MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

1. The atomic number of Silicon is

a. 8
b. 2
c. 4
d. 14
2. Recombination is when
a. an electron falls into a hole
b. a positive and negative ion bond together
c. a valence electron becomes a conduction
electron
d. a crystal is formed
3. Each atom in a silicon crystal has
a. four valence electrons
b. four conduction electrons
c. eight valence electrons, four of its own
and four are shared
d. no valence electrons because all shared
with other atoms
4. The process of adding an impurity to an
intrinsic semiconductor is called
a. doping
b. recombination
c. atomic modification
d. ionization
5. A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create
a. germanium
b. an n-type semiconductor
c. a p-type semiconductor
d. a depletion region
6. The purpose of a pentavalent impurity is to
a. reduce the conductivity of the silicon
b. increase the number of holes
c. increase the number of free electrons
d. create minority carriers
7. The term bias means
a. the ratio of majority carriers to minority
carriers
b. the amount of current across a diode
c. a dc voltage applied to control the
operation of the device
d. unfair
8. When a diode is forward biased
A. the only current is hole current
b. the only current is electron current
c. the only current is produced by majority
carriers
d. the current is produced by both holes
and electrons

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

9. Although current is blocked in reverse bias

a. there is some current due to majority
carriers
b. there is very small current due to
minority carriers
c. there is avalanche CURRENT
d. there is lots of current due to majority of
carriers
10. A neutral dielectric has added to it 12.5 x 10 18
electrons, what is its charge in coulombs?
a. -2
b. 2
c. -3
d. 3
11. The charge of 5 C moves past a given point
in 1 s. How much is the current?
a. 5 A
b. 0.2 A
c. 25 A
d. .04 A
12. A carbon resistor is color coded with red, red,
red and gold. What is the range of its resistance
in ohms?
a. 2090-2310
b. 20900- 23100
c. 1980- 2420
d. 2100 -2300
13. It is the emission that causes a conductor to
give off electrons at sufficiently high temperature.
a. thermionic
b. temperature
c. high field
d. secondary
14. Diode vacuum tubes is popularly known as
________.
a. Edison diode
b. Fleming Bulb
c. Edison Valve
d. Fleming Valve
15. All vacuum tubes has this factor which is the
tome required for an individual electron to travel
from the cathode to the plate of the tube.
a. rise time
b. pinch off time
c. transit time
d. traveling time

Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

16.The ________grid in an electron tube is
where the input signal is applied.
a. screen
b. control
c. bias
d. suppression
17.________is a gaseous tube which uses a
poolol of liquid mercury as its cathode?
a. thyratron
b. phanotron
c. klystron
d. ignitron
18. What is the main reason why tetrode was
developed?
a. space charge of triode
b. interelectrode capacitance of triode
c. secondary emission of triode
d. all of the above
19. A vacuum tube element that control the flow
of plate current.
a. cathode
b. heater
c. control grid
d. anode
20. What undesirable effect does the screen grid
in the tetrode create?
a. secondary emission
b. thermionic emission
c. interelectrode capacitance
d. space charge
21. Electron flow within the vacuum tube diode is
always
a. from cathode to anode
b. from cathode to plate
c. from plate to cathode
d. from anode to cathode
22. In triode, the inter-electrode capacitance
feeds back energy from the output to the input
circuit?
a. grid to cathode capacitance
b. grid to plate capacitance
c. plate to cathode capacitance
d. all of these
23. What is the tube that has 2 grids?
a. vacuum tube diode
b. triode
c. tetrode
d. pentode

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

24. What effect does transit time have on
conventional triode at UHF frequencies?
a. causes the plate to be shorted to the
cathode
b. causes the control grid to be shorted
to the cathode
c. causes the screen grid to be shorted to
the cathode
d. the triode will be destroyed
25. This is a material usually graphite and is of
high positive potential that attracts secondary
emitted electrons and removes them an also aid
sin the acceleration of electrons in a CRT.
a. accelerator grid
b. cathode
c. aquadag
d. deflection plates
26.What is the fluorescent material in the CRT
screen that glows when struck by electron
beams?
a. aquadag
b. phosphorus
c. LCD
d. phosphor
27. Structurally, what are the two main categories
of semiconductor diode?
a. Junction and point contact
b. Electrolytic and junction
c. Electrolytic and point contact
d. Vacuum and point contact
28. The bulk resistance of a diode is_____
a. the resistance of N-material only
b. the resistance of P material only
c. the resistance of the junction only
d. the resistance of the P and the N
material
29. A silicon diode has a forward voltage drop of
1.2V for a forward DC current of 100 mA. With a
reverse current of 1 A . Calculate the bulk
resistance?
a. 5 ohms
b. 12 ohms
c. 19 ohms
d. 1.2 Mohms
30. What are the two primary classifications of
Zener diodes?
a. Hot carrier and tunnel
b. Varactor and rectifying
c. Voltage regulator and voltage
reference
d. Forward and reversed biased
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

