Neet 2016 Paper With Solution Code C R Y

NEET - 2016
01-05-2016
Time: 3 Hrs.
l e;: 3 ?kaVs
CODE-C / R / Y
Max. Marks : 720
v f/kd re v ad
: 720
INSTRUCTIONS (funs
'k)
Z
Important Instructions:
egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k %
1.
1.
The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you

are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer
Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2
carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2.
The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains

180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each
correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3.
Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars

on this page/marking responses.
4.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this

purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5.
On completion of the test, the candidate must

havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them.
6.
The CODE for this Booklet is C. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as
that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate
should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator
for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the
Answer Sheets.
7.
The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet

is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in
the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8.
Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on

the Answer Sheet.
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ijh{kk iqfLrd k [kksy usd ksd gk t k,] rksmkj i=k fud ky
d j i`"B-1 ,oai`"B-2 ij d soy uhy s@ d ky sckWy ikWbaV isu
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a180 iz
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a
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d ?kVk;k t k,xkA vf/kd re va
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4.
bl iqfLrd k d k lad sr gSC A ;g lqfuf'pr d j ysafd bl

iqfLrd k d k lad sr] mkj i=k d si`"B-2 in Nislad sr ls
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vuq ekad iz'u iqfLrd k@mkj i=k es fu/kkZfjr LFkku d s
vfrfjDr vU;=k uk fy[ksaA
6.
8.
mkj i=k ij fd lh izd kj d sla'kks/ku gsrqOgkbV +y wbM d s

iz;ksx d h vuqefr ughagSA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksad sv uqokn esafd l h v Li"Vrk d h fLFkfr esa] v axzst h l aLd j.k d ksgh v fUre ekuk t k;sxkA
Name of the Candiate (in Capital letters) : ____________________________________________________________
Roll Number : in figures :
in words : _______________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) : ________________________________________

Candidate's Signature : ______________________________ Invigilator's Signature : ___________________________________
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| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
PART A BIOLOGY.
1.
In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the
recombinant-type offspring. This indicates :
(1) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
(2) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
(3) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
(4) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
ijh{kkFkhZizl ad j.k esa] ft lesaF1 f}lad j efD[k;k'kkfey Fkha] iqu;ksZ

xt izd kj d h larfr;ksad h rqy uk esat ud &izd kj
d h larfr;kvf/kd mRiUu gq;hA blesalad sr fey rsgSafd %
(1) nks
uksagh y {k.kksad k fu;a=k.k ,d
(2) nkst hu
lsvf/kd t huksa}kjk gksrk gSA
nksvy x xq.klw=kksaij fLFkr gSaA
(3) v/kZ
l w=k.k d snkSjku
xq.klw=k i`Fkd ughagksik,A

(4) nkst hu lgy Xu gS
avkSj ,d gh xq.klw=k ij fo|eku gSaA
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
If a plant with genotype Aa Bb is crossed with aabb then Independent Assortment would result in
production of 4 type of offsprings in equal proportion.
Aa Bb Gametes
AB
Ab
aB
ab
aa bb Gametes
ab
ab
ab
ab
offspring according to independent assortment
AaBb
1
:
(parental)
Aabb
aaBb
1
:
1
(Recombinants)
aabb
1
(Parental)
Since parental percentage is more then recombinants it is due to linkage between genes A and B.
2.
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

(1) Anthocyanins
(2) Xanthophylls
(3) Chlorophylls
(4) Carotenoids
ikni d ks
f'kd k d h jl/kkuh esat y ?kqfy r o.kZd d kSu lsgksrsgSa\
(1) ,UFkks
l k;fuu
(2) t S
UFkksfQ y
(3) i.kZ
gfjr
(4) d S
jksfVukbM
Ans.
Sol.
(1)
Anthocyanin in stored in vacuole
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This solution was download from Resonance NEET 2016 Solution portal
PAGE # 1
| NEET-2016
3.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?
(1)
Relaxin
Inhibin
(2)
(3)
(4)
Parathormone
Insulin
Aldosterone
Calcitonin
Glucagon
Atrial Natriuretic Factor
gkWeksZuksad sfuEufy f[kr ;qXeksaesalsd kSu&lk ;qXe ,d nwl jsd sfojks/kh foijhr izHkko oky k ughagS\
(1)
fjy SfDlu
bfUgfcu
(2)
iSjkFkkseksZu
d SfYlVksfuu
(3)
bal qfy u
Xy qd SxkWu
(4)
,sYMksLVsjkWu
,fV;y usfV;wjsfVd d kjd
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Parathormone
Calcitonin
increases blood Ca level

+2
decreases blood Ca level
insulin
glucagon
decreases blood glucose level

increases blood glucose level
Aldosterone
ANF
increases B. P.
decreses B. P.
+2
Relaxin
causes pelvic musculature relaxation

inhibin
inhibits FSH
So, Relaxin & inhibin not antagonistic
4.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are :

(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(2) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) (b) is true but (a) is false.
(4) (a) is true but (b) is false.

PAGE # 2
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
ekbVksd kWf.M;k vkSj Dy ksjksIy kLV gfjry od gSa%

(a) v/kZ
Loklk vaxd
gSaA
(b) iw
oZorhZvaxd ksad sfoHkkt u
lscursgSavkSj muesaDNA gksrk gS] y sfd u izksVhu&la'y s"kh iz.kky h d k vHkko gksrk gSA
fuEufy f[kr fod Yiksaesalsd kS
u&lk lgh gS\
(1) (a) vkS
j (b) nksuksagh xy r
gaSA
(2) (a) vkS

j (b) nksuksagh lgh gaSA
(3) (b)
lgh gSy sfd u (a) xy r gS

A
(4) (a) lgh gSy s

fd u (b) xy r
gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
Mitochondria and chloroplast have their own ribosomes wwith help of which they can synthesize
protein.
5.
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

(1) Single stranded
(2) Independent replication
(3) Circular structure
(4) Transferable
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS

ulk ,d Iy kfTeM d k vfHky {k.k ughagS\
(1) ,d y jTt q
d h;
(2) Lora
=k izfrd `fr;u
(3) o`
kh;
lajpuk
(4) LFkkukUrj.k ;ks

X;
Ans.
Sol.
(1)
Plasmide are double stranded DNA.
6.
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high
rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In
which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?
(1) Nitrogen fixer
(2) C3
(3) C4
(4) CAM
vkid sm|ku esa,d ikni izd k'k 'olu lsgksusoky h gkfu lscprk gS] mld h t y mi;ksx d h n{krk mUur gS] og
mPp rki ij izd k'k la
'y s"k.k d h mPp nj d ksn'kkZrk gSvkSj mld h ukbVkst u mi;ksx d h n{krk mUur gSA vki bl
ikni d ksfuEufy f[kr esalsfd l ,d d kf;Zd h lewg esaj[ksaxs\
(1) ukbV
kst u
Ans.
Sol.
fLFkfjd kjd
(2) C3
(3) C4
(4) CAM
(3)
C4 plants have high rate of photosynthesis at higher temperature.

PAGE # 3
| NEET-2016
7.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously
(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
belZu nh?khZd j.k izHkko vkSj y ky cwan jsM Mki fd ld h [kkst esaizeq[k ;a=k jgsgSa\
(1) vkW
DlhMsfVo
Q kLQ ksfjy s'ku
(2) iz
d k'kQ kLQ ksfjy s'ku
vkSj vp h; by sDVkWu vfHkxeu

(3) nksiz
d k'k rU=kksad k ,d lkFk d k;Zd juk
(4) iz
d k'kQ kLQ ksfjy s'ku
Ans.
Sol.
8.
vkSj p h; by sDVkWu vfHkxeu
(3)
Red drop occur due decreased functioning of ps-II beyond 680 nm and when both ps I and ps II are
functioning together their is enchancement in quantum yield.
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?
Tissue
Location
(1)
Cuboidal epithelium
Lining of stomach
(2)
Smooth muscle
Wall of intestine
(3)
Areolar tissue
Tendons
(4)
Transitional epithelium
Tip of nose
d kSu&lk rd viuh fLFkfr lslgh&lgh lqesfy r gS\

rd
fLFkfr
(1)
?kukd kj mid y k
vkek'k; vkLrj
(2)
fpd uh is'kh
vka=k fHkfk
(3)
,sfjvksy h rd
d aM jk
(4)
ifjorhZmid y k
ukfld kxz
Ans.
(2)
9.
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model
is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
(1) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
(2) when N/K is exactly one.
(3) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(4) when N/K equals zero.

PAGE # 4
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
y kWft fLVd ekWM y d k vuql j.k d jrsgq, fd lh lef"V d h o`f) nj 'kwU; d scjkcj d c gksxh \ y kWft fLVd ekWM y d ks
fuEufy f[kr lehd j.k lsn'kkZ;k x;k gS%
dN/dt = rN(1-N/K) :
(1) t c
t Uenj d h vis{kk e`R;qnj vf/kd gksA

(2) t c N/K Bhd ,d gks
(3) t c N i;kZ
okl
(4) t c N/K 'kw
U;
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
dN
N
rN 1
dt
k
d h /kkfjrk {kerk d slehi gksA

d scjkcj gksA
dN
rN 1 1 0
dt
10.
Which one of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
(2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(3) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(4) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies

ulk d Fku lR; ughagS\
(1) nz
for
ukbVkst u esaHk.Mkfjr ijkxd .k] Q ly izt uu ;kst ukvksaesaiz;qDr fd ;st k ld rsgSa
(2) ijkxd ks
"k d sLQ qVu
esaVsihVe lgk;rk d jrk gS

(3) ijkxd .kks
ad h ck Liksjksiksy sfuu d h cuh gksrh gS
(4) cgq
r
lh t kfr;ksad sijkxd .k xEHkhj izR;wt Zrk iS

nk d jrsgSa
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
Dehiscence of anther occur due to stomium cells of endothecium
11.
Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
(2) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.
(3) Golden algae are also called desmids.
(4) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSulk d Fku xy r gS\

(1) Q kbd ks
ekbflVht
d ks'kSofy r d od Hkh d gk t krk gSA
(2) lk;uks
cSDVhfj;k d ksuhy
(3) Lof.kZ
e
gfjr 'kSoky Hkh d grsgSaA
'kSoky ksad ksMs

fLeM Hkh d grsgSaA
(4) ;q
cSDVhfj;k lqt hok.kq
v ksa d ksvlR;
Ans.
Sol.
t hok.kqHkh d gk t krk gSA
(4)
Eubacteria are called true bacteria.

PAGE # 5
| NEET-2016
12.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

(1) Ethylene
(2) ABA
(3) GA3
(4) IAA
,ohuk o rk fd ld st S
o vkekiu d sfy , iz;qDr gksrh gS\
(1) ,fFky hu
Ans.
Sol.
13.
(2) ABA
(3) GA3
(4) IAA
(4)
Avena curvature bioassay is done to test function of IAA.
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ?
(1) Flipper of Whale
(2) Dorsal fin of the Shark
(3) Wing of a Moth
(4) Hind limb of Rabbit
fuEufy f[kr lajpukvksaesalsd kSulh lajpuk i{kh d sia[k d slet kr gS

%
(1) g~
osy
d k y hij
(2) 'kkd Zd h i`
"B ia[k
(3) 'ky Hk d k ia
[k
(4) [kjxks
'k d k i'p
ikn
Ans.
(1)
14.
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is :

(1) less than that in the venae cavae
(2) same as that in the aorta
(3) more than that in the carotid
(4) more than that in the pulmonary vein
Q qQ ql /keuh d sHkhrj : f/kj nkc gksrk gS%

(1) egkf'kjk d sHkhrj
ft ruk gksrk gSmllsd e gksrk gSA

(2) mruk gh ft ruk egk/keuh d sHkhrj gks
rk gSA
(3) d S
jksfVM
d sHkhrj ft ruk gksrk gSmllsvf/kd gksrk gSA

(4) Q q
Q ql f'kjk d sHkhrj ft ruk gksrk gS] mllsvf/kd gksrk gS
A
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
Higher blood pressure in pulmonary vein than pulmonary artery is an abnormal condition leading to
pulmonary hypertension & pulmonary oedema.

PAGE # 6
| NEET-2016
15.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

(1) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
(2) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
(3) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the fallopian
tube.
(4) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the cervix.
ekuoksaesafu"ksp u izf ;k O;kogkfjd r% rHkh laHko gksxh t c%

(1) xz
hok uky d sHkhrj 'kq k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k xHkkZ'k; esav.Mk.kqd sfueqqZDr gksusd s48 ?kaVsd sHkhrj gksrk gksA
(2) 'kq
k.kqv ksad k ;ksfu
d sHkhrj LFkkukUrj.k v.Mk.kqd sQ SYkksfi;u ufy d k ughaesaNksM +st kusd sBhd ckn gksA
(3) v.Mk.kqvkS
j
'kq k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k Q SYkksfi;u ufy d k d s,aiq

y jh&bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksA
(4) v.Mk.kqvkS
j
'kq k.kqv ksad k LFkkukUrj.k xzhok d s,aiqy jh bLFkfed laxe ij ,d gh le; ij gksrk gksA
Ans.
(2,3)
16.
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at :

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Leptotene
(4) Zygotene
v) Zl w=kh foHkkt u esat hu fofue; fd l voLFkk esavkjEHk gksrk gS\

(1) f}i
(2) LFkw
y i
(3) ruq
i
(4) ;q
Xei
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
In pachytene recombination nodule is formend after which crossing over occur
17.
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
(1) Animalia
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Fungi
kblksQ kbV] ;qXy hukW

bM] Mkbuksy st sy sV vkSj voiad Q Q aqnh fd l t ho t xr~esalfEefy r gSa\
(1) t a
rqt xr~
Ans.
18.
(2) eks
usjk
(3) iz
ksfVLVk
(4) d od
(3)
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as :
(1) Tonus
(2) Spasm
(3) Fatigue
(4) Tetanus
mkjkskj mn~nhiuksad schp foJkafr d h d eh d sd kj.k gksusoky h nh?kZd kfy d is'kh lad qp u d gy krk gSaS%
(1) Vks
ul
(2) ,a
Bu LikT+e
s
(3) Fkd ku
(4) fVVs
ul
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
Tonus
Spasm
fatigue
Tetanus
19.
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin' :

(1) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
(2) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
(3) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(4) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
low level activity of muscles at rest to maintain posture.

Sudden involuntary muscle contraction
decline in muscle activity
Sustained muscle contraction in response to successive stimuli

PAGE # 7
| NEET-2016
'ba
fgfcu' d sckjsesalgh d Fku
(1) ;g
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
igpkfu, %
o`"k.kksad h /kk=kh ulZ d ks

f'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSvkSj LH - o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(2) LH,FSH vkS

j
izksy SfDVu o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(3) ;g
v.Mk'k; d h d f.kd h; d ksf'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSA vkSj FSH o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
(4) ;g v.Mk'k; d h d f.kd h; d ks
f'kd kvksa}kjk mRiUu gksrk gSvkSj LH o.k d kslanfer d jrk gSA
Ans.
(3)
20.
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

(1) Respiratory alkalosis
(2) Emphysema
(3) Asthma
(4) Respiratory acidosis
/kweziku d jusd sd kj.k iz/kkur% mRiUu gksusoky snh?kZd ky h 'olu&fod kj d k uke crkb, %
(1) 'olu {kkje;rk
(2) okrLQ hfr
(3) vLFkek
(4) 'olu
vkEy jDrrk
Ans.
(2)
21.
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?

(1) Dominant gene disorder
(2) Recessive gene disorder
(3) X-linked recessive gene disorder
(4) Chromosomal disorder

ulk gheksQ hfy ;k d k lclsvf/kd mi;qDr o.kZu izLrqr d jrk gSA
(1) iz
Hkkoh t hu
d k fod kj
(3) X-lgy Xu viz
Hkkoh t hu d k fod kj
(2) viz
Hkkoh t hu
d k fod kj
(4) xq
.klw=kh fod kj
Ans.
Sol.
(3)
Gene related with haemophilia is always present on X chromosome and it is present on X chromosome
and it is recessive gene disorder as it express itself in females when comes an homonzygous condition
22.
Select the correct statement:

(1) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
(2) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
(3) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(4) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
lgh d Fku pqfu, %

(1) vuko`
rcht h ikniksad h ifk;kt y ok;qd h pjerk d sfy ,
vuqd wfy r ughagksrh gSa

A
(2) vuko`
rcht h] lecht k.kqd vkSj fo"kecht k.kqd ] nks
uksaizd kj d sgksrsgSa
(3) lkfYofu;k] ft a
xksvkSj
ikbul] ;slHkh vuko`rcht h gSa
(4) fld ks
b;k lclsy Ecso`{kksaesals,d
Ans.
gS
(4)

PAGE # 8
23.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) lactose and galactose
(2) glucose
(3) galactose
(4) lactose
Code-C,R,Y
y Sd izp ky s
d d h vfHkO;fDr d sfy , fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu ,d izsjd d s: i esad k;Zd jusd sfy , vko';d gksxk \
(1)
y SDVkst vkSj xSy sDVks

t
(2) Xy w
d kst
(3) xS
y sDVkst
Ans.
Sol.
(4) y S
DVkst
(4)
As lae operon becomes active after inducing lactose but glucose & galactose can't do so.
Pure tall
TT
Pure dwarf
tt
F1 generation = Tt
F2 generation
Genothypes = 1
TT
Pure Tall
24.
T
TT
Tt
T
t
2
Tt
t
Tt
tt
heterogygous tall
1
tt
pure dwarf
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the
F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of :
,d y ECksrn~: i iz
t uu m|ku eVj ikni d ks,d ckSusrn~: i izt uu m|ku eVj ikni lslad fjr d jk;k x;kA t c
F1 ikniks
ad ksLoijkfxr fd ;k x;k rkst hu izk: i d k ifjek.k fd l vuqikr esaFkk \
Ans.
(1) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall

(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
(1) 3 : 1 : : ckS
us: y ECks
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : y Ecsle;q
Xet h : y Ecsfo"ke;qXet h : ckSus
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : y ECksfo"ke;q
Xet h : y Ecsle;qXet h: ckSus
(4) 3 : 1 : : y Ecs: ckS
us
(2)

PAGE # 9
25.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
Code-C,R,Y
Ans.
(1) Root
(1) t M+
(1)
26.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Synapsis
(2) Spindle fibres
(3) Disappearance of nucleolus
(4) Chromosome movement
(1) lw
=k;qXeu
(2) rd q
Z: ih rarq
(3) d s
fUnzd k d k foy ksiu
(4) xq
.klw=k xfr
(1)
Synapsis is pairing of homologous chromosomes which occurs during meiosis but it is absent in mitos.
27.
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
rEckd wd sikS/ksd k d kS
u&lk Hkkx fey ks
bMks
xkbu bUd ks
fXuVk }kjk la fer gksrk gS\
(2) Flower
(2) iq
"i
(3) Leaf
(3) iRrh
(4) Stem
(4) ruk
d kf;d d ksf'kd kvksaes

alelw
=k.k d snkSjku fuEufy f[kr es
alsd kSu&lk y {k.k ughaik;k t krk \
mRifjorZu d slaca/k esad S

al j d ks
f'kd kvksad sfy , fuEufy f[kr d Fkuksaesalsd kSu&lk lgh ughagS\
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomeres.

