Professional Documents
Culture Documents
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. Both are correct
d. None is correct.
3. Commitment:
I. Means making an active, conscious effort to work with new methods and to abandon old habits
II. At both an individual level and at an organizational level is critical to agile transition success.
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. None is correct
d. Both are correct
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. Both are correct
d. None is correct
III. The iterations status and any other sign with details about the project, the product, or the scrum
team
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. III is correct
d. None of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct
12. Planning in Agile has 7 stages and the correct order is:
I. Sprint retrospective, Vision, Release planning, Daily scrum, Product roadmap, Sprint review, Sprint
planning
II. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint review, Sprint
retrospective
III. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Sprint planning, Daily scrum, Sprint retrospective,
Sprint review.
IV. Vision, Product roadmap, Release planning, Daily scrum, Sprint planning, Sprint retrospective,
Sprint review.
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. III is correct
d. IV is correct
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. III is correct
d. I, II and III are correct
25. Agile approaches are based on an empirical control method. Empirical control requires:
I.
II.
III.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26. The three most popular agile approaches are: Lean, Extreme Programming and Scrum.
A. True
B. False
27. What kind of software development projects can be executed by Scrum Project Management
Framework?
Choice-1: Complete software packages
Choice-2: Customer projects
Choice-3: Sub-systems, components or parts of bigger systems
Choice-4: All kinds of software development projects
Choice-5: None of the given answers
31. Which ones of the following main roles are defined by Scrum Framework?
A) Scrum Tester
B) The Scrum Team
C) Scrum Manager
D) Scrum Master
E) Scrum Product Owner
Choice-1: A, B, C, D, E
Choice-2: B, C, D, E
Choice-3: B, D, E
Choice-4: A, B, D, E
Choice-5: A, B, C, D
32. Which ones of the following main events are defined by Scrum Framework?
Choice-1: A, B, C, D, E
Choice-2: A, B, C, D
Choice-3: A, C, D, E
Choice-4: A, B, C, E
Choice-5: A, C, E
Choice-1: A, B, C, D
Choice-2: A, C, D
Choice-3: A, D
Choice-4: A
Choice-5: A, B
35. In software engineering what are the disadvantages of the classical waterfall model?
Choice-1: A
Choice-2: B
Choice-3: C
Choice-4: A, B
Choice-5: A, B, C
Choice-1: Fine-grained requirements are only defined when they are really needed.
Choice-2: All activities to design, build and test a certain functionality are kept together in one phase.
Choice-3: Changes are expected and welcomed by Scrum team.
Choice-4: All of the given answers
Choice-5: None of the given answers
37. A line in the Agile Manifesto reads, "____________ over following a plan". Please select which
option best completes the statement.
A. Communicating frequently
B. Completing requirements
C. Asking the customer
D. Responding to change
38. _____________ can change the priority of items in the _________ backlog at any time.
A. The Product Owner(s); Sprint
B. The Team; Product
C. The Product Owner(s); Product
D. The Scrum Master; Sprint
39. ________________ constitute the Sprint Backlog and are often estimated in hours.
A. Stories
B. Use Cases
C. Features
D. Tasks
Answer: D
40. _________________ is an agile development methodology which is intended to improve software
quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements by executing frequent "releases" in
short development cycles (timeboxing), by programming in pairs or conducting extensive code
reviews, by unit testing all code, and by maintaining a flattened management structure.
A. Scrum
B. Lean
C. Agile Modelling
D. XP
41. A _____________________ is created during the first half of the Sprint planning meeting and a
_________________ is created during the second half of the Sprint planning meeting?
A. Sprint Backlog, collection of tasks
B. Product Backlog, collection of tasks
C. Sprint Goal, Sprint Backlog
D. Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog
42. Means that the increment/deliverable could be released to a customer. The product owner decides
when to release.
