SSC CGL (Tier-I) Mock Test

Direction:- In questions no. 1 to 3 select the

related words/ letters/ number from the given
alternatives.
1. 76 : 42 : : 66 : ?
1) 63
2) 12
3) 35
4) 36
2. PARLEG : ALGPRE :: NATURE : ?
1). AUETNR
2) AUENTR
3) AUNETR
4) ATENUR
3. 36 : 114 :: 49 : ?
1) 412
2) 228
3) 91
4) 81
Direction:- In Questions number 4 and 5 find
the odd.
4.
1). TROK
2) WURN
3) AYVR
4) ACJF
5.
1) 136 1410
2) 312 316
3) 121 134
4) 691 61516
Directions:- In questions no.6 and 7, which set
of letters when sequentially placed at the paper in
the given letter series.
6. a_cbc_ca_ab_bca_ab
1) b a b c c
2) b c a b b
3) a b c b c
4) b c a b c
7. aa _ a _ b _ abaa _
1) abab 2) baab 3) baba 4) abba
8. Arrange the following words as per order in
the dictionary :
1) Recollect
2) Remember
3) Report
4) Repeat
5) Repeal
1) 1,3,2,4,5
2) 3,2,1,4,5
3) 5,3,4,2,1
4) 1,2,5,4,3
9. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK, then
THROW is coded as
1) HTWOR
2) HTWRO
3) HTROW
4) HTORW
10. Which of the following interchange of signs
would make the given equation correct?
2 3 + 6 12 4 = 3
1) and
2) + and
3) + and
4) and
Direction:- (Q11-13) Find the missing number
from given response-

11. 24
25
50
24
20
10
4
9
3
12
5
?
1) 15
2) 20
3) 5
4) 40
12. 63
7
9
30
5
6
20
4
?
1) 3
2) 5
3) 2
4) 8
13. 2
3
5
3
4
5
13
?
41
1) 46
2) 23
3) 25
4) 31
14. Some statements are given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to consider
the statements to be true, even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given
conclusions can definitely be drawn from
the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements:
All files are papers. Some papers are books.
Some books are journals.
Conclusions:
I. All files are journals.
II. All books are not journals
1) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
4) Both conclusions I and II follow
15. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal
distance from each other. The distance
between Ist and 25th tree is 30 m. What is
the distance between 3rd and l5th tree?
1) 8 m 2) 15 m 3) 16 m 4) 18 m
Direction:- (Q16-17) Find out the missing
term.
16. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ? .
1) MRU 2) MQT 3) LPS
4) NRU
17. 46, 50,47, 55, 49, 61,?
1) 54
2) 52
3) 57
4) 51
18. Anand travels 10 kms from his home to the
east to reach his school. Then he travels 5
kms to the south to reach his fathers shop,
after school. He then travels 10 kms to the

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west to help his uncle. How far and in which

direction is he from his home ?
1) 10 kms North
2) 5 kms South
3) 5 kms East
4) 10 kms West
19. At a birthday party, 5 friends are sitting in a
row. M is to the left of O and to the right
of P. S is sitting to the right of T, but to
the left of P. Who is sitting in the middle?
1) O
2) P
3) S
4) M
Directions: In Question No. 20, two
statements is given followed by conclusions /
inferences. You have to consider the statement to
be true, even if it seems to be at variance from
commonly known facts. You are to decide which
of the given conclusions / inferences can
definitely be drawn from the given statement.
Indicate your answer.
20. Statements:
(I) Some students are intelligent.
(II) Ankita is a student.
Conclusions:
1. Some students are dull.
2. Ankita is intelligent.
1) Only 1 follows 2) Only 1and2 follows
3) Only 2 follows 4) None follows
21. If H = 8 and HAT = 29, find how BOX = ?
1) 46
2) 43
3) 42
4) 41
22. From the answer figures, find out the figure
which is the exact mirror image of the
question figure, when the mirror is place on
the line 'MN'?
Question figure:
M

Answer figures:

1)

2)

3)

4)

23. Which answer figure will complete the

pattern in the question figure?
Question figure:
+
+

+
+

Answer figures:
+

+
+

+
+

2)

1)

3)