(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes acceleration the cell cycle.
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(1) mRifjorZ
u Vhy ksejst d smRiknu d kslanfer d j nsrsgSaA
(2) iz
kd ~d Sal jt huksaesamRifjorZu d ksf'kd k&p d ksRofjr d j nsrsgSA
(3) mRifjorZ
u Vhy ksejst laned d ksu"V d j nsrsgSA
(4) mRifjorZ
u d ksf'kd k&fu;a=k.k d ksfuf" ; d j nsrsgSaA
(1)
Cancer will be caused by increased telomerase activity making the cancerous cells immortal & not by
inhibition of telomerase production.
28.
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :
Ans.
(1) Hemicelluloses
(3) Peptidoglycan
(1) gs
ehlsY;wy ks
t
(3) is
IVhMksXy kbd u
(2)
29.
Cotyledon of maize grain is called :
vf/kd rj d od ksaesad ksf'kd k fHkfk d k ,d izeq[k vo;o d kSu lk gS\

(2) Chitin
(4) Cellulose
(2) d kbfVu
(4) ls
Y;ww
y kst
eDd k d snkusd scht i=k d ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
Ans.
Sol.
(1) scutellum
(2) Plumule
(3) coleorhiza
(4) coleoptile
(1) Ld q
Vsy e
(2) iz
kad q
j
(3) ew
y kad qj&pksy
(4) iz
kad q
j&pksy
(1)
In maize grains single large shield shaped cotyledon is called scutellum.

PAGE # 10
30.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?
Code-C,R,Y
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Green algae

(2) Lichens
(3) Liverworts
(4) Mosses
(1) gfjr 'kS
oky
(2) y kbd s
u
(3) fy ojoVZ
(4) ekW
l
(2)
Lichens are pioneer organisms on bare rocks as they corrode the rocks by secreting enzyme &
,d uXu pV~Vku ij ,d vxzxkeh t ho d s: i esafuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu vk;sxk \
converted into soil.

31.
Ans.
Sol.
32.
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of :

eknkvksaesaGnRH iYl ckjackjrk cny ko d k fu;a=k.k fd ld sifjlap j.k&Lrjkas}kjk gksrk gS\
(1) progesterone and inhibin
(2) estrogen and progesterone
(3) estrogen and inhibin
(4) progesterone only
(1) iz
kst sLVsjkWu vkSj bafgfcu
(2) bZ
LVkst u vkSj izkst sLVsjkWu
(3) bZ
LVkst u vkSj bafgfcu
(4) d s
oy izkst sLVsjkWu
(2)
GnRH pulse frequency in controlled by estrogen and progesterone both after puberty
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body
contain :
izfrvkfo"k Vhd ksaesaiwoZfufeZr izfrj{kh gksrsgSat cfd iksfy ;ksd h cwnksaesaft Ugsaeq
g }kjk fny k;k t krk gS] gksrsgSa%
Ans.
33.
(1) Attenuated pathogens

(2) Activated pathogens
(3) Harvested antibodies
(4) Gamma globulin
(1) {kh.k d j fn, x, jks
xt ud
(2) lf f;r jks
xt ud
(3) cuk, x, iz
frj{kh
(4) xkek Xy ks
C;qfy u
(1)
OPV is of 2 types :
(i)
OPV sabin Live attenuated vaccine
(ii)
OPV salk Killed vaccine
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
ekuo us=k esaizd k'klaosnh ;kSfxd cuk gksrk gS%
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Transducin and Retinene

(3) Opsin and Retinal'
(1) V
kaLM~;wflu vkSj jsfVuhu ls
(3) vks
fIlu vkSj jsfVuy ls
(3)
Rhodopsin is made of opsin & retinal.
(2) Guanosine and Retinol

(4) Opsin and Retinol
(2) Xokuks
flu vkSj jsfVukWy ls
(4) vks
fIlu vkSj jsfVukWy ls
34.
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called :
}kj d ksf'kd kvksad ks?ksjusoky h fof'k"Vhd `r ckgkzRoph; d ksf'kd kvksad ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Lenticels
(2) Complementary cells
(3) Subsidiary cells
(4) Bulliform cells
(1) okrjU/kz
(2) iw
jd d ksf'kd k,a
(3) lgk;d d ks
f'kd k,
(4) vko/kZRod d ks
f'kd k,a
(3)
As subsidiary cells & guard cells both are modification of epidermal cells in which guard cells have
chloroplasts which is absent in surroundings subsidiary cells.

PAGE # 11
35.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?
Code-C,R,Y
fuEufy f[kr y {k.kkasesalsd kSu&lk y {k.k Q kby e&vkFkzkZ

siksMk easughaik;k t krk \
Ans.
Sol.
36.
Ans.
37.
(1) Jointed appendages

(3) Metameric segmentation
(1) la
f/kr mikax
(3) fo[ka
M h [kaM hHkou
(4)
Parapodia is a characteristic of Annelida.
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton

(4) Parapodia
(2) d kbfVuh ckgkz
d ad ky
(4) ik'oZ
ikn
Reduction in pH of blood will :

: f/kj d spH esagksusoky h d eh d sd kj.k
(1) release bicarbonate ions by the liver,
(2) reduce the rate of heart beat.
(3) reduce the blood supply to the brain
(4) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
(1) ;d `
r }kjk ckbd kcksZusV d k fu"d klu gksusy xsxkA
(2) n;&Lia
nu d h nj d e gkst k;sxh
(3) efLr"d d k : f/kj la
Hkj.k d e gkst k;sxkA
(4) vkW
Dlht u d slkFk gheksXy ksfcu d h ca/kqrk ?kV t k;sxhA
(4)
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
fuEufy f[kr esalsd ks
u&lsfof'k"V y {k.k ges'kk gh t arqv ksad svuq: ih oxZesaik, t krsgSa?
(1)
3 - chambered heart with

one incompletely divided
ventricle
Reptilia
(2)
Cartilaginous endoskeleton
Chondrichthyes
(3)
Viviparous
Mammalia
(4)
Possess a mouth with an
Chordata
upper and a lower jaw
Ans.
(1)
3 - d {k oky k n;
ft lesaviw.kZr%
caVk gqv k ,d fuy ; gksrk gSaA
jsIVhfy ;k
(2)
mikfLFky var%d ad ky
d kW
fMDFkht
(3)
(4)
lt ho izt d
ijh vkSj fupy st cM+soky k eq[k
d k ik;k t kuk
eseSfy ;k
d kW
M sZVk
(2)

PAGE # 12
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Sol.
Reptilia has an order crocodilia which shows 4 chambered heart. In mammals, prototheria group shows
oviparity while metatheria & eutheria show viviparity. Chordates can be gnathostomata & agnatha
(without jaws). Only cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes) show cartilaginous endoskeleton without
exception
38.
Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column IIand choose the correct option:
d kWy e I d h 'kCnksad ksd kWy e II esafn, x, mud so.kZu lseSp d hft ;srFkk lgh fod Yi pqfu,:
Column I
Column II
(a) Dominance
(i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance
(ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(c) Pleiotropy
(iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express
themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance
(iv) A single gene influences many characters
LrEHkI
LrEHkII
(a) iz
Hkkfork
(i) vus
d t hu ,d y y {k.k d k fu;a=k.k d jrsgSa
(b) lgiz
Hkkfork
(ii) fo"ke;q
Xeut h t ho esad soy ,d gh ,sy hy Lo;ad ksvfHkO;Dr d jrk
gS
(c) cgq
izHkkfork
fo"ke;qXeut h t ho esanksuksagh ,sy hy Lo;ad ksiwjh rjg vfHkO;Dr

d jrsgSaA
(iv) ,d y t hu vus
d y {k.kksad ksizHkkfor d jrk gSA
(iii)
(d) cgq
t huh oa
'kkxfr
Code:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(a)
(iv)
(ii)
(ii)
(iv)
(b)
(ill)
(i)
(ill)
(i)
(c)
(i)
(iv)
(iv)
(ii)
(d)
(ii)
(ill)
(i)
(ill)
Ans.
(3)
39.
A typical fat molecule is made up of :
,d izk: ih olk d k v.kqfd ld k cuk gksrk gS\
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

(2) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(3) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(4) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(1) rhu Xy hljkW
y vkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqv ksad k
(2) rhu Xy hljkW
y v.kqv ksavkSj ,d olk vEy v.kqd k
(3) ,d Xy hljkW
y v.kqvkSj rhu olk vEy v.kqv ksad k
(4) ,d Xy hljkW
y vkSj ,d olk vEy v.kqd k
(3)
fat is a triglyceride which is made up of 3 molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol
40.
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :
iqad s
l j d srUrqd k fud VLFk fljk fd llst qM +k gksrk gS\
Ans.
(1) Thalamus or petal

(3) Connective
(1) iq
"iklu ;k ny
(3) la
;kst d
(1)
(2) Anther
(4) Placenta
(2) ijkxd ks
"k
(4) cht k.Mklu

PAGE # 13
| NEET-2016
41.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which one of the following statements is wrong?

u&lk d Fku xy r gS\
Ans.
Sol.
42.
(1) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

(2) Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(4) Uracil is a pyrimidine.
(1) Xy kbflu ,d lYQ j;q
Dr vehuksvEy gSA
(2) lq
ksl ,d MkblSd sjkbM gSA
(3) ls
Y;wy ksl ,d ikWfy lSd sjkbM gSA
(4) ;w
jSfly ,d fifjfeMhu gSA
(1)
Glycine is the simplest amino acid which is devoid of sulpher content
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal
opening carbon. dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements
using one of following options :
ikni ikh lst y ok"i jU/kzksad s}kjk ckgj vkrk gSizd k'k la'y s"k.k d snkSjku mlh jU/kzlsd kcZu MkbvkWDlkbM ikni
lsfolfjr gksrh gSA mi;qZDr d Fkuksaesad kj.kksaij fopkj d j ,d fod Yi pqfu, %:
Ans.
43.
(1) One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
(2) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
(3) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient ofwater and CO2 is different.
(4) The above processes happen only during nighttime.
(1) ,d iz
f ;k fnu esarFkk nwl jh izf ;k jkr esagksrh gS
A
(2) nks
uksaizf ;k,sa,d lkFk ughagksld rhA
(3) nks
uksaizf ;k,a,d lkFk gksld rh gS
aD;ks
afd t y vkSj CO2 d k folj.k xq.kkad fHkUu gSA
(4) mi;q
ZDr izf ;k,ad soy jkr esagksld rh gSa
A
(3)
Ans.
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :

jkbcksl kse d k ,d lad qy t ksRNA d s,d y jTt qd d slkFk t qM +k gksrk gS] D;k d gy krk gS:
(1) Okazaki fragment
(2) Polysome
(3) Polymer
(4) Polypeptide
(1) vks
d kt kd h [k.M
(2) ikW
y hlkse
(3) ikW
y hej cgqy d
(4) ikW
y hisIVkbM
(2)
44.
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

u ,d d `f"kHkwfe ikfjrU=k d k vfHky {k.k gS\
Ans.
45.
(1) Ecological succession

(3) Least genetic diversity
(1) ikfjrfU=kd vuq
e.k
(3) U;w
ure vkuqoaf'kd fofo/krk
(3)
(2) Absence of soil organisms

(4) Absence of weeds
(2) e`
nk t hoksad h vuqifLFkfr
(4) vir`
.kksad h vuqifLFkfr
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
(1) Co extinctions
(2) Over - exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation

PAGE # 14
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
t Urqv ksavkSj ikniksad h foy qfIr d k fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu&lk ,d lclseq[; d kj.k gS\
(1) lg&lekfIr
(2) vfr nks
gu
(3) fons
'kh t kfr d h p<+kbZ
(4) vkokl gkfu vkS
j [kaM u
Ans.
(4)
46.
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in :
gjfr y od esaizksVkWu d h vf/kd re la[;k d gkik;h t krh gS\
Ans.
47.
(1) Antennae compIex

(3) Lumen of thylakoids
(1) ,s
UVsuk leqPp
(3) Fkkby s
d ksbM d h vod kf'kd k
(3)
(2) Stroma
(4) Inter membrane space
(2) ihfBd k
(4) vUrj d y k LFkku
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at
present?
Mh-,u-, vaxqfy Nkiu d h fd lh Hkh rd uhd d sfy , fuEufy f[kr esalsfd l ,d d h vko';d rk ughagksrh \
Ans.
(1) DNA -DNA hybridization

(3) Zinc finger analysis
(1) Mh,u,&Mh,u-, la
d j.k
(3) ft a
d vaxqfy fo'y s"k.k
(3)
(2) Polymerase chain reaction

(4) Restriction enzymes
(2) ikW
y hejst Jà[ky k vfHkf ;k
(4) iz
frca/ku ,at kbe
48.
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals,
include the :
(1) Eubacteria
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Methanogens
osvkfne izkd ~d sUnzd h izk.kh] t ks jks

eUFkh t arqv kasd sxkscj ls ck;ksxSl &mRiknu d sfy , mkjnk;h gksrsgS] fd ld s
varxZr vkrsgS\
(1) lq
t hok.kqv kasd s
(2) y o.kjkfx;ks
ad s
(3) rki&vEy
(4) ehFkS
ut ud ksad s
jkfx;kad s
Ans.
(4)
49.
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?

(1) Metamerically segmented body
(2) Schizocoelom as body cavity
(3) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(4) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine

u&lk y {k.k isfjIy SusVk vesfjd kuk esaugh ik;k t krk gS\
(1) fo[ka
M 'k% [kafMr
(2) ns
gxqgk d s: i
(3) Hkw
z.kh;
nsg
esanh.kZxqgk
ifjo/kZ
u d snkSjku vfu/kkZfjr vkSj vjh; fony u
(4) N ,ls
fVy Xy wd ksl ,sehu
lsfufeZr ck d ad ky

PAGE # 15
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
Periplaneta Americana shows indeterminate and spiral cleavage
50.
A system of rotating crops with legume or gras pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
(1) Shifting agriculture
(2) Ley farming
(3) Contour farming
(4) Strip farming
e`nk lajpuk vkSj moZjd rk es

alq/kkj y kusd sfy , Q ly ksad ksQ y hnkj ikS/kksay sX;we ;k ?kkl pkjxkg d slkFk cny d j
y xkusd ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
(1) LFkkukUrjh f"k
(2) y s[ks
rh
(3) leks
Ppjs[kh;
(4) iV~
Vhnkj
[ksrh
[ksr
Ans.
(2)
51.
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe
Product
Application
(1)
Clostridium
butylicum
Lipase
removal of oil stains
(2)
Trichoderma
polysporum
Cyclosporin A
immunosuppressive drug
(3)
Monascus
purpureus
Statins
lowering of blood cholesterol
(4)
Streptococcus
Streptokinase
removal of clot from

blood vessel

PAGE # 16
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
uhpsnh x;h rkfy d k esaxy r fey k;h x;h enksad kspqfu, ?
(1)
lw{ket ho
mRikn
v uqiz;ksx
Dy kWLVhfM;e
y kbist
rsy d s/kCcksad ksgVkuk
C;wVk;fy d e
(2)
VkbZ
d ksM ekZiksy hLiksje
lkbDy ks
Liksfju A
izfrj{kk laned vkS"kf/k
(3)
eksuSLd l ijI;wjh;l
LVsfVal
: f/kj&d ksy sLVkWy d ksd e d juk
(4)
LVsIVksd kWd l
LVsIVksd buSt
: f/kj&okfgd k lsFkDd sd ksgVkuk
Ans.
(1)
52.
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
(1) Hepatic Portal Vein
(2) Renal Vein
(3) Dorsal Aorta
(4) HepaticVein.
Lru/kkfj;ksaesad kSu&lh : f/kj&okfgd k lkekU;r% lclsvf/kd ;w

fj;k ogu d jrh gS\
(1) ; r
fuokfgd k f'kjk
(2) o`
Dd &f'kjk
(3) i`
"B
egk/keuh
(4) ; r&f'kjk
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
Urea/Ornithine cycle takes place in liver so the vein leaving liver possesses maximum urea which is
hepatic vein
53.
Pick out the correct statements :

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)are correct.
(2) (a) and (d) are correct.
(3) (b)and (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (c)and (d) are correct.

