Communication Exit Review

COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW
1. What is the opposition to the transfer

of energy which is considered the
dominant characteristics of a cable or
circuit that emanates from its physical
structure?
A. Conductance
B. Resistance
C. Reactance
D. Impedance
7. _________ is the ratio of reflected

voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
A. SWR
B. VSWR
C. Reflection coefficient
D. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to
the load to ___________.
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of

the line, It means that the load _____ all
the power.
A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load

B. Transfer maximum power to the load
C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum current to the load
A. Reflects
B. Absorbs
C. Attenuates
D. Radiates
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss

in a capacitor?
3. Impedance matching ratio of a coax

balun.
A. Quality factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Dissipation factor
D. Power factor
A. 1:4
B. 4:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
A. dBrn
B. dBa
C. dBr
D. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio
measurement.
A. 800 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this
means
A. That no power is applied
B. That the load is purely resistive
C. That the load is a pure reactance
D. That the load is opened
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10. What is the standard test tone?

A. 0 dB
B. 0 dBW
C. 0 dBm
D. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into
space nor completely transmitted.
A. Reflected waves
B. Captured waves
C. Incident waves
D. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal _______ meter.
A. 10^-10
B. 10^-9
C. 10^-6
D. 10^-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to

A. 10^-3 micron
B. 10^-10 m
C. 10^-6 micron
D. 10^-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a
waveguide at low radio frequencies?
A. Because of the size of the waveguide
B. Due to severe attenuation
C. Due to too much radiation
D. All of these
15. ___________ is the transmission and
reception of information.
A. Modulation
B. Communications
C. Radiation
D. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if
the power ratio of output to input is
0.01?
A. 20
B. -20
C. 40
D. -40
17. Transmission lines are either
balanced or unbalanced with respect to
A. Negative terminal
B. Reference
C. Ground
D. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to
________ if the load is properly matched
with the transmission line.
A. Infinity
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1
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19. ________ is the advantage of the

balanced transmission line compared to
unbalance line.
A. Low attenuation
B. Easy installation
C. Low radiation loss
D. Tensile strength
20. _________ is the method of
determining the bandwidth of any
processing system.
A. Fourier series
B. Spectral analysis
C. Frequency analysis
D. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present
in a waveguide?
A. The air dielectric filling the guide.
B. The coating of silver inside
C. Losses in the conducting walls of the
guide
D. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced
line to an unbalanced line of a
transmission line.
A. Hybrid
B. Stub
C. Directional coupler
D. Balun
23. What is the approximate line
impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced
1 cm apart with the length of 50 cm?
A. 10 ohms
B. 15 ohms
C. 18 ohms
D. 23 ohms
24. What is the average power of rating

of RG-58 C/u?
A. 25 W
B. 50 W
C. 75 W
D. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high
temperatures.
A. RG-58C
B. RG11A
C. RG-213
D. RG-211A
26. If you have available number of
power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each,
how many such amplifiers do you need
to cascade to give an overall gain of 60
dB?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
27. You are measuring noise channel at a
-4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO.
A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 21
28. The velocity factor of a transmission
line
A. Depends on the dielectric constant of
the material used
B. Increases the velocity along the
transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
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29. Impedance inversion can be obtained

by
A. A short-circuited stub
B. An open-circuited stub
C. A quarter-wave line
D. A half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected
to antennas have
A. Capacitive load
B. Resistive load whose resistance is
greater than the characteristic impedance of
the line
C. Resistive load whose resistance is less
than characteristic impedance of the line
D. Resistive load at the resonant
frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded
media.
A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input
of the transmission line when its length
is infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary
line constants except
A. Conductance
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials

commonly used in transmission lines
range about
A. 1.2 to 2.8
B. 2.8 to 3.5
C. 3.5 to 5.2
D. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor of the
materials used in transmission lines
range from
A. 0.6 to 0.9
B. 0.1 to 0.5
C. 1.0 to 0.9
D. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the
minimum characteristic impedance value
is
A. 85 ohms
B. 83 ohms
C. 90 ohms
D. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section
transmission lines is terminated by a
short circuit ad us connected to an RF
source at the other end, its put
impedance is
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Resistive
D. Equivalent to a parallel resonant LC
circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz
with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of
RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an
input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the
reflection coefficient.
A. 0.71
B. 0.77
C. 0.97
D. 0.76
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39. A quaterwave transformer is

