversible?:


False; it is reversible because the antigens and antibodies are
not linked covalently.

1641.

What cytokine stimulates stem cell differentiation?: IL-3

What form of T cell binds to mature B cells?: Activated


helper T cell

1661.

What co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for effective


T cell and B cell signaling?: B7 and CD28 (stimulatory signal for
the T cell)

1662.

At which site of the lymph node are B cells found?: The


germinal centers (follicles)

1663.

What are the two primary lymphoid organs?: 1. Bone


marrow 2. Thymus

1664.

What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone


marrow, is important in myeloid development?: IL-3 A " 3"
on its side looks like an m for myeloid

1665.

What is the term for a single isolated antigenic


determinant?: Hapten (not immunogenic)

1666.

Which chromosome is associated with major


histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes?: Chromosome 6

1667.

What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?: CD19

1668.

What cell surface marker do all T cells have?: CD3

1642.

1643.

Which region of the variable domain comprises the


antigen-binding site of the antibody?: Hypervariable region
(three per light chain; three per heavy chain)

1644.

What immunoglobulins are found in an infant at birth?:


Maternal IgG and fetal IgM

What is the major antigen-trapping site in the immune


system?: The lymph node

1669.

What cells are the first to come into contact with soluble
antigen in the lymph node?: Macrophages or dendritic cells

1670.

What is the term for a molecule that will trigger an


immune response?: Immunogen (It must be foreign and have
at least two antigenic determinants.)

1693.

In which region of the lymph node do plasma cells spend


their lives secreting antibodies?: Medulla

1694.

What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T


cells?: CD40

1695.

In which region of the lymph node are T cells found?:


Paracortex

1696.

Myeloperoxidase uses H202 and what to generate


additional oxidants?: Halide cofactor (Cl-, I-)

1697.

1671.

1672.

1673.

1674.

What is the main cell type of chronic inflammation?:


Macrophages

1675.

What aspect of the complement system is deficient if


there are repeated gonococcal infections and recurrent
episodes of meningococcal meningitis?: C5, 6 ,7, or 8

1676.

A deficiency in C1 esterase (C1-INH) results in what


disease?: Hereditary angioedema

1677.

What form of immunity kills the host cell in order to


recover from intracellular infections?: Cell-mediated
immunity

1678.

With what area of the spleen are the T cells associated?:


Periarteriolar Lymphatic Sheath (PALS)

1679.

What are the three secondary lymphoid tissues?: 1. Lymph


nodes 2. Spleen 3. Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

1680.

What MHC class does not participate in immune cell


communication by direct contact?: MHC class III
What types of T cell receptors (TCRs) comprise 95% of all
TCRs?: Alpha and beta chains
Which TCRs are found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?:
Gamma and delta TCRs
What type of graft transplants from one individual to
another with a different genetic makeup (within the same
species)?: Allograft
What type of graft transplants from one site to another on
the same person?: Autograft

1698.

What is the term for the strength of association between


multiple antibody-binding sites and multiple antigenic
determinants?: Avidity (greater than one binding site)

1699.

How is IgA found in secretions?: As a dimer; it is a monomer


in the blood.

1700.

What is the limited portion of a large antigen that will


actually be recognized and bound to an antibody and
contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to
five hexose units?: Antigenic determinant (epitope) (Idiotypes
bind to epitopes.)

1701.

What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved


with papain?: There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?: Plasma
cell

1702.

What is the B cell-dependent area of the spleen?: The


marginal zone

1703.

1681.

1682.

Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the


spleen?: RBCs-that is why it is called red pulp.

1683.

At what stage of the immune response do you see an


increase in serum specific antibody levels?: Log phase

1684.

What cytokines do APCs secrete to activate helper T


cells?: IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a

1685.

What immunoglobulin is responsible for antibodydependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of parasites,


has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils,
and is responsible for the allergic response?: IgE

1686.

What immunoglobulin is responsible for activation of


complement, opsonization, and ADCC, and is actively
transported across the placenta?: IgG

1687.

What immunoglobulin activates the alternate pathway,


neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses, and prevents
bacterial adherence?: IgA

1688.

What are defined by antigen-binding specificity?:


Idiotypes

1689.

What are the genetic variants of a molecule within


members of the same species?: Allotypes

1690.

What are different classes and subclasses of the same gene


products known as?: Isotypes

1691.

What are the four phases of immune system defense?: 1.


Recognition 2. Amplification 3. Regulation 4. Elimination-Rare

1692.

What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved


with pepsin?: There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still
be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.
What type of binding is involved when there is binding of
one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?: Affinity

1704.

What cytokines are secreted by helper T cells to activate


the APC?: INF-y and IL-4

1705.

What acts as a target for elimination of abnormal host


cells?: MHC class I

1706.

At what stage of an immune response do we see stable


levels of antibody in the serum?: Plateau phase

1707.

At what stage of an immune response do we see


catabolism without synthesis of antibody, causing a
decline in the levels?: Antigen processing

1708.

What stage of the immune response is involved from the


time when we are first presented with an antigen to the
first time that there are detectable levels of antibody in the
serum?: Lag phase

1709.

What response involves elevated levels of antibody and a


short lag phase, and requires low levels of antigen to
precipitate?: Secondary response

1710.

Whose function is it to present exogenous peptides to


helper T cells?: MHC class II

1711.

What process is involved when an antigen is in the


endocytic vacuole and there is fusion with lysosomes,
which contain proteases that cleave the protein antigens
into peptide fragments?: Antigen processing

1712.

Which four helper T cell cytokines are involved in


differentiation?: I. IL-4 2. IL-5 3. IL-6 4. IL-10

1713.

Which co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for B cell


differentiation (class switching)?: CD40 and CD40L (gp39)

1714.

1715.

Which cytokine is chemotactic for neutrophils?: IL-8

What cell surface marker is required for class switching?:


CD40

1736.

What large granular lymphocytes are stimulated by IL-2


and INF-y and are activated by natural killer (NK) cells?:
Lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells

1737.

Which cells recognize the Fc region of IgG and carry out


ADCC?: Killer cells

Which nondividing cells synthesize immunoglobulins in


great amounts?: Plasma cells

1738.

Which process is involved in rearranging the DNA that


encodes for the constant region of the heavy chain?: Class
switching

1739.

1716.

1717.

What are the two functions of the thymus in T cell


differentiation?: 1. Hormone secretion for T cell differentiation
2. T cell education to recognize self from nonself

1718.

Which process is involved in rearranging one heavy chain


gene to produce a functional gene product, while it shuts
off the rearrangement and expression of the other alleles to
ensure that one antibody type is made?: Allelic exclusion

1719.

What are the three rules of clonal selection?: 1. One cell


type 2. One antibody type 3. Random selection of hypervariable
regions, and only cells with bound antigen undergo clonal
expansion

1720.

When is the last time that maternal IgG is seen in


circulation?: Between 9 and 15 months

1721.

What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone


marrow, is important in lymphoid development?: IL-7 A "7"
upside down looks like an "L" (L for Lymphoid).

1722.

What are the four chemotactic agents?: 1. C5a 2.


Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
What are the five main oxidizing reactions that are used
to kill ingested organisms?: 1. H202 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl
radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid

1740.

True or false-it is perfectly normal to have low levels of


IgG from 3 to 12 months of age?: True; it is called physiologic
hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.

1741.

What valve of the heart is most commonly affected in IV


drug abusers?: Tricuspid valve

1742.

What is the first sign of reversible cellular damage?:


Ballooning or hydropic changes secondary to mitochondrial
injury

1743.

What is another name for isolated right-sided


heartfailure?: Cor pulmonale

1744.

What region of the aorta is affected in syphilitic (luetic)


aneurysms?: Ascending arch or the root

1745.

What organism is associated with hyaline membrane


formation and cold agglutinins?: Mycoplasma

1746.

Which region of the thymus contains the mature T cells?:


The medulla (They mature in the cortex.)

1747.

What are the cell surface markers of helper T cells?: CD28


and CD4

1748.

What are the cell surface markers of cytotoxic T cells?:


CD28 and CD8

1749.

1723.

1724.

1725.

1726.

Which complement fragments cause lysis of cells?: C5b-9

Which complement fragment is deficient if a patient


presents with repeated infections, fever, rash, and
arthralgia?: C3

1727.

What three factors cause opsonization?: IgG, C3b, and


mannose binding protein

1728.

1729.

Which cell surface marker binds to C3d fragments?: CD21

What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?:


Eosinophils
What enzyme level is commonly elevated in sarcoidosis?:
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
What form of lung cancer is commonly associated with
asbestosis?: Malignant mesothelioma
With what protein-losing enteropathy do you see
hypertrophied gastric rugal folds?: Menetrier's syndrome

1750.

What region of the GI tract does Giardia lamblia most


commonly affect?: Duodenum

1751.

What organism is associated with "flask-shaped" ulcers?:


Entamoeba histolytica

1752.

What hepatic pathology is associated with ingestion of


oral contraceptives?: Liver adenoma

1753.

What disease is associated with an inherited deficiency in


NADPH oxidase, in which the individual is likely to develop
infections with catalase-positive organisms?: Chronic
granulomatous disease

1754.

What cells are antigen-specific and have MHC restricted


killing?: Cytotoxic T cells

1755.

1730.

1731.

What large granular lymphocytes have CD16 and CD56 as


cell surface markers, do not secrete immunoglobulins, and
are not antigen specific?: NK cells

1732.

What three complement fragments are also


anaphylatoxins?: 1. C3a 2. C4a 3. C5a

1733.

What pathology is associated with low levels of


immunoglobulin that persist in children for up to 2 years?:
Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of childhood

1734.

1735.

What cell surface marker is found on pre-T cells?: Tdt

True or false alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency can lead to


cirrhosis of the liver?: True; it is most commonly associated
with panacinar emphysema of the lower lobes.
What organism is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?:
Clonorchis sinensis
True or false-polycythemia is associated with renal cell
carcinoma?: True, because there is an increase in
erythropoietin

1756.

What cancer of the male genitourinary system is


associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?: Prostatic
carcinoma

1757.

What organism is commonly associated with IUD


infections?: Actinomyces

1758.

What female genitourinary pathology is associated with


elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
and has a "snowstorm" appearance on an ultrasound?:
Hydatidiform mole

1759.

What subset of leukemia involves gingival hypertrophy?:


Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M5, also called acute
myelogenous leukemia

1760.

What chemical pathogen is associated with squamous


cell carcinoma of the skin?: Arsenic

1761.

With what form of cancer is diethylstilbestrol (DES)


associated?: Vaginal clear cell adenoma

1762.

What is the term for a palpable left supraclavicular lymph


node?: Virchow's node (due to metastatic gastric carcinoma)

1781.

What pathology is associated with Budd-Chiari


syndrome?: Hepatic venous thrombus

1782.

Cell fragments of hemolysis are known as what?: Helmet


cells (schistocytes)

1783.

What is the name given to the red blood cell that contains
a peripheral rim of hemoglobin along with a dark central
area containing hemoglobin?: Target cell

1784.

What are the three causes of a microvesicular fatty change


in the liver?: 1. Tetracycline toxicity 2. Reye's syndrome 3. Fatty
liver of pregnancy

1785.

What form of cancer is most commonly associated with


nitrosamines?: Gastric cancer

1786.

What cellular process defines irreversible cellular injury?:


Vacuolation of the mitochondria

1787.

1763.

1764.

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-dSDNA, and smooth


muscle antigen (Sm ag) are all used to diagnose what
disease?: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

1765.

SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA are diagnostic markers of


what disease?: Sjogren's disease

1766.

What disease is characterized by decreased bone


resorption due to defective osteoclast function?:
Osteopetrosis (Albers- Schonberg disease)

1767.

What metaplastic cellular change (from what cell type to


what cell type) occurs in Barren's esophagus?: Squamous to
columnar cell (adenocarcinoma)

1768.

Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and anti-SCL-70 antibodies


are diagnostic of what disease?: Scleroderma

1769.

What T cell defect is found in Graves' disease?: Defect in


antigen-specific suppressor T cells

1770.

A gastric mucosal erosion caused by extensive burns to


the body surface is known as what?: Curling's ulcer (Burns =
hot = curling iron) VXP

1771.

A superficial gastric mucosal erosion causing an excessive


secretion of pepsin, due to an increase in intracranial
pressure from trauma or surgical injury to the CNS, is
known as what?: Cushing's ulcer

1772.

What two antibodies are used to diagnose Hashimoto's


thyroiditis?: Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal antibodies

1773.

What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in


Wilson's disease?: Kayser-Fleischer rings

1774.

What is the triad of Meig's syndrome?: 1. Right-sided


hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Ovarian fibroma

1775.

What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?: 1.


Atrophic glossitis 2. Esophageal webs 3. Iron-deficiency anemia

1776.

In multiple myeloma, what are the immunoglobulin


protein droplets within plasma cells called?: Russell bodies

1777.

Obstetric hemorrhage or shock to the anterior pituitary


leads to what syndrome?: Sheehan's syndrome
(approximately 90% destruction of the pituitary)

1778.

What is the term for a twisting of a loop of bowel leading


to an obstruction?: Volvulus

1779.

In what condition is a strawberry gallbladder seen?:


Cholesterolosis

1780.

Abnormal, unstable RNA within a developing RBC is


known as what?: Basophilic stippling
What is the term for an RBC with inorganic ironcontaining granules?: Siderocyte
A patient presenting with dark urine, pale stools, and
itchy skin has what form of jaundice?: Obstructive (direct)
jaundice

1788.

...: With what form of hepatitis do you see elevated levels of


AST (SGOT) and GGT liver enzymes?

1789.

In both alcoholic 2nd viral hepatitis, AST and ALT are


elevated. SGOT > SGPT in alcoholic hepatitis, and SGPT >
SGOT in viral hepatitis.: What region of the liver is affected
during shock?

1790.

Pericentral (necrotic) region: What drug can cause


amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the
kidney?

1791.

Heroin: What type of metal poisoning causes basophilic


stippling?

1792.

Lead: What drug causes a six- fold increase in schizophrenia,


can impair motor activity, and can cause lung problems?

1793.

1794.

Marijuana: ...

With what disease do you see dust-containing


macrophages within a reticulin mesh?: Coal workers'
pneumoconiosis

1795.

With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung


associated?: 1. Asbestosis 2. Silicosis

1796.

What is Caplan's syndrome?: Rheumatoid arthritis with


silicosis

1797.

What chemical can be potentially dangerous if you work


in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?: Beryllium

1798.

What are the three causes of angiosarcoma of the liver?: 1.


Vinyl chloride 2. Thorium dioxide 3. Arsenic

1799.

What causes acellular fibrosis in the upper zone of the


lung?: Silicosis

1800.

What dye is a major cause of transitional cell carcinoma


of the urinary bladder?: Naphthalene

1801.

Interstitial fibrosis of the lower lobe is pathognomonic of


what?: Asbestosis

1802.

With what is cherry red intoxication associated?: Acute


carbon monoxide poisoning

1803.

With what disease do you see Brushfield's spots?: Down


syndrome

1804.

What is the causative organism associated with: Acute


infectious endocarditis?: Staphylococcus aureus; Aureus
begins with an "a" just like acute.

1805.

1806.

Subacute infectious endocarditis?: Streptococcus viridans

What percentage of a vessel is stenosed in order to cause


sudden cardiac death?: Greater than 75% of the vessel

1807.

What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by


lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of
the heart?: Aschoff's bodies of rheumatic fever

1808.

What type of vasculitis affects children, has conjunctival


involvement associated with skin rash and
lymphadenopathy, and involves 70% of persons with
coronary artery aneurysms?: Kawasaki disease; Think kids,
koronary, konjunctiva-Kawasaki

1824.

What is the difference between a true aneurysm and a


false aneurysm?: A true aneurysm is the bulging of an arterial
wall that is intact, whereas a false aneurysm is a rupture where
a sac is formed by the tissue adjacent to the artery.

1825.

With what lung pathology do you see a collapsed leathery


lung?: Acute respiratory distress syndrome CARDS)

1826.

In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary


infarcts seen?: Lower lobes

What cardiac pathology are children with pharyngeal


infections more likely to develop?: Rheumatic heart disease

1827.

Where is the embolism site for a right-sided heart lesion?:


The lungs

1828.

What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded by


hemorrhage?: Roth's spots

1829.

1809.

