Derivation of the overall (or macroscopic) energy balance (OEB) equation

The OEB equation is an application of the fundamental law conservation of energy (1st law of
thermodynamics) to a system (in our case, this is most often a fluid flow system).
Recall:
A) First Law of Thermodynamics:
E Q W

(1)

where Q is the total heat absorbed per mass of fluid, W is the total amount of work of all kinds per
mass of fluid that is done by the fluid upon the surroundings.
B) Basic Energy Conservation Equation (generation term = 0):
Energy Output Energy Input + Rate of Energy Accumulation = 0

(2)

C) Kinds of Energy within a thermodynamic system

1. Potential energy
2. Kinetic energy
3. Internal energy

zg

v2
2
U

Total energy of the fluid per unit mass:

v2
E U
zg
2

or

v2
zg
E U

2g c g c

(3)

Rate of energy accumulation in the control volume:

v2
(
U

zg ) dV
t
2
V

(4)

There is also energy transferred when mass flows in and out of the control volume or a form of net
work is done by the fluid as it flows into and out of the control volume, the pV term.
The contribution of shear work is usually neglected. pV and U can be combined using the definition
of enthalpy H:

v2
zg pV
2
But H U pV
U

Hence, total energy carried by fluid unit mass:

(5)
(6)

(7)

v2
zg
2

For a small area dA on the control surface (boundaries of the control volume), the rate of energy
v2
efflux is ( H
zg )(v)(dA cos ) . (dA cos) is the area projected in a direction normal to the
2
velocity vector v and is the angle between the velocity vector v and the outward-directed unit
normal vector n. This is discussed more thoroughly using the concepts of vector algebra (see our
reference book in the discussion of control volume and control surface). This is no need yet to go
into the minute details but you need to realize that this will simplify since we would be always
dealing with flows that are inwardly ( = 180) or outwardly ( = 0) normal to the control surface.
Energy output energy input = net energy efflux from control volume:

v2
zg )(v) cos dA
Net energy efflux = ( H
2
A

(8)

Next to be accounted will be heat (q) and work ( W ) energy which could transfer across the
boundary and is not associated by mass. By definition:
q = heat energy transferred per unit time across the boundary due to temperature
gradient. q is positive (by convention) if it is absorbed by the system

W = work energy per unit time which can be divided into:

W s = purely mechanical shaft work

pV = has been accounted in enthalpy term H

W is positive (by convention) if done by fluid upon the surroundings, or seen in another
way, work going out of the system is positive.

Therefore, OVERALL ENERGY BALANCE:

E

(H
A

=Q-W

v
zg )(v) cos dA (U
zg ) dV q WS
2
t V
2
2

(9)

Most useful case: THE STEADY-STATE FLOW SYSTEM

Fluid flow under analysis is steady-state (accumulation term is zero)

1-dimensional flow across boundaries of the control volume/surface
Single inlet/outlet
For 1-dimensional flow:

Pt. 1

pt. 2

A typical section of the

control surface (3dimensional flow)

cos 0 = 1

cos 180 = -1

Negligible variation of fluid elevation z, density, and enthalpy H across either inlet or outlet
area

Considering the first term of Eqn. 9:

( H
A2

v2
v2
zg )(v) cos(0 o ) dA ( H zg )(v) cos(180 o ) dA
2
2
A1

(10)


H 2 m2

v dA gm
3
2

A2

z 2 H 1 m1

2

v dA gm z
3
1

1 1

A1

(11)

Therefore:
H 2 m2 H 1 m1 gm2 z 2 gm1 z1

v dA v dA q W
2
2
3
2

A2

3
1

(12)

A1

To simplify further the double integral terms, we introduce the average velocity vav (a velocity
quantity that is easily measurable in actual systems):

v av A

v dA
2
2v

v 3 dA

A
av
A
A
But: vav A m

m 1
v 3 dA
(v 3 )dA

2 A
2v av A
A
1
But: (v 3 )dA (v 3 ) av
recall that it is similar to:
A A

m
v 3 dA
(v 3 ) av

2 A
2vav
3

(13)