connected to a parallel wire line in order
to match the line to a load of 100 ohms.
The transformer has a characteristic
impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance
between centers is 4 inches. What is the
percentage reduction in diameter of the
line?
A. 85%
B. 83%
C. 86%
D. 90%
40. The concept use to make one Smith
chart universal is called
A. Ionization
B. Normalization
C. Rationalization
D. Termination
41. What are the basic elements of
communication system?
A. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
B. Transmitter, receiver, transmission
channel
C. Information, transmission channel,
receiver
D. Sender and receiver
42. _________ is the transmission of
printed material over telephone lines.
A. Internet
B. Data communication
C. Telegraphy
D. Facsimile
43. _________ is a continuous tone

generated by the combination of two
frequencies of 350 Hz and 440 Hz used in
telephone sets.
A. DC tone
B. Ringing tone
C. Dial tone
D. Call waiting tone
44. __________ are unidirectional
amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that
are placed about 75 km apart used to
compensate for losses along the
telephone line.
48. The central switching office

coordinating element for all cell sites
that has cellular processor and cellular
switch. It interfaces with telephone
company zone offices, control call
processing and handle billing activities.
A. MTSO
B. Cell Site
C. PTSN
D. Trunk Line
49. __________ in a cellular system
performs radio-related functions for
cellular site.
A. VF repeaters
B. Loading coils
C. Loop extenders
D. Echo suppressors
A. Switching system
B. Base station
C. Operation and support system
D. Mobile station
45. __________ is a component in the

telephone set that has the primary
function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop.
50. A technology used to increase the

capacity of a mobile phone system.
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Varistor
D. Induction coil
A. Frequency re-use
B. Cell splitting
C. TDM
D. FDM
46. Pulse dialing has __________ rate.
51. If the grade of service of a telephone

system indicated P = 0.05, what does it
mean?
A. 20 pulses/min
B. 10 pulses/min
C. 10 pulses/sec
D. 80 pulses/sec
A. Completed call of 5 %
B. Lost calls of 5 %
C. Lost calls of 95 %
D. Lost calls of 105 %
47. __________ is a telephone wire that

connects two central offices.
52. __________ is the Out-of-Band

signaling between Toll Central Offices.
A. 2-wire circuit
B. Trunk line
C. Leased line
D. Private line
A. 3,825 Hz
B. 3700 Hz
C. 2600 Hz
D. 800 Hz
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53. In a telephone system, the

customers telephone directory
numbering is from 000 to 999, what is the
capacity of a telephone system
numbering from 000 to 999?
A. 100 lines
B. 1000 lines
C. 10000 lines
D. 100000 lines
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of
load transmission line has?
A. Purely reactive
B. Purely resistive
C. Purely capacitive
D. Purely inductive
55. Not more than __________ digits
make up an international telephone
number as recommended by CCITT REC.
E. 161.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
58. The standard analog telephone

channel bandwidth.
A. 300-3400 Hz
B. 1200 Hz
C. 200-3200 Hz
D. 300-3000 Hz
59. Type of switching in which a pair of
wire from the telephone set terminates in
a jack and the switch is supervised by an
operator.
A. Crossbar switching
B. Manual switching
C. Electronic switching
D. Step-by-step switching
60. Every time when the telephone is
idle, the handset is in the __________
state.
A. On-hook
B. Off-hook
C. Busy
D. Spare
56. One Erlang is equal to __________.
61. __________ is a component in the

telephone set that has the primary
function of compensating for the local
loop length.
A. 360 CCS
B. 36 CCS
C. 3.6 CCS
D. 100 CCS
A. Resistor
B. Varistor
C. Capacitor
D. Induction coil
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone

service beyond the normal flat rate in
that area.
62. What kind of receiver is used in

conventional telephone handset?
A. WATS
B. OTLP
C. TIP
D. DTWX
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A. Carbon
B. Electromagnetic
C. Ceramic
D. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN

has an ideal passband of
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 MHz
C. 0 to 4 kHz
D. 0 to 4 GHz
64. __________ is the minimum-quality
circuit available using the PTN.
A. Basic voice grade
B. Basic voice channel
C. Basic voice band
D. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing network is
called
A. Private-line network
B. PT network
C. Dial-up network
D. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a
strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the balancing
network
D. Assure the customer that the
telephone is working
67. __________ is a special service

circuit connecting two private branch
exchanges.
A. Phantom line
B. Tie trunk
C. Tandem trunk
D. Private trunk
68. The published rates, regulations, and

descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use
A. Toll rate
B. Tariff
C. Bulk billing
D. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
A. 1 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass
characteristic occupying the frequency
range of __________.
A. 300-400 Hz
B. 300-3400 Hz
C. 300-3000 Hz
D. 300-2700 Hz
71. The first Strowger step-by-step
switch was used in __________.
A. 1875
B. 1890
C. 1897
D. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15
degrees?
A. 52 sec
B. 1.25 sec
C. 83.33 sec
D. 26 sec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation
for a preparation of loss plan, a variable
loss plans and a fixed loss plan?
A. G. 133
B. G. 141
C. G. 132
D. G. 122
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74. What is the diameter of a copper wire

to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to

open circuited stubs because the latter
are
A. 0.838 mm
B. 0.465 mm
C. 1.626 mm
D. 2.159 mm
A. More difficult to make and connect

