24/01/2014

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 240

ONLINE TEST
-4
TEST-4

Time : 1 Hr.

(Based on AIPMT Pattern)

for

Nurture 9X DLP / iTutor - 2014

[Topics : Complete Syllabus]

INSTRUCTIONS
(i)

All questions are compulsory.

(ii)

Each question carries 4 marks.

(iii) For every wrong answer, 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
1.

A cyclist is riding on a circular track of radius 10 m. If he has covered a distance of 157 m in 10 minute, what
is his average velocity in this time?
(1) 10 m/minute
(2) 2 m/minute
(3) 15.7 m/minute
(4) 25 m/minute

2.

The v-t graph of a body moving straight is shown below.

v
2 m/s
1 m/s
1s

2s

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3s

4s

Class-IX

Online Test-4-AIMPT

The corresponding s-t graph of the body is

(1)

2.5 m
2.0 m
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m
t

1s

2s

3s

4s

1s

2s

3s

4s

1s

2s

3s

4s

5s

1s

2s

3s

4s

5s

(2)

2.5 m
2.0 m
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m
t

(3)

2.5 m
2.0 m
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m
t

(4)

2.5 m
2.0 m
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m

3.

4.

A train of length 100 m is going at a uniform speed of 90 km/h. It begins to accelerate as soon as it enters
a bridge of length 250 m. If it crosses the bridge in exactly 10 s, what is the value of acceleration of the train?
(1) 3 m/s2

(2) 2 m/s2

(3) 5 m/s2

(4) 4 m/s2

The change in momentum of a body is equal to

(1) Force time
(2) Force
(3) Force velocity
(4) Acceleration
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Online Test-4-AIMPT

Class-IX

5.

Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 moving with velocities v1 and v2 in opposite directions, collide and stick with
each other. If the combined mass moves in the direction of v1, then which of the following statements is
definitely true?
m1 m2
(2) v v
(1) |v1| > |v2|
1
2
m1 v 2

(3)
(4) m1 > m2
m2
v1

6.

If the distance between two bodies is doubled, the gravitational force acting between them
(1) Doubles
(2) Becomes half
(3) Increases four times
(4) Becomes one-fourth

7.

8.

Two cubical blocks of sides 2 cm and 8 cm are made of the same material. What is the ratio of pressure
exerted by them on the ground?
(1) 1 : 2

(2) 1 : 4

(3) 2 : 3

(4) 2 : 5

An aluminium ball of relative density 2.7 and a silver ball of relative density 10.8 of same dimensions are lying
at the bottom of a water filled tank, then
(1) Buoyancy force on aluminium ball will be greater
(2) Buoyancy force on silver ball will be greater
(3) Buoyancy force on both the balls will be equal
(4) Cannot be determined

9.

A porter carrying a 10 kg baggage over his head comes down from the fifth floor of a building to the ground
floor. If the height of each floor is 5 m, what is the work done by the porter on the load?
(1) 450 joules
(2) 50 joules
(3) 250 joules
(4) 2450 joules

10. How much work has to be done by the braking force to stop a 2000 kg car moving at a speed of 72 km/h?
(1) 400 kJ

(2) 200 kJ

(3) 300 kJ

(4) 250 kJ

11. One electron-volt is equal to

(1) 1.6 1010 joules
(2) 3.2 106 joules
(3) 2.4 1018 joules
(4) 1.6 1019 joules
12. A boy standing on roof of a building of height 10 m, throws a ball of mass 2 kg vertically upwards with a speed
of 5 m/s. What is the average power expended by gravitational force, when the ball reaches the ground?
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 25 W

(2) 60 W

(3) 100 W

(4) 120 W
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Class-IX

Online Test-4-AIMPT

Wave
disturbance

13. What is the wavelength of sound wave shown in the figure if its speed is 300 m/s?

0.003 s
Time

(1) 30 cm

(2) 20 cm

(3) 60 cm

(4) 40 cm

14. Which part of ear converts the pressure variations of sound waves into electrical signals?
(1) Pinna

(2) Cochlea

(3) Anvil

(4) Auditory canal

15. What is the cost of electricity to run a 1500 W motor daily for half hour for 30 days, at the rate of ` 6 per
commercial unit?
(1) ` 225

(2) ` 175

(3) ` 145

(4) ` 135

CHEMISTRY
16. Which of the following is a tetra-atomic molecule?
(1) Ozone

(2) Phosphorus

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Sulphur

17. What is common in the burning of coke, heating lime stone and heating sodium bicarbonate?
(1) Oxygen gas is evolved

(2) Oxygen gas is necessary for the reaction

(3) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved

(4) Hydrogen gas is evolved

18. In a chemical reaction 42 g sodium bicarbonate reacts with 30 g ethanoic acid, to produce 22 g carbon dioxide,
9 g water and X g sodium ethanoate. If the reaction justifies the law of conservation of mass then the value
of X will be
(1) 44 g

(2) 41 g

(3) 48 g

(4) 40 g

19. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Daltons atomic theory?