1810.

1811.

1812.

In what condition are they seen?: In bacterial endocarditis

The painless hemorrhagic areas on the palms and soles in


a patient with bacterial endocarditis are known as what?:
Janeway lesions

1813.

What pathology involves a diastolic blood pressure


greater than 90 mmHg or a systolic blood pressure greater
than 140 mmHg?: Hypertension

1814.

What are the four cardiac abnormalities associated with


tetralogy of Fallot?: 1. Shifting of the aorta 2. Hypertrophy of
the right ventricle 3. Interventricular septal defect 4. Pulmonary
stenosis 3X (SHIP)

1815.

What term applies when a single vessel receives blood


from both ventricles?: Truncus arteriosus

1816.

How do you diagnose a patient who presents with an


underdeveloped right ventricle, atrial septal defect, and no
tricuspid valve?: Tricuspid atresia

1817.

What are the three left-to-right shunts?: 1. Ventricular


septa] defect (VSD) 2. Atrial septal defect (ASD) 3. Patent ductus
arteriosus (PDA)

1818.

What type of coarctation of the aorta is associated with


Turner's syndrome?: Preductal (infantile) type

1819.

Which leaflet is most commonly affected in mitral valve


prolapse?: Posterior leaflet due to the long chordae tendineae

1820.

What disease affects medium to small arteries, occurs


most commonly in men, is associated with elevated
perinuclear anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody (PANCA) levels to myeloperoxidase, and involves 30% of
patients with hepatitis Bs antigen?: Polyarteritis nodosa
(PAN) Remember by P in P-ANCA and P in PAN.

1821.

With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels


of the skin and the kidneys?: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

1822.

What type of vasculitis presents with headache, facial


pain, and sometimes loss of vision?: Temporal arteritis
(usually in women older than 80 years of age)

1823.

What is it called when the cervical lymph node is involved


in Tb?: Scrofula
What is the difference between Raynaud's disease and
Raynaud's phenomenon?: Disease occurs when there is
vasospasm in a small artery without any underlying pathology,
whereas a phenomenon has some underlying pathology
associated with it.
What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon
complex?: A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle, whereas a Ghon
complex is a focus with hilar lymph node involvement.

1830.

What is the term for laminated concretions of Ca2+ and


protein found in granulomas, especially sarcoidosis?:
Schaumann's bodies

1831.

What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of


the parotid glands, submaxillary gland, and submandibular
gland with posterior uveal tract involvement?: Mikulicz's
syndrome

1832.

In what autosomal recessive (AR) disease do you see a


decrease in adenine triphosphatase (ATPase) activity of
dynein arms in cilia, also known as immotile cilia
syndrome?: Kartagener's syndrome

1833.

What disease involves a decrease in al-antitrypsin activity,


causing all the alveoli to be affected?: Panacinar emphysema

1834.

What lung pathology involves columnar to squamous cell


metaplasia and cannot be diagnosed unless the patient has
3 months of productive sputum for 2 years or more?:
Chronic bronchitis

1835.

What bronchogenic carcinoma: Is found in the peripheral


aspect of the lung and is known as the "scar" carcinoma?:
Adenocarcinoma

1836.

Has a poor prognosis because 50% of the cases have


metastasized to the brain by diagnosis?: Undifferentiated cell
carcinoma

1837.

What hematoma involves lucid intervals and affects the


middle meningeal artery?: Epidural hematoma

1838.

What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the


glomerular capillary wall, "granular" appearance under the
microscope, and effacement of foot processes?:
Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN)

1839.

What syndrome has massive proteinuria,


hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and anasarca as its
components?: Nephrotic syndrome

1840.

What renal pathology is associated with an alteration of


the basement membrane and mesangial cell proliferation,
along with a tram-track appearance under the
microscope?: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(MPGN)

1841.

What is the triad of renal cell carcinoma?: 1. Hematuria 2.


Costovertebral pain 3. A palpable mass

1842.

What is the most common type of kidney stone?: Calcium


oxalate

1843.

In what condition do you see "dimpling" on the kidney's


surface?: Pyelonephritis

1844.

What is the most common hemolytic anemia that has an


elevated reticulocyte count and a positive result on a
Coombs' test?: Autoimmune/immune hemolytic anemia

1859.

What is the first sign of megaloblasdc anemia on a blood


smear?: Hypersegmented polymorphonucleocytes (more than
five lobes)

1860.

With what autosomal dominant disease do you see


osteomas in the mandible and maxilla, epidermoid cysts,
and edematous polyps in the GI tract?: Gardner's syndrome

1861.

In what autosomal recessive disease do you see a decrease


in ceruloplasmin, micronodular cirrhosis, and KayserFleischer rings?: Wilson's disease

1862.

What are the four most common metastatic sites for renal
cell carcinoma?: 1. Lung 2. Liver 3. Brain 4. Bone

1863.

What is the causative organism involved in squamous cell


carcinoma of the bladder?: Schistosomiasis haematobia

1864.

Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell


carcinoma of the bladder?: Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of
the lung, esophagus, ureter, and kidney, just to name a few.

1865.

1845.

1846.

1847.

What type of peptic ulcers is associated with elevated


gastric secretions and blood group O and responds well to
cimetidine?: Duodenal ulcer, whereas gastric ulcers are
associated with blood group A and low gastric secretions

1848.

What is the term for the smooth, round fragments of


nuclear chromatin seen in RBCs?: Howell-Jolly bodies
What form of hepatitis involves Kupffer's cell hyperplasia,
ballooning hepatocytes, councilman bodies, and an
increase in ALT?: Viral hepatitis
What X-linked recessive disease involves a decrease in
hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
(HGPRT), mental retardation, self-mutilation,
choreoathetosis, and spasticity and an increase in
uricemia?: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in
the hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt, along with Heinz
body formation?: G-6-PD deficiency (glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency)

What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking


clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium diffcile,
ischemia, Staphylococcus, Shigella, or Candida infections?:
Pseudomembranous colitis

1866.

How is Pseudomembranous colitis treated?: With


vancomycin or metronidazole

1867.

1849.

1850.

What regions of the GI tract are the most common sites of


peptic ulcers?: The lesser curvature of the stomach and the
first part of the duodenum

1851.

What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer


from an erosion or carcinoma?: 1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean
base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa

1852.

What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis, myocardial


infarction, cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac
arrhythmias?: Cocaine
What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation,
somnolence, convulsions, and encephalopathy?: Lead

1868.

What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and


colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?: Mercury

1869.

What enzyme level increases in hours and falls 24 to 48


hours after a myocardial infarction?: Creatinine
phospholanase (CPK)

1870.

What is the watershed area of the GI tract?: It is the most


common site of ischemic bowel disease (splenic flexure of large
bowel).

1871.

What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving


only the inner layers?: Mural infarct

1872.

1853.

1854.

What form of infectious endocarditis is most likely to


metastasize?: Acute infectious endocarditis
What is the terminology for the secondary disease of
benign hypertension in the kidney?: Benign nephrosclerosis

Failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the rectum and


sigmoid colon is known as what?: Hirschsprung's disease
(congenital megacolon)

1873.

What is the term for the irregular linear lacerations in the


long axis of the esophagus seen in chronic alcoholics?:
Mallory-Weiss tears

1874.

1855.

1856.

What is the condition in which progressive dysphagia and


regurgitation occur owing to failure of the lower
esophageal sphincter to relax when swallowing is
initiated?: Achalasia (can also be seen in Chagas' disease)

1857.

With what autosomal dominant disease do you see


polyps in the GI tract that can be large and pedunculated,
along with melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa, lips,
and palms?: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (rarely predisposes to
colon cancer)

1858.

What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in


malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?:
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in
the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?: Onion
skinning
What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart
embolisms to metastasize?: 1. Brain 2. Spleen 3. Kidney

1875.

What enzyme levels increase in 6 to 8 hours, peak in 24 to


48 hours, and fall 4 to 8 days after an MI?: SGOT

1876.

What are the four right-to-left shunts?: 1. Tricuspid atresia


2. Truncus arteriosus 3. Transposition of the great vessels 4.
Tetralogy of Fallot; All of the Ts

1877.

What form of angina pectoris is classically brought on by


exercise or by an elevated heart rate?: Stable angina (S-T
depressions are seen on EKG.)

1878.

What form of angina pectoris is the most serious and is


referred to as "preinfarction angina"?: Unstable angina

1879.

What marker increases in 12 hours, peaks in 48 to 72


hours, and falls in 1 to 2 weeks after an MI?: Lactate
dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 > 2

1880.

What form of angina pectoris is caused by coronary artery


vasospasms?: Prinzmetal's angina (variant). S-T elevations are
seen on EKG.

1881.

What is the condition that involves focal accumulations


of basophilic, mutinous extracellular substance in the
media of the aorta?: Cystic medial necrosis

1882.

When do you see an elevated blood pressure in the upper


extremities with hypotension in the lower extremities?:
Coarctation of the aorta (postductal), adult type

1883.

What is the characteristic radiographic finding in


postductal coarctation of the aorta?: Notching of the ribs
due to dilated internal mammary arteries

1884.

What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?: ELISA


test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test)

1885.

What type of vasculitis occurs in male heavy smokers,


typically younger than 35 years of age, that can cause
gangrene in the lower extremities?: Buerger's disease

1886.

What bronchogenic carcinoma is commonly associated


with Addison's disease?: Squamous cell carcinoma

1895.

What disease, diagnosed by exclusion, involves bilateral


hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granulomas in
many organs and is most commonly seen in black women?:
Sarcoidosis

1896.

1897.

What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an


elevated level of Cat+, involves keratin pearls, occurs in
men more than women, is associated with smoking, occurs
in the major bronchi, and is seen in the central areas of the
lung?: Squamous cell carcinoma
What GI pathology involves a loss of villi and a decrease in
the absorptive area due to gluten sensitivity?: Celiac disease

1899.

What tumor spreads via the lymphatic system into the


peritoneum, rectal shelf, and both ovaries, secondary to
metastatic gastric carcinoma?: Krukenberg's tumor

1900.

What is necrosis and distortion of liver architecture with


nodular regeneration and fibrosis known as?: Cirrhosis

1901.

What disease is due to increased iron deposits causing


congestive heart failure (CHF), bronze diabetes, and
micronodular cirrhosis?: Hemochromatosis

1902.

What autosomal dominant syndrome involves 1000 or


more edematous polyps, most commonly affects the
colorectal area, and is associated with chromosome 5q21?:
Familial poly posis coli

1903.

Low to absent levels of pulmonary surfactant along with


hyaline membrane formation is the hallmark of what?:
NRDS (neonatal respiratory distress syndrome)

1904.

What form of emphysema affects the upper lobes,


increases in smokers, and has carbon deposits distal to the
affected areas?: Centriacinar emphysema

1905.

1887.

1888.

Is right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) in utero a sign of


coaretation of the aorta?: Yes, if you are referring to preductal
or infantile coarctation of the aorta; congestive heart failure is
also a sign of the infantile form.

1889.

What tumor involves an increase in 5hydroxyindoleacetic acid; is associated with skin flushing,
cramps, diarrhea, and nausea; and affects the valves on the
right side of the heart along with the endocardium?:
Carcinoid tumor of the heart

1890.

What is the consolidation around the small bronchi


known as?: Bronchopneumonia

1891.

What disease usually occurs in men in their 40s who


present with persistent pneumonia, chronic sinusitis, renal
disease, and mucosal alterations, and show an increase in
cytoplasmic antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (CANCAs)?: Wegener's granulomatosis

1892.

What disease involves a weakened pulse and hypotension


in the upper extremities, visual problems, and dizzy spells
and occurs in Asian females who are 15 to 45 years of age?:
Takayasu's arteritis (pulseless disease)

1893.

What bronchogenic carcinoma occurs most commonly in


men and smokers; is found centrally; and can have eetopic
production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) or
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?: Small-cell carcinoma (oat cell)

1894.

What causes a nutmeg liver?: Right-sided heart failure

1898.

What autosomal dominant disease involves


hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in association with
esophageal carcinoma?: Tylosis
What primary carcinoma is associated with signet ring
cells?: Gastric carcinoma
What liver pathology involves an increase in AST, GGT,
Mallory bodies, fatty change, and micronodular cirrhosis?:
Chronic alcoholism

1906.

What is the term for a reversible change in which one


adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type?:
Metaplasia

1907.

What is a decrease in the size of cells because of the loss of


structural components known as?: Atrophy

1908.

What hemoglobin-derived pigment contains iron?:


Hemosiderin

1909.

What brown-black pigment is derived from the oxidation


of tyrosine?: Melanin

1910.

What form of necrosis is seen in the lower extremity or


the bowel due to vascular occlusion?: Gangrenous necrosis

1911.

What is the term for depositions of Ca2+ in normal tissue


due to hypercalcemia?: Metastatic calcifications

1912.

What is the most common type of necrosis?: Coagulative


necrosis

1913.

What is the increase in the number of cells known as?:


Hyperplasia

1914.

What form of necrosis is caused by the actions of lipases


on adipose tissue, seen in acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis?:
Fat necrosis

1915.

What is the term for cells that have undergone


proliferation and atypical cytologic alterations involving
all sizes, shapes, and orientations?: Dysplasia

1916.

An intense inflammatory reaction, an increase in the


amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by
myofibroblasts are the characteristics of what?: Healing by
secondary intention

1937.

What pigment, called the "aging pigment," is due to free


radical injury and lipid peroxidation and is seen in brown
atrophy?: Lipofuscin

1938.

The increase in the size of cells due to synthesis, causing


an increase in the size of the organ, is known as what?:
Hypertrophy

1939.

1917.

1918.

What is the term for a collection of epithelioid cells


surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes?: Granuloma

1919.

What are the two most common origins of pulmonary


embolism?: 1. Deep veins of the legs 2. The prostatic plexus of
veins in the pelvis
What is a localized area of necrosis caused by circulatory
insufficiency known as?: Infarction
What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen
type III that produces a large bulging scar, seen primarily in
blacks?: Keloid

1940.

What form of necrosis is caused by immune-mediated


vascular damage?: Fibrinoid necrosis

1941.

What is the term for excess amounts of granulation tissue


that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?:
Proud flesh

1942.

1920.

1921.

In what rare autosomal recessive disorder do you see


neutropenia, defective degranulation, and delayed
microbial killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and
migration?: Chediak-Higashi syndrome

1922.

What is the main cell type of chronic inflammation?:


Macrophages (from blood monocytes)

1923.

What are the two main components of granulation


tissue?: 1. Fibroblasts 2. Neovascularization

1924.

What causes platelets to bind to the collagen of the


basement membrane?: von Willebrand's factor (factor VIII)

1925.

What is the term for ischemia to the CNS causing


dissolution of the tissue due to the actions of hydrolytic
enzymes?: Liquefactive necrosis

1926.

What is a sudden loss of oxygen to tissue, causing death of


the cells because of a cessation of blood flowing to a
particular area, known as?: Coagulative necrosis (most
common in heart and kidneys)

1927.

What is the term for depositions of Ca2+ in nonviable or


dying tissue, when the calcium level in the blood is
normal?: Dystrophic calcifications

1928.

What type of necrosis is seen as a part of granulomatous


inflammation?: Gaseous necrosis

1929.

What are the three causes of transudate?: 1. CHF 2.


Cirrhosis 3. Nephrosis

1930.

What is the type of healing that occurs in a clean surgical


incision?: Primary intention

1931.

1932.

What protein causes clot retraction?: Thrombosthenin

What protein acts as a binding factor in wound healing


and embryogenesis?: Fibronectin

1933.

What IgE-mediated cell secretes major basic protein and


has elevated levels in the blood during asthma and parasitic
infections?: Eosinophils

1934.

What are the three platelet aggregating factors?: 1.


Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) 2. Prostaglandin 3.
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)

1935.

What is the triad of fat embolism?: 1. Petechiae 2.


Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurs within 24 to 48 hours of the
initial insult (e.g., long bone fracture)

1936.

What component of the basement membrane binds to


collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface
receptor?: Laminin
What is the term for an excessive production of collagen
that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the
injury?: Hypertrophic scar
What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?: 1. Big 2.
Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm

1943.

What pathway in the coagulation cascade is activated


after tissue injury?: Extrinsic pathway

1944.

What is an intravascular mass that is carried from its


point of origin to a distant site known as?: Embolism

1945.