B. Made of a transmission line with a
different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of
reactances
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for

load management, fast moving mobiles
and low-usage areas?
A. Pico cells
B. Micro cells
C. Nano cells
D. Umbrella cells
80. What is the ratio of the reflected

voltage to the incident voltage?
A. VSWR
B. ISWR
C. SWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
76. In cellular networks, standard base

station antennas are replaced by
__________
81. One method of determined antenna

impedance.
A. Adaptive array
B. Flat plate antenna
C. Dipole array
D. Focused antenna
A. Stub matching
B. Trial and error
C. Smith chart
D. Quarter-wave matching
77. What is the basis of the first

generation wireless local loop?
82. __________ is a single conductor

running from the transmitter to the
antenna.
A. Digital cellular technology

B. Analogue cellular technology
C. PSTN
D. AMPS technology
A. Single-wire line
B. Microstrip
C. Twin lead
D. Coaxial line
78. When the calling party hears a

busy tone on his telephone, the call is
considered
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically

__________.
A. Lost
B. Disconnected
C. Completed
D. Incomplete
A. 150 to 300 ohms

B. 50 to 75 ohms
C. 30 to 45 ohms
D. 300 to 600 ohms
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84. Waveguide becomes compulsory

above what frequencies?
A. Above 3 GHz
B. Above 10 kHz
C. At 300 MHz
D. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is
__________.
A. 20 to 30 kHz
B. 0 to 3 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all
communications system when the round
trip propagation time exceeds
__________.
A. 50 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 100 ms
D. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300
ohms impedance is to be connected to
an antenna having an input impedance
of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a
quarter-wave matching line?
A. 212 ohms
B. 250 ohms
C. 200 ohms
D. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as
__________.
A. Impedance transformer
B. Lecher line
C. Transmission line
D. Harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can

convey electromagnetic waves only in
higher modes is us usually called
A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Power lines
D. Twisted wire of telephone line
90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used
in waveguide?
A. To increase the distributed capacitance
B. To keep the waveguide dry
C. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of
the guide
D. To raise the guides wave impedance
91. The apparent speed of propagation
along a waveguide based on the
distance between wavefronts along the
walls of the guide is called
A. Group velocity
B. Phase velocity
C. Normal velocity
D. Abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple In and out of a
waveguide?
A. Wrap coil of wire around one end of the
waveguide
B. Insertion of an E-probe into the
waveguide
C. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
D. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating
in the dominant TE10 mode. The
associated flux lines are established
A. Transversely across the narrow
dimension of the waveguide
B. Transversely across the wide dimension
of the waveguide
C. In the metal walls parallel to the direction
of propagation
D. In the metal walls perpendicular to the
direction of propagation
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94. For dominant mode of a rectangular

waveguide, the distance between 2
instantaneous consecutive position of
maximum field intensity is referred to as
half of the
A. Free-space wavelength
B. Cut-off wavelength in the wide dimension
C. Guide wavelength
D. Group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength in a
rectangular waveguide is
A. Equal to the free-space wavelength at
the cut-off frequency
B. Equal to the free-space wavelength for
the same signal frequency
C. Less than the free-space wavelength at
the cut-off frequency
D. Greater than the free-space
wavelength at the same signal frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave
power can only be transmitted in free
rectangular guide provided
A. The wider dimension is less than one-half
of the wavelength in free space
B. The narrow dimension is less than onequarter of the wavelength in free space
C. The wide dimension is greater than onehalf of the guide wavelength
D. The wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the wavelength in free space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a
rectangular guide is increased and the
dominant mode is employed
A. The free space wavelength is increased
B. The phase velocity increased
C. The guide wavelength is increased
D. The group velocity is increased
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98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a