(14)
1
vdA vav
A
A

(15)

Therefore:

H 2 m2 H1m1 gm2 z 2 gm1 z1

m2 (v23 ) av m1 (v13 ) av

q Ws
2v2,av
2v1,av

(16)

At steady-state flow, m1 = m2 = m; and dividing Eqn. (15) by m, and declaring that:

q
Q
m

H 2 H1

and

Ws
Ws
m

1 (v 23 ) av (v13 ) av

g ( z 2 z1 ) Q Ws
2 v 2,av
v1,av

We are not yet through with our simplification. Let us attempt a simple representation of

(17)

(v 3 ) av
v av

Let us now define the kinetic energy velocity correction factor :

(v av ) 3
(v 3 ) av

and therefore:

(v 3 ) av

(vav ) 3

3
(v1,av ) 3
1 (v2,av )
H 2 H1

g ( z 2 z1 ) Q Ws
2 v2,av
v1,av

(18)
(19)

(v1,av )
1 (v 2,av )

H 2 H1

g ( z 2 z1 ) Q Ws

(20)

OEB in SI units:
H 2 H1

1 2
v 2,av v12,av g ( z 2 z1 ) Q Ws
2

(21)

OEB in English units:

H 2 H1

1
g
v22,av v12,av
( z 2 z1 ) Q Ws
2g c
gc

(22)

NEXT QUESTION: HOW DO WE DETERMINE THE VALUE OF ?

In circular tube conduits (the most common kind that we will encounter for fluid flow systems like in
Fig. 2.7-1), velocity v is not constant throughout the flow area (CSA of conduit). Hence we need
our knowledge in TRANSPORT PHENOMENA and we can recall:
a) Laminar flow:
r 2
v 2v av 1
R

(23)

And:
(v 3 ) av
3

(v ) av
3

(v ) av
3

(v ) av

1
(v 3 )dA
A
A

R 2

(24)
3

r 2

2
v
1

0 av R 2 r dr d

2 R

R 2

2
0

r 2
0 2vav 1 R 2 r dr d

(2 0)2 3 (v av ) 3 R R 2 r 2

0 R 2
R 2

(v 3 ) av

16(vav ) 3 R 2
( R r 2 ) 3 r dr
R 8 0

(v ) av
3

(v ) av

(v 3 ) av

16(v av ) 3 R 1

u du
R 8 0 2
R

1 u 4

2 4 0
3
16(v av ) 1 2
2 4

(R r )
8
R
8

16(v av ) 3

R8

r dr

u R2 r 2

is not a function of r

du 2rdr

1
rdr du
2

(25)

(v ) av
(v 3 ) av

16(v av ) 3 1
8

R
8
R
8
3
2(v av )

(v av ) 3 1

(v 3 ) av 2

0 .5

for laminar flow

(26)

b) For turbulent flow

We need a good and well-behaved equation for velocity at turbulent flow to be able to do similar
mathematical rigors we presented for laminar flow. This could be challenging since as you can
recall, velocity distribution profiles in turbulent regions are challenging to model.
For illustration purposes, you can recall that for a limited range in the turbulent region:

Rr
v v max

valid for turbulent flow with NRe range of 104 to 105

(27)

And doing similar process (left for you as exercise), it could be determined that = 0.945.
Varying velocity profile with respect to Reynolds number in the turbulent range give range of
0.90 0.99. Hence, for fast engineering calculations (which is usually our case), for turbulent
flow is generally approximated as 1.0.
For precise needs, one can refer to some figures in other books (Foust, Fig. 20.2 shown below)
that provides graph between and NRe.

Assignment problems related to the OEB equation application are given at our E-learn.