In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys,


rockerbottom feet, low-set ears, micrognathia, and mental
retardation?: Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)

1946.

What genetic disease has an increased risk for developing


carcinoma of the breast?: Klinefelter's syndrome

1947.

What is the predominant cell type of humoral immunity?:


B lymphocytes

1948.

1949.

What protein causes fibrinolysis?: Plasmin

What factors in the coagulation cascade need Ca2+ to be


activated?: Factors II and X

1950.

What tumor comprises 40% of all testicular tumors in


children?: Teratoma

1951.

What most common germ cell tumor can be detected by


elevated hCG levels and metastasizes to the bone, lung, and
liver?: Choriocarcinoma

1952.

What pathway in the coagulation cascade is activated by


making contact with foreign substances?: Intrinsic pathway

1953.

What protein is a common activator of the coagulation,


6brinolytic, and inflammatory systems?: Hageman factor
(XII)

1954.

What factors in the coagulation cascade need factor Ila


(activated) to become activated?: Factors V and VIII

1955.

What lobe of the brain is most commonly affected by


herpes virus?: Temporal lobe

1956.

What disease involves microcephaly, mental retardation,


cleft lip or palate, and dextrocardia?: Patau's syndrome
(trisomy 13)

1957.

What disease, caused by decompression sickness, leads to


multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of
the femur, humerus, and tibia?: Caisson's disease

1958.

What type of hemostasis occurs in an intravascular space


and consists of fibrin, platelets, and red and white blood
cells?: Thrombus

1959.

What disease involves mental retardation, flat face,


muscle hypotonia, and a "double-bubble" sign on an x-ray
and poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and acute
lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?: Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

1960.

What are the three components of amyloid?: 1. Fibrillary


protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans

1961.

What type of hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE?: Type I


hypersensitivity

1962.

What type of hypersensitivity involves the antigenantibody complex and activates complement, leading to
tissue injury?: Type III hypersensitivity

1963.

What type of hypersensitivity involves serum sickness,


SLE, Arthus reaction, and acute glomerulonephritis?: Type
III hypersensitivity

1964.

What test uses gp120 protein when diagnosing HIV?:


Western blot test

1965.

What disease involves a patient with dry eyes and dry


mouth; is associated with other collagen vascular diseases
and B cell dysfunction; occurs in women more than men;
and poses an increased risk of the patient developing a
high-grade B cell lymphoma?: Sjogren's disease

1966.

What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?:


Candida

1967.

What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?:


Pneumocystis carinii

1968.

What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?:


1. CMV retinitis 2. HSV-2

1969.

What is the most common opportunistic infection of the


CNS in HIV?: Toxoplasmosis

1970.

What is the term for a hospital-acquired infection?:


Nosocomial infection

1971.

What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?: 1. HPV (human


papilloma virus) 2. EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) 3. Hepatitis B 4.
Kaposi's sarcoma- HSI/?

1972.

What disease is X-linked recessive, presents with eczema


thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing
recurrent infections, involves a decrease in serum IgM and
in the T cell-dependent paracortical areas of the lymph
nodes, and means that the patient is likely to develop
malignant lymphoma?: Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

1973.

What is the most common pathway for carcinomas to


spread?: Via lymphatics

1974.

With what are the following microscopic changes


associated: loss of polarity, anaplasia, pleomorphism,
discohesiveness, increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio,
hyperchromasia, and increase in the rate of mitosis?:
Malignancy

1975.

What is the most common pathway for sarcoma to


spread?: Hematogenous pathway

1976.

What is the most common complement deficiency?: C2


deficiency

1977.

What type of erythema do you see in: Ulcerative colitis?:


Erythema nodosum

1978.

1979.

Rheumatic fever?: Erythema marginatum

1980.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome?: Erythema multiforme

What is the triad of meningitis?: 1. Fever 2. Headache 3. Stiff


neck (Nausea, photophobia, and irritability are also commonly
seen in patients with meningitis.)

1981.

What carcinoma in the thyroid involves stromal


amyloidosis and an excessive release of calcitonin?:
Medullary carcinoma

1982.

What is the name for an adenoma in the adrenal glands


that causes elevated levels of aldosterone?: Conn's
syndrome-page230

1983.

What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth


hormone lead to?: Gigantism

1984.

What is an ACTH-secreting tumor in the pituitary gland


known as?: Cushing's disease

1985.

What is a beta cell tumor that secretes an excess of


gastrin, which causes multiple peptic ulcers in aberrant
locations, known as?: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

1986.

What type of pancreatic tumor has the following


common signs: hypoglycemia, hunger, sweating, tremors,
seizures, and coma?: Insulinoma

1987.

The most common causes of osteomyelitis: Overall?:


Staphylococcus aureus

1988.

1989.

In neonates?: Streptococcus agalactiae

In patients with sickle cell disease?: Staphylococcus aureu.s


(but they are more prone to developing salmonella infections)

1990.

1991.

In drug addicts?: P.seudomonas

What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of


capillaries around the mesangial nodules?: KimmelstielWilson disease

1992.

With what pancreatic tumor do you see watery diarrhea,


hypokalemia, and achlorhydria?: Vasoactive intestinal
peptide (VIP) tumor of the pancreas

1993.

What are the four most common causes of femoral head


necrosis?: 1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell
anemia

1994.

What bone pathology is associated with teenagers,


occurrence in men more than women, hematogenous
spread to the lungs, and Codman's triangle on an x-ray?:
Osteosarcoma

1995.

What is the collapse of the vertebral body due to Tb


known as?: Pott's disease

1996.

What pathology is associated with cartilage formation in


the bone of the jaw, shoulder, and pelvic girdle and
presents in middle age?: Chondrosarcoma

1997.

What disease is found in persons in the 20- to 40-year-old


age range; affects women more than men; occurs at the
epiphysis of the knee; and is seen as a "soap bubble"
appearance on an x-ray?: Giant cell tumor of the bone

1998.

What disease is seen in the first or second generations; is


associated with chromosome 11,22; affects men more than
women; and has pseudorosettes and an onion- skin
layering formation?: Ewing's sarcoma

1999.

What joint is affected causing Heberden's nodes in


osteoarthritis?: Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint (Bouchard's
nodes are in the proximal interphalangeal [PIP] joint)

2000.

What vitamin D deficiency leads to a softening of the


bone causing demineralization?: Osteomalacia

2001.

Podagra, tophi in the ear, and polymorphonucleocytes


(PMNs) with monosodium urate crystals are associated
with what pathology?: Gout

2002.

With what pathology are bamboo spine on an x-ray and


the haplotype HLA-B27 associated?: Ankylosis spondylitis

2003.

What substance, derived from IgE-sensitized basophils,


causes increased vascular permeability, leukocyte
adhesion, chemotaxis, and aggregation along with being
one of the most potent platelet stimulators?: Plateletactivating factor (PAF)

2020.

What is the most common organ involved in


amyloidosis?: Kidney

2021.

What is the term that describes when treatment for one


disease leads to another disease presenting itself?: Iatrogenic
infection

2022.

What disease involves a failure of the third and fourth


pharyngeal pouches to develop, with a lack of T cell
immunity causing a poor defense response to certain fungal
and viral infections and tetany?: DiGeorge's syndrome

2023.

What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and


Immoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or
autosomal recessive?: Severe combined immunodeficiency

With what pathology is deposition of calcium


pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years of age
associated?: Pseudogout

2024.

What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of


the tibia, epiphyseal enlargements, and costochondral
widening with the endochondral bones being affected?:
Rickets

2025.

What is the triad of Reiter's syndrome?: 1. Peripheral


arthritis 2. Conjunctivitis 3. Nongonococcal urethritis

2026.

2004.

2005.

2006.

What are the five chemotactic mediators?: 1. LB4, 2. IL-8, 3.


C5a, 4. TNF-a, 5. N-formyl-methionine

2007.

What are the three opsonins?: 1. C3b 2. Fc region of IgG 3.


Mannose-binding protein

2008.

What enzyme is lacking in the autosomal recessive type of


severe combined immunodeficiency?: Adenosine deaminase

2009.

What two components of the complement cascade are


anaphylatoxins?: 1. C3a 2. C5a (causes mast cells to secrete
histamine)

2010.

What causes vasodilatation, pain, and smooth muscle


contraction?: Bradykinins

2011.

What is the most potent vasoconstrictor and can cause


platelet aggregation?: TXA2

2012.

What prostaglandin is associated with vasodilatation


(edema) iand nhibits platelet aggregation?: Prostaglandin I2,
(PGI2)

2013.

What prostaglandin is associated with vasodilatation,


fever, and pain?: PGE2

2014.

What are the three characteristics in Virchow's triad of


thrombosis?: 1. Injury to the endothelium 2. Change in laminar
flow 3. Hypercoagulation

2015.

What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout


the body via increased fibro- blast activity, occurs in
women more than men, and is most commonly seen in the
third to the fifth decade?: Scleroderma
What type of hypersensitivity involves autoimmune
hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis fetalis, Goodpasture's
syndrome, parasitic killing, Graves' disease, and
myasthenia gravis?: Type II hypersensitivity
What type of hypersensitivity involves systemic
anaphylaxis and skin and food allergies?: Type I
hypersensitivity

2027.

What joints in the hand are most commonly affected by


rheumatoid arthritis?: Proximal interphalangeal and
metacarpal phalangeal joints

2028.

What disease is seen in the 20- to 40-year-old age group, is


more prevalent in women than men, involves diarrhea with
or without bloody stools, starts in the rectum and ascends
without skipping areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a
thickness of the bowel that does not change?: Ulcerative
colitis

2029.

What disease arises from the adrenal medulla, displaces


and crosses the midline, metastasizes early, is the most
common solid tumor, and is seen in the 2- to 4-year-old age
group?: Neuroblastoma

2030.

In which disease do you find a decrease in the bone


density and thickness of the cortex, occurring most
commonly in postmenopausal women but can be induced
by steroids, old age, or idiopathic causes?: Osteoporosis

2031.

What is collagen and fibrin surrounded by macrophages


in rheumatic fever known as?: Aschoff bodies

2032.

What leukotriene is a major chemotactic factor that


causes WBCs to adhere to the endothelium?: LB4

2033.

What two substances, produced by the body, cause


fever?: 1. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) 2. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

2034.

2016.

2017.

2018.

What three leukotrienes are associated with


bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and
vasoconstriction?: LC4, LD4, and LE4,

2019.

What is cortical hypersecretion of the adrenal gland


known as?: Cushing's syndrome
What does postpubertal hypersecretion of growth
hormone cause?: Acromegaly
What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year-old age group; does
not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli, tubules,
and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?: Wilms'
tumor

What GI pathology is associated with the following: a


positive string sign, an increase in the number of bloody
stools, RLQ pain, skip lesions, terminal ileum most
commonly affected, occurrence in women more than men,
and an increased thickness of the bowel?: Crohn's disease

2035.

What is associated with deposition of an extracellular


amorphous substance in the blood vessel walls and
connective tissue and green birefringence under polarized
light?: Amvloidosis

2036.

What disease is characterized by a mosaic pattern of bone


marrow replacement; involves high-output cardiac failure;
and occurs in women more than men and in people older
than 40 years of age?: Paget's disease of the bone

2037.

What type of hypersensitivity involves a Tb test, viral


infections, graft rejections, and tumor-associated antigen?:
Type IV hypersensitivity

2038.

What form of hypersensitivity involves T cell-mediated


cytotoxicity?: Type IV hypersensitivity

2039.

What disease has the following characteristics:


occurrence in women more than men; involvement of the
second or third generation; positive ANAs; joint pain; skin
rash in a malar distribution; diffuse proliferate GN; LibmanSacks endocarditis; and neurologic disorders?: SLE : MD
SOAP N HAIR (malar rash; discoid lesion; serologic; oligoarthritis;
ANA positive; pleuritis/pericarditis; neurologic complications;
hematologic [leukopenia/thrombocytopenia]; anticardiolipin
antibodies; 3 & immunologic; and renal)

2040.

What form of hypersensitivity includes IgG- or IgMactivating phagocytosis, complement, or antibodydependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?: Type II
hypersensitivity

2041.

What X-linked recessive disease involves failure of


maturation of pre-B cells with no surface
immunoglobulins, leading to recurrent pyogenic infections
in infants?: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

2042.

What syndrome comprises small-cell carcinoma of the


lung and myasthenia gravis?: Lambert-Eaton syndrome

2043.

What pathologic process and pattern of involvement in


the brain consist of necrosis, fibrosis, edema, and gliosis
going from the center out?: Abscess of the brain on a CT scan

2044.

What is the most common site of a contrecoup


contusion?: Orbital surface of the frontal lobe

2045.

What artery is the most common site of infarctions in the


cerebral circulation?: Middle cerebral artery

2046.

What is the most common cause of a cerebral infarct?:


Atherosclerosis/arteriosclerosis

2047.

What event involves the following precipitating factors:


hypertension, diabetes, aneurysms, atherosclerosis, and
occurrence in blacks more than in whites?: Intracerebral
hemorrhage

2048.

What artery is affected in a subarachnoid hematoma?:


Middle cerebral artery

2049.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in:


Neonates?: Escherichia coli or group B streptococci

2050.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in:


Immunized children?: Streptococcus pneumoniae

2051.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Nonimmunized children?: Haemophilus influenzae

2052.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Young


adults?: Neisseria meningitidis

2053.

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: The


base of the brain?: Haemophilus influenzae

2054.

What AR disease involves a lack of phenylalanine


hydroxylase?: Phenylketonuria (PKU)

2055.

What type of head trauma is characteristic of a fractured


temporal or parietal bone, lucid intervals, headache, and
confusion?: Epidural hematoma

2056.

What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of


age; X-linked recessive, cardiac myopathies; calf
pseudohypertrophy; lordosis; protuberant bellies; an
increase then a decrease in CPK; and death in the second
generation of life?: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy

2057.

What breast pathology involves malignant cells with


"halos" invading the epidermis of the skin?: Paget's disease
of the breast

2058.

What disease has the following characteristics: has


autoantibodies to IgG; occurs in women more than men;
and includes exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema,
nervousness, heart palpitations, and fatigue?: Graves'
disease

2059.

What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15- to 35-year-old age


group, peaks when the person is 35 years of age, and is a
bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic system?:
Seminoma

2060.

What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty,


masculinization, gynecomastia in adults, and crystalloids
of Reinke?: Leydig cell tumor

2061.

What thyroid pathology causes dwarfism, retarded bone


maturation, myxedema, mental retardation, and decreased
T4 with increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
levels?: Cretinism

2062.

What are the following risk factors characteristic of: late


menopause, early menarche, obesity, nulliparity, excessive
estrogen, genetic factor p53, and brc-abl?: Breast cancer

2063.

What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of


acid phosphatase, dihydrotestosterone, prostate-specific
antigen (PSA), and bone pain?: Prostatic carcinoma

2064.

What myopathy, due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors,


can present with thymic abnormalities, red cell aplasia,
and muscle weakness?: Myasthenia gravis

2065.

What two factors of the complement cascade are


deficient in the person with SLE?: C2 and C4

2066.

What aspect of the complement cascade is defective if a


patient constantly presents with recurrent infections with
Neisseria gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis?: Membrane attack
complex-MAC (C5 to C9)

2067.

What disease involves "cold" skin abscesses due to a


defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level
higher than 2000?: Job's syndrome

2068.

What X-linked recessive disease, deficient in NADPH


oxidase, presents with catalase- positive infections?:
Chronic granulomatous disease (30% are AR)

2069.

When does fetal IgM first appear in the fetal circulation?:


Third trimester (6 to 9 months)

2070.

Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) presents with local


edema in which organs?: GI, skin, respiratory tract

2071.

What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary


permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?: C1
esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

2072.

What AR disease contains the most common neutrophil


defect?: Myeloperoxidase deficiency

2073.

How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone


marrow suppressor?: It causes a buildup of dATP, which
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in
deoxynucleoside triphosphate (a precursor of DNA), resulting
in overall bone marrow suppression.

2074.

What disease involves an adenosine deaminase


deficiency, B and T cell deficiency, and defective IL-2
receptors?: Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

2075.

What AR disease presents with B and T cell deficiencies,


lymphopenia, an IgA deficiency, cerebellar problems, and
spider angiomas?: Ataxia-telangiectasia

2076.