arectangular waveguide and the
reflection angle is 20 degrees, what is
the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 6.10 cm
B. 5.32 cm
C. 4.78 cm
D. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimension of a rectangular
waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. the
cutoff wavelength for the dominant mode
is
A. 1.75 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 7.0 cm
D. 0.4375 cm
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5
cm is being propagated along a guide
whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4
cm. What is the value of the guide
wavelength?
A. 3.12 cm
B. 3.89 cm
C. 3.57 cm
D. 6.30 cm
1. The frequency range over which a
rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
A. The difference between the frequency for
which the reflection angle is 90 degrees and
the frequency for which angle is zero.
B. The difference between the frequency for
which the free space wavelength is equal to
cutoff value and the frequency for which the
free-space wavelength is equal to the guide
wavelength
C. The difference between the frequency
at which the cutoff wavelength is twice
the narrow dimension.
D. None of these
2. If a rectangular waveguide is to be
excited in the dominant mode, the Eprobe should be inserted
A. At the sealed end
B. At a distance of one quarterwavelength from the sealed end
C. At a distance of one-half wavelength
from the sealed end
D. At a distance of three-quarters of a
wavelength from the sealed end
3. A quarter-wave line is connected to an
RF generator and is shorted out at the
far end. What is the input impedance to
the line generator?
A. A low value of resistance
B. A high value of resistance
C. A capacitive resistance which is equal in
the value to the lines surge impedance
D. An inductive resistance which is equal to
the value to lines surge impedance
4. If the SWR on a transmission line has
a high value, the reason could be
A. An impedance mismatch between the
line and the load.
B. That the line is non-resonant
C. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
D. That the load is matched to the line
5. If a quarter-wave transmission line is
shorted at one end
A. There is minimum current at the shorted
end
B. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
C. The line behaves as a series-turned
circuit in relation to the generator
D. There is a minimum voltage at the
shorted end.
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6. A 50 ohm transmission line is feeding an

antenna which represents a 50 ohms
resistive load. To shorten the line, the length
must be
A. Any convenient value
B. An odd multiple of three-quarters of a
wavelength
C. An odd multiple of half a wavelength
D. An even multiple of a quarter of a
wavelength
7. The outer conductor of the coaxial
cable is usually grounded
A. At the beginning and at the end of the
cable
B. Only at the beginning of the cable and
only at the end of the cable
C. Only at the end of the cable
D. At the middle of the cable
8. A feature of an infinite transmission
line is that
A. Its input impedance at the generator is
equal to the lines surge impedance
B. Its phase velocity is greater than the
velocity of light
C. No RF current will be drawn from the
generator
D. The impedance varies at different
positions on the line
9. When the surge impedance of a line is
matched to a load, the line will
A. Transfer maximum current to the load
B. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
C. Transfer maximum power to the load
D. Have a VSWR equal to zero
10. A lossless line is terminated by a

resistive load which is not equal to the
surge impedance. If the value of the
reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 15
11. Ratio of the mismatch between the
antenna and the transmitter power.
A. Standing wave pattern
B. Reflection coefficient
C. SWR
D. Index of refraction
12. Emission designation for a facsimile.
A. H3E and A4E
B. R3E and A4E
C. F4E and J3E
D. F3C and A3E
13. Commonly used telephone wire.
A. AWG #19
B. AWG #18
C. AWG #30
D. AWG #33
14. What is the distance traveled by a
wave in the time of one cycle?
A. Frequency
B. Hop
C. Wavelength
D. Crest
15. The velocity factor is inversely
proportional with respect to the
__________.
A. Square of the dielectric constant
B. Square root of the dielectric constant
C. Dielectric constant
D. Square root of refractive index
12 | P a g e
16. __________ is a hollow structure that

has no center conductor but allows
waves to propagate down its length.
A. Waveguide
B. Hybrid
C. Pipe
D. Directional coupler
17. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel
wire line, __________ is used.
A. Hybrid circuit
B. Balun
C. Directional coupler
D. Quarter-wave transformer matching
circuit
18. What length for which the input
power has been halved for a
transmission line with an attenuation of
6 dB/km?
A. 1.5 km
B. 0.5 km
C. 63 km
D. 2 km
19. In a waveguide, __________ is a

specific configuration of electric and
magnetic fields that allows a wave to
propagate.
A. Set-up
B. Coupler
C. Channel
D. Mode
20. A rectangular waveguide has
dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. what is the
dominant mode cut-off frequency?
A. 2 GHz
B. 3 GHz
C. 2.5 GHz
D. 3.5 GHz
21. __________ are transmission lines

which can convey electromagnetic
waves only in higher order modes?
27. The characteristic impedance of a

transmission line does not depend upon
its
A. Coaxial cables
B. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
C. Power cables
D. Waveguides
A. Length
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. Dielectric material
22. The amount of uncertainty in a

system of symbols is also called
28. One of the following is not a common

transmission line impedance.
A. Bandwidth
B. Loss
C. Entropy
D. Quantum
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 120 ohms
D. 300 ohms
23. The twist in twisted wire pairs
29. For maximum absorption of power at

the antenna, the relationship between
the characteristic impedance of the line
Zo and the load impedance ZL should be
A. Reduced electromagnetic interference

