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Question
According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is
I found floating therin earthly particles, some green streaks
The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Alga
During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carb
Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of b
Reverse isolation would be appropriate for
The symptome general feeling of illness and discomfort is
On soybean which of the following forms symbiotism
Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but n
Spirulina belongs to
The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was
The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the
Pick out the vector using in human Genome project
Salt and sugar preserve foods because they
In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of
Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of
Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in
Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of
The image obtained in a compound microscope is
Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation
Which type of spores are produced sexually?
Bacterial transformation was discovered by
Father of microbiology is
The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by
Small pox vaccine was first discovered by
The term mutation was coined by
Compound microscope was discovered by
Father of Medical Microbiology is
Disease that affects many people at different countries is ter
Prophylaxis of cholera is
In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective
The main feature of prokaryotic organism is
The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called
Antiseptic methods were first introduced by
Kuru disease in Humans is caused by
A mutation that produces termination codon is
During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred th
Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
Tuberculosis is a
Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by
Meosomes are also known as
Hybridoma technique was first discovered by
The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical e
In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from

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Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation firs

The resolution power of the compound microscope is
The capacity of a given strain of microbial species to produce
Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of
Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of
Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced b
Electron microscope gives magnification upto
Term vaccine was coined by
The inventor of Microscope is
First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in
Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by
The role of phagocytosis was discovered by
L forms are discovered by
The causative organism of rocky mountain spotted fever was fi
The term bacteriophage was coined by
Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by
Eye cannot resolve any image less than
Compound Microscope was discovered by
Electron Microscope was discovered by
Magnification range of light microscope is
Condensation of light in light Microscope is by
Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called
If 10x and 40x objectives are used (air is the medium), the nu
The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two se
Limit of resolution of compound microscope is
Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from
Who perfected a magnetic lens in 1927
The magnefication power of electron microscope developed by
In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from specimen ar
The electron passed out from the specimen are called
Mycorrhiza was first observed by
The transfer of genetic material during transformation is prov
Phagocytic theory was proposed by
Anaphylaxia was first observed by
Primary mediators in anaphylaxis
Arthus reaction was discovered by
Serum sickness reaction was discovered by
Hybridoma technique was developed by
Disease that effects many people at different countries is ter
If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are cal
If a person can be infected by direct contact with infected tiss
Reduction of virulence is known as
Enhancement of virulence is known as
The virulence of a pathogen is usually measured by
The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested

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The most important virulence factors are

The ability of a pathogen to spread in ths host tissues after es
Which is the following enzyme acts as a spreading factor?
Vibrio Cholerae was discovered by
E.coli was first isolated by
Mycobacterium tuberculosis was first discovered by
Mycobacterium lepree was discovered by
Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated by
B.anthracis was isolated by
Staphylococcus aureus was isolated by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first named
T. pallidum was discovered by
Neisseria gonorrhoeae was first described by
Rh factor of the blood was discovered by scientist
Trepanema pallidum was discovered by
Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent microscopy are
Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria
In Streptococcus fecalis, the conjugation takes place at
The infected mad dogs may contain
What disease the Nesser will produce?
Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
The Baterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineeri
The functions of plasmid are
Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
The etiologic agent of botulism is a
The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during
Protein particles which can infect are called
In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are
Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in
Which one of the following was Gramnegative, chemolithotroph
The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is
Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses?
Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearan
An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirement
A population of cells derived from a single cell are called
Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce
In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was
Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlam
How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi?
Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?
Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of
The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from
The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkeys med
Staining material of gram positive bacterium is

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The pigment present in red algae is

During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the phase called
Which of the following change is a transition?
Citrus canker is caused by
Bacteria that are responsible for fermentation of dairy milk ar
The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread
The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic gran
The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell
The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the move
Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by
Virus will contain
The bacterial pili mainly contain
The wonder drug of second world war is produced by
Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
Centromere is that part of chromosome where
Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid in many except
Congential diseases are
The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molec
Meosomes are the part of
All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except
Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall
Cows can digest straw because they contain
The nucleus controls protein synthesis inthe cytoplasm by sen
The site of energy production in a cell
Thylakoid is present in
Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use i
Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is
Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
The potorespiration involves
Bioleaching is done by
Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called
Which of the following genera is most likely to contain organ
The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to
The apparatus used to maintain a continuous culture
The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by
Diphtheria is caused by
Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristi
A bacterium containing prophage is called as
The most infectious food borne disease is
An example for common air borne epidemic disease
Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial geno
Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of
Virion means
Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by
The test used for detection of typhoid fever

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Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called

Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
Acridine dyes are more effective against
In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was develop
Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses w
Bacillus is an example of
Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by
Viral genome that can become integrated into bacterial genom
Cytochromes are
The cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed a
Recombination process occurring through the mediation of ph
Mordant used in grams staining is
Parasitic form must contain
Gram staining is an example for
Following Cocci are non-motile except
Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by
Autolysis is done by
A facultative anaerobic is
The percentage of O2 required by moderate anaerobe is
Interferon is formed by
Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are
Spirochete is
Histones are found in
Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is
Cytoplasmic streaming is present in
The motile bacteria is
The stain used to demonstrate fungus
Exotoxina are
The viruses that attack bacteria are
The size of virus particle may range
The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by
Rod shaped bacteria are known as
All the groups of bacteria have cell wall
Thickness of cell wall ranges from
Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in
Meosomes are
The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because
Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is
Mesosomes are also known as
The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bact
Capsule formation occurs in the presence of
The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may b

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Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are

Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by
Fimbriae are demonstrated by
The motile bacteria is
Following cocci are non-motile except
Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of
Metachromatic granules can be stained with
Bacteria multiply by
Bacterial spores are
Endospores can be stained with
The following bacteria produce pigment,except
The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is
The percentage of alcohol used in Gramstaining is
Gram positive bacteria appear as
Gram negative bacteria appear as
The action of alcohol during Gramstaining is
Lipid contents is more in
Cell-wall is
The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall i
Rickettsiae stained by this technique responds as
Chlamydiae occur in
Chlamydiae can be stained better with
Algae means
The study of algae is known as
The free floating algae are known as
Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by
In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is
Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of
The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter w
Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range
Examples for actinomycetes
Pellicle is found in only
The Largest virus is
The smallest virus is
The extra cellular infections virus particle is called
Shape of bacteriophage is
If only one stain is used for staining a specimen
Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stai
If more than one stain is used, such staining is called
Fluorescence was first observed by
By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody techniqu
During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which imp
The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacter
Archaeo bacteria are known as
Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria

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Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is

Bacillus Schlegelli is
The group of bacteria which deopends on organic sources in na
Majority of bacteria are
Symbionts are
The best example for symbiotic association is
The enzymes responsible for decomposition is
Urea is decomposed by the species
Phycobiont is
Parasitic form must contain
The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is
Transformation was observed mainly in
Capsulated forms of bacteria are
The bacterial cells participating in conjugation are
Phagocytes are
The microorganism engulfed by phagocyte resides in a vacuol
Toxic products in phagolysosome are
During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the
The coating of a bacterium with antibody or complement that
Attenuation means
Infection that results in pus formation are called
Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called
Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as
Opsonin is the
-haemolytic bacteria is
The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is
Main cause for Cholera is
Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by
Cholera vaccine gives protection for
Prophylaxis of cholera is
Sh.dysenteriae is also known as
Acid fast bacteria are
Mycobacteria are stained with
Niacin test is positive in case of
Lepromin test
Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on
-haemolytic streptococci are also known as
Streptolysin O is inactivated by
Streptolysin S is
Influenza virus is identified by using
Growth of influenza virus is identified by
Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except
Prozone phenomenon is encountered in
Of the following, this is a capsulated organism

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Anthrax is a
Mc Fadyeans reaction is used to detect
Gasgangarene bacillus is
Coagulase test is used for
HIV is belonging to
Special feature of Retro viruses
AIDS virus is
AIDS is caused by
Which of the following organisms is most commonly associat
Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:
Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AID
The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of a
Screening test for AIDS is
Confirmatory test for AIDS is
The most common infection in AIDS is
During AIDS, HIV infects
Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by
Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
Tinea capitis is
Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by
Cholera occurs in _______ form
Endemic typhus is caused by
A man is usually infected for tick typhus by
In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is
Ziehl Neelson stain is a ______
Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they
Organism resistant to degradative lysosomal enzymes include
Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron micr
The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell wal
The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that i
The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell
Mycoplasmas differ from Chalamy-diae in that, it
Fungal disease in human is caused by
Fungi differs with bacteria in that it
A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which
The largest protozoa is
Premunition is particularly seen in
Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of ba
The bacteria, which is motile at 22oC but non-motile at 37oC i
Techoic acid is
One flagelium at one end of the organ is called
What is the function of bacterial capsule?
Which of the following is the charachteristic of bacterial spore

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Which of the following are acid fast structures?

All of the following are acid fast structures except
All of the following are energy source of bacteria except
Identify the obligate anaerobes
Streptococci which are destroyed at 60C for 30 minutes
Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by streptococcus p
Cholera red reaction is identified by
Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by
Daisy head colony is associated with
Neil mooseri reaction is related to
All of the following are DNA viruses except
The dengue fever virus is
Dengue fever is caused by
Which of the following characters are related to viruses?
Main causative organism of chiken pox is
Rickesia are stained with
The medium used in membrane filter technique was
Lysol is a
Which of the following is a neutral stain?
Peptone water medium is an example for
The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called
The technique used to avoid all microorganisms is accomplish
Thermal death time is
A culture medium the exact composition of which is not known
Eleks gel diffusion test is used for the detection of
Temperature required for pasteurization is
Separation of a single bacterial colony is calle
Which of the following is ionizing radiation?
Which of the following induces dimerisation of thymine?
When food material are preserved at a temperature just above
Which of the following method of sterilization has no effect on
Treponema pallidum can be best indentified using
Autoclaving is carried at
Temperature in pasteurization is
The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is
Algae are rich in
L-Lysine is produced from
The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular com
Theobacillus thio oxidans grow at pH
Slow freezing requires the conditions
Discontinuous heating is called
Isolation is
The condition required for autoclave
Lysozyme is effective against
Blood agar medium is

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Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by

Lyophilization means
Temperature used for hot air oven is
Phenol co-efficient indicates
This is an agar plate method and is commonly used for estimat
Agar is obtained form
A gram positive organism which produces swarming on cultur
Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as
For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obta
Spores are killed by
Glassware are sterilized by
Tyndallisation was proposed by
Viruses can be cultivated in
By pasteurization
The temperature required for pasteurization is
In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used
Example for indicator medium is
Example of Anaerobic medium is
The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the med
Best method for getting pure culture is
To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used
The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is
Separation of a single colony is
Growth period of the culture is
At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization
In autoclave, the principle involved is
The spores of th bacteria which can withstand the moist heat e
Factors on which disinfectivity of a disinfectant depends
Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants
Accridine dyes are more effective against
The sterilizing agent is
Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are
Cultures are prepared by penetrating the inoculation loop wit
The principle involved in the streak plate method is
Culture media for fungi are
Spores of actinomycetes are very sensitive, killed at room tem
The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pa
A common laboratory method of cultivating anaerobic micro-o
Alkaliphiles grow at pH value between
The micro-organisms grow at high salinity are
Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on Mac Conkeys mediu
Wilson and Blair medium is used for isolation of
Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is based on
Shigella was first isolated by
Which of the following are gas producing Salmonella?

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Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect

On Mac Conkeys medium Esch. Coli forms
C.diphtheriae requires
Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Lepra bacillus is best cultured on
Culture medium for clostridia spp.
Clsotridium welchii is positive for
Naglers reaction detects
Incubation period of Cl. welchii is
The average incubation period of tetanus is
Salt agar is used for
Culture medium of Leishmania is
A simple asexual spore which develops by budding is known a
Culture medium used for fungus is
For sterilization of fermentation equipment the method followe
Listed below are substances which are assayed by organisms m

Match the following terms with their respective formulations A

Match the following tests with their respective applications A t

Match the following equipments with their respective methods o

The items listed from A to D can be identified by the tests giv

D.pneumoniae can be cultivated in

D.pneumoniae can be identified by
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried out by
The size of the virus can be determined by
Differential staining of bacteria spore is related to

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Electron microscope studies does not help in identifying the se

Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is used for the gro
Which Rickettsia can be grown on blood agar media?
When a bacterial cell and mitochondria are treated with cyan
Which virus was first observed?
The most important energy-yielding reaction for an aerobic or
A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious agent from
Cell cycle regulated by
The proteinaceous compound are converted to ammonia by
A cell becomes flaccid when placed in a
A mutation causing a substitution of one amino acid is called
The formation spindle fibres in the process of cell division is
Important class of respiratory enzymes:
The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis virus:
Genetic constitution of the cell is
The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis is
Cerebral malaria is caused by
Ergot disease is caused by
Most bacteria require vitamins as
Which of these is a trace element for bacteria?
Virulent factor in pneumococcus is
The Bacteria move in response to magnetic field is
Nagler reaction detects
The following organisms lack definite cell wall
The following disease are caused by Mycoplasma except
Mycotoxins are produced by
The main product of glycolysis under aerobic conditions is
The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as
Yeast extract is an excellent source of
Example of anaerobic medium
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of:
An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhib
The following organisms have been proposed as sources of sing
Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a microorganism
The major constituents in agar are
Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by
Antagonism is seen in
the first phase of a growth curve is
In gram positive and gram negative bacteria the electron tran
Growth in a closed system, affected by nutrient limitation and
Cells are active and synthesizing new protoplasm. This stage o
Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fa
Which one of the following mineral elements play an important r
Rapid bacterial growth phase is known as
Clostridium welchii spore formation can be induced only on sp

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Mycotoxins are formed during the end of

Bacteria which need oxygen for growth are called
pH required for the growth of bacteria is
Drug resistance in bacteria is mainly determined by factor:
The ion that is required in trace amounts for the growth of bact
The most important vitamin for the growth of bacteria is
The principle in microbiological assays is
If the source of energy for bacteria is from chemical compound
In the synthesis of cell components the major element require
For the formation of cell-components the elements required ar
For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine, cystine and methio
Sulphur can be utilized by bacteria in the form of
Phosphorous is an essential component of
Trace elements are
Most bacteria do not require the ion
Vitamin function as
The vitamin required for Lactobacillus species is
Vitamin K is necessary for the species
The bacteria which are able to grow at 0C but which grow at
Radical shifts can be prevented by adding
The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular com
The most common mode of cell division in bacteria is
How much time a bacterium take for the complete duplication
The generation time is
In bacteria, the increase in population is in the manner
Physiologically the cells are active and are synthesizing new
The most active stage in the sigmoid curve of bacteria in wh
Log-phase is also known as
The no. of generations per hour in a bacteria is
In the sigmoid curve (or) growth curve of bacteria how many s
The reproduction rate is equal to death rate in which stage
Minimum growth temperature is
Optimum growth temperature is greater that 45oC is
The organisms which can grow both in presence and absence
The organisms which can grow best in the presence of a low c
The compound that is added to the medium to absorb oxygen fo
The utilization of light energy to drive the synthesis of ATP is c
During cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or not.
Cyclic phosphorylation is generally present in
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as
The number of ATP molecules formed during cyclic phosphoryl
Artificial transformation in laboratory is carried out by treating
The process of formation of mesozygote is called
Which of the following organisms requires tryptophan for grow
Tubercular bacilli grow best in

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Mycotoxins are formed during the end of

The suitable temperature to transport viral culture is
Growth curve does not include following phases of bacteria
Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of g
A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react
The genetic material in HIV is
Genomic
DNA
is extracted,
broken intoact
fragments
of
Which one
of the
following mutagens
only on replicating
reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then
Poly A tail is frequently found in
inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors.
Which
of the
following is an example of RNA virus?
The cloned
fragments

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are called
Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with
In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?
The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineerin
A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing
The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of
Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as
Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes w
Pasteur effect is due to
A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage
The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo mutatio
The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent
Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a
In E.Coli att site is in between
The best vector for gene cloning
A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is
DNA replicates during
A human cell containing 22 autosome and a Y chromosome is
Crossing-over most commonly occurs during
DNA-replication is by the mechanism of
Production of RNA from DNA is called
Nucleic acids contain
What are the structural units of nucleic acids?
The most important function of a gene is to synthesize
One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in
Peptide linkages are formed in between
The nucleic acid of polio viruses is
Rabies virus is
Example for DNA virus:
In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes
DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages i
Microorganisms usually make acetyl CO-A by oxidizing
The method of DNA replication proposed by Watson and Crick
The distance between each turn in the helical strand of DNA is
Self-replicating, small circular DNA molecules present in bacte
Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of

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m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed

Western blotting is a technique used in the determination of
Building blocks of Nucleic acids are
DNA finger printing is based on
The enzyme required for DNA from RNA template:
Double standard RNA is seen in
Example for DNA viruses:

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The following are the RNA viruses, except

The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by
The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with
The no. of hydrogen bonds existing between Guanine and Cyto
The length of each coil in DNA strand is
Nucleic acids are highly charged polymers due to
The best studied example for specialized transduction is
The diagrammatic representation of the total no. of genes in
During specialized transduction
The cell donating DNA during transformation is
Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA is called
The gene transfer occurs by
Which of the following is called serum Hepatitis?
Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies?
Which type of antibodies will associate in blood cell coagulati
In a antigen haptens are
The antibody that is first formed after infection is
Antibodies in our body are produced by
The points at which crossing over has taken place between homologus ch
How much of globulin is present in human serum?
The substance which acts as antimetabolites are called
Enzymes are chemically
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
First line of body defence is
What is the strength of the bond between antigen and antibo
Syphillis is caused by
Nergibodies produced by rabies virus show characteristic ____
The widely used yeast for the production of single cell protein
Analysis of protein antigen is by
Which of the following can provide naturally acquired passive
AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belongs to
Complement based agglutination reaction is known as
Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis
The cellular immune response is mediated by
The major immunoglobulin present in the human serum is
Reagenic type antibody is
Blood group antigens are
The reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known by

