AIR LAW Study Guide: Part 1 - Definitions

AIR LAW study guide
PART 1 DEFINITIONS
1. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxying to the runway for take-off and sustains damage, but the flight is
continued after a visual inspection. This is
a)
b)
c)
d)
an incident
an accident
a serious incident
covered by normal operating procedures
2. Aerial work means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services as determined by the Director
such as
1. agricultural spraying, cloud spraying, aerial harvesting
2. aerial patrol, observation and survey;
3. aerial advertisement, including banner towing and other towing of objects;
4. search and rescue; parachuting;
5. aerial recording by photographic or electronic means;
6. fire spotting, control and fighting;
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 6
1, 2, 3, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
3. Definition of an aeroplane
a) means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions
on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;
b) means an aircraft as defined in the Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components, parts, equipment,
instruments, accessories and materials;
c) means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines not operating, the
performance characteristics of a glider;
d) means an aeroplane of which the minimum flying speed and the maximum take-off mass have been restricted for
classification purposes. The values of these restrictions are defined in Document SA-CATS 24;
4. An Aircraft Flight Manual:
a) means a manual acceptable to the State of Operator, containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures,
checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft systems and other material relevant to the
operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Parts 121, 127 and 135 and may incorporate the AFM, referred to in
regulation 91.03.2;
b) means a manual which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular
equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL
established for the aircraft type
c) means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the
aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew
members for the safe operation of the aircraft;
AIR LAW study guide

5. aircraft type means
a) with respect to personnel and aircraft licensing, all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications
thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics;
b) with respect to aircraft licensing, all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except
those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics;
c) with respect to personnel licensing, all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications
thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics;
6. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Providing advisory service

Achieving separation between controlled flights
Achieving separation between IFR flights
Providing flight Information Service
7. Definition of Cargo
a) means any property carried on an aircraft other than stores, unaccompanied or mishandled baggage;
b) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, unaccompanied or mishandled baggage;
c) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied or mishandled
baggage;
d) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied baggage;
8.
Category I (Cat I) operation means:

a) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 500 ft (152 m) and with either a
visibility of not less than 800 m or a RVR of not less than 550 m
b) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200 ft (60 m) and with either a
visibility of not less than 550 m or a RVR of not less than 800 m
c) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200 ft (60 m) and with
either a visibility of not less than 800 m or a RVR of not less than 550 m
9. Definition of Certificate of Airworthiness

a) means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a person approved to accept, store, handle and tender goods
for the carriage by air;
b) means formal evaluation and confirmation by or on behalf of the appropriate authority that a person possesses
the necessary competencies to perform assigned functions to an acceptable level as defined by the appropriate
authority;
c) means the certificate of airworthiness referred to in Article 31 of the Convention, issued in terms of
Subpart 8 of Part 21 of the Regulations, and includes an authority to fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of
Part 24;
10. The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained. If
the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the
Director of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
one year.
three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.
three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications
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11. The Certificate of Registration shall:
a)
b)
c)
d)
be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket which remains with the passenger
be carried on board the aircraft at all times
be available to passengers at all times
be retained in a place of safety by the operator
12. Child is between :

a)
b)
c)
d)
Second birth and 10 years old

Second birth and 12 years old
5 to 10 years old
5 to 12 years old
13. Cloud ceiling as defined shall mean:

a) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 10 000 ft, covering more than half the sky
b) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000 ft, covering less than half the sky
c) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000 ft, covering more than half the
sky
14. Cloudbreak procedure
a) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from
aircraft from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface may be made and from
which a landing or circling approach can be completed
b) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection
from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface may be
made and from which a landing or circling approach can be completed
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to VFR with specified protection from obstacles from
the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing
or circling approach can be completed
15. Crew member means:
a) A person assigned by an operator to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that are essential
for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight and include task
specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialised use of the aircraft and have
been informed of and accepted the associated risks thereof
b) A person assigned by the SACAA to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that are essential for the
safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight and include task specialists who have
been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialised use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted
the associated risks thereof
c) A person assigned by an owner to supervise refuelling operations
16. Define a current flight plan:
a) Means the navigation flight plan
b) Means the air traffic service flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent
clearances;
c) Includes the pax manifest, cargo manifest & general declaration
d) Is the plan included in the Aeronautical package
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AIR LAW study guide

17. A Danger Area means:
a) An area of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at
specified times.
b) any area on an aerodrome or heliport defined as such by the aerodrome or heliport licence holder; or
c) an airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which an air traffic advisory service is available
d) means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft
18. Date of application is the date:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Written on the application form.