PAGE # 17
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
lgh d Fku pqfu, %

(a) gheks
Q hfy ;k fy ax&lgy Xu vizHkkoh jksx gSA
(b) Mkmu
fla
M kse vlqxqf.krk d sd kj.k gksrk gSA
(c) Q s
fuy d hVksuesg fQ ukby d hVksU;wfj;k ,d vfy ax lw=kh vizHkkoh t hu fod kj gSA
(d) nk=k d ks
f'kd k jDrkYirkX-lgy Xu
vizHkkoh t hu fod kj gSA
(1) (a), (b) vkS

j (c) lgh gSA
(2) (a) vkS
j (d) lgh gSA
(3) (b)
vkSj (d) lgh gSA
(4) (a), (c) vkS

j (d) lgh gSA
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal codominant disorder
54.
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
(1) Sphincter of Oddi
(2) Semilunar valve
(3) Ileocaecal valve
(4) Pyloric sphincter.

u&lh lajpuk ; nXU;kl d h okfguh d sxz
g.kh esa[kqy usoky sja/kzd h ns[kHkky d jrh gS\
(1) vks
M kbZd ksvojksf/kuh
(2) v/kZ
p anzkd kj
(3) f=kd ka
=k d ikV
(4) t BjfuxZ
e
Ans.
(1)
55.
Microtubules are the constituents of :
d ikV
vojksf/kuh
(1) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

(2) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(3) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(4) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin.
lw{eufy d k,la?kVd gksrh gS:

(1) rkjd k;ks
a] U;wfDy ;ksl kse
(2) i{ekHkks
a] d 'kkHkksavkSj
Ans.
vkSj rkjd d sUnzksd s
ijvkWDlhd k;ksad s
(3) rd Z
q: ih js'kksa] rkjd d sUnzksavkSj
i{ekHkksad s
(4) rkjd d s
Unzks] rd Z: ih js'kksavkSj
kseSfVu d s
(3)

PAGE # 18
56.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
(1) Free nuclear endosperm
(2) Endocarp
(3) Fleshy mesocarp
(4) Free nuclear proembryo
Code-C,R,Y
d Ppsukfj;y eas] ukfj;y ikuh D;k gS\

(1) LorU=k d s
Unzd h Hkzw.kiks"k
(2) vUr%Q y fHkfk
(3) xw
nsnkj
(4) LorU=k d s
Unzd h Hkzw.kiwohZ
e/;Q y fHkfk
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
In tender coconut, edible part is liquid endosperm that represents free nuclear endosperm
57.
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

(1) Poaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Fabaceae
f=kd ks"Bd h] ;qDrk.Mih t k;kx fd ld siq"i esagksrk gS\

(1) iks
,lh
(2) fy fy ,lh
(3) lks
y Sus
lh
(4) Q S
csl h
Ans.
(2)
58.
Which of the following is not a stem modification?

(1) Flattened structures of Opuntia
(2) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(3) Thorns of citrus
(4) Tendrils of cucumber

u ,d rusd k : ikUrj.k ughagS?
(1) vks
iaf'k;
d h piVh lajpuk
(2) us
iUFkht
d k ?kV
(3) flV
l
d sd kVs
(4) [khjsd siz

rku
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Pitcher of nepenthes is modification of leaf

PAGE # 19
| NEET-2016
59.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from :

(1) Pseudomonas putida
(2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(4) Bacillus subtilis
VSd ikWfy ejst ,Ut kbe fd llsizkIr fd ;k t krk gS\

(1) L;w
Mkseksukl
(3) fFk;ks
cSfly l
I;wfVMk
Q sjksDlhMsUl
(2) FkeZ
l
,DosfVd l
(4) cS
fly l
lcfVfy l
Ans.
(2)
60.
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as :
(1) Scales
(2) Cladodes
(3) Phyllodes
(4) Phylloclades
ifk;ksad k d k;Zd jusoky s

] piVsgjsvax esa: ikUrfjr rusd ksD;k d gk t krk gS\
(1) 'kYd
(2) ik.kkZ
Hk ioZ
(3) i.kkZ
Hk oÙr
(4) i.kkZ
Hk LRkEHk
Ans.
(4)
61.
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self, If this property
is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :
(1) Active immunity
(2) Allergic response
(3) Graft rejection
(4) Auto-immune disease
mPprj d 'ks: fd ;kasesa] izfrj{kk ra=k Lo&d ksf'kd kvksavkSj xSj&d ksf'kd kvksaesaHksn d j ld rk gSA ;fn ra=k d k vkuqoaf'kd
vilkekU;rk d sd kj.k ;g xq.k u"V gkst k, vkSj og Lo&d ksf'kd kvks
ad ksu"V d jusy xsrksbld sifj.kkeLo: i D;k
gksxk\
(1) lf ;
izfrj{kk
(2) ,s
y t hZvuqf ;k
(3) fujks
i
vLohd kj d j nsuk
(4) Loiz
frj{kk fod kj
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
If self & non-self recognization power is lost than immune cells can attack our own body cells and cause
auto immune disease

PAGE # 20
62.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules
of nomenclature.
(1) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
(2) Biological names can be written in any language
(3) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
(4) The names are written in Latin and are italicised
uke&i) fr d qn fo'ks"k lkoZt fud ekU; fu;eksa}kjk fu/kkZfjr gks

rh gSA fuEufy f[kr easalsd kSu lk ,d d Fku uke
i) fr d sfu;eksad sfo: ) gS\
(1) uke
d kst c gkFk lsfy [krsgSrks mlsjs[kkafd r fd ;k t krk gS
(2) t S
fod
uke d ksfd lh Hkh Hkk"kk easfy [kk t k ld rk gSA
(3) t S
fod
uke esaigy k 'kCn oa'k uke vkSj nwl jk 'kCn t kfr lad sr in d ksiznf'kZr d jrk gSSA
(4) ukeks
ad ksy SfVu
Hkk"kk esavkSj frjNsv{kjksaesafy [kk t krk gS
Ans.
(2)
63.
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires :

(1) Water
(2) Wind
(3) Insects
(4) Birds
czk;ksQ kbV vkSj VsfjMksQ kbV esauj ;qXed d svfHkxeu d sfy , fd ld h vko';d rk gksrh gS\
(1) t y
(2) iou
(3) d hV
(4) i{kh
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
64.
In context of Amniocentesis,which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
(2) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant.
(3) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(4) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.

PAGE # 21
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
mYcos/ku d slanHkZesa] fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lk d Fku xy r gS\

(1) bls[ka
M rky qDy sV
(2) ;g
iSy sV d k irk y xkusd sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
vkerkSj lsrc fd ;k t krk gSt c L=kh d ks14 -16 lIrkg d schp d k xHkZgks
rk gS
A
(3) blsiz
l oiwoZfy ax&fu/kkZj.k
(4) blsMkmu
d sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
flaM kse d k irk y xkusd sfy , iz;qDr fd ;k t krk gSA
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Cleft palate is a structural defect and cannot be determined by amniocentesis.
65.
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :

(1) acidic cells
(2) gastrin secreting cells
(3) parietal cells
(4) peptic cells
vkek'k; esat Bj jl d k L=kko gksrk gS%

(1) vEy
d ksf'kd kvksals
(2) xS
fLVu
d k L=kko d jusoky h d ks
f'kd kvksals
(3) fHkkh;
d ksf'kd kvksals
(4) is
fIVd
d ksf'kd kvksals
Ans. (3)
Sol.
66.
gastric acid is HCl secreted by parietal or oxyntic cells.
Spindle fibres attach on to:

(1) Kinetosome of the chromosome
(2) Telomere of the chromosome
(3) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(4) Centromere of the chromosome
rd Zq: ih rarqy xrsgSA

(1) xq
.klw=k d sd kbusVksl kse
ij
(2) xq
.klw=k d svaR;ka'k ij
(3) xq
.klw=k d sd kbuksVksd ksj
(4) xq
.klw=k d slw=kd sU
ij
ij
Ans. (3)

PAGE # 22
Sol.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
kinetochore of chromosome facilitates the attachment of spindle fibre (chromosomal fibre) and pole
67.
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

(1) Sea- horse
(2) Gangetic shark
(3) River dolphin
(4) Blue whale
Hkkjr d k jk"Vh; t y h; izk.kh d kSu lk gS?

(1) leq
h- ?kksM +k
(2) xa
xk d h 'kkd Z
(3) unh d h MkW
fYQ u
(4) Cy wg~
osy
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
68.
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

(1) Nuclei
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplasts
(4) Lysosomes
fuEufy f[kr eslsd kSu lk d ksf'kd kax d soy ,d y d y k lsf?kjk gksrk gS?
(1) d s
Ud
(2) lw
=kd f.kd k
(3) gfjry od
(4) y ;ud k;
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
Except Lysosome, all three are bounded by double membrane
69.
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked togetherby :

(1) Disulphide bridges
(2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Covalentbond
ekuo bUlqfy u d snksikWy hisIVkbM vkil esfd ld s}kjk la;ksft r gksrsgSa\

(1) MkblYQ kbM
lsrq
(3) Q kLQ ks
M kb,LVj
(2) gkbM
ks
tu
cU/k
cU/k
(4) lgla
;kst h cU/k

PAGE # 23
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Ans. (1)
70.
In which of the following, all three are macronutrients ?

(1) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
(2) boron, zinc, manganese.
(3) Iron,copper, molybdepum
(4) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese

u lHkh rhu c`gkiks"kd gSa\
(1) ukbV
kst u, fufd y , Q kLQ ksjl
(2) cks
jkWu
ft ad , eSaxt hu
(3) y kS
g, rkez, eksy hCMsue
(4) eks
y hCMsue, eSXuhf'k;e, eSaxuht
Ans.
(1) or bonus
Sol.
No answer is correct
71.
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

(1) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
(2) They lack a protein coat
(3) They are smaller than viruses
(4) They cause infections

u lk d Fku okbjkW
;M d sfo"k; esxy r gS?
(1) mud k RNA mPp
(2) mues
aizksVhu
vkf.od Hkkj oky k gksrk gSA
vkoj.k d k vHkko gksrk gSA
(3) ;sfo"kk.kq
v ksalsvis{kk r
NksVsgksrsgSA
(4) ;s
ala e.k d jrsgSaA
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
In viroid, RNA is of low molecular weight
72.
Analogous structures are a result of :

(1) Stabilizing selection
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Shared ancestry
leo`fk lajpuk,afd l d kj.k mRiUu gksrh gS\

(1) fLFkjd kjh oj.k
(3) vfHklkjh fod kl
(2) vilkjh fod kl
ds
ds
(4) lk>k oa
'kijaijk

PAGE # 24
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Ans. (3)
73.
Select the incorrect statement:

(1) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
(2) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
(3) LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
(4) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
xy r d Fku d kspqfu,
(1) LH y hfMx
d ksf'kd kvksals,aM kst u d sL=kko d ksiz

sfjr d jrk gSA
(2) FSH lVks

Zy h d ksf'kd kvksad ksmhfir
(3) LH va
M k'k;
d jrk gSt ks'kq k.kqt uu eslgk;rk d jrk gSA
esvaM ksRlt Zu d ksizsfjr d jrk gSA
(4) LH vkS
j FSH iqVd
voLFkk d snkSjku /khsjs-/khjs?kVrk t krk gSA
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
LH and FSH both increase during follicular phase.
74.
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? .
(1) Warm blooded nature
(2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Breathing using lungs
(4) Viviparity
fuEufy f[kr y {k.kksaesalsd kSu lk ,d y {k.k if{k;ksavkSj Lru/kkfj;ksanksuksaesaughaik;k t krk gS

(1) fu;rrkih iz
fr
(2) vfLFkHkw
r
var% d ad ky
(3) Q s
Q M+ksa}kjk 'olu
(4) lt hoiz
t d rk
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
birds are oviparous while mammals are oviparous(prototherians) and viviparous(metatherians
and
eutherians).
75.
Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species. ,
(2) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen
tube of the same species grows into the style.
(3) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called
pollen/ nectar robbers.
(4) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of
pollen interacting with those of the pistil

PAGE # 25
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
fuEufy f[kr esal sd kS

u lk d Fku lR; ughagS\
(1) d q
N
lfjlì d qN ikni t kfr;ksaeasijkx.k d jrsgq, crk;sx;sgSA
(2) cgq
r
lkjh t kfr;ksad sijkxd .k ,d iq"i d sorhZd kxzij vad qfjr gksld rsgaSijUrqmlh t kfr d sijkxd .kksad h
d soy ,d ijkxufy d k ofrZd k esavkxsc<+rh gSA

(3) d hV
t ksfcuk ijkx.k fd ;sijkx ;k ed jan d ksxzg.k d jrsgSmUgsaijkx/ ed jan pksj d grsgSa
(4) ijkxd .k va
d qj.k rFkk ijkx
ufy d k o`f) ] ijkxd .k rFkk L=khd sl j d h ikjLifjd f ;k d sQ y Lo: i mRiUu
jklk;fud ?kVd ksa}kjk fu;af=kr gksrh gSA

Ans.
(2)
Sol.
76.
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of :

(1) Apomixis
(2) Sporulation
(3) Budding
(4) Somatic hybridization
iq"ih ikniksaesfcuk fu"ksp u d scht cuuk fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lh izf ;k gSa\
Ans.
(1) vla
xt uu
(2) cht k.kq

d t uu
(3) eq
d qy u
(4) d kf;d
lad j.k
(1)
Sol.
77.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(1)
Vasectomy
prevents
spermatogenesis
(2)
Barrier methods
prevent fertilization
(3)
Intra uterine devices
increase phagocytosis
of
sperms, suppress
sperm
motility and fertilizing
capacity of sperms
(4)
Hormonal
Prevent/retard entry of
Contraceptives
sperms, prevent
ovulation

PAGE # 26
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
and fertilization
fuEufy f[kr mikxeksaesalsd kSu lk mikxe fd lh xHkZfujks/kd d ksifjHkkf"kr ughad jrk?

(1)
'kq okgd mPNsnu
'kq k.kqt uu ughagksusnss

rs
(2)
jks/k csfj;j fof/k;k
fu"ksp u jks
d rh gSaA
(3)
var% xHkkZ'k;h ;qfDr;k
'kq k.kqv ksad h

Hk{kd ksf'kd rk c<+k nsrh gS]
'kq k.kqv ksd h xfr'khy rk
,oafu"ksp u {kerk d k eanu
d jrk gSA
(4)
gkWeksZuh xHkZfujks/kd
'kq k.kqv ksad sizos'k d ks

jksd rsgS/ mld h nj d ks
/khek d j nsrsgS] vaM ksRlxZ
vkSj fu"ksp u ughagksusnsrs
Ans
(1)
Sol.
vasectomy causes sterilization by preventing transfer of sperms into semen
78.
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

(1) Cortisol and Cortisone
(2) Melatonin and Serotonin
(3) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine .
(4) Estrogen and Progesterone
vehuks
avEy fVIVksQ Su fd ld sla'y s"k.k d sfy , iwoZxkeh gksrk gS\
(1) d ks
fVZl ksy
vkSj d ksfVZl ksu
(2) es
y kVksfuu
vkSj lsjksVksfuu
(3) Fkk;jkW
fDlu
(4) bZ
LVkst u
vkSj VkbZv k;ksM ksFkk;jksfuu
vkSj izkst sLVsjkWu
Ans. (2)
Sol.