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Interferon is composed of
Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin:
The use of monoclonal antibodies is
Hybridoma technique is used for
Test used for AIDS is
Antibody having high valency is
Intensity of attraction between antigen and antibody molecule
Active immunity is induced by
Pasteur developed the vaccines for
Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in
The following are used for the preservation of virus, except
Antibody formation depends on
Local immunity is important in
Role of magnesium in vaccine is
Immunity is life long following
To prepare vaccine for small pox, the material used by Edward
During recombination, the strain that donates genetic material
The character acquired by the cell due to recombination is
T-cells are produced from
Antibodies are produced from
Incomplete antigens are called
To be antigen, the chemical molecule (protein) needs
The parts which filter lymph are
The primary cells involved in immune response are
Plasma cells are the end cells of
Basophils have receptors for antibodies
Because of denaturation, antigens become functionless, these
Capacity of antigen to breakdown into small fragments eachwit
Antigenic specificity is due to
Antibodies are
General purpose antibody is
Antibody present in colostrums is
Which antibody is called millionaire molecule?
IgE is discovered by
Antigen-antibody reactions are
Serological reactions are useful for
For the separation of antigens the method used is
Counter immunoelectrophoresis is useful for detection of
When a particular antigen is mixed with antibody in the presenc
Toxins and viruses can be detected by
Which is most antigenic?
Shick test is used for the detection of
Secondary function of complements are
Very effective, less time consuming and at a time so many sa
-cells are involved in

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Innate immunity is
Innate immunity is developed by
Acquired immunity is
Acquired immunity can be developed by
Immediate type hypersensitivity reactions are
Immediate type of hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by
Example for cell-mediated immunity are
Mountax reaction is used for detection of
All the antibodies produced from a -cell are having
Hybridoma formation in hybridoma technique is from
Anthrax vaccine is prepared by
Attenuated, oral poliomyelitis vaccine is
Killed, polio vaccine is
Measles vaccine is given to children at the age of
Pertussis vaccine is
DPT is
DPT, is used as vaccine for
DPT is given to children at the age of 16-24 months, as the do
If more than one kind of immunizing agent is included in the va
Vaccines are prepared from killed microbes, they are
Vaccines used against viral infections are
If the microbes used in the vaccine are obtained from patient,
Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are
Example for live vaccine is
DPT is given for the prevention of
The live vaccines are available against the following viruses,
HIV can be transmitted through
Animals are naturally immune to infection caused by
The immunity acquired by inoculation of living organism of att
Organisms can be attenuated for inoculation by
Passive immunity lasts for the period of about
The markers helpful in detecting antiimmunity are
Following substance may act as an antigen
H antigen are present in
Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization.
The agglutinin test is used for _______
In blood transfusion it is essential that
To be anaphylactic, the sensitizing substance should be
The basics of pathology in asthama, allergic rhinitis, urticaria
Which test is used for detecting susceptibility of an individual
Syndromes associated with Human T lymphotropic virus type I(
Plague and Tularemia vaccine can be prepared from
AIDS patients suffer from pneumoniae due to
Statements applicable to human lice:
Natural killer cells

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Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypers

The most abundant antibody found in serum is
Patients suffering from AIDS have following immune abnormali
Immunoglobulin which cannot activate complement
Hydatid disease is identified by
Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated by
Immunoglobin which are found in asthma at elevated level:
What is the similarity between IgM & IgG
What is the technique for quantitative estimation of immunogl
Cell mediated immunity can be identified by
Out of the following which are the examples of autoimmune d
Which of the following is a true statement regarding Purified P
Which of the following are inactive viral vaccines?
Antigenic variation is most extensive in
Which is the correct statement related to hepatitis B virus?
Food poisoning is caused by
Koplics spots will develop in
Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contai
Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells b
AIDS is caused by
Penicillin is a
The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplan
Listeriosis was ______ disease.
Pus-forming forms are called as
In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
_____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial i
A study involving analysis of risk forgenetic defects in a family
Viral antigens are likely
The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
ELISA test is used for the identification of
Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agent
Kinetosomes are observed in
-lactum ring is present in
Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
Botulism means
Chloramphenicol is obtained from
Streptomycin is obtained from
The treatment required for small bodies of water is
Surface ropiness is caused by
Septicaemia is
In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to

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Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting

Lyme disease is caused by
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
Black water fever is caused by
Mantoux test detects
The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
Aflatoxin is produced by
Penicillin is discovered by
Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
The following are true about Rickettsiae.
The causative agent of scrub typhus:
Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted di
Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
Which algae is pathogenic to human?
Erythromycin is obtained from
Common cold is caused by
The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest
In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the or
True about Enteric fever is
Gastroenteritis is caused by
E.coli produces the following toxins:
The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
Diphtheria is caused by
Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
Coryne bacterium is
C. diphtheriae consists of
The incubation period of diphtheriae is
Diphtheria virulence test is
Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
Diphtheria is an example of
Main symptom of tuberculosis is
BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
Dose of BCG vaccine is
Negative Mantoux test is important in
Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, e

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Causative agent of Scarlet fever:

Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
Penicillin is the drug of choice for
In human being str. pneumoniae causes
Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
Influenza is belonging to
Influenza virus contains
Reyes syndrome is caused by
Geraman measles is also known as
The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
Mumps virus is belonging go
Measles is characterized by
Brucella causes
Mediterranian fever is caused by
Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
Malignant pustule is caused by
The commonest form of anthrax in man is
The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
Virus causing Rabies is
Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection i
Rabies virus can multiply in
Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is comm
Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as th
The causative agent of tetanus is
The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain
Tetanus is caused by spread of
The first symptom of tetanus is
Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
Toxin produced by C. botulism is
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by the toxin of
Causative agent of syphilis
Spirochaelis are sensitive to
Specific test for syphilis is
VDRL test is a
The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea is
Bartholin cyst is caused by
Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
Virulence in gonococcus is due to
Japanese encephalitis is caused by
In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the m
Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
Yellow fever is caused by

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Vector for leishmaniasis is

Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
In India, malaria most often spreads by
Man is intermediate host for
Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stag
In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen exc
Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the periphe
Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
The radical teatment of malaria is to half
Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
Most important Penicillium toxins are
Penicillic acid is produced by
Fungi producting mycelium are called
Candidiasis is caused by
Candida albicans is capable to form
Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
A.fumigates can produce
The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
Tinea versicolor is caused by
Causative agent of Tinea nigra
Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
Sun ray fungus is
Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on
Griseofluvin is obtained from
-lactum ring is present in
All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure
In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used antibiotic is
The antibacterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on
The antibiotic produced from Bacillus subtilis is
bacitracin sensitivity test is done for
The effect of antibiotics on micro organisms is mainly due to
The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
Erythromycin belongs to chemical class of antibiotics
Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by
Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by
The function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme include
Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis develops by
Which of the following is penicillinase resistang acid labile peni
Which of the following does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
The anti tumor antibiotics act by inhibiting

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Drug resistance to sulphonamides is due to

Amoxycillin is combined with clavulanic acid to inhibit
Drug of choice for methicillin resistant staph. Aureus is
Nalidixic acid activity is due to
The best test for the susceptibility of a microorganism to ant
The smallest amount of chemotherapeutic agents required to in
Clear-zones formation around antibiotic disc is due to
Bacitracin is obtained from
Vancomycin is obtained from
-lactum antibiotics are
Virus causing mumps is also responsible for
Epidemic pleurodynia and myocarditis of new born infants are
Human papillomavirus causes following tumors:
Viral infection is caused due to
Viruses which do not carry enzymes for DNA synthesis as a part
Following virus is known to establish latent infections:
Viruses which have teratogenic property are
Kawasaki syndrome is
Mode of action of quinolone antibiotics on growing bacteria w
The role that human play in the plague life cycle is
Patient with presence of penile chancre should be advised by
Which organism is responsible for causing fever to a man deal
Diphtheria toxins are produced from the strains of C.diphtheri
Skin of the healthy person has normal microbial flora which in
Which of the following organisms can infect humans if improp
The parasite related to ancylostoma duodenale is
Which of the following amoeba does not live in large intestine
Which of the following is not related to congenital syphilis?
Streptococcus pyogens produce infection
Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia.
E.coli produce which type of toxins?
Main causative organism of gas gangrene is
Causative organism of whooping cough is
Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to
Diagnostic test for the identification of primary syphilis:
Sporadic summer diarrhea may be caused by
Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to
The best medium for the production of Penicillin is
Industrially important Antibiotic producing organisms shall be
Industrial alchohol will be produced by using starter culture
Pyruvate decarboxylase acetaldehyde + CO2 = This reaction is
The pyruvate, dehydrogenase multienzyme complex does no
A major ingradient of penicillin production media is
the outstanding example of traditional microbial fermentation
Which of the following involves the formation of nitrate from

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First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced

one of the standard cloning vector widely used in gene cloning
In alchoholic fermentation, CO2 is evolved during
In the industrial production of streptomycin, the secondary me
Tobacco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and tast
Vinegar fermentation involves
Carcinoma refers to
By-product of acetone-butanol fermentation include
Transgenic animals are for improvement of the quality of
Thermo resistant bacteria are important in the preservation of
The fungus used in the industrial production of citric acid:
Penicilin is commercially produced by
The most commonly used microorganism in alchohol fermentat
Vitamin B12 can be estimated and determined by using organ
Batch fermentation is also called
To differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors the mediu
The micro-organism useful for fermentation are
ndustrial microbiology, mainly depends on the phenomenon
Streptokinase is also termed as
Streptokinase is produced by
Large vessel containing all the parts and condition necessary
Basic principle in industrial microbiology is
For thorough mixing of medium of medium and inoculum the pa
Infermentor the top portion left without broth is called
Over heating of fermentator during fermentation is controlled
Antifoam agent is
The capacity of laboratory fermentors is
For the production of ethanol the raw material used is
Different methods of strain improvement are
Protoplasts can be prepared from
Upto the production of desirableproduction in the fermentor is
The purification and recovery of the production after fermentat
If the microorganisms are allowed to nutrient medium is calle
Submerged fermentations are
Batch fermentation is also called
If more than one microorganism is used to obtain the required
L. lysine is produced from
Methods used to get immobilized enzymes:
Raw-material used for the production of alcohol is
Microorganisms used for alcohol production
For streptomycin production the microorganisms required are
The by-product during streptomycin production is
For acetic acid production the methods followed are
For amylase production the micro organism required is
Pectinase is industrially produced from

1034 Microbiology
1035 Microbiology
1036 Microbiology
1037 Microbiology
1038 Microbiology
1039 Microbiology
1040 Microbiology
1041 Microbiology
1042 Microbiology
1043 Microbiology
1044 Microbiology
1045 Microbiology
1046 Microbiology
1047 Microbiology

Cellulose are produced from

Industrial Production of Vitamin-B12 is from
Clostridium acetobutylicum is used for the production of
In the production of ethanol industrially the yeast used is
Citric acid is used as
Citric acid is produced in aerobic conditions by the fungi
The raw material for citric acid production is
Aspergillus niger is used generally for the production of
In the citric acid production, the pH to be maintained in the f
The required temperature for the production of citric acid is
The penicillin produced in large scale submerged fermentation
The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicil
6-amino penicillic acid is prepared from penicillin sps by
The pH, to be maintained for the production of penicillin is

Option A
Living organisms discrimina
Leeuwenhoek
Chlorophyll a
Dissimilation
Abbc Spallanzani
a patient with tuberculosis
Cystitis
Azatobactor paspali
Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard
Xanthophyceae
IgG
Coenzyme Q
Phagemid vector
Make them acid
Glass
Biological process
Candida albicans
Neuberg chamber
Real
Ketolase
Conidia
Ederberg and Tatum
Louis Pasteur
Lwanowski
Robert Koch
Pasteur
Antony von
Pasteur
Sporadic
Protected water supply
Magnetic coils
Absence of locomotion
Glyoxysomes
Lord Lister
Bacteria
Mis-sense mutation
Cell wall
Joseph Lister
Water borne disease
Louis Pasteur
Mitochondria
Kohler and Milstein
LD50
Mercury lamp

Option B
Option C
Fermentation is a aerobic process
Living organis
A. Jenner
Pasteur
Chlorophyll b
Porphyrin
Immobilization
Decomposition
John Tyndall
Francisco Redi
a patient who has had minor surgery a patient with
Malaise
Anaphylactic s
Rhizobium
Nostoc
Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in Alfred D.Hersh
Cyanophyceae
Rhodophyceae
gM
IgA
Luciferase
Lactose dehyd
Yeast artificial chromosomes
Cosmid vector
Produce a hypotonic environment
Deplete nutrie
Quartz
Polythene
Lightining
Ultraviolet ligh
Aspergillus
Blastomyces
Anaerobic chamber
Mineral oil
Virtual
Real inverted
Zymase
Peroxidase
Sporangiospores
Ascospores
Beadle and Tatum
Griffith
Lister
Lister
Lord Lister
Edward Jenner
Louis Pasteur
Lister
Darwin
Hugo devries
Pasteur
Johnsen & Han
Jenner
Koch
Sporadic
Sporadic
Environmental sanitation
Immunization w
Superfine glass
Aluminium foil
Absence of nuclear envelope
Absence of nuc
Peroxisomes
Oxysomes
Iwanowski
Beijernick
Viroides
Prions
Neutral mutation
Non-sense mut
Medium
Pili
Ernest Abbe
Pasteur
Air borne disease
Food borne dis
Alexander Fleming
Metchnikof
Endoplasmic reticulum
Plasmids
Robert Koch
D Herelle
ID
MLD
Tungsten metal
both a and b

H. influenzae
0.2 micron
Pathogen
Burnet
Conjunction
Robert Koch
100 X
Robert Koch
Galileo
Milk
Paul Ehrlich
Paul Ehrlich
Klein Berger
Howard Ricketts
DeHerelle
DeHerelle
1m
A.V. Lewenhoek
Prof. Fritz
1000x 5000x
Objective
Numerical aperture

Bacillus species
0.2 millimeter
Virulence
Medwar
Transformation
Louis Pasteur
2000 X
Pasteur
Antony von
Food material
Joseph Lister
Joseph lister
Louis Pasteur
da Rocha-lima
F.W. Twort
F.W. Twort
2m
Pasteur
Janssen and Hans
1000x 2000x
Condensor
Angular aperture
1.5

Resolving power
Wave length
0.018 Ao
0.1 mm
Mercury lamp
Sunlight
Gabor
Broglie
10,000x
12,000x
Mercury lamp
Tungsten metal
Primary electrons
Secondary electrons
Funk
Frank
Avery Macleod & Mc.Carthy Lederberg & Taulum
Louis Pasteur
Elie Metchnikoff
Parter & Richet
Coombs
Histamine
Seratonin
Marrice Arthus
Von Perquit
Marrice Arthus
Von Perquit
Kochler & Milston
Niels Jerne
Sporadic
Pandemic
Biological vectors
Mechanical vectors
Indirect contact transmissionAttachment
Exaltation
Attenuation
Exaltation
Attenuation
LD
MLD
ID
LD50

Pneumococci
0.2 Angstrom u
Infection
Milstein kohler
Mutation
Jenner
50,000 X
Needham
Pasteur
Fruit juices
Elie Metchnikof
Elie Metchikoff
Robert Koch
Both a and b
Beijernick
Beijernick
7m
Janssen and H
Knoll and Rusk
500x 1000x
Ocular
Both a and b
2
1
N.A.
5 m
Both a and b
Busch
15,000x
Both a and b
Tertiary electr
Fisher
Zinder & Leder
Behring
Gell
Heparin
Richet
Richet
Both a and b
Epidemic
Biological rese
Direct contact
Both a and b
Both a and b
ID
ID50

Adhesions
Adhesion
Hyaluronidase
Koch
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Robert Koch
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Rosenbach
Schroeter and Gessard
Robert Koch
Neisser in 1879
Louis Pasteur
Schaudinn and Hoffman
Quinine sulphate
Pseudomonas
Pili
Nergi bodies
Mumps
Lipolytic organisms
Escherichia
DNA replication
Fail to reproduce on artificia
Neurotoxin
Lag phase
Virons
B 850 & Fe-S
Peptidoglycan
Siderococcus
Budding
Icosahedral, with envelope,
Mycobacteria
Halophile
Monclonal cells
Lactic acid only
Thiobaillus thiooxidence
Bdellovibrio
Gram staining
Spirogyra
Avirulent phases
Fungi
Cattle
Purple colored
Fast green

Invasiveness
Invasiveness
Coagulase
Metchnikoff
Escherich
Edward Jenner
Hansen
Edward Jenner
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Schaudinn and Hoffman
Pasteur in 1878
Landsteiner and Weiner
Louis Pasteur
Auramine
E.coli
Cell membrane
Niagri bodies
Rubella
Proteolytic organisms
Klebsiella
Protein synthesis
Have a rigid cell wall
Endotoxin
Log
Prions
B 850 & B 875
Lippolysacharide
E.coli
Bursting
Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA
Mycoplasts
Basophile
Clones
Lactic acid + H2O + CO2
T. ferroxidance
Clostridium
Morphology
Cephaleuros
Single cell proteins
Commensels
Sheeps
Pink colored
Haematoxylon

Toxigenicity
Toxigenicity
Catalase
John Snow
Shiga
Louis Pasteur
Edward Jenner
Edward Jenner
Antonyvon Le
Passet
Louis Pasteur
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Janskey
Burgey
All of these
Haemophilus in
Cell wall
Negri bodies
Polio
Toxigenic micr
Proteius
Cell wall synth
Are resistant to
Enterotoxin
Stationary
Nucleoida
B 845 & B 875
Theichoic acid
Spirellum
Binary fission
RNA, helical w
Mycoplasms
Barophile
Protoplasts
Lactic acid +
Tetrahymena t
Mycobacteriu
Glucose fermen
Prototheca
Transgenic pla
Bacteriophage
Rats
Pale colored
Crystal violet

Rhodochrome
Telophase
ATGC!ATCC
Phytomonas
Azetobacter
Mycoses
Giemsa stain
Reproduction
Gliding movement
Glycolysis
Cell membrane
Carbohydrates
Algae
Photosynthesis
Nucleoli are formed
Vertebrates
Diseases present at birth
Lyases
Plasma membrane
Mycoplasms
Lysozome
Cellulose hydrolyzing micro
Chromatin
Micro body
Mitochondria
Clostridum septicum
Insulin
Protein and DNA
Calvin cycle
Protozoa
Elementary bodies
Vibrio
Co-factors of enzymes
Chemostat
Nesslers reagent test
Corynebacterium
Rubella
Lytic
Tetanus
Influenza
Prophage
Toxigenic microbes
Infectious virus particles
Attenuation
WIDAL test