How is gonadal sex determined?: The gonads' histologic


characteristics

2087.

How is ductal sex determined?: Presence of mullerian or


wolffian ducts

2088.

How is phenotypic sex determined?: Appearance of


external genitalia

2089.

What disease presents with severe mental retardation,


VSD, asymmetric face, microcephaly, and chromosome 5p
deletion?: Cri du chat

2090.

What is primary hyperparathyroidism most commonly


due to?: Chief cell adenoma (80%)

2091.

What are low levels of Ca2+ and P04 along with


neuromuscular irritability signs of?: Hypoparathyroidism

2092.

What pathology has the following signs: severe headache,


palpitations with or without tachycardia, diaphoresis,
anxiety, nervousness, and hypertensive episodes?:
Pheochromocytoma

2093.

What pathology has the following signs: elevated levels of


Cat+, cardiac arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney stones,
and metastatic calcifications?: Primary hyperparathyroidism

2094.

What adrenal pathology presents with hypotension,


hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia along
with skin pigmentation?: Addison's disease

2095.

What disease, with familial mental retardation, presents


with large everted ears and macroorchidism?: Fragile X
syndrome

2096.

What immunoglobulins are present on the surface of


mature B cells?: IgM and IgD

2097.

What is the only immunoglobulin found in the fetal


circulation in the second trimester?: Maternal IgG

2098.

2077.

2078.

How does maternal immunoglobulin cross the placenta


to get into fetal circulation?: Fc receptor on the heavy chain
of the immunoglobulin via active transport

2079.

What disease involves a deficiency in IgM; elevated IgA;


normal IgG; and recurrent pyogenic infections, especially
from pneumococci; and thrombocytopenia?: WiskottAldrich syndrome

2080.

What syndrome in children involves hypofunction of the


adrenal glands due to bilateral hemorrhagic infarctions,
which are most commonly associated with
meningococcemia?: Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome

2081.

What thyroid carcinoma presents with psammoma


bodies?: Papillary carcinoma of die thyroid

2082.

In what disease do you see a large, hard, fibrous


proliferation of the connective tissue of the thyroid?:
Riedel's thyroiditis

2083.

What thyroid pathology presents with a "cold," solitary,


discrete nodule?: Adenoma of the thyroid

2084.

What cell type involves Immoral immunity?: B


lymphocytes

2085.

What disease involves a goiter, hypothyroidism, and


autoimmunity due to ag-specific suppressor T cells and
occurs in women more commonly than in men?:
Hashimoto's thyroiditis

2086.

What ovarian pathology involves psammoma bodies?:


Serocystadenocarcinoma
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most
common precursor of choriocarcinoma?: Hydatidiform mole
What estrogen- or progesterone-producing tumor is
associated with Call-Exner bodies?: Granulosa cell tumor

2099.

What ovarian pathology is associated with Turner's


syndrome or malformation of the genitals and comprises
50% of all malignant germ cell tumors?: Dysgerminoma

2100.

What ovarian pathology involves ectoderm, endoderm,


and mesoderm in a histologic section and is most
commonly seen in the early reproductive years?: Dermoid
cyst (teratoma)

2101.

What AR disease involves a deficiency in


glucocerebrosidase,a huge spleen, and engorged
phagocytic cells and is associated with chromosome 1?:
Gaucher's disease

2102.

What disease, with an abnormality in collagen type I,


presents with "blue sclera"?: Osteogenesis imperfecta

2103.

What small, subareolar, solitary tumor that affects the


lactiferous ducts presents with bloody discharge from the
nipple?: Intraductal papilloma

2104.

What cell consists of a binucleate giant cell with


eosinophilic inclusions?: Reed-Sternberg cells

2105.

What disease involves bilateral, enlarged, pale ovaries and


presents with infertility, hirsutism, obesity, secondary
amenorrhea with elevated levels of LH, testosterone, and
low levels of FSH?: Polycystic ovaries

2106.

What benign tumor of the breast, seen in the young, is


well demarcated and has a very low risk of cancer?:
Fibroadenoma

2107.

What breast pathology commonly occurs bilaterally in


the upper outer quadrants, and includes
microcalcifications, hypertrophy of the ducts, apocrine
metaplasia, sclerosing adenoma, and blue-domed cysts?:
Fibrocystic change of the breast

2108.

What AR disease involves a deficiency in tyrosinase, poses


an increased risk of developing basal cell or squamous cell
carcinoma, and is associated with chromosome llp?:
Albinism

2109.

What is the most common fatal recessive disease in


whites?: Cystic fibrosis

2110.

What AR disease has a deficiency in homogentisic oxidase


that causes brittle, fibrillated articular cartilage, blue-black
pigmentation of collagen, and urine that turns black upon
standing?: Alkaptonuria

2111.

What AR disease involves a decreased amount of


sphingomyelinase, massive organomegaly, zebra bodies,
and foamy histiocytes microscopically and is associated
with chromosome llp?: Niemann-Pick disease

2112.

What disease has multiple schwannomas, cafe au lait


spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and is associated with
chromosome 17q?: Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is
with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules either)

2113.

Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in


which the patient has long extremities, lax joints, pigeon
chest, and posterior mural leaflet prolapse, and is prone to
developing dissecting aortic aneurysm?: Marfan's syndrome

2114.

What AR disease involves a defect in amino acid 508 on


chromosome 7, causing a defect in Cl- transportation that
leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in
viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic
insufficiencies?: Cystic fibrosis (Parents are usually the first to
find out because the baby tastes salty.)

2115.

What AD disease, associated with chromosome 19,


involves a defect in the LDL receptors, leading to skin and
tendon xanthomas?: Familial hypercholesterolemia

2116.

In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis;


renal cell carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal,
cerebellar, medulla, or spinal cord hemangioblastomas;
and epidermal cysts?: von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

2117.

What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does


not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and
involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus, dilatation of the
lateral and third ventricles, and signs of extrapyramidal
lesions?: Huntington's disease

2118.

What is the most common cause of death in this disease?:


Suicide

2119.

In utero death, caused by a complete lack of an alpha


chain, is known as what?: Hydrops fetalis

2120.

What AR disease involves a substitution of valine for


glutamic acid at position 6 on the beta chain?: Sickle cell
anemia

2121.

What AD disease involves a defect in spectrin and leads to


jaundice, splenomegaly, and cholecystitis?: Hereditary
spherocytosis

2122.

What spinal cord pathology is caused by a degeneration


of the cortical spinals, leading to weakness, fasciculations,
hyperreflexia, and spasticity?: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease

2123.

What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with


elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?: 1. Vitamin B12
deficiency 2. Folate deficiency

2124.

What are the five reasons for normochromic normocytic


anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte
count?: 1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4.
Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia

2125.

What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic


anemia with a low MCV?: 1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e.,
porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron
deficiency 4. Lead poisoning

2126.

What are the three causes for normochromic normocytic


anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?:
1. Marrow failure 2. Cancer 3. Leukemia

2127.

How is iron-deficiency anemia differentiated from the


other forms of hypochromic microcytic anemia?: RDW
value greater than 15 (indicative of iron-deficiency anemia)

2128.

What CNS tumor is seen in persons between 40 and 50


years of age; occurs in men more than women; affects the
cerebral brain stem; is GFAP-positive; has a poor prognosis;
and microscopically displays pseudopalisades,increased
cellularity, pleomorphism, neovascularization, and
necrosis?: Glioblastoma multiforme

2129.

In what CNS tumor, arising from arachnoid cells, do you


see psammoma bodies?: Meningioma occurs in (women more
often than in men).

2130.

What CNS pathology has a protracted history of seizures,


occurs in the 30- to 40-year-age range, and microscopically
involves "fried egg" cells?: Oligodendroglioma

2131.

In what disease do you see atrophy of the frontal and


temporal lobes ("walnut brain")?: Pick's disease

2132.

What disease affects the basal ganglia and the substantia


nigra, produces cogwheel rigidity, mask-like faces, and
resting tremors; and reveals Lewy bodies microscopically?:
Parkinson's disease

2133.

What pathology has bilateral periventricular plaques,


perivascular inflammation, and demyelination and is
thought to be autoimmune or brought on by a viral
infection?: Multiple sclerosis

2134.

What type of vascular pathology, involving damage to the


bridging veins that drain into the superior sagittal sinus, is
due to blunt trauma and is seen most commonly in old
people?: Subdural hematoma

2135.

What pathology is associated with a bloody lumbar


puncture, which is caused most commonly by a ruptured
berry aneurysm that produces the worst headache that the
person has ever experienced?: Subarachnoid hemorrhage

2136.

What is the most common intramedullary spinal cord


tumor?: Ependymoma

2137.

What is the most common cause of dementia; occurs in


women more than men in the 60- to 90-year-old age group;
and is associated with (32 amyloid, senile plaques, and
neuroflbrillary tangles?: Alzheimer's disease

2138.

What common cause of hypogonadism in men involves


testicular atrophy, azoospermia, gynecomastia, and Barr
bodies?: Klinefelter's syndrome

2139.

What is the main type of cell involved in cellular


immunity?: T lymphocyte

2140.

What is the syndrome associated with women of short


stature with a web neck, a low posterior hairline, streaky
ovaries, and preductal coarctation of the aorta?: Turner's
syndrome

2141.

What is the term for a person with ambiguous external


genitalia who has both ovarian and testicular tissue (Note:
66% of such persons are 46 XX.)?: True hermaphrodite (due to
an X,Y translocation)

2142.

What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is X-linked recessive


and is caused by a defect in copper metabolism, causing a
problem with cross-linking collagen and elastin fibers?:
Type IX

2143.

What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome involves decreased


activity of lysyl hydroxylase and affects collagen types I and
III the most?: Type VI (AR)

2144.

What type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome involves a


deficiency in procollagen- N-peptidase?: Type VII (AR)

2145.

What type of person has testicular tissue with female


genitalia and both the Y chromosome and testis present?:
Male pseudohermaphrodite 3 & "Dude looks like a lady!"

2146.

What type of person presents with male external genitalia


and is 46XX owing to excess exposure to androgenic
steroids during the early stage of gestation?: Female
pseudohermaphrodite

2147.

What syndrome has the following components:


hypertension, proteinuria, hematuria, azotemia, and
oliguria?: Nephritic syndrome

2148.

What type of glomerular nephritis (GN) occurs most


commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection;
is immune complex mediated; and is seen as "lumpybumpy" subepithelial deposits?: Postinfectious glomerular
nephritis

2149.

In what type of GN, seen in the 2- to 6-year-old age group,


is there albuminuria and effacement of the visceral
epithelial foot process with no deposits?: Minimal change
disease (lipoid nephrosis)

2150.

What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and


dermatitis herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of IgA, C3,
properdin, IgG, and IgM?: Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)

2151.

What pathology has pulmonary and renal basement


membrane involvement and crescent formation and
involves type II hypersensitivity?: Goodpasture's syndrome

2152.

In what AD pathology is there a derangement of the


epiphyseal cartilage growth, causing a large skull and a
normal-sized vertebral column?: Achondroplasia

2153.

What gynecologic pathology occurs in the third and


fourth decades, is the cause of 18 to 25% of all gynecologic
laparoscopic procedures, and presents with chocolate
cysts?: Endometriosis

2154.

What form of GN is characteristically associated with


crescent formation?: Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
(RPGN)

2155.

What type of GN has C3, IgG, C1q, C4 along with


subendothelial deposits?: MPGN type I (two thirds of the
MPGN cases)

2156.

What type of skin carcinoma occurs on sun-exposed sites,


has a low level of metastasis, and involves keratin pearls?:
Squamous cell carcinoma

2157.

A herniation of the brain through a defect in the skull is


known as what?: Fungus cerebri

2158.

What type of skin pathology, located on the central face


and on sun-damaged skin, is a precursor to squamous cell
carcinoma?: Keratoacanthoma

2159.

True or false-Hodgkin's lymphoma affects Waldeyer's


ring?: False; non-Hodgkin's disease affects Waldeyer's ring and
the periaortic nodes

2160.

What pathology is due to increased resorption or


impaired synthesis of bone, resulting in decreased bone
mass, and is associated with postmenopause, inactivity,
hyperthyroidism, hyperadrenocorticism, and Ca2+
deficiency?: Osteoporosis

2161.

What is a circumscribed, flat, nonpalpable pigmented


change up to 1 cm?: Macule (e.g., a freckle)

2162.

What is a palpable, elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?:


Papule

2163.

What is the most common tumor on sun-exposed sites


that rarely metastasizes but is locally aggressive and has
palisade arrangements of the nuclei?: Basal cell carcinoma

2164.

What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between skin layers


up to 0.5 cm?: Vesicle (e.g., poison ivy)

2165.

What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between the layers


greater than 0.5 cm?: Bulla

2166.

What melanocytic tumor has a neural filament tumor


marker and vertical or radial growth?: Malignant melanoma

2167.

What benign neoplasm has the total lesion above the


level of the skin with a "pasted on appearance"?: Seborrheic
keratosis

2168.

What are the gray-black patches of verrucous


hyperkeratosis, usually found in the axillary folds, that can
be a sign of an underlying malignancy?: Acanthosis nigricans
(It is commonly seen in obese patients.)

2169.

What is it called when the posterior cerebellar mass


pushes the tonsils through the foramen magnum?: Tonsillar
herniation

2170.

What form of lymphoma is diffuse in the lymph node, has


an IgM spike, slowly evolves to chronic lymphocytic
leukemia (CLL), is seen in the old, and also has liver, spleen,
and bone marrow involvement?: Small-cell lymphoma

2171.

What lymphoma is a diffusely mixed, diffusely large cell


that grows rapidly and consists mainly of B cells along with
"null" cells?: Diffuse aggressive lymphoma

2172.

What lymphoma forms 30% of childhood lymphomas, is


linked to EBV, is associated with chromosome 8,14q
translocation, and has a "starry sky" pattern of involvement
on a histologic section?: Burldtt's lymphoma

2173.

What lymphoma arises from germinal follicles and is


associated with proto- oncogene bcl-2 due to translocation
of chromosome 14,18?: Follicular lymphoma

2174.

What variant of small lymphocytic lymphoma has a slow


course and elevated levels of IgM that lead to hyperviscosity
syndrome and blindness?: Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

2175.

What cranial nerve is most commonly affected in a


schwannoma?: CN VIII

2186.

What leukemia is associated with a chromosome 9,22


translocation; constitutes 80% of childhood leukemias;
and has blasts with PAS-positive material and terminal
deoxy-transferase (TdT) marker present?: Acute lymphocytic
leukemia (ALL)

2187.

What leukemia is seen in the 15- to 39-year-old age group,


has blasts with myeloperoxidase-positive granules, tends to
invade tissues, and is associated with a poor prognosis?:
Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

2188.

What leukemia is seen in the 25- to 60-year-old age group


and is associated with chromosome 9,22 translocation, bcrabl oncogene, and blast crisis?: Chronic myeloid leukemia
(CML)

2189.

What leukemia is the most indolent of all leukemias;


affects persons older than 55 years of age; and is associated
with trisomy 12 (Hint: 95% are B cell neoplasms.)?: Chronic
lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

2190.

What lymphoma is seen in male adolescents, is associated


with a thymic mass, and progresses to ALL?: Lymphoblastic
lymphoma {verify this}

2191.

What is the term for the condition in which the brain is


pushed under the falx cerebri by a one-sided mass lesion?:
Subfalcial herniation

2192.

What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?:


Craniopharyngioma

2193.

2176.

2177.

2178.

What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs least


frequently, is seen in people younger than 35 years of age, is
localized, has an excellent prognosis, and involves mainly
lymphocytes and a few Reed-Sternberg cells?: Lymphocyte
predominant

2179.

What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma is the most


common type; involves women more than men; occurs in
adolescence more than in old age; affects the lower
cervical, supraclavicular, and mediastinal lymph nodes
with broad bands of fibrous tissue and "lacunar" cells; and
has a good prognosis?: Nodular sclerosis

2180.

What type of GN has C3 MPGN type II deposits in irregular


granular/linear foci and intramembranous deposits of
unknown material?: MPGN Type II
What is the term for a News benign melanocytic tumor?:
Nevus
Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl
cyclase as its second messenger?: M2
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from
myasthenia gravis?: Edrophonium

2194.