B. Occur at a 30 degree angle
C. Eliminate loading
D. Were removed due to cost
24. An example of a bounded medium is
A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Fiber-optic cable
D. All of the above
25. Loading means the addition of
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Bullet
D. Inductance
A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0
30. The mismatch between antenna and
transmission line impedance cannot be
corrected for by
A. Using LC matching network
B. Adjusting antenna length
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission
line
26. What is the most commonly used

transmission line for high frequency
application?
31. __________ is a pattern of voltage

and current variations along a
transmission line not terminated in its
characteristic impedance.
A. Two-wire balance line

B. Single wire
C. Three-wire line
D. Coaxial
A. An electric field
B. Radio wave
C. Standing waves
D. A magnetic field
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32. Which is the desirable SWR on a

transmission line?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity
33. A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73
ohms antenna. What is the SWR?
A. 0.685
B. 1
C. 1.46
D. 2.92
34. What is the most desirable reflection
coefficient?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. Infinity
35. What is the ratio expressing the
percentage of incident voltage reflected
on a transmission line?
A. Velocity factor
B. Standing-wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Line efficiency
36. The minimum voltage along a
transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V the SWR is
A. 0.67
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 1.5
37. One meter is one wavelength at a
frequency of
A. 150 MHz
B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz
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38. At very high frequencies,

transmission lines act as
A. Tuned circuits
B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors
39. A shorted quarter-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
40. A shorted half-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
41. A medium least susceptible to noise?
A. Shielded pair
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic
D. Coaxial
42. A medium most widely used in
LANs?
A. Parallel-wire line
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic
D. Coaxial
43. The most commonly used
transmission line in television system.
A. Parallel-wire line
B. Coaxial cable
C. Waveguide
D. Open-wire with ceramic supports
44. The impedance of a TV transmission

line depends on several factors. Which is
not one of those factors?
49. Important useful quantities

describing waveforms.
A. Diameter
B. Length of the wire
C. Dielectric material
D. Separation between conductors
A. Time and frequency

B. Voltage an current
C. Frequency and voltage
D. Power and frequency
45. DC blocks are used in coaxial

transmission line for the purpose of
50. Halving the power means
A. Passing DC while blocking AC

B. Passing AC voltage but prevent DC
C. Preventing AC voltage from reaching the
pre-amplifier
D. Preventing AC power supply voltage
from being shorted by a balun or band
splitter
46. __________ is a type of interference
caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4,
plus a satellite dish operating on channel
3.
A. Adjacent channel interference
B. Ghost
C. Co-channel interference
D. CrosstalK
47. Dithering is a process for
A. Reducing the effect of noise on the
TVRO video signal
B. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO
channels
C. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise
angle
D. Moving the actuator exactly onto the
desired satellite beam
48. A network that has an input of 75 dB
and an output of 35 dB. The loss of the
network is __________.
A. -40 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 40 dBm
D. -40 dBm
15 | P a g e
A. 6-dB gain
B. 3-dB loss
C. 3-dB gain
D. 6-dB loss
51. One neper (Np) is how many
decibels?
A. 8.866
B. 8.686
C. 8.688
D. 8.868
52. A signal is amplified 100 times in
power. The dB gain is
A. 20 dB
B. 119 dB
C. 15 dB
D. 25 dB
53. Which of the following is used to
measure SWR?
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Reflectometer
C. Oscilloscope
D. Multimeter
54. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly
used for TV lead-in has a characteristics
impedance of
A. 52 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 300 ohms
55. What is the characteristics

impedance of a transmission line which
is to act as a quarterwave matching
transformer between a 175 ohms
transmission line and 600 ohms load?
A. 300.04 ohms
B. 324.04 ohms
C. 310.04 ohms
D. 320.04 ohms
59. In the preceding problem, calculate

the line current.
A. 1.7 A
B. 1.3 A
C. 1.5 A
D. 1.0 A
60. Determine also the total attenuation
of the line in the preceding problem.
56. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB

antenna connected to transmitter with an
output of 10 kW through a transmission
line with a loss of 5 dB?
A. 2.0 dB
B. 1.5 dB
C. 2.5 dB
D. 1.0 dB
A. 85 dBW
B. 955 dBW
C. 90 dBW
D. 80 dBw
61. What is the maximum subscriber

loop length, in ft., of a telephone system
of the signaling resistance is 1800 ohms
using a telephone cable pair of gauge #
26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms
per 100 ft. assume the telephone set
resistance is equal of 200 ohms.
57. If a quarterwave transformer is