Fucoxanthin
Chlorophyll onl
Anaphase
Prophase
ATGC!ATGG
ATGC!AGGC
Salmonella
Lactobacillus
Rhizobium
Lactobacillus
Systemic mycoses
Mycotoxicosis
Alberts stain
Acid fast stain
Cell division
Growth
Darting movement
Pseudopoidal
Krebs cycle
Electron Transp
Cell wall
DNA
Lipids
Proteins
Fungi
Bacteria
Chemosynthesis
Breakdown of
Crossing over takes places
Chromatids are
Invertebrates
Fungi
Deficiency disease
Occur during li
Diastases
Polymerases
ER
Lysosomes
Sperochetes
Actinomycetes
Reductase
Protease
Protein hydrolyzing bacteria
Lipid hydrolyz
A DNA template
m RNA molecu
Chromosome
Ribosome
Chloroplast
ER
Xanthomonas oriza
Bacillus coagu
nterferons
Vaccines
Protein and mRNA
Protein and rR
Hatch-Slack cycle
Glycolate cycl
Bacteria
Algae
Pascheur bodies
Negri bodies
Pseudomonas
Torula
Building blocks of important amino acidConstituents o
Autostat
Thermostat
Proteolytic test
Lactose test
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Measles
Mumps
Lysogen
Lytogen
Dysentery
Gas gangrene
Typhoid
Encephalitis
Temperatephage
Bacteriophage
Proteolytic microbes
Saccharolytic
Non-infectious particles
Incomplete par
A virulence
Inactivation
ELISA
Rosewaller tes

Temperate
Fried-Landers bacillus
Gram positive
Chloroplast
A.H. Gram
Mucoplasmas
Gram positive bacteria
Plasmodium
Prophage
Oxygen acceptors
Hfr
Conjunction
Crystal violet
Capsule
Simple staining
Staphylococcus
Birds
Enterococci
Mitochondria
Only grow anaerobically

Avirulent
Klebs hofflers bacillus
Gram negative
Protoplast
H.C. Gram
Rickettsias
Gram negative bacteria
Paramecium
Temperate phage
ATP acceptors
F
Transduction
Iodine
Cell-wall
Differential staining
Meningococcus
Animals
Entamoeba histolytica
Lysosomes
Only grow in the presence of O2
0% < 0.5%
Lymphocytes
Lymphoblasts
Mesosomes
Plasmids
Gonococci
Strphylococci
Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes
Thick
Lipids are present
Prokaryotes
Animals
S. typhi
K. pneumoniae
Albert
Nigerosin
Heat labile
Heat stable
Bacterial viruses
Bacterial pathogens
0.020.2 m
0.510 m
Mitosis
Meiosis
Cocci
Comma forms
Mycobacteria
Mycoplasmas
9-10 nm
12-13 nm
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Kind of ribosomes
Formed during cell lysis
Capsule
Cell wall
Polypeptide
Polynucleotides
Mycoplasma
L form
Mitochondria
Chloroplasts
Cell wall
Nucleus
Albumin
Charcoal
Proteins and polysaccharidesProteins and polysaccharides

Virulent
Frchs bacillus
Ricke Hsia
Sphaeroplast
N.C. Gram
Prions
Virus
Yeast
Bacteriophage
Electron accep
Hbr
Transformation
Saffranin
Endospores
Negative stain
Gonococcus
Man
Enterobacteria
Golgi bodies
Ordinarily an
2 8%
Fibroblasts
Mitochondria
Treponema pal
Viruses
Teichoic acids
Eukaryotes
B. anthracis
Lactophenol co
Part of cell wal
Bacteriophage
0.0150.2 m
Conjugation
Bacilli
Clostridia
10-25 nm
Fungi
A part of cell w
Cell membrane
Polysaccharide
Protoplast
Golgi complex
Cell membrane
Serum
Polysaccharide

Mitochondria
Golgi complex
Lysosomes
Fimbria
Flagella
Cytoskeleton
Culture
Gram stain
Biochemical re
Salmonella typhi
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Bacillus anthra
Staphylococcus
Meningococcus
Gonococcus
composed of
Proteins
Polymetaphosp
Saffranine
Methylene blue
Crystal violet
Spore formation
Simple binary fission
Conjugation
Weakly acid fast
Strongly acid fast
Alcohol fast
Safranine
Crystal violet
Methylene blu
Pseudomonas pyocyaneus Serratia marcescens
D. pneumoniae
Crystal violet, Iodine solutio Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranin Alcohol, Crysta
75%
90%
60%
Pink
Violet
both a & b
Pink
Violet
both a & b
Allows the color
It adds color
Decolorises the
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Same in both
Thick in Gram positive than Thick in Gram negative than Gram positEqual in both
1-10 %
1-5 %
2-8 %
Gram positive
Gram negative
Between positi
Elementary bodies
Reticulate bodies
Complex struct
Ziehl neelsen staining
Castaneda & Machiavello stains
Giminez stains
Fresh water organisms
Sea weeds
Fresh water w
Algalogy
Phycology
Mycology
Phytoplankins
Benthons
Sea weeds
Isogamy
Anisogamy
Oogamy
Isogamy
Anisogamy
Oogamy
Red algae
Brown algae
Green algae
Saphrophytes
Parasites
Commensals
0o 25oC
0o 35oC
10o 25oC
Streptomyces
Spirillospora
Frankia
Algae
Fungi
Bacteria
Parvo virus
Pox virus
Pox virus
Parvo virus
Pox virus
Pox virus
Capsid
Nucleocapsid
Virion
Brick shape
Bullet shape
Helical shape
Simple staining
Negative staining
Differential sta
Simple staining
Negative staining
Differential sta
Simple staining
Negative staining
Differential sta
Kohler
Coons
Both a and b
Kohler
Coons
Both a and b
Positive staining
Negative staining
Shadow staini
Nitrates
Nitrites
Ammonium sal
Halophiles
Red extreme halophiles
Osmophiles
Nitrosomonas
Nitrosocytes
Nitrobacter

Alcaligenes
Pseudomonas
Thiobacillus
Hydrogen Oxydising bacterSulphur Oxydising bacteria
Iron-Oxidising
Chemotrophs
Phototrophs
Heterotrophes
Saprophytes
Symbionts
Commensals
Bacteria in symbiotic associaThe group of fungi in symbiotic associatThe groups part
E.coli in intestine of man
Lichens
Normal floraof
Lipolytic
Proteolytic
Lysozyme
Micrococcus sps.
Nitrosomonas sps.
Proteus sps.
The algal part in Lichens
The fungal part in Lichens
Laustoria form
Capsules
Cell-wall
Endospores
Genome
Gene map
Gene pool
Bacteriophages
Temperate phages
phage
Virulent
A virulent
Useful
Conjugants
Fertile cells
Exconjugants
Monocytes
Macrophages
Basophils
Phagosome
Lysosome
both a and b
H2SO4
Singlet O2
Superoxide rad
Acetic acid
Lactic acid
Citric acid
Opsonisation
Aggulation
CFT
Killing of the bacteria (micr Inactivation of bacteria
More activating
Focal infection
Acute infection
Pyogenic infec
Viraemia
Septicaemia
Bacteraemia
Viraemia
Bacteraemia
Septicaemia
Cellwall component
Plasma component
Serum compon
Streptococcus pyogenes
Str. pneumoniae
Str. viridans
Flies
Horse
Man
Poverty and insanitation
Mosquitoes
Toxin produced
It shares some Inaba, OgawaResistant to polymuxin
Eltor is non-mo
1 3 months
3 6 months
6 9 months
Protected water supply
Environmental sanitation
Immunisation w
Sh.shiga
Sh.schmitzi
Both a and b
Neisseria
Staphylococci
Mycobacteria
Grams staining
Simple staining
Both a and b
Corynebacterium
M. tuberculosis
M. bovis
Is negative in tubercular lep Positive in lepromatous type
Indicated delay
Fever
Zoonotic
Pyogenic
Protein M
Protein T
Protein R
Str. pyogenes
Virulence group
Viridans group
CO2
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Oxygen unstable
Thermostable
Oxygen stable
Haemaggulutinin inhibition tTissue culture method
Embryonated
Cytopathic effects
Hela cells
Both a and b
B. abortus
B. melienasis
B. suis
A typical mycobacteria
Brucella
Streptococcus
Bacillus anthracis
Escherichia-coli
Corynebacteri

Vector borne
Zoonotic infection
Wound bone
Bacillus anthracis
Brucella
Corynaebacter
Facultative anaerobe
Obligate anaerobe
Facultative ae
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Bordetella
Retro Viridae
Rhabdo Viridae
Toga Viridae
Reverse transcriptase
RNA directed DNA polymerases
Both a & b
RNA virus
DNA virus
Retro virus
HTLV I
Bunya virus
HTLV III
Klebsiella
Str. pneumonia
Mycoplasma
3 weeks
6 weeks
9 weeks
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
RNA polymera
IHA
Western blot
ELISA
Intrinsic period
Incubation period
Window period
Western blot test
ELISA test
Both a and b
Western blot test
ELISA test
Karpas test
LGV
CMV
Pnemocystis ca
CD3 lymphocytes
CD4 lymphocytes
CD2 lymphocyt
CFT
Peripheral smear
Blood culture
Phycomycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycete
Ring worm of the foot
Ring worm of scalp
Ring worm of n
Finding bacteria in pathologicIsolation of bacteria by culture from ex Both a and b
Formation of acid in sucrose,Liquification of gelatin due to productio Strains are cat
Endemic
Epidemic
Sporadic
R.mooseri
R.quintana
R.prowazekii
Drinking milk of sick animalsTending cattle
Inhaling infect
8:01
1:02 Almost equal
Simple stain
Counter stain
Differential sta
Size and shape of individual Characteristic arrangement or grouping Motility
o
of the
M.tuberculosis
Legionella pneumophila
M.leprae
Cytoplasm
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Equal susceptibility to hydro Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharRigid peptoglyc
Flagella
Cell wall
ATP synthesis
M.pneumoniae
Rickettsia rickettsii
Chlamydia tra
has ability to cause urinary tlack of atrue bacterial cell wall
susceptible to p
Inhalation of conidia
Invasion of mucous membrane
Contamination
Contain no peptidoglycan
Are prokaryotic
Susceptible to
Inhibits phagocytosis
Is an aid to diagnose
Cross reacts w
Balantidium coli
Entamoeba coli
Trichomonus va
Ascaris
Giardia
Plasmodium
BCG
TAB
Polio
Tranformation
Transduction
Conjugation
Found in the walls of Gram po
Provide receptors for phages
Make up outer
Monotrichate
Amphitrichate
Iophotrichate
Production of organism from Helps in adherence of bacteria to surfacBoth a and b
Highly refractile
Usually dehydrated
Sensitive to f

Mycobacteria
Bacterial spores
Nocardia
Clostridium
Bacterium spores
Exoskeleton
Oxidation of inorganic comp Oxidation of organic compounds
Absorption of
Salmonella
Vibrio cholera
Cl. tetani
Preptostreptococci
Strepto viridans
Strepto hemoly
Hyaluronides
Phosphate
Hemolysin
Sulphuric acid
Nitric acid
Hydrochloric a
Fecal culture
Bile culture
Urine culture
M.tuberculosis
C.diphtheriae
Cl. tetani
Rickettsiae
Chlamydiae
Spirochaetes
Parvo virus
Paramyxo virus
Herpes virus
Arbo virus
Echo virus
Entero virus
Bacteria
Virus
Fungi
No growth on inanimate cult Not sensitive to antibiotics
No energy pro
Fox virus
Mumps virus
Measles virus
Giesna and Castaneda stainsMacchiavello and Gimnezstains
Both a and b
EMB agar
EMR-Vp medium
Lactose broth
Sterilent
Disinfectant
Antiseptic
Picric acid
Gmiemsa
Neutral red
Synthetic medium
Semisynthetic medium
Differential m
Pasteurization
Pasteurization
Disinfection
Sterlization
Disinfection
Surgical sterili
Time required to kill all cell Temperature that kills all cells in a give Time and temper
Simple
Complex
Defined
Tetani toxin
Cholera toxin
Diophtheria to
Above 150oC
Below 100oC
110oC
Isolation
Separation
Pure culturing
U.V. rays
IR
-rays
X-rays
U.V. rays
-rays
Freezing
Pasteurisation
Chilling
Drying
Hot air oven
Autoclave
Fluorescence microscope
Bright field microscope
Dark field mic
Dry heat
Atmospheric pressure
120oC
62.8oC
35.7oC
68.2oC
Inoculum
Suspension
Dilution
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Vitamins
Corynebacterium glutamicu Clostridium botulinum
Mycobacterium
Reproduction
Growth
Binary fission
7
1
6
0oC to 15oC for 15 min.
6 oC to 10oC for 10 min.
15oC to 3 to
Pasteurization
Sterilization
Fermentation
Purification of culture
Introduction of inoculum
Separation of a
121oC temp.and 15 lbs. press
120oC temp.and 20 lbs. pressure for 30150oC temp.for
Gram negative bacteria
Gram positive bacteria
Protozoa
Enrichment medium
Enriched medium
Selective med

Dry heat
Moist heat
Chemical meth
Sterilization
Freeze-drying
Burning to ash
100oC for 1 hour
120oC for 1 hour
160oC for 1 ho
Efficiency of a disinfectant Dilution of a disinfectant
Purity of a disi
Standard Plate Count (SPC) Spread plate
Lawn culture
Brown algae
Red algae
Green algae
Salmonella
Clostridium
Staphylococci
Pathogenicity
Attenuation
Exaltation
50oC
100oC
120oC
70% alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Autoclaving
Autoclaving
Hot air over
Incineration
Tyndall
Pasteur
Koch
Lab media
Broth
Living cells
All the microorganisms can Only pathogenic forms can be removed Only non-path
Above 100oC
Below 100oC
100oC
Enriched medium
Special medium
Enrichment m
Nutrient Agar
Nutrient broth
Wilson and Blai
Robertson cooked-meat medNutrient agar
Nutrient broth
Wilson & lair
Blood Agar
Tetra thionate
Streak-plate
Agar slant
Both a & b
Slant
Needle
Inoculation loo
Inoculum
Suspension
Dilution
Pure-culturing
Isolation
Separation
Inoculation
Incubation
Incineration
Autoclave
Hot air oven
Laminar flow
Dry heat
Moist heat
Steam under p
Bacillus subtilis
Coxiella burnetti
Bacillus stear
Concentration of the substanTime of action
pH of the medi
Formaldehyde
Acetaldehyde
Glutamal alde
Gram positive
Gram negative
Mycoplasmas
Ethelene oxide
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Thiomersal nitrate
Phenyl mercury
Mercurochrom
Stock cultures
Stabcultures
Sub-cultures
Separation
Streaking
Isolation
Potato dextrose agar (PDA) Sabourauds agar
Czapekdox aga
52oC for 30 min.
65oC for 30 min.
70oC for 30 mi
Thermophiles
Extreme thermophiles
Thermoduric
Gas pack system
Brewer jar system
Pyrogallic acid
1 to 6
6 to 9
1 to 11
Osmophiles
Halophiles
Both a and b
Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pne
Staphylococci
Salmonella typhosa
Vibrio cholerae
Blood culture
Urine and stool culture
Widal test
Shiga
Schmitz
Sonnei
S.typhi
S.enteritidis
S.cholerasuis

Salmonella spp.
Shigella spp.
E.coli
Colorless colonies
Greenish pigmentation
Pink coloured c
LJ medium
Mac Conkeys medium
Potassium tell
LJ medium
Mac Conkeys medium
Wilson blair m
Armadillos brain
Foot pad of mice
Liver of guinea
76 Lower stein Jensens medMac Conkeys medium
Robertsons c
Eleks gel precipitation test Naglers test
Weil felix test
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
8-12 hours
7-10 hours
5-7 hours
2-3 days
7-10 days
14-21 days
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Vibrio
Sabousands medium
NNN medium
Wilson Blair m
Chlamydospore
Blastospore
Arthospore
Sabourauds medium
Nutrient agar
Nutrient broth
Radiation
Chemicals
Heating
1. Crystal Violet I.P.
A. Pasteurella pestis
2. Ampicillin I.P.
B. Bacillus cerus
3. Plaque Vaccine I.P. C. Mic C. Micrococcus luteus
4. Rifampicin
D. Lactobacillus aureus
E. Lactobacillus aureus
F. Bacillus subtillus
1. Lysol
A. Higher boiling fractions of the
2. Black fluids
B. Prepared from refined tar acids
3. White fluids
C. Solution of cresol with soap
4. Iodophores D. Basic molec D. Basic molecules has varying numbers of amino groups
E. Iodine combined with comE. Iodine combined with complex organic chemicals
1. Schick test
A. Tuberculosis
2. Mantoux test
B. Detection of extraneous microorganisms
3. Sterility test
C. Diphtheria toxin
4. Potency test
D. Detection of infection caused by Rickettsia prowazeki
E. Usefulness of immunological products
1. Glass syringes
A. Autoclave
2. Disposable
B. Chemical instrument
3. Respiratory parts
C. Dry heat
4. Dialysis machine
D. g-Radiation
E. Chicken pox in children
1. Coombs test A. Candida aA. Candida albicans
2. Coagulase test B. Virulen B. Virulent staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Non-agglutinating antibodies
Glucose broth
Serum broth
Agar and blood
Microscopic exam
Culture of sputum/blood
Animal inocula
Emulator
Antiformin method
Petroffs meth
Micrography
Ultra-centrifugation at high speed
Ultra-filteratio
Alberts staining
Lugol s staining
Mollers staini