DERIVATION OF THE OVER-ALL MECHANICAL ENERGY BALANCE

There are many cases of fluid flow system where the quantities of Q involved are not that substantial
and the other energy terms such as kinetic, potential, pressure-volume work term, friction losses and
shaft work (which could be termed collectively as mechanical energy) are much more significant.
The overall energy equation previously derived (Eqn. 21 or 22) can be transformed to consider only
the changes in mechanical energy and attribute miscellaneous energy losses to friction losses.
Mechanical energy:
Mechanical energy includes the work term, kinetic energy, potential energy and the flow work (pV)
part of the enthalpy term. It is a form of energy that is either work or any particular form that can be
directly converted to work.
Any energy converted to heat or internal energy is lost work or a loss in mechanical energy which is
caused by frictional resistance to flow. We will use the notation F as the sum of all frictional losses
per unit mass of fluid.
When a unit mass of fluid passes from inlet (point 1) to outlet (point 2 in Fig. 2.7-1), the batch work
done by the fluid, W is:

V2

pdV F

(28)

V1

From the first law of thermodynamics:

U Q W

(29)

For enthalpy:
V2

p2

V1

p1

H U pV U pdV Vdp

(30)

Where V refers to specific volume (reciprocal of density). Combining Eqns. 29 and 30:
V2

p2

V1

p1

H Q W pdV Vdp
And substituting Eqn. 28 for the W term:
p2
V2
V2
H Q pdV F pdV Vdp
V1
V1
p1

(31)

And simplifying:
p2

H Q F Vdp

(32)

p1

Substituting Eqn. 32 to Eqn. 21 and transpose all remaining terms to the left side:

2
1 2
dp
v2,av v12,av g ( z 2 z1 )
F Ws 0
2

p1

(33)

The specific volume V is replaced by the reciprocal of density . Eqn. 33 is called the overall
mechanical energy balance equation where except for friction losses, all terms are either work or
energy forms that are readily convertible to work. Note that there remains a term to be simplified (the
integral term). Here we need certain relationship between fluid density and pressure. From
thermodynamics, we can say that the evaluation of the integral will depend on the equation of state
of the fluid and of the thermodynamic path undergone by the fluid as it changes from state 1 to state
2.
For now, most of the fluids we will be studying can be considered as incompressible, that is, the
effect of pressure change on its density is negligible. This simple case applies to liquids and some
gases undergoing minimal changes in pressure. Thus, for incompressible fluids:

p p1
1 2
v 2,av v12,av g ( z 2 z1 ) 2
F Ws 0
(34)
2

Again, you must remember that this form of the energy balance is most useful for systems that do
not involve substantial heat transfer (Q).

Let us illustrate the use of the overall mechanical energy balance equation in some application
examples:

Given:
= 998 kg/m3 = 1 = 2
ID1 = ID2
Nre > 4,000 (turbulent)
so = 1

= -155.4 J/kg

Required: total frictional losses in the pipe system F

Solution:
The given problem does not involve substantial heat transfer and so Eqn. 34 is most appropriate to
use.

p p1
1 2
v 2,av v12,av g ( z 2 z1 ) 2
F Ws 0
2

The flow is steady-state and since the area of flow at inlet and outlet are equal, then the average
fluid velocities at points 1 and 2 (v1,av and v2,av) are equal; so the first term is zero.
We will set the datum height (reference level) at z 1 = 0 m, and therefore z2 = 3.05 m.
W s should be negative since it is shaft work supplied to the fluid system: W s = - 155.4 J/kg.
Manipulating the OMEB equation:

( p p1 )
1 2
F
v2,av v12,av g ( z 2 z1 ) 2
Ws
2

m
F 9.81 2 (3.05m 0 m)
s

(137,800 68,900)
998

kg
m3

N
m 2 (155.4 J ) 56.5 J
kg
kg

or 18.9

ft lb f
lbm

You should verify that all resulting units in each is equal to J/kg.
How to interpret the physical significance of this result? If there is no energy lost due to friction in
the pipe system, then we would have to expect that the pressure p 2 should be higher than what is
observed (137.8 kPa). The increase in pressure from pint 1 to point 2 is due to the energy imparted
by the pump to the fluid (Ws). Some of this supplied energy is spent to overcome gravitational pull
as the fluid is brought at higher elevation and the frictional resistances that totals to F.
Can you explain why there is frictional resistance (F) in the fluid flow system?

