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Test # 1
One Hundred Twenty
Ultrasound Physics
Practice Questions
Copyright Notice
This is copyright protected intellectual property.
Phillip Crooms RDCS, RVT, RDMS
PO Box 17328
Clearwater, FL. 33762
In my experience, most multiple choice tests begin with the statement
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: For each question, select the best answer
That is double speak for select the least wrong answer. It does not say the CORRECT answer.
Of the 4 or 5 choices, the correct answer may not be there. Choose the least incorrect answer.
This gives the question writer latitude in answer choices. Get used to it. Short practice exams are
available at the ARDMS website for a fee. You can get a feel for the exam format there.
Strategy to defeat a multiple choice test:
1) Read the question (do not look at the answer choices) cover with your hand
2) If you think you know the answer, uncover the choices. If the answer is there select it
3) If you cannot understand the question or dont know the answer, skip the question
4) Repeat steps 1-3 until all questions have been answered.
5) When you have answered all the questions that you think you know the answer to, you end up with a
few that you have to guess
DO NOT guess C
I made an honest effort to error check these questions, but there has to be
an undetected error somewhere. If you find one and would like to share that
with me, e-mail from www.sonoreview.com. I will not argue ultrasound physics
by telephone. You will find some of the answers arguable. That is in the nature
of the material. Real ultrasound physics is a very complex subject. The diagnostic
medical sonographer only needs enough physics to pass the examinations

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1. Regions of lower particle concentration in a


sound wave are called called regions of
(A) compression
(B) reflections
(C) rarefaction
(D) decreased pressure
2. Phased array transducers suffer from
(A) side lobes
(B) grating lobes
(C) lateral lobes
(D) lobar degradation
3. Which is not a receiver function
(A) D to A conversion
(B) demodulation
(C) compression
(D) none of the above
4. Demodulation is a performed by the
(A) transmitter
(B) receiver
(C) amplifier
(D) pulser
5. Color Doppler is subject to aliasing
(A) true
(B) false
6. The intensity reflection coefficient is expressed in what units
(A) watts/cm/sec
(B) watts/sec
2
(C) watts/cm
(D) percent
7. A minimum frame rate of ______ is necessary for flicker free viewing
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

30
60
16
32

8. Absorption directly proportional to


(A) frequency
(B) wavelength
(C) elasticity
(D) none of the above
9. The Q value of a transducer is related to
(A) pulse duration
(B) damping duty
(C) transmission factor
(D) frequency bandwidth
(E) transmission fluid
10. When ultrasound strikes a curved surface ________can occur
(A) scattering
(B) ghost image
(C) edge artifact
(D) comet tail artifact
11. The acoustic impedance of the backing material has nothing to do with transmission
fluid
(A) True
(B) False
12. The operator control that adjusts transmitted intensity is
(A) gain
(B) reject
(C) compression
(D) depth of field
(E) none of the above
13. Distance is not an acoustic variable
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(A) True
(B) False
14. Propagation speed is not affected by the source
(A) True
(B) False
15. Axial resolution is equal to
(A) beam width
(B) pulse length
(C) display resolution
(D) none of the above
16. Electronically steered scanners
(A) have better resolution
(B) have no moving parts
(C) produce grating lobes
(D) none of the above
17. Ultrasound equipment has better __________ than ___________
(A) lateral resolution, temporal gain
(B) signal to noise ratio, output power
(C) axial resolution, lateral resolution
(D) lateral resolution, axial resolution
18. A transducer crystal used in research laboratory high frequency work would likely be
(A) quartz
(B) zirconium
(C) PZT-5
(D) none of the above
19. A beam intensity profile is plotted with a
(A) phantom
(B) phonograph
(C) gramaphone
(D) hydrophone

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20. If reflected intensity is subtracted from incident intensity __________ remains


(A) transmission fluid
(B) transmitted intensity
(C) transmission coefficient
(D) one
21. The minimum number of bits in a display system to display 16 shades of gray is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
22. Impedance differences at a boundary will cause
(A) reflection
(B) refraction
(C) attenuation
(D) diffraction
(E) scattering
23. The transducer matching layer purpose is to
(A) reduce refriction
(B) reduce abzorption
(C) reduce pulse length
(D) reduce reflectivity
24. Image artifacts appearing as equally spaced parallel lines are probably from
(A) reverberation
(B) enhancement
(C) multitissue
(D) refraction
(E) shadowing
25. In a phased array transducer, elements of the array are excited by altered time delays
to steer the beam
(A) True
(B) False