required to match a 180 ohms load to a
transmission line with an impedance of
300 ohms, what should be the
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer? Assume that the
matching transformer is to be connected
directly to the load.
A. 180 ohms
B. 232 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 480 ohms
58. A transmitter of 100 W RF power
output, 100 % modulated is operating on
a frequency of 169 MHz. the antenna
transmission line consists of a 50 ohms
coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial
inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162
in. Determine the outside diameter of the
outer conductor if the outer conductor
has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k =
1).
A. 1 in
B. 0.9 in
C. 0.7 in
D. 0.5 in
16 | P a g e
A. 15, 161.7 feet

B. 19, 161 feet
C. 15, 300 feet
D. 20, 000 feet
62. If the same subscriber loop above
limits the voice attenuation to a
maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum
allowable subscriber loop length, in feet,
using the same gauge # 26 telephone
wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
A. 20,000 ft
B. 13,900 ft
C. 15,280 ft
D. 11, 733 ft
63. The input is 0.1 W and the network
gain is 13 dB, the output is
A. 2 W
B. 2.5 W
C. 1.5 W
D. 1.8 W
64. Known as one-tenth of a neper.

A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBp
D. dNp
65. The input impedance of a
quarterwave short-circuited
transmission line at its resonant
frequency is
A. 0 ohms
B. Infinite or an open circuit
C. Ohms
D. 70 ohms
66. The ratio of the largest rms value to
the smallest rms value of the voltage in
the line is called
A. SWR
B. ISWR
C. VSWR
67. An open-wire, two-wire transmission
line is to be connected to a dipole
antenna through a quarter-wave
matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz,
compute the length of the dipole.
A. 20 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 15 m
D. 25 m
69. To find the characteristic impedance

of a coaxial cable, measurements are
made with (a) the far end open circuited
and (b) far end short circuited, the
corresponding readings being
a) Ro = 3 ohms and Xc = 55 ohms
capacitive
b) Rs = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms
inductive
What is the characteristic impedance,
Zo, of the line?
A. 75.7 j2.0 ohms
B. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
C. 87.5 j5 ohms
D. 70.7 j1.97 ohms
70. A TV antenna receives a signal
measured at 200 mV and is immediately
amplified by a preamplified with a 15 dB
gain. This amplified signal then passes
through a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss,
what is the resulting input to the TV set,
in dBmV?
A. 1.98
B. 13.98
C. -1.98
D. -13.98
71. The characteristic impedance of a
transmission line does not depend upon
its __________.
A. Conductor spacing
B. Conductor diameter
C. Length
D. Conductor radius
68. From the preceding problem,

compute also the length of the
quarterwave stub.
72. What does a power difference of -3

dB mean?
A. 15 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 20 m
D. 25 m
A. A loss of one third of the power

B. A loss of one half of the power
C. A loss of three watts of power
D. No significant change
17 | P a g e
73. Which of the following is an

advantage of the balance transmission
line?
78. If the ratio of the maximum current to

minimum current in a transmission line
is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage
to minimum voltage is
A. Easy installation
B. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses
C. Low attenuation
D. None of these
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
74. Waveguides are used mainly for

microwave transmission because
79. Two wires of 600 ohms

characteristics impedance is to be
constructed out of a number 12 wire (81
mils). Find the attenuation of the line at
0.6 GHz per 100 feet length.
A. They are bulky at lower frequencies

B. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
C. They depend on straight line propagation
D. No generators are powerful enough to
excite them
75. The input is 1 W and the network loss
is 27 dB, the output is
A. 1 mW
B. 3 mW
C. 2 mW
D. 4 mW
76. A combiner has two inputs +30 dBm
and +30 dBm, what is the resultant
output?
A. +36 dBm
B. +30 dBm
C. +60 dBm
D. +33 dBm
A. 0.05 dB
B. 0.55 dB
C. 0.44 dB
D. 0.35 dB
80. In the preceding problem, determine
the spacing between wires from center
to center.
A. 6 in
B. 4 in
C. 5 in
D. 3 in
81. A lossless transmission line has a
shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a
series inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the
characteristic impedance?
77. The ratio of the smallest to the

largest rms current value is called
A. 500 ohms
B. 400 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 200 ohms
A. SWR
B. VSWR
C. ISWR
82. A ten times power change in

transmission system is equivalent to
A. 10 dBm
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 100 dB
18 | P a g e
83. A type of transmission line employed

where balanced properties are requied.
A. Balun
B. Parallel-wire line
C. Coaxial line
D. Quarterwave line
88. If an amplifier has equal input and