PAGE # 27
| NEET-2016
79.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in :
(1) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
(2) Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(3) Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(4) An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients
,d unh esat c d kcZfud vif'k"V lsHkjiw

j ?kjsy wokfgr ey cgd j fxjrk gks] rksmld k ifj.kkke D;k gksxk \
(1) vkW
Dlht u
d h d eh d sd kj.k eNfy ;kWej t k;saxhA
(2) 'kS
oky
izLQ qVu d sd kj.k unh t Ynh gh lw[k t k;sxh A
(3) t y h;
Hkkst u d h lef"V esao`f) gkst k;sxhA
(4) ck;ks
fMxzsM scy
Ans.
iks"k.k d sd kj.k eNy h d k mRiknu c<+t k;sxkA
(1)
Sol.
80.
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:

(1) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
(2) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
(3) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
(4) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
Li/khZviot Zu d k xkWl sfu;e d grk gSfd

(1) vis
{kk r
cM+svkd kj d st ho Li/kkZ}kjk NksVst arqv ks

ad ksckgj fud ky nsrsgSaA
(2) vf/kd
la[;k esaik, t kusoky h Lih'kht Li/kkZ}kjk d e la[;k esaik, t kusoky h Lih'kht d ksvioft Zr d j nsxhA
(3) leku
lal k/kuksad sfy , Li/kkZml Lih'kht d ksvioft Zr d j nsxh t ksfHkUu izd kj d sHkkst u ij Hkh t hfor jg
ld rh gSA
(4) d ks
bZHkh nksLih'kht
,d gh fud sr esvlhfer vof/k d sfy , ughajg ld rh D;kasfd lhekd kjh lal k/ku leku gh
gksrsgSaA
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
81.
Asthma may be attributed to :

(1) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(2) bacterial infection of the lungs
(3) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(4) inflammation of the trachea

PAGE # 28
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
vLFkek d k d kj.k D;k gksrk gS\

(1) Q s
Q Mksad sHkhrj
ikuh ,d f=kr gkst kuk
(2) Q s
Q Mksd k t hok.kq}kjk la e.k
(3) Q s
Q M+ksesekLV
d ksf'kd kvksad h ,yt hZvfHkf ;k
(4) 'okluy h d h 'kks

Fk
Ans.
(3 or 4)
Sol.
asthma is an allergic disease caused by allergens and characterized by inflammation of

tracheobronchial tree.
82.
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called

(1) Corona
(2) Carina
(3) Pappus
(4) Vexillum
iSfify vksusl h oky sny iqa

t esekud ny d ksvU; fd l uke lst kuk t krk gS\
(1) d ks
jksuk
(2) d S
fjuk
(3) iS
il
(4) oS
Dlhy e
Ans.
(4)
Standard or vexillum
Wing or alae
Keel or carina
Sol.
83.
Papilionaceous corolla
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

(1) RNase
(2) Hind II
(3) Protease

PAGE # 29
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(4) DNase I

u lk ,d izfrca
/k ,aM ksU;wfDy ,t gSA
(1) vkj,u,t
(2) fgUn II
(3) iz
ksfV,t
(4) Mh,u,t I
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
84.
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
(1) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
(2) It is easier to carry a small body weight.
(3) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(4) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
cMs+vkd kj d st arqv ksad eqd kcy sesNksVsvkd kj d st arqv ksad fy , igkM+h ij p<+uk vklku gksrk gSA D;ksafd
(1) Nks
Vst arqv ksad seqd kcy sescM+st arqv ksad h isf'k;ksad h d k;Z{kerk d e
(2) Nks
Vs'kjhj
(3) Nks
V
gksrh gSA
d sHkkj d ks ij y st kuk vis{kk r vklku gksrk gSA
vd kj oky si'kqv ksad h mikip;h nj vis{kk r vf/kd gksrh gSA
(4) Nks
Vsvkd kj
d st arqv ksad hO2 vko';d rk vis{kk r d e gksrh gSA
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
smaller animals have higher BMR related with sustained energy production and delayed muscle
fatigue
85.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :

(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably
anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (a) and (b) are false.
(2) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

PAGE # 30
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
t hou d h mRifk d slanHkZesnksd Fku fn;sx, gSa%

(a) i`
Foh ij
(b) iz
Fke
izd V gksusoky svkjafHkd ke t ho gjsughaFksvkSj laHkor;k vok;oh FksA
izd V gksusoky sLoiks"kh t ho jlksLoiks"kh Fksft UgksausvkWDlht u d k mRlt Zu ughafd ;k A
mijksDr d Fkuksaesalsd kSu lk fuEufy f[kr d Fku lgh gS\

(1) (a) vkS
j (b)
nksuksagh xy r gSaA
(2) (a) lgh gSy s

fd u (b) xy r
gSA
(3) (b) lgh gSy s

fd u (a) xy r
gSA
(4) (a) vkS

j (b)
nksuksagh lgh gSaA
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
First originated organism was prokaryote chemoheterotroph and oxygen was not available on
earth at that time so it must be anaerobic too. Even the first autotroph was dependent on
chemicals so oxygen is not released
86.
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher
that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the
cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result
in
(1) Polyteny
(2) Aneuploidy
(3) Polyploidy
(4) Somaclonal variation
[ksr lsy k;sx, ,d ikni d ksf'kd k esa,d fo|kFkhZ}kjk vaR;koLFkk ns[kh x;hA og viusf'k{kd lsd grk gSfd ;g
d ksf'kd k vUR;koLFkk ij vU; d ksf'kd kvksalsfHkUu gSA blesad ksf'kd k Iy sV ugah curh vkSj bl d kj.k bl d ks
f'kd k esa
vU; foHkkt u oky h d ksf'kd kvksad h vis{kk vf/kd xq.klw=k gSA bld k ifj.kke D;k gksxk\
(1) cgq
iV~Vrk
(2) vlq
xqf.krk
(3) cgq
xq
f.krk
(4) d k;Dy ks
uh fofHkUurk
Ans.
(3)
Sol.

PAGE # 31
| NEET-2016
87.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
(1) Methane
(2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Ozone
(4) Ammonia
okrkoj.k esafd l xSl d h d eh gksusij Ropk d sd Sal j d svolj c<+t k,axsa\

(1) ehFks
u
(2) ukbV
l
vkWDlkbM
(3)vks
t ksu
(4) veks
fu;k
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
88.
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
la;qDr ou izcU/ku d h /kkj.k Hkkjr esfd l nkSjku izLrkfor d h x;h Fkh\

(1) 1990s
(2) 1960s
(3) 1970s
(4) 1980s
Ans.
(4)
89.
Which one of the following is the starter codon?

u lk ,d izkjEHkd izd wV gS\
(1) UAG
(2) AUG
(3) UGA
(4) UAA
Ans.
(2)
90.
The term ecosystem was coined by :

(1) E. Warming
(2) E.P.Odum
(3) A.G. Tansley
(4) E. Haeckel
bd ksflLVe (ikfjrU=k) 'kCn lclsigy sfd luscuk;k Fkk\

(1) bZ
. Okfea
x
(2) bZ
. ih.
(3) ,.
(4) bZ
. fgd y
t h. Vkal y s
vksM e

PAGE # 32
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Ans. (3)
PART B PHYSICS
91.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that
it can complete the loop ?
f=kT;k d sfd lh /okZ/kj ik'k (y wi) esam nzO;eku d sfd lh fi.M+d ksfd l fuEure osx lsiz
os'k d juk pkfg, fd
og ik'k d ksiw.kZd j ld s?
R
(1)
(2)
5gR
gR
(3)
2gR
(4)
3gR
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
To complete the vertical loop, the minimum speed required at the lowest point =
5gR
So ans is (1)
92.
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the
angle between these vectors is :
;fn nkslfn'kksad s;sx d k ifjek.k mu nkslfn'kksad svUrj d sifjek.k d scjkcj gS] rksbu lfn'kksad schp d ks.k gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 180
(3)

A B A B
(2) 0
(3) 90
(4) 45
(A)2 + (B)2 + 2(A)(B)cos = (A)2 + (B)2 2(A)(B)cos

2cos = 0
93.
= 90
7
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitational potential and the value of g are 5.4 10 J
2
2
kg and 6.0 ms respectively ? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
i`Foh d si`"B lsfd ruh p kbZij xq

: Roh; foHko vkSj xq: Roh; Roj.k g d seku e'k% 5.4 107 J kg2 rFkk
6.0 ms
gksrsgS? i`Foh d h f=kT;k 6400 km y hft ,A
Ans.
(1) 2000 km
(2)
Sol.
(2) 2600 km
(3) 1600 km
(4) 1400 km
GM
7
= 5.4 10
r
GM
=6
r2
dividing both the equations, r = 9000 km.
so height from the surface = 9000 6400 = 2600 km
94.
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with
3
each turn of the solenoid is 4 10 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
fd lh y Ech ifjukfy d k esa Q sjksa d h la[;k 1000 gSA t c bl ifjukfy d k ls 4A /kkjk izokfgr gksrh gS] rc bl
ifjukfy d k d sizR;sd Q sjslslac) pqEcd h; y Dl 4 103 Wb gksrk gSA bl ifjukfy d k d k Lo&izsjd Ro gS:
(1) 1H
(2) 4H
(3) 3 H
(4) 2H

PAGE # 33
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
self = Li
3
(4 10 )(1000) = (L)(4)
L = 1 Henry
95.
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 F and a resistor. 40 are connected in series across a source of
emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is
fd lh L=kksr ft ld k emf, V = 10 sin 340 t gS] lsJs.kh esa20 mH d k izsjd , 50 F d k la/kkfj=k rFkk 40d k
izfrjks/kd la;ksft r gS
A bl izR;korhZ/kkjk ifjiFk es
a'kfDr {k; gSA
Ans.
(1) 0.89 W
(2)
(2) 0.51 W
(3) 0.67W
(4) 0.76W
L = 6.8
R=400
Sol.
1/c=58.8
So | z | (40)2 (58.8 6.8)2 65
i0
v0
10
A
| z | 65
irms
i0
2
10
65 2
10
2
Ploss rrms
R
40 0.46watt
65 2
So the nearest answer will be (2)
96.
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths ,
are initially at a distance d(d << ) a part because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak
from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity
v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :
(1) v x
1/2
(2) v x
(3) v x
1/2
(4) v x
fd lh mHk;fu"B fcUnqls
] y EckbZd h nksO;ekughu Mks
fj;ksalsfuy afcr] nksloZl e vkos
f'kr xksy s] vU;ksU; izfrd "kZ.k
d sd kj.k] vkjEHk esa,d nwl jslsd(d<< ) nwjh ij gSA nksuksagh xksy ksals,d fu;r nj lsvkos'k d k {kj.k vkjEHk
gksrk gS] vkSj bld sifj.kkeLo: i xksy s,d nwl jsd h vksj osx vlsvkrsgS
A rc xksy ksad schp d h nwjh] x d sQ y u d s
: i esaosx fopj.k fd l : i esagksrk gS?

PAGE # 34
| NEET-2016
Ans.
Sol.
(1) v x
(4)
| 01-05-2016 |
1/2
(2) v x
Tcos
(3) v x
Code-C,R,Y
1/2
(4) v x
kq2
Tsin
x2
mg
Tsin =
kq2
x2
Tcos = mg
Dividing the equations
tan =
kq2
mgx 2
here tan sin =
x
2
x
kq2
= 2
2
x
3/2
qx
dq 3 1/ 2 dx
x
dt
2
dt
dx
1/2
x
dt
97.
1 2
V
2F
8F
A capacitor of 2F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the
percentage of its stored energy dissipated is :
(1) 80%
(2) 0%
(3) 20%
(4) 75%

PAGE # 35
| NEET-2016
1 2
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
V
8F
2F
vkjs[k esan'kkZ;svuql kj 2F /kkfjrk d sfd lh la/kkfj=k d k vkos'ku fd ;k x;k gSA t c fLop S d ksfLFkfr 2 ij ?kqek;k
t krk gS] rksblesalafpr t kZd k izfr'kr {k; gks
xkA
Ans.
(1) 80%
(1)
(2) 0%
Sol.
Initial energy stored in the 2F capacitor is =

Energy less =
Eloss =
(4) 75%
1
2
2
(2)V = V J
2
2 8 (V 0)2
C1C2
2
(V1 V2) =
2 C1 C2
2 2 8
5 2
V J
4
% loss =
98.
(3) 20%
5 4 V2
V2
100 = 80%
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r cos tx sin ty . Where is a constant.
Which of the following is true?
(1) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r .
(3) Velocity is acceleration both are parallel to r .
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
d ksbZd .k bl izd kj xeu d jrk gSfd mld k fLFkfr lfn'k r cos tx sin ty }kjk fu: fir
fd ;k x;k gS] ;gk
,d
fu;rkad gS?
u lk d Fku lR; gS?
(1) os
x r
d sy Ecor~gSrFkk Roj.k ewy fcUnqlsnwj d h vksj funsZf'kr gSA
(2) os
x vkSj Roj.k nksuksagh r d sy Ecor~gSaA
(3) os
x
(4) os
x r
Ans.
vkSj Roj.k nksuksagh r d slekUrj gSA

d sy Ecor~gSrFkk Roj.k ewy fcUnqd h vksj funsZf'kr gSA
(4)

PAGE # 36
Sol.
99.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
V cos t i sin tj
dr
= sint i + cost j
V
dt
dV
2
2
= cost i sint j
a
dt
since r.V = 0 so r r V
and a 2 r
so a will be always aiming towards the origin.
Code-C,R,Y
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the
centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about at perpendicular axis,
passing through the centre ?
nzO;eku M rFkk f=kT;k R d h fd lh fMLd lsR O;kl d k d ksbZo`kkd kj fNnzbl izkd j d kVk t krk gSfd mld h usfe
fMLd d sd sUnzlsxqt jsA fMCcsd s'ks"k Hkkx d k] fMLd d sy Ecor~mld sd sUnzlsxqt jusoky sv{k d sifjr% t M+Ro
vk?kw.kZD;k gS?
2
Ans.
(1) 9MR /32

(3)
(2) 15MR /32
(3) 13MR /32
(4) 11 MR /32
M, R
M/4
R/2
Sol.
I1 =
MR 2
2
2
M R
2
4 2
3MR 2
M R
I2 =
2
32
4 2
Inet = I1 I2 =
100.
MR 2 3MR2 13MR2
2
32
32
so answer is 3.
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean
density are twice as that of earth is :
i`Foh ij iy k;u os
x (ve) rFkk ml xzg ij iy k;u osx (vp) esaD;k vuqikr gksxk, ft ld h f=kT;k vkSj vkSl r ?kuRo
i`Foh d h rqy uk es
anksxqusgS?
(1) 1 :
Ans.
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 2
(4) 1 : 4
(3)

PAGE # 37
| NEET-2016
Sol.
Ve =
2G
2GM
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
4
R3
3
Ve R
R
V1
1 1
V2 R2 2
V1
1
V2 2 2
so answer is 3.
101.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two
cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance
points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of
emf's is :
fd lh fOkHkoekih d srkj d h y EckbZ100 cm gSrFkk bld sfljksad schp d ksbZfu;r foHkokUrj cuk, j[kk x;k gSA nks
lsy ksad ksJs.kh e esaigy s,d nwl jsd h lgj;rk d jrsgq, vkSj fQ j ,d &nwl jsd h foijhr fn'kkvksaesala;ksft r fd ;k
x;k gSA bu nksuksaizd j.kksaesa'kwU;&fo{ksi fLFkfr rkj d s/kukRed fljsls50 cm vkSj 10 cm nwjh ij izkIr gksrh gSA
nksuksalsy ksad h emf d k vuqikr gS:
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 3 : 2
(1)
E1 + E2 = K(50)
E1 E2 = K(10)
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 5 : 4
(4) 3 : 4
E1 E2 5
E1 E2 1
102.
E1 3
E2 2
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed
1
of 15 ms . Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :
1
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms )
800 Hz
vko`
fk d h /ofu mRiUu d jusoky k d ksbZlk;ju fd lh izs{kd ls,d pV~Vku d h vksj 15 ms1 d h pky ls
xfreku gSA rc ml /ofu d h vko`fk] ft lspV~Vku lsijkofrZr izfr/ofu d s: i esaog izs{kd lwurk gS] D;k gksxh?
(ok;qea
s/ofu d h pky = 330 ms1 y hft ,)
Ans.
(1) 885 Hz
(4)
(2) 765 Hz
(3) 800 Hz
(4) 838 Hz

PAGE # 38
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
15 m/sec.
Sol.
f0
Frequency at the wall will be
v v0
330 0
f ' f0
800
v
330 15
s
330
f' = 800
= 838 Hz
315
Since the observer and the wall are stationary so frequency of echo observed by the observer will also
be 838 Hz.
103.
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is :
A
B
C
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
uhpsfn, x, ifjiFk esa] fuxZr 1 izkIr d jusd sfy , fuos'k d k lgh p;u gS%
A
B
Ans.
(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(3) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(1)
A=1
Output = 0 +1=1
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
Output = 1.1=1
Sol.
B=0
C=1
So ans will be (1)

PAGE # 39
104.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a' the first minimum is observed at an angle 30 when
light of wavelength 5000 is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle
of :
1 3
(1) sin
4
1
4

(2) sin
(3) sin
2
3

1 2
(4) sin
3
t c pkS
M +kbZ'a' d h fd lh ,d y f>jh ij 5000 rjaxnS/;Zd k izd k'k vkiru d jrk gS] rksf>jh d sd kj.k mRiUu
foorZu iSVuZesa30 d sd ksa.k ij igy k fufEU"B fn[kkbZnsrk gSA igy k f}rh;d mfPP"B ft l d ksa.k ij fn[kkbZnsxk] og
gS%
3
(1) sin1
4
1
4

(2) sin
(3) sin
2
3

1 2
(4) sin
3
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
Path difference between the extreme rays at first minima = a sin =

a sin(30) =
a = 2
Path difference between the extreme rays at first secondary maxima = a sin' =
(2)sin' =
105.
3
2
1 3
' = sin
4
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength ' the stopping potential is V. If the
same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping potential is
V
. The threshold
4
wavelength for the metallic surface is :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4)
t c fd lh /kkfRod i`"B d ksrajxnS/;Zd sfofd j.kksalsiznhIr fd ;k t krk gS] rksfujks/kh foHko V gSA ;fn blh i`"B d ks
V
4
rajxnS/;Z2d sfofd j.kksalsiznhIr fd ;k t k,] t ksfujks/kh foHko
gkst krk gSA bl /kkfRod i`"B d h nsgy h rajxnS/;Z
gS%
(1) 3
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
KEmax. = eVst =
eV =
hc
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4)
hc
...(i)
V hc
e
...(ii)
4 2
Solving equation (i) and (ii)
hc hc
3 th
th = 3