a. Potentially Shippable
b. Product owner
c. Product Backlog
d. Burndown Chart
a. Potentially Shippable
b. Sprint Planning
c. Daily Scrum
d. Scrum Master
a. Scrum Master
b. Burndown Chart
c. Sprint Reviews
d. Team
45. The team meets each day to share struggles and progress
a. Product Backlog
b. Sprint Reviews
c. Daily Scrum
d. Burndown Chart
46. The team meets with the product owner to choose a set of work to deliver during a sprint
a. Scrum Master
b. Product owner
c. Sprint Planning
d. Burn-down Chart
47. A negotiated set of items from the product backlog that a team commits to complete during the
time-box of a sprint.
a. Sprint Backlog
b. Sprint Planning
c. Potentially Shippable
d. Product Backlog
a. Product owner
b. Sprint Planning
c. Sprint Reviews
d. Burndown Chart
a. Daily Scrum
b. Sprint Backlog
c. Sprint Retrospectives
d. Burndown Chart
50. The team looks for ways to improve the product and the process
a. Daily Scrum
b. Scrum Master
c. Sprint Backlog
d. Sprint Retrospectives
51. The Team demonstrates to the product owner what it has completed during the sprint
a. Sprint Reviews
b. Product owner
c. Scrum Master
d. Sprint Backlog
52. It's dynamic - items may be deleted or added at any time during the project. It is prioritized and
progressively refined.
a. Team
b. Potentially Shippable
c. Product Backlog
d. Burndown Chart
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
60. Satirs curve illustrates the process of teams excitement, chaos and finally adjustment to new
processes.
a. True
b. False
a. I is correct.
b. II is correct
c. III is correct
d. I, II and III are correct
62. Grady Booch, a OO programming guru articulated the spiral development method in the 1980s.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. All of the above are wrong
d. All of the above are correct
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. All of the above are wrong
d. All of the above are correct
66. Albert Mehrabian, professor at UCLA, has shown that communication effectiveness is due to
communication fidelity the degree of accuracy between the meaning intended and the meaning
interpreted.
a. True
b. False
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. All of the above are correct
d. None of the above are correct
70. Gold-plating is adding unnecessary frivolity and effort- to a feature, task, document, meeting, or
anything else
A. True
B. False
73. Dr Royce conceptualizes short cycle projects as a way to improve quality. His method is known as
PDSA (Plan-Do-Study-Act)
A. True
B. False
74. Larry Spears identified ten characteristics of a servant leader in his paper The Understanding and
Practice of Servant-Leadership.
A. True
B. False
75. Jonathan Spira published a report called The Cost of Not Paying Attention: How Interrruptions
Impact Knowledge Worker Productivity.
A. True
B. False
A. True
B. False
79. The key areas where agile approaches are superior to traditional project management methods are:
I. Project success rate
II. Scope creep
III. Inspecting and adaptation
II. The Manifesto focuses on people, communications, the product and flexibility
A. I is correct
B. II is correct
C. None of the above are correct
D. Both are correct
83. When using a Kanban board to manage work in progress, which of the following best summarizes
the philosophy behind the approach?
A) It is a sign of the work being done and should be maximized to boost performance.
B) It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance.
C) It is a sign of the work queued for quality assurance, which should not count toward velocity.
D) It is a sign of the work queued for user acceptance, which should not count toward velocity.
84. An agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than they initially
estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following
actions is the project manager most likely to do?
A) Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.
B) Intervene in nonproductive team arguments.
C) Do administrative activities for the team.
86. To ensure the success of our project, in what order should we execute the work, taking into
account the necessary dependencies and risk mitigation tasks?
A) The order specified by the project management office (PMO)
B) The order specified by the business representatives
C) The order specified by the project team
D) The order specified by the project architect
87. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools have the following pros:
88. The definition of done means at least: developed, tested, integrated and documented.
A. True
B. False
A. I is correct
B. II is correct
C. Both are wrong
D. Both are correct
A. I is correct
B. II is correct
C. Both are wrong
D. Both are correct
92. Planning game, coding standards, collective code ownership, pair programming, simple design,
continuous integration and small releases are practices of:
A. Lean
B. XP
C. Scrum
A. I is correct
B. II is correct
C. None of the above are correct.
96. Which of the following documents are NOT supporting product development:
I. Project schedule created with expensive project management software, complete with Gantt chart.
II. Requirements documentation
III. Product technical specifications
IV. Weekly status report
V. Detailed project communication plan
A. I, IV and V.
B. II and III
C. All of the above
D. I and III
97. Refactoring consists of improving the internal structure of an existing program's source code,
while preserving its external behavior.
