IBPS PO Model

Question Paper
14

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RESONING
Directions (Q. 1): Study the following information and answer question given below:
Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of
them read a different newspaper. viz, Times of India, The Hindu, Hindustan, Amar Ujala, Danik
Bhaskar, Economic Times, Danik Jagran and Hindustan Times, but not necessarily in the same order.
M and O, who reads Hindustan, can never sit together. There are two person between the persons
who reads Danik Jagran and Danik Bhaskar and the latter is to the left of Danik Jagran. The person
who reads Danik Bhaskar sits second to the right of R. There are two person sitting between O and
the person who reads Economic Times. N an d Q are immediate neighbours of each other. The
person who read Times of India sits on the immediate left of the person who reads Hindustan Times.
T does not read Danik Jagran, Times of India or the Hindu and he is also not an immediate neighbour
of the one who reads Economic Times. The person who reads Times of India cannot sit with the
person who reads Amar Ujala. M is second to the right of the person who reads Danik Jagran. P
neither reads Economic Times nor Danik Jagran. Q and S are not immediate neighbours. S, who does
not read Danik Bhaskar sits on the immediate right of T. There is only one person between those
two person who reads Hindustan Times and Economic Times. There is only one person sitting
between S and the person who reads Economic times and the person who can never be
1.Which newspaper does T likes to read ?
1)Times of India

2) Danik Jagran

4) Amar Ujala

5) Hindu

3) Danik Bhask

Directions (Q. 2-6): Each of the question below consist of a question and two statements numbered I
and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statement are sufficient to
answer the qu estion. Read both the statements and give answer.
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statemtn II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statementI
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) If the data in statement I and II together are not sufficeint to answer the question.
5) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

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2. M, N, O, P and R are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre. What is the position of O with
respect to R?
I. M is sitting second to the left of N. O is sitting second to the right of N. P and R cannot sit adjacent
to each other.
II.P is sitting second to the right of R, and is sitting second to the left of M.

3. What is the date of birth of Arjun?

I. Arjun's friends Deepak remembers that Arjun's birthday is after 20th August but before 23rd August.
II.Arujun's brother remembers that his (Arjun) birthday was after 21st August but before 25th August.

4. If Seeta ranks 23rd from the bottom in his class what is her rank from the top?
I. Ritu rank's more than Seeta in class of 52 students
II.Poonam ranks just below that Seeta's rank from the top.

5. Rohit is in which direction of Shilpa?

I. Sunil is to the Sourth of Shilpa, Rupesh is to the west of Sunil and Rohit is to the North of Rupesh.
II.Shilpa is to the North of Sunil and Sunil is to the South of Rohit.

6. How is X related to Y.
I. X is sister of N who is grandson of mother-in-law of father of X.
II.P is mother of Y and Q is son of Mother-in-law of P.

Direction (Q. 7-8): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A Vast majority of employees surveyed plan to pursue new job oppurtunity in 2014. about 83% of
the nearly 9000 workers who participated in the poll say they intend to actively seek a new position
in the new year.
7. Which of the following can be inferredfrom the given information? (An inference is something
that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information.)
1) Emploees are not satisfy with their job.

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2) New year is good time to pursue new job.

3) Employees indicate they may look for new oppurtunities to stay in competition.
4) It is common practice among employees
5) The employees whose view is presented does not have any good job.

8. Which of the following cannot be a course of Actionto retain employees?

1) Employers should implement strategic engagement programmes.
2) Engagement, loyality and job satisfaction should be top cancerns for employers.
3) Incentive and appraisals given to retain top talents.
4) Promotion must be given to each employees to retain them.
5) None of these

Directions (9-11): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A white paper out on evolving global tax policy trends, which explores some of the emerging trends
in global taxation. The paper acknowledge that in an increasing interconnected global economy,
where in the quest to attract cross-border investment is of increasing importance, many countries
across ideological spectrum and at varying levels of development are adopting investor friendly
approach by ensuring certainty and predictability in their tax system an d reducing the Cost of
Compliance.
(A) Tax avoidance has become an area of concern.
(B) Steps needed to equip government to prevent 'double-non-taxation'.
(C) Many developing countries have identified tax erosion as major concern.
(D) Strengthening the existing tax code to prevent avoidance of tax and tax evasion.
(E) Clarity on the various provisions of international taxation.

9. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) may be the reason behind the white paper?
1) Only A

2) Both A and C

4) Both C and D

5) Both A and B

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3) Only E

10. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be an immediate course of action?
1) Only A

2) Only B

4) Both B and D

5) Both A and C

3) Both A and D

11. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be a possible assumption?
1) Only B

2) Only E

4) Both D and E

5) Both A and C

3) Both A and E

Direction (Q. 12): Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Based on survey online shopping and banking activity and services has been increased recently. The
data also shows that most people use their Pcs for online financial transaction. Criminals of cyber
crimes are ready to invest a lot of manpower and finances to organise sophisticated malicious
attacks. The most effective way to combat them requires use of online security, which is capable of
staying ahead of new criminal activity and spotting attempts to intercept sensitive user data before
financial credentials fall into wrong hands.
12. Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information?
1) The online user have been increased.
2) Online security is essential to counter cyber threats.
3) Computer users enjoy the ease and convenience of shopping and banking
4) Cyber-criminals are cashing in.
5) None of these.

Direction (Q. 13): Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Delhi police statics state that 1018 juveniles in conflict with the law were apprehended last year.
Four 'Underage' criminals are apprehended daily for he inovs offence. Due to poverty and lack of
guidance.
13. Which of the following can be the best possible reason for the juveniles to commit crimes?
1) Earning money through crimes is easy.

2) To impress their friends and girlfriends.

3) To satisfying their lust for cash.

4) Juveniles are easily attracted towards crime.

5) Influenced by gangsters or criminals life s.

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Directions (14-15 ): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Different universities are collaborating with industries in order to give the students a taste of the
real world and give them more opportunities not just for study and learning but for work as well. A
viable handshake between industries and universities provide a much needed plat from needed by
the students to sharpen their skills.
(A) Divert the attention of students.
(B) Increase the efficiency and knowledge of the students.
(C) Students are now experienced the real working environment.
(D) Student may be exploit and exhausted during exposure to the real world.
(E) Provides the environment to horn the skills of the students.

14. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a strong argument in favour of the
collaboration?
1) Only A

2) Both A and B

4) Both B and C

5) Only C

3) Both C and D

15. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred from the given
information?
1) Only A

2) Both A and D

4) Only E

5) Only D

3) Both A and E

Directions (Q. 16-20 ): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Seven players viz M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are playing for different IPL franchise - K.K.R., D.D., R.C.B.,
C.S.K, M. I., R. R. And S.H. but not necessarily in the same order. They are specialized in different
forms, viz. All Rounder, Batsman and Bowler. At least two players are specialized in the same forms.
P is playing form RCB and he is an All-Rounder. The o ne who is playing for D..D. is not a bowler. S is
playing for S.H. and he is a batsman along with only N. M is not playing for M .I. and he is not an AllRounder R is playing for R.R. and he is not an All-Rounder . Q is playing for C.S.K. but he is not an All
Rounder. No one playing for K.K. R and M.I. is an All Rounder.
16. Which of the following represent the group of players that are bowlers?
1) M, N, P

2) M, R, S

4) O, R, S

5) None of these

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3) M, R, Q

17. In which form does 'O' Specialized?

1) All-Rounder

2) Bowler

4) Can't be determined

5) None of these

3) Batsman

18. 'N' plays for which IPL team?

1) R.C.B.

2) K.K.R

4) D.D.

5) R.R.

3) M.I.