Core
Spore cortex
Capsule
Salmonella typhi
Shigella dysenteriae
Vibrio cholerae
Lactobacilli
Streptobacillus
Bacillus anthra
Respiration inhibits
Photosynthesis inhibits
Protein synthes
Hepatitis Virus
TMV
Cauliflower mo
Glycosis
EMP
KDPG
Epidemic
Pandemic
Communicable
Cyclins
Cdks
Cyclins and Cd
Putrification bacteria
Ammonifiaction bacteria
Nitrification ba
Isotonic solution
Hypertonic solution
Hypotonic solu
Point mutation
Silent mutation
Missence muta
Corchicine
ATP
Hydrazine
NAD
Cytochromes
ATPase
Flies
Milk
Person to pers
Phenotype
Genotype
Cryptotype
Oral route
Blood
Milk
Plasmodium vivox
P.ovale
P.falsiparum
Puccinia
Rhizopus
Claveceps
Growth Factors
Sources of energy
Sources of car
Mg+2
Na+
Ca+2
Cell wall
Capsule
Mesosomes
Spirochets
Treponema
Aquaspirillum
Corynebacterium diphtheria Clostridium tetani
Clostridium pe
Mycoplasma
L-forms
Both a and b
Pneumonia in human beings Pneumonia in human beings
Dwarf disease
Bacteria
Fungi
Algae
Pyruvate
Lactate
None of these
Holo enzyme
Apo enzyme
Co enzyme
A Vitamin
Proteins
B Vitamin
Wilson blair medium
Mac conkey broth
Robertsons c
Industrial wastes poured int Extent to which water is polluted with Amount of car
Succinic dehydrogenase by m
Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
Hexokinase by
Bacteria
Yeasts
Algae
Nitrosomonas
Nitrosococcus
Nitrobacter
Fats
Aminoacids
Polysaccharide
Episome
Plasmid
Colplasmid
Lag phase
Plasmids
Log phase
Log phase
Lag phase
phase
Naphthquinone
Plastoquinone
Ubiquinone
Batch culturing
Ascus
Fruiting body
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Log phase
Liver
Muscle
Brain
Copper
Magnesium
Zinc
Log
Lag
Lack
Wilson-Blair medium
Macconkey medium
Ellner medium

Lag phase
Log phase
Death phase
Thermophilic bacteria
Microaerophilic bacteria
Facultative ana
6.8 7.2
5.6 8.2
3.0 6.0
F
R
Col
Calcium
Magnesium
Cobalt
B-complex
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
At certain range the concentramount of nutrients added relationship Both a and b
Phototrophs
Autotrophs
Chemotrophs
Nitrogen
Sulphur
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Sulphur
Sulphur
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Organic compounds
Inorganic compounds
Elemental com
Nucleotides
Nucleotides
Phospholipids
Zn+2, Cu+2, Mn+2
MO6+, Ni2+, B3+ and CO2+
Both a and b
Mg2+
Ca2+
Na+
Co-enzymes
Co-melecules
Building blocks
Riboflavin
Niacin
Pyridoxine
Lactobacillus spp.
Bacillus anthracis
Bacteroides m
Psychrophiles
Facultative psychrophiles
Average psychr
Acids
Alkali
Buffer
Reproduction
Growth
Binary fission
Binary fission
Transverse binary fission
Longitudinal bi
30 min.
10 min.
20 min.
The time required for the cellThe total division of the cell during its l The total no.of
Geometric progression
Multiplication
Doubling
Log phase
Lag phase
Stationary pha
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
Death phase
Exponential phase
Lag-phase
Growth rate
Generation time
Sigmoid curve
3
4
2
Decline phase
Stationary phase
Lag phase
The growth of organisms at The lowest temperature at which the m The maximum te
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Psychrophiles
Aerobes
Anaerobes
Faculative ana
Aerophilic
Microaerophilic
Aerobic
Sodium Thioglycollate
Nitrous acid
Citrate
Photolysis
Photophosphorylation
Photosynthesis
No NADP formation
No NADP utilization
NADP is conve
Cyanobacteria
Algae
Bacteria
Oxygenic photosynthesis
Photosynthesis
Anoxygenic ph
One
Two
Four
MgCl2
Cacl2
NaCl
Meromixis
Exozygote
Mitosis
H.influenza
Vibrio
Gonococci
Absence of O2
Presence of CO2
Presence of O2

Lag phase
30oC
Decline phase
Decline phase
Cyt b
ds DNA
Ethidium bromide
Histone in RNA
SV 40

Log phase
5oC
Stationary phase
Stationary phase
Cyt c
ss DNA
Nitrosogeranidine
Bacterial RNA
T4 phage

Death phase
25oC
Lag phase
Lag phase
Cyt d
s RNA
Acridine orang
eukaryotic RN
Tobacco mosaic

Clones
Genomic library
mRNA
MT gene
GH
GRF
Polyethylene glycol
Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine Hypoxathing-gu
Exonuclease and ligase
Restriction endonuclease and polymeraLigase and po
Plasma cells and plasmids Plasma cells and myeloma cells
Myeloma cells
Monoclonal antibody techniqGenetic finger printing
Recombinant D
46
23
47
s. How many autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell?
Change from aerobic to anaeProviding oxygen to anaerobically respirRapid utilizati
Trans location
Inversion
Crossing over
Gene
Cistron
Replicon
Replicated chromosomes to Homologous chromosomes of a diploid sNon-homologou
Transferase
Hydrolase
Isomerase
Gal and biogenes
Bio and niacin genes
Gal and B gen
Relaxed control plasmid
Stringent control plasmid
Both a and b
Structural gene
Regulator gene
Operator gene
G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase
Male somatic cell
Zygote
Female somatic
Prophase I
Prophase II
Anaphase I
Conservative
Semiconservative
Dispersive
Translation
RNA splicing
Transcription
Alanine
Adenine
Lysine
N-bases
Nucleosides
Nucleotides
Enzymes
Hormones
RNA
Baldness
Red-green colour baldness
Facial hair/mo
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Glucose molec
DNA
RNA (+) type
t-RNA
Nake RNA virus
Naked DNA virus
Enveloped RNA
Polio virus
Adeno virus
Echo virus
Restriction enzymes
Ligases
Nucleases
Transduction
Induction
Transfection
Acetic acid
Pyruvic acid
-ketoglutaric
Semi conservative
Conservative
Dispersive
20 Ao
34 Ao
28 Ao
Plasmids
Cosmids
Plasmomeros
RNA
DNA
Proteins

Transcription
DNA
Amino acids
Repetitive sequences
RNA polymerase
Reo virus
Adeno virus

Transformation
RNA
Nucleosides
Unique sequences
Reverse transcriptase
Rhabdo virus
Bacteriophage T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6

Reo viruses
Ionic bonds
Double hydrogen bonds

Retro viruses
Covalent bonds
Single hydrogen bonds

Translation
Protein
Nucleotides
Amplified seq
DNA polymera
Parvo virus
Papova virus

Bacteriophage
Hydrogen bond
Triple hydroge
5
2
3
15 Ao
34 Ao
30 Ao
There is phosphodiester bond
They have positive and negative ends Nucleotides ar
P1 phage
P22 phage
-phage
Genome
Gene map
Gene-structure
Large amound of DNA is tranA few no. of genes are transferred
Whole DNA is t
Endogenate
Exogenate
Mesozygote
Transcriptase
Transduction
Transformation
Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation
HCV
HAV
HBV
HEPV
Card vaccine
BPL
IgE
IgA
IgM
Immunogenic
Non-immunogenic
Antigenic
IgG
IgM
IgD
B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes
Monocytes
Chiasmata
Synaptonemal complex
Centromeres
8%
12%
16%
Activators
Substrates
Inhibitor
Lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Hybridoma technology
Biotechnology
Fermentation
Antibody molecules
Unbroken skin
Antigen molec
Affinity
Avidity
Covalent
Staphylococcus aureuss
Yersinia psdtis
Treponema pal
Basophilic
Eosinophilic
Neutrophilic
Saccharomyces cerevisiae Rhizopus
Candida utilis
Southern blot
Northern blot
Western blot
IgA
IgG
IgE
Retro virus group
Rhabdo virus group
Hepatitis virus
Haem agglutination
Coplement fixation
Conglutination
DNA
Soluble RNA
m-RNA from D
B cells
T cell
BT cells
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgM
Species specific
Isospecific
Autospecific
Precipitation
Flocculation
Agglutination

Lipids
IgM
Immunotherapy
Monoclonal antibodies
Widal test
IgG
Affiniy
Infection
Anthrax
Penicillin allergy
Freezing (20C70C)
Age of the person
Influenza
Adjuvant
Diphtheria
Small pox material
Hfr-Strain
Inheritable
Bonemarrow
T-cells
Immunogens
High molecular weight
Lymph nodes
NK-cells
T-cells
IgG
Cross-reactive antigens
Solubility
Chemical complexity
Proteins
IgA
IgG
IgA
Ishizaka
Reversible
Detection of antigens
mmunoelectrophoresis
One antigen/antibody
Precipitation
Precipitation
Exotoxins
Diphtheria
Haemolysis
ELISA
Humoral immunity

Lipoprotein
IgG
Gene therapy
Polyclonal antibodies
ELISA
IgA
Avidity
Placental transfer of antibodies
Rabies
Contact dermatitis
Lyophilization
Amount of antigen
Allergy
Stabilizer
Tetanus
Chicken pox material
F+-Strain
Syppressed
Thymus
-cells
Epitomes
Chemical complexity
Spleen
K-cells
-cells
IgA
Epitopes
Froeignness
Solubility
Glycoproteins
IgG
IgA
IgM
Porter
Irreversible
Detection of antibodies
Flocculation
Two antigens/antibody
Agglutination
Agglutination
Endotoxins
T.B.
Phagocytosis
CFT
Cell-mediated immunity

Glycoprotein
IgA
Blood transfus
Both a and b
Aggluatination
IgD
Reaction
Injection of an
Chicken choler
Arthus reactio
Ether
Well being of
Allergy
Conditioner
Measles
Cow-pox mater
F-Strain
Dominating
Spleen
NK cells
Haptens
Both a and b
Thymus
Lymphocytes
Killer cells
IgM
Hidden epitop
Denaturation
Steric configur
Phospholipids
IgM
IgM
IgG
Richet
Specific
Both a and b
Agglutination
More than two
Electrophoresi
Neutralisation
Viruses
Cholera
Both a and b
Neutralization
Active immunit

Specific
Non-specific
Active
Mechanical barriers
Chemical barriers
Both a and b
Natural
Artificial
Active & Passi
Natural means
Artificial means
Both a and b
Type-I
Type-II
Type-III
T-cells
-cells
Mast cells
Tuberculin type
Contact dermatitis
Granulomatou
T.B.
Diphtheria
Cholera
Similar specificity
Different specificities
Similar size
Spleen cell Myeloma cell Spleen cell Spleen cell
Myeloma cell
Attenuated bacilli
Killing the bacilli
Live bacilli
BCG
Measles vaccine
Sabin vaccine
Sabin vaccine
Salk
BCG
1 year
7 months
between 9 mon
Heat killed
Formalin killed
Attenuated
Triple vaccine
Double vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
Diphtheria
Pertussis vaccine
Tetanus toxoid
0.5 ml at intervals of 4 weekA booster dose of 0.5 ml
Both a and b
Cellular vaccine
Recombinant vaccine
Mixed vaccine
Inactivated (killed) vaccine Attenuated vaccines
Autogenous va
Measles and Mumps vaccineCholera vaccine
Typhoid vaccin
Anti viral vaccines
Anti bacterial vaccines
Autogenous va
Cellular vaccines
Sub-cellular vaccines
Attenuated vac
Rubella & BCG
Polio & TAB
Diphtheria & T
Diphtheria, Tetanus
Diphtheria, Pertusis
Diphtheria, Tet
Influenza
Measles
Rabies
Blood
Semen
Vaginal fluid
V. Cholera
S.typhosa
Both a and b
Artificial active immunity
Passive immunity
Natural active
Growing it at a temperature By passage through animals of differentBy continous cu
10 days
2 3 months
10 years
Hyper gamma globulinaemiaCirculating antibodies
Response to co
Egg albumin
RBC and serum
Vegetable prot
Motile organ
Non-motile organ
Both a & b
Active
Passive
Both a and b
Identification of isolated bactTyping of bacterial species
Study of antige
Blood of hologous group sho Direct matching between patients seruBoth a & b
Protein in nature
Should have a large molecular weight Soluble in tissu
Local vasodilation
Increased capillary secretion
Excess eosinoph
Schick tests
Dick test
V-P test
Adult T-cell lymphoma
Hairy cell leukemia
Adult T cell le
Chemical fraction of the causChemical fraction of the causative bacteFormalin inacti
Pneumocystisis carinii
Cryptospodidium
S.pneumoniae
Cause pruritic skin lesions. Are wingless
Transmit epide
Belongs to B-cell lineage
Belongs to T-cell lineage
Display cytotox

IgE
IgA
IgD
IgA 1
IgG 1
IgG 2
Decreased CD4 + T cells
Increased CD8 + T cells
Hypergammagl
IgM
IgE
IgA
Schick test
Dick test
Casoni test
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM
A compliment fixation
Placental transport
Heat stability
Single diffusion in one dimenSingle diffusion in two dimension
Double diffusi
Sheep bred blood corpusclesMicrophase inhibiting factor
Skin test for d
Acquired Haemolytic anaemiRheumatoid arthritis
Hashiomoto di
Prepared from tubercle bacillIt is inferior to old tuberculin
Consists of filt
Influenzae
Rabies
Russian spring
Influenza virus
Small pox virus
Measles virus
Paramyxo virus
Orthomyxo virus
Reo viruses
Clostridum tetani
Clostridum Welchi
Diptheria
HIV
Measles
Mumps
5-HMC
5-HMA
5-CHM
pertusis
mumps
cholera
Diphtheria, tetanus and rabi Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis Whooping cough
They have 30 S ribosomes They have mitochondria
They have 70
Retrovirus
Prion
Rhabdovirus
Primary metabolite
Secondary metabolite
Tertiary metabo
Immediate
Delayed
Allergy
Food borne
Water borne
Milk borne
Pyoderm
Pyogenic
Pyrogen
Acridine orange
Alkaline phosphate
Neutral red
Apitososis
Agamma globulinemia
Gammaglobul
Genetic Engineering
Genetic counseling
Genetic drift
Proteins
Glyco proteins
Lipo proteins
Enzymatic assay
Turbidometric assay
End point dete
Janudice
AIDS
Cancer
45 80 days
15 35 days
35 50 days
Bacitracin
Chloramphenicol
Novobiocin
Algae
Fungi
Protozoa
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Tetracyclins
Streptomycin
Penicillin
Vancomycin
Griseofulvin
Amphoterein B
Gentian violet
Food adultration
Food poisioning by streptococcus bacterChemical conta
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuelae
Streptomyces
Streptococcus species
Streptomyces griseus
Straphylococcu
Disinfection
Filtration
Purification
Alkaligenes viscolactis
Streptococcus
both a and b
Bacteria in blood
Toxin in blood
Pus in blood
Interleukin 2 infusion
Azathioprine
Alpha interfero

Cellwall synthesis
RNA synthesis
Bacteria
Fungi
Staph. albus
Staph. aureus
P. vivax
P. falciparum
M. tuberculosis
Cynaobacteria
Bactracin
Penicillin
Aspergillus sps
Penicillium sps
Fleming
Pasteur
Synergism
Antaginism
Histamine
Corticosteroid
Tetracyclines
Erythromycin
Bacteriophages
Mycoplasma phages
Unicellular organisms
Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
R.Quintana
R.rickettsii
Copthalmia
C.trachomatis
Frei test
Mantoux test
Cephaloeuros
Ulothrix
S.griseus
S.rimosus
Adeno virus
Corono virus
Adeno virus
Corono virus
Tetracyclines
Penicillins
Undulent fever
Remittent fever
A
B
Liver
Gall bladder
Bacteraemia in first week
Carrier in 90%
Shigella
V.cholerae
Enterotoxins
Endotoxins
Urinary tract infections
Septic infections of wounds
Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Bovis
Robert Koch
Lois Pasteur
Gram positive
Resistant to Penicillin
Startch granules
Polymeta phosphate granules
Upto 2 weeks
Upto 1 week
Ascolis thermoprecipitation Elecks gel precipitation test
Aldehyde
Formalin
Bacteraemia
Pyaemia
Tubercle formation
Liquid formation
Brucellosis
Diphtheria
0.20.5 ml
0.1 ml
Pulmonary Kochs syndrome Sarcoidosis
Human tubercle bacilli
Avian tubercle bacilli
Refampicin, Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
Large sized tuberculomas
Miliary tuberculosis
Tuberculoid Leprosy
Borderline tuberculoid
Impetigo contagiosa
Erysipeals

Folate synthesi
Spirochaete
Strep. viridana
P. ovale
Clostridia
Cyclosporine
Alternaria sps
Koch
both
Epinephrine
a and b
Virions
Presence of 70
R.orinetalis
C.pneumonias
Schick test
Macrocystis
S.scabies
Hepatitis virus
Paramyxo viru
Streptomycine
Dengue fever
C
Small intestine
All serotypes
V.cholera Para
Endotoxins
Diarrhoea
C. Jeikeium
Klebs and Loeff
Gram negative
Lipid granules
24 weeks
C.R.P test
Phenols
Septicemia
Both a and b
Botulism
0.05 ml
Carcinoma bro
Bovine tubercle
Both a and b
Tuberculous ly
Borderline lep
Boil

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Str. viridans
Str. pyogenes
Scarlet fever
Whooping cough
Septicaemia
Paronychia
Capsular polysaccharide
Specific soluble substance
Streptococcus
Pneumococcus
Orthomyxoviridae
Retroviridae
Eight segments of RNA
Two strands of RNA
St.pneumoniae
St.pyogenes
Rubella / 2-day measles
Rubella / 3day measles
Congential rubella
Post natal rubella
Retroviriae
Paramyxoviriae
Negribodies
Babes-Ernest granules
Pertusis
Plague
M. tuberculosis
S. typhi
Frei
Weil
Anthrax
Tetanus
Alimentary
Cutaneous
Sheep
Cattle
Orthromyxo virus
Paramyxo virus
Rhabdo viridae
Toga viridae
Street virus
Fixed virus
The central nervous system The peripheral nerves
Chick embryo vaccine
HDCS vaccine
Duck embryo vaccine
HDCS vaccine
Clostridium botulinum
Cl. tetani
Via lymphaties
Arterial blood
Exotoxin in sympathetic sys Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
Lock jaw
Trismus
Cl. tetani
Cl. welchii
Botulin
Tetanospasmin
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyoge
T. pallidum
T. pertenue
Penicillin
Chloramphenicols
VDRL test
ELISA
Agglutination test
Slide flocculation test
Neisseria gonorrhoeae excepNon-motile diplococci
Air borne disease
Water borne disease
Candida
Streptococcus
Urethritis
Conjuctivitis
Pili
Cell membrane
Toga Viruses
Arbo Viruses
Culex tritaeriorhynchus
Culex annulirostris
Sand fly
Ticks
Bunya virus
Calci virus