24. Find the urban, corrupt employees in the

following diagram:
Rural
People

Urban
People

3 4 56
11
7 89
Corrupt
Employees
12
People

1) 11
2) 9
3) 7
4) 12
25. A word is represented by only one set of
numbers as given in any one of the
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in
the alternatives are represented by two
classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
below. The columns and rows of Matrix 1
are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix
II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first by its
row and next by its column, e.g., D can be
represented by 11, 25, etc., and J can be
represented by 67, 78, etc. Similarly, you
have to identify the set for the given word.
MILK
0
1
2
3
4
5

Matrix-I
1 2 3 4
D E F G
H G E F
G F E D
F E D H
E D H F

5
H
D
H
G
G

0
6
7
8
9
10

6
I
M
I
J
K

Matrix-II
7 8 9
J K L
L J K
K L J
L M K
M I L

10
M
I
M
I
J

1) 98,66,79,77
2) 98,79,77,86
3) 98,86,77,99
4) 86,77,99,98
2
3
26.
= a + b 6 then the value of a
3 2 2 3
and b.
5
5
1) a = 2; b =
2) a =
;b=2
6
6
5
5
3) a = 4; b =
4) a =
;b=4
3
3
27. If 2(cos2 sin2 ) = 1 ( is a positive
acute), then cot is equal to
1
1) 3
2)
3) 1
4) 3
3
28. The angles of depression of the top and he
bottom of a building of height h units, from
the top of a monument of height H units are
complementary. If the distance between the
building and the monument is a units, then
it is always true that

4)

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h
a
a H h
H
a
3)
a H h

1)

2)

x2

H
a H
H a H
4)
H a h

29. If cos43 =

y2

, then the value of tan

47 is
y

1)
x

3)

x
y

2)
4)

y
x

x2 y 2
30. The avearage of 11 numbers is 63. If the
average of first six numbers is 60 and the
last six numbers is 65 then the 6th number
is:
1) 57
2) 60
3) 62
4) 54

a 2 b3 3 a
a 2 b3 , then
31. If x = 3 a
x3 + 3bx is equal to:
1) 0
2) a
3) 2a
4) 1
32. Two circles with centres P and Q intersect at
B and C. A, D are points on the circles with
centres P and Q respectively such that A, C,
D are collinear. If
APB = 130 and
BQD = x, then the value of x is:
1) 65
2) 130
3) 195
4) 135
33. A group of 18 men and 12 women can do a
piece of work in 18 days. A woman takes
twice as much time as a man to do the work.
How many days will 8 men take to finish the
same work ?
1) 48
2) 45
3) 50
4) 54
34. Two trains of some length, are running on
parallel tracks in opposite directions with
speed 65 km/hour and 85 km/hour
respectively. They cross each other in 6
seconds. The length of each train is
1) 100 metre
2) 115 metre
3) 125 metre
4) 150 metre
35. A 320 metre long train takes 80 seconds
more to cross a platform twice its length
than it takes to cross a pole at the same
speed. What is the speed of the train in
metre/second ?
1) 16
2) 10
3) 6
4) None of these
36. In a isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC; a
circle drawn with AB as diameter intersects

BC at D. If BD = 3 cm, then the length of

CD is
1) 1.5cm
2) 5cm
3) 3cm 4) 6cm
37. A and B entered into a partnership with
capitals in the ratio 4:5. After 3 months A
1
withdrew
of his capital and B withdrew
4
1
of his capital. The gain at the end of 10
5
months was ` 760. As share in this profit is
1) 330
2) 360
3) 450
4) 540
38.The total area of a circle and a rectangle is
equal to 1166 sq.cm. The diameter of the
circle is 28 cms. What is the sum of the
circumference of the circle and the perimeter
of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle
is 25 cm?
1) 186cm 2) 182cm 3) 184cm
4) None of these
39. Two circles touch externally. The sum of
their areas is 130 cm2 and the distance
between their centres is 14 cm. Find the
radius of the larger circle.
1) 8 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 11 cm
40. The length of the side of a square is 14cm.
Find out the ratio of the radii of the
inscribed and circumscribed circle of the
square.
1) 2 : 3
2) 2 : 1
3) 2 : 1
4) 1 : 2
41. In what time would a cistern be filled by
1
three pipes whose diameters are 1cm, 1
3
cm and 2cm, running together, when the
largest pipe alone can fill it in 61 minutes;
given that the amount of water flowing in by
each pipe being proportional to the square of
its diameter?
1) 32 minutes
2) 36 minutes
3) 40 minutes
4) 44 minutes
42. In a bag there are coins of 5 paise, 10 paise
and 25 paise in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If there
are all Rs 30, how many 5 paise coins are
there?
1) 50
2) 100
3) 150
4) 200
43. Vivek is 30 years younger than his uncle
1
today. 5 years ago, Vivek was th as old as
4