19. Which of the following combination is true1) M - M. I. Bowler

2) N - D.D. Batsman

4) Q - C.S.K. Batsman

5) None of these

3) O - D.D.- Bowler

20. Who among the following plays for D.D.?

1) P

2) O

4) M

5) None of these

3) N

Direction (21-25): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions A word
and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers are two-digit number and are arranged as per same logic based on the value of the
number.)
Input:17 sum energy 35 light yellow 27 ink 22 oval 37 are 48 34
Step I :17 oval sum energy 35 light yellow 27 ink 22 37 are 48 34
Step II :17 Oval 48 yellow sum energy 35 light 27 ink 22 37 are 34
Step III:17 Oval 48 yellow 27 ink sum energy 35 light 22 37 are 34
Step IV:17 Oval 48 yellow 27 ink 34 sum energy 35 light 22 37 are
Step V :17 oval 48 yellow 27 ink 34 sum 35 energy light 22 37 are
Step VI:17 oval 48 yellow 27 ink 34 sum 35 energy 22 light 37 are

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Step VI is the last step of the arrangement

As per the rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
steps for the given input
Input:24 else support 08 violent urge 17 04 repeat 14 arrange on 37 till 5 41
(All the numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers.)

21. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

1) Four

2) Five

4) Seven

5) None of these

3) Six

22. In which step will there be the following output?

5 urge 24 violent 17 on else support 08 04 repeat 14 orrange 37 till 41
1) step I

2) Step II

4) Step IV

5) Step V

3) Step III

23. Which of the following will be at the fifth position from the right in the last step?
1) 8

2) support

4) else

5) None of these

3) 41

24. Which of the following represents the positions of '14' in step IV?
1) 7 from left

2) 8 from right

4) 8 from left

5) None of these

3) 5 from right

25. Which element is third to the right of 'else' in step V?

1) 08

2) support

4) 04

5) 37

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3) repeat

Direction (Q. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questionsIn
certain code language, 'IPL starts in april' is written as 'ri mo zo ka', 'IPL is all about cricket' is written
as 'chi da tic mo ra' 'april is very fun month' is written as 'tic you ne su ka' and 'fun players starts
cricket' is written as 'pa su zo da'.
26. What is the code for 'players'?
1) S4

2) Pa

4) da

5) None of these

3) Zo

27. Which of the following may be the code for 'this april all about cricket'?
1) chi ka mo tic da
4) mo ra tic zo da

2) chi tic mo da chu

5) None of these

3) chi ka ra chu da

1) tic

2) yo

3) ne

4) chu

5) can't be determined

28. What is the code for 'very'?

29. What does 'ka' stand for?

1) April

2) in

4) fun

5) None of these

3) is

30. Which of the following is the code for 'Fun is very IPL month'1) Su zo you ra ne

2) ri ra su yo mo

4) su ri yo mo ne

5) None of these

3) yo mo ra ne

Direction (Q. 31-35 ): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
31. Which of the following expression will be true if the expression P < Q > R = S T is definitely true?
1) T < R

2) P = R

4) S Q 5) P S

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3) T < Q

32. In which of the following expression the expression 'T R' would definitely hold true?
1) R J = K > S T = Q

2) Q R > N = Y T < S

4) Y < T =K Q < R > J

5) K > Q = T < S J < R

3) Q > R K = Y T < S

33. In which of the following expression the expression 'A < E H' would hold definitely false?
1) V > A J < E = Z H
4) T = A I < E = P < H

2) V < H T E = P > A

3) I > H = J E > N = A

5) H P = E T > A = V

34. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in
orderto mark 'M > C' and
'D > B' definitely true?
D P = M ? B ? C
1) =, >

2) <, >

4) =, <

5) None of these

3) > ,

35. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same
order from left ot right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the
expression S > G definitely true as well as L H definitely false?
S_L_I_G_H_J
1) >, , =, < ,

2) >, , =, =,

4) , <, =, ,

5) None of these

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3) <, >, >, =,

ANSWERS
1. 4

3.5;
.5; From I. Possible birth day date - 21, 22
So I alone is not sufficient
From II.
Possible birthday date - 22, 23 & 24 So, II alone is not sufficient
But, from combining I and II We get, 22 as birthday date.

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So, both statements data are necessary to answer the question.

4.1; From I.
We get total no. of students in class = 52
Seetas ranks from bottom is 23.
So, Seetas ranks from top = (52 23) + 1 = 30
So, data in statement I is sufficient.
Form II.
We cant determine the rank of seeta from statement two.
So, data in statement II is not sufficient.