A. True
B. False
98. In Scrum, a product backlog item ("PBI", "backlog item", or "item") is a unit of work small
enough to be completed by a team in one Sprint iteration. Backlog items are decomposed into one or
more tasks.
A. True
B. False
99. The Sprint Backlog is the set of Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint plus a plan for
delivering the product Increment and realizing the Sprint Goal. The Sprint Backlog is a forecast by the
Development Team about what functionality will be in the next Increment and the work needed to
deliver that functionality.
A. True
B. False
101. Put the next steps for creating a product vision statement in the correct order:
I. Create a draft vision statement
II. Validate the vision statement with product and project stakeholders
III. Finalize the vision statement
IV. Develop the product objective
102. Historical project management approaches usually involve customers at three key points; project
start, any time scope changes during the project, end of a project.
A. False
B. True
I. Customer satisfaction
II. Quality
III. Teamwork
IV. Project management
V. Communication
A. I, III and V
B. II and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and V
104. If my sprint is this long .., my sprint planning should last no more than
I. one week, two hours
II. two weeks, for hours
III. three weeks, six hours
IV. for weeks, eight hours
D) Burn down charts indicate whether rate of effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or
scope
131. As part of stakeholder management and understanding, the team may undertake customer persona
modeling. Which of the following would a persona not represent in this context?
A) Stereotyped users
B) Real people
C) Archetypal description
D) Requirements
132. An agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than they initially
estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following
actions is the project manager most likely to do?
A) Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.
B) Intervene in nonproductive team arguments.
C) Do administrative activities for the team.
D) Demonstrate the system to senior executives.
133. The PMO has asked you to generate some financial information to summarize the business
benefits of your project. To best describe how much money you hope the project will return, you
should show an estimate of:
A) Internal rate of return (IRR)
B) Return on investment (ROI)
C) Gross domestic product (GDP)
D) Net present value (NPV)
134. The Agile Manifesto value customer collaboration over contract negotiation means that:
A) Agile approaches encourage you not to focus too much on negotiating contracts, since most
vendors are just out for themselves anyway.
B) Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than debating the
details of contract terms.
C) Agile approaches prefer not to use contracts, unless absolutely necessary, because they hamper our
ability to respond to change requests.
D) Agile approaches recommend that you only collaborate with vendors who are using agile
processes themselves.
135. Incremental delivery means that:
A)
B)
C)
D)
B) Product owner
C) Scrum Master
D) Process owner
137. When working with a globally distributed team, the most useful approach would be to:
A) Bring the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day before starting the first
iteration.
B) Bring the entire group together for a big celebration at the end of the project
C) Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session before starting the first
iteration.
D) Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first
iteration.
138. Why is 7 plus or minus 2 an optimal size of an Agile team?
A To make sure the whole team can fit into an average room.
B To make sure daily stand ups can be completed in 15 minutes or less.
C To ensure effective communication and collaboration.
D Teams of that size are easy to control.
139. The Agile Manifesto, it says we aim to produce Working Software over...
A Comprehensive testing.
B Comprehensive documentation.
C Cost savings.
D Developer satisfaction.
140. What does the agile manifesto say we SHOULD do with changing requirements?
A Welcome changing requirements, except late in development.
B Welcome changing requirements, even late in development.
C Reject all changes during the current development.
D Reject all changes until the next iteration.
141. One of the roles of a Scrum Master is to...
A Hold the vision.
B Remove impediments.
C Determine who does the work.
D Sign off work as done.
142. Which one of the following is NOT one of the pillars of the empirical process?
A Control.