PAGE # 40
| NEET-2016
106.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
When an -particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity ' v ' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze' its
distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as :
(1) m
(2)
1
m
(3)
(4)
1
m2
t c O;eku 'm' rFkk osx ' v ' lsxfreku d ksbZ-d .k 'Ze' vkos'k d sfd lh Hkkjh ukfHkd ij ceckjh d jrk gS] rks
mld h ukfHkd lsfud Vre mixeu d h nwjh m ij bl izd kj fuHkZj d jrh gS%
(1) m
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
(3)
(4)
1
m2
(2)
At closest approach
KE gets converted to PE
1
k(2e)(ze)
mV 2
2
r
107.
1
m
1
r
or
1
m
Match the corresponding entries of column1 with column2. [Where m is the magnification produced
by the mirror]
d kWy e1 d h laxr izfof"V;ksad k fey ku d kWy e2 d h izfof"V;ksalsd hft ;sA [;gkm niZ.kksa}kjk mRiUu vko/kZu gSa]
Ans.
(A)
Column1
m = 2
(B)
m=
Column2
(a)
Convex mirror
(C)
1
2
m = +2
(D)
m=
(A)
m = 2
(B)
m=
(C)
m = +2
(D)
m=
(1)
A c and d;
B b and d;
C b and c; D a and d
(2)
A b and c;
B b and c;
C b and d; D a and d
(3)
A a and c;
B a and d;
C a and b; D c and d
(4)
A a and d;
B b and c;
C b and d; D b and c
(1)
A c o d;
B b o d;
C b o c; D a o d
(2)
A b o c;
B b o c;
C b o d; D a o d
(3)
A a o c;
B a o d;
C a o b; D c o d
(4)
A a o d;
B b o c;
C b o d; D b o c
1
2
1
2
1
2
(b)
Concave mirror
(c)
Real image
(d)
Virtual image
(a)
mky niZ.k
(b)
vory niZ.k
(c)
okLrfod izfrfcEc
(d)
vkHkklh izfrfcEc
(2)

PAGE # 41
Sol.
108.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(A) m = 2, so image is magnified and inverted. Which is possible only for concave mirror. since image
is i inverted so it will be real.
1
(B) M = , so image is inverted and diminished. since image is inverted, so it will be real, and the
2
mirror will be concave.
(C) M = +2, image is magnified so the mirror will be concave. Image is erect so it will be virtual.
1
(D) m = , image is erect so image will be virtual. Image is virtual and diminished, so the mirror
2
should be convex.
Ans. will be (2)
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration.
What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to
4
8 10 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ?
10 g
O;eku d k d ksbZd .k 6.4 ls-eh y Ech f=kT;k d so`k d svuqfn'k fd lh fu;r Li'kZ& js[kh; Roj.k lsxfr d jrk
gSA ;fn xfr vkjEHk d jusd si'pkr~nksifj ek,saiwjh d jusij d .k d h xfrt t kZ8 104 J gks t krh gS] rks
bl Roj.k d k ifjek.k D;k gS\
2
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 0.2 m/s

(2)
(2) 0.1 m/s
(3) 0.15 m/s
(4) 0.18 m/s
W all = KE
1
2
(mat)(s) = mv
2
(10 103)(at) (4 6.4 102) = 8 104
at = 0.1 m/s m/s

Ans. will be (2)
109.
A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sint is applied across an ideal capacitor C :
d ksbZy ?kqflXuy oksYVrk V(t) = V0 sint fd lh vkn'kZla/kkfj=k C d sfljksaij vuqiz;qDr d h x;h gS:
(1) Current (t), leads voltage V(t) by 180
(2) Current (t), lags voltage V(t) by 90
(3) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.
(4) Current (t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
(1) /kkjk (t),
oksYVrk V(t) ls180 vxzgSA
(2) /kkjk (t), oks

YVrkV(t) ls90 i'p
gSA
(3) ,d
iw
.kZp esala/kkfj=k C oks
YVrk L=kks
r lsd ksbZ t kZmiHkqDr ughad jrkA
(4) /kkjk (t), oks
YVrkV(t) d h d y k esagSA
Ans.
Sol.
(3)
Capacitor does not consume energy effectively over full cycles

PAGE # 42
110.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first ?
d sbZfMLd vkSj d ksbZxksy k] ft ud h f=kT;k,saleku ijUrqO;eku fHkUu gSa] leku mUurka'k vkSj y EckbZd snksvkur
lery ksaij y q<+d rsgSaA bu nksuksafi.Mksaesalsry h rd igy sd kSu igqp sxk?
(1) Depends on their masses
(3) Sphere
(2) Disk
(4) both reach at the same time
(1) bud sO;ekuks

aij
(2) fMLd
fuHkZj d jrk gS
(3) xks
yk
Ans.
Sol.
(4) nks
uksa,d
k2
t 1 2
k2
R2
111.
gh le; igqp saxs
(3)
Time does not depend on mass, else
is least for sphere and hence least time is taken by sphere
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are 1 and 2 . Lengths of brass and steel rods
are 1 and 2 respectively. If (2 1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following
relations holds good ?
ihry czkl vkSj LVhy d h NM+ksad svuqnS/;Zizl kj d sxq.kkad e'k% 1 vkSj 2 gSaA ihry vkSj LVhy d h NM+ksad h
y EckbZ;k e'k% 1 vkSj 2 gSaA ;fn (2 1) d kslHkh rkiksad sfy , leku cuk;k t k;s] rc uhpsfn, x, laca/kksaesals
d kSu&lk lR; gS\
(1) 11 = 2 2
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
2 = 2 (1 + 2())
(2) 12 = 2 1
(3) 122 = 2 12
(4) 122 = 22 1
1 = 1(1 + 1())
2 1 =(2 1) + (22 11)
As the length difference is independent of temperature difference hence
12 11 = 0
112.
22 = 11
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To
view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :
fd lh [kxksy h; nwjchu d svfHkn`';d vkSj usf=kd k d h Q ksd l nwfj;k e'k% 40 cm vkSj 4 cm gSaA vfHkn`';d ls
200 cm nw
j
Ans.
(1) 54.0 cm
(1)
fLFkr fd lh fcEc d ksns[kusd sfy ,] nksuksay sal ksad schp d h nwjh gksuh pkfg, :
(2) 37.3 cm
(3) 46.0 cm
(4) 50.0 cm

PAGE # 43
Sol.
| NEET-2016
Tube length = v0 + fe
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
1
1 1
V0 u 0 f
for objective
put u0 = 200 and f = 40 cm we get v0 = 50 cm

L = 54 cm
113.
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its
plane and passes through its centre. it is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular
2
2
acceleration of 2.0 rad s . Its net acceleration in ms at the end of 2.0 s is approximately :
fojkekoLFkk esafLFkr 50 cm f=kT;k d h d ksbZ,d leku o`kkd kj fMLd viusry d sy Ecor~vkSj d sU lsxqt jusoky s
v{k d sifjr% ?kweusd sfy , Lora=k gSA bl fMLd ij d ksbZcy vk?kw.kZd k;Zd jrk gS] t ksblesa2.0 rad s2 d k fu;r
d ks.kh; Roj.k mRiUu d j nsrk gSA 2.0 s d si'pkr~ms2 esabld k usV Roj.k gksxk y xHkx:
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 3.0
(2) 8.0
(3) 7.0
(4) 6.0
(2)
The angular speed of disc increases with time, and hence centripetal acceleration
also anet =
ac =
a 2t a 2c
2
R
= tangential speed
R = Radius = 0.5 m
V = 2m/s at t =2
114.
ac = 8m/s ; at = R = (0.5)(2)
anet =
8 2 12 ~ 8
A refrigerator works between 4C and 30C. it is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second
in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is :
(Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
d ksbZjs
f t jsVj 4C vkSj 30C d schp d k;Zd jrk gSA iz'khru fd , t kusoky sLFkku d k rki fu;r j[kusd sfy ,
600 d S
y ksjh "ek d ksizfr
lsd .M ckgj fud ky uk vko';d gksrk gSA bld sfy , vko';d 'kfDr pkfg, %:
(1 cal = 4.2 Joules y hft ;s

)
Ans.
(1) 2365 W
(4)
Sol.
C.O.P. =
(2) 2.365 W
(3) 23.65 W
(4) 236.5 W
T2
Heat extracted
; (T2 < T1)

effort put
T1 T2
for 1 second analysis
(600 )( 4.2) 277
Effort put
26
Effort put = 236.5 J
Power = 236.5 watt

PAGE # 44
115.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately
through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then :
(1) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires
more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas
(2) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done
(3) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done
(4) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work
fd lh xSl d kslerkih; : i lsmld svk/ksvk;ru rd laihfM+r fd ;k t krk gSA blh xSl d ksi`Fkd : i ls: n~/kks"e
izf ;k }kjk mld svk/ksvk;ru rd laihfM+r fd ;k t krk gSA rc :
(1)
pkgslerkih; izf ;k }kjk laihfMr d jsavFkok : n~/kks"e izf ;k }kjk laihfMr d jsa] fd l izd j.k esavf/kd d k;Z
d jusd h vko';d rk gksxh] ;g xSl d h ijek.kqd rk ij fuHkZj d jsxkA

(2) xS
l d kslerkih; izf ;k }kjk laihfMr d jusesavf/kd d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gksxhA
(3) xS
l
d ks: n~/kks"e izf ;k }kjk la

ihfMr d jusesavf/kd d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gksxhA
(4) xS
l d kslerkih; izf ;k vFkok : n~/kks"e izf ;k nksuksaesagh leku d k;Zd jusd h vko';d rk gks
xhA
Ans.
Sol.
(3)
Directly from graph the magnitude of work done = Area under p-v plot is larger for adiabatic
compression
p
Adiabatic
Iso
thermal
vf
116.
vi
The intensity at the maximum in Young's double slit experiment is 0. Distance between two slits is
d = 5, where is the wavelength of light used is the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of
one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d ?
;ax d sfd lh f} f>jh iz;ksx esamfPp"B d h rhozrk 0 gSA nksuks

af>fj;ksad schp d h nwjh d = 5gS, ;gkiz;ksx esa
mi;ksx fd , x, izd k'k d h rjaxnS/;ZgSA fd lh f>jh d slkeusnwjh D = 10d ij fLFkr insZij rhozrk D;k gksxh?
(1)
0
2
(2) 0
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
y
max cos2
(3)
0
4
(4)
3
0
4
D
10
d
y for a position in front of a slit
2.5
2 2
0 cos2
4
(2.5 )
0 cos2
10
0
2

PAGE # 45
| NEET-2016
117.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Two non-mixing liquids of densities and n(n > 1) are put in container. The height of each liquid is h.
A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical
and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to
,d nwl jsesafefJr u gks

usoky snksnzo] ft ud s?kuRo rFkk n(n > 1) gSa] fd lh ik=k esaHkjsgSA izR;sd nzo d h
p kbZh gSA y EckbZL vkSj ?kuRo d d sfd lh csy u d ksbl ik=k esaj[kk t krk gSA ;g csy u ik=k esabl izd kj jSrjk
gS] fd bld k v{k /okZ/kj jgrk gSrFkk bld h y EckbZpL (p < 1) l?ku nzo esagksrh gSA ?kuRo d d k eku gSA
Ans.
(1) {1 + (n 1)p}
(1)
(2) {1 + (n + 1)p}
(3) {2+(n + 1)p}
(4) {2 + (n 1)p}
LpL
pL
Sol.
n
wt of body = upthrust by the two liquids
If A = Area of section then
(d A.L) g = [A (L pL) + n ApL] g
On solving
d = (1+ (n 1)p)
118.
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :
laf/k Mk;ksM d ksvkn'kZekud j fopkj d hft ,A AB lsizokfgr /kkjk d k eku gS%

A
+4V
(2) 0 A
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 10 A
(3)
For diode as ideal
i=
119.
1k
B
6V
(3) 10
(4) 10 A
V 4 (6 )
2
= 10 A
3
R
10
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the care and the road is s. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
d ksbZd kj f=kT;k R d h of r lM+d ij xfreku gSA ;g lM+d d ks.k ij >qd h gSAd kj d sVk;jksavkSj lM+d d schp
?k"kZ.k xq.kkad s gSabl lM+d ij d kj d k vf/kd re lqj{kk osx gS%
(1)
Ans.
s tan
R 1 s tan
g
(2)
gR 2
s tan
(3)
1 s tan
gR
s tan
1 s tan
(4)
g s tan
R 1 s tan
(3)

PAGE # 46
Sol.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
For maximum speed the tendency of body is to slip up the incline
hence
2
Vmax
tan
=
Rg
1 tan
tan
Rg
1 tan
or Vmax =
120.
Code-C,R,Y
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B, at a radial distances
a
and 2a respectively,
2
from the axis of the wire is:
f=kT;k a d sfd lh y Ecslh/ks rkj ls d ks

bZLFkk;h /kkjk I okfgr gks jgh gSA bl rkj d h vuqLFk d kV ij /kkjk
,d leku : i lsforfjr gSA rkj d sv{k lsf=kT;k nwfj;ksa
a
2
vkSj 2a ij e'k% pqEcd h; {ks=kksaB vkSj B d k vuqikr
gS&
(1) 4
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
1
4
(3)
1
2
(4) 1
(4)
If r = radial separation
0i R
i 1
i
B = Binside = 0 2 r =
= 0
2
2
2
R 2
(
2
R
)
2
R

B = Boutside =
121.
0i
i 1
= 0 B : B = 1 : 1
2r
2R 2
7
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10 m , the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum will be :
fjMcxZfu;rkad d k eku 107 m1 fn;k x;k gS] gkbMkst u LisDVe d h ckej Js.kh d h vafUre y kbu d h rjax la[;k
gksxh %
7
Ans.
Sol.
122.
(1) 2.510 m
(4)
1
1
1
R 2 2
(2) 0.025 10 m
wave number =
(3) 0.5 10 m
(4) 0.2510 m
107 m 1
4
If the velocity of a particle is = At + Bt , where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
between 1s and 2s is
;fn fd lh d .k d k osx = At + Bt2 gS;gkA rFkk B fLFkjkad gS] rksbl d .k }kjk 1s vkSj 2s d schp py h x;h nwjh
gS%
(1)
Ans.
A B
2 3
(2)
3
A B
2
(3) 3A + 7B
(4)
3
7
A B
2
3
(4)

PAGE # 47
| NEET-2016
Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Distance
2
s vdt At Bt 2
123.
3A 7B
2
3
The angle incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45. The angle of prism is 60.
If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive
index of the material of the prism respectively, are
fTe d sfd lh viorZd i`"V ij fd lh d k'k fd j.k d sfy , viru d ks.k d k eku 45 gSA fTe d ks.k d k eku 60
gSA ;fn ;g fd j.k fTe lsU;wure fopfy r gksrh gS] rksU;wure fopy u d ks.k rFkk fTe d sinkFkZd k viorZukad
e'k% gS%
(1) 30;
(2) 45 ;
2
Ans.
Sol.
1
2
(3) 30 ;
(4) 45 ;
(3)
Give A = 60 and i = e = 60
min = i + e A = 45 + 45 60 = 30
A
sin m
2 2
A
sin
2
124.
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms at 27C and 1.010 Nm
5
2
pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127C and 0.0510 Nm ,
1
the r.m.s. velocity of velocity of its molecules in ms is ;
rki 27C rFkk 1.0105 Nm2 ij fd lh fn, x, O;eku d h xSl d sv.kqv ks

ad k oxZek/; ewy (r.m.p.) osx 200
gSA t c bl xSl d srki vkSj nkc e'k% 127C vkSj 0.05105 Nm2 gS] rksms1 esabl xSl d sv.kqv ksad k
oxZek/; ewy osx gS
&
ms
(1)
100
3
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
VRMS
V1
V2
200
V2
(2) 100
(3)
400
(4)
100 2
3
3RT
Mo
T1
T2
300
400
V2
400
3

PAGE # 48
125.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonantes with a tuning fork when the
smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same
tuning fork is:
,d fljsij cUn rFkk nwl jsfljsij [kqy k d ksbZok;qLrEHk fd lh Lofj=k f}Hkqt d slkFk ml le; vuqukn d jrk gS
t c bl ok;qLrEHk d h d e lsd e yEckbZ50 lseh gks
rh gSA blh Lofj=k f}Hkqt d slkFk vuqukn d jusoky h LrEHk d h
vxy h cM+h y EckbZgS&
Ans.
(1) 200 cm
(4)
(2) 66.7 cm
Sol.
(4) 150 cm
First harmonic at
3rd harmonic
(3) 100 cm
3
4
1st length = 50 cm
3rd harmonic length 150 cm
126.
The magnetic susceptibility negative for

(1) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
(3) paramagnetic material only
(2) diamagnetic material only

(4) ferromagnetic material only
pqEcd h; lqxzkfgrk _ .kkRed gksrh gS%

(1) vuq
p qEcd h;
(3)
vkSj y kSg&pqEcd h; inkFkksZd sfy ,
d soy vuq
p qEcd h; inkFkZd sfy ,
(2)
d soy frpqEcd h; inkFkZd sfy ,
(4) d s
oy
y kSg&pqEcd h; inkFkZd sfy ,
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
r = 1 + x
appropriate is diamagnetic
127.
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Brogli wavelengths
associated with them is:
O;eku m d sby sDVkWu rFkk fd lh Q ksVkWu d h t kZ, E ,d leku gSA buesalac) nsczkXy h rjaxnS/;ksZd k vuqikr gS%
Ans.
1 2m 2
(1)
c E
1 E 2
(2)
c 2m
E 2
(3)
2m
(4) c(2mE )1 / 2
(2)

PAGE # 49
| NEET-2016
Sol.
electron =
For
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(1)
2ME
photon
E = h =
hc
photon
(2)
from these two ratio obtained by dividing these (2)