output impedances, what voltage ratio does
the gain of 50 dB represent?
A. 316.2
B. 325.2
C. 320.1
D. 315
84. What is the characteristic impedance

of a transmission line which has a
capacitance of 40 nF/ft and an
inductance of 0.5 mH/ft
89. What is the inductance per foot of a

cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF per ft
and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
A. 111.8 ohms
B. 110.8 ohms
C. 112.8 ohms
D. 109.8 ohms
A. 0.167 H per ft
B. 0.178 H per ft
C. 0.19 H per ft
D. 0.18 H per ft
85. The input power to a loss-free cable

is 5 W. If the reflected power is 7 dB
down on the incident power, the output
power to the load is
90. The ratio between the energy absorbed

by a surface to the total energy received by
the surface.
A. 4 W
B. 5 W
C. 6 W
D. 7 W
A. Reflection coefficient
B. Absorption coefficient
C. Linear coefficient
D. Thermal coefficient
86. To be properly matched the ratio of a

maximum voltage along a transmission line
should be equal to
91. When the diameter of the conductors of

a 2 wire transmission line is held constant,
the effect of decreasing the distance
between the conductors is
A. 1
B. 10
C. 50
D. 2
A. Increase the surge impedance

B. Increase the radiation resistance
C. Decrease the SWR
D. Decrease the impedance
87. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of

6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic
impedance. If the dielectric constant of the
insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner
diameter.
92. The higher the gauge number of a

conductor
A. 2.09 cm
B. 2.09 in
C. 2.09 mm
D. 2.09 mm
19 | P a g e
A. The bigger the diameter

B. The higher the resistance of the
smaller the diameter
C. The higher the resistance
D. None of these
93. A short length of transmission line used
to a reduce/eliminate standing waves in the

main transmission line.
A. Stub
B. Balun
C. ?/4 transformer
D. slot
98. In the preceding problem, what is the

attenuation in dB per 100 ft. of the line
for a frequency of 4MHz?
A. 0.05
B. 0.03
C. 0.04
D. 0.06
94. Ratio of reflected power to incident

power?
99. What is the SWR when the

transmission line is terminated in a short
circuit?
A. Incidence
B. Reflectance
C. Reflection index
D. None of these
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinite
D. Indeterminate
95. A quarter wave transformer is used

to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a
line of 52 ohms impedance, the
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer is
100. An instrument designed to measure

a frequency-weighted value of the sound
pressure level.
A. 200 ohms
B. 150 ohms
C. 176 ohms
D. 300 ohms
96. What is the capacitance of 55 miles
#44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From
wire tables, # 44 wire has a radius to
0.10215 in.
A. 0.467 F
B. 0.467 nF
C. 0.467 pF
D. 0.467 fF
97. A two-wire transmission line consists
of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The
distance between wire centers is 10
inches. What is the characteristic
impedance of the line?
A. 650 ohms
B. 300 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 660 ohms
20 | P a g e
A. Sound level meter

B. Transducer
C. Sound pressure meter
D. Sound analyzer
A unit of noisiness related to the
perceived noise level
A. Noy
B. Sone
C. dB
D. Phone
1. An agreed set of empirical curves
relating octave-band sound pressure
level to the center frequency of the
octave bands.
A. C-message weighting curve
B. Psophometric weighting curve
C. Noise rating curves
D. F1A weighting curve
2. The frequency of a free vibration.
A. Resonant frequency
B. Natural frequency
C. Center frequency
D. Normal frequency
3. The transmission of sound from one

room to an adjacent room, via common
walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Flanking transmission
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Reverberation
4. A measure of threshold of hearing
expressed in decibels relative to a
specified standard of normal hearing.
A. Hearing loss
B. Sensation level
C. Hearing level
D. Sound pressure level
5. A certain machine with a slightly outof-balance motor rotating at 1800 per
min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount
with a static compression of 2.50 mm.
Calculate the resonant frequency of
mount.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
6. Calculate the lowest resonant
frequency for a brick partition 120 mm
thick, 4m by 2 m in area with longitudinal
wave velocity of 2350 meter per sec.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
7. Velocity of sound in air
A. 300 meter per sec
B. 330 meter per sec
C. 1130 meter per sec
D. 344 meter per sec
8. What is the expected critical frequency
for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a
21 | P a g e
longitudinal wave velocity in brick of

