BMES_Chuang CY

2009 MidtermIntroduction to Life Science

I. Q&A (70%)
1.(1) Assume a new allele, called q, arises by a mutation in the Q gene. A gamete that acquires the
mutant q allele dies. Will this allele show up in the next generation? Illustrate your answer with
a Punnett square. (5%)
(2) What are the possible blood types of a woman with type A blood mated with a type AB male?
(5%)
Ans: (1) If one assumes that the mutation arose in just one gamete (while all of the others carried the Q
allele) and that that gamete dies before fertilization, the q allele will not appear in the next generation, since
all of the other gametes carry the Q allele. If every gamete acquiring the q allele dies, it would obviously not
appear in any of the offspring in the next generation. On the other hand, if the mutation occurred early in the
development of the organism in question, the q allele could appear in the next generation. This would require
that the mutation is present in the cells of this organism that give rise to the gametes. If this has happened, a
significant proportion of the organism's gametes would carry the q allele and the death of one would not
preclude the appearance of the q allele in the next generation. As long as one or more than one of the sperm
carrying the mutant q allele fused with an egg to form a zygote, the q allele would appear in the next
generation.

A gamete that acquires Qq, q q dies:

Q

QQ

QQ

Qq

Qq

Qq

Qq

Qq

Qq

If every gamete acquiring the q allele dies, it would obviously not appear in any of the offspring in the next
generation.

Ans: (2) A, B, AB
Women blood type:
IA I
Possible blood type
A, B, AB

Women blood type:

IAIA
Possible blood type
A, AB

IA

IB

IA

IAIA

IA IB

IAI

IB I

IA

IB

IA

IAIA

IA IB

IA

IAIA

IA IB

2. In order for an organism to successfully colonize a new territory, what three opportunities must be
realized? (5%)
Ans: In order for an organism to move into a new territory there must be
1) geographic opportunity (barriers to be overcome can not be too great),
2) physiologic opportunity (conditions in the new territory must be tolerable)
3) ecologic opportunity (competition between the new arrivals and species already present must not be
too great)

3. List two extracellular organelles responsible for cell movement. How are they similar and
different? (5%)
Ans: Cilia and flagellae are responsible for cell movement. In cross section, cilia and flagellae are
structurally identical. The organization of the microtubules of which they are composed is essentially
identical. The major difference in their structure is that cilia are generally shorter and much more
numerous. While a cell will have at most only a couple of the longer flagellae, the shorter cilia often
cover the whole cell surface or significant portions of the surface. Flagellae achieve cell motion by
pushing against the medium in which the cell finds itself, thus propelling the cell forward. Cilia beat
back and forth in unison and produce motion. They can be seen beating in waves across the cell
surface and look much like a breeze blowing across a field of wheat.
4. Whats the similar and different between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells? (10%)
Ans: Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are surrounded by a plasma membrane, although these membranes are
somewhat different. Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes use DNA as their genetic material. Both eukaryotes
and prokaryotes carry out essentially the same metabolic processes with some specific differences. The major
difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles like a
nucleus or a mitochondrion. Prokaryotes also have less DNA than eukaryotes and that DNA tends to be
complexed with many fewer proteins than eukaryotic DNA; it is referred to as naked or nearly naked DNA.
Furthermore, DNA in eukaryotes is linear, while that in prokaryotes is circular. Prokaryotic ribosomes are
smaller than those of eukaryotes. The cell walls of prokaryotes perform essentially the same functions as the
cell walls of eukaryotes that have them, but are composed of fundamentally different substances. Eukaryotes
exhibit much more diverse modes of locomotion than do prokaryotes as well.

5. Brief description the steps of mitosis and meiosis. What is the purpose of mitosis and meiosis,
respectively? Whats difference? (10%)
Ans:
The step of mitosis:
1. Early prophase, the duplicated chromosomes begin to condense. Each chromosome consists of two sister
chromatids joined at the centromere.
2. Late prophase, chromosomes continue to condense. New microtubules assemble and move one of the
centriole pairs to the opposite side of the cell. The nuclear envelope begins to break up.
3. Prometaphase, the nuclear envelope breaks up completely. Microtubules penetrate the nuclear area and
form the spindle apparatus. Money spindle microtubules become attached to the sis chromatids of each
chromosome.
4. Metaphase, the two-way pulling of microtubules from both poles drags the chromosomes to the spindle
equator. At this stage of mitosis, they are at their most condensed form.
5. Anaphase, the sister chromatids of each chromosome separate from each other and move to opposite
poles.

