Questions on Polity - 1

Q1. Separate electorates for Muslims in India were

introduced by which one of the following
Acts?
(a) Government of India Act of 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Rowlatt Act of 1919

Q5. Which of the following freedoms is not

specifically mentioned in the Constitution of
India as a Fundamental Right but has been
subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as
such?
(a) Freedom
business

(d) Government of India Act of 1935

Q2. Consider the following statements about
democracy
1. It consists with the formation
government elected by the people.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

of

2. In democracy, those currently in power

have a fair chance of losing.
3. Each vote has one value.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

of

trade,

(c) Freedom of association and union

(d) Freedom of the press
Q6. The Judge of the High Courts in India is
administered oath of office by
(a) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) The Governor of the State
(c) The President of India

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) The Chief Justice of India

(d) 2 and 3
Q3. The Annual Financial Statement of the
Government of India in respect of each
financial year shall be presented to the House
on such day as the
(a) Speaker may direct
(b) President of India may direct
(c) Parliament may decide
(d) Finance Minister may decide
Q4. The principle of collective responsibility
under parliamentary democracy implies that
1. A motion of no-confidence can be moved
in the Council of Ministers as a whole as
well as an individual minister.
2. No person shall be nominated to the
cabinet except on the advice of the Prime
Minister.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

and

(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part

of the country

(a) 1 and 2
(c) Only 1

occupation

Q7. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential

and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) Joint Committee of Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q8. The Governor may recommend the imposition
of the Presidents rule in the state
(a) on the recommendation of the State
Legislature
(b) on the recommendation of the President
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief
Minister
(d) if he is convinced that the Government of
the State cannot be carried on in
accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution of India
Q9. Which one among the following is a
Fundamental Duties of citizens under the
Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the
people of the neighbouring countries

F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852

(b) to visit the monuments of national

importance
(c) To defend the country and render national
service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the
religions of India
Q10. Which one among the following committees
of the Parliament of India has no members
of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee

(d) Quo Warranto

Q15. With reference to Lok Adaats, which one
among the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle
the matters at pre-litigative state and not
those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which
are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Lok Adalats has not been given any
statutory so far
(d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the
order of the Lok Adalat

(c) Public Undertakings Committee

(d) Departmentally
related
Committee on Finance

Standing

Q11. Which one among the following is not a

constitutional body in India?

Q16. Which among the following provisions of the

Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the
National Social Assistance Programme
launched by the Government of India?
1. Fundamental Rights

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General

2. Fundamental Duties

(b) National Commissioner for religious and

Linguistic Minorities

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) National
Castes

Commission

for

Scheduled

(d) National Human Rights Commission

Q12. Which one among the following countries
redefined the principles of Panchashila for
the purpose of domestic politics?
(a) Ghana
(b) China
(c) Indonesia
(d) Sri Lanka
Q13. Which one among the following is not
included in the Fundamental Rights
embodied in the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to information
Q14. Which one among the following writs
literally means you many have the body?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
Q17. The Instrument of Instructions contained in
the Government of India Act. 1935 has been
incorporated in the Constitution of India in
the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of Executive Power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of
India
Q18. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be
removed from office by
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a
no-confidence motion
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half
of the total membership of the house
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds
of the total membership of the house

(c) Mandamus
F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852

(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the

members of the house

(a) 1 and 2

Q19. The Constitution of India is republican

because it

(c) 2 and 3

(a) provides for an elected Parliament

(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q24. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
holds office for a period of

(b) provides for adult franchise

(c) contains a bill of rights

(a) six years

(d) has no hereditary elements

(b) during the pleasure of the President

Q20. While a proclamation of emergency is in

operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can
be extended for a period
(a) not exceeding three months
(b) not exceeding nine-months

(d) for 5 years or till age of 60 years,

whichever is earlier
Q25. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for
five years from the date of

(c) of one year at a time

(a) its first meeting

(d) of two years at a time

Q21. The purpose of Directive Principles of State
Policy is to
(a) lay down positive instruction which would
guide State Policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhijis
decentralized state

(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years,

whichever is earlier

idea

for

(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the

government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections
of the society
Q22. Which one among the following is not
guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the
country

(b) issue of notification for the conduct of

elections to the Panchayat
(c) declaration of the election results
(d) taking oath of office by the elected
members
Q26. The impeachment of the President of India
can be initiated in
(a) either house of the Parliament
(b) a joint sitting of both houses of the
Parliament
(c) the Lok Sabha alone
(d) the Rajya Sabha alone

(b) freedom to assemble peacefully without

arms

Q27. For which one of the following Judgements

of the Supreme Court of India, the
Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of India case is
considered a landmark?