31. What is the principal characteristic of a Zener

diode?
a. A constant current under conditions of
varying voltage
b. A constant voltage under conditions
of varying current
c. A negative resistance region
d. An internal capacitance that varies with
the applied voltage
32. What is the range of voltage ratings available
in Zener diodes?
a. 2.4 volts to 200 volts
b. 1.2 volts to 7 volts
c. 3 volts to 2000 volts
d. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts
33. What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel
diode?
a. A high forward resistance
b. A very high PIVC
c. A negative resistance region
d. A high forward current rating
34. What special type of diode is capable of both
amplification and oscillation?
a. Point contact diodes
b. Zener diodes
c. Tunnel diodes
d. Junction diodes
35. What type of semiconductor diode varies its
internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its
terminals varies?
a. A varactor diode
b. A tunnel diode
c. A silicon-controlled rectifier
d. A Zener diode
36. What is the principal characteristic of a
varactor diode?
a. It has a constant voltage under
conditions of varying current
b. Its internal capacitance varies with the
applied voltage
c. It has a negative resistance region
d. It has a very high PIV
37. What is a common use of a varactor diode?
a. As a constant current source
b. As a constant voltage source
c. As a voltage-controlled inductance
d. As a voltage-controlled capacitance

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

38. It is a special type of diode that has no
depletion layer thereby eliminating the stored
charges between junction.
a. zener diode
b. Schottky diode
c. Tunnel diode
d. back diode
39. Tunnel diode has the thinnest depletion layer
and is very popular because of this phenomenon.
a. positive resistance
b. negative resistance
c. inverted resistance
d. bulk resistance
40. It is the process involved when large surface
area on one layer of one semiconductive material
permits the photons to be emitted as visible light.
a. Photoluminescense
b. Electroluminescense
c. Extraluminescence
d. Luminance
41. What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
a. As balanced mixers in SSB generation
b. As a variable capacitance in an automatic
frequency control circuit
c. As a constant voltage reference in a power
supply
d. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors
42. What limits the maximum forward current in a
junction diode?
a. The peak inverse voltage
b. The junction temperature
c. The forward voltage
d. The back EMF
43. How are junction diodes rated?
a. Maximum forward current and capacitance
b. Maximum reverse current and PIV
c. Maximum reverse current and capacitance
d. Maximum forward current and PW
44. What is a common use for point contact
diodes?
a. As a constant current source
b. As a constant voltage source
c. As an RF detector
d. As a high voltage rectifier
45. What type of diode is made of a metal
whisker touching a very small semiconductor
die?
a. Zener diode
b. Varactor diode
c. Junction diode
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

d. Point-contact diode
46. What is one common use for PIN diodes?
a. As a constant current source
b. As a constant voltage source
c. As an RF switch
d. As a high voltage rectifier
47. What special type of diode is often used in
RF switches, attenuators, and various types of
phase shifting devices?
a. Tunnel diodes
b. Varactor diodes
c. PIN diodes
d. Junction diodes
48. The most widely used rectifier circuit is
______.
a. half wave
b. center tap
c. bridge type
d. book type
49. The _______filter circuit results in the best
voltage regulation
a. choke input
b. capacitor input
c. resistant input
d. transformer input
50. A 60 Hz sine voltage is applied to the input of
a half wave rectifier, what is the output
frequency?
a. 60 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 180 Hz
51. If you are checking a 60 Hz full-wave bridge
rectifier and observe that the output has a 60 Hz
ripple,
a. the circuit is working properly
b. the transformer secondary is shorted
c. there is an open diode
d. the filter capacitor is leaky
52. How many diodes does a bridge circuits
require? (April, 2004)
a. two diodes
b. three diodes
c. five diodes
d. four diodes
53. What is the condition of the diode in a series
limiter when the output is developed?
(November, 2003)
a. conducting