(1) Matter is made up of very small particles called atoms
(2) Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed
(3) Atom is divisible into subatomic particles
(4) Atoms of the given element are identical in mass
20. Symbol of beryllium is
(1) B

(2) Be

(3) Br

(4) Ba
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Online Test-4-AIMPT

Class-IX

21. Number of atoms present in a sulphite ion is

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

22. Chemical formula of calcium phosphate is

(1) Ca2(PO4)3

(2) Ca3(PO4)2

(3) Ca(PO4)3

(4) CaPO4

23. Molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is

(1) 24 u

(2) 100 u

(3) 48 u

(4) 180 u

24. If 25 g of NaCl is dissolved in 3 litre of water, then the molarity of the solution is
(1) 0.14 M

(2) 0.24 M

(3) 1.50 M

(4) 2.40 M

25. Which of the following pairs contains isoelectronic species?

(1) Cl, F

(2) Mg2+, Ne

(3) Na+, K+

(4) Cl, F

26. Which of the following is not a sublimable compound?

(1) Ammonium chloride

(2) Anthracene

(3) Naphthalene

(4) Sodium chloride

27. Density of water is maximum at

(1) 0C

(2) 100C

(3) 4C

(4) 25C

28. Which of the following techniques is used in diagnostic laboratories for testing urine?
(1) Evaporation

(2) Crystallisation

(3) Chromatography

(4) Centrifugation

29. Which of the following is not a chemical change?

(1) Mixing of iron filings and sulphur

(2) Mixing of a base and an acid

(3) Souring of milk

(4) Digestion of food

30. A negatively charged particle discovered by J.J. Thomson has a charge equal to
(1) 9.1 1031 C

(2) 1.6 1017 C

(3) 1.6 1019 C

(4) 9.1 1027 C

BIOLOGY
31. How many statements are true?
A. Inter-cropping increases productivity per unit area.
B. Crop rotation increases the chances of pests and diseases.
C. Growing of two or more crops on the same field is called mixed farming.
D. Inter-cropping pattern reduces the level of soil nutrients.
(1) Four

(2) Three

(3) One

(4) Two
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Class-IX

Online Test-4-AIMPT

32. Which of the following are the fertile castes present in the honey bees colony?
A. Drones
B. Workers
C. Queens
(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) A, B & C

(4) A & C

33. In which of the following solutions, the given change would be observed?
After keeping
in a solution
for 2 hours

Cell A
Cell A
(1) Ringers solution

(2) Concentrated salt solution

(3) Hypertonic solution and isotonic solution

(4) Hypotonic solution

34. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of given information.

Small rounded bodies called oxysomes are present.

Commonly known as power house of the cell.

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) Mitochondrion

(3) Endoplasmic reticulum

(4) Ribosome

35. Match the name of the plant (column I) with its characteristic (column II) and the division (column III) to which
it belongs?

Column-I
Name

Column-II
Characteristics

Column-III
Division

(1)

Marchantia

Vascular tissues are

present

Pteridophyta

(2)

Chara

Undifferentiated
body called thallus

Thallophyta

(3)

Adiantum

True roots and stems

are present

Bryophyta

(4)

Cycas

Rhizoids are present

Gymnospermae

36. Which of the following vectors spreads kala-azar disease?

(1) Phlebotomus

(2) Glossina

(3) Aedes

(4) Anopheles

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Rhizobium bacterium is present in the root nodules of legumes
(2) Pseudomonas converts nitrate salts into free nitrogen gas
(3) Nitrobacter converts ammonia into free nitrogen gas
(4) Nitrosomonas converts ammonia into nitrites
38. How many diseases given in the box are communicable?

Cancer, Tuberculosis, Diabetes, Haemophilia, Flu

(1) Two

(2) One

(3) Five

(4) Four
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Online Test-4-AIMPT

Class-IX

39. The tissue which provides buoyancy to aquatic plants is a modified form of
(1) Collenchyma

(2) Chlorenchyma

(3) Parenchyma

(4) Sclerenchyma

40. Find the mismatch pair.

(1) RER Protein synthesis

(2) SER Lipid synthesis

(3) Nucleolus Ribosome synthesis

(4) Lysosome DNA synthesis

41. Which of the following epithelial tissues is found in the given areas?
A Kidney tubules
B Ducts of pancreas and sweat glands
C Thyroid vesicles
(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium

(3) Columnar epithelium

(4) Stratified squamous epithelium

42. Statement 1 : Smog is made up of fog and dew.

Statement 2 : Smog is poisonous and decreases the oxygen carrying capacity of our blood.
(1) Both the statements are false
(2) Both the statements are true
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
43. The function of nephridia is
(1) Circulation