Stre. pyogens
Stph. aures
Brucellosis
Pneumomnia
Vi-antigen
Meningococci
Both a and b
Single RNA
Influenza
Rubella / 4-da
Expanded rube
Orthomyxo vir
Kopliks spots
Brucellosis
C.neoformans
Castaneda stri
Diphtheria
Pulmonary
Goats
Rhbdo virus
Paramyxo virid
Both a and b
Muscle tissues
Semple vaccin
Sheep brain va
Cl. welchii
Cranial nerves
Endotoxin in s
Anorexia
Cl. botulism
Tetanolysin
Vibrio cholerae
T. carateum
Erythromycin
FTA
Precipitation te
Oxidase positi
Sexually trans
Staphylococcu
Arthritis
Its cellular loc
Para myxo Viru
Culex vishnui
Aedes aegypti
Arbo virus

Tick
Mite
Sand fly
Kala-agar
Typhoid
Malaria
Liver
Spleen
Adrenal gland
Anophels cucifacies
Anopheles fluvatis
Anopheles ste
Guinea Worm
Filaria
Malaria
P. ovale
P.vivax
P.falciparum
P. ovale
P.vivax
P.falciparum
Ring stage
Schizont
Gametocyte
Induces antibodies
Prevents only asexual forms with reprodNo effects on cl
P. falciparum
P.vivax
P.ovale
Plasmodium
Gametocytes
Type of parasit
Gametocyte
Exo-erythrocytic phase
Erythrocytic p
Osteogenic sarcoma
Lymphatic leukemia
Malaise & Anor
Citrinin
Patulin
Penicillic acid
A. ochraceus
P. puberulum
Both a and b
Moulds
Filamentous fungi
Both a and b
Candida albicans
Aspergillus spp.
E. floccosum
Single cells
Pseudomonas
Multicellular f
A. niger
A. fumigatus
A. flavus
Endotoxins
Exotoxins
Enterotoxins
Griseofulvin
Amphotericin B
Gentian violet
P. commune
P. bicolor
P. glaucum
Candida albicans
Malassezia furfur
Aspergillus nig
Malassezia furfur
Exophiala werenekii
Candida albica
Histoplasma capsulatum
Histoplasma duboissi
Aspergillus nig
Actinomyces irraeli
Chromoblastomycosis
Streptomyces g
Bacteriostatic
Bactericidal
Antibiotic
Penicillium notatum
Streptomyces griseus
Penicillium gri
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Tetracyclins
Novobiocin
Nystatin
Chloromycetin
Serine
Aspergine
Alanine
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Chloramphenol
Cell membrane permeabilityCell wall synthesis
DNA synthesis
Vancomycin
Bactiracin
Both a and b
Pneunocci
Group A Streptococci
Gonococci
Inhibition of cell-wall synthesDamage to the cytoplasmic membrane Inhibition of n
Penicillin
Bacitracin
Cyclosporin
-lactose
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Transduction
Transformation
Mutation
Attaching to 30 S ribosome uAttaching to 50 S unit or ribosome
By the attachm
Amino acid synthesis
Thymidine synthesis
Protein synthes
Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation
Amoxycillin
Cloxacillin
Carbenicillin
Penicillin
Carbenicillin
Amikacin
Cell wall synthesis
RNA synthesis
Cell membrane

Production of PABA
Folic acid synthetase
Drug alteratio
DNA gyrace
Cell synthesis
Protein synthes
Ampicillin
Erythromycin
Neomycin
The inhibition of DNA synthesInhibition of protein synthesis
The inhibition
Tube-dilution test
Paper-disc test
Both a and b
MIC (minimum inhibitory conThermal death point (TDP)
Death rate
Growth of the bacterium surrLysis of the bacterial cells surrounding tThe destruction
B. subtilis
B. anthracis
B. cereus
Streptococcus species
Aspergillus niger
Streptomyces o
Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Both a & b
Measles
Hepatitis A
Rabies
Group B cox sack virus
Reovirus
Polyomavirus
Hepatic carcinoma
Cervical cancer
Condyloma ac
Acute self limited illness
No apparent symptoms
Chronic infecti
Hepatitis B virus
Poxyviruses
Heepes simplex
Adeno virus
Varicella-zoster virus
Cytomegalovir
Herpes simplex virus
Cytomegalovirus
Rubella virus
Most prevalent in Japan and Patients show rickettsia like bacteria in Strain involve
Inhibition of lactamase
Prevention of the cross linking of glycin Inhibition of
Secondary reservoir
Primary transmission vector
Primary host
To take rest at home
To swab the chancre and culture on Thay
To Gram stain t
Trepanema Pallidum
M.tuberculosis
Clostridium no
Encapsulated
Sucrose fermentors
Of the mitis an
Enterobacteriaceae
Aerobic diphtheria bacilli
Anaerobic dipht
Trichinella spiralis
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium
Wuchereria bancrofti
Necatur americanes
Loa loa
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeda histolytica
Endolimax nan
Aneurysm
Saddle nose
Still birth
Streptococcal sore throat
Acute glomerulo nephritis
Rheumatic fev
Salmonella anetum
Salmonella cholerasuis
Salmonella ty
Exotoxins
Endotoxins
Leucocidin
B.anthrax
Clostridium tetani
Cl.deficile
Bordetella pertussis
Bordetella parapertussis
Bordetella bron
Vibrio cholerae
B.anthrax
Rickettsial pox
VDRL test
Treponema pallidum immobilization testKahns test
E.coli
Enterobacter
Hafnia
Lepra bacilli
Corynebacterium diphtheria
Cl.welchi
Nutrient agar
Corn steep liquor
Sulfite waste l
Disk plate method
Direct plate method
Serial dilution
Top yeast
Middle yeast
Serial dilution
Lactic acid fermentors
Ethanol fermentors
Algae
Aerobic bacteria
Microphilic bacteria
Facultative ana
Corn meal
Corn steep liquor
Cane steep liq
Vinegar
Penicillin
Citric acid
Ammonification
Denitrification
Nitrification

AIDS
Small pox
Herpes simple
Ti pasmid
EMBL 3
pBR 322
Decarboxylatin of pyruvic acFormation of acetaldehyde
Oxidation of a
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin B6
Alcohol fermentation
Curing
Degradation
Yeasts only
Yeasts with lactic bacteria
Yeasts with ace
Malignant tumours of the conMalignant tumors of the skin or mucou Malignant tumo
Riboflavin
Penicillin
Isopropanol
Milk
Meat
Eggs
Freezing
Canning
Chemicals
Rhizopus Oryzac
Fusarium moniliformae
Rhizopus nigri
P.notatum
P.chrysogenum
P.citrinum
A spergilus niger
Bacillus subtilis
Sacharomyces
Lactobacillus sps
Lactobacillus Leichmanni
Bacillus subtili
Closed system
Open system
Fed-Batch sys
Mac Conkeys medium
Stuarts medium
Sugar medium
Bacteria
Yeast
Fungi
Pasteurisation
Fermentation
Vaccination
Fibrionolysin
Catalase
Coagulase
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Str. faecalis
Bio reactor
Auto reactor
Impeller
Suitable growth conditions Fermentation
Providing asept
Shaft
Headspace
Impeller
Shaft
Headspace
Impeller
Cooling jacket
Steam
Cool air
Silicon compounds
Corn oil
Soyabean oil
1215 liters
2000 gallons
500 liters
Molasses
Cellulose
Sulphite waste
Protoplast fusion
Recombinant DNA technique
Genetic recomb
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Both a & b
Upstream process
Downstream process
Surface fermen
Upstream process
Downstream process
Surface fermen
Submerged fermentation
Surface fermentation
Dual fermentat
Batch fermentation
Continuous fermentation
Both a and b
Closed system
Open system
Fed-batch sys
Batch
Continuous
Dual
Coryne bacterium glutamicuCorynebacterium sps.
Mycobacterium
Adsorption
Encapsulation
Covalent bond
Molasses
Starch
Sulphite waste
Saccharomyces sereviceae Bacillus subtilis
Penicillium ch
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces niger
Saccharomyces
Vitamin A
Proline
Vitamin B12
Orleans process
Rapid process
Submerged pro
B. subtilis
S. cereviceae
A. nigar
S.cereviceae
Trichoderma Koningi
A. nigar

S.cereviceae
Propionibacterium sps.
Acetone - Butanol
K.pneumoniae
Flavouring agent in food
Aspergillus
Corn
Ethanol

Trichoderma Koningi
Pseudomonas sps.
Ethanol
Kluyreromyces fragilis
As an antioxident
Penicillin
Molasses
Penicillin
7 5.0 to 6.0
10oC 80oC
30oC 50oC
Penicillin-A
Penicillin-D
Penicillium chrysogenum
P-notatum
Acylase
Punicillin acylase
7.5

A. nigar
Both a and b
Vitamin-B12
S. cerevisiae
As preservativ
Mucor
Starch
Citric acid
8.0 to 9.0
20oC 50oC
Penicillin-G
Streptomyces
Penicillinone
6.5
8

Option D
Right Answer
Both a and b
A
Koch
A
Rhodapsin
A
Neutralization
B
Pasteur
B
a patient with leukemia A
Arthritis
B
Bradyrhizobium
D
Alfred D.Hershey & MacleC
Pheophyceae
B
IgD
B
Carboxylase reductase C
Yeast episomal plasmids B
Produce a hypertonic en D
None of these
C
All of the above
D
Cryptococus
B
Olive oil
A
Virtual inverted
B
Oxidase
B
None of these
C
None of these
A
Robert Koch
C
Beijerinck
B
Edward Jenner
D
Lamark
C
None of these
C
A.L.Hock
C
Endemic
B
All of these
B
Electrons
A
Absence of protein synthB
Spherosomes
B
Edward Jenner
A
Mycoplasma
C
Reverse mutation
C
Capsule
C
Beijerink
A
Atthropod borne disease B
Robert Koch
C
Chondroids
D
Land Steiner
A
All of these
C
None of these
B

E.coli
C
0.2 centimeter
A
None of these
B
Owen
A
Plasmids
A
Leeuwenhock
D
2,00,000 X
D
None of these
B
Koch
B
Both a and c
C
None of these
A
Pasteur
C
Antony von Leeuwenhoc A
Robert Koch
C
Jwanosky
A
Jwanosky
B
5m
D
None of these
C
None of these
C
None of these
B
All of these
B
None of these
A
1.8 C
None of these
A
1 mm
B
None of these
A
None of these
A
20,000x
B
None of these
B
None of these
B
Crick
B
Watson & Crick
A
Widal
B
None of these
A
All of these
D
Porter
A
Porter
B
None of these
C
Endemic
A
Both a and c
B
None of these
C
None of these
B
None of these
A
All of the above
D
MLD
B

Enzymes All of the aboveE

None of these
B
DNase
A
Virchow
B
Robert Koch
B
None of these
A
Louis Pasteur
B
Louis Pasteur
D
None of these
B
Sir Alexander Ogston
B
Edward Jenner
A
Edward Jenner
B
None of these
B
Moss/ None of these
B
Laennec/ None of these A
None of these
C
Haemophilus streptococcC
Flagella
C
Neisser bodies
C
Measles
D
Saccharolytic microbes A
Serratia
A
None of the above
D
Stain well with Grams stC
All of the above
A
Decline
B
None of these
B
B 850 & B830
B
Inner membrane
B
Mycoplasms
B
Binary fusion
C
ds DNA, brick shape
A
Bacteroides
C
Xerophile
A
Protoplasts
B
Lactic acid + alchohol + D
Cryptaporiclium
A
Mycoldaima
C
All of the above
C
Both b and c
C
Nitrogen fixing bacteria C
None of these
C
Both a and b
D
Green colored
C
Safranin
C

Chlorophyll + phycobilin D
None of the above
C
None of these
D
Hay bacillus
A
Hay bacillus
C
Superficial mycoses
B
Both a and b
B
All of the above
C
None of these
B
HMP shunt
A
DNA or RNA
D
Minerals
C
Plants
B
Assimilation of nitrogen C
Naking occurs
C
Vascular plants
C
Spread from one individuA
Hydrolase
C
Golgi
A
Methanogena
A
Lysozyme
D
Amino acid degrading bac
A
A pecialized protein
C
Mitochondria
D
Golgi apparatus
B
Agrobacterium tumefacieD
Edible proteins
C
Protein and tRNA
C
Krebs cycle
C
All of the above
B
Guarnieri bodies
C
Coxiella
C
Binder of cell structure A
Both a and c
A
Rose aindole reagent tesA
None of these
A
Influenza
C
None of these
B
Botulism
D
Malaria
A
Metaphage
B
Lipolytic microbes
D
Defective virus particles C
Freezing
A
Westernblotting
A

None of these
A
Kochs bacillus
B
Mycoplasma
A
Chromatophores
D
H.A. Gram
B
Virusoides
B
Viroid
A
Entamoeba histolytica D
Metaphage
A
Protein acceptors
C
C+
A
Transfection
B
All of these
B
Flagella
B
None of these
D
Rhodococcus agilis
A
All of them
B
Straphylococci
D
Peroxisomes
B
Ordinarily an aerobe but D
5 10%
C
All of these
D
Chromophores
D
Streptococci
C
None of these
B
None of these
C
Both a and b
C
Shigella
A
None of these
C
Polymerized complexes A
Various
C
0.1100 m
C
Binary-fission
D
Plemorphic froms
C
Rickettsia
B
30-40 nm
C
None of these
A
Principal sites of respir D
Slime layer
B
Polypeptides or polysaccD
Spheroplast
B
Chondroids
D
Mesosomes
A
Starch
C
All of these
D

Ribosomes
C
Both a and b
D
Haemaggulation test
D
Shigella flexneri
A
Rhodococcus agilis
D
Polysaccharide
C
Pienic acie
B
Gametes
B
Non acid fast
A
Malachite green
D
Staphylococcus aureus C
All of these
A
25% B
None of these
B
None of these
A
None of these
C
None of these
A
In Gram negative cell-walA
None of these
B
None of these
B
a and b
D
Both b and c
D
None of these
B
Bacteriology
B
None of these
A
All the above
D
All the above
C
Red and brown algae
B
None of these
A
10o 35oC
B
Dermatophillia/ All of th D
Protozoans
D
None of these
B
None of these
B
None of these
C
Tadpole shape
D
None of these
A
None of these
B
None of these
C
None of these
A
None of these
B
None of these
B
All of these
D
Extreme thermophiles B
Azatobacter
C

None of these
C
Nitrite oxidizing bacteria A
Organotrophs
C
Parasites
D
All of these
C
All of the above
B
Both a and b
B
Both a and c
D
None of these
A
Flagella
A
None of these
C
All of these
B
Symbiotic
C
None of these
A
All of these
D
None of these
A
All of these
D
None of these
B
None of these
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Chronic infection
C
Bactericidal
C
Pyemia
A
Cytoplasm component C
Str. faecalis
A
None of these
C
None of these
A
Causes less subclinical i D
9-12 months
B
All of these
D
Sh.para dysenteriae
C
All of the above
C
Ziehl Neelsens stainin D
M. avium
B
Indicated delayed hyperse
C
None of these
D
Polysaccharide C
A
None of these
C
Serum
C
None of these
C
Plaque formation
A
None of these
B
B.canis
D
Bordetella pertusis
B
Brucella
A

Soil borne
B
None of these
A
Obligate aerobe
B
Pneumococcus
B
Paramyxo Viridae
A
Boils
C
Entero virus
C
d. All
D
Mycobacterium tuberculoD
12 weeks
C
None of these
A
Immuno electrophoresis B
None of these
C
VDRL test
B
Karpas test
A
Syphilis
C
Blymphocytes
B
All of these
D
Fungi imperfecti
D
Both a and c
C
None of these
C
All of above/ None of theC
all/ None of these
D
any of them/ None of theA
All of these
C
None of these
A
None of them
C
All of these/ None of the D
Both a and b/ Both b andE
Nucleus
C
Greater resistance to dryiD
A capsule
B
Chlamydia psitacci
B
All of these/ None of the B
All of these/ None of the D
Have nuclear membranes/
E
All of these
A
Toxoplasma gondii
A
None of these
C
Cholera
A
Cell fusion
D
Influence the permeabili A
Peritrichate
A
None of these
C
All of these
D

All of these
D
None of these
A
Utilisation of visible light C
Sarcinae
C
All of these
D
Streptokinase
B
Carbolic acid
A
All of these
D
None of these
B
Clostridium
A
Pix virus
B
Orthomyxo virus
A
Rickettsia
B
Insensitive to interferon D
None of these
D
Malachite green
C
Endo agar
B
Antifungal agent
B
Malachite green
C
None of these
B
Lypophilization
D
Disinfection Sterilization A
All of the above
B
Natural
A
Toxoid
C
None of these
B
All of these
A
None of these
C
None of these
B
Frosting
C
None of these
A
Flourescence microscopeB
All of these
C
60.8oC
A
None of these
A
All of these
D
Pseudomonas
A
None of these
B
9.5 B
None of these
C
Tindalisation
D
To grow microorganisms C
130oC temp for 2 hr.
C
Helminthes
B
Differential medium
B