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7.3; In the above paragraph it is clear that there is an indication that employees may look towards
new opportunities.

8.4; 1, 2 and 3 are possiblee course of actions but employers cannot give promotion to each
employees to retain them.

9. 3; The clear reason behind the white paper is to bring clarity on international taxation.

10. 4; Both B and D are the probable course of action.

11. 5; Both A and

nd C are the possible assumption.

12. 2; Due to increased online activities. To prevent the financial data of user, the online security
must be essentially required.

13. 3; Their lest for money is the possible reason for the juvenile to commit crimes.

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14. 4; Both option B and C are the strong argument suggest that the collaboration will bring the
career of student in right and successful path.

15. 5; A collaboration is only effective if it horn the skill of the students.

(16-20)

16.3
17.1
18.3
19.5
20.2
(21-25)
The arrangement machine rearrange one number followed by a word in each step. In Step I it
rearrange a least odd no. first which is followed by a vowels (in reverse alphabetical order). In
step II it rearrange a highest even no. which is followed by consonant (in reverse alphabetical
order). The process get repeated so on.
Input: 24 else support 08 voilent urge 17 04 repeat 14 orrange on 37 till 5 41
Step I: 5 urge 24 else support 08 voilent 17 04 repeat 14 arrange on 37 till 41
Step II: 5 urge 24 voilent else support 08 17 04 repeat 14 arrange on 37 till 41
Step III: 5 urge 24 voilent 17 on else support 08 04 repeat 14 arrange 37 till 41
Step IV: 5 urge 24 voilent 17 on 14 till else support 08 04 repeat arrange 37 41
Step V: 5 urge 24 voilent 17 on 14 till 37 else support 08 04 repeat arrange 41

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Step VI: 5 urge 24 voilent 17 on 14 till 37 else 08 support 04 repeat arrange 41

Step VII: 5 urge 24 voilent 17 on 14 till 37 else 08 support 41 arrange 04 repeat
21.4
22.3
23.2
24.1
25.4
(26-30)
IPL starts in april - ri mo zo ka .......... (i)
IPL is all about cricket - chi da tic mo ro ........... (ii)
april is very fun month - tic yo ne su ka ............ (iii)
fun players starts cricket - pa su zo da ............. (iv)
From (i) and (ii), IPL - mo
from (i) and (iii) , april - ka
from (ii) and (iii) , is - tic
from (iii) and (iv), fun - su
from (ii) and (iv), cricket - da
from (i) and (iv), starts - zo
Now from (iv), players - pa
from (i) in - ri
from (iii), very/month - yo/ne
from (ii), all/about - ra /chi
26.2
27.3
28.5
29.1
30.4

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31. 3; Given expression P < Q > R = S T In option I R T so

o it is not true. In option II P and R cant
be compared
d so it not rue, In option III Q > T or T < Q holds true In option IV P and S cant be
compared, in option V P
P & S cant be compared

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QUANTITATIVE
1. From a group of 6 male and 5 females, a committee of 5 has to be formed. In how many ways it
can be done, if the committee contains exactly 3 females?
1) 100

2) 130

4) 160

5) 200

3) 150

2. A bag contains 11 balls, out of which 3 are red in colour. If we have to choose 4 balls whats the
probability that exactly two are red?
1) 11/35

2) 14/55

4) 13/45

5) 14/45

3) 11/54

3. A works four times as fast as B. If B completes a work in 60 days then in how many days A and B
together can complete the work?
1) 15 days

2) 30 days

4) 12 days

5) 18 days

3) 20 days

4. A borrows a sum of Rs 40000 at 44% p.a. simple interest. He lends it to B at 40% p.a. compound
interest, compounded half yearly. What will be the gain/loss of A after one year?
1) Rs 200 gain

2) Rs 100 loss

4) Rs 200 loss

5) Rs 500 gain

3) No loss, no gain

5. Ravi has an amount of Rs 15000 in the form of Rs 100, Rs 500 and Rs 1000 notes. If the ratio of
notes is in 5 : 2 : 1 respectively, what is the value of Rs 100 notes?
1) Rs 2000