What drug causes a gradual loss of choline from the


presynaptic nerve terminal by blocking its reuptake?:
Hemicholium

2195.

What is the only site in the body that uses Ml receptors?:


The stomach

2196.

2197.

What is the most potent neuromuscular junction Mocker


(NMJB), and also has no cardiovascular side effects?:
Doxacurium

2198.

What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma is widespread with


extensive fibrosis and necrosis, occurs in older patients,
involves many Reed-Sternberg cells, and has a poor
prognosis?: Lymphocyte depletion

2199.

What variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma can be localized or


widespread and has an intermediate prognosis with
lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, histiocytes, and
Reed-Sternberg cells?: Mixed cellularity

2200.

2201.

What AR disease involves a deficiency in hexosaminidase


A and cherry red spots on the retina; is seen more
commonly in Jewish people; and is associated with
chromosome 15q?: Tay-Sachs disease

2202.

Name the condition described by the following:


Adenomas of the thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal cortex
along with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?: Multiple endocrine
neoplasia, type I (MEN I)-Wermer's syndrome

2204.

Pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the


thyroid, and adenoma of the parathyroid?: MEN Ila-Sipple's
syndrome

2206.

2181.

2182.

2183.

2184.

2185.

What drug is an Ml-specific antispasmodic?: Pirenzepine

What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?:


Ipratropium
What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?:
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
What is the drug of choice for atropine or tricyclic
antidepressant (TCA) overdose?: Physostigmine
What is the rate-limiting step for norepinephrine
synthesis?: Tyrosine hydroxylase
What two enzymes are blocked by disulfiram?: Aldehyde
dehydrogenase and dopamine -hydroxylase

2203.

What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?:


Selegiline
What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters
from storage granules?: 1. Guanethidine 2. Bretylium

2205.

What drug blocks intragranular uptake of


norepinephrine (NE)?: Reserpine

What two drugs, when mixed, can lead to malignant


hyperthermia?: 1. Succinylcholine 2. Halothane (Treatment is
with dantrolene.)

2207.

In what phase of noncompetitive depolarization does no


further depolarization occur, producing a desensitized
block?: Phase 2

2208.

What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3)


and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger
system?: a1-Receptors

2209.

What a1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial


tachycardia with hypotension?: Metaraminol (a1, 1)

2210.

What a1-agonist, not inactivated by catechol-O- methyl


transferase (COMT), is used as a decongestant and also for
treatment of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?: Phenylephrine

2211.

What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of druginduced Parkinson's disease?: Amantadine

2231.

What drug which causes Ca2+ independent release of


dopamine is used to treat attention deficit hyperactive
disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy?: Methylphenidate

2232.

What dopamine-2 (D2) agonist is used to treat neuroleptic


malignant syndrome?: Bromocriptine

2233.

What cofactor of dopa- decarboxylase decreases the


efficacy of L-dopa?: Vitamin B6

2234.

What three drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?: 1.


Phenytoin 2. Cyclosporine 3. Nifedipine

2235.

What antiepileptic agent has syndrome of inappropriate


antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a side effect?:
Carbamazepine

2236.

What 2-agonist is used in the prophylactic treatment of


asthma?: Salmeterol

2237.

What two 2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?: 1.


Ritodrine 2. Terbutaline

2238.

A hypertensive crisis can be caused by the addition of an


MAO inhibitor and what?: Tyramine

2239.

What group of drugs is known as the "antihypertensive"


group?: a1-Antagonists

2240.

2212.

2213.

2214.

2215.

Why?: Because they decrease total peripheral resistance


(TPR) and preload with no change in heart rate or cardiac
output

2216.

What drug is used for partial seizures and Lennox-Gastaut


syndrome in children?: Felbamate
What is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?:
Carbamazepine
What are the first signs of overdose from Phenobarbitals?:
Nystagmus and ataxia
What drug, used for partial seizures, inhibits the release of
glutamate and causes rashes in 45% of patients taking it?:
Lamotrigine
What benzodiazepine is used to treat absent mal
seizures?: Clonazepam

2241.

What mixed a-antagonists are used for patients with


pheochromocytoma?: Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine

2242.

What a2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and


postural hypotension?: Yohimbine

2243.

2217.

2218.

What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is


found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal
decongestant?: Ephedrine

2219.

What two 2-agonists are used to produce


bronchodilatation?: 1. Metaproterenol 2. Albuterol

2220.

2221.

What -blocker is also an a-blocker?: Labetalol

What are the four cardioselective -blockers?: 1. Bisoprolol


2. Atenolol 3. Metoprolol 4. Acebutolol (BAMA)

2222.

2223.

What -blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?: Propranolol

What are the two drugs of choice for simple partial


seizures?: 1. Carbamazepine 2. Phenytoin
What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause
hyperprolactemia?: Clozapine
What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?:
Diazepam

2244.

What two neuroleptic agents are associated with tardive


dyslunesia?: 1. Haldol 2. Fluphenazine

2245.

What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits,


hypotension, and torsades de pointes?: Thioridazine

2246.

What neuroleptic has amoxapine as a metabolite?:


Loxapine

2247.

What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an


increase in weight or appetite?: Molindone

2248.

In what three areas of the body are sympathetics the


predominant tone?: 1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins

2249.

What three -blockers are used in the treatment of


glaucoma?: 1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol

2250.

2224.

2225.

What TCA causes sudden cardiac death in children?:


Desipramine

What two -blockers decrease serum lipids?: 1. Pindolol 2.


Acebutolol

2251.

In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead


to psychotic symptoms?: Mesocortical area

2252.

What area of the brain is linked to emotion and


movement?: Mesolimbic system

2253.

2226.

2227.

2228.

What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the


periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to
dopamine?: 1. Carbidopa 2. Benserazide

2229.

What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?:


Selegiline

2230.

What TCA is used to treat enuresis?: Imipramine

What class of antidepressants are associated with


insomnia?: Serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
What monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) does not
cause a hypertensive crisis?: Selegiline
What occurs if you mix an MAOI and a
sympathomimetic?: Severe hypertension, which can lead to
subarachnoid hemorrhage
What two TCAs are considered to be heavily sedative?: 1.
Amitriptyline 2. Trazodone

2254.

What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an


antihistamine?: Risperidone

2255.

What TCA is used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder


and is said to cause aggressive behavior?: Clomipramine

2256.

What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis and also


has no tardive dyslcinesia as a side effect?: Clozapine

2257.

What do the following values stand for: EDS ?: Effective


dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)

2283.

2284.

TD50?: Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)

2285.

LD50?: Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose

What drug decreases mood swings and is used for the


manic phase of a bipolar illness?: Lithium

2286.

What group of drugs potentiate the activity of gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA)?: Benzodiazepines

2287.

2258.

2259.

What benzodiazepine is used for: Anxiety/panic attacks?:


Alprazolam

2260.

2261.

Absence seizures and as an anticonvulsant?: Clonazepam

)
What is the equation for a drug's ther-a e~utic index?:
LD50 divided by ED50
Which phases of drug testing require an investigational
new drug exemption?: Phases I, II, and III
How many years do preclinical animal studies last?: 2 to 5
years

2289.

Alcohol withdrawal and as an anticonvulsant?:


Clorazepate

2290.

Status epilepticus, as a preoperative medication?:


Diazepam

2291.

2262.

2263.

2264.

Preoperative medication?: Lorazepam

What benzodiazepines are activated outside of the liver?:


Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL = "outside the
liver")

2265.

What benzodiazepine antagonist is used for


benzodiazepine overdose?: Flumazenil

2266.

What are the three signs of morphine overdose?: 1.


Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma

2267.

What is the neurotransmitter (NT) at the mu receptor?: Endorphin

2268.

2269.

What is the NT at the delta receptor?: Enkephalin

2270.

What is the NT at the kappa receptor?: Dynorphin

Which type of receptor antagonist is the most clinically


efficacious?: Competitive antagonist

2271.

Which type of antagonist acts on the same receptor as the


agonist that it blocks?: Pharmacologic antagonist

2272.

How are water-soluble drugs eliminated primarily?: Via


the kidneys

2273.

What class of pharmaceuticals are initially inactive but


are then metabolized to their active products?: Prodrugs

2274.

How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system
resorbed by the GI tract?: Enterohepatic cycling

2275.

2276.

What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?: Blood

Which type of antagonist takes out a drug by binding to


it?: Chemical antagonist

2277.

Which type of antagonist directly reverses the action of a


drug by working on a different receptor?: Physiologic
antagonist

2278.

Quantal dose-response curves indicate what two things


about a drug in a patient population?: 1. Margin of error 2.
Relative safety

2279.

When an agonist drug binds to its receptor, what type of


mechanism does it activate?: Effector mechanism

2280.

What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?: 1.


Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4.
Intracellular effectors

2281.

What are the two factors that influence low oral


bioavailability?: 1. First-pass metabolism 2. Acid lability

2282.

What does the FDA regulate?: Efficacy and safety of drugs

2288.

How many phases of clinical testing are there?: Four


phases
Before which phase of clinical testing is a new drug
application applied for?: Phase IV

2292.

How many years does clinical testing last?: 4 to 5 years

2293.

What antineoplastic drug is a prodrug?: Flucytosine

What carbapenem is resistant to penase and is a partial


cell wall inhibitor?: Imipenem

2294.

What monobactam is resistant to -lactamases of some


bacteria?: Aztreonam

2295.

What are the drugs used in the triple treatment of


Helicobacter pylori?: Pepto-Bismol, metronidazole, and
erythromycin or amoxicillin

2296.

What is the commonly IV opioid used in surgery?:


Fentanyl

2297.

Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative


emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?: Propofol

2298.

What is the major pulmonary side effect of muactivators?: Respiratory depression

2299.

Which drug causes dissociative anesthesia and is used


mainly in pediatric surgery?: Ketamine

2300.

Which short-acting benzodiazepine is often used for


conscious sedation?: Midazolam

2301.

What is the most commonly used IV opioid in


cardiovascular surgery?: Morphine sulfate

2302.

What toxicities are caused by the following agents:


Occupational nitrous oxide exposure?: Anemia

2303.

2304.

MethoxyHurane?: Nephrotoxicity

2305.

Halothane?: Hepatitis, with or without necrosis

What is the only local anesthetic that does not cause


vasodilatation?: Cocaine (It is vasoconstrictive.)

2306.

Do opioids increase or decrease uterine smooth muscle


tone?: Decrease-but they increase ureter smooth muscle tone

2307.

What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user
will not develop tolerance?: 1. Constipation 2. Miosis

2308.

What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?: 1.


Clucocorticoids 2. Amphetamines

2309.

What is another name for prolactin inhibiting factor?:


Dopamine

2310.

What is the mechanism behind tardive dyskenesia?:


Dopamine receptor upregulation

2311.

What sedative-hypnotic is used for alcohol withdrawal?:


Diazepam

2312.

To what is inhalational anesthesia potency proportional?:


Lipid solubility

2313.

What is the only commonly used inhalant that is not a


halogenated hydrocarbon?: Nitrous oxide

2314.

Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated in patients


on warfarin therapy?: Chloral hydrate

2315.

With which two tetracyclines is phototoxicity


associated?: 1. Doxycycline 2. Minocycline

2339.

Which drug inhibits peptidyl transferase enzyme and


binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit?: Chloramphenicol

2340.

What two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?:


1. Doxycycline 2. Minocycline

2341.

Renal tubular acidosis, nephrosis, and amino aciduria


constitute the triad of what syndrome?: Fanconi-like
syndrome

2342.

What is the triad associated with "serotonin crisis"?:


Myoclonus, hyperthermia, and rigidity

2343.

What form of antimicrobial therapy is better to treat an


immunocompromised patient?: Bactericidal

2344.

2316.

2317.

What drug used to treat alcoholism has a long half-life


and is given orally?: Naltrexone

2318.

What is the cephalosporin of choice for Pseudomonas


infections?: Ceftazidime
Which bacteriostatic drug inhibits translocation of
protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
and is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic used for pulmonary
infections?: Erythromycin

What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase


inhibitors?: Proximal tubule

2345.

What is the site where local anesthetics bind?: Inactive


Na+ channels

2346.

Which bactericidal agents interfere with cell wall


synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidation?: Penicillins

2347.

What are the three -lactamase inhibitors?: 1. Clavulanic


acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam

2348.

What sulfonamide is the drug of choice in treating: UTIs?:


Sulfisoxazole

2349.

2319.

2320.

2321.

2322.

2323.

2324.

Toxoplasmosis?: Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

2325.

Malaria prophylactically?: Sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine

2326.

Ophthalmic infections?: Sulfacetamide

2327.

Crohn's or ulcerative colitis?: Sulfasalazine

What drug blocks dihydrofolate reductase?: Trimethoprim


(Sulfonamides block dihydropteroate synthase.)

2328.

What are the two "broad-spectrum" penicillins?: 1.


Ampicillin 2. Amoxicillin

2329.

Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?:


Methicillin

2330.

What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?:


Penicillin-V

2331.

What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of lifethreatening illnesses?: Penicillin-G (benzylpenicillin)

2332.

What is the drug of choice in the treatment of


Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?:
Sulfonamide/trimethoprim

2333.

What are the five penicillinase-resistant penicillins?: 1.


Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin
(CONDM)

2334.

2335.

Which antiviral agent is teratogenic?: Amantadine

Which broad-spectrum antibiotic inhibits the


attachment of amino acyl tRNA by binding to the 30S
ribosomal subunit?: Tetracycline

2336.

Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?:


Demeclocycline

2337.

Which tetracycline is used when there is a decrease in


renal function?: Doxycycline

2338.

Vestibular toxicity is associated with what tetracycline?:


Minocycline
Hepatotoxicity is associated with what tetracycline?:
Chlortetracycline
Which two cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier?:
1. Cefuroxime 2. Cefaclor
What three cephalosporins are eliminated via biliary
mechanisms?: 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone
What three cephalosporins can produce disul6ram-like
reactions?: 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K-dependent
factors?: 1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam

2350.

What three cephalosporins have good penetration


against Bacteroides fragilis?: 1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3.
Ceftizoxime

2351.

What cephalosporin-like drug has excellent coverage


against gram-positive and gram-negative bacilli activity and
is used in conjunction with the enzyme inhibitor
cilastatin?: Imipenem

2352.

What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant


gonococcalinfections?: Spectinomycin

2353.

Which drugs block the enzyme DNA gyrase?:


Quinolones/nalidixic acid

2354.

What aminoglycoside is used before surgery to sterilize


the bowel?: Neomycin

2355.

What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?:


Streptomycin

2356.

Which anti-Tb drug gives orange urine, saliva, and tears?:


Rifampin

2357.

What is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery caused by


Bacillus fragil%s?: Metronidazole

2358.

Which topical agent blocks the enzyme isoprenyl


phosphate?: Bacitracin

2359.

What is the drug of choice for Legionella, Mycoplasma,


and Campylobacter infections?: Erythromycin

2360.

What drug is used to treat Tb, tularemia, and the plague?:


Streptomycin

2361.

What is the drug of choice for methicillin-resistant


Staphylococcus aureus?: Vancomycin

2362.

Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and


interfere with the initiation complex, causing a misreading
of mRNA?: Aminoglycosides

2363.

What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis


carriers?: Rifampin

2364.

Which three aminoglycosides have vestibular toxicity?: 1.


Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin

2365.

What are the two most important features in the


diagnosis of malaria?: 1. Splenomegaly 2. Anemia (With a high
index of suspicion)

2366.

Which antihelmintic increases membrane permeability


to Ca2+ and is the drug of choice for schistosomiasis?:
Praziquantel

2367.

What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra


reaction?: Clofazimine

2368.

What is the drug of choice for taeniasis which inhibits


oxidative phosphorylation in cestodes?: Niclosamide

2369.

Skin necrosis is caused by a deficiency in what?: Transient


protein C deficiency

2387.

What D2 receptor blocker is used as an antiemetic?:


Chlorpromazine

2388.

What prostaglandin El (PGE1) analog is used in the


treatment of ulcers caused by the excessive use of NSAIDs?:
Misoprostol

2389.

What 2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the


treatment of asthma?: Salmeterol

2390.

What is the only form of insulin that can be given IV?:


Regular insulin

2391.

What drug, if given during pregnancy, would cause the


uterus to exhibit signs of progesterone withdrawal and
induce an abortion?: RU 486

2392.