Example 2.7-5. Pump Horsepower in Flow System

Horsepower:
The development of the steam engine provided a reason to compare the output of horses with that of the
engines that could replace them. In 1702, Thomas Savery wrote in The Miner's Friend:
So that an engine which will raise as much water as two horses, working together at one time in such a work,
can do, and for which there must be constantly kept ten or twelve horses for doing the same. Then I say, such an
engine may be made large enough to do the work required in employing eight, ten, fifteen, or twenty horses to
be constantly maintained and kept for doing such a work

Given:
= 114.8 lbm/ft3
turbulent flow so = 1

F = 10.0 ft lbf/lbm

= 0.65

Ws

ID

ID

Equation 34

THE BERNOULLI EQUATION FOR FLUID FLOW

In the special case where no mechanical energy is involved (Ws = 0) and that no friction is assumed
to apply (friction losses neglected), and the flow is fully turbulent ( = 1), then the OMEB equation
becomes the Bernoulli equation. Its most useful form is:
2

v
p
v
p
g z1 1 1 g z 2 2 2
2

This is often used together with the continuity equation:

(35)

m A1v1 1 A2 v2 2

(36)

The following are some examples of its application:

Given:

= 1 = 2
Assumed turbulent flow so = 1
1

F = 0 (neglected)

Required: Calculate v1 and v2 if the pressure difference (p2 p1) is measureable or known.
Solution:
This is a case that we can use the Bernoulli equation for fluid flow since F = 0 and Ws = 0.
From the continuity equation (constant density):

v2

A1
v1
A2

35

Given:

v1
Required: v2 and volumetric flow rate (VFR) of discharge

above

the Bernoulli equation:

V2

Applying Bernoulli equation at pts 2 and 3:

The above problem has initiated you on the possibility (and most of the time advantage) of choosing
several reference points and to apply the equations derived only to the most convenient reference
points. This skill which you need to develop is best demonstrated in the following problem.

Assignment problem (to be submitted next meeting):

A pump takes in water at 60F from a large reservoir and delivers it to the bottom of an open elevated
tank 25 ft above the reservoir surface thru a 3-in ID pipe, The inlet to the pump is located 10 ft below
the water surface, and the water level in the tank is constant at 160 ft above the reservoir surface.
The pump delivers 150 gpm. If the total loss of energy due to friction in the piping system is 35
ftlbf/lbm, calculate the horsepower requirement to do the pumping. The pump-motor set has an
overall efficiency () of 55%.
Follow the proper solution presentation: given data in schematic diagram (I will be very particular
about your drawing!), all available/readily obtained data reflected properly in the diagram, clear
indication of reference points (I want you to set the reservoir surface as pt 1, suction pipe inlet to the
pump as pt 2, the point of discharge in the elevated tank as pt 3, and the surface of the water at the
elevated tank as point 4. Present the computation systematically, show units, then enclose the final
answer(s) with proper units in box. For some problems, more specific parts of schematic diagrams
may need to be shown for better analysis and presentation. Solve for the requirement using the
following reference points:
a) pt. 1 to pt. 4
b) pt. 2 to pt. 3
c) pt. 2 to pt. 4

OVERALL MOMENTUM BALANCE

Review from Physics on Momentum:

From Newtons second law:

(37)
F ma

dv
Since a
dt

dv d ( m v ) d p
F m

dt
dt
dt
The last equation above implies that the net force F acting on a body equals the time rate of change
of the product mv.
We call mv as momentum and we denote it as p.

p mv
We can finally re-state the 2nd Law of Newton in terms of momentum now as:
The time rate of change of momentum of a system is equal to the summation of all forces acting on
it and takes place in the direction of net force.
We will now follow the notation used by Geankoplis:
dP
F
dt

where P = Mv; M is the total mass and v is the velocity

(38)

The conservation of momentum with respect to a control volume is as follows:

Sum of forces
Rate of
acting on control = momentum out of
volume
control volume

Rate of momentum
+
into the control volume

Rate of accumulation
of momentum in
control volume

The left side term is equivalent to the generation rate term of the mass balance equation. Evaluating
the terms:
Sum of forces
Rate of
acting on control = momentum out of
volume
control volume

Rate of momentum
+
into the control volume

v( v) cos dA

Rate of accumulation
of momentum in
control volume

vdV
t
V

where the quantity ( v) cos is the mass efflux, hence multiplying it with v makes it a momentum
vector that is to be averaged/integrated throughout the flow area A.