2) Rs 3000

4) Rs 5000

5) Rs 6000

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3) Rs 4000

Direction (Q. 6-10 ): The following graph shows number of goods produced (in thousand) by
company P and Q in different years

6. How many units of goods was sold by both the companies in the year 2001 and 2003 together?
1) 33500

2) 28000

4) 61500

5) 43500

3) 98000

7. The goods sold by company Q in 2004 is approximately what percent of the goods sold by
company P in 2003?
1) 18%
4) 16%

17

2) 19%

3) 17%

5) 20%

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8. What is the average number of goods sold by company P in 2000 and that of company Q in 2002?
1) 8375

2) 7000

4) 6000

5) 12000

3) 6500

9. What is the difference between number of goods produced by company P in 2004 and number of
goods sold by company Q in 2000.
1) 5000

2) 1000

4) 2000

5) 1500

3) 4000

10. What is the average number of goods sold by 'P in all these years?'
1) 10450

2) 12350

4) 12390

5) 11320

3) 11450

Direction (Q. 11-50 ): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below
There are six rooms of different dimensions in a house A drawing room measuring 20 m. 18 m, a
dining room measuring 8 m. 8 m, two bedroom measuring 15 m 12 m each, a kitchen measuring
10 m 12 m and a bathroom measuring 6 m 8 m.. The height of the wall is 15 m. The total area of
the house in 1000 m2 . The family paints the walls of each room. The cost of painting drawing room,
dining room and the bedrooms is Rs 50/m2 and that of kitchen and bathroom is Rs 35/m2 .
11. What is the cost of painting the bedrooms?
1) Rs 40500

2) Rs 28350

4) Rs 56700

5) None of these

3) Rs 81000

12. If the floor of remaining area has to be carpeted at the rate of Rs 16/m2 , what will be the cost?
1) Rs 800

2) Rs 768

4) Rs 832

5) Rs 760

3) Rs 720

13. The cost of painting drawing room is what percentage of painting the bedrooms together?

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1) 60.57%

2) 70.37%

4) 82.35%

5) 62.33%

3) 79.34%

14. What in the total cost of painting the house?

1) Rs 188900

2) Rs 198900

4) Rs 200000

5) Rs 199800

3) Rs 189800

15. What is the respective ratio of cost of painting, drawing, dining and bedroom together and
kitchen and bathroom together?
1) 7 : 3

2) 30 : 71

4) 30 : 7

5) 71 : 30

3) 3 : 7

Direction (Q. 16-20): The following number series follows a pattern, identify the pattern and guess
the next number which should continue the series:
16. 1170 1001 880 799 750 ?
1) 710

2) 699

4) 650

5) 600

3) 725

17. 990 981 997 972 1008 ?

1) 110

2) 1020

4) 959

5) 725

3) 900

18. 12 32 273 1602 8035 ?

1) 10101

2) 32643

4) 32124

5) 40135

19. 18 14 12 4 2 ?

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3) 19256

1) 0

2) 10

4) 10

3) 4

5) 5

20. 10 12 30 102 428 ?

1) 4280

2) 2170

4) 2000

5) 3230

3) 1420

Direction (21-25 ): The following questions contain one statement followed by two statements. Read
the statements and answer how many statements are required to answer the questions. Answer
according to the following codes:
1) Only if statement I is sufficient to answer the question, while II is not.
2) Only if statement II is sufficient to answer the question but I is not.
3) If the question can be answered using any of the statement.
4) If neither of them is sufficient together to answer
5) If both are required to answer the question

21. An organisation has three types of officers, ie. Supervisors, managers and assistant manager,
what is the monthly salary of assistant manager?
I.Assistant manager gets 10000 less than supervisors.
II.Total salary of supervisors and managers is `55000.

22. In a partnership business between A, B and C, what was the share of B's profit at the end of 3
years?
I.After 3 years A's share of profit was 20000.
II.B and C started the business with ratio 2 : 3.