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his uncle. How old will Viveks uncle be 5

years from today?
1) 55 years
2) 45 years
3) 135 years
4) 50 years
44. Rs. 800 is divided among A, B and C so that
3
Rs. 50 more than of As share, Rs. 20
5
4
more than
of Bs share, Rs. 40 more than
9
5
of Cs share are equal. What is Bs
19
share?
1) Rs. 150
2) Rs. 270
3) Rs. 380
4) Rs. 420

45. If 5 5 53 5 2 = 5a + 2, then the value of

1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 8
46. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 km
downstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 km
upstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hours
and 30 minutes. The speed of the boat in still
water is
1) 8km/hr
2) 9 km/hr
3) 12 km/hr
4) 10 km/hr
47. Find three rational numbers between 2.5 and
3,
1) 2.65, 2. 701001071.. ..,2. 75
2) 2.8,0,2.75
3) 2.625, 2.75, 2.875
4) None of these.
48. On dividing a number by 13, we get 1 as
remainder. If the quotient is divided by 5,
we get 3 as a remainder. If this number is
divided by 65, what will be the remainder?
1) 40
2) 18
3) 28
4) 16
Direction:- Question (49-50) The following
bar diagram shows the registration of cars and
total vehicles (in thousands) during first six
months of the year 2013 in Delhi.
Cars

Vehicles

50
45

45
40
35
30
25
20

35

28
27
21

22
15

15
10
5
0

35

Jan

25
20
15

Feb Mar Apr

17

May Jun

49. What was the increase in registration of

vehicles other than cars from Jan to April
2013?
1) 8000
2) 10000
3) 15000
4) 5000
50. What was the percentage of increase in
registration of cars from May to June 2013 ?
1) 11 %
2) 39.28%
3) 64.7%
4) None of these
51. Which of the following is used to prevent soil
erosion on hill slopes?
1) Afforestation
2) Crop Rotation
3) Water logging
4) Contour farming
52. Khilafat movement was started in India
1) for getting Muslim Homeland
2) as a protest against British suppression of
Turks
3) to preserve Turkish Empire with Khilafat
as temporal head
4) as a protest against communal politics
53. _____________are known as the ecological
hot spot of India?
1) Western Ghats
2) Eastern Ghats
3) Western Himalayas 4) Sunderbans
54. Which among the following countries are
referred to as the Golden Crescent the
largest opium industry in the world?
1) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
2) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
3) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
4) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand
55. What is Depreciation?
1) Gross national product - Net national
product
2) Net national product - Gross national
product
3) Gross national product - Personal income
4) Personal income - Personal taxes
56. The Mughal emperor___________was
illiterate.
1) Jahangir
2) ShahJahan
3) Akbar
4) Aurangazeb
57. What is an emulsion?
1) A colloid of gas in a liquid
2) A colloid of liquid in a liquid
3) A colloid of liquid in a gas
4) A colloid of gas in a solid
58. One nautical mile is the same as
1) 1852 metres
2) 2000 metres

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3) 1575 metres
4) 2050 metres
59. ____________is also known as White
Vitriol.
1) Zinc Sulphate
2) Potassium Chloride
3) Zinc Phosphate
4) Aluminium Oxide
60. What is a formalised system of trading
agreements among groups of countries is
known as?
1) Trading blocks 2) Trade ventures
3) Trade partners
4) Trade organizations
61. Whose writing influenced Mahatma Gandhi
profoundly?
1) Bernard Shaw
2) Karl Marx
3) Lenin
4) Leo Tolstoy
62. Which day is celebrated as the National
Sports Day of India?
1) July 29
2) August 29
3) April 26
4) October 20
63. _________ are the seismic sea waves which
approach the coasts at great force
1) Tides
2) Tsunami
3) Current
4) Cyclone
64. _________are the depression formed by the
deflating action of winds
1) Playas
2) Yardang
3) Ventifacts
4) Sand dunes
65. Which of the following does the Indian
Standard Time relate to?
1) 75.5 E longitude
2) 82.5 E longitude
3) 90.5 E longitude 4) 0 longitude
66. ____________is the excess of price an
individual is willing to pay rather than
forego the consumption of the commodity.
1) Price
2) Profit
3) Producer surplus
4) Consumer surplus
67. Tetra ethyl lead is used as
1) a catalyst in burning fossil fuel
2) an antioxidant
3) a reductant
4) an antiknock compound
68. Which of the following is the star second
nearest to the Earth after the Sun?
1) Vega
2) Sirius
3) Proxima Centauri
4) Alpha Centauri