What two forms of insulin, if mixed together, would


result in precipitation of zinc?: 1. Lente insulin 2. NPH insulin
or protamine zinc insulin (PZI)

2393.

What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?:


Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and
folic acid)

2394.

What is the drug of choice for threadworm, trichinosis,


and larva migrans?: Thiabendazole

2395.

What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of


choice for whipworm and pinworm?: Mebendazole

2396.

Gl phase of the cell cycle?: L-asparaginase and mitomycin

2397.

G2 phase of the cell cycle?: Bleomycin

2398.

Between GI and S phases of the cell cycle?: Hydroxyurea

2399.

Between S and G2 phases of the cell cycle?: Etoposide

2370.

2371.

Which bacteriostatic drug inhibits folic acid synthesis


and a major side effect is the lepra reaction?: Dapsone

2372.

What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of


malaria?: Anopheles mosquito

2373.

What is the drug of choice for filariasis and


onchocerciasis?: Diethylcarbamazine

2374.

What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular


blockade of the worm?: Pyrantel pamoate

2375.

What drug blocks glucose uptake, leading to decrease


formation of adenosine 5' triphosphate (ATP) and resulting
in immobilization of the parasite?: Albendazole

2376.

What drug is an irreversible inhibitor of the Na+/K+


pump?: Omeprazole

2377.

What is the drug of choice for: Herpes simplex virus (HSV)


infections?: Acyclovir or trifluridine

2378.

2379.

What is the drug of choice for: Varicella-zoster?: Acyclovir

What is the drug of choice for: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)


infections?: Ganciclovir

2380.

What is the drug of choice for: Human immunodeficiency


virus (HIV) infections?: azidothymidine (AZT)

2381.

What is the drug of choice for: Influenza and rubella


infections?: Amantadine

2382.

What is the drug of choice for: Respiratory syncytial virus


(RSV) infections?: Ribavirin

2383.

What is the drug of choice for: Human papilloma virus


(HPV) infections?: a-Interferon

2384.

What antihistamine is used in the treatment of


serotonergic crisis?: Cyproheptadine

2385.

What are the three nonsedating antihistamines?: 1.


Terfenadine 2. Astemizole 3. Loratadine

2386.

Which antineoplastic agents' site of inhibition is in: M


phase of the cell cycle?: Vinblastine and vincristine

S phase of the cell cycle?: Cytarabine, methotrexate, 6mercaptopurine, and 6-thioguanine

2400.

What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth


control pills?: They block the midcycle surge of luteinizing
hormone (LH)

2401.

True or false: Oral sulfonylureas increase the number of


insulin receptors.: False-verify this answer.

2402.

What drugs combined together produce


neuroleptanalgesia?: True. They also increase insulin release
and decrease glucagon release.

2403.

What drugs combined together produce


neurolepanalgesia?: Droperidol and fentanyl

2404.

What ultra-short-acting barbiturate induces hypnosis and


is associated with cardiovascular and respiratory
depression?: Thiopental

2405.

What is the most common pain killer used during


pregnancy?: Meperidine

2406.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Gray baby


syndrome?: Chloramphenicol

2407.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: CN VIII


damage (vestibulotoxic)?: Aminoglycosides

2408.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is:


Teratogenicity?: Metronidazole

2409.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is:


CholestaHc hepatitis?: Erythromycin

2410.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Hemolytic


anemia?: Nitrofurantoin

2411.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Dental


staining if used in the pediatric population?: Tetracycline

2412.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Altered


folate metabolism?: Trimethoprim

2413.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Auditory


toxicity?: Vancomycin

2414.

What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Cartilage


abnormalities?: Quinolones

2415.

What are the five zero-order processes?: 1. Sustained


release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity

2416.

What morphine derivative is used in patients with renal


failure?: Hydromorphone

2417.

Which group of antihypertensive agents decreases left


ventricular hypertrophy the best?: Thiazide diuretics

2418.

Which diuretic causes irreversible ototoxicity and GI


bleeding as its main side effects?: Ethacrynic acid

2435.

What IV agent is used to treat respiratory depression


associated with withdrawal from alcohol usage?: Naloxone

2436.

What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood


pressure is due to: Elevated heart rate?: -Blockers

2437.

What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood


pressure is due to: Elevated force of contractions?: Blockers

2438.

What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood


pressure is due to: Increase in fluid volume?: Diuretics or
angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

2439.

What is the best form of treatment if an elevated blood


pressure is due to: Increase in TPR?: Centrally acting
sympatholytics, a-antagonists, or Ca2+ channel bockers

2440.

What is the site of action of: Osmotic diuretics?: The entire


tubule barring the thick ascending limb

2441.

What is the site of action of: Loop diuretics?: Ascending


limb

2442.

2419.

2420.

What is the site of action of: Thiazide diuretics?: Early


distal tubule

2421.

Which class of diuretics blocks Na/Cl cotransport in the


distal tubules?: Thiazide diuretics
Why should codeine be carefully administered
acetaminophen or aminosalicylic acid?: Because it has an
additive effect with with these agents
What muscle comprises the upper esophageal sphincter?:
Cricopharyngeus

What is the site of action of: K+-sparing diuretics?: Early


collecting duct

2443.

What is the site of action of: Aldosterone antagonists?:


Distal convoluted tubules

2444.

What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of


the nephron?: Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)

2445.

What is the active metabolite of spironolactone?:


Canrenone

2446.

2422.

2423.

2424.

2425.

What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can


cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?: Fentanyl

2426.

What is the lipid solubility and potency of a drug if the


induction and recovery from the drug were both rapid?:
Low lipid solubility and potency (They are inversely
proportional.)

2427.

What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with


a decreased renal function?: a-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or
clonidine is also used.)

2428.

What hormone is released by the atria due to an increase


in blood pressure to cause an increase in glomerular
filtration rate (GFR), Na+ retention, and renin-angiotensin
release?: Atrial natriuretic factor

2429.

What is the drug of choice in treatment for the late


phaseof asthma?: Corticosteroids

2430.

Which antigenic thrombolytic agent causes a decreased


level of circulating fibrinogen?: Streptokinase

2431.

What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the


short-term treatment of glaucoma and also in the
treatment of acute mountain sickness?: Acetazolamide

2432.

What diuretic is used to decrease intraocular and


intracranial pressures?: Mannitol

2433.

Which thrombolytic agent, activated in the presence of


fibrin, is manufactured by recombinant DNA process?:
Alteplase

2434.

True or false: chewing is essential for digestion?: False; it


just increases the surface area of the food.
In which region of the stomach are parietal and chief cells
located?: Body or corpus
What hormone, released in response to low pH, inhibits
gastric emptying by decreasing antral contractions,
increases constriction of the pyloric sphincter, and also
increases bicarbonate secretions from the pancreas?:
Secretin
In which region of the stomach are G cells located?:
Antrum (They secrete gastrin: G for gastrin.)

2447.

How long is the transit time through the large intestine?:


3 to 4 days

2448.

How long is the transit time through the small intestine?:


2 to 4 hours

2449.

What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle,


regulates interdigestive motility, and prepares the intestine
for the next meal?: Motilin

2450.

What is the main function of HCl in the stomach?:


Converts pepsinogen into pepsin

2451.

What hormone increases the intestinal secretions of


electrolytes and H2O, relaxes smooth muscle, dilates
peripheral blood vessels, and inhibits gastric secretions?:
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

2452.

What gland produces 20% of salivary secretions and


contributes to almost all of the amylase secretions?: Parotid
gland (serous secretions)

2453.

What hormone causes contractions of the gallbladder,


augments the action of secretin to produce an alkaline
pancreatic juice, inhibits gastric emptying, and increases
constriction of the pyloric sphincter?: Cholecystoldnin (CCK)

2454.

What are the four functions of saliva?: 1. Provides


antibacterial action 2. Lubricates 3. Begins carbohydrate
digestion 4. Begins fat digestion

2455.

What is composed of skeletal muscle, innervated by the


pudendal nerve, and in a voluntary constant state of
contraction that relaxes for defecation?: External anal
sphincter

2456.

What hormone is stimulated by glucose and fat in the


duodenum, inhibits gastric secretions and motility, and
stimulates insulin secretion?: Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP)

2457.

Which portion of the autonomic nervous system


regulates salivary flow?: Parasympathetic portion

2458.

A pH of less than 4.5 stimulates the release of what


hormone?: Secretin (It inhibits acid Secretion.)

2459.

What is composed of smooth muscle, innervated by


pelvic splanchnics and hypogastric nerves, and
involuntary?: Internal anal sphincter

2460.

What gland produces 70% of total salivary secretions?:


Submandibular gland (produces both mucous and serous
secretions)

2461.

2462.

What is the tonicity of pancreatic juice?: Isotonic

In laminar flow, which area has the fastest flow?: The


center of the tube

2480.

What are four ways to get an increased pump function of


the heart?: 1. Exercise 2. Increase heart rate 3. Increase in
arterial pressure 4. Increase contractility

2481.

What system has an increased pressure, decreased


resistance, increased flow, increased compliance, and
blood volume that is proportional to flow?: Pulmonary
circuit

2482.

What two organs have local metabolites as the main


determinant of blood flow?: 1. Brain (cerebral circulation) 2.
GI tract (after a meal) All other organs are under neural control.

2483.

What are the three sympathetic effects on the pacemaker


cells of the heart?: 1. Increase the slope of prepotential 2. Take
less time to reach threshold 3. Increase the rate of firing

2484.

What are the three parasympathetic effects on the


pacemaker cells of the heart?: 1. Hyperpolarize the cells by
increasing K+ conductance 2. Take longer to reach threshold 3.
Decrease the rate of firing

2485.

What are the two major causes of arterial pressure?: 1.


Contraction of the heart 2. Hydrostatic pressure

2486.

What causes an increase in cardiac performance with no


increase in preload?: Contractility (inotropic)

What organism is associated with gastric ulcers?:


Helicobacter pylori

2487.

What is the only gastric secretion required to sustain life?:


Intrinsic factor (IF)

2488.

What three structures increase the surface area of the GI


tract?: 1. Plicae circularis 2. Villi 3. Microvilli

2489.

2463.

2464.

2465.

What hormone is the primary regulator of HCO3 secretion


from the pancreas?: Secretin

2466.

2467.

What cells of the GI tract secrete mucus?: Goblet cells

Change in what intracellular ion causes a change in


contractility?: Calcium
What are the two main circulations with extrinsic
regulation that are most affected by nervous reflexes?: 1.
Cutaneous circulation 2. Resting skeletal muscle
What is the third heart sound caused by?: Ventricular filling
(heard during diastole)

2490.

What is the fourth heart sound caused by?: Atria]


contraction (heard during diastole)

What are the five F's associated with gallstones?: 1. Fat 2.


Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile

2491.

Lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of what enzyme?:


Lactase

2492.

What are the three end products of amylase digestion?: 1.


Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. Alpha limit dextrans (a-1,6 binding)

2493.

2468.

2469.

2470.

What percentage of bile acids are excreted daily?: 5% (95%


reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation)

2471.

Which glands of the upper duodenum secrete a


bicarbonaterich solution?: Brunner's glands

2472.

2473.

What is the major route for excretion of cholesterol?: Bile

2474.

What hormone potentiates the effect of secretin?: CCK

2475.

What is the major phospholipid in bile?: Lecithin

If a substance is put into circulation by an organ, is its


arteriovenous difference positive or negative?: Negative
What is the baroreceptor response to an increase in blood
pressure?: Increase afferent activity of CN IX and CN X to
decrease heart rate (parasympathetic)
What is a perfusionlimited situation?: When alveolar and
capillary blood equilibrate for a substance

2494.

Which region of the lungs has a low perfusion pressure


and a high resistance so that there is little blood flow?:
Apex

2495.

What fluid is monitored directly by central


chemoreceptors?: Cerebrospinal fluid (H+;CO2)

2496.

What is the rate-limiting step in the formation of bile


acids?: 7-a-Hydroxylase

2497.

What two amino acids are conjugated to bile acids to


increase H2O solubility?: 1. Glycine 2. Taurine

2498.

2476.

2477.

What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?:


Water

2478.

If a substance is removed from circulation by an organ, is


its arteriovenous (AV) difference positive or negative?:
Positive AV difference

2479.

On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: Aortic


regurgitation?: Increase in stroke volume
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Aortic
stenosis?: Increase in afterload, decrease in stroke volume,
increase in peak tension
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Increased
contractility?: Increase in stroke volume by decreasing the
end-systolic volume

2499.

On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with:Heart


failure?: Increase in end-systolic volume, decrease in afterload,
decrease in peak tension, increase in peak tension

2500.

What two compensatory mechanisms occur to reverse


hypoxia at high altitudes?: 1. Increase in erythropoietin 2.
Increase in 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)

2501.

What phase of an action potential has the greatest rate of


Na+ influx?: Phase 0

2521.

Which phase of an action potential requires energy?:


Phase 4 (via the Na+/K+ pump)

2522.

What type of muscle is associated with one T tubule and


two cisternae (triad)?: Skeletal muscle

2523.

What would you give to neutralize the excess base in an


alkalotic patient?: NH4Cl(strong acid can lyse RBCs)

2524.

What would you give to neutralize the excess acid in an


acidotic patient?: NaCO2 (CO2 eliminated by lungs)

2525.

What is a diffusion-limited situation?: When alveolar gas


and capillary blood attempt to equilibrate but do NOT (i.e., CO2)

2526.

2502.

2503.

2504.

What must occur in order for PaCO2 to remain constant


when there is an increase in the body's metabolism?: Need
to increase alveolar ventilation (if not hypercapnia would result)

2505.

What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?:


Nodes of Ranvier
What types) of muscle contain the thin filament
troponin?: Skeletal and cardiac muscle
Where are antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
produced?: The supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the
hypothalamus
What is the only hormone to INCREASE with a DECREASE
in pituitary function?: Prolactin

2527.

What enzyme is needed for conversion of testosterone to


estradiol?: Aromatase

2528.

What two anions compete with iodine for the iodine


pump in the thyroid gland?: 1. Perchlorate 2. Thiocyanate

2529.

What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?:


Alkaline phosphatase

2530.

2506.

2507.

2508.

What form of plasma calcium is the physiologically active


form and is regulated within narrow limits?: Free calcium
(ionized)

2509.

Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from


the adrenal medulla?: 1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3.
Exposure to cold (The three Es)

2510.

What phase of the female cycle ALWAYS lasts for the same
number of days (14 days in most women)?: Luteal phase

2511.

What serves as a marker for 24-hour growth hormone


secretion?: Plasma insulin-like growth factor type 1 (IGF-1)
levels

2512.

Which enzyme converts cholesterol to pregnenolone?:


Desmolase-rate limiting step (RLS) in steroid hormone synthesis
What are the four "stress" hormones?: 1. Growth hormone
(GH) 2. Glucagon 3. Cortisol 4. Epinephrine
Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into what two
substances?: 1. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2.
(alpha)-Lipotropins (melanotropins and endorphins)
What are the six substances that promote the secretion of
insulin?: 1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin
inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. Alpha-Agonists 6. ACh

2531.

What is the thin filament that has the attachment site for
the crossbridges and also activates adenosine
triphosphatase (ATPase)?: Actin

2532.

What types of muscle have a sarcomere?: Skeletal and


cardiac muscle

2533.

Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?:


Axon hillock

2534.

What three things inhibit the secretion of glucagon?: 1.


Insulin 2. Somatostatin 3. Hyperglycemia

2535.

Which three organs or structures have gluconeogenic


capabilities?: 1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. GI epithelium

2536.

2513.

2514.

Which type of diabetes is more likely to lead to


ketoacidosis?: Type I (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
[IDDM])

2515.

Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be


detected by checking urine levels of what substance?:
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)

2516.

What two things cause l-a-hydroxylase activity to


increase?: 1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2. A decrease in PO4
levels

2517.

What type of membrane is permeable to water and small


solutes?: Selectively permeable membrane

2518.

What is the movement of ions in an electrical held known


as?: Conductance

2519.

What two components of a body of water cannot be


measured and need to be calculated?: 1. Intracellular fluid
(ICF) (water minus extracellular fluid) 2. Interstitial fluid (ISF)
(extracellular fluid minus plasma volume)

2520.