2350 meter per sec. and that the velocity
of sound in air is 330 meter per sec.
A. 114.5 Hz
B. 214.5 Hz
C. 314.5 Hz
D. 414.5 Hz
9. The sound power level of a certain jet
plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB
(re10^-12 W). Find the maximum sound
pressure level on the ground directly
below the flight path assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions.
A. 59.1 Hz
B. 69.1 Hz
C. 79.1 Hz
D. 89.1 Hz
10. Speaker is a device that
A. Converts sound waves into current and
voltage
B. Converts current variations into
sound waves
C. Converts electrical energy to mechanical
energy
D. Converts electrical energy into
electromagnetic energy
11. Which type of microphone operates
on the principle that the electrical
resistance of carbon granules varies as
the pressure on the granules vary?
A. Dynamic
B. Cystal
C. Carbon
D. Ribbon-type
12. Bass response is
A. maximum high frequency response
B. emphasizing the high audio frequencies
C. bypassing high audio frequencies
D. bypassing low audio frequencies
13. Pure tone of sound used as standard

on testing.
D. Pressure variation
19. What is the unit of pitch?
A. 1Hz
B. 10Hz
C. 100Hz
D. 1000Hz
A. Sone
B. Phon
C. Decibel
D. Mel
14. _______ is early reflection of sound.

A. Echo
B. Reverberation
C. Pure sound
D. Intelligible sound
15. Noise reduction system used for film
sound in movie.
A. dolby
B. dBa
C. dBx
D.dBk
16. What is the sound energy per unit
area at right angles to the propagation
direction per unit time?
A. Loudness
B. Coherence
C. Sound pressure
D. Sound intensity
20. A measure of the intensity of sound

in comparison to another sound
intensity..
A. Phon
B. Decibel
C. Pascal
D. Watts
21. Sound wave has two main
characteristics which are
A. highness and loudness
B. tone and loadness
C. pitch and loudness
D. rarefraction and compression
22. Which type of microphone operated
by electromagnetic induction that
generates an output signal voltage?
17. _______ is the unit of loudness level

of a sound.
A. Carbon
B. Dynamic
C. Crystal
D. Condenser
A. Sone
B. Decibel
C. Mel
D. Phon
23. The exciter lamp in the optical sound

part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V.
How much power in watts is this light
bulb consuming
18. __________ is the average rate of

transmission of sound energy in a given
direction through a cross-section area of
1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Loudness
C. Sound intensity
22 | P a g e
A. 10 watts
B. 20 watts
C. 40 watts
D. 50 watts
24. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130

ft per sec. What frequency has a
wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5 inches?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
28. Sound waves travel in water at a

_______ speed.
A. 12.4 miles per sec
B. 5000 ft per sec
C. 186, 000 ft per sec
D. 3141 ft per sec
25. The wire that must bring 100 average

watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must
safely carry what rms current?
29. What is the sound power from a

motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5
m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates
sound uniformly?
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 6 A
A. 0.15 W
B. 0.21 W
C. 0.24 W
D. 0.18 W
26. A church has an internal volume of

90, 05 cu. ft (2,550 cu. m). When it
contains 2,000 customary sabines of
absorption (186 metric sabines), what
will be its reverberation time in seconds.
30. Crest-to-crest distance along the

direction of wave travel.
A. 2.0
B. 2.2
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
27. If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb per
sq. ft, what is the sound pressure level?
A. 7.6 dB
B. 108 dB
C. 88 dB
D. 10 Db
27. Speed that is faster than speed of
sound.
A. Ultrasonic
B. Supersonic
C. Subsonic
D. Transonic
23 | P a g e
A. Compression
B. Wavelength
C. Period
D. Sound wave
31. Sound intensity level is _______.
A. 10 log l per lref
B. 10 log P per Pref
C. 20 log l per lref
D. 30 log P per Pref
32. Sound pressure level is _______.
A. 20 log P per Pref
B. 30 log P per Pref
C. 10 log P per Pref
D. 20 log l per lref
33. The most important specification of
loudspeakers and microphones.
A. Frequency response
B. Field strength
C. Power density
D. Gain
34. Lowest frequency produced by a

musical instrument.
A. Midrange
B. Harmonic
C. Fundamental
D. Period
35. Tendency of a sound energy to
spread.
A. Diffraction
B. Rarefaction
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
36. When waves bend away from straight
lines of travel, it is called _______.
A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. rarefaction
D. refraction
37. Required time for any sound to decay
to 60 dB.
A. Echo time
B. Delay time
C. Reverberation time
D. Transient time
24 | P a g e
25 | P a g e

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COMMUNICATION EXIT REVIEW

1. What is the opposition to the transfer

7. _________ is the ratio of reflected

2. When load impedance equals to Zo of

A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load

9. Which indicate the relative energy loss

3. Impedance matching ratio of a coax

10. What is the standard test tone?