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26. The operator control that adjusts the range of the display gray scale
(A) gain
(B) power
(C) smoothing
(D) compression
27. Which are acoustic variables
(A) temperature
(B) distance
(C) pressure
(D) density
(E) all of the above
28. Spatial pulse length is _____________ to the number of cycles in the pulse
(A) inversely proportional
(B) directly proportional
(C) not related to
(D) NASA
29. Lateral resolution is equal to
(A) beam width
(B) pulse length
(C) display resolution
(D) none of the above
30. An example of mechanical beam steering technology is
(A) linear array
(B) annular array
(C) array shifting
(D) none of the above
31. The average pulse repetition frequency of an ultrasound machine is
(A) 1000 Hz
(B) 100 Hz
(C) 10 MHz
(D) 1 MHz

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32. The advantage of PZT over other manufactured materials is


(A) inexpensive
(B) shapes easily
(C) sensitive at low voltages
(D) all of the above
33. If the amplitude of a wave is doubled, intensity is
(A) halved
(B) doubled
(C) quadrupled
(D) increasee 6 times
34. Snell's Law predicts the angle of
(A) reflection
(B) refraction
(C) scatter
(D) none of the above
35. A 64 shade gray scale display requires a ______ bit memory system
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 16
36. Perpendicular incidence of an ultrasound beam on an interface will not result in
(A) refraction
(B) attenuation
(C) absorption
(D) diffraction
37. Processing to reject weak echoes is called
(A) FFT
(B) TTF
(C) integrating
(D) thresholding
38. Structures that have lower amplitude echoes than surrounding tissue are
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(A) hypoechoic
(B) hyperechoic
(C) anechoic
(D) echogenic
(E) hypogenic
39. Blue in color doppler represents venous flow.
(A) True
(B) False
40. Calculate the approximate velocity of a reflector if the Doppler shift is
4000 Hz , the angle is 60 degrees and the transducer is 5.0 MHz.
(A) 120 cm/s
(B) 50 cm/sec
(C) 300 cm/s
(D) 360 cm/s
41. In a transverse wave, particles move __________ to the direction of the wave
(A) parallel
(B) perpendicular
(C) vertical
(D) none of the above
42. Intensity is equal to
(A) power multiplied by beam area
(B) power divided by beam area
(C) SPTP
(D) SPTP times beam uniformity coefficient
43. If frequency is increased, the wavelength
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) increases twice
(D) remains constant

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44. Which rod group would be used to test axial resolution ?


(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
45. B-Mode means
(A) body modulation
(B) brightness motion
(C) beam height modulation
(D) brightness modulation
46. The common name for lead zirconate titanate is
(A) lead oxide
(B) false quartz
(C) PZT-5
(D) Synth-P
47. The ____________ for a pulse to occur is the pulse duration
(A) time
(B) space
(C) gate
(D) distance
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48. What is necessary for refraction to occur ?


(A) normal incidence and dissimilar acoustic impedances
(B) normal incidence and dissimilar densities of the media
(C) oblique incidence and similar propagation speeds
(D) oblique incidence and dissimilar propagation speeds
49. Pixel density is related to
(A) temporal resolution
(B) spatial resolution
(C) data density
(D) processor speed
50. A 5 MHz pulse passing through 4 cm of tissue will be attenuated by _____
(A) 1.5 dB
(B) 3 dB
(C) 5 dB
(D) 10 dB
(E) 15 dB
51. Which is the most common material for piezoelectric elements ?
(A) POT
(B) PZT
(C) PST
(D) QZ
(E) OZR
52. Shadowing occurs because of
(A) Doppler shift
(B) superverberation
(C) perpendicular reflectors
(D) weakly attenuating tissues
(E) strongly attenuating tissues
53. Fast Fourier transform of doppler signals is the most common way to process color
doppler images
(A) True
(B) False
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54. Which device can be used for hardcopy of M-mode ?


(A) multiformat camera
(B) thermal printer
(C) color printer
(D) strip chart recorder
(E) all of the above
55. In a transverse wave, particles move parallel to the direction of the wave
(A) True
(B) False
56. Which is specific to pulsed ultrasound only
(A) SATA
(B) SPTA
(C) SAPA
(D) PTA
57. If frequency is decreased, wavelength
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) increases twice
(D) remains constant

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58. Which rod group would be used to test lateral resolution ?


(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
59. The percentage of time a pulsed ultrasound machine is in receive mode
(A) 10%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(C) 99%
(D) 100%
60. How many shades of gray can be represented with a 4 bit scan converter ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 128
(D) 256
61. Frame rate is not dependant on
(A) propagation speed
(B) depth of view
(C) line density
(D) frequency
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62. Refraction occurs only with oblique incidence.