23. What is the area of a square?

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I.The length of diagonal of square is given.

II.The perimeter of the square is known.

24. What is the rate of interest p.a. on S.I. at the end of 2 years?
I.The difference between SI and CI on an amount is `1000 after 2 years.
II.The amount becomes double with SI after 2 years.

25. In how many days B can finish a piece of work?

I.A and B together can do it in 8 days.
II.B and C can together finish the work in 10 days

26. A bag contains six black balls, 4 green balls and 3 red balls. If 3 balls are picked at random what is
the probability that they are of same colour?
1) 25/286

2) 25/216

4) 3/13

3) 42/72

5) 4/13

27. Four persons are there in a function and six seats are vacant. In how many ways they can be
seated?
1) 220

2) 330

4) 120

5) 480

3) 360

28. In how many ways 5 prizes can be distributed among 3 students if one student can get any
number of prizes?
1) 10

2) 21

4) 12

5) 22

3) 24

29. The price of an article first increased by 10%, then decreased by 20% and then increased by 30%.
If the final price is Rs 3432, what was the original price?

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1) Rs 2500

2) Rs 3000

4) Rs 3500

5) Rs 1500

3) Rs 2000

30. In a class of 80 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 2:3. The number of students who passed in
an exam to those who have failed is in the ratio 5 : 3. Among the boys, the ratio of passed to failed is
1: 3. What is the ratio of girls who failed to those who have passed?
1) 2 : 3

2) 3 : 2

4) 1 : 7

5) 5 : 4

3) 7 : 1

31. What is the diagonal of A rectangle whose length is 12 m. and breadth is 5m.?
1) 16 m

2) 13 m

4) 11 m

5) 15 m

3) 19 m

32. A wheel rotates and covers a distance of 13200 m by revolving 150 times. What is the diameter
of the wheel?
1) 7 m.

2) 14 m.

4) 56 m.

5) 50 m.

3) 28 m.

33. A solid sphere cut into two equal hemisphere. What will be the ratio of surface area of the
hemisphere to that of sphere1) 2 : 3

2) 3 : 4

4) 3 : 2

5) 1 : 2

3) 4 : 3

34. There is a cylinder of radius 25 cm. There is some water in it. If small sphere with diameter 5 mm
are dropped into it, the water level rises and the cylinder gets filled with spheres. If 60000 spheres
are dropped, find the volume of cylinder?
1) 1000 cm.

2) 1200 cm.

4) 1500 cm.

3) 1250 cm.

5) 2000 cm.

35. What will be the curved surface area of a cylinder whose height is 42 cm. and radius of base is
3.5 cm?

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1) 624 cm.

2) 924 cm.

4) 528 cm.

5) 634 cm.

ANSWERS
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3) 900 cm.

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6.4
7.3
8.3
9.2
10.3

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11.3
12.2
13.2
14.5
15.4

18.4;

8 8, + 7 7, 6 6, + 5 5

19.4; 1 3 + 2 4 3 5 + 4 6 5 7

20.2; (+2) 1 (+3) 2 (+ 4) 3 (+ 5) 4 (+6) 5

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21. 4
22. 4

25. 4

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q. 1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