B Inspection.
C Adaptation.
D Transparency.
143. Refactoring is a process to...
A Remove software defects.
B Improve the code quality without altering its behaviour.
C Make code as perfect as possible.
151. Which of the following statements best describes the reason Agile methods endorse change in
requirements even late in development?
A. Embracing change will curb uncontrolled changes in the requirement
B. Embracing change improves software quality
C. Embracing change provides competitive advantage to customers
D. Self-organizing teams can quickly adapt to the changing requirements
152. Which of the following truly reflect one of the values from Agile Manifesto?
A. Following a plan over responding to change
B. Working software over processes and tools
C. Individuals and interactions over comprehensive documentation
D. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
153. As per the principles of Agile Manifesto, all the following statements are incorrect except:
A. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project
B. Business people and developers must work together regularly throughout the project
C. Business people and developers must work together during later stages of the project
D. Business people and developers must work together during the initial stages of the project
154. All of the following are in line with Agile principles except:
A. Incremental product delivery
B. Fixed scope
C. Fixed cost
155. The Agile manifesto was authored by the founding members of:
A. Scrum Alliance
B. Agile Project Leadership Network
C. Association of Agile Practitioners
D. Agile Alliance
158. Which of the following Agile Manifesto philosophy endorses team empowerment?
A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools
B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiations
C. Responding to change over following a plan
D. Working software over comprehensive documentation
C. Responding to change
D. Working software
160. Which of the following Agile Manifesto philosophy supports delivering business value to
customer?
A. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
B. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
C. Working software over comprehensive documentation
D. Responding to change over following a plan
161. In the Agile Manifesto what is on the higher side of the value chain than following a plan driven
approach?
A. Customer collaboration
B. Responding to change
C. Individuals and interactions
D. Working software
162. As per Agile Manifesto, what is on the lower side of the value chain for the customer?
A. Customer collaboration
B. Responding to change
C. Processes and tools
D. Working software
165. In the Agile Manifesto, what is valued more than contract negotiation?
A. Customer collaboration
B. Individuals and interaction
C. Responding to change
D. Working software
166. All of the following statements represents Agile Manifesto correctly except:
A. Agile projects require bare minimum documentation
B. Working software is the measure of progress
C. Agile projects value customer collaboration
D. There is no need for planning in agile projects as change is welcome in agile
168. Which Agile principle has close resemblance to Lean principle of eliminating waste?
A. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility
B. Simplicity the art of maximizing the amount of work not done is essential
C. At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its
behavior accordingly.
174. Osmostic communication is normally accomplished by seating the team members in the same
room.
A. True
B. False
Sprint
length
One
week
Two
weeks
Three
weeks
Four
weeks
Sprint
planning
Two
hours
(A)
Four
hours
(B)
Six
hours
(C
)
Eight
hours
(D)
Sprint
review
One
hour
(E)
Two
hours
(F)
Three
hours
(G)
Four
hours
(H)
Sprint
retrospective
45
minutes
(I)
1,5
hours
(J)
2,
25
hours
(K)
3
hours
(L)
175. From the time-boxes stated in the table above:
A. A, F and K are wrong
B. All are wrong
C. All are correct
D. I, J, K and L are wrong
176. Waterfall:
1. Is a traditional style of project management
2. Relies on completing work in distinct stages like requirements, design, development, testing and
deployment.
3. In waterfall projects, you do not start one stage until you have completed the previous stage
3. The product owner can stop the project once he or she deems that the product has sufficient
functionality to fulfill project goals.
179. What is the recommended size for a Development Team (within the Scrum Team)?
A) Minimal 7
B) 3 to 9
C) 7 plus or minus 2
D) 9
180. Scrum Master is a "management" position?
A) True
B) False
181. An optimal Development Team has at least 5 members:
A) To have enough coverage in case of illness or emergency
B) To ensure high productivity
C) To increase the reliability of their estimates
D) This is not required as long as the overall team maturity is high
192. The creation of a release plan is done in which stage of the roadmap to value?
A. Stage 3
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 5
D. Stage 2
193. Put the steps to create a release plan in the right order:
1. Get the development teams buy-in and commitment for the first release.
2. Establish the release goal
3. If you havent done so already, refine the user stories in your release goal.
4. Review the product backlog and the product roadmap to determine the highest-priority user stories
that support your release goal.