What is the name for the load that the muscle is working
against during stimulation?: Afterload
What type of contraction has an active tension when the
length is shortened?: Isotonic contraction
What type of muscle has high creatinine phosphokinase
(CPK), high ATPase activity, and no myoglobin; is
anaerobic; and is for short-term use?: White muscle (fast)

2537.

2538.

What type of muscle uses calmodulin?: Smooth muscle

What thick filament has crossbridges and ATPase


activity?: Myosin

2539.

What causes actin-myosin crossbridge dissociation?:


Binding of ATP

2540.

What is used as an index of cortisol secretions?: Urine 17OH steroids

2541.

What would be the two major consequences if the zona


fasciculata and the zona reticularis were removed?: 1.
Circulatory failure 2. Inability to mobilize energy stores

2542.

How many carbons do androgens have?: Androgens are


19-carbon steroids.

2543.

How many carbons do estrogens have?: Estrogens are 18carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen =
an estrogen.)

2544.

The level of what hormone tends to DECREASE with


stress?: Insulin

2545.

On what two occasions are cortisol releasing hormone


(CRH) secretions elevated?: 1. Early morning 2. During stress

2546.

Up to how many hours after ejaculation are sperm able to


fertilize the egg?: 72 hours

2567.

What hormone induces myometrial contraction and


causes milk letdown?: Oxytocin

2568.

What hormone is necessary for the maintenance of the


uterine endometrium from the fourth month of pregnancy
on?: Progesterone (Estrogen is needed for progesterone to be
effective.)

2569.

What is an inhibitory interneuron known as?: Renshaw


neuron

2570.

What is the summation of mechanical stimuli known as?:


Tetany

2571.

2547.

2548.

2549.

What is the thin filament that binds to calcium?: Troponin

C
What determines the maximum velocity of shortening
muscle?: The muscle's ATPase activity

2550.

2551.

What type of muscle has end plates?: Skeletal muscle

What type of contraction has an active tension, but the


overall length of the con traction does not change and no
work is done?: Isometric contraction

2552.

What thin filament covers the attachment site in resting


muscle so that the crossbridges are unavailable for
binding?: Tropomyosin

2553.

What is the load on a muscle in the relaxed state known


as?: Preload

2554.

How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?: 8 to 25


hours
What hormone thins cervical mucus, stimulates LH
receptors on granulosa cells, elicits the LH surge, and
increases proliferation of the uterine mucosal layers?:
Estradiol
What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in
pregnancy, stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy,
mobilizes energy stores from the mother so that the fetus
can utilize them, and has an amino acid sequence like GH?:
Human chorionic somatomanunotropin (hCS) or human
placental lactogen (hPL)

2572.

What hormone causes an increase in the production of


milk?: Prolactin

2573.

What is the force necessary to collapse the lung known


as?: Lung recoil

2574.

Total tension - preload = what?: Active tension (contraction)

2575.

What types of muscle are uninuclear?: Cardiac and smooth


muscle

2576.

In a contractile muscle, what is the source of the


calcium?: Sarcoplasmic reticulum (The source is NOT
extracellular.)

2577.

2555.
2556.

2557.

What is the maximum force of a contraction determined


by?: The number of motor units activated during the
contraction

2558.

What vitamin needs thyroid hormone for conversion to


its active form?: Vitamin A
What is the tonicity of fluid that leaves the loop of Henle?:
Hypotonic
What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?:
Aromatase

2578.

What does excess production of thyroid-stimulating


hormone (TSH) cause?: A goiter

2579.

What type of cell reabsorbs bone?: Osteoclast; Blasts make;


clasts take.

What types) of muscle have T tubules associated with


them?: Cardiac and skeletal muscle

2580.

What type of muscle has myoglobin, low CPK, and low


ATPase activity; is aerobic; and is for long-term use?: Red
muscle (slow-twitch muscle)

2581.

2559.

2560.

What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?:


The first day of bleeding

2561.

What hormone is essential for induction of ovulation and


formation of the corpus luteum?: Luteinizing hormone (LH)

2562.

How many days before the first day of bleeding is


ovulation?: 14 days in most women (Remember: The luteal
phase is always constant.)

2563.

What is required to maintain lactation?: Suckling


(stimulates oxytocin secretion)

2564.

What hormone, in high levels, blocks milk production?:


Estrogen

2565.

What hormone is necessary for maintenance of the


corpus luteum for the first 3 months of pregnancy?: Human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)- from the trophoblast

2566.

For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?: LH

What is the major form of androgen secreted from the


adrenal gland?: Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
What cells of the genitourinary system produce
testosterone in males?: Leydig cells

2582.

What type of urine does ADH cause to be excreted?:


Hypertonic urine (because of the water reabsorption in the
collecting duct)

2583.

What is the term for the volume of plasma removed from


a substance per unit time?: Clearance

2584.

What is the most potent male sex steroid?:


Dihydrotestosterone - DHT

2585.

What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?: Follicle


stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone At which three
sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?

2586.

1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase


enzyme) The fresh air being delivered to the respiratory
zone per minute is known as what?: Alveolar ventilation (the
first 150 ml is not included)

2587.

2588.

What region of the lungs gets very little ventilation?: Apex

Where does polyuric originate if the patient is dehydrated


and has electrolyte deficiencies?: Before the collecting duct
(There is no electrolyte disturbance in the collecting duct.)

2589.

What substance is free filtered but partially reabsorbed by


passive mechanisms?: Urea

2590.

What hormone promotes mobilization of energy stores,


enhances the capacity of glucagon and catecholamines,
and increases the capacity to withstand stress?: Cortisol

2591.

What is used as an index of androgen secretion?: Urine 17ketosteroids

2592.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)?: Thyroid stimulating
hormone (TSH)

2593.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Cortisol releasing hormone (CRH)?: Adrenocorticotrophic
hormone (ACTH)

2594.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?: Luteinizing
hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

2595.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)?: Growth
hormone (GH)

2596.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Somatostatin?: Inhibits GH secretion

2597.

What are the pituitary hormones associated with:


Prolactin inhibiting factor (PIF) [dopamine]?: Inhibits
prolactin secretion

2598.

Which hormones are released from the: Zona


glomerulosa?: Aldosterone (salt)

2599.

Which hormones are released from the: Zona fasciculata?:


Cortisol (sugar)

2600.

Which hormones are released from the: Zona reticularis?:


Androgens (sex)

2601.

Which hormones are released from the: Medulla?: NE:Epi


(1:4) If the zona glomerulosa were removed from the adrenal
gland, what would be seen?

2602.

Decrease in Na+ causing a decrease in the ECF volume,


leading to a decrease in BP, and eventually to circulatory
shock and death: What does subatmospheric pressure
(negative) do to the lungs?

2603.

It causes them to expand (because of the decrease in


intrathoracic pressure) Where is the last conducting zone of
the lungs?: Terminal bronchioles (No gas exchange occurs
here.) Where is there summation, hyperpolarization of the
postsynaptic membrane, an increase in Cl- conductance, and
local gradation?

2604.

What is the major hormone secreted by the ovarian


follicle?: 17 alpha-Estradiol

2608.

What two conditions cause ADH to be released?: 1. Low


blood volume 2. Elevated plasma volume (high solute
concentration)

2609.

2610.

What cell converts androgens to estrogens?: Granulosa cell

2611.

What hormone acts on this cell?: FSH

What three lung volumes cannot be measured with a


spirometer?: 1. Residual volume 2. Total lung capacity 3.
Functional residual capacity

2612.

What two conditions decrease the secretion of


aldosterone?: 1. An increase in blood pressure 2.
Weightlessness

2613.

What cell in the female genitourinary system is


stimulated by LH and is the site where androgens are
produced?: Thecal cell

2614.

What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin


secretions?: C peptide

2615.

What do you have when there is depolarization of the


postsynaptic membrane owing to an influx of Na+,
resulting in summation and local gradation?: Excitatory
postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

2616.

What are days 15 to 28 in the female cycle known as?:


Luteal phase

2617.

What hormone is secreted by the Sertoli cells to decrease


FSH production?: Inhibin

2618.

What hormone regulates osmolarity because it controls


water excretion?: ADH (It causes water reabsorption.)

2619.

What is the term for the air in the system after maximal
inspiration?: Total lung capacity (TLC)

2620.

What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?: Excess


estradiol in the blood

2621.

What hormone is responsible for the negative feedback


onto LH and FSH of the anterior pituitary and positive
feedback onto the granulosa cells?: Estrogen

2622.

What is the term for the total dead space of the lungs?:
Physiologic dead space The surge of what hormone induces
ovulation?

2623.

2624.

It collapses them.: What is the term for the air that can be
taken in after normal inspiration?

2625.

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV): What is the first zone of


the lungs that is capable of O2 exchange?

2626.

Respiratory bronchioles (because they have alveoli): What


is the term for ventilation of underperfused alveoli?

2627.

Alveolar dead space: What is the temperature of the


scrotum?

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP): Which


extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCI concentrations?

2628.

Macula densa: What is the major stimulus for cell division in


chondroblasts?

2629.

2605.

2606.

Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) The total air in and out


of the respiratory system per minute is known as what?:
The total ventilation (minute volume or minute ventilation)

2607.

LH: What does positive pressure do to the lungs?

4 degrees cooler than the body How is the lower


temperature of the testes maintained?: By a countercurrent
heat exchanger in the spermatic cord
What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: If the gonads
are removed?: Sex steroids decrease; LH increases; FSH
increases.

2630.

What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: In


postmenopausal women?: Sex steroids decrease; LH
increases; FSH increases.

2631.

What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the


administration of testosterone?: Sex steroids increase; LH
decreases; nothing happens to FSH.

2632.

What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: After the


administration of inhibin?: Nothing happens to sex steroids;
nothing happens to LH; FSH decreases.

2633.

What happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: With constant


infusion of GnRH?: Sex steroids decrease; LH decreases; FSH
decreases (needs to be given pulsatile).

2634.

What region of the lungs is incapable of gas exchange?:


Anatomic dead space

2635.

What is the term for the amount of air that can never
leave the lungs?: Residual volume

2636.

If you increase the depth of breathing, what ventilatory


parameters can be increased?: Total ventilation and alveolar
ventilation

2637.

If you increase the rate of breathing, what ventilatory


parameters can be increased?: Total ventilation

2638.

What is the term for the air left in the lungs after normal
expiration?: Functional residual capacity (FRC)

2639.

The lung volume from maximum inspiration to maximum


expiration is known as what?: Vital capacity (VC)

2640.

Where is renin produced?: In the juxtaglomerular ( JG) cells


of the kidney

2641.

What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to


15?: Follicular phase

2642.

What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH


and FSH in the female cycle?: Estradiol

2643.

What is the day after the LH surge in the female cycle


known as?: Ovulation

2644.

By what mechanism does chronic constriction keep


blood flow through the penis low during non-aroused
states?: Alpha-Adrenergic mediated constriction

2645.

Days 1 to 7 of the female cycle are known as what?:


Menses

2646.

The amount of air that enters or leaves the respiratory


system in a single respiratory cycle is known as what?: Tidal
volume

2647.

What part of the autonomic nervous system is


responsible for the movement of semen through the vas
deferens and related structures?: Sympathetic nervous
system

2648.

2649.

Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon?: Alpha cells

2650.

Which pancreatic cells secrete somatostatin?: Delta cells

What term describes how easily a vessel stretches?:


Compliance (pulse pressure is inversely proportional to
compliance)

2651.

2652.

What is the most compliant artery in the body?: Aorta

What is the best way to regulate mean arterial pressure?:


Via total peripheral resistance (TPR)

2653.

What is the term for resistance to ventricular outflow?:


Afterload

2654.

What is the main determinant of resistance?: The radius of


the vessel (also the viscosity and length)

2655.

What is the relationship between Na+ reabsorption and


O2 consumption?: An increase in Na+ causes Oz consumption
to increase.

2656.

What vessels have the greatest cross-sectional area?:


Capillaries

2657.

What is the nontitratable acid that buffers secreted H+ in


the kidney buffered as?: NH4+ (ammonium). H2PO4
(dihydrogen phosphate) is the titratable acid that buffers
secreted H+.

2658.

What are the five ways to promote turbulent flow?: 1.


Increase velocity 2. Branching 3. Narrow orifice 4. Increase tube
diameter 5. Decrease viscosity

2659.

What part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest


drop in pressure?: Right atrium

2660.

What vessels are the resistance vessels and have the


largest drop in pressure?: Arterioles

2661.

What part of the autonomic nervous system is the main


controller of blood flow when a person is at rest?:
Sympathetic nervous system (alpha constricts, beta-2 dialates.

2662.

What process occurs when hydrostatic pressure exceeds


plasma oncotic pressure?: Filtration

2663.

What vessels have the greatest blood volume?: Systemic


veins of the lower extremities

2664.

What vessels have the smallest total cross-sectional area?:


The aorta, then the vena cava

2665.

What is the only way to increase O2 delivery to the


myocardium?: Increase the blood flow

2666.

What happens to airway resistance during inspiration?: It


decreases. Sympathetics decrease resistance; parasympathetics
increase resistance.

2667.

What is the main drive for ventilation?: The PCO2 of


systemic circulation

2668.

Where does depolarization in the heart begin?: From the


apex to the base and from the endocardium to the epicardium

2669.

Where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue?: Renal


circulation

2670.

The load on the muscle in the relaxed state is known as


what?: Preload (also the end-diastolic volume [EDV])

2671.

What cells of the heart have the highest rate of


automaticity?: Sinoatrial (SA) nodal cells

2672.

What are the slowest conducting cells of the heart?:


Atrioventricular (AV) nodal cells

2673.

What is the main control of flow in exercising muscle?:


Vasodilator metabolites

2674.

During what phase of the cardiac cycle do coronary


vessels receive their blood flow?: Diastole

2675.

On the venous pressure curve, what do the following


waves represent -a wave, -c wave, -v wave?: Atrial contraction,
Ventricular contraction, Atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial
contraction, Venous

2676.

2677.

What causes the second heart sound?: Aortic closure

2678.

Where is the second heart sound on an EKG?: At the T wave

From which point to which point does repolarization


travel in the heart?: From the base to the apex and from the
epicardium to the endocardium (opposite of depolarization)

2702.

What causes the diastolic interval to decrease?: Increase in


the heart rate

2703.

What happens to cerebral circulation during


hypoventilation?: Blood flow increases because PCO2 is
increased. (The opposite occurs during hyperventilation.)

2704.

2679.

2680.

What is the main factor affecting PaCO2?: Alveolar


ventilation (Hyperventilation decreases PaCO2 and vice versa.
Body metabolism also affects PaCO2')

2681.

2682.

What are the normal values for: PaO2?: 100 mmHg

2683.

What are the normal values for: PaCO2?: 40 mmHg

2684.

What are the normal values for: PvO2?: 40 mmHg

2685.

What are the normal values for: PvCO2?: 47 mmHg

What are the three characteristics of autoregulation?: 1.


Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism
3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
What is/are the major autoregulators of: Cerebral
circulation?: Increase in PCO2
What is/are the major autoregulators of: Coronary
circulation?: Decrease in PO2; increase in PCO2 and adenosine

2705.

What is/are the major autoregulators of: Exercising


skeletal muscle?: Lactate

2706.

What process occurs if the capillary oncotic pressure is


greater than the hydrostatic pressure?: Reabsorption

2707.

What area of the circulatory system houses the greatest


blood velocity?: Aorta

What are the two ways to increase stroke volume?: 1.


Increase preload (EDV) 2. Decrease end-systolic volume (ESV)

2708.

What is the main factor that determines the glomerular


filtration rate (GFR)?: Hydrostatic pressure

2709.

2686.

2687.

2688.

What is the normal value for the GFR?: 120 ml/min

What happens to pulmonary blood flow under


conditions of low alveolar PO2?: A decrease in blood flow
secondary to vasoconstriction

2689.

What is the normal compensatory mechanism for a state


of metabolic alkalosis?: Hypoventilation (respiratory acidosis)

2690.

What anion is excreted in large amounts in the urine in a


patient with a compensated alkalosis?: Bicarbonate (alkaline
urine)

2691.

2692.

Which hormone affects the osmolarity?: ADH

What are the sympathetic effects on the kidney?: A


decrease in GFR and an increase in filtration fraction: FF =
GFR/RPF. (There is a larger decrease in the RPF than the GFR,
resulting in an increase in the filtration fraction.)

2693.

What are the effects of angiotensin II on the kidney?:


Constriction of the efferent arterioles

2694.