(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose

property anywhere in the country

(a) The religion cannot be mobilized for

political ends

(d) Freedom to practice any trade or

profession

(b) Abolishing
country

Q23. Which of the following Committees are the

Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings

untouchability

from

the

(c) the basic structure of the Constitution, as

defined in the preamble, cannot be
changed
(d) Right to life and liberty cannot be
suspended under any circumstance

Select the correct answer using the code given

below
F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852

Q28. Which one of the following is a human right

as well as a Fundamental Rights under the
Constitution of India?
(a) Right to information

(d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election

certificates of members
Q32. Who among the following was elected
President of India unopposed?

(b) Right to Education

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Right to Work

(b) Dr. S Radhakrishnan

(d) Right to Housing

(c) Dr. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Q29. Consider the following statements with

respect to the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
1. He shall only be removed for office in like
manner and on the ground as a Judge of
the Supreme Court.
2. He shall not be eligible for further office
either under the Government of India or
under the Government of any State after
he has ceased to hold his office.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q30. If the Prime Minister is a member of the
Rajya Sabha
(a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok
Sabha within 6 months
(b) He/she can declare the governments
policies only in the Rajya Sabha
(c) He/she cannot take part in the voting
when a vote of no confidence is under
consideration
(d) He/she cannot part in the budget
deliberation in the Lok Sabha
Q31. The function of a Protem Speaker is to

(d) K R Narayanan
Q33. The quorum for joint Sitting of the Indian
Parliament is
(a) One-twelveth of the total numbers of
members of the House
(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of
members of the House
(c) One-tenth of the total number of
members of the House
(d) Two-third of the total
members of the House

of

Q34. Which one of the following is the largest

Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Estimates Committee
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Q35. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Attorney general of India
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He must have the same qualifications as
are required by a Judge of High Court.
3. In the performance of his duties he shall
have the right of audience in all courts of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1

(a) conduct the proceeding of the House in

the absence of the Speaker

(b) 1 and 3

(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is

Unlikely to be elected

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) swear members and hold charge till a

regular Speaker is elected

number

(c) 2 and 3
Q36. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
recommended which one of the following
Panchayati Raj structures?

F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852

(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and

Panchayat Samiti at the block level only
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and
Zilla Parishad at the district level only
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level,
Panchayat Samiti at the block level and
ZIlla Parishad at the disteict level
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and
Zilla Parishad at the district level only
Q37. Consider the following statements
Parliamentary Committees

on

(d) The Finance Commission

Q40. Which schedule of the Constitution of India
contains the three lists that divide powers
between the Union and the sates?
(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Eigth
Q41. Consider the following statements:

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not

associated with the Committees on Public
Accounts and Public Undertakings.

1. When the Vice-President of India acts as

the President of India, he performs
simultaneously the functions of the
Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2. Members of the Committee on Estimates

are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha.

2. The President, of India can promulgate

ordinances at any time except when both
Houses of Parliament are in session.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

Which of the Statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) Only 1

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q38. Consider the following statements:

1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed
he a decree of a Civil Court.
2. Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding
on all parties, and appeal lies against
thereto before any court.
Codes
(a) Both 1 and 2 are true and 2 is the correct
explanation of 1
(b) Both 1 and 2 are true, but 2 is not the
correct explanation of 1
(c) 1 is true, but 2 is false
(d) 1 is false, but 2 is true
Q39. Financial distribution between the Union and
the State takes place on the basis of the
recommendations of which one of the
following?
(a) The National Development Council
(b) The Inter-State Council
(c) The Planning Commission

Q42. Who among the following can be the

Chairperson of the National Human Rights
Commission?
(a) A member of either House of Parliament
(b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of
India
(c) A social worker actively involved in the
promotion of human rights
(d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or
Supreme Court
Q43. Consider the following statements about the
Attorney-General of India?
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He has the right to take part in the
proceeding of the Parliament.
3. He has the right of audience in all courts
in India.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2

F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852

(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Q44. Consider the following statements:
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the
Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a
Money Bill nor amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

F-9, MAIN ROAD, KATWARIA SARAI, NEW DELHI-16 MOB: 9711713852