1 : 2 =
128.
1 E
c 2M
1/ 2
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F (2t i 3 t 2 j )N , when
i and j are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t ?
1 kg O;eku d k d ks
bZfi.M fd lh d ky fJr cy F (2t i 3t 2 j)N , ;gk i rFkk j , x vkSj y v{k d svuqfn'k ek=kd
lfn'k gS] d sv/khu xfr vkjEHk d jrk gS] rksle; t ij bl cy }kjk fod flr 'kfDr D;k gksxh?
3
Ans.
Sol.
(1) (2t + 3t )W
(1)
M = 1 kg
(2) (2t + 3t )W
a=
F 2t 3 t 2
i
j
M (1)
1
V=
adt = 2t dt 1 + 3t dt
(3) (2t + 4t )W
(4) (2t + 3t )W
2
3
V = t i + t j
Power = F.V. = (2ti + 3t2 j ). (t2 i + t3 j )

power = 2t3 + 3 t5
129.
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at bt , where a and b are positive
constants. The total heat produced in R is :
fd lh frjks/k R lsokfgr vkos'k d k le; t d slkFk fopj.k Q = at bt2 d s: i esagksrk gS] t gka rFkk b /kukRed
fu;rkad gSA R esamRi d qy "ek gS%
(1)
Ans.
Sol.
a 3R
b
(2)
a 3R
6b
(3)
a 3R
3b
(4)
a 3R
2b
(2)
2
Q = at bt
i=
dQ
= a 2bt
dt
t
H=
a 3R
i Rdt =
6b
2
i=0t=
a
2b
t 2
Rdt
0

PAGE # 50
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
a/2b
it
(a 2bt)2 Rdt = a2 t
Put t
130.
a
2b
H=
2 3
4b t
4bat
3
2
Code-C,R,Y
a3 R
6b
A npn transistor is connected in common emittet configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of
800 is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current
amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 , the voltage gain and the
power gain of the amplifier will respectively be :
fd lh fn, x, o/kZd esad ksbZnpn Vkaft LVj mHk;fu"B mRlt Zd foU;kl esala;ksft gSA 800 d ksd ks
bZy ksM frjks/k
laxzkgd ifjiFk esals;ksft r gSvkSj bld sfljksaij 0.8 V foHkoikr gSA ;fn /kkjk o/kZd xq
.kkad 0.96 gSA rFkk ifjiFk
d k fuos'k frjks/k 192 gSA rksbl o/kZd d h oksYVrk y fC/k rFkk 'kfDr y fC/k e'k% gksxh%
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 4,3.69
(2) 4,3.84
(2)
Voltage gain = [current gain] [resistance gain]
[.96]
(3) 3.69, 3.84
(4) 4, 4
800
192
power gain = [current gain] [resistance gain]

[.96] [4] = 3.84
131.
a piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted in to heat during its fall. The value of h is :
5
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 10 J/Kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(1) 68 km
(2) 34 km
(3) 544 km
(4) 136 km
cQ Zd k d ksbZVqd Mk p kbZ h lsbl izd kj fxjrk gSfd og iw.kZr% fi?ky t krk gSA mRiUu gksusoky h m"ek d k d soy
,d &pkSFkkbZ Hkkx gh cQ Z }kjk vo'kksf"kr fd ;k t krk gS rFkk cQ Z d h leLr t kZ bld s fxjrs le; "ek esa
: ikUrfjr gkst krh gSA ;fn cQ Zd h xqir "ek 3.4 105 J/Kg rFkk g = 10 N/kg gSa] rks p kbZh d k eku gS%
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 68 km
(4)
(2) 34 km
(3) 544 km
(4) 136 km
Mg h
= mL
4
h=
4L
= 136 km
g

PAGE # 51
132.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY
carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :
d ksbZoxkZd kj ik'k (y wi) ABCD ft lls/kkjk i, iz

okfgr gksjgh gS] fd lh y Ecslh/kspky d XY ft lls/kkjk I izokfgr
gksjgh gSd sfud V ,d gh ry esaj[kk gSaA bl ik'k ij y xusoky k y sV cy gks
xk %
Y
Ans.
0 iL
2
(2)
20 i
3
A
L/2
(1)
(3)
0 i
2
(4)
20 iL
3
(2)
FBC
C
B
FAB
FCD
A
FAD
Sol.
FBC cancels FAD

FNet = FAB FCD =
133.
2 0 Ji
0 iL
iL
2 0 i
0
=
=
3
3
3L
L
2 2
2
2

A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end
of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is 2. The ratio 1/2 is :
(1)
m1 m2
m1
(2)
m1
m2
(3)
m1 m2
m2
(4)
m2
m1
nzO;eku m1 rFkk y EckbZL d h d ksbZ,d leku jLlh fd lh n`< Vsd ls /okZ/kj y Vd h gS

A bl jLlh d seqDr fljsls
nzO;eku m2 d k d ksbZxqVd k t qM k gSA jLlh d seqDr fljsij rjaxnS/;Z1 d k d ksbZvuqiz
LFk LiUn mRiUu fd ;k t krk
gSA ;fn jLlh d s'kh"kZrd igqp usij bl LiUn d h rjaxnS
/;Z2 gkst krh gSA rc vuikr 1/2 d k eku gS%
(1)
Ans.
m1 m2
m1
(2)
m1
m2
(3)
m1 m2
m2
(4)
m2
m1
(3)

PAGE # 52
| NEET-2016
Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
T
m/
v
1
M2
M2 M1 Tension = M2g
Tension = M2g
T2 = (M1 + M2)g
M1
T1 = M2g
M2
2
1
134.
M1 M2
M2
A block body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength
6
250 nm is U1 at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 10
nmK. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) U2 > U1
(2) U1 = 0
(3) U3 = 0
(4) U1 > U2
d ksbZd `f".kd k 5760 K rki ij gSaA bl fi.M }kjk mRlft Zr fofd j.kksad h t kZ] rjaxnS/;Z250 nm ij U1 rja
xnS/;Z
500 nm ij U2 rFkk rja
xnS/;z1000 nm ij U3 gSA
ohu&fu;rkad ] b = 2.88 106 nmK gSA uhpsfn;k x;k d kSu lk
lac/k lgh gS\

Ans.
(1) U2 > U1
(1)
Sol.
min T = b
(2) U1 = 0
(3) U3 = 0
(4) U1 > U2
1
T
4
u (T)
1
( )4
so
u1 > u2
135.
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ?
(1) An accelerating charge
(2) A charge moving at constant velocity
(3) A stationary charge
(4) A chargeless particle
uhpsfn, x, fod Yiksaesalsfd ld k mi;ksx ,d lap fjr fo|qr pqEcd h; rjax mRiUu d jusesafd ;k t k ld rk gS\
(1) d ks
bZRofjr vkos'k
(2) fu;r os
x lsxfreku d ksbZvkos'k
(3) fLFkj
Ans.
vkos'k
(4) vkos
'kghu
d .k
(1)

PAGE # 53
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
PART C CHEMISTRY .
136.
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?

(1) G and S are negative but H is positive
(2) G is negative but H and S are positive
(3) G, H and S all are negative
(4) G and H are negative but S is positive
fuEUkfy f[kr y {k.kksaesalsd kSu lk vf/k'kks"k.k lslEcfU/kr gS\

(1) G rFkkS _
.kkRed y sfd u H /kukRed gksrk gSA
(2) G _
.kkRed y sfd u H ,oaS /kukRed gksrsgSA

(3) G, H ,oaS lHkh _ .kkRed gks
rsgSA
(4) G ,oaH _
.kkRed y sfd u S /kukRed gksrk gSA
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
According to Gibbs Helmholtz equation, G = H TS

Adsorption is a spontaneous process (where S < 0, G < 0 and H < 0)
fxCl gsYegkWV~t lehd j.k d svuql kj G = H T S

vf/k'kks"k.k ,d Lor% iz e gksrk gS(t gk S < 0, G < 0 rFkk H < 0)
137.
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is :
4
(1) 10 atm
14
(2) 10 atm
12
(3) 10 atm
10
(4) 10 atm
298 K ij
'kq
) t y esaH2 by sDVksM d k foHko 'kwU; d jusd sfy ;svko';d H2 d k nkc gSA
Ans.
(1) 10 atm
(2) 1014 atm
(3) 1012 atm
(4) 1010 atm
(2)
Sol.
2H
+ 2e H2 (reduction reaction) (vip;u
(aq.)
E = E
0=0
vfHkf ;k)
PH2
0.059
log
2
2
H(aq.)
PH2
0.059
log
2
2
10 7
(In order to make log1 = 0) (log1 = 0 d jusd sfy ,)

-7 2
PH2 = (10 )
= 1014 atm

PAGE # 54
138.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
(1) Activation energy
(2) Entropy
(3) Internal energy
(4) Enthalpy
fd lh jklk;fud vfHkf ;k esamRis

zsjd d s;ksx lsfuEUkfy f[kr esalsd kSu lh ek=kk cny rh gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(1) lf ;.k t kZ
(2) ,s
UVkWih
(3) vka
rfjd
(4) ,s
aFkSYih
t kZ]
(1)
Catalyst can affect only activation energy of the chemical reaction and cannot alter any thermodynamic
parameters :
(ie. H , G , S )
mRizsjd d soy jklk;fud vfHkf ;k d h lf ;.k t kZd ksizHkkfor d jrk gS] vU; "ek xfrd h; ekin.M d ksugha%
(vFkkZ
r~H , G , S )
139.
For the following reaction :

(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O
CH3
(b) H3C
Br
(c)
H3C
CH3
+ KBr
+ KOH
OH
Br
+ Br2
Br
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
(2) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
(3) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.
(4) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reaction.
fuEu vfHkf ;kvksad sfy ;s%

(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O
CH3
(b) H3C
Br
(c)
H3C
+ KOH
CH3
+ KBr
OH
Br
+ Br2
Br
fuEu esalsd kSu lk d Fku lR; gS?

(1) (a) iz
frLFkkiu, (b) vkSj (c) ;ksXkt vfHkf ;k,gSA
(2) (a) vkS
j (b) foy ksiu
vfHkf ;k,gSrFkk (c) ;ks

xt vfHkf ;k gSA
(3) (a) foy ks
iu vfHkf ;k, (b) izfrLFkkiu vfHkf ;k vkSj (c) ;ksxt vfHkf ;k gSA
(4) (a) foy ks
iu
Ans.
vfHkf ;k, (b) vkSj (c) izfrLFkkiu vfHkf ;k,gSA
(3)

PAGE # 55
| NEET-2016
Sol.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O Elimination reaction

Formation of -bond and conversion of saturated compound into unsaturated compound by the removal
of groups or atoms is known as Elimination reaction
CH3
(b) H3C
Br
CH3
H3C
Substitution Reaction
+ KBr
+ KOH
OH
Replacement of one group by other group known as Substitution Reaction

Br
(c)
addition reaction
+ Br2
Br
Conversion of unsaturated compound into saturated compound by the addition of groups or atoms is
called as addition reaction.
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH CH3CH=CH2 + KBr + H2O foy ks
iu
-ca
/k d k fuekZ.k rFkk ijek.kq;k lewgksad sgVusij
vfHkf ;k
larÌr ;kSfxd d k vlarÌr ;kSfxd esa: ikUrj.k d ksfoy ksiu
vfHkf ;k d grsgSA
CH3
(b) H3C
+ KOH
Br
iz
frLFkkiu
CH3
H3C
vfHkf ;k
+ KBr
OH
fd lh lewg d k nwl jslewg }kjk izfrLFkkiu gksusij mlsizfrLFkkiu vfHkf ;k d grsgSA

Br
(c)
+ Br2
;ks
xt
vfHkf ;k
Br
ijek.kq;k lewgksad st qM +usij vlarÌr ;kSfxd d slarÌr ;kSfxd esa: ikUrj.k d ks;ks
xt vfHkf ;k d grsgSA
140.
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :

(1) Aromatic acid
(2) Schiff base
(3) Ketone
(4) Carboxylic acid
,sfYMgkbM ,oaizkFkfed ,sehu d h vfHkf ;k lscuk mRikn gSA:

(1) ,s
jksesfVd vEy
(2) f'kQ ~{kkj
(3) d hVks
u
Ans.
Sol.
(4) d kcks
ZfDlfy d
vEy
(2)
C=O + H2NR
C=NR
Aldehyde/ketone
Schiff's Base
C=O + H2NR
C=NR
,fYMgkbM/d hVksu
f'kQ {kkj

PAGE # 56
141.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :
(1) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is
sp-hybridized.
(2) Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are
delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring electrons system.
(3) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone pair electrons are
not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring electron system.
(4) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
,sjhy ,sehu d s{kkjd rk d sfy ;slgh d Fku gS:

(1) ,s
jhy ,sehu
lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gSD;ksfd ,sjhy ,sehu esaukbVkst u ijek.kqsp-lad fjr gSA
(2) ,s
jhy ,sehu
lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsd e {kkjh; gSD;ksfd ukbVkst u d s,d kd h ;qXe by sDVks
u ,sjksesfVd oy ; d s
by s
DVkWu d slkFk foLFkkfud `r gksrsgSA
(3) ,s
jhy ,sehu
lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gksrh gSA D;ksfd ukbVkst u d s,d kd h-;qXe by sDVksu ,sjksesfVd
oy ; d s by sDVksu d slkFk foLFkkfud `r ugh gksrsgSA

(4) ,s
fjy
Ans.
lewg d sd kj.k ,sjhy ,sehu lkekU;r% ,sfYd y ,sehu lsT;knk {kkjh; gSA
(2)
NH2
Sol.
Delocalised lone pair of nitrogen atom with Benzene ring in aryl amine
aryl amine
lone pair of electrons of nitrogen atom are not delocalized in alkyl amine.
RNH2
(Alkyl amine)
NH2
,fjy ,ehu esaukbVks

t u d sby sDVkWu ;qXe csUt hu oy ; d slkFk foLFkkfud `r gksrsgSA
,fjy ,ehu
RNH2
(,fYd y
142.
,fYd y ,ehu esaukbVkst u d sby sDVkWu ;qXe foLFkkfud `r ughagksrsgSA
,ehu)
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which
both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen
to escape ?
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/8

PAGE # 57
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
gkbMkst u ,oavkWDlt hu xSl ksad sleku eksy ksd ks,d ik=k esaj[kk x;k gSA t ksfd lw{e fNnzd s}kjk iy k;u d j
ld rsgSA gkbMkst u d svk/ksiy k;u esay xsle; esavkWDlht u d k fd ruk va'k iy k;u d jsxkA?
Ans.
Sol.
(1)
(2) 1/8
(3)
(4) 3/8
(2)
Equal moles are given so partial pressure is equal (let = x)
leku eksy fn;sx;sgSblfy , vkaf'kd nkc leku gS(ekuk fd x gS)

rO2
rH2
nO2 / t
x
/t
2
nO2 / t
x
/t
2
143.
MH2
MO2
1
2
=
4
32
1
4
nO2
x
1
8
fraction of oxygen escaped =
1
.
8
iy k;u gq, vkW

Dlht u d k va'k =
1
8
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
(1) The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because
staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
(2) The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has torsional strain.
(3) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed
conformation has no torsional strain.
(4) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the
eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
,Fksu d slkarfjr ,oaxz

Lr la: i.k d h rqy uk d sfy ;slgh d Fku gS&
(1)
,Fksu d k lkarfjr la: i.k] xzLr la: i.k ls vf/kd LFkk;h gS D;ksafd lkarfjr la: i.k es
a ,saBu ruko ejks
M +h
fod `rh ughagSA

(2)
,Fksu d k lkarfjr la: i.k] xzLr la: i.k lsd e LFkk;h gSD;ksafd lkarfjr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ejksM +h fod `rh
gSA
(3)
,Fksu d k xzLr la: i.k] lkarfjr la: i.k lsvf/kd LFkk;h gSD;ksafd xzLr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ejksM +h fod `rh
ughagSA
(4)
,Fksu d k xzLr la: i.k] lkarfjr la

: i.k lsvf/kd LFkk;h gSt cfd xzLr la: i.k esa,saBu ruko ejksM +h fod `rh
gSA
Ans.
(1)

PAGE # 58
| NEET-2016
H
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Sol.
H
H
H
H
Staggered
Newmann
conformation
H
H
Eclipsed
Newmann
conformation
due to bond pair bond pair repulsion (Torsional strain) Eclipsed conformation is less stable than
staggered conformation.
H
H
H
H
H
lkarfjr U;wesu
la: i.k
H
H
xzflr U;wesu
la: i.k
cfU/kr ;qXe cfU/kr ;qXe izfrd "kZ.k(,saBu ruko) d sd kj.k xzflr la: i.k] lkarfjr la: i.k d h rqy uk esad e LFkk;h
gksrk gSA
144.
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property
indicated against it ?
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3+
2+
+
(2) Al < Mg < Na < F (increasing ionic size)

(3) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

u lk e fn;sx;sxq.k/keZd sifjorZu d svuql kj lger ughagS\
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (c<+
rh gqbZ/kkfRod
3+
(2) Al
< Mg
2+
f=kT;k)
< Na < F (c<+

rsgq;svk;fud
vkd kj)
(3) B < C < N < O (c<+

rk gqv k izFke
vk;fud ,UFkSYih)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (c<+
rh gqbZby sDVksu y fC/k ,UFkSYih)
Ans.
Sol.
(3 & 4)
Incorrect option are 3 & 4
Correct order of increasing Ist I.E B < C < O < N
correct order of increasing electron gain
Enthalpy I < Br < F < Cl (in magnitude)
Values (in KJ/mol) 296, 325, 333, 349.
vlR; fod Yi 3 & 4 gS

izFke vk;uu t kZd k lgh c<+rk e B < C < O < N
by sDV
kWu y fC/k ,UFkSYih d k lgh c<+rk e I < Br < F < Cl (d soy ifjek.k)
eku (KJ/mol esa) 296, 325, 333, 349.