(A) true
(B) false
63. Multiple identical reflectors at different depths are caused by
(A) ring down
(B) mirror effect
(C) reverb
(D) slice effect
64. Low frequency transducers have
(A) better resolution and less penetration
(B) better resolution and more penetration
(C) reduced resolution and higher intensity
(D) better resolution and more penetration
(E) reduced resolution and less penetration
65. What is the appx. maximum frame rate with 150 scan
lines and an image depth of 5 cm ?
(A) 10 frames per second
(B) 15 frames per second
(C) 30 frames per second
(D) 100 frames per second
66. Which may cause acoustic shadowing ?
(A) gall stones
(B) bone
(C) renal calculi
(D) all of the above
67. Rarefaction zone refers to an area of
(A) low particle density
(B) low pressure
(C) low amplitude
(D) all of the above

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68. What is the peak pressure gradient across an aortic


valve if the peak velocity is 3.5 m/s ?
(A) 10 mmHg
(B) 25 mmHg
(C) 50 mmHg
(D) 100 mmHg
69. In a longitudinal wave, particles move parallel to the direction of the wave
(A) True
(B) False
70. With higher the frequency, the greater the amount of ____________
(A) amplifier gain
(B) specular refraction
(C) Rayleigh scattering
(D) reflectivity
71. If frequency is increased, penetration
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) is halved
(D) remains constant

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72. Which rod group would be used to test dead zone ?


(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
73. If frequency is doubled, wavelength___________
(A) is squared
(B) is doubled
(C) is halved
(D) none of the above
74. Lateral resolution is equal to
(A) PRP
(B) period
(C) wavelength
(D) beam diameter
75. SPTA is expressed in
(A) intensity
2
(B) dB/cm
2
(C) W/cm
(D) Rayles
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76. A sound beam is traveling from medium A to medium B. Medium A has a propagation
speed of 1500 m/sec. Medium B has a propagation speed of 1600 m/sec.
The angle of incidence is 40 degrees. What is the angle of transmission ?
(A) greater than 45 degrees
(B) equal to 45 degrees
(C) less than 45 degrees
(D) cannot be determined
77. Mirror image artifacts are caused by
(A) side lobes
(B) ring down
(C) refraction
(D) reflection
78. The intensity of ultrasound as it propagates through tissue, is reduced by
(A) absorption
(B) scattering
(C) divergence
(D) all of the above
79. Acoustic pressure is directly proportional to
(A) intensity
(B) amplitensity
(C) acoustic velocity
(D) acoustic impedance
80. An ____________ structure produces no echoes
(A) anechoic
(B) echogenic
(C) sonologist
(D) hypoechoic
(E) hyperechoic

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81. The frequency of ultrasound waves is defined as


(A) reciprocals of wavelengths
(B) cycles per second
(C) pulses per second
(D) oscillations
82. Cineloop is the storage of __________ images for playback and review.
(A) digital
(B) video
(C) frame averaged
(D) analog
83. Sound is a __________ wave
(A) hydroponic
(B) mechanical
(C) hydrostatic
(D) energy
84. The attenuation coefficient is the amount of attenuation
(A) per dB
(B) per square centimeter
(C) per centimeter squared
(D) per centimeter
85. If frequency is increased, resolution
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) is doubled
(D) remains constant

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86. Which rod group would be used to test range accuracy ?


(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
87. In an ultrasound wave, particle concentrations change.
The lowest concetration is
(A) sonization
(B) compaction
(C) compression
(D) rarefaction
88. Ultrasound beams can be focused with
(A) optical lens
(B) acoustic lens
(C) fresnel lens
(D) all of the above
89. The piezoelectric properties of a transducer are lost if it is
(A) subjected to mechanical impact
(B) heated above the Curie point
(C) both
(D) neither
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90. High intensity ultrasound is most commonly associated with


(A) heat
(B) capitation
(C) chromesome damage
(D) cellular wall rupture
91. Shadowing is seen distal to structures with
(A) low impedance
(B) high amplitude
(C) high attenuation
(D) low attenuation
92. A 2.5 MHz crystal is ________ as thick as a 5.0 MHz
(A) twice
(B) half
(C) the same as
93. Television refreshes images at a frame rate of
(A) 16 frames per second
(B) 32 frames per second
(C) 64 frames per second
(D) 30 frames per second
94. Acoustic shadowing occurs posterior to
(A) fluid
(B) calcium
(C) bladder
(D) all of the above
95. Going from a medium of low velocity to a medium of high velocity, the frequency of
the sound
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same