F has x, y and z components. Let us for now focus on the x-component:

Fx v x ( v) cos dA
A

Or:

v x dV
t
V

(SI units)

(39)

Fx v x
A

( v)

cos dA v x dV
gc
t V g c

(English units)

(40)

More about Fx . It is composed of:

Component Name
Body force
Fxg

Definition/description
x-directed forced caused by gravity acting on the total mass M
of the control volume
Fxg Mg x
(zero if the x-direction is horizontal)

Fxp

Pressure force

Fxs

Shear or friction
force
Solid surface
force

Rx

x-directed force caused by the pressure forces acting on the

surface of the fluid system
x-directed force exerted on the fluid by a solid wall when the
control surface cuts between the fluid and the solid wall
The x-component of the resultant of the forces acting on the
control volume at points where the control surface cuts through
a solid. This occurs in typical cases when the control volume
includes a section of pipe and the fluid it contains. This is the
force exerted by the solid surface on the fluid

Then:

Fx Fxg Fxp Fxs Rx

(41)

And it follows that the overall momentum balance equation is:

Fx Fxg Fxp Fxs Rx v x ( v) cos dA

A

v x dV
t
V

(42)

Overall Momentum Balance in Flow System in One Direction

A quite common application of Eqn 42 is the case of a section of conduit with its axis in the xdirection, steady-state flow (no accumulation):

Fx Fxg Fxp Fxs Rx v x ( v x ) cos dA v x dV

t V
A

(43)

Integrating with cos = 1.0 and A

m
,
v av

(v x22 ) av
(v x21 ) av
Fxg Fxp Fxs R x m
m
v x 2 av
v x1av
Where:

2
x av

1
v x2 dA

A A

(44)

(45)

In a similar manner as we dealt with the kinetic energy correction factor , we introduce through a
series of algebraic steps:

(v x2 ) av
v x av

replaced by

v x av

(v av ) 2
where 2
(v ) av

With adequate knowledge of the velocity profile v and through integration of Eqn. 45, it can be verified
that for turbulent flow, could range from 0.95 0.99 (approximately 1.0) and is equal to for
laminar flow.
For turbulent flow cases,

(v x ) 2av
is replaced by v x av , the average bulk velocity.
v x ,av

For the fluid system in Fig. 2.8-1, gravitational force in the x-direction is zero and we can neglect the
friction force, and dropping the obvious subscript x:
0

Fxg Fxp Fxs R x mv 2 mv1

(46)

But:

Fxp p1 A1 p 2 A2

(according to our axis, p1 is oriented towards right so +, p2 is -)

(47)

And so:

Rx mv 2 mv1 p1 A1 p2 A2

(48)
Where Rx is the force exerted by the solid on the fluid. The force of the fluid on the solid (the reaction
force) is the Rx.

Given:

ID2 = 0.0286 m
ID1 = 0.0635 m
VFR = 0.03154 m3/s
= 1,000 kg/m3

Required: Rx (the force exerted by the nozzle on the fluid and Rx, the force exerted by the fluid on
the nozzle
Solution:
This is exactly conforming to our example case (the axis in the x-direction, steady-state flow) so we
can use:

Rx mv 2 mv1 p1 A1 p2 A2

(48)

Calculating the terms:

m3
kg
kg
m VFR 0.03154
1,000 3 31.54
s
s
m
0.03154
0.03154
m
m
v2
v1
9.96
49.1

s
s
(0.0635) 2
(0.0286) 2
4
4
Dv (0.03154)(9.96)(1,000)