PAGE # 59
| NEET-2016
145.
| 01-05-2016 |
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol
Code-C,R,Y
at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol
at 20 seconds
after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is :
,d izFke d ksfV d h vfHkf ;k d k osx vfHkf ;k izkjEHk gksusd s10 sec ckn 0.04 mol 1 s1 rFkk 20 sec ckn 0.03
mol
Ans.
Sol.
gSA bl vfHkf ;k d h v) Zvk;qd ky gS&
(1) 54.1 s
(2)
(2) 24.1 s
r2 C2
( for first order reaction) (iz

Fke
r1 C1
k=
C
r
1
1
n 2
n 2
t 2 t1
C1 t 2 t1
r1
k=
1
0.04
1
4
n
n
20 10
0.03 10
3
t1/ 2
=
(3) 34.1 s
(4) 44.1 s
d ksfV vfHkf ;k d sfy ,)
n2
n2
10
k
n4 / 3
2.3 0.3
10
2.3(0.6 0.477)
= 24.4 sec.
146.
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces :

(1) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(2) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
(3) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
(4) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO2
d kWij d kslkUnzHNO3 d slkFk xeZd jusij curk gS&
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Cu(NO3)2 rFkk N2O
(2) Cu(NO3)2 rFkk NO2
(3) Cu(NO3)2 rFkk NO
(4) Cu(NO3)2 , NO rFkk NO2
(2)
Cu + 4HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
conc
Brown gas
Cu + conc HNO3 NO2

Cu + dil HNO3 NO
147.
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by :

(1) dative bond
(2) -glycosidic bond
(3) -glycosidic bond
(4) peptide bond
izksVhu v.kqesafofHkUu ,s
ehuksvEy ,d nwl jslst qM +sjgrsgS&
(1) nkrk vkca
/k d s}kjk
(2) -Xy kbZ
d ksflfMd vkca/k d s}kjk
(3) -Xy kbZ
d ksflfMd
Ans.
vkca/k d s}kjk
(4) is
IVkbZM
vkca/k d s}kjk
(4)

PAGE # 60
| NEET-2016
R1
H2N CH C OH
| 01-05-2016 |
R2
Code-C,R,Y
+ H2 N CH C OH
O
O
amino acid
(,ehuksvEy
Sol.
R1
R2
H2N CH C NH CH COOH
O
Peptide Bond
(isIVkbM cU/k)
148.
Fog is a Colloidal solution of :

(1) Gas in gas
(2) Liquid in gas
(3) Gas in liquid
(4) Solid in gas
(3) nz
o
(4) xS
l
/kqa/k d ksy kWbMh foy ;u gS&

(1) xS
l
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Fog
esaxSl d k
(2) xS
l
esanzo d k
esaxSl d k
esaBksl d k
Dispersed phase is liquid

Dispersion medium is gas
/kqa/k
ifjf{kIr izkoLFkk nzo gSA

ifj{ksi.k ek/;e xSl gSA
149.
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Column II
Cyanide process
Froth floatation process
Electrolytic reduction
Zone refining
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Ultrapure Ge
Dressing of ZnS
Extraction of Al
Extraction of Au
Purification of Ni
Code d ks
M +:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(a)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(i)
(b)
(iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(ii)
(c)
(v)
(iii)
(i)
(iii)
(d)
(i)
(i)
(v)
(iv)

PAGE # 61
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
LrEHk I d smYy s[k d ksLrEHkII d smYy s[k lsfey k;saA lgh lad sr i) fr gS&
LrEHkI
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
LrEHkII
lkW;ukbM iz e
(i)
vfr'kq) Ge
Q su Iy ou fof/k
(ii)
ZnS d k iz
l k/ku
fo|qr vi?kVuh vip;u
(iii)
Al d k fu"d "kZ
.k
eaM y ifj"d j.k
(iv)
Au d k fu"d "kZ
.k
(v)
Ni d k 'kks
/ku
d ksM +:
(a)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(i)
(b)
(iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(ii)
(c)
(v)
(iii)
(i)
(iii)
(d)
(i)
(i)
(v)
(iv)
Ans.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
Sol.
Cyanide process Leaching process of Au

Au + 2NaCN
aq.
O2
Au(CN)2 + Na
Froth floatation process Pressing of ZnS (It is applicable for concentration of sulphide are)
Electrolytic reduction Extraction of Al
Zone refining Purification of Si, Ge
150.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Lactose
(4) Glucose
fuEu esalsd kSulh ,d xSl vipk;d 'kd Zjk gS\

(1) lq
ksl
Ans.
Sol.
(2) ekYVks
l
(3) y s
DVksl
(4) Xy q
d ksl
(1)
Sucrose is Non Reducing sugar. (both the anomeric carbon are bonded to each other than such sugars
are non reducing)
lq ksl ,d vuvipk;d 'kd Zjk gSA (nksuksa ,uksesfjd d kcZu ijLij cfU/kr gSA blfy , bl izd kj d h 'kd Zjk
vuvipk;d gksrh gSA)
151.
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is :

(1) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.
(2) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(3) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(4) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.
RNA rFkk DNA d sfy ;slgh d Fku
e'k% gS&

PAGE # 62
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(1) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl
vkSj DNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSA
(2) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA
(3) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd
jkbcksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd 2'-fMvkWDlhjkbcksl gSA

(4) RNA es
a'kd Zjk ?kVd vjSfcuksl gSvkSj DNA esa'kd Zjk ?kVd jkbcksl gSA
Ans.
Sol.
152.
(3)
DNA
RNA
De-oxy Ribose sugar
Ribose Sugar
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is :
(1) H < 0 and S < 0
(2) H < 0 and S = 0
(3) H > 0 and S < 0
(4) H < 0 and S > 0
lHkh rki ij Lor% vfHkf ;k d sfy , lgh "ekxfrd h; 'krsZgS&

(1) H < 0 rFkk S < 0
(2) H < 0 rFkkS = 0
(3) H > 0 rFkkS < 0
(4) H < 0 rFkkS > 0
Ans.
(4)
Sol.
G = H TS
For spontaneous process (G = -Ve) at all temperature, H < 0 & S > 0.
lHkh rki ij Lor% iz e d sfy, (G = -Ve), H < 0 & S > 0.

153.
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

(1) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
(2) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(3) Both are diprotic acids.
(4) Both are triprotic acids

ulk d Fku fn;sx;svEy ks
ad sfy ;slgh gSa\
(1) Q kW
fLQ fud
vEy f}izksVh vEy gSt cfd Q kWLQ ksfud vEy ,d izksVh vEy gSA
(2) Q kW
fLQ fud
vEy ,d izksVh vEy gSt cfd Q kWLQ ksfud vEy f}izksVh vEy gSA
(3) nks
ukasf}izksv h vEy gSA
(4) nks
uksaf=kizksVh vEy
gSA
Ans.
(2)
Sol.
Phosphoric acid (Phosphonic acid) H3PO3 (dibasic)

PAGE # 63
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
O
Code-C,R,Y
P
H OH OH
Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid) H3PO2 (monobasic)
O
P
H
154.
OH
13
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 x 10 at room temperature,
which statements would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
(1) The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
(2) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical.
(3) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3.
(4) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
MY
,oaNY3, nksy xHkx vfoy s; y o.kksad k d ejsd srki ij Ksp d k eku 6.2 x 1013 ,d leku gSA fuEu esals
d kSulk d Fku MY ,oaNY3 d slanHkZesalR; gS\

(1) KY y o.k d ksMY ,oaNY3 d sfoy ;u es
aMky usij bud h foy s;rk ij d ksbZiz
Hkko ughaiM+rk gSA
(2) MY ,oaNY3 d h t y
(3) MY d h t y
esaeksy j foy s;rk leku gSA
esaeksy j foy s;rk NY3 lsd e gSA
(4) MY ,oa NY3 d sy o.k 'kq

)
Ans.
(3)
Sol.
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 10
13
t y d h rqy uk esa0.5 M KY esaT;knk foy s; gSA
= 62 10
14
S1 = 7.9 107 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water

MY3 KSP = 27 S24 = 6.2 1013 = 62 1014
~ 103.5 mole/lt = Solubility in pure water
S2 _
rd
Solubility of NY3 > solubility of MY so 3 statement is true

Addition of KY will decrease the solubility due to common ion effect.
Sol.
MY KSP = S12 = 6.2 10
13
= 62 10
S1 = 7.9 107 eks

y /y hVj = 'kq)
MY3 KSP = 27
S24
= 6.2 10
~ 103.5 eks
S2 _
y /y hVj = 'kq)
13
14
t y esafoy s;rk
t y es
afoy s;rk
NY3 d h foy s
;rk > MY d h foy s;rk blfy ,
KY fey kusij
155.
14
= 62 10
rhljk d Fku lR; gSA
levk;u izHkko d sd kj.k foy s

;rk ?kVrh gSA
Which of the following in an analgesic?

PAGE # 64
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
(1) Chloromycetin
(2) Novalgin
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptomycin
fuEu esalsd kSulh nok ,d ihMkgkjh gS\

(1) Dy ks
jksekblhfVu
(2) uks
oy ft u
(3) is
fuflfy u
(4) LV
sIVksekbflu
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
Novalgin is an analgesic it is a fact.
156.
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C C , is present in which of the following orbitals?
fn;sx;sd kcZ& _ .kk;u CH3C C , d s;qXe by sDVkWu fuEu esalsfd l d {kd esamifLFkr gS\
Ans.
(1) sp
(2) 2p
3
(3) sp
2
(4) sp
(1)
Sol.
CH3CC
sp hybridisation
Steric Number (1 + 1vecharge)
sp
CH3CC
sp lad j.k
f=kfoe la[;k (1 + 1_ .kkos'k)

157.
sp
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is :
fuEu esalsvEy rk d k lgh e gS&
Ans.
Sol.
(1) HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3

(2) HCIO3 < HCIO4 < HCIO2 < HCIO
(3) HCIO < HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO4
(4) HCIO2 < HCIO < HCIO3 < HCIO4
(3)
As oxidation number of central atom increases, acidic nature increases.
d sUnzh; ijek.kqd h vkWDlhd j.k la[;k c<+usij vEy h; izd `fr c<+rh gSA
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

PAGE # 65
158.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
solution?
(1) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
(2) The solution turns blue
(3) The solution is decolourized.
(4) SO2 is reduced.

ulk d Fku lR; gS] t c SO2 d ksvEy h; K2Cr2O7 d sfoy ;u esalsikl fd ;k t krk gS\
(1) gjkCr2(SO4)3 curk gS
A
(2) foy ;u
uhy k iM+t krk gSA
(3) foy ;u
jaxghu gkst krk gSA

(4) SO2 vipfr; gks
rk gSA
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
K2Cr2O7
Cr2(SO4)3 green solution obtain where as SO2 oxidise into sulphate SO2
4
K2Cr2O7
Cr2(SO4)3 gjk foy ;u
izkIr gks
rk gSt gkSO2 d k SO2
avkWDlhd j.k gkst krk gSA
4 es
(K2Cr2O7 + SO2 + H2SO4

Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + K2SO4)
159.
Predict the correct order among the following :

(1) Ione pair bond pair > bond pair bond pair > lone pair lone pair
(2) lone pair lone pair > lone pair bond pair > bond pair bond pair
(3) lone pair lone pair > bond pair bond pair > lone pair bond pair
(4) bond pair bond pair > lone pair bond pair > lone pair lone pair
fuEu esalslgh e gksxk &

(1) ,d kd h ;q
Xe vkca/kh ;qXe > vkca/kh ;qXe vkca/kh ;qXe > ,d kd h ;qXe ,d kd h ;qXe
(2) ,d kd h ;q
Xe ,d kd h ;qXe > ,d kd h ;qXe vkca/kh ;qXe >
vkca/kh ;qXe vkca

/kh ;qXe
(3) ,d kd h ;q
Xe ,d kd h ;qXe > vkca/kh ;qXe vkca/kh ;qXe > ,d kd h ;qXe vkca
/kh ;qXe
(4) vkca
/kh ;qXe vkca/kh ;qXe > ,d kd h ;qXe vkca/kh ;qXe > ,d kd h ;qXe ,d kd h ;qXe
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
The order of repulsion force according to VSEPR theory :
VSEPR fl) kUr
d svuql kj izfrd "kZ.k cy d k e gS:
lone pair lone pair > lone pair bond pair > bond pair bond pair
160.
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

(1) Spin quantum number
(2) Principal quantum number
(3) Magnetic quantum number
(4) Azimuthal quantum number
nksby sDVkWu t ksfd ,d gh d {kd esagSA buesavUrj fd ld s}kjk fd ;k t k ld rk gS\

(1) iz
p .k DokaVe
la[;k
(3) pq
Ecd h; DokaVe la
[;k
Ans.
(2) eq
[;
DokaVe la[;k
(4) fnxa
'kh; DokaVe la[;k
(1)

PAGE # 66
Sol.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
Same orbital can have two different values of spin of e of + and (spin quantum number)
leku d {kd esaby sDVkWu d sp .k d sfy , nksfHkUu eku gksld rsgSA (+ rFkk ) (p .k Dok.Ve la[;k)
161.
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is :
ukbVkst u d h CaC2 d slkFk vfHkf ;k d sizkIr mRikn gS&
Ans.
Sol.
(1) Ca2CN
(2) Ca(CN)2
(3) CaCN
(4) CaCN3
(Bonus)
Reaction of CaC2 and nitrogen at 1100C form nitrolim (calcium cyanamide and carbon mixture).
CaC2 + N2 CaCN2 + C
(No answer in matching)
CaC2 rFkk ukbV
kWt u
d h vfHkf ;k 1100C ij gksuslsukbVkWfy e d k fuekZ.k gksrk gSA (calcium cyanamide and
carbon mixture).
CaC2 + N2 CaCN2 + C
(No answer in matching)
162.
Natural rubber has :

(1) Random cis and transconfiguration
(2) All cisconfiguration
(3) All transconfiguration
(4) Alternate cis and transconfiguration
izkd `frd jcj esa&

(1) vfu;fer
fll~& ,oaVkal &foU;kl gSA

(2) lHkh fll~
& foU;kl gSA
(3) lHkh V
kUl&foU;kl
gSA
(4) ,d kUrj fll~
& ,oaVkal &foU;kl gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
It is fact
163.
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
Ans.
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(3) CI2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(3)
Sol.
Bond dissociation enthalpy (cU/k fo;ks

tu
,UFkSYih)
CI2
242.6
>

u e gSy kst u v.kqv ksad h vkca/k fo;kst u ,UFkSYih d sfy ;slgh gS\
>
Br2
192.8
(2) I2 > Br2 > CI2 > F2

(4) Br2 > I2 > F2 > CI2
>
F2
158.8
I2
151.1
(kJ/mole)

PAGE # 67
164.
| NEET-2016
The reaction :
OH
| 01-05-2016 |
NaH
Code-C,R,Y
Me
MeI
Na
can be classified as :
(1) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
(3) Alcohol formation reaction
(2) Williamson ether synthesis reaction

(4) Dehydration reaction
vfHkf ;k &
OH
Ans.
NaH
Me
MeI
Na
d ksoxhZd `r fd ;k t k ld rk gS&
(1) fofy ;Elu ,Yd ks
gy la'y s"k.k vfHkf ;k
(2) fofy ;Elu
(3) ,Yd ks
gy
(4) fut Z
y hd j.k vfHkf ;k
fojpu vfHkf ;k
bZFkj la'y s
"k.k vfHkf ;k
(2)
Sol.
OH + NaH
acid-ase
Reaction
2
SN
Na
CH3I
OCH3
This williamson ether synthesis
165.
Lithium has bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol . Calculate the
23
1
edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02 10 mol )
fy fFk;e d hbbc lajpuk gSA bld k ?kuRo 530 kg m3 rFkk ijek.kqnzO;eku 6.94 g mol1 gSA fy fFk;e /kkrqd s,d d
d ksf"Bd k d sd ksj d h y EckbZgSA (NA = 6.02 1023 mol1)
Ans.
(1) 264 pm
(3)
Sol.
d=
ZA
NA a3
3
530 kg/m
(2) 154 pm
for BCC
(3) 352 pm
(4) 527 pm
Z=2
2 6.94 10 3
6.02 1023 a3
a3 = 43.50 1030
a = 3.52 1010 m
= 352 pm.