1-81.
1) Writ

2) apparent

4) far

5) away

3) drove

2-82.
1) to

2) is

4) continue

5) makes

3) too

3-83.
1) suffering

2) crusader

4) trajected

5) toiling

3) dampen

4-84.
1) documented

2) malafide

4) misconstrued

5) vitiated

3) asserting

5-85.
1) efficacy

2) being

3) agilent

4) duo

5) amputate

6-86.
1) acquitted

2) harbour

4) clamour

5) nought

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3) premature

7-87.
1) availing

2) strangulating

4) injecting

5) presumably

3) dumping

8-88.
1) brazenly

2) repealed

4) hauling

5) sub stantially

3) maligned

9-89.
1) a

2) these

4) that

3) their

5) the

10-90.
1) opioid

2) stigma

4) reinstate

3) any

5) portraying

Directions (Q. 11-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Filing and Processing an RTI application in India gives us the authority to ask our questions for the
government. We may file different types of applications such as Passport delays, PF related, Life
insurance, Land and Property, State and Central examinations, Defense Forces, State and Central
banks, amongst others . Infact The Right to Information Act (RTI) is an Act of the Parliament of India
to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens and replaces the
erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002. The Act applies to all States and Union Territories of
India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Under the provisions of the Act, any citizen may
request information from a public authority (a body of Government or instrumentality of State)
which is required to reply expeditiously or within thirty days. The Act also requires every public
authority to computerize their records for wide dissemination and to pro-actively publish certain
categories of information so that the citizens need minimum recourse to request for information
formally. This law was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully into force on 13
October 2005. Information disclosure in India was restricted by the Official Secrets Act 1923 and
various other special laws, which the new RTI Act relaxes. Any citizen of India can submit a written
application to the Public Information Officer (PIO) for information. Public Information Officer (PIO) is
appointed by each authority, comes under The Right to Information .
Act (RTI). And it is the PIOs obligation to provide information to citizens of India who request
information under the Act. If there quest pertains to another public authority (in whole or part), it is
the PIOs responsibility to transfer/forward the concerned portions of the request to a PIO of the
other authority within 5 working days. In addition, every public authority is required to designate
Assistant Public Information Officers (APIOs) to receive RTI requests and appeals for forwarding to

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the PIOs of their public authority. The applicant is required to disclose his name and contact
particulars but not any other reasons or justification for seeking information.
The free flow of information is must for a democratic society as it helps the society to grow and to
retain a continuous debate and discussion among the people. But the access to information held by
a public authority was not possible until 2005. Before that the common people did not have any
legal right to know about the public policies and expenditures. It was quite ironical that people who
voted the persons responsible for policy formation to power and contributed towards the financing
of huge costs of public activities were denied access to the relevant information. Private bodies are
also not within the Acts ambit directly. Thus Right to Information Act is a standard or scale of
measurement. It is also the democratic need of especially in a country like India which happens to be
the largest democracy in the world.
11. Which of the following duration is required to reply an RTI application by a body of Government?
1) Within five working days.

2) Within a month

3) It takes at least two weeks.

4) Both 1) and 2)

5) None of these

12. Any citizen of India may request information in which of the following mode?
1) Electronic mail

2) Verbal

3) Through a written application

4) Either by 1 or 3

5) All of the above

13. Which of the following organization doesn't come under RTI as given in the above passage?
1) State and central Banks.
2) All private organization, which are substantially funded by Government.
3) Special protection group. 4) A request information from LIC.
5) None of these .

14. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
1) The Act applies to all the states of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
2) The RTI act was implemented 2005.
3) Those private organizations are substantially funded by the government come under the RTI Act.

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4) Both 1 & 3
5) None of these

15. Which of the following is a suitable example of the Right of Information Act (RTI)?
1) Appeal against neighbour countries.
2) Ask for reducing expenses of any organization
3) Lodge a FIR against the organization
4) Provide prior information for an agitation.
5) None of these

Direction (Q. 16-18): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as said in the passage.
16. Erstwhile
1) Retarded

2) Qondam

4) Dynasty

5) Former

3) Diligent

17. Ironical
1) Promulgation

2) Cynical

4) Eradication

5) Admitted

3) Administrative

18. Ambit
1) Misanthropic

2) Valued

4) Sphere

5) None of these

3) Conferred

Direction (19-20): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
19. Expeditiously
1) Remainder