5. Determine a date for the release.
A. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
B, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
A. 1 is correct
B. 2 is correct
C. Both are correct
D. None of the above are correct
A. 1 is correct
B. 2 is correct
C. None of the above are correct
D. Both are correct
198. The ROI is significantly enhanced using agile approaches for the following reasons:
1. Software is delivered to the marketplace earlier
2. Product quality is higher
3. Revenue opportunity can be accelerated
4. Projects can self-fund
A. True
B. False
A. True
B. False
203. The primary tool for communication in agile projects should be face-to-face conversation.
A. True
B. False
204. The layers of the planning onion are: Strategy, Portfolio, Product, Release, Iteration and Day.
A. True
B. False
205. Who should define the business value of a Feature within an Agile project?
A. The individual end-users
B. The Product Owner
C. The Business Analyst
D. The Business Sponsor
206. Which one of the following is a key feature of documentation that you would expect to find in an
Agile project?
A. System documentation created at the end of each increment, at the start of the deployment
B. User Stories held in a spreadsheet or specialist database, where full details of user conversations are
recorded for future purposes, like handover to maintenance or support
C. User Story cards containing only enough detail for planning and development, which will need to
be supplemented by further face-to-face conversations
D. No written documentation, as all good communication is face-to-face
207. When estimating is done for a project, the developers should:
A. Be fully involved in the estimating process
B. Be in total control of the estimating process
C. Be consulted after the Team Leader (Scrum Master) has made the estimates for the teams work
D. Not make estimates unless velocity is already known
208. During an iteration (sprint) (timebox) the developers should be:
A. Able to contact the customer to clarify aspects of the work
B. Completely uninterrupted by the customer
C. In twice-daily contact with the customer
D. Able to work without needing to disturb the customer
209. An Agile team
A. Is self-organizing, with each member having the same technical skills
B. Collaborates and supports its team members
C. Ensures that weak members of the team are allocated the simpler tasks
D. Ensures blame is allocated fairly
210. In Agile projects, we plan to learn as we go because
A. It creates a better relationship between the developers and customer representatives
B. Many projects are evolutionary, and a better solution emerges this way
C. It is time-consuming to analyse everything at the beginning of a project
D. It prevents late delivery of the project
211. The customer in an Agile project .
A. Has no control over the prioritization of delivered features
214. The Development Team should not be interrupted during the Sprint. The Sprint Goal should
remain intact. These are conditions that foster creativity, quality and productivity. Based on this,
which of the following is false?
A) The Product Owner can help clarify or optimize the Sprint when asked by the Development Team.
B) The Sprint Backlog and its contents are fully formulated in the Sprint Planning meeting and do not
change during the Sprint.
C) As a decomposition of the selected Product Backlog Items, the Sprint Backlog changes and may
grow as the work emerges.
D) The Development Team may work with the Product Owner to remove or add work if it finds it has
more or less capacity than it expected.
215. During the Daily Scrum, the Scrum Master's role is to:
A) Lead the discussions of the Development Team.
B) Make sure that all 3 questions have been answered.
C) Manage the meeting in a way that each team member has a chance to speak.
D) Teach the Development Team to keep the Daily Scrum within the 15 minute timebox.
E) All of the above.
216. If the product effort is estimated to be 1000 hours, what is the time that is recommended for
release planning.