PAGE # 68
166.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
+
10
10
The ionic radii of A and B ions are 0.98 10 m and 1.81 10 m. The coordination number of
each ion in AB is
+
,oaB vk;uksad h vk;fud f=kT;k, e'k%0.98 1010 m ,oa1.81 1010 m gSA AB esaizR;sd vk;u d h
milgla;kst u la[;k gSA

Ans.
Sol.
(1) 2
(2)
rA
rB
(2) 6
0.98 10 10
1.81 10 10
(3) 4
(4) 8
= 0.54
Octahedral range (v"VQ y d h;
lhek) 0.414
r
< 0.732
r
Co-ordination no. of each ion is 6 like NaCl structure.
izR;sd vk;u d h leUo; la[;k NaCl lajpuk d sleku N% gSA

167.
At 100 C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52,
the boiling point of this solution will be :
,d 6.5 g foy s; d k 100 g t y esafoy ;u d k 100 C ij ok"Ik nkc 732 mm gSA ;fn Kb = 0.52 rksbl foy ;u
d k DoFkukad gksxk %
Ans.
Sol.
(1) 103 C
(2) 101 C
(2)
At B.P. P0 = 760 torr
for elevation of B.P.
DoFkukad fcUnqij
DoFkukad mUu;u d sfy ,
(3) 100 C
P0 = 760 torr
6.5
32
TB = I Kbm = 1 0.52
1000 = 1
100
P0 Ps
WA / MA
=
Ps
WB / MB
168.
(4) 102 C
760 732
6.5 / M
=
732
100 /18
=1
On solving M = 32.
So B.P. = 100 + TB = 101C
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63) Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are :
7
2
7
1
2
9
2
(1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 6s
7
2
8
2
8
1
2
(2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
6
1
2
7
1
2
9
1
2
(3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
6
1
2
7
1
2
8
1
2
(4) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s and [Xe]4f 5d 6s
Eu (i-l-63) Gd (i-l-64) vkS
j Tb (i-l-65) d sby sDVksfud
7
(1) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s

(2) [Xe]4f 6s , [Xe]4f 6s
6
foU;kl gS%
vkSj [Xe]4f 6s
vkSj [Xe]4f8 5d16s2

1
vkSj [Xe]4f9 5d16s2

(4) [Xe]4f6 5d16s2, [Xe]4f7 5d16s2 vkS
j [Xe]4f8 5d16s2
(3) [Xe]4f 5d 6s , [Xe]4f 5d 6s

Ans.
(1)

PAGE # 69
| NEET-2016
Sol.
63Eu [Xe] 4f 6s
64Gd
65Tb
169.
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
[Xe] 4f 5d 6s
[Xe] 4f 5d 6s
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

(1) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
(2) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
(3) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
+
(4) Hydronium ion, H3O exists freely in solution.

u lk d Fku gkbMkst u d sfy , v lR; gS\
(1) Mkbgkb
kst u
vipk;d d s: i esad k;Zughad jrk gSA

(2) gkbM
kst u d srhu leLFkkfud gSft lesalsVkbfV;e izp qjrk esagSA
(3) gkbM
kst u
vk;fud y o.kksaes
a/kuk;u d h rjg O;ogkj ughad jrk gSA
+
(4) gkbM
ksfu;e vk;u, H3O d k vfLrRo foy ;u esaeqDr : i esagksrk gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(1 & 2)
1 and 2 option are incorrect
Correct Dihydrogen act as reducing agent for eg 3H2 + N2
2NH3
1
Correct Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium (1H ) is the most common.
1 rFkk 2 fod Yi
vlR; gSA
Correct MkbgkbM
kst u
vipk;d d sleku O;ogkj d jrk gSA eg 3H2 + N2 2NH3

Correct gkbM
kst u d srhu leLFkkfud gksrsgSA ft lesaizksVh;e (1H1) lokZf/kd izp fy r gSA
170.
In the reaction
(1)NaNH / liq.NH
(1)NaNH / liq.NH
2
3
2
3
HCCH
x
y
(2) CH CH Br
(2) CH CH Br
2
X and Y are :
(1) X = 1-Butyne ; y = 2-Hexyne
(4) X = 2-Butyne ; 2 = 2-Hexyne
vfHkf ;k esa
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH3
(1)NaNH2 / liq.NH3
HCCH
x
y
(2) CH CH Br
(2) CH CH Br
3
X vkS
j Y gS:
(1) X = 1-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 2-
gs
Dlkbu
(2) X = 1-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu
(3) X = 2-C;w
Vkbu ; y = 3-gsDlkbu
(4) X = 2-C;w
Vkbu ; 2 = 2-gsDlkbu
Ans.
(2)

PAGE # 70
| NEET-2016
Sol.
HCCH
NaNH2 / NH3
NH3
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
HCC Na+CH3CH2Br
S N2
NaNH2 / NH3 (a)
CH3CH2CC
CH3CH2CCH
1-Butyne
SCH3CH2Br
CH3CH2CCCH2CH3 Hex-3-yne
171.
Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium.
Liquid
Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ?
(1)
dlnP Hv
dT
RT 2
(2)
Hv
dlnG
dT 2
RT 2
RT 2
(3)
dlnP Hv
dT
RT
(4)
(3)
dlnP Hv
dT
RT
(4)
dlnP
dT 2
Hv
T2
uhpsfn;sx;snzo & ok"i lkE;koLFkk]
nzo
ok"i
esalsd kSu lk lacU/k lgh gS\
(1)
dlnP Hv
dT
RT 2
(2)
Hv
dlnG
dT 2
Ans.
(1)
Sol.
The variation of vapour pressure and temperature is nP =

on differentiate
dT 2
Hv
T2
H
+ constant
RT
d(nP)
H
=+
+0
dT
RT 2
ok"inkc d k rki d slkFk ifjorZ

u n P =
on differentiate
dlnP
H
+ constant
RT
d(nP)
H
=+
+0
dT
RT 2
d( nP)
H
=
dT
RT 2
172.
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25C. (Given,
Vapour Pressure Data at 25C, Benzene = 12.8kPa, toluene = 3.85kPa)
(1) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
(2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(3) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
(4) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.

PAGE # 71
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
csUt hu ,oaVkWy wbZu d s1 : 1 vkn'kZeksy j feJ.k d sok"i la;kst u d sfy ;sfuEufy f[kr esalsd kSu lk d Fku lR; gS\
d Yiuk d jsafd rkieku 25C ij fLFkj gSA (fn;sx;sok"i nkc 25C csUt hu = 12.8kPa, VkWy wbZu = 3.85kPa)
(1) vi;kZ
Ir
lwp ukvksad sd kj.k d ksbZiwokZuqeku ughay xk;k t k ld rk gSA

(2) ok"i es
acsUt hu d h vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh
(3) ok"i
esaVkWy wbZu d h vf/kd izfr'krrk gksxh

(4) ok"i es
aleku ek=kk esacsUt hu ,oaVkWy wbZu gksxhA
Ans.
Sol.
(2)
Due to high partial vapour pressure of Benzene as compare to that of toluene so the mole fraction of
Benzene will be higher than that of toluene. As a result the vapour will contain a higher percentage of
Benzene.
csat hu d smPp vkaf'kd ok"i nkc d sd kj.k bld k eksy fHkUu vf/kd gksrk gSA blfy , ok"i esacs
at hu d h izfr'krrk
vf/kd gksxhA
173.
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active
fuEu esalsd kSu lk ckbZfQ uk;y izd kf'kd lf ; gS\

O 2N
CH3
(1)
(2)
CH3
Br Br
(3)
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
I
I
I
(3)
O-substituted biphenyls are optically active as both the rings are not in one plane hence their mirror
mages are non-super imposable.
vkWFkksZizfrLFkkfi ckbZfQ ukbZy esanksuksfjax ,d ry esaugh gSvr% blesaizd kf'k; leko;ork gSA
174.
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2- diol from the trans-isomer ?
(1) Aluminium isopropoxide
(2) Acetone
(3) Ozone
(4) MnO2
fuEu esalsd kSu lk vfHkd eZd fll~& lkbDy ksisUVk-1,2-MkbZv kWy ,oabld sVkal leko;oh esaHksn d jsxk \
(1) ,s
Y;qfefu;e
vkblksizksiksDlkbM
(2) ,s
l hVksu
(3) vks
t ksu
Ans.
(4) MnO2
(2)
OH
O=C
Sol.
OH
CH3
CH3
O
C
O
CH3
CH3

PAGE # 72
175.
| NEET-2016 | 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is :
(1) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
corresponding enol and this processes is known as keto-enol tautomerism .
(2) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.
corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
corresponding enol and this process is known a carbonylation.
d kcksZfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMkst u mifLFkr gS] d sfy , lgh d Fku gS%
(1) d kcks
Zfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMkst u ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g bud s vuq: i bZukWy esa vklkuh ls
lkE;koLFkk esagksrsgSavkSj ;g iz e fd Vks& bZukW
y py ko;ork d gy krhgS
A
(2) d kcks
Zfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa d kcZu ij gkbMkst u ijek.kq mifLFkr gS] ;g bud s vuq: i bZukWy ls d Hkh Hkh
lkE;koLFkk esaughagksrsgSA
(3)
d kcksZfuy ;kS
fxd d kcZu ij gkbMkst u ijek.kqmifLFkr gS] ;g bud svuq: i bZukWy esavklkuh lslkE;koLFkk es
gksrsgSvkSj ;g iz e ,sfYMgkbM&d hVksu lkE;koLFkk d gy krk gS

A
(4) d kcks
Zfuy ;kSfxd ft uesa-d kcZu gkbMkst u ijek.kqmifLFkr gS] ;g bud svuq: i bZukWy lsvklkuh lslkE;koLFkk
esagksrsgSvkSj ;g iz e d kcksZfuy hd j.k d gy krk gSA
Ans.
Sol.
(1)
It is known that basic need for the existance of Keto-enol tautomers is the presence of at least one
3
hydrogen atom at adjacent sp carbon of carbonyl carbon.
d hVksbZukWy leko;ork d sfy , d kcksZfuy sp3 d kcZu ij d e lsd e ,d gkbMkst u d h mifLFkfr vko';d gSA
176.
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statement is false ?
(1) The HCH bond angle is CH4 is larger than the HNH bond angle is NH3
(2) The HCH bond angle is CH4 the HNH bond angle in NH3 and the HOH bond angle in H2O are
all greater than 90.
(3) Then HOH bond angle in H2O is larger than the HCH bond angle in CH4
(4) The HOH bond angle in H2O is smaller than the HNH bond angle in NH3
CH4, NH3 vkS
j H2O v.kqv ksad sfy ;suhpsfn;sx;sd Fkuksaesalsd kSu
lk v l R; gS\
es
aHCH vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaHNH vkca/k d ks.k lsvf/kd gSA
(2) CH4 es
aHCH vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaHNH vkca/k d ks.k rFkk H2O esaHOH vkca/k d ks.k] lHkh esa90 ls
(1) CH4
vf/kd gSA
Ans.
(3) H2O
esaHOH vkca/k d ks.k] CH4 esaHCH vkca/k d ks.k lsvf/kd gSa
(4) H2O
esaHOH vkca/k d ks.k] NH3 esaHNH vkca/k&d ks.k lsd e gSA
(3)

PAGE # 73
| NEET-2016
Sol.
CH4
sp
177.
sp
H2O
sp
Code-C,R,Y
Bond angle = 109 281

H
NH3
| 01-05-2016 |
H
Bond angle = 107

Bond angle = 104 5
Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark
the correct option.
Column-I
Column-II
(a)
XeF6
(i)
distorted octahedral
(b)
XeO3
(ii)
square planar
(c)
XeOF4
(iii)
pyramidal
(d)
XeF4
(iv)
square pyramidal
Code :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(4)
(iv)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
LrEHk esaI esafn;sx;s;kSfxd ksad ksmud slad j.k ,oavkd kj t ksfd LReHk II esafn;sx;s gSad ksfey k;srFkk lgh
fod Yi d ksfpfUgr d hft ,A
LrEHk-I
LrEHk II
(a)
XeF6
(i)
fo r v"VQ y d h;
(b)
XeO3
(ii)
oxZlery h
(c)
XeOF4
(iii)
fijkfeMh
(d)
XeF4
(iv)
oxZfijkfeMh
d ksM :
Ans.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(iv)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
(iii)
(4)
(2)
(iv)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)

PAGE # 74
| NEET-2016
Sol.
3 3
XeF6
sp d
| 01-05-2016 |
distorted octahedral fod `
r
Code-C,R,Y
v"VQ y d h;
Xe
F
F
F
XeO3
sp
pyramidal fijkfeMh;
Xe
O
O
O
XeF4
F
3 2
square pyramidal
3 2
square planar oxZlery h;
sp d
oxZfijkfeMh;
Xe
F
O
XeF4
F
sp d
Xe
F
178.
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3 . If a larger amount of KHSO4 is
added to the mixture the rate of nitration will be :
(1) doubled
(2) faster
(3) slower
(4) unchanged
csUt hu d k ukbVhd j.k laknzH2SO4 ,oaHNO3 d h mifLFkfr esagksjgk gSA ;fn bl feJ.k esaT;knk ek=kk esaKHSO4
Mky rsgSrksukbVhd j.k d k osx gks
xk%
(1) nq
xquk
(2) rs
t
Ans.
Sol.
(3) /khjs
(4) vifjofrZ
r
(3)
If large amount of KHSO4 is added, Concentration of NO2+ will decrease and hence the rate of nitration
will be slower.
;fn KHSO4 d ksvf/kd ek=kk esafey k;k t krk gSrksNO2+ d h lkUnzrk ?kVrh gSft llsukbfVd j.k d h nj /kheh gks
t krh gSA
179.
Which of the following statement is false ?

2+
(1) Mg ions are important in the green parts of plants.
2+
(2) Mg ions from a complex with ATP.
2+
(3) Ca ions are important in blood clotting.
(4) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.

PAGE # 75
| NEET-2016
| 01-05-2016 |
Code-C,R,Y

u lk d Fku vlR; gS\
2+
(1) Mg vk;u ikS
/kks
ad sgfjr Hkkxksad sfy ;segRoiw.kZgSA
2+
vk;u ,-Vh-ih- d slkFk ld qy cukrsgSA

(3) Ca vk;u jDr d kst ekusd sfy ;segRoiw
.kZgSA
(2) Mg
2+
(4) Ca2+ vk;u

Ans.
Sol.
(4)
+2
Ca are important in blood clotting and are also important in maintaining the regular beating of the
heart.
2+
Ca
180.
n; xfr d ksfu;fer j[kusesegRoiw.kZughagSA
vk;u jDr d kst ekusd sfy ;srFkk n; xfr d ksfu;fer j[kusesHkh egRoiw.kZgSA
Which of the following has longest CO bond length ? (Free CO bond length in CO is 1.128)
fuEufy f[kr esalsfd ld h CO vkca/k y EckbZvf/kd re gS\ (eqDr CO vkca/k y EckbZCO esa1.128 gSA)
+
Ans.
Sol.
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
(4)
Fe
C
O
(2) Ni(CO)4
(3) [Co(CO)4]
(4) [Fe(CO)4]
Due to back bonding between metal-carbon bond length of CO increase (B.O of MC B.O of C
CB.L. of CO ) Higher is negative charge on metal, higher is back bonding (synergic effect) so bond
2
length is higher so answer is [Fe(CO)4]
Fe
i'p vkcU/ku d sd kj.k /kkrqd kcZu cU/k y EckbZc<+rh gS(B.O of MC B.O of CCB.L. of CO ) /kkrqij
ft ruk vf/kd _ .kkos'k gksxk mruk vf/kd i'p vkcU/ku gksxkA blfy , cU/k y EckbZHkh vf/kd gks
xhA

PAGE # 76
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Academic Session: 2016-17
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Direct Scholarship in Course Fee

40% to GIRLS & 30% to BOYS Students*
ZFP Would be applicable for
Benefits of SANJEEVANI
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Course Name
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NEET - 2016

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mkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrd k d svUnj j[kk gSA t c vkid ks

bl iqfLrd k d k lad sr gSC A ;g lqfuf'pr d j ysafd bl

mkj i=k ij fd lh izd kj d sla'kks/ku gsrqOgkbV +y wbM d s

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ijh{kkFkhZizl ad j.k esa] ft lesaF1 f}lad j efD[k;k'kkfey Fkha] iqu;ksZ

lsvf/kd t huksa}kjk gksrk gSA

nksvy x xq.klw=kksaij fLFkr gSaA

xq.klw=k i`Fkd ughagksik,A

Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

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,fV;y usfV;wjsfVd d kjd

increases blood Ca level

decreases blood glucose level

causes pelvic musculature relaxation

Mitochondria and chloroplast are :

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ekbVksd kWf.M;k vkSj Dy ksjksIy kLV gfjry od gSa%

(2) (a) vkS

lgh gSy sfd u (a) xy r gS

(4) (a) lgh gSy s

Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?

fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS

(4) LFkkukUrj.k ;ks

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Q kLQ ksfjy s'ku

vkSj vp h; by sDVkWu vfHkxeu

vkSj p h; by sDVkWu vfHkxeu

d kSu&lk rd viuh fLFkfr lslgh&lgh lqesfy r gS\

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t Uenj d h vis{kk e`R;qnj vf/kd gksA

d h /kkfjrk {kerk d slehi gksA

Which one of the following statements is not true ?

fuEufy f[kr esalsd kS

ukbVkst u esaHk.Mkfjr ijkxd .k] Q ly izt uu ;kst ukvksaesaiz;qDr fd ;st k ld rsgSa

esaVsihVe lgk;rk d jrk gS

lh t kfr;ksad sijkxd .k xEHkhj izR;wt Zrk iS

Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

fuEufy f[kr esalsd kSulk d Fku xy r gS\

d ks'kSofy r d od Hkh d gk t krk gSA

gfjr 'kSoky Hkh d grsgSaA

'kSoky ksad ksMs

t hok.kqHkh d gk t krk gSA

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The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

fuEufy f[kr lajpukvksaesalsd kSulh lajpuk i{kh d sia[k d slet kr gS

Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is :

Q qQ ql /keuh d sHkhrj : f/kj nkc gksrk gS%