BMES_Chuang CY
6. Telophase, the chromosomes decondense and patches of new membrane fuse to form two nuclear
membranes. Mitosis in now complete.
7. Interphase, the chromosomes will be duplicated in preparation for the nest round of mitosis.
The step of meiosis:
1. Prophase I, duplicated chromosomes condense and pair with their homologues. Nonsister chromatids in
the homologous pairs exchange segments by the process called crossing over.
2. Metaphase I, the chromosomes are pushed and pulled by microtubles attached to their kinetochores. The
homologous chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator. One homologue faces one pole and the
other homologue faces the opposite pole.
3. Anaphase I, each chromosome is pulled away from its homologous partner. The homologous partners
are moved to opposite poles.
4. Telophase I, the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and nuclear envelopes form around each set.
There are now two haploid nuclei; each contains one duplicated chromosome of each type. Cytoplasmid
division generally follows telophase.
5. Prophase II, spindle fibers attach to the duplicated chromosomes and begin moving them to the spindle
equator.
6. Metaphase II, chromosomes align at the spindle equator with one chromatid facing one pole and the
other chromated facing the opposite pole.
7. Anaphase II, the chromatids separate and now are called chromosomes. The chromosomes are pulled
toward the two poles.
8. Telophase II, the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and the cytoplasm divides. There are now four
haploid cells.

The purpose and difference of mitosis and meiosis:

Mitosis is the division of a haploid (n) or diploid (2n) cell into two duplicate daughter cells. In a strict
definition, mitosis (karyokinesis) refers to the division of a nucleus into two duplicate nuclei, each with
identical sets of chromosomes. Cytoplasmic division or cytokinesis involves a cleavage furrow in animal
cells and a cell plate in plant cells.
Meiosis is a special kind of cell division in which the chromosome number is reduced in half. This is how
the chromosome number in a life cycle changes from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). In humans, the only cells
that undergo meiosis are egg mother cells (oocytes) in the ovaries and sperm mother cells (spermatocytes) in
the testes. Egg formation and sperm formation are referred to as oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

6. Whats the Griffiths experiment to prove? Brief description the step and the mean of this
experiment. (5%)

Ans: Griffiths experiments proving that a nonvirulent form of bacteria (the R-form) can be
converted to a virulent form (the S-form) by a transforming agent.
The step of experiment:
Live S-form bacteria are injected into a mouse. The virulent S form kills the mouse.
Liver R-form bacteria are injected into a mouse. The mouses immune system conquers the
bacteria and the mouse survives.
S-form pneumococcus are killed with heat. Heat-killed S-form bacteria are injected into a mouse.
The dead S form is harmless.
Live R-form and heat-killed S-form bacteria are combined. Mixture containing both live R-form
and heat-killed S-form bacteria is injected into a mouse, The R-form bacteria have acquired an
agent from the dead S form; the muse dies.

7. What would happen if the different tRNAs in cells could bind to just any amino acid? How does
the specificity of tRNA for particular amino acids maintain the integrity of the genetic information?
(5%)
Ans: If the different tRNAs in cells could bind to just any amino acid, the specificity required of
tRNAs and their attached amino acids would be compromised. Very few proteins would possess the
correct primary structure and they would thus not function properly. The specificity of tRNAs for
particular amino acids assures that the amino acid corresponding to the anticodon (codon) will be
placed only in those positions within a growing protein where it belongs. It is this rigid
correspondence between the anticodon and the attached amino acid that maintains the integrity of the
genetic information.

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8. Prokaryotes regulate both induction and repression by positive and negative control mechanisms,
which involve regulator genes. Explain what this statement means, being sure to define all the
italicized word and phrases. (5%)
Ans: Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that have no membrane-bounded nucleus or organelles.
The most familiar prokaryotes are the bacteria. These organisms turn genes on (induction) or off
(repression) in response to the presence or absence of various substrates (food sources). These
inducible or repressible genes encode enzymes that metabolize the substrates, with certain enzymes
needed for the metabolism of certain substrates. In positive control mechanism, the products of
regulator genes-genes that code for products that control other genes-turn on genes that code for
enzymes. In negative control mechanism, the products of regulator genes turn off genes that code for
enzymes.
9. DNA Template strand: 5-GAGCGAAAT-3
(1) Please write down the sequence of anti-sense strand, anti-codon strand, mRNA and peptide
chain encoded from mRNA for this DNA template strand.
(6%)
(A) anti-sense strand of DNA: 5-GAGCGAAAT-3
(B) anti-codon strand of tRNA: 5-GAGCGAAAU-3
(C) mRNA: 5-AUUUCGCUC-3
(D) peptide chain: Ile-Ser-Leu
(2) What are Chargaffs ratios? Why were they important
in discovering the structure of DNA? (4%)
Ans: Erwin Chargaff found that regardless of the source of a
DNA sample, the relative amounts of the four bases
conformed to a rule. The rule was that the amount of adenine
in a DNA sample always equaled the amount of thymine and that the amount of cytosine always
equaled the amount of guanine. He also observed that the amount of A+T together is independent of
the amount of C+G and that while the A+T/G+C ratio was the same for all of the tissues in a
particular species, it varied from species to species. An understanding of these rules, especially the
pairing relationship, helped Watson and Crick to figure out DNA structure and convinced them of its
correctness. The model that they built was built to be compatible with the pairing rules and included
two polynucleotide chains that were complementary to each other in a way that reflected Chargaff's
pairing rules. They realized that this complementarity in the structure could explain DNA's ability to
replicate, since the sequence of bases in each chain could specify the bases that appeared opposite
them in the other chain. Thus, both chains in a DNA double helix, carry the same, albeit
complementary instructions.
10. (1) How to extract DNA from green bead? (3%)
(2) How to isolate DNA from RNA? (0.5%)
(3) If optical density (OD) at 260 nm is 1.5, what the concentration of the DNA sample? (1.5%)
Ans:
(1)
sucrose gradient
cholroform/phenol
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detergentenzymealcohol
(2) RNase
(3) 1.5 * 50 = 75 ug/ml ( 1 )