69. The national anthem of Bangladesh Amar

Sonar Bangla has been written by
1) Anisur Rahman
2) Rabindranath Tagore
3) Nazrul Islam
4) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
70. The right to free & compulsory education for
children between the age of 6 and 14 was
introduced in the constitution through
1) 21st Amendment 2) 86th Amendment
3) 91st Amendment 4) 97th Amendment
71. Which among the following isnt an All India
Service?
1) Indian Administration Service
2) Indian Police Service
3) Indian Foreign Service
4) Indian Forest Service
72. Sunderban forest can be classified as
1) Scrub jungles
2) Mangroves
3) Deciduous forests 4) Tundra
73. ___________is the unit for measurement of
noise.
1) Watt
2) REM
3) Centigrade
4) Decibel
74. Who among the following defeated Arabs in
738 A. D.?
1) Pratiharas
2) Rashtrakutas
3) Palas
4) Chalukyas
75. Who among the following founded Atmiya
Sabha?
1) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
2) Swami Vivekananda
3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
4) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Directions (Q.76 to 79): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
In February this year, the government
presented its new population policy with much
fanfare. Although claiming to incorporate new
and more effective incentives for population
stabilization, a close examination of the policy
reveals that it is more a "population
discrimination" policy than an effective
population management policy. Lacking in
concrete measures, the crux of the policy rests on
denying states representation to parliament based
on their population. In other words - the essence

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of the population policy is that by taking away

the democratic rights of those states whose
population is growing too fast - i.e. the states in
the Hindi belt - these states will somehow find a
way of controlling their population. This is both
naive and absurd - even as it is discriminatory
and unethical under India's constitution.
The new population policy is but a sophisticated
excuse for passing the buck - and for ensuring
that nothing concrete is done. Rather than
investigate why the Hindi-belt states have failed
to control their population and what the centre
could do to facilitate that process, the centre has
taken to a cheap discriminatory formulation that
essentially washes its hands off the problem - as
if India as a whole will be unaffected by
unsustainable population growth in the Hindibelt states.
76. As per the passage, which of the following is
true?
1). The new population policy is in line with
the spirit of constitution
2). Tangible efforts have been made by the
government towards the management of
population
3). The centre has done little to find out why
certain states have failed to contain their
population
4). The new population policy is
undemocratic, yet ethical in nature
77. The essence of the new population policy is
1). To refrain from taking any concrete steps
towards solving the population problem
2). That a state is responsible for managing
its population and centre has no right to
interfere in it
3). That the states will come to manage their
population if their democratic rights are
denied
4). To punish the Hindi-belt states which are
responsible for population explosion
78. The author is of the opinion that
1). India will not be affected by the
unsustainable population growth in the
Hindi-belt states
2). The new population policy is a pretext
for the government to shirk away its
responsibility

3). The government has not done enough in

order to discipline the Hindi-belt states
4). It is the responsibility of the centre and
not the state to sort out the population
problem
79. As claimed by the government, the new
population policy
1). Can be rightly termed as a "population
discrimination" policy
2). Will teach a lesson to the Hindi-belt
states
3). Is nothing but old wine in a new bottle
4). Has better provisions for ensuring
population control
Directions (Q.80 to 82): Out of the four
alternatives choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words / sentence.
80. One whose motive is merely to get money
1) Sinecure
2) Honorary
3) Mercenary
4) Red-tapism
81. To have a very high opinion of oneself
1) Exaggeration
2) Adulation
3) Abundance
4) Conceited
82. Government by a small group of people
1) clique
2) oligarchy
3) oligopoly
4) monarchy
Directions (Q.83 to 85): Given below are
sentences where blanks have to be filled with an
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are
suggested for each question. Choose the correct
alternative out of the four.
83. Hardly had the guests arrived .it
started snowing.
1) When
2) Before
3) After
4) Then
84. As no conclusive evidence was there, the
accused were acquitted ..the charge.
1) Of
2) From
3) Off
4) With
85. The President has the death
penalty of the convict.
1) Set about
2) Set aside
3) Set down
4) Set upon
Directions (Q.86 to 89): Find out which part
of the sentence has an error. If a sentence is free
from error, mark No error as your answer.