Mechanical method
D
Exposure to formation B
60oC for 1 hour
C
Quantity of a disinfectantA
Roll tube method
A
Blue-green algae
B
Proteus
D
Toxigenicity
C
180oC
C
Both b and c
D
None of these
B
Jenner
A
None of these
C
All of these are correct B
None of these
B
None of these
A
Czapeck-dox medium
C
Mac-Conkeys agar
A
Mac-Conkeys Agar
D
None of these
C
Autoclave
B
None of these
A
Both a and b
B
Isolation
B
Incubator
B
Both b and c
D
Pseudomonas
C
All of the above
D
Both a and c
D
Rickttsiae
A
Carbon tetrachloride
A
All of these
D
None of these
B
Dilution
D
All of the above
D
43oC for 30 min.
B
Facultative thermophiles C
None of these
C
7 to 12
D
Both a and b
C
Shigella shigae
A
Shigella shigae
B
All of the above
D
Robert Koch
C
S.typhimurium
B

None of these
A
Medusa head appearanc C
PDA medium
C
None of these
A
Any of the above
B
None of these
C
Bacitracin test
B
None of these
C
2-4 hours
A
3-4 weeks
B
Shigella
B
Czapek dox medium B
Conidia
B
Minimal agar medium
B
All of these
D
1.d, 2.c, 3.a, 4.e

1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e

amino groups
1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e

ia prowazeki
1.c, 2.d, 3.e, 4.b

1.d, 2.a

Chocolate agar/ All of th E

All of these/ None of the E
Concentration method/ AlE
All of these
D
Indian ink preparation C

All of these
C
E. coli
A
Vibrio cholerae
A
No effect occurs
A
None of these
B
Both b and c
D
Comma
C
None of these
C
Denitrifying bacteria
B
Normal solution
B
None of these
C
All of these
C
Hydrolases
B
Food and water
D
Histotype
B
Person to person
C
P.malaria
C
Penicillium
C
Sources of electron donaA
Mn+2
B
Emdotoxins
D
None of these
C
Clostridium botulinum C
Bacteria
C
Citrus canker
D
Protozoans
B
Both a and b
A
Enzyme
B
B Vitamin
C
EMB agar
C
Amount of oxygen needed
A
Carbonic anhydrase by cC
All the three
D
Azatobacter
C
Polypeptides
C
Both b and c
B
None of these
D
Both a and b
B
Both a and b
A
Sporangiosphore
A
All of these
A
R.B.C
B
Molybdenum
D
None of these
A
Thayee-Martion medium C

Stationary phase
Mycobacteria
8.0 14.0
Lysogenic factor
Sodium
Vitamin C
None of the above
Chemolithotroph
Oxygen
All of these
None of these
All of the above
All the above
None of these
Fe+2
None of these
Folic acid
All of these
Mesophiles
None of these
None of these
None of these
25 min.
None of these
None of these
None of these
Log phase
None
None of these

A
B
A
D
C
A
B
C
C
D
D
A
D
D
C
C
B
A
C
C
B
C
C
C
A
C
D
C
B
5B
Log phase
D
growth is stable
B
None of these
A
Strict aerobes
A
Anaerobic
B
None of these
B
Respiration
C
All are correct
A
Plants
A
Photophosphorylation
B
Six
D
HCl
B
Meiosis
A
S.typhi
D
None of these
B

Stationary phase
45oC/ None of these
Synchronous growth
Log phase
Cyt o
None of these
None of above
TRNA
Adeno virus

A
B
D
D
D
A
C
C
C

None of these
B
FIX
A
Both b and c
B
Restriction endonucleaseA
Plasma cells and bacterial
B
Polymerase chain reactioB
44 D
D
Nonsynthesis of ATP
B
Duplication
A
Muton
D
Maternal and paternal c A
Oxido reductase
D
None of these
A
None of these
A
Promoter gene
A
M phase
B
Sperm cell
B
Telophase II
A
None of the above
B
Transposition
C
Arginine
B
Histones
C
DNA
A
Night blindness
B
Sucrose
B
m-RNA
B
Enveloped DNA virus
C
Poty virus
B
Hydralases
B
Infection
A
Fumaric acid
A
Rolling loop
A
42 Ao
B
plastides
A
All of these
B

Replication
A
Polysaccharides
A
Nucleo proteins
C
Non-coding sequences B
Tmv
and transferase
Terminal
B
Bacteriophages
Ms2,
F2
Retro virus
A
/ Dahila mosaic virus
Herpes virus and caulifloE
and Bacteriophages
174, M12, M13
E
Polar charges
C
Both b and c
A
None of these
C
5 Ao
B
Nitrogenous bases are h A
Both a and c
C
Chromatin
B
None of these
B
Merosite
B
Recombination
A
Cell fusion
A
HBV
C
Simple
A
IgG
C
None of these
B
IgE
B
RBCs
A
Protein axes
A
4% A
Cofactor
C
None of these
B
None of these
A
Phagocytic cells
B
None of these
B
Streptococcus syphilitis C
Acidophilic
A
All of the above
C
None of these
C
IgM
B
Adeno virus group
A
Schultz Dale PhenomenoA
Nucleotides
A
Endothelial cells
A
IgG
A
IgE
D
Organ specific
B
Complement fixation
A

Nucleic acid
B
IgD
A
Organ transfusion
A
None of these
A
CFT
B
IgM
D
None of these
A
Injection of gamma- globA
All of the above
D
Anaphylaxis
B
Formaldehyde
C
All of the above
D
All of these
D
All of these
B
Yellow fever
C
Measles material
C
both a and c
A
Heritable
D
None of these
B
Eosinophils
B
Paratope
C
None of these
C
Bone marrow
A
None of these
C
Nk-cells
B
IgE
D
Forssman antigens
C
None of these
A
All of these
C
None of these
B
IgD
B
IgE
B
IgD
B
None of these
A
Both a and b
D
None of these
C
None of these
A
None of these
A
CIE
B
None of these
C
All of these
A
Typhoid
A
None of these
C
Agglutination
A
Passive immunity
A

Passive
B
None of these
C
All of these
D
None of these
C
All a, b and c
D
Macrophages
B
All of these
D
None of these
A
None of these
A
None of these
A
None of these
A
TAB vaccine
C
TAB
A
None of these
C
live
B
All of these
A
All of these
D
None of these
C
Toxoid vaccine
C
None of these
A
Anti-rickettsial vaccine A
None of these
C
Heterologous vaccines B
Hepatitis A & Rabies
A
None of these
C
Polio
C
All of these
D
None of these
C
Local immunity
A
Any one of the above/ NoD
None of the above
A
Lymphoid hyperplasia/ AllE
Snake venom/ All of thesC
None of these
A
None of these
B
All of these/ None of the D
None of these
C
All of the above/ None ofB
All of these
E
Precipitin test
A
All of these
B
Avirulent live bacteria/ AlE
Toxoplasma
D
Require previous
Pediculus
humanus
E
antigen exposure
forand pht
activation
C

115. a 116. b 117. e 118. d 119. e 1

IgM/ IgG
A
IgG 3/ IgG 4
A
CD4 +/CD8 + ratio greate
E
IgG
B
Freis test
C
IgD
B
IgD
B
Sedimentation coefficienA
Double diffusion in two B
All of these
D
All of these
D
None of these
A
All of these
D
Herpes virus
A
Retro viruses
C
Clostridium botulinum D
Rubella
B
5MHC
A
rabies
C
Whooping cough, cancer C
None of the above
B
Retroprison
A
None of the above
B
None of these
A
Air borne
A
None of the above
B
Bromothymol blue
B
Sickle-cell anemia.
B
Genetic equilibrium
D
Both a and b
D
Metabolic assay
C
Diabetis
B
5 15 days
D
Tetracycline
A
Viruses
C
Chromphenical
B
Both a and b
C
Nystatin
D
Food processing
C
None of these
B
None of these
A
All of these
D
None of these
D
Multiplication of bacteriaD
None of these
D

DNA gyrase
D
Virus
C
None of these
B
None of these
B
Both a and b
A
All of these
D
None of these
A
None of these
A
None of these
C
None of these
C
Penicillins
C
Tiny strains
B
It causes hemolysis in h D
R.prowazekii
C
C.psittasi
B
Dick test
A
Prototheca
D
S.erythraeus
D
Pox virus
B
None of these
A
None of these
A
Enteric fever
D
None of these
A
Large intestine
B
Rosy spots on 18th day A
S.typhi
C
Hemolysins
B
Dysentery/ Meningitis E
C. equi
A
Volhard and Fahr
C
Resistant to Chloramphen
A
None of these
B
None of these
C
M.R.T. test
B
None of these
B
Toxaemia
D
None of these
A
Tuberculosis
D
0.2 to 0.3 ml
B
Lymphoma
A
A typical mycobacteria C
None of these
C
Tuberculous cavity of theD
Lepronmetous leprosy D
Paronchia
D

None of these
C
None of these
B
Cholera
A
None of these
C
Forsmann antigen
A
None of these
A
None of these
A
None of these
B
None of these
C
Rubella / 1-day measles B
Both a and c
D
None of these
B
Fever
B
None of these
C
Brucella
D
Rose water
C
None of these
A
Hepatic
B
All of these
D
Toga viruses
C
None of these
A
None of these
A
All the above
D
BPL vaccine
C
BPL vaccine
B
Cl. perfringens
B
None of these
C
Endotoxin in parasympatA
Dyspagia
B
Cl. septicum
C
Cholaragen
A
Candida
A
T. endemicum
A
Tetracyclins
B
None of these
A
None of these
B
Air borne infection
D
Both a and c
C
Gonococcus
D
All of the above
D
Cyclic enzymes
A
Ortho myxo Viruses
B
None of these
C
Culex
C
None of these
C

Tsetse fly
C
All of these
D
Bone marrow
B
Anopheles minimus
A
Kala-azar
C
P.falciparum
B
P.falciparum
C
None of these
B
None of the above
A
P. malaria
A
Schizont
C
All of these
C
Both a and b
D
All of the above
D
None of the above
C
Yeasts
A
M. audouinii
A
None of these
B
A. oryzae
D
None of these
A
Nystatin
C
P.notatum
D
None of these
B
Aspergillus flavus
B
Aspergillus flavus
B
Cryptococcosis
A
Antiseptic
A
None of these
C
Chloramphenicol
B
Colicins
D
None of these
C
Cycloserine
D
Protein synthesis
B
None of these
B
Staphylococci
B
All of the above
D
All of the above
D
Aminoglycosides
C
Plasmids
D
By the attachment to m- B
Both a and b
D
Mutation
D
Methicillin
D
Vancomycin
C
The DNA structure & funcD

Low affinity for drug syntB

-lactamase enzymes
D
Vancomycin
D
Both b and c
A
None of these
C
None of these
A
None of these
B
B. anthracoid
A
Bacillus anthracis
C
None of these
C
Variola
A
Cytomegalovirus
A
Plantar wart
A
All of these
D
Retroviruses/ All of theseE
Hepes simplex virus/ All E
All of these
D
All of these
D
Inhibition of reverse tranC
Accidental intruder in ratD
To repeat VDRL test in 1 E
Brucella melitensis/ NoneD
Glucose fermentors/ LysoE
Nonhemolytic staphylococc
E
Diphyllobothrium latum/ E
Trichinella spiralis
B
Entamoeba gingivalis
D
Hutchisos teeth
A
None of these
A
Salmonella entritidis
B
Both a and b
D
Cl.perfringens
D
None of these
A
All of these
A
Dark ground microscopicD
Serratia
A
None of these
A
Whey
B
Crowded plate method D
Crowded plate method C
Plants
B
Strictly anaerobic bacteriB
None of these
B
Tetracyclin
A
Nitrogen fixation
C

Hepatitis B.
B
EMBL 4
C
Both a and b
D
Ethanol
A
Lactic acid fermentation B
Yeasts with butric acid baC
Malignant tumors of the D
All of these
A
All of the above
D
Irradiation
B
Aspergillus nigricans
D
P.roquefortii
B
Escherichia coli
A
E.Coli
B
Sub-merger system
A
Citrate medium
A
None of these
B
Both b and c
B
Hyaluronidase
A
Str. pyogenes
D
None of these
A
All of these
B
Sparger
C
Sparger
B
None of these
A
All of these
D
10000 gallons
A
None of these
C
All of these
D
None of these
B
None of these
B
None of these
B
All of these
B
None of these
C
None of these
A
Fed-batch
C
None of these
A
All of these
D
All of these
D
None of these
A
All of these
A
None of these
C
All of these
D
None of these
A
None of these
C

None of these
None of these
None of these
Both b and c
All of the above
All of these
None of these
Lactic acid
1.0 to 6.0
25oC 30oC
None of these
Saccharomyces sps
None of these

B
C
B
D
D
D
A
C
B
D
C
A
B
5B

b 117. e 118. d 119. e 120. c

Sr. No Category
1 PHARMACOGNOSY
2 PHARMACOGNOSY
3 PHARMACOGNOSY
4 PHARMACOGNOSY
5 PHARMACOGNOSY
6 PHARMACOGNOSY
7 PHARMACOGNOSY
8 PHARMACOGNOSY
9 PHARMACOGNOSY
10 PHARMACOGNOSY
11 PHARMACOGNOSY
12 PHARMACOGNOSY
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30 PHARMACOGNOSY
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34 PHARMACOGNOSY
35 PHARMACOGNOSY
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37 PHARMACOGNOSY
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39 PHARMACOGNOSY
40 PHARMACOGNOSY
41 PHARMACOGNOSY
42 PHARMACOGNOSY
43 PHARMACOGNOSY
44 PHARMACOGNOSY

45 PHARMACOGNOSY
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49 PHARMACOGNOSY
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55 PHARMACOGNOSY
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60 PHARMACOGNOSY
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80 PHARMACOGNOSY
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82 PHARMACOGNOSY
83 PHARMACOGNOSY
84 PHARMACOGNOSY
85 PHARMACOGNOSY
86 PHARMACOGNOSY
87 PHARMACOGNOSY
88 PHARMACOGNOSY
89 PHARMACOGNOSY

90 PHARMACOGNOSY
91 PHARMACOGNOSY
92 PHARMACOGNOSY
93 PHARMACOGNOSY
94 PHARMACOGNOSY
95 PHARMACOGNOSY
96 PHARMACOGNOSY
97 PHARMACOGNOSY
98 PHARMACOGNOSY
99 PHARMACOGNOSY
100 PHARMACOGNOSY
101 PHARMACOGNOSY
102 PHARMACOGNOSY
103 PHARMACOGNOSY
104 PHARMACOGNOSY
105 PHARMACOGNOSY
106 PHARMACOGNOSY
107 PHARMACOGNOSY
108 PHARMACOGNOSY
109 PHARMACOGNOSY
110 PHARMACOGNOSY
111 PHARMACOGNOSY
112 PHARMACOGNOSY
113 PHARMACOGNOSY
114 PHARMACOGNOSY
115 PHARMACOGNOSY
116 PHARMACOGNOSY
117 PHARMACOGNOSY
118 PHARMACOGNOSY
119 PHARMACOGNOSY
120 PHARMACOGNOSY
121 PHARMACOGNOSY
122 PHARMACOGNOSY
123 PHARMACOGNOSY
124 PHARMACOGNOSY
125 PHARMACOGNOSY
126 PHARMACOGNOSY
127 PHARMACOGNOSY
128 PHARMACOGNOSY
129 PHARMACOGNOSY
130 PHARMACOGNOSY
131 PHARMACOGNOSY
132 PHARMACOGNOSY
133 PHARMACOGNOSY
134 PHARMACOGNOSY

135 PHARMACOGNOSY
136 PHARMACOGNOSY
137 PHARMACOGNOSY
138 PHARMACOGNOSY
139 PHARMACOGNOSY
140 PHARMACOGNOSY
141 PHARMACOGNOSY
142 PHARMACOGNOSY
143 PHARMACOGNOSY
144 PHARMACOGNOSY
145 PHARMACOGNOSY
146 PHARMACOGNOSY
147 PHARMACOGNOSY
148 PHARMACOGNOSY
149 PHARMACOGNOSY
150 PHARMACOGNOSY
151 PHARMACOGNOSY
152 PHARMACOGNOSY
153 PHARMACOGNOSY
154 PHARMACOGNOSY
155 PHARMACOGNOSY
156 PHARMACOGNOSY
157 PHARMACOGNOSY
158 PHARMACOGNOSY
159 PHARMACOGNOSY
160 PHARMACOGNOSY
161 PHARMACOGNOSY
162 PHARMACOGNOSY
163 PHARMACOGNOSY
164 PHARMACOGNOSY
165 PHARMACOGNOSY
166 PHARMACOGNOSY
167 PHARMACOGNOSY
168 PHARMACOGNOSY
169 PHARMACOGNOSY
170 PHARMACOGNOSY
171 PHARMACOGNOSY
172 PHARMACOGNOSY
173 PHARMACOGNOSY
174 PHARMACOGNOSY
175 PHARMACOGNOSY
176 PHARMACOGNOSY
177 PHARMACOGNOSY
178 PHARMACOGNOSY
179 PHARMACOGNOSY

180 PHARMACOGNOSY
181 PHARMACOGNOSY
182 PHARMACOGNOSY
183 PHARMACOGNOSY
184 PHARMACOGNOSY
185 PHARMACOGNOSY
186 PHARMACOGNOSY
187 PHARMACOGNOSY
188 PHARMACOGNOSY
189 PHARMACOGNOSY
190 PHARMACOGNOSY
191 PHARMACOGNOSY
192 PHARMACOGNOSY
193 PHARMACOGNOSY
194 PHARMACOGNOSY
195 PHARMACOGNOSY
196 PHARMACOGNOSY
197 PHARMACOGNOSY
198 PHARMACOGNOSY
199 PHARMACOGNOSY
200 PHARMACOGNOSY
201 PHARMACOGNOSY
202 PHARMACOGNOSY
203 PHARMACOGNOSY
204 PHARMACOGNOSY
205 PHARMACOGNOSY
206 PHARMACOGNOSY
207 PHARMACOGNOSY
208 PHARMACOGNOSY
209 PHARMACOGNOSY
210 PHARMACOGNOSY
211 PHARMACOGNOSY
212 PHARMACOGNOSY
213 PHARMACOGNOSY
214 PHARMACOGNOSY
215 PHARMACOGNOSY
216 PHARMACOGNOSY
217 PHARMACOGNOSY
218 PHARMACOGNOSY
219 PHARMACOGNOSY
220 PHARMACOGNOSY
221 PHARMACOGNOSY
222 PHARMACOGNOSY
223 PHARMACOGNOSY
224 PHARMACOGNOSY