1. ( E ) 6. ( A ) 11. ( E )
2. ( D ) 7. ( E ) 12. ( B )
3. ( B )

8. ( C ) 13. ( E )

4. ( E )

9. ( A ) 14. ( A )

5. ( B ) 10. ( C ) 15. ( C )
II. Multiple Choice (30%)
1. Which of the following organelles has protein-phospholipid membranes, energy-conversion enzymes, and
ribosomes similar to those found in bacteria?
(A) Lysosome (B) Peroxisome (C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (D) centriole (E) mitochondria
2. Two populations of the same species of squirrels occupy the same range that includes a forest. One of the
groups spends all of its time in oak trees; the other spends its time in pine trees. Over a long period of
time, the two populations evolve into two different species. This is an example of _______ speciation?
(A) allopatric (B) parapatric (C) symphonic (D) sympatric (E) conspecific
3. Which of the following is NOT evidence that viruses arose in the course of evolution as bits of DNA or
RNA that escaped from chromosomes of living organisms?
(A) We know that bits of nucleic acid can break away from chromosomes and move.
(B) Viruses, when dried, can be used to form crystals.
(C) Transposons can move from one cell to another.
(D) The genes in viruses usually resemble those in living organisms.
(E) All of the above are good evidence that viruses arose as bits of rogue DNA.
4. What stage of the cell cycle DNA replication (synthesis)?
(A) G0 (B) G1 (C) M (D) G2 (E) S
5. In what process and stage do homologous chromosomes separate?
(A) Anaphase of mitosis (B) Anaphase I of meiosis (C) Anaphase II of meiosis
(D) Meiotic mitosis
(E) Prophase of mitosis
6. What is the mechanism for change in species?
(A) natural selection
(B) artificial selection

(C) reproduction
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BMES_Chuang CY
(D) acquisition of traits

(E) food supply

7. Cells of the pancreas will incorporate radioactively labeled amino acids into proteins. This tagging of
newly synthesized proteins enables a researcher to track the location of these proteins in a cell. In this case,
we are tracking an enzyme that is eventually secreted by pancreatic cells. Which of the following is the
most likely pathway for movement of this protein in the cell?
(A) ER Golgi nucleus
(B) nucleus ER Golgi
(C) Golgi ER lysosome
(D) ER lysosomes vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
(E) ER Golgi vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
8. Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
(A) they are able to maintain an internal temperature much cooler than that of the surrounding water
(B) their enzymes are insensitive to temperature
(C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures
(D) the high temperatures facilitate active metabolism without the need of catalysis
(E) they use molecules other than proteins as their main catalysts
9. Which of the following is an RNA nucleotide?
(A) phosphate - ribose cytosine
(B) phosphate - deoxyribose -adenine
(C) phosphate - deoxyribose - thymine
(D) phosphate - cytosine - guanine
(E) phosphate - ribose thymine
10. Which of the following genotypes would produce the greatest variety of gametes if the alleles assorted
independently?
(A) aaBBCcDd (B) aabbCCDD (C) AaBbCCDd (D) AABBCCDD (E) AAbbccDd

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11. Mendels law of segregation states
(A) two unlike alleles are always passed together to the offspring
(B) alleles of one gene are passed to offspring dependent on gender of parent
(C) two alleles are expressed equally in the offspring
(D) environment affects the expression of alleles for a trait
(E) heterozygous parents are equally likely to pass either of their two alleles on to their offspring
12. When DNA replicates semiconservatively, which of the following is true of each daughter DNA
molecule?
(A) Both strands are newly synthesized.
(B) One strand is newly synthesized, whereas the other is a strand from the parent DNA molecule.
(C) Both strands are the original strands of the parent molecule.
(D) One strand has more AT-rich regions than the other strand has.
(E) The newly synthesized strands are more susceptible to melting and renaturation than the parental
DNA strands are.
13. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of mutations in a diploid organism such as
the fruit fly?
(A) Some loci are more mutable than others.
(B) X-rays can produce mutations.
(C) Some mutations can affect the activity of several genes.
(D) Some mutation can have a lethal effect.
(E) Most somatic mutations markedly alter the organisms phenotype.
14. The resemblance of body structure and more of life of some species of Australian marsupials to certain
species of placental mammals is an example of
(A) convergent evolution
(B) punctuated equilibrium
(C) genetic drift
(D) sequential evolution
(E) polymorphism
15. During development of the embryo sac of most flowering plants, the central cell is binucleate and will
eventually form the nutrient endosperm of the seed. Following fertilization, what is the ploidy level of
the endosperm?
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid (E) Pentaploid
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