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

b. cut-off
c. shorted
d. shunted
54. What are the three terminals of a bipolar
transistor?
a. Cathode, plate and grid
b. Base, collector and emitter
c. Gate, source and sink
d. Input, output and ground
55. The transistor is usually encapsulated in
a. graphite powder
b. enamel paint
c. epoxy raisin
d. black plastic
56. The operation of pnp transistor differs that of
the npn in which of the ff:
1. The roles of the electrons and holes
2. Bias voltage polarities
3. Current directions are all reversed.
4. Three transistor terminals.
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. For BJT, the term bipolar refers to ____.
a. the use of both holes and electrons as
carriers in transistor.
b. the emitter and collector as terminals.
c. the anode and cathode as terminals.
d. the direction of current in the transistor
58. It is the most lightly doped BJT region.
a. emitter
b. collector
c. base
d. gate
59. A transistor is also limited on its operation.
These limitations are stated in the manufacturers
data sheet in the form of maximum ratings which
typically includes maximum rating for:
1. collector-to-base voltage
2. collector-to-emitter voltage
3. emitter-to-base voltage
4. collector current
5. power dissipation
a. 1 ,2 ,3 only
b. 1, 2 ,3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d. 1 ,2 ,3 ,4 and 5
60. What is the meaning of the term alpha with
regard to bipolar transistors?
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

a. The change of collector current with
respect to base current
b. The change of base current with respect to
collector current
c. The change of collector current with
respect to emitter current
d. The change of collector current with
respect to gate current
61. What is the term used to express the ratio of
change in DC collector current to a change in
emitter current in a bipolar transistor?
a. Gamma
b. Epsilon
c. Alpha
d. Beta
62. What is the meaning of the term beta with
regard to bipolar transistors?
a. The change of collector current with
respect to base current
b. The change of base current with respect to
emitter current
c. The change of collector current with
respect to emitter current
d. The change in base current with respect to
gate current
63. What is the term used to express the ratio of
change in the DC Collector current to a change in
base current in a bipolar transistor?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Delta
64. What is the meaning of the term alpha cut-off
frequency with regard to bipolar transistors?
a. The practical lower frequency limit of a
transistor in common emitter configuration
b. The practical upper frequency limit of a
transistor in common base configuration
c. The practical lower frequency limit of a
transistor in common base configuration
d. The practical upper frequency limit of a
transistor in common emitter configuration
65. What is the term used to express that
frequency at which the grounded base current
gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable
at 1 kHz in a transistor?
a. Corner frequency
b. Alpha cutoff frequency
c. Beta cutoff frequency
d. Alpha rejection frequency

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

66. What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff
frequency with regard to a bipolar transistor?
a. That frequency at which the grounded
base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of
that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
b. That frequency at which the grounded
emitter current gain has decreased to 0.7
of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
c. That frequency at which the grounded
collector current gain has decreased to 0.7 of
that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
d. That frequency at which the grounded gate
current gain has decreased to 0.7 of that
obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
67. What is the meaning of the term transition
region with regard to a transistor?
a. An area of 10 W charge density
around the P-N junction
b. The area of maximum P-type charge
c. The area of maximum N-type charge
d. The point where wire leads are
connected to the P- or N-type material
68. What does it mean for a transistor to be fully
saturated?
a. The collector current is at its
maximum value
b. The collector current is at its minimum
value
c. The transistors Alpha is at its maximum
value
d. The transistors Beta is at its maximum
value
69. What does it mean for a transistor to be cut
off?
a. There is no base current
b. The transistor is at its operating point
c. No current flows from emitter to
collector
d. Maximum current flows from emitter to
collector
70. What are the elements of a unijunction
transistor?
a. Base 1, base 2 and emitter
b. Gate, cathode and anode
c. Gate, base 1 and base 2
d. Gate, source and sink
71. For best efficiency and stability, where on the
load-line should a solid-state power amplifier be
operated?
a. Just below the saturation point
b. Just above the saturation point
c. At the saturation point
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

d. At 1.414 times the saturation
72. What two elements widely used in
semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and
non-metallic characteristics?
a. Silicon and gold
b. Silicon and germanium
c. Galena and germanium
d. Galena and bismuth
73. What is the normal operating voltage and
current for a light-emitting diode?
a. 60 volts and 20 mA
b. 5 volts and 50 mA
c. 1.7 volts and 20mA
d. 0.7 volts and 60 mA
74. What type of bias is required for an LED to
produce luminescence?
a. Reverse bias
b. Forward bias
c. Zero bias
d. Inductive bias
75. What are the advantages of using an LED?
a. Low power consumption and long life
b. High lumens per cm per cm and low
power consumption
c. High lumens per cm per cm and low
voltage requirement
d. A current flows when the device is
exposed to a light source
76. What colors are available in LEDs?
a. Yellow, blue, red and brown
b. Red, violet, yellow and peach
c. Violet, blue, orange and red
d. Red, green, orange and yellow
77. How can a neon lamp be used to check for
the presence of RF?
a. A neon lamp will go out in the presence
of RF
b. A neon lamp will change color in the
presence of RF
c. A neon lamp will light only in the
presence of very low frequency RF
d. A neon lamp will light in the presence
of RF
78. What is an enhancement-mode FET?
a. An FET with a channel that blocks
voltage through the gate
b. An FET with a channel that allows a
current when the gate voltage is zero
c. An FET without a channel to hinder
current through the gate