225 PHARMACOGNOSY
226 PHARMACOGNOSY
227 PHARMACOGNOSY
228 PHARMACOGNOSY
229 PHARMACOGNOSY
230 PHARMACOGNOSY
231 PHARMACOGNOSY
232 PHARMACOGNOSY
233 PHARMACOGNOSY
234 PHARMACOGNOSY
235 PHARMACOGNOSY
236 PHARMACOGNOSY
237 PHARMACOGNOSY
238 PHARMACOGNOSY
239 PHARMACOGNOSY
240 PHARMACOGNOSY
241 PHARMACOGNOSY
242 PHARMACOGNOSY
243 PHARMACOGNOSY
244 PHARMACOGNOSY
245 PHARMACOGNOSY
246 PHARMACOGNOSY
247 PHARMACOGNOSY
248 PHARMACOGNOSY
249 PHARMACOGNOSY
250 PHARMACOGNOSY
251 PHARMACOGNOSY
252 PHARMACOGNOSY
253 PHARMACOGNOSY
254 PHARMACOGNOSY
255 PHARMACOGNOSY
256 PHARMACOGNOSY
257 PHARMACOGNOSY
258 PHARMACOGNOSY
259 PHARMACOGNOSY
260 PHARMACOGNOSY
261 PHARMACOGNOSY
262 PHARMACOGNOSY
263 PHARMACOGNOSY
264 PHARMACOGNOSY
265 PHARMACOGNOSY
266 PHARMACOGNOSY
267 PHARMACOGNOSY
268 PHARMACOGNOSY
269 PHARMACOGNOSY

270 PHARMACOGNOSY
271 PHARMACOGNOSY
272 PHARMACOGNOSY
273 PHARMACOGNOSY
274 PHARMACOGNOSY
275 PHARMACOGNOSY
276 PHARMACOGNOSY
277 PHARMACOGNOSY
278 PHARMACOGNOSY
279 PHARMACOGNOSY
280 PHARMACOGNOSY
281 PHARMACOGNOSY
282 PHARMACOGNOSY
283 PHARMACOGNOSY
284 PHARMACOGNOSY
285 PHARMACOGNOSY
286 PHARMACOGNOSY
287 PHARMACOGNOSY
288 PHARMACOGNOSY
289 PHARMACOGNOSY
290 PHARMACOGNOSY
291 PHARMACOGNOSY
292 PHARMACOGNOSY
293
294
295
296
297
298
299
300

Question
Ginko is not useful in
Forskolin of Coleus forskohlii is used in treatment of
Callus culture can be easily initiated from following tissues of shoot, roots etc
Swelling Index is used to determine amount of following in the crude drugs
Salicin on hydrolysis yields
Vanilla belongs to family
Alizarin is an important chemical constituent of
Sennosides A & B were first isolated in crystalline form by
Stomata present in Senna are following type
Trichomes with quadracellular head & sessible stalk are seen in
Crystal fibres are not present in
Stone cells with three side lignin thickening are found in
Dog senna is obtained from
Outer surface of the bark has silverygrey patches and transversely elongated lenticels
Rhamnus purshianus is growing in
In the microscopical study it shows stinecells & crystal fibres.
Star spots are found in
Rosettes of Calcium oxalate crystals are found in
A spot of alcoholic solution on filter paper shows blue fluorescence in UV light in case of
Carminic acid is used as an important colorant and indicator is
Reticulate xylem vessels showing no reaction for lignin are found in
Flavonoids dissolve in alkalis gives colour?
Compound commercially available in tablets and injection as potent coronary vasodilator is
Geraniol is absent in volatile oil of
carvone is absent in volatile oil of
Endosperm of the fruits of Umbelliferae is characterised by presence following type of calcium oxalate crystals
A small secretory canal above vascular bundle is seen in T.S. of
Two lateral ridges are flattened to form wing like structure in case of
There are only two vittae in each mericarp of
There are ten primary ridges which are wavy and inconspicuous on outer surface of
Drug is dissolved in light petroleum and shaken with dilute copper acetate solution, petroleum layer becomes em
Abietic acid is a major constituent of colophony, it is
Following Pinus species growing in India is used for collection of oloresin
Nutmeg obtained from Myristica fragrans is a
Volatile oil derived from following of Acorus calamus variety is free from -asarone
Natural camphor obtained from Cinnamon camphora is
Pungency of ginger is destroyed by boiling 2 % solution of
Starch grains found in ginger are
Removal of water from gingerol yields
Coated ginger means, it is
The drug having very good antiemetic properties is
Cardamom is a following type of fruit
Cardamom belongs to family
Parenchymatous cells of perisperm of cardamom show following type of small ca-oxalate crystals

It is difficult to make fine powder of cardamon due to presence of

Sandalwood oil is obtained from following part of Satalum album
Sandalwood oil is mainly produced in
Surface of the drug is reddish-brown or reddish-yellow in colour and powdery
Combined umbelliferone test is positive in case of
Drug consists of fusiform, napiform or irregularly oblong tubercle, 3-5 cm long, dark brwn, wrinkled with transve
Fenugreek is widely used in traditional system of medicine, following activity/ activities are demostrated
Steroidal sapogenin hecogenin is isolated from
Ginseng is mainly used as
Panax ginseng is mainly produced in
Sarsaparilla is mainly used in treatment of
Shape of quillaia bark is
Excessive consumption of liquorice leads to
Liquorice extract and glycyrrhetinic acid are useful in treatment of
Flavonoid components of liquorice have fllowing property
Glycyrrhetinic acid is a following type of saponin
Transverse ridges are seen on the outer surface of liquorice
Bufadienolides are present in
Digitalis leaves are dried
Margin of digitalis leaf is
Prisms of calcium oxalate crystals are present in
The cardiac glycoside on hydrolysis gives digitoxigenin + Glucose-acetyl digitoxose-(digitoxose)2 the glycosid
Leaves of Digitalis lanata are
Cardiac glycoside are present in ?
Oubain, a cardiac glycoside is present in
Deoxy-sugars are generally found attached with
Percentage of citral content of lemon grass oil is
Lemon grass oil is mainly produced from Cymbopogon flexuosus in
In India, menthol is mainly produced from oil of
Citral is a suitable substance for synthesis of
Percentage of citral in lemon peel oil?
The colour shown by thick saction of bitter orange peel is
Following part of Crocus sativus is called as saffron,
Protocrocin is a precursor for taste, odour and colour of the saffron, it is
Umbelliferrous fruits are
The number of vittae in cremocarp of fennel is
If Endosperm is concave on commissural surface, it is called as coelospermons fruit, eg. ?
It is difficult to make powder of coriander due to presence of
Bud like odour of green plant is due to trans-tridecene-(2)-al-(1), it is found in
Anethole is sweet odourous constituent of volatile oil of
There are 20 to 40 small vittae on dorsal surface of
Star Anise fruits belongs to family
Jatamansi is used in
Following types of calcium oxalate crystals are found in the hypanthium of clove
Eugenol is used for the synthesis of

Major chemical constituent of volatile oil of Ocimum sanctum is

In higher doses nutmeg is toxic due to
Mace gives following colour with alkali or sulphuric acide
Valerian is used in
Indian valerian is considered superior to European because valepotriates are
Allicin is active upto following dilution against pathogenic gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Garlic is useful in
Pyrethrum is a contact poison for
Cantharidin is used in
Colophony is classified as
Podophyllum belongs to family
Active constitute of podophyllum is useful in treatment of
Resin content of Indian podophyllum is
Wih sulphuric acid curcuma shows following colour
Boric acid gives following colour with turmeric paper
Following alkaloid is useful as bioavailability enhancer
Shape of Arjuna bark is
Cyanogenetic glycosides give following test positive
Gentian is used as
Chirata is important ingrediant of
Picrorrhiza belongs to family
Picrorrhiza is very useful in
Kalmegh belongs to family
Andrographolide is the active constituent of
Psoralea corylifolia is useful in
Rutin is used in capillary fragilities, it has following vitamin like action
On hydrolysis gaultherin gives?
The word alkaloid was first coined by W.Meissner in the year
Van Urk reagent gives purple colour with
Vitali-Morin reagent gives bright purple colour with
Following one is a liquid alkaloid
Lobeline is useful as
Leaves of Lobelia nicotianaefolia have following shape
Following types of abundant calcium oxalate crystal are found in Belladona
Cuticle found on epidermis of Belladonna leaves is
Hyoscyamine has following type of activity
Is Known as father of medicine?
Drug is not under the class of organized drug
Drug is not under the seed class
Drug which does not belong to leaves class
Drug which does not belong to fruit class
Dried latex of the drug is used, except
The roots of following drugs are effective, except
Leaves of the following drugs are affective, except
Entire parts of the following drugs are effective, except

Select the drug, which is not belonging to glycoside class

select the drug, which is not belonging to tannin class
Drug not belonging to volatile oil class:
Select the does not belong to tannin class
Select the drug, which is not showing carminative property
______ is not used as expectorant
______ is not used as cardiotonics
Drugs is used as Antihypertensive
____is used as adrenergic drug
____is not used as CNS depressant
anticancer Drug do not used as
Drug is not used as antirheumatic
Drug is used as emetic
Drug is used as bronchodilator
Drug is used as antimalerial
Is not the function of cell wall of the plant
Alkaloids are ________ type of substances
glycosides are condensation products of
Tannins give colour with iron compound
The example of capsule fruit is
Flower bud of drug showing medicinal importance
The term Aril means
The term Arillode means
Drug is not an example of organized crude drug
Balsams contains mainly acids
Protoalkaloids are also called as
True alkaloids are always present in plants as
the example of pseudoalkaloid
Which drug is not under the chemical class of indole?
The ring structure present in strychnine
Drug is an example of amino alkaloid :
Deadly Nightshade is the synonym of the drug :
Family of the Vinka
Which is not the use of argot?
Nux vomica is not used as:
Family of Ipecac is :
Which is not the use of Stramonium ?
Which is not the chemical constituent naturally obtained from Opium
Which is the active chemical constituent obtained from Ipecac
Thorn apple is the synonym for the drug:
Which drug is not belonging to family Apocyanaceae
Which is not the biological source of Cinchona ?
Which ergot alkaloid is water-soluble ?
Ergometrine alkaloid shows :
Ergometrine shows configuration :

Ergot contains large number of indole alkaloids, which are the derivatives of :
Which forms of the ergot alkaloids are especially important?
How many pairs of alkaloid are present Ergot ?
Ergot powder gives blue color with :
Van-Urks reagent chemically is :
Ergometrine gives fluorescence in water :
Crow fig is the synonym for the drug:
Stychnous nux vomica belongs to family :

One of the following microscopic characters not associated with Nux Vomica is :
Lignified trichomes is characteristic of drug :
When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with ammonium vanadate and sulphuric acid, the endospermic cells show purple colou
When the transverse section of nux vomica is treated with nitric acid, it shows yellow colour due to presence of :
Biological source of nux vomica is :
The important chemical constituents of rauwolfia is :
Reserpine, when treated with solution of vanillin in acetic acid shows colour
Diacetyl derivative of morphine is :
The opium alkaloids are present in plant as salt of :
Opium when dissolved in water and filtrate is treated with ferric chloride solution, it shows____________colour :
Which compound is showing the most potent analgesic property?
Trukish opium is commonly known as
Cephaelis Ipecacuanha belongs to family:
Which is not the characteristic feature of alkaloid ?
Jesuits bark is synonym of :
Which alkaloid is not present in cinchona bark?
Which species of cinchona contains highest percentage alkaloid
Which is not the prominent chemical constituent in Ipecac?
The pharmacological action of Ipecac:
Papaverine, narcotine and narceine is under the chemical class:
Papaverine shows pharmacological activity
In UV light Ergot shows fluorescence :
Adulterants of rauwolfia serpentine are distinguished on the basis of :
Glycoside present in stychnous nux vomica
Major pharmacological action of Ephedrine :
Morphine contains main nucleus :
The characteristic not associated with alkaloids:
Thalleoquin test contain reagents
Thalleoquin test is used for identification of
Stas-otta process is used for extraction of
Senna mainly contains
Senna leaf if under the class of glycoside
Which drug is under the chemical class of cyanogentic glycoside?
Drug under the class of isothiocyanate glycosides
Shatavari is under the chemical class of glycoside
Drug is not under the class of cardiac glycoside
The drug showing cardio tonic activity

Which drug is used as diuretic?

The drug used as nerve tonic
The family of Gokhru
Borntrager test is used for one of the following drugs
In kiungs isobarbaloin test, Curacao aloes shows colour
In klungs isobarbaloin test, Socotrine and Zanziber aloes show colour:
Alcoholic extract of aloe under UV light gives colour
The substitute for aloes
The biological source for cape aloes
Saponin glycoside shows one of the following property
Out of the following, one is not the example of Cardinolide
The biological source for Dioscoria
Yam is the synonym of the drug
Dioscoria is used in the treatment of
______________ Is not the synonym of Liquorice.
Liquorice belongs to family :
Glycyrrhizinic acid on hydrolysis gives
Liquorice is used in the treatment of
When glycyrrhiza is treated with 80% sulphuric acid, then it shows colour:
Rhubarb is cultivated mainly in which state of India:
Rhubarb when treated with alkali, shows red colour due to presence of :
Keller kiliani test is positive for:
Presence of star spots is the characteristic of drug:
Modified Borntroger test is positive for drug:
Botanical source of Arjuna bark:
Presence of aleurone grain is the characteristic of the drug:
Drug with the presence of plasmodesma:
Digitalis leaves should be dried at temperature below:
Vein-islet no. is Indian senna is in the range of :
Stomatal Index in Indian senna is in the range of:
Palisade ratio in Alexandrian senna is :
Vein- islet no. in Alexandrian senna is in the range of:
The synonym for Sesame oil:
In the patient with deficiency of vitamin A, which oil capsules you will suggest?
Which of the following oil is used as vehicle of oily injectables?
Oil is having antileprotic property:
The oil is not used as vehicle for the injectables
Oil is showing laxative property:
Acid value is defined as:
The test not used as an analytical parameter for oil:
Which oil generally lowers the blood cholesterol level?
Resins are classified into following subclasses except
Which is not an example of acid resins
Myrrh contains important acid
Out of the following, which is an example of oleoresin

Oleo gum resins are mixture of

Homogenous mixture of resins and oil are called as
Glycoresins are made up of
Resins containing benzoic acid or cinnamic acids are called as
Family of drug Zingiber officinale
Pungency of capsicum is destroyed by boiling it with:
Curcuma longa should not contain volatile oil less then
When the powder of curcuma longa is treated with sulphuric acid, it gives colour:
Which is not an example of oleoresins
If the resins contain benzoic acids or cinnamic acids then are called as:
Resins associated with volatile oil are called as
Ferulic acid when treated with hydrochloric acid gives
Ginger contains volatile oil in the percentage range
Resins are insoluble in
Adulteration by exhausted ginger is detected form ginger by
Terpenes made up of
Molecular formula for isoprene unit is
Example of alcohol volatile oil
Which is not an example of ester volatile oil
Drug is not an example of phenol volatile oil
The major terpenoid in clove oil
Triterpenes contain number of isoprene units
Diterpenes contain number of isoprene units

Option A
Asthma
Diabetes
Sclerenchymatous
Moisture
Salicylic acid and glucose
Leguminosae
Madder
Fairbairn
Anamocytic
Digitalis
Licorice
Rauwolfia
Cassia auriculata
Arjun
America
Cinchona
Rheum emodi
Senna
Indian Rhubarb
A flavonoid glycoside
Rhubarb
Blue
Silymarin
Dill
carvone is absent in volatile oil of
Prisms
Fennel
Caraway
Coriander
Dill
Asafoetida
Monoterpene
Pinus palustris
Seed
2n
Levorotatory
Sodium carbonate
Simple and round
Gingerone
Limed
Fennel
Capsule
Umbelliferae
Cluster

oil cells
Stem
North India
Asafoetida
Bdellium
Ipomoea
Antidiabetic
Costus speciosus
Diuretics
Japan
Skin disease
Curved
Diarrhoea
Hypertension
Anti-ulcerogenic
Steroidal
Stolon
Digitalis
Under shade
Entire
Digitalis lanata
Purpurea glycoside A
Petiolate
Rhubarb
Nerium
Flavonoids
3 to 4
South India
Mentha spicata
Vitamin A
1%
Red
Flower
Diterpene glycoside
Drupes
2
Anise
Fixed oil
Dill
Rose
Cumin
Umbelliferae
Hepatitis
Rosettes
Vitamin C

Limonene
Myristicine
Red
Hysteria
Two times more
0.7361111111
Diarrhoea
Mosquitoes
Hepatitis
Balsam
Asclepidacene
Blood pressure
1-2 %
Red
Blue
Vasicine
Curved
Grignard
Cardiac tonic
Trikatu Churna
Ranunculacene
Bronchitis
Acanthaceae
Gentian
Hepatitits
B
Monotropitoside
1805
Tropane alkaloids
Tropane alkaloids
Berberine
Diuretic
Ovate
Cluster
Smooth
Parasympatholytic
Aristotle
Leaves
Nux vomica
Senna
Artemesia
Opium
Rauwolfia
Senna
Ergot

Digitalis
Myrobalam
Peppermint
Colophony
dill
Ipecacuanha
Digitalis
Rauwolfia
Ephedra
Hyoscyamine
Podophyllum
Quassia
Agar
Tea
Ashwagandha
Protect the protoplast
Acid
Sugar + aglycone
Pale yellow
Radish
saffrom
Outgrowth originating from micropyle
Outgrowth from micropyle
Digitalis
acetic acid + Benzoic acid
Amino alkaloid
Salts of inorganic acid
Caffeine
Quinidine
Indole
Ephedrine
Datura
Rubiaceae
Oxytocin
CNS stimulant
Rubiaceace
Anticholinergic
Morphine
Cephaeline
Belladonna
Vinca
Cinchona calisaya
Ergotamine
Laevo
Laevo