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3) Retarded

4) Abiding

5) Tragic

20. Dissemination
1) Collection

2) Scope

4) By gone

5) Amount

3) Distribution

Directions (Q. 21-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Wastes are materials that are not prime products for which the initial user has no further use in
terms of his/her own purposes of production, transformation or consumption, and of which he/she
wants to dispose. Wastes may be generated during the extraction of raw materials, the processing of
raw materials into intermediate and final products, the consumption of final products, and other
human activities. Residuals recycled or reused at the place of generation are excluded. There are
various types of waste material- Agricultural waste , Animal by-products, Household, Human waste (
Sewage sludge), Industrial waste, Inorganic waste , Mineral waste, Nuclear waste, Organic waste,
Packaging waste, Radioactive waste, and Solid wastes. These wastes can be transformed in other
useful products, this process is known as Waste management. In other words waste management is
the collection, transport, processing or disposal, managing and monitoring of waste materials. The
term usually relates to materials produced by human activity, and the process is generally
undertaken to reduce their effect on health, the environment or aesthetics. Waste management is a
distinct practice from resource recovery which focuses on delaying the rate of consumption of
natural resources. All waste materials, whether they are solid, liquid, gaseous or radioactive fall
within the remit of waste management. Waste management practices can differ for developed and
developing nations, for urban and rural areas, and for residential and industrial producers.
Management of non-hazardous waste residential and institutional waste in metropolitan areas is
usually the responsibility of local government authorities, while management for non-hazardous
commercial and industrial waste is usually the responsibility of the generator subject to local,
national or international authorities. Methods of disposal are Landfill, Incineration, Recycling,
Sustainability, Biological reprocessing, Energy recovery and Resource recovery methods. Incineration
is a disposal method in which solid organic wastes are subjected to combustion so as to convert
them into residue and gaseous products. Recycling is a resource recovery practice that refers to
the collection and reuse of waste materials such as empty beverage containers. Recoverable
materials that are organic in nature, such as plant material, food scraps, and paper products, can be
recovered through composting and digestion processes to decompose the organic matter.
The management of waste is a key component in a business ability to maintaining ISO14001
accreditation. Companies are encouraged to improve their environmental efficiencies each year by
eliminating waste through resource recovery practices, which are sustainability-related activities.
One way to do this is by shifting away from waste management to resource recovery practices like
recycling materials such as glass, food scraps, paper and cardboard, plastic bottles and metal. Many
companies have done brilliant work in this field over the past few years, leading the way in the
development and manufacture of these types of technologies. Some companies have recently

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launched a new MIR (Medium Infra-red) sorter which sorts paper according to its quality, and has
improved its NIR (Near Infra-red) system to sortwood into category A and category B .Companies are
also working on a research project to the development of new machines and sorting technologies .
So we can expect to see even greater things in future.
21. Which of the following best define waste management?
1) Is the only collection of waste material.
2) A management of natural resources.
3) A process of transformation of prime produts in daily needs product.
4) A process of reuse of all type of material.
5) None of these

22. In which of the following product, a Solid organic wastes can be converted?
1) Residue

2) In liquid

4) In gaseous products

5) Both 1 and 4

3) In food scraps

23. Which of the following is not a method of disposal in the context of the passage?
1) Incine ration

2) recycling

4) Residuals

5) None of these

3) Biological reprocessing

24. What is the main objective of waste management?

1) To develop different practices for the extraction of raw materials.
2) Focus on recycling materials.
3) To collect, transport, dispose and manage the waste.
4) All of the the above.
5) None of these

25. Who is responsible for non-hazardous commercial and industrial waste?

1) Local authorities.

2) National authorities

4) Both 2 and 3

5) All of the above

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Directions (Q. 26-28): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as said in the passage.
26. Remit
1) Retain

2) Transfer

4) Tenure

5) Strain

3) Refrain

27. Incineration
1) Cremation

2) Vulnerable

4) Noxious

5) Sludge

3) Inevitable

28. Residue
1) Surplus

2) Debris

4) Core

5) Base

3) Junk

Direction (29-30): Choose the word which is most nearly the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning as the
word printed in bold as sed in the passage.
29. Extraction
1) Eradication

2) Inhalation

4) Sluggished

5) Distillation

3) Addition

30. Accreditation
1) Rushed

2) Necessity

4) Disapproval

5) Credentials

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3) Shavings

ANSWERS

1.4
2.3
3.5
4.1
5.2
6.3
7.5
8.4
9.1
10.3
11.2
12.3
13.3
14.1
15.5
16.5
17.2
18.4
19.3
20.1
21.5
22.5
23.4
24.3

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25.5
26.2
27.1
28.2
29.3
30.4

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