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

d. An FET without a channel; no current
occurs with zero gate voltage
79. What do you call the layer that is adjacent to
the SiO2 that serves as connection layer for the
drain and gate terminals for an E-MOSFET when
properly biased?
a. inverted layer
b. inversion layer
c. channel
d. catastrophic layer
80. What is a depletion-mode FET?
a. An FET that has a channel with no
gate voltage applied; a current lows
with zero gate voltage
b. An FET that has a channel that blocks
current when the gate voltage is zero
c. An FET without a channel; no current
flows with zero gate voltage
d. An FET without a channel to hinder
current through the gate
81. Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in
gate-protective Zener diodes?
a. The gate-protective Zener diode provides
a voltage reference to provide the correct
amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
b. The gate-protective Zener diode protects
the substrate from excessive voltages
c. The gate-protective Zener diode keeps
the gate voltage within specifications to
prevent the device from overheating
d. The gate-protective Zener diode
prevents the gate insulation from
being punctured by small static
charges or excessive voltages
82. What do the initials CMOS stand for?
a. Common mode oscillating system
b. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
c. Complementary metal-oxide
semiconductor
d. Complementary metal-oxide substrate
83. Why are special precautions necessary in
handling FET and CMOS devices?
a. They are susceptible to damage from
static charges
b. They have fragile leads that may break
off
c. They have micro-welded semiconductor
junctions that are susceptible to
breakage
d. They are light sensitive

Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

84. How does the input impedance of a fieldeffect transistor compare with that of a bipolar
transistor?
a. One cannot compare input impedance
without first knowing the supply voltage
b. An FET has low input impedance; a
bipolar transistor has high input impedance
c. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar
transistors is the same
d. An FET has high input impedance; a
bipolar transistor has low input
impedance
85. What are the three terminals of a field-effect
transistor?
a. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
b. Emitter, base, collector
c. Emitter, base 1, base 2
d. Gate, drain, source
86. What are the two basic types of junction fieldeffect transistors?
a. N-channel and P-channel
b. High power and low power
c. MOSFET and GaAs FET
d. Silicon FET and germanium FET
87. Which of the following is expected to have the
highest input impedance?
a. MOSFET
b.JFET amplifier
c. CE bipolar transistor
d. CC bipolar transistor
88.The ______is quite popular in digital circuits
especially in CMOS which require very low power
consumption.
a. JFET
b. BJT
c. D-type MOSFET
d. E-type MOSFET
89. What is the amplification factor in FET
transistor amplifiers?
a. Zi
b. gm
c. ID
d. IG
90. The E-MOSFET is quite popular in what type
of applications.
a. digital circuitry
b. high frequency
c.buffering
d. a, b and c

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

91. A JFET just operates with specifically
a. the drain connected to ground
b. gate to source PN junction forward biased
c. gate connected to the source
d. gate to source PN junction reverse
biased
92. The main difference of a MOSFET from a
JFET is that
a. JFET has PN junction
b. of the power rating
c. MOSFETS has two gates
d. MOSFETs do not have physical channel
93. A small signal amplifier
a. uses only a small portion of its loadline
b. always has an output signal in the mV
range
c. goes into saturation once on each input
cycle
d. is always a common emitter amplifier
94. If the DC emitter current in a certain transistor
amplifier is 3 mA, the approximate value of re is
a. 3K
b. 3
c. 8.33
d. 0.33 K
95. The maximum efficiency of a transformer
coupled Class A amplifier is__.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 78.5
d. 100
96. In a MOSFET, the process of creating a
channel by the addition of charge carrier is
called.
a. inducement
b. improvement
c. balancing
d. enhancement
97. In a common base amplifier the voltage gain
is_____.(April, 2003)
a. medium
b. low
c. zero
d. high
98. In a common collector amplifier, the input
resistance is___.(Nov,2003)
a. high
b. zero
c. medium
d. low
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