Lysergic acid
Laevo
Five
P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
Yellow
Strychnous nux vomica
Scrophulareaceae
Epidermis consist of lignified trichomes
Catharanthus
Strychnine
Strycnous nux vomica
Reserpine
Red
Codeine
Benzoic acid
Reddish purple
Heroin
Chemist opium
Rubiaceae
Complex molecular structure and nitrogen in the molecule
Coca leaves
Quinidine
cinchona succirubra
Emetine
Stimulant
Quinoline
Spasmolytic
Yellow
Presence of sclernchyma
Strychnine
Kidney failure
Phenanthrene
They all contain nitrogen
Bromine water + Few drops of ammonia
Atropine
Glycosides
O-glycosides
Cardiac
Bitter almond
Black mustard
Sterol
digitalis
Thevetia

Quillaia
Brahmi
Liliaceae
Senna
Yellow
Red
Blue
Cape aloes
Curacao aloes
Laxative
Digitoxin
dioscoria deltoid
Stropanthus
Ulcer
Glycyrrhiza
Liliaceae
Glycyrrhetic acid
Conjuctivitis
Yellow
J and K
Anthroquionoe glycoside
Digitoxose
Cascara
Aloe
Terminalis tamentosa
Belladonna
Nux vomica
20 C
10.5 to 12.5
17 to 20
7
10 to 15.5
Hydrocarbons oil
Shark liver oil
Arachis oil
Linseed oil
Arachis oil
Arachis oil
Number of milligram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
Acetyl value
Arachis oil
Acid
Benzoin
Comiphoric acid
Copaiba

Volatile oil + Gum + Resins

Oleoresins
Resins + Sugar
Oleoresins
Solanaceae
2% hydrochloric acid
Curcuminoid
Yellow
Copaiba
Colophony
Oleo-gum-resin
Acetic acid
1-4%
Alcohol
Shape
Calcierene
C8 H8
Peppermint
Gaultheria
Clove
Eugenol
Four
Three

Option B
Hepatitis/Diabetes
Ulcers
Collenchymatous
Volatile oils
Salicyl alcohol and glucose
Asclepidaceae
Cascara
Lemli
Anisocytic
Belladona
Cinnamon
Kantakari
Cassia senna
Cascara
Europe
Licorice
Rheum australe
Rhubarb
Chinese Rhubarb
A volatie compound
Licorice
Green
Rutin
Rose
carvone is absent in volatile oil of
Microrosettes
Coriander
Dill
Caraway
Caraway
Colophony
Diterpene
Pinus maritima
Fruit
3n
Dextrorotatory
Hydrochloric acid
Simple and sac shaped
Gingerdiol
Peeled
Ginger
Drupe
Myrtaceae
Microrosette

Sclerenchymatous cells
Leaf
South India
Benzoin
Olibanum
Jalap
Antiulcer
Solanum khasianum
Antiinflammatory
Korea
Kidney stone
Quilled
Drowsiness
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sweetening
-amyrin
Rhizome
Squill
At a temperature of about 60 C
Serrate
Digitalis purpurea
Lanatoside A
Cordate
Calotropis
Thevetia
Anthraquinones
10 to 12
Guafemala
Mentha arvensis
Vitamin B
4%
Yellow
Fruit
Triterpene glycoside
Berry
6
Coriander
Vittae
Caraway
Sandalwood
Caraway
Magnoliaceae
Hysteria
Acicular
Menthol

Eugenol
Safro
Blue
Insomnia
Three times more
1: 10000
Chronic bronchitis
Flies
Hair tonic preparation
Oleo-gum-resin
Ranunculaceae
Blood sugar
2-4 %
Blue
Green
Piperine
Flat
Kellerkilliani
Sweetening agent
Hingvastak Churna
Scrophulariaceae
Kidney stone
Gentianaceae
Picrorrhiza
Diabetes
P
Acetyl salicylate
1819
Cinchona alkaloids
Ergot alkaloids
Nicotine
Purgative
Obovate
Prisms
Striated
Sympatholytic
Dioscorides
flowers
Digitalis
Digitalis
fennel
Gatta parcha
Ipecacuanha
Digitalis
Belladonna

senna
Pale catechu
Clove
Guar gum
Mentha
Vasaka
Cinchona
Digitalis
Physostigma
Belladonna
Curare
Aconite
Isapghul
Liquorice
Tulsi
Provide mechanical support to the organ
Neutral
Sugar + Protein
Blue black
Mustard
Clove
Succulent growth from hileum
Stiff bristle like appendages
Cinchona
Cinnamic acid + hydrochloric acid
Pseudo alkaloid
Salts of organic acid
Hygrine
Quinine
Pyrrole
Aconine
Belladonna
Solanaceae
Prevent post partum hemorrhage
bitter stomachic
Theaceae
Mydriatic
Codeine
Berberine
Cinchona
rauwolfia
cinchona officinalis
Ergosine
Dextro
Dextro

Benzoic acid
Dextro
Four
Benzaldehyde
Benzoic acid+Cinnamic acid
Green
Rauwolfia sepentina
Liliaceae
Epidermis is followed by layer of collapsible cells
Cassia angustifolia
Brucine
Strychnous potatorum
Resercinnamine
Green
Heroin
Tartaric acid
Green
Morphine
Druggist opium
Liliacaceae
Basic in nature
Ipecacuanha
Quinine
Cinchona officinalis
Pyschotrine
Emetic
Benzyl isoquinoline
Emetic
Blue
Absence of sclerenchyma
Brucine
Anti-inflammatory
Anthracene
Most of non-volatile alkaloids are solid
Potassium permanganate + Few drops of ammonia
Vincristine
Alkaloids
N-glycosides
Cyanogenic
Black mustard
Senega
Saponin
Thevetia
Cochineal

Senega
Mordica
Cucurbitaceae
Aloe
Blue
Faint yellow
Red
Socotrine aloes
Socotrine aloes
Anticonvulsant
Digoxin
dioscoria floribunda
Dioscoria
Cancer
Liquorice root
Triterpenoid
Glycyrrhizin
Peptic ulcer
Red
Madhya Pradesh
Cardiac glycoside
Gitoxose
Senna
Senna
Polygala chinesis
Nux vomica
Rauwolfia
30 C
13.5 to 16.5
20 to 23
10
16 to 20.5
Margosa oil
Mustard oil
Linseed oil
Jojoba oil
Olive oil
Sesame oil
Number of gram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
Acid value
Castor oil
Ester
Colophony
Abietic acid
Canada balsam

Fixed oil + Gum + Resin

Oleogum
Resins + Volatile oil
Glycoresins
Umbelliferae
1% sulphuric acid
Capsanthin
Crimson
Canada balsam
Sandrac
Oleo-resin
Umbellic acid
5-10%
Water
Size
Pseudopriene
C3 H8
Cinnamon
Lavender
Anise
Santalol
Five
Four

Option C
Dementia
Hepatitis
Parenchymatous
Crude fibres
Salicyclic acid and galactose
Orchidaceae
Rhubarb
Stoll
Paracytic
Hyoscyamus
Cascara
Cascara
Cassia obovata
Cinchona
India
Senna
Rheum officinalis
Cinchona
Rhapontic Rhubarb
An arthraquinoe o-glycoside
Rauwolfia
Yellow
Xanthotoxin
Geranium
Anethum graveolens
Clusters
Caraway
Coriander
Dill
Fennel
Myrrh
Sesqiterpene
Pinus longifolia
Arillus
4n
Racemic
Potasium hydroxide
Simple and polygonal
Zingiberol
Unpeeled
Turmeric
Follicle
Araceae
Prism

Endosperm cells
Sapwood
France
Myrrh
Asafoetida
Black nishodh
Cholesterol-lowering
Agave sislana
Hepatoprotective
India
Diabetes
Flat
Dryness in mouth
Dementia
Cardiatonic
Lupeol
Root
Strophanthus
In sunlight
Lobed
Digitalis thapsi
Purpurea glycoside C
Ovate-lanceolate
Trigonella
Strophanthus
Cardiac glycosides
50 to 60
West Indies
Mentha piperata
Vitamin C
50%
Dark green
Stigma and upper part of style
Tetraterpene glycoside
Capsule
10
Hemlock
Endosperm cells
Coriander
Lavender
Dill
Labiatae
Constipation
Prisms
Vanillin

Sanalene
Borniol
Green
Palpitation of Heart
Four times more
1:100000
Dementia
Bugs
Insomnia
Acid resin
Compositae
Carcinoma
4-8 %
Yellow
Red
Nicotine
Recurved
Borntrager
Laxative
Sudarshan Churna
Gentianaceae
Hyperacidity
Scrophulariaceae
Chirata
Leucoderma
E
Propylsalicylate
1854
Ipecac alkaloids
Cinchona alkaloids
Ergotamine
Respiratory stimulant
Oblong-lanceolate
Acicular
Thick
Cholinergic
Hippocrates
Fruits
stropanthus
Eucalyptus
Coriander
Papain
Turmeric
Clove
Ephedra

Nux vomica
Ashoka
Castor oil
Acacia
senna
Liquorice
Squill
squill
Pilocarpus
coffee
Camptotheca
Colchicum
Ipecas
Ipecacuanha
Ginseng
check the rate of transpiration
Chemical
Protein + aglycone
Light pink
Cabbage
Fig
Enlarged funicle
Warty outgrowth
Aloe
benzoic acid + Sulphuric acid
True alkaloid
Salts of me conic acid
Arecoline
Atropine
Pyridine
Caffeine
Cinchona
Apocyanaceae
Migraine
Tonic
Solanceae
Antiadrenergic
Narcotine
Hydrastine
Datura
Kurchi
Cinchona succirubra
Ergocristine
Racemic mixture
Racemic mixture

Cinnamic acid
cis
Three
Cinnamaldehyde
P-dimethylbenzoic acid
Red
Rauwolfia densiflora
Apocyanaceae
Endosperm shows presence of plasmodesma
Strychnous nux vomica
a-Coubrine
Strychnous nux blanda
Ajamalicine
Blue
Papaverine
Meconic acid
Yellow
Codeine
Chinese opium
Apocyanaceae
Biosynthetically derived
Cinchona
Quinovin
Cinchona calisaya
Cephaeline
Sedative
Isoquinoline
Antitussive
Red
Presence of parenchyma
Ajmaline
Heart failure
Naphthalene
All the alkaloid contains sulphur
Bromine water + Nitric acid
Quinine
Terpenoids
C-glycosides
Anthracene
Digitalis
Thevetia
Cyanogentic
Indian squill
Rhubarb

Ginseng
Ginseng
Zygophyllaceae
Digitalis
Wine red
Green
Deep brown
Curacao aloes
Aloe ferrox
Foaming
Gitoxigenin
dioscoria villosa
Safed musali
Rheumatic arthritis
Mulethi
Loganaceae
Liquiritin
Allergy
Green
Maharashtra
sapogenin glycoside
digitoxigenin
Aloe
Digitalis
Poligala erioptera
Hyoscyamus
Vinca rosea
40 C
16.5 to 18.0
23 to 26
13
25 to 29.5
Maize oil
Arachis oil
Castor oil
Chaulmoogra oil
Sesame oil
Castor oil
Number of Kilogram of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
Hydroxyl value
Neem oil
Resin alcohol
Sandrac
Benzoic acid
Capsicum

Fats + Gum + Resin

Glycoresin
Resins + Gum
Oleogum
Zingiberaceae
2% Acetic acid
Thiamine
Green
Capsicum
Copaiba
Gum resins
Cinnamic acid
10-15%
Volatile oil
Colour
Neoprene
C5 H8
Lemon peel
Muster
Creosote
Anethol
Six
Five

Option D
Inflammation
Heart disease
Fibrous
Mucilage
Salicyl alcohol and galactose
Polypodiaceae
Cochineal
Tutin
Diacytic
Vasaka
Senna
Cinnamon
Cassia occidentalis
Ceylon cinnamon
Australia
Cascara
Rheum webbianum
Licorice
Official rhubarb
An anthraquinone c-glycoside
Ashwagandha
Red
Khellin
Palmarosa
Mentha piperata
Microsphenoids
Dill
Fennel
Anise
Coriander
Catechu
Triterpene
Pinus radiata
Kernel
5n
None of these
Acetic acid
Compound
Shogaols
Peeled and limed
Coriander
Berry
Zingiberaceae
Raphides

Perisperm cells
Heart wood
Australia
Guggul
Myrrh
White nishodh
All of above
Dioscorea tokoro
Adaptogenic
U.S.A.
Constipation
Recurved
Hypertension & hypokalaemic alkosis
Skin disease
Livertonic
-amyrin
Stem
Thevetia
At a temperature of about 100 C
Crenate or dentate
Digitalis lutea
Lanatoside C
Sessile
Costus
Convollaria
Biflavonoids
70 to 80
Kenya
Mentha viridis
Vitamin D
70%
Blue
Anther
Steroidal glycoside
Schizocarps
12
Dill
Sclerenchymatous cells
Fennel
Fennel
Anise
Myrtaceae
Alzmeir disease
Clusters
Thymol

Menthol
Geraniol
Yellow
All of these
Six times more
1:1000000
Vertigo
All of these
Constipation
Gum-resin
Berbeidaceae
Hypercholestremia
8-16 %
Green
Yellow
Lobeline
Quilled
Baljet
Bitter tonic
Sitopaladi Churna
Combrataceae
Jaundice
Ranumculaceae
Kalmegh
Leprosy
A
Methyl salicylate
1925
Ergot alkaloids
Ipecac alkaloids
Quinine
Liver tonic
Cordate
Microsphenoids
None of this
Spasmogenic
Galen
Gums
Ispgol
turmeric
Colocynth
Balsam
Aconite
Vasaka
Clove

Cascara
Peppermint
Garlic
Agar
Cardamom
atropine
Stropanthus
Stropanthus
belladonna
Opium
Taxus
Guggul
Banana
Vasaka
Artemesia
Give green colour to leaf
Basic nitrogenous
Fats + aglycone
Orange
Datura
Caraway
Stiff bristle like appendages
Enlarged funicle
Clove
benzoic acid + Cinnamic acid
Extra alkaloid
Salts of benzoic acid
Lobeline
camptothecin
Piperidine
Theophylline
Coca
Erythroxylaceae
Laxative
Expectorant
Acantheceae
Control of Motion sickness
Heroine
Tropane
Stramonium
Gloriosa
Cinchona indica
Ergometrine
Trans
Trans

Meconic acid
trans
Six
Formaldehyde
Cinnamaldehyde
Blue
Rauwolfia vometoria
Loganiaceae
Calcium oxalate crystal and starch grain are present
Digitalis purpurea
B-coubrine
strychnous wallichiana
Desperidine
Pink
Thebaine
Acetic acid
Orange
Papaverine
Chemist and druggist
Rutaceae
Acidic in nature only
Calumba
Cinchona ledgeriana
Cinchonine
Hypnotic
Benzophenone
Antipyretic
Violet
Absence of parenchyma
Loganine
Bronchial asthma
Naphthacene
They are physiologically active
Bromine water + Sodium hydroxide
Strychnine
Resins
S-glycosides
Saponin
Rhubarb
Aloe
Isothiocyanate
Bitter almond
Aloe

Gokhru
Senega
Araliaceae
Stropanthus
Green
No colouration
Pink
Natal aloes
Zanziber aloes
Astringent
Scillarin A
Dioscorea compositae
Liquorice
Kidney stone
Yam
Leguminosae
Isoliquiritin
Skin disease
Violet
Bengal
Cyanogenic glycoside
gitoxigenin
Rhubarb
Senna pod
Terminalis arjuna
Vinca
Phsysostigma
60 C
19.5 to 22.5
26 to 29
16
20 to 24.5
Gingally oil
Linseed oil
Jojoba oil
Corn oil
Corn oil
Corn oil
Number of ml of potassium hydroxide (5N) required to neutralize one gram of fat or oil
Ketone value
Corn oil
Resin ether
Myrrh
Acetic acid
Myrrh

Gum + resins
Balsma
Resins + Fixed oil
Balsam
Convolulaceae
potassium hydroxide
Ascorbic acid
Blue
Myrrh
Balsam
Volatile resins
Vanillic acid
15-20%
Fixed oil
Water soluble ash
Isoprene
C6 H6
Orange peel
Cinnamon
Thyme
Menthol
Seven
Six

Right Answer

C
D
B
D
A
B
D
C
D

B
D
C
C
A
D
B
C
D
B
D
C
C
D
B
D
A
C
A
B
B
B
A
A
B
A
C
A
B
B
C
D
A
C
D
A
D
D
D
D
A
B

A
A
D
A
A
D
A
D
D
C
A
B
A
A
A
B
C
A
A
B
A
D
C
C
A
D
B
C
A
C
A
D
D
A
C
A
C
A
A
C
A
A
B
D
A

D
A
C
A
C
D
C
D
C
C
D
A
C
B
D
D
A
B
A
A
A
A
D
A
D
B
A
D
D
A
A
C
D
A
A
C
D
C
A
D
D
D
A
A
D

A
A
A
D
C
D
A
B
D
D
B
B
A
B
D
D
C
A
D
B
A

1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a

1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a
7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. b
13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. a
19. b 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c
25. c 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. d
31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. b
37. c 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. b
43. c 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. a
49. a 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. b
55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. c
61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. c
67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. c
73. a 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. d
79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. c
85. a 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. a
91. b 92. d 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d
97. d 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. a

4. d 5. a 6. a
10. b 11. b 12. b
. c 16. a 17. c 18. a
. a 22. c 23. c 24. c
. d 28. c 29. c 30. d
. a 34. c 35. b 36. b
. a 40. d 41. c 42. b
. c 46. a 47. c 48. a
. a 52. c 53. d 54. b
. c 58. c 59. b 60. c
. a 64. a 65. a 66. c
. a 70. b 71. d 72. c
. a 76. b 77. a 78. d
. a 82. d 83. a 84. c
. b 88. b 89. d 90. a
. b 94. d 95. c 96. d
. b 100. c 101. c 102. a