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3

96. Which prefix means 10 ?


(A) Kilo
(B) Centi
(C) Meter
(D) Mega
97. Sound waves can be described in terms of
(A) amplitude
(B) power
(C) intensity
(D) all of the above
98. The higher the frequency, the greater the ____________
(A) amplifier gain
(B) specular refraction
(C) attenuation coefficient
(D) reflectivity
99. If frequency is increased, beam width
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) diverges
(D) remains constant
100. Gasses are more compressible than liquids
(A) True
(B) False
101. Which of the most common material used in ultrasound transducers ?
(A) lead zirconium titanium
(B) lead zirconium titanal
(C) lead xirconate tightanate
(D) lead zirconate titanate
(E) cubic zirconium

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102. The range of wavelengths in diagnostic ultrasound is


(A) 1-2 mm
(B) 2-5 mm
(C) 0.5-10 mm
(D) 0.1-1.5 mm
103. Linear phased array transducers beam steer by
(A) angle lens
(B) spinning mirror
(C) pulses in unison
(D) time delay of pulses
104. Rate of blood flow is directly proportional to the
(A) viscosity
(B) pressure gradient
(C) radius of the vessel
(D) circumference times stroke volume
105. Enhancement is a result of sound traveling through an area of
(A) low attenuation
(B) low propagation speed
(C) low impedance
(D) none of the above
106. A difference in velocity at a tissue boundary wcan cause
(A) scattering
(B) reflection
(C) refraction
(D) diffraction
107. Focusing of phased array transducers is done by
(A) concave face
(B) acoustic lens
(C) time delay circuits
(D) pulse duration phaseing

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108. Structures with higher amplitude than surrounding tissues are


(A) anechoic
(B) echotoxic
(C) hyperechoic
(D) hypoechoic
109. Materials with higher _______________ have faster propagation speeds.
(A) dB
(B) compressibility
(C) attenuation
(D) density
110. What is left ventricular ejection fraction ?
(A) the percentage of blood ejected at the QRS complex
(B) the fractional change in LV volume from diastole to systole
(C) the fractional change in LV diameted from diastole to systole
(D) the fractional shortening times a constant
111. Sound waves can be described in terms of
(A) period
(B) frequency
(C) wavelength
(D) all of the above
112. 4.0 MHz ultrasound with an initial intensity of 10 milliwatts per square centimeter.
What is the intensity at a depth of 5.0 cm ?
(A) 0.8 milliwatts per square centimeter
(B) 1.0 milliwatts per square centimeter
(C) 0.1 milliwatts per square centimeter
(D) 0.2 milliwatts per square centimeter
113. Which of the following can be used as a coupling medium ?
(A) KY jelly
(B) saline
(C) jello
(D) all of the above

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114. Decreasing the spatial pulse length


(A) reduces the field of view
(B) reduces lateral resolution
(C) improves axial resolution
(D) improves lateral resolution
115. Which is not related ?
(A) frame rate
(B) frequency
(C) lines per frame
(D) pulse repetition frequency
116. A definition of density is
(A) incompressibility
(B) impedance times mass
(C) mass per unit volume
(D) force multiplied by area
117. Which describes the effects of ultrasound on tissue ?
(A) cavitating effects
(B) acoustic effects
(C) biological effects
(D) reverberation effects
118. The unit for the duty factor is
(A) rayleigh's
(B) mm/s
(C) pulses per second
(D) none
119. Increased amplitude of structures distal to a structure with low attenuation is
(A) refraction
(B) enhancement
(C) shadowing
(D) edge effect gain
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120. Attenuation of ultrasound is a result of


(A) absorption
(B) divergence
(C) refraction
(D) scattering
(E) all of the above

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Answer worksheet and answer key for the Test #1 Ultrasound Physics Practice Questions

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Answer worksheet and answer key for the Test #1 Ultrasound Physics Practice Questions

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. E
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. B
35. C
36. A

37. D
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. D
49. B
50. D
51. B
52. E
53. B
54. E
55. B
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. B
61. D
62. A
63. C
64. C
65. D
66. D
67. D
68. C
69. A
70. C
71. B
72. B
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73. C
74. D
75. C
76. A
77. D
78. D
79. A
80. A
81. B
82. A
83. B
84. D
85. B
86. E
87. D
88. D
89. C
90. A
91. C
92. A
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. B
97. D
98. C
99. A
100. A
101. D
102. D
103. D
104. B
105. A
106. C
107. C
108. C

109. D
110. B
111. D
112. B
113. D
114. C
115. B
116. C
117. C
118. D
119. B
120. E

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Answer worksheet and answer key for the Test #1 Ultrasound Physics Practice Questions

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