A. 100 hours.
B. 50% of the effort.
C. 1000 hours.
D. 15-20% of the effort.
217. Who is ultimate responsible for the Product Backlog item estimates?
A. Scrum Master.
B. Product Owner.
C. The Scrum Team.
D. Stakeholders.
219. The Scrum Team is most productive if it is not interrupted during a Sprint. As a result of...
A. The Spring Backlog emerges to reflect the work to develop the committed Product Backlog items.
B. The Spring Backlog can only change with approval from the product owner.
C. The Sprint Backlog is devised during the Sprint Planning and should not need changing thereafter.
D. The Sprint Backlog is never changed.
220. What part of the Sprint Backlog is used for the Sprint burndown chart?
A. The percentage of work completed by each Team member.
B. The number of Product Backlog items completed by all the Team members.
221. Assuming a 2-week Sprint, What is the Time-box for the Sprint Review?
A. 2 hours at the end of every sprint.
B. 15 minutes.
C. However long is needed.
D. 4 hours.
223. Which type of risk analysis agile team uses to rank risks by evaluating their probability of
occurrence and impact?
A. Risk Burndown Chart
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Quantitative analysis
224. Arun was working on a story which requires certain changes in the existing module; he realized
that this module is really bad. Its going to be very hard to make any changes to it going forward, but
refactoring this also needs significant effort, what should he do?
A. Create a task in sprint backlog for refactoring the module and start working on it
B. Change the time estimate for the current task and start refactoring the module
C. Discuss with the Product Owner and get Technical debt product backlog item added in product
backlog
D. Just focus on current story and finish it smartly
225. During agile coaching, you are having discussions with the Product Owner explaining him the
goal and process of release planning. You explain to him that before getting into release planning
meeting Product Owner should collect required inputs. Which of the following is not input
information for the release planning?
A. Velocity
B. Product Backlog
C. Project length / release length
D. Acceptance Test Criteria
226. Who is responsible for analysing the project performance and identifying the preventive actions?
A. Scrum Master
B. PO
C. Team
D. Sponsor
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. d
7. d
8. a
9. e
10. b
11. c
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. b
16. d
17. c
18. a
19. b
20. c
21. c
22. e
23. a
24. d
25. a
26. a
27. Choice 4
28. Choice 3
29. Choice 5
30. Choice 1
31. Choice 3
32. Choice 4
33. Choice 2
34. Choice 2
35. Choice 5
36. Choice 4
37. d
38. c
39. d
40. d
41. c
42. a
43. d
44. d
45. c
46. c
47. a
48. a
49. d
50. d
51. a
52. c
53. a
54. c
55. b
56. d
57. a
58. a
59. a
60. a
61. d
62. a
63. a
64. d
65. d
66. a
67. b
68. d
69. c
70. a
71. e
72. a
73. b
74. a
75. a
76. a
77. b
78. a
79. d
80. b
81. d
82. d
83. b
84. c
85. c
86. b
87. a
88. a
89. d
90. d
91. d
92. b
93. c
94. d
95. c
96. a
97. a
98. a
99. a
100. b
101. a
102. b
103. c
104. d
105. c
106. c
107. b
108. b
109. b
110. c
111. b
112. a
113. d
114. b
115. d
116. c
117. b
118. a
119. c
120. a
121. b
122. d
123. b
124. d
125. d
126. b
127. c
128. c
129. c
130. d
131. d
132. c
133. b
134. b
135. d
136. d
137. d
138. c
139. b
140. b
141. b
142. a
143. b
144. a
145. b
146. b
147. b
148. d
149. c
150. b
151. c
152. d
153. a
154. b
155. d
156. c
157. a
158. a
159. d
160. c
161. b
162. c
163. b
164. b
165. a
166. d
167. c
168. b
169. c
170. a
171. d
172. b
173. a
174. a
175. c
176. d
177. b
178. d
179. b
180. a
181. e
182. e
183. d
184. b
185. c
186. b
187. a
188. d
189. b
190. d
191. b
192. a
193. a
194. c
195. b
196. d
197. a
198. a
199. d
200. a
201. d
202. a
203. a
204. a
205. b
206. c
207. a
208. a
209. b
210. b
211. d
212. b
213. c
214. b
215. d
216. d
217. c
218. c
219. b
220. d
221. a
222. c
223. c
224. a
225. d
226. c
227. d