351,500
We can possibly check for N RE

0.8937 10 3

= 1.0

Pressure at nozzle exit, p2 is approximately equal to atmospheric pressure since it is

discharging to the atmosphere. For p1, we can use the Bernoulli equation since F
and Ws = 0 (or negligible):
2
2
2
2
v1
p
v
p
v v1
1 2 2
p1 2
p 2 1,257,129.2 Pa
2

R x m(v2 v1 ) p1 A1 p 2 A2
31.54(49.1 9.96) 101,325(0.003167) 1,257,129.2(0.0006424) 2,427 N
This is the force of nozzle on the fluid.
The reaction force, +2,427 N is the force of the fluid on the nozzle. This is the force that the nozzleto-hose connection must withstand to remain intact.
Reaction forces in nozzles could be sufficiently strong in specific configurations. If the hose is curved;
see how this reaction force is utilized in the new water sport shown below. We will also develop the
momentum balance equations for such systems in the following discussion.

Overall Momentum Balance in Two Directions

p1

p1 y

p2 x
2

p1 x
p2

P2

p2 y

p1

For the x-direction:

Fxg Fxp Rx v x ( v) cos dA

A

Fxg Fxp R x m

(v 22 ) av
(v 2 )
cos 2 m 1 av cos 1
v 2 av
v1av

(49)

Again, we can use the average bulk velocity and introduce and assume turbulent flow.
In addition, we will account for the pressure forces (denoted by the red vectors in our diagram):

Fxp p1 A1 cos 1 p 2 A2 cos 2

(50)

So that finally:

Rx mv2 cos 2 mv1 cos1 p2 A2 cos 2 p1 A1 cos1

m
m
Rx
v2 cos 2 v1 cos1 p2 A2 cos 2 p1 A1 cos1
gc
gc

(SI)
(English)

(51)

For Ry, body force Fyg is already present: Fyg = -mtg where mt is the total mass of fluid within the
control volume (different from m: the mass rate) and we replace cos by sin :

R y mv 2 sin 2 mv1 sin 1 p 2 A2 sin 2 p1 A1 sin 1 mt g

(52)

The magnitude of the resultant force |R| is:

R Rx2 R y2

(53)

Given:

Known quantities: VRF, p2,

ID1 and ID2, 1 = 0, 2
p2

Required: Rx and Ry
Solution:
Mass flow rate (m) can be calculated through the continuity equation:

m m1 m2 1v1 A1 2 v2 A2
Mass of fluid inside the control volume (within the reducing bend) should be known, m t.
Since p2 is known, we can easily calculate p1 through the use of the Bernoulli equation (F = 0 and
W s = 0).
From the figure, 1 = 0, hence cos 0 = 1; 2 is known.
The average velocities at entrance (pt. 1) and at exit (pt. 2); v 1 and v2 are easily calculated through
the use of VFR and the CSAs at pts. 1 and 2.

Rx mv2 cos 2 mv1 p2 A2 cos 2 p1 A1

And since sin 1 = 0:

R y mv 2 sin 2 p 2 A2 sin 2 mt g
The angle that the Resultant force R makes with the vertical is:

arctan Rx R
We can now go back to the flying platform. The resultant force (upward thrust) created can be of
correct direction and magnitude that it can possibly lift a person.

Given:

Reqd: expression for F

Solution:
Assumptions:
1. Pipe wall not included in our system boundary, meaning our system is only the fluid enclosed
by the red dashed line.
2. All energy losses is assumed to be caused by the eddies and so, p 0 = p1 and v0 = v1
3. Pressures p1 and p2 are uniform over the CSA
Applying the overall momentum balance across pt. 1 and pt. 2 (1-direction: cos = 1):

Rx mv2 mv1 p2 A2 p1 A1
Recall that Rx is the force exerted by the pipe wall on the fluid but since we excluded the pipe wall
in our control volume, then Rx = 0. Since A1 = A2, so we get:

A2 ( p1 p2 ) m(v2 v1 )
And since: m m0 v0 A0 , v1 v0

and from

A
v0 A0 v2 A2 ; we get v2 0 v0
A2

And applying to the momentum balance equation:

A2 ( p1 p2 ) v0 A0 0 v0 v0 ;
A2

which after reversing signs, factoring out v0 and transposing :

( p2 p1 )

v0

A0
A2

A0
1
A2

Applying the overall mechanical energy balance from pt. 1 to pt. 2 (here there is now F that is due
to eddies. We have to choose OMEB over Bernoulli eqn because of this assumption):
0
0
v22 v12
p p1
g ( z 2 z1 ) 2
F Ws 0
2

Reversing signs:

v12 v22 ( p2 p1 )

F
2

0
Applying v1 v0 , v2 v0 and
A2

( p2 p1 )

v0

A0
A2

A0
1 :
A2

A
v 0 v0
A2 v 2 A0 1 A0
F
0

2
A2 A2
By simplification:
2
0

2
A0 A0
v02
F 1 2
2
A2 A2

v02 A0
F 1
2 A2

The brace-enclosed term is a perfect square trinomial

FREE JET OF FLUID STRIKING A FIXED VANE

This type of problems generally require the calculation of forces involved (force of the fluid acting on
the vane, and its reaction: force of the vane acting on the fluid).
The following are the basic assumptions:
1. z and p before and after impact of fluid on the vane are assumed zero, therefore by
Bernoulli equation, velocity magnitude is unchanged
2. Mechanical energy losses due to impact neglected
3. Friction resistance between the jet and vane neglected
4. There is uniform velocity throughout the jet
5. pressure is constant (usually at atmospheric pressure) at all ends of the vane

= 1000 kg/m3

= 30.5 m/s

= 60

CSA of jet with diameter of jet = 2.54 x 10-2 m

Required: Resultant force exerted by the jet on the vane

Solution:
Overall momentum balance for flow in 2 directions:

Rx mv2 cos 2 mv1 cos1 p2 A2 cos 2 p1 A1 cos1

(SI)

R y mv 2 sin 2 mv1 sin 1 p 2 A2 sin 2 p1 A1 sin 1 mt g

For Rx: v2 = v1 (refer to assumption 1) and we can assume that A1 = A2.
Atmospheric pressure acting on all surfaces cancel out hence the p must be in gage pressure. And
since we all have atmospheric pressure, p1 = p2 = 0.

m v1 A1 1 15.45 kg / s
Rx mv 2 cos 2 mv1 cos 0 0 p 2 A2 cos 2 p1 A1 cos 0 0
v2 v1 v;
p2 p1 0
Rx mv(cos 2 1)
Rx 15.45(30.5)(cos60 0 1) 235.6 N
For Ry: we can neglect the body force mtg (mt = not given)
0

R y mv 2 sin 2 mv1 sin 1 p 2 A2 sin 2 p1 A1 sin 1 mt g

R y mv sin 2

Ry (14.45)(30.5) sin 600 408.1 N

R on jet

The resultant force acting on the jet:

Ry

Rx

R Rx2 R y2 (235.6) 2 (408.1) 2 471.2 N

408.1
0
60
235.6

Tan 1

R on vane

The resultant exerted by the jet on the vane is of the same magnitude (471.2 N) but is of exactly
opposite direction.

For smooth and flat vane where fluid divides into two streams (refer to the figure at the right) we
assume that all velocities are equal (as result of assumption 1).
We can reformulate momentum balance for 1 entry (pt 1) and two exits (pt. 2 and pt. 3). We will
neglect the pressure force as all are exposed to the atmosphere.
The components of resultant force acting on the jet will be:

Rx m2 v2 cos 2 m3 v3 ( cos 2 ) m1v1

R y m2 v 2 sin 2 m3 v3 ( sin 2 )
By continuity equation, m1 = m2 + m3
Here, v1 = v2 = v3 since there is no loss of energy assumed.
We need to know m2 and m3. Summing up momentum along p direction as it must be zero because
there is no force exerted on the fluid by the flat plate in this direction, it can be shown that:

m2

m1
(1 cos 2 )
2

m3

m1
(1 cos 2 )
2

ASSIGNMENT PROBLEMS: Problems 2.8-2, 2.8-5, 2.8-8