(2) Locomotion

(3) Respiration

(4) Excretion

44. Which of the following gases is returned back to the atmosphere by photosynthesis?
(1) Methane

(2) Oxygen

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Nitrogen dioxide

45. A person suffered from a disease and the doctor diagnosed it through widal test. The disease is
(1) AIDS

(2) Cholera

(3) Typhoid

(4) Rabies

46. Which of the following animals have cellular level of organisation?

(1) Annelids

(2) Platyhelminthes

(3) Coelenterates

(4) Poriferans

47. Select the bacterial diseases of cattles from the following.

a. Aspergillosis
b. Anthrax
c. Mastitis
d. Cow pox
(1) a, b, c and d

(2) Only b

(3) b and c

(4) b, c and d
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Class-IX

Online Test-4-AIMPT

48. All of the following functions are performed by the outermost covering of an animal cell, except.
(1) Provides definite shape to the cell
(2) Acts as mechanical barrier and does not allow the movement of any substances
(3) Provides protection to the cell
(4) Maintains cell continuity
49. Identify X, B and C.

WBCs

X
(Granules are absent
in the cytoplasm)

A
(S-shaped
nucleus)

C
(Multilobed
nucleus)

(1) X Granulocytes, B Basophils and C Neutrophils

(2) X Agranulocytes, B Eosinophils and C Neutrophils
(3) X Agranulocytes, B Neutrophils and C Basophils
(4) X Granulocytes, B Eosinophils and C Neutrophils
50. In which of the following layers of atmosphere, the layer which absorbs harmful UV radiations is present?
(1) Mesosphere
(2) Troposphere
(3) Stratosphere
(4) Thermosphere
51. The mode of transmission of amoebic dysentery is
(1) Contaminated air
(2) Contaminated food and water
(3) Sexual contact
(4) Soil
52. Mycoplasma and cyanobacteria are placed in the kingdom X, which was discovered by
(1) Copeland
(2) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Carl Woese
(4) Aristotle
53. Green revolution is related to increase in the production of
(1) Fish

(2) Eggs

(3) Milk

(4) Grains

54. Myelin sheath covers the cells of the

(1) Bone

(2) Blood

(3) Nervous tissue

(4) Areolar tissue

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Online Test-4-AIMPT

Class-IX

55. What do A and B represent in the given diagram?

B

(1) A chromatid and B chromatin

(2) A centromere and B chromatid

(3) A DNA and B gene

(4) A gene and B chromatin

56. Which of the following cells secrete heparin and histamine?

(1) Osteocytes

(2) Adipocytes

(3) Mast cells

(4) Plasma cells

57. Which of the following features is common in birds and mammals?

(1) Four chambered heart

(2) Presence of gills

(3) Pneumatic bones

(4) Presence of scales

58. Quinine is used for the treatment of

(1) Measles

(2) Mumps

(3) Mastitis

(4) Malaria

59. Which of the following taxa comes after phylum?

(1) Class

(2) Order

(3) Species

(4) Genus

60. Which of the following nutrients are required in large quantities by plants?
(1) Manganese, molybdenum, copper and chlorine
(2) Nitrogen, sulphur, magnesium and phosphorus
(3) Zinc, calcium, potassium and iron
(4) Copper, manganese, magnesium and calcium

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Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

SAMPLE TEST P
APER
PAPER
for

Nurture 9X DLP

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS
1.

Answer (2)

2.

Answer (1)

3.

Answer (2)

4.

Answer (1)

5.

Answer (3)

6.

Answer (4)

7.

Answer (2)

8.

Answer (3)

9.

Answer (4)

10. Answer (1)

11. Answer (4)
12. Answer (3)
13. Answer (3)
14. Answer (2)
15. Answer (4)
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Hints & Solutions - Sample Test Paper

Class-IX

CHEMISTRY
16. Answer (2)
17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (2)
19. Answer (3)
20. Answer (2)
21. Answer (1)
22. Answer (2)
23. Answer (4)
24. Answer (1)
25. Answer (2)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (3)
28. Answer (4)
29. Answer (1)
30. Answer (3)

BIOLOGY
31. Answer (3)
32. Answer (4)
33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (2)
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (1)
37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (1)
39. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4)
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (1)
43. Answer (4)
44. Answer (2)
45. Answer (3)
46. Answer (4)
47. Answer (3)
48. Answer (2)
49. Answer (2)
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Class-IX

Hints & Solutions - Sample Test Paper

50. Answer (3)

51. Answer (2)
52. Answer (1)
53. Answer (4)
54. Answer (3)
55. Answer (2)
56. Answer (3)
57. Answer (1)
58. Answer (4)
59. Answer (1)
60. Answer (2)

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