99. What problem is caused by a loosely
coupled transformer in an RF amplifier? (April,
2004)
a. a too narrow bandpass
b. over coupling
c. optimum coupling
d. a too-wide bandpass
100. Normally, how are high power tubes tested
(April, 2004)
a. visually
b. individually
c. in their circuit
d. use portable testers
101. What is a CMOS IC?
a. A chip with only P-channel transistors
b. A chip with P-channel and N-channel
transistors
c. A chip with only N-channel transistors
d. A chip with only bipolar transistors
102. Who developed negative feedback?
a. Harold Black
b. Herald Black
c. Ronald Black
d. Blackdyak
103. A portion of the output is taken and is
connected in the input.
a. feedback systems
b. amplifers
c. clampers
d. clippers
104. This type of feedback increases the gain of
the system
a. positive feedback
b. negative feedback
c. degenerative feedback
d. zero feedback
105. A circuit capable of providing a repetitive
output wave from an externally generated input
signal
a. amplifier
b. oscillator
c. feedback
d. regulator
106. What do you call the phenomenon that a
mechanical stress produces a potential difference
across the opposite faces of crystals?
a. photoelectric effect
b. piezoelectric effect
c. mechatronics effect
d hall effect

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

107. What type of crystal exhibit the highest

piezoelectric activity?
a. tourmaline
b. Rochelle salt
c. diamond
d. quartz crystal
108. Blocking oscillator are used as
a. abrupt pulse generator
b. high impedance switches
c. low impedance switches
d. signal generator
109. A phase shift oscillator consist of number of
a. RC circuits
b. RL circuits
c. LC circuits
d. FET circuits
110. To sustain oscillations, circuits must exhibit
a. hall effect
b. fly effect
c. flywheel effect
d. shake effect
111. A monostable multivibrator can be used to
generate
a. sweep
b. pulse
c. sinusoids
d. DC
112. The main feature of crystal oscillator is
a. economy
b. reliability
c. stability
d. high frequency
113. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50, the
attenuation of the feedback circuit must
be______.
a. 1
b. 0.01
c. 10
d. 0.02
114. An oscillator differs from an amplifier
because
a. it has more gain
b. it requires no DC supply
c. it requires no input signal
d. it always has the same output
115. Wien Bridge oscillators are based on
a. positive feedback
b. the piezoelectric effect
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

c. negative feedback
d. high gain
116. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain
around the feedback loop must initially be
a. 1
b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
d. equal to
117. The loop gain in a phase shift oscillator must
be___degrees
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 360
118. An oscillator using a capacitive voltage
divider to provide feedback.
a. Hartley
b. Colpitts
c. Armstrong
d. Phase shift

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

c. decreased
d. equals infinity
124. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with
a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Degenerative feedback
d. all of the above
125. An RC phase shift oscillator
uses______amplifier.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class AB
126. A Wien Bridge oscillator is sometimes called
a___________.
a. Trap
b. Band pass filter
c. Phase shifter
d. Wheatstone bridge

119. The oscillator with the best frequency

stability and accuracy
a. Hartley
b. Colpitts
c. Clapp
d. Crystal-controlled

127. _______damping is the progressive decay

with time in the amplitude of the free oscillation in
a circuit.
a. decrement
b. pulse decay time
c. damping
d. transient

120. An oscillator circuit is mainly

a. DC to AC converter
b. DC to DC converter
c. AC to DC converter
d. AC to AC converter

128. Link coupling is also called

a. capacitive coupling
b. transformer coupling
c. resistive coupling
d. power coupling

121. If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is

10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the
feedback fraction is
a. 0.25
b. 0.9
c. 0.8
d. 0.225

129. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic

wristwatch is the
a. Armstrong
b. Clapp
c. Colpitts
d. Quartz crystal

122. The gain with negative feedback is

approximately ______when the feedback fraction
is 0.01.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 500
d. 1000
123. What happens to the input resistance of an
amplifier employing current-shunt feedback?
a. increased
b. remains the same

130. Which of the following minerals provides

the highest piezoelectric effect?
a. Tourmaline
b. Rochelle Salt
c. Quartz
d. Diamond
131. A microwave oscillator is
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator
Feedbacks and Oscillators

MITRC REFRESHER COURSE

Basic Electronics, Diodes and Transistors

132. Type of oscillator whose frequency is

dependent on the charge and discharge of the
RC networks.
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator
133. An RC phase shift oscillator has a 52 ohms
feedback resistance in each branch and 10 F
capacitance in each branch. What is its resonant
frequency?
a. 125 Hz
b. 306 Hz
c. 25 MHz
d. 100 KHz
134. It is a feedback oscillator that uses
transformer coupling to fed back portion of the
input signal
a. Hartley
b. Colpitts
c. Armstrong
d. Clapp
135. Crystals have a very
a. low Q
b. high Q
c. small inductance
d. large resistance

10

Feedbacks and Oscillators