What four changes occur with an increase in


contractility?: 1. Increased slope of action potential 2.
Increased peak left ventricular pressure 3. Increased rate of
relaxation 4. Decreased systolic interval

2695.

What two things happen to cutaneous circulation when


the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated?: 1.
Constriction of arterioles to decrease blood flow 2. Constriction
of the venous plexus to decrease the blood volume
Adenosine in the kidney, decreased PO2 in the lungs, and
thromboxane A2 (TXA2) have what effect in the
circulation?: Vasoconstriction

2710.

What is the period when higher than normal stimulation


is required to induce a second action potential?: Relative
refractory period

2711.

During an action potential, what is the stimulus for


opening the Na+ channels?: Depolarization

2712.

What substance "affects" the action potential?: Na+


conductance

2713.

What substance "affects" the resting membrane


potential?: K+ conductance

2714.

In which direction do osmotically active substances


cause water to move?: Toward them

2715.

What are the three tracers for total body water?: 1. Urea 2.
Thiourea 3. Titrated water

2716.

What are the three characteristics of an action potential?:


1. All or none 2. Propagated 3. No summation

2717.

In what system is the second greatest blood volume


found?: Pulmonary system

What fibers of the heart have the lowest intrinsic rate of


automaticity?: Purkinje fibers

2718.

What causes the first heart sound, and when does it occur
on an EKG?: Mitral valve closure at the QRS complex

2719.

2696.

2697.

What is the main determining factor of filtration


fraction?: Renal plasma flow (decreases flow; increases filtration
fraction)

2698.

What is the normal osmolarity of the filtrate in the renal


tubule?: 300 mOsm

2699.

What prohibits the filtering of protein anions into the


renal tubule?: The negative charge on the filtration membrane

2700.

What are the fastest conducting fibers in the heart?:


Purkinje fibers

2701.

What are the four ways to increase total peripheral


resistance (TPR)?: 1. Decrease the radius 2. Increase the
viscosity 3. Increase the length 4. Decrease the number of
parallel channels
What type of system is a high resistance system with flow
equal at all points and where total resistance is the SUM of
the individual resistances?: Vessels connected in a series

2720.

What effect on a blood vessel does each of the following


have: histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins (A2, E2, I2),
nitric oxide, adenosine, an increase in K+, H+, PCO2 and a
decrease in PO2?: Vasodilatory effect

2721.

What are three characteristics of a subthreshold


potential?: 1. Graded 2. Summation 3. Not propagated

2722.

What is the depolarization phase of an action potential


caused by?: Na+ influx

2723.

What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the


following situations: Increased GFR, increased RPF,
increased glomerular pressure?: Dilatation of the afferent
arteriole

2744.

If the ventilation-perfusion ratio is less than 1, what part


of the lung is involved and what physiologic process is
occurring?: The base, because flow exceeds delivery of O2

2745.

How do you compensate for metabolic acidosis?:


Hyperventilate (respiratory alkalosis)

2746.

2724.

2725.

How many liters of water are there in: Total body water?:
42 L

2726.

2727.

How many liters of water are there in: ICF?: 28 L

2728.

How many liters of water are there in: ECF?: 14 L

2729.

How many liters of water are there in: ISF?: 10.5 L

How many liters of water are there in: Plasma volume?:


3.5 L

2730.

What hormone affects fluid volume?: Aldosterone (Na+


content determines the volume of the plasma.)

2731.

The repolarization phase of the action potential is caused


by what?: K+ efflux (depolarization opens the gates)

2732.

What is the name of the period in which, no matter how


strong the stimulus, a second action potential cannot be
generated?: Absolute refractory period

2733.

What hormone is necessary to maintain normal thyroid


hormone levels?: GH

2734.

Which region in the lungs gives the best ventilation perfusion ratio?: The hilum
What causes peripheral chemoreceptors to be
stimulated?: A decrease in die arterial PO2, H+, and PCO2 of
the normal drive for ventilation)
What is secreted by the parafollicular C cells of the
thyroid?: Calcitonin

2747.

What is the titrated acid that the secreted H+ is buffered


as?: H2PO4

2748.

What type of dehydration is associated with hemorrhage,


burns, vomiting, and diarrhea?: Isotonic dehydration

2749.

What is the potential at which concentrations are equal


and opposite to the electrical forces, and also at which
there is no net flux of ions across the membrane?:
Equilibrium potential (Nernst's equation)

2750.

What hydration state is caused by the ingestion of salt


water?: Hypertonic overhydration

2751.

What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine


is greater than 300 mOsm?: Negative free water clearance
(concentrated urine)

2752.

What region of the lung has the greatest blood flow?: The
base

2753.

During inspiration, which region of the lung receives the


greatest level of ventilation: the apex or the base?: The base

2754.

2735.

2736.

What is the function of the stretch receptors in the


lungs?: To prevent overdistention of the lungs (inhibits
inspiration)

2737.

Where does the inherent rhythm for respiration


originate?: In the medullary center of the medullary oblongata

2738.

What is the term for the process of water traveling from a


low solute to a high solute concentration?: Osmosis
What three factors increase simple diffusion?: 1. Increased
solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased
thickness of the membrane
What type of dehydration is associated with Addison's
disease?: Hypotonic dehydration

2755.

2756.

What is protein-mediated transportation down a


concentration gradient known as?: Facilitated transport

Where is the deep breathing center located?: Apneustic


center in the pons

2757.

What type of system is a low-resistance system in which


the total resistance is always less than any individual
resistance, and the reciprocal of the total resistance is the
sum of the reciprocal resistances?: System connected in
parallel

2758.

2739.

2740.

What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the


following situations: Increased GFR, increased glomerular
pressure, decreased RPF, increased FF?: Constriction of
efferent arteriole

2741.

What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the


following situations: Decreased GFR, increased RPF,
decreased glomerular pressure, decreased FF?: Dilatation of
the efferent arteriole

2742.

What is happening to the renal arteriole in each of the


following situations: Decreased GFR, decreased RPF,
decreased glomerular pressure?: Constriction of the afferent
arteriole

2743.

When is GH released?: At night and during puberty

What determines the level of alveolar ventilation?: Central


chemoreceptors (PCO2)
Which point in the lungs is involved if the ventilation perfusion ratio is greater than 1?: Apex

2759.

Why is the V-P ratio in the apex of the lung greater than
1?: Delivery exceeds the flow

2760.

2761.

How is CO2 carried in the blood?: As plasma bicarbonate

To what hydrated state can excess ingestion of water or


syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
lead?: Hypotonic overhydration

2762.

What are the four major anabolic hormones?: 1. Insulin 2.


Thyroid hormone 3. GH 4. Sex steroids

2763.

What are the eight insulin INdependent tissues?: 1. CNS 2.


RBCs 3. Renal tubules 4. Testis 5. Teeth 6. cells 7. Liver 8.
Intestinal epithelium

2764.

What are the growth factors released from the liver


called?: Somatomedins

2765.

What state of hydration would you be in if you had edema


and if you ingested an excessive amount of salt?: Isotonic
overhydration

2766.

What type of cell lays down bone?: Osteoblast Remember:


Blasts make; clasts take.

2767.

The rate at which a substance is filtered into Bowman's


capsule is known as what?: Filtered load rate (GFR X plasma
concentration)

2791.

What is the only condition in which giving enriched O2


will not significantly increase PaO2?: Pulmonary shunt

2792.

What is the biologically active form of thyroid hormone?:


T3

2793.

For how many months can you store thyroid hormone?: 2


to 3 months

2794.

2768.

2769.

2770.

2771.

What is the ratio of T4 to T3?: 20:1

What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?:


Osteocvte

2772.

What type of dehydration is associated with excess


sweating, decreased water intake, fever, alcoholism,
lithium salts, excess evaporation, and diabetes insipidus?:
Hypertonic dehydration

2773.

During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic


stenosis?: Systole

2774.

During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral


stenosis?: Diastole

2775.

During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Mitral


regurgitation?: Systole (pan)

2776.

During what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: Aortic


regurgitation?: Diastole

2777.

What four factors affect the rate of diffusion for any


process?: 1. Surface area 2. Thickness of the membrane 3.
Concentration gradient 4. Solubility (main factor)

2778.

What part of the nephron has the greatest osmolarity?:


Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm)
At what region of the nephron does H+/HCO3 - exchange
occur?: Distal tubule
During what type of heart block do the atria and the
ventricles beat independently of each other?: Third-degree
heart block
What is the length of systole on a pressure curve?: From
the beginning of the isovolumic contraction (IVC) to the
beginning of the isovolumic relaxation (IVR)

2795.

From which point to which point does it appear on an


EKG?: From the QRS to the T wave (S1 to S2)

2796.

What are the four features of aortic stenosis?: 1. Increase in


afterload 2. Increase in LV pressure 3. Increase in the pressure
gradient between the LV and the aorta 4. Crescendodecrescendo systolic ejection murmur (early systolic ejection
click)

2797.

When is surface tension the greatest in a respiratory


cycle?: At the end of inspiration

2798.

What type of transportation requires ATP, can be co- or


countertransport, and is a protein-mediated transport
with a concentration gradient?: Secondary active
transportation

2799.

What lung pathology is associated with a decrease in


FEV1/FVC?: COPD (obstructive)

What does a decrease in GH in adolescence lead to?:


Dwarfism

2800.

What type of transportation requires ATP and is protein


mediated against a concentration gradient?: Primary active
transportation

2801.

2779.

2780.

What does an increase in GH in adolescence lead to?:


Gigantism

2781.

2782.

What gas has a low driving force but high solubility?: CO2

What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the


lungs?: 1. Decrease in surface area 2. Increase in membrane
thickness (PAO2 > PaO2)

2783.

What is evident in the urinalysis of a compensated


acidotic patient?: Low HCO3 - excretion (acidotic)

2784.

What does angiotensin II do to restore blood pressure?: It


has a direct vasoconstrictive effect.

2785.

When is systemic venous blood delivered to the left side


of the heart without O2 exchange in the alveoli?: In a
pulmonary shunt

2786.

2787.

What gas has a high driving force and low solubility?: O2

In what type of shunt do you see an increase in right


atrial, ventricular, and pulmonary arterial PO2, along with
an increase in pulmonary blood flow?: Left-to-right shunt

2788.

What causes Ca+ and PO4 to be reabsorbed from the


kidney and Ca+ and PO4 to be absorbed from the GI tract,
and also promotes bone synthesis?: Vitamin D3

2789.

What does excess secretion of GH in an adult lead to?:


Acromegaly

2790.

What is the most important factor in describing lung


recoil?: Surface tension (also fibers of tissue)
What is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine
is less than 300 mOsm?: Positive free water clearance (dilute
urine)

2802.

What four characteristics are common to all proteinmediated transportation?: 1. More rapid than diffusion 2.
Zero-order kinetics 3. Chemical specificity 4. Competition for
carriers

2803.

What causes an increase in Na+ and water loss from the


kidney by increasing GFR, stimulated by stress and high Na+
concentrations?: Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) released from
the right atrium

2804.

What growth factors are chondrogenic, working on the


epiphyseal end plates of bone?: Somatomedins (insulin-like
growth factor type 1[IGF-1])

2805.

What causes an increase in Ca+ reabsorption from the


distal tubule, a decrease in PO4 reabsorption from the
kidney, and an increase in Ca+ and PO4 reabsorption from
the GI tract?: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

2806.

If a patient is irritated, excited, and emotionally unstable


and has overall symptoms of -adrenergic stimulation,
would you assume that this patient is hyperthyroidic or
hypothyroidic?: Hyperthyroidic

2807.

What is needed for proper postnatal and perinatal mental


growth and also for proper bone ossification and GH
secretion?: Thyroid hormone

2808.

What type of heart block is associated with slowed


conduction through the AV node and PR intervals greater
than 0.21 second?: First-degree heart block

2809.

What two occurrences cause an increase in the force of


contraction?: 1. Increase in preload 2. Increase in contractility
by increased intracellular Ca+

2810.

What are three features of mural regurgitation?: 1.


Increase in v wave 2. Increase in preload 3. Increase in atrial
pressure and volume

2811.

What is the length of diastole on a pressure curve, and


where is it on an EKG?: From the beginning of the IVR to the
beginning of the IVC, and from the T wave to the QRS complex
(S2 to Sl)

2812.

What are the three features of aortic regurgitation?: 1.


Increase in preload 2. Increase in systolic pressure 3. Decrease
in aortic diastolic pressure

2813.

What are the three features of mitral stenosis?: 1. Increase


in a wave 2. Decrease in LV filling 3. Increase in atrioventricular
pressure

2814.

What type of heart block is characterized by: Progressive


lengthening of the P-R interval until there is failure of the
impulse to be transmitted?: Second-degree heart block,
Wenckebach (Mobitz type I)

2815.

What type of heart block is characterized by: Constant PR interval but with an occasional failure of conduction,
resulting in an atrial rate greater than the ventricular rate?:
Second-degree heart block, non-Wenckebach (Mobitz type II)

2816.

What are the three functions of surfactant?: 1. Increased


compliance 2. Decreased surface tension 3. Decreased
probability of pulmonary edema formation

2817.

More negative intrathoracic pressure causes what to


happen to systemic venous return and what to the
pulmonary vessels?: Promotes systemic venous return into the
chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary
vessels

2818.

What four factors cause the oxygen-hemoglobin


dissociation curve to shift to the right?: 1. Increased PCO2 2.
Decreased pH 3. Increased 2,3-BPG 4. Increased temperature

2819.

What part of respiration, on a pressure volume curve, acts


"like the chest wall"?: Inspiration (collapse is due to elastic
recoil) "Secretion + filtration =

2820.

Excretion" is the transport maximum (Tm) for what


substance?: Paraaminohippurate (PAH)

2821.

What has happened if the amount filtered and the


amount excreted per unit time are the same?: Nothing; there
has been no tubular modification.

2822.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: Lung recoil?:
Decrease (obstructive); increase (restrictive)

2823.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FRO?: Increase
(obstructive); decrease (restrictive)

2824.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: TLC?: Increase
(obstructive); decrease (restrictive)

2825.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FVC?: Decrease
(obstructive); decrease (restrictive)

2826.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: FEVI?: Decrease
(obstructive); decrease (restrictive)

2827.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: Peak flow?:
Decrease (obstructive); increase (restrictive)

2828.

What happens to the following parameters in an


obstructive versus restrictive lung problem: RV?: Increase
(obstructive); decrease (restrictive)

2829.

What hormone increases reabsorption of Na+ by the


principal cells and promotes excretion of H+ and K+ by the
intercalated cells of the kidney?: Aldosterone

2830.

What three situations cause the rennin-angiotensinaldosterone axis to fire?: 1. A decrease in blood pressure in
the afferent arteriole 2. Low Na+ levels at the macula densa 3.
1-Sympathetic nervous system input

2831.

What pathology is associated with low ACTH levels and


high levels of cortisol?: Cushing's syndrome (adrenal)

2832.

When do you see low urine flow, high urine osmolarity,


high ECF volume, low ECF osmolarity (low Na+), high ICF
volume, and low ICF osmolarity?: SIADH (water retention)

2833.

What is the term for the process in which excretion is less


than the filtered load?: Net positive reabsorption (glucose,
Na+, urea)

2834.

What has happened when everything that is filtered is


reabsorbed until the carriers are saturated and the excess is
excreted in the urine?: The transport maximum has been
reached (Tm glucose = 375 mg/min).

2835.

What four factors cause aldosterone to be released?: 1.


Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II 2. Hyperkalemia 3.
Hyponatremia 4. A decrease in blood volume

2836.

What disease state includes buffalo hump, moon fades,


hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypertension,
hypokalemia, osteoporosis, and thinning of the hair?:
Cushing's disease

2837.

What condition involves high urine flow, low urine


osmolarity, low ECF volume, high ECF osmolarity, low ICF
volume, and high ICF osmolarity?: Diabetes insipidus (lose
water)

2838.

Which condition involves elevated ACTH and cortisol


levels?: Cushing's disease (pituitary tumor)

2839.

Which condition involves high ACTH, low cortisol, high


ADH, elevated renin levels, hypotension, and low body
hair?: Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency)

2840.

What process has taken place in the kidney when


excretion is greater than the filtered load?: Net negative
secretion (PAH, creatinine)

2841.