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86. The electrician has been repairing 1) / our

water pump 2) / since two hours 3). No error
4)
87. If she will agree not to scold me 1) / I will
tell her the truth 2) / regarding the last
week's events 3). No error 4)
88. These days many a youngster 1) / is upset 2) /
because
of
lack
of
employment
opportunities 3). No error 4)
89. Who has the Principal invited 1) / for the
lecture on 2) / metaphysics this afternoon?
3). No error 4)
Directions:- (Q.90 to 92): Select the word in
the following questions which is wrongly spelt.
90. 1) Sieze
2) Achieve
3) Weird
4) Leisure
91. 1) Vendetta
2) Vicarious
3) Vociferrate
4) Verisimilitude
92. 1) Poignant
2) Relevent
3) Prvalent
4) Malignant
Directions:- (Q.93 to 95): A part of the
sentence is underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the underlined part at (1), (2) and
(3) which may improve the sentence. Choose the
correct alternative. In case no improvement is
needed your answer is (4).
93. Tell him that our leader has granted him the
permission of stay in our country.
1) with staying
2) to stay
3) for stay
4) No improvement
94. If I was you, I wouldnt trust a miscreant like
him.

1) If I have been you 2) If I were you

3) If I have been you 4) No improvement
95. We were amazed through his performance in
the competition.
1) from
2) at
3) with
4) No improvement
Directions (Q.96 to 98): Select the word which
is Opposite to the word given in CAPITALS
96. MUNIFICENT
1) Miserly
2) Faulty
3) Perplexing
4) Grandiose
97. JARRING
1). Disconcerting
2). Shocking
3). Mellifluous
4). Smothering
98. NEBULOUS
1). Clear
2). Young
3). Wholesome
4). Imprecise
Directions:- (Q.99 to 100): Choose the exact
meaning
of
the
idiomatic
expressions/phrases
99. Bull in a China shop:
1) To make new plans
2) Warn of danger that is not there
3) Willing to fight and hurt others
4) A person with no tact who upsets others
100. Pie in the sky:
1) Beautiful surroundings
2) Event unlikely to happen
3) Rainy season
4) Foreign traditions

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1.(4)
11.(2)
21.(4)
31.(3)
41. (2)
51.(4)
61.(4)
71.(3)
81.(4)
91.(3)

2. (2) 3. (1)
12. (2) 13. (3)
22. (3) 23. (1)
32. (2) 33. (4)
42. (3) 43. (4)
52. (3) 53. (1)
62. (2) 63. (2)
72. (2) 73. (4)
82. (2) 83. (1)
92. (2) 93. (2)

4. (4)
14. (1)
24. (2)
34. (3)
44. (2)
54. (3)
64. (4)
74. (1)
84. (1)
94. (2)

ANSWER
5. (2) 6. (1)
15. (2) 16. (2)
25. (3) 26. (1)
35. (4) 36. (3)
45. (1) 46. (4)
55. (1) 56. (3)
65. (2) 66. (4)
75. (3) 76. (3)
85. (2) 86. (3)
95. (2) 96. (1)

7. (2)
17. (2)
27. (4)
37. (1)
47. (3)
57. (2)
67. (4)
77. (3)
87. (1)
97. (3)

8. (4)
18. (2)
28. (3)
38. (2)
48. (1)
58. (1)
68. (3)
78. (2)
88. (4)
98. (1)

9. (4) 10. (2)

19. (2) 20. (4)
29. (3) 30. (1)
39. (4) 40. (4)
49. (1) 50. (3)
59. (1) 60. (1)
69. (2) 70. (2)
79. (4) 80. (3)
89. (1) 90. (1)
99. (4) 100. (2)

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