On which the flight test and the written tests were successfully completed.
On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form
Nil
19. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

a)
b)
c)
d)
a precision approach.
a conventional approach.
an indirect approach.
a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuver.
20. The empty mass of an aircraft is:

a) The mass of the aircraft including full fuel, oil, engine coolant, hydraulic fluid and any fixed ballast and all items of
fixed equipment.
b) The mass of the aircraft excluding all fuel, oil engine coolant, and hydraulic fluid but including any fixed ballast
and all items of fixed equipment.
c) The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total hydraulic fluid, any
fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
21. What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:
a) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will
commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
b) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the
destination aerodrome
c) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be
initiated
d) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to
complete its approach for a landing
22. Extended range operations means
a) Flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from one adequate aerodrome
b) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 90 mins flying time at the approved one-engine
inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome
c) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 2 hrs flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative
cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome
AIR LAW study guide

23. Electronic flight bag
a) means a laptop, ipad or iphone
b) means an paper information management and display system intended primarily for flight or cabin crew functions
that were traditionally accomplished using electronic references
c) means an electronic information management and display system intended primarily for flight or cabin
crew functions that were traditionally accomplished using paper references
d) means an electronic information management and display system located only in the flight deck
24. 'Flight' means the time period between the :
a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next landing,
b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight,
c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
25. Flight crew member means:
a) A licensed crewmember charged with essential duties on an aircraft.
b) A crewmember listed as such on the General Declaration.
c) Any crewmember appointed as such by the operator.
26. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.

Flight Information Service only.
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
27. A Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD) is:

1.
full flight simulator realistically simulated
2.
flight procedure trainer simulates flight characteristics of a particular class .
3.
basic instrument flight trainer simulates an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1&2
2&3
1, 2 & 3
None of the above
28. Flight time aeroplane means:

a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight
b) The total time from the moment the pilot first starts the engine until the time that the engine is shutdown, whether
the flight has taken place or not
c) The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking-off until the moment it
finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
29. Which of the following is the best definition of flight visibility?
a) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by
night.
b) Visibility in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation.
c) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions.
d) the forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
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30. Glider means:
a) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air
against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight depends on the use of an engine
b) Lighter-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air
against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight does not depend on an engine
c) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the
air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight does not depend on an engine
31. helicopter-load combination
a)
b)
c)
d)
means the combination of a helicopter and an external-load, including the external-load attaching means;
means the combination of an aircraft and an external-load, including the external-load attaching means;
means the combination of a helicopter without an external-load, including the external-load attaching means;
means the combination of a helicopter and an external-load, excluding the external-load attaching means;
32. An infant is defined as being

a) 3 years or younger
b) Not yet reached his/her second birthday
c) 1 year or younger
33. Instrument ground time means:
a) time during which a pilot is practicing instrument flight in a FSTD
b) time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated instrument flight in a FSTD approved by
the Director;
c) means time during which the aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference
points, whether under actual or simulated flight conditions;
34. Instrument flight time means:
a) The time during which an aircraft is operated in accordance with an IFR flight plan.
b) The time during which an aircraft is operated solely by reference to instruments and without any external
reference points.
c) Only the time during which the aircraft is carrying out an actual instrument approach procedure.
d) Nil
35. Instrument time means
a) The time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated flight in an approved FSTD
b) The entire flight time during which the aircraft is piloted under IFR whether in VMC or IMC
c) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined
36. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach
procedures.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Precision approach runways in general.
Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
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37. Definition of Integrated Aeronautical Package means a package which consists of
1. an AIP including an amendment service;
2. supplements to the AIP;
3. NOTAM;
4. AIC; and
5. checklists and summaries;
6. Flight plan
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 5, 6
1, 2, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 3, 4, 5, 6
38. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the
state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination
of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only NOTAM's and Circulars.

Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
Only AIP and NOTAM's.
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
39. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

a) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB);
AIC; checklists and summaries
b) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
c) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
d) AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
40. Large Aircraft means?
a) Part 121 act
b) more than 5700 kg
c) +20 pax
41. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the manufacturer.
the operator.
the aircraft manufacturers list.
the aircraft state of registry.
42. What is the manoeuvering area

a)
b)
c)
d)
part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and aprons but excluding taxiways
part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including taxiways and aprons but excluding runways
part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and taxiways but excluding aprons
part of aerodrome including runways, taxiways and aprons
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43. Minimum descent altitude means
a) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the
required visual reference
b) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made unless the aircraft is a
multi-engine type
c) A specified altitude in a precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual
reference
44. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by
a)
b)
c)
d)
the operator
the manufacturer
the aircraft manufacturer's list
the aircraft state of registry
45. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the
conditions under which this allowance can be accepted.
The Mel is drawn up by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
46. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the
additional procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
47. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use
to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the regulations .
the flight manual.
the minimum equipment list.
the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".
48. The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
flight record.
operation manual.
CARS.
flight manual.
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49. Missed approach point means;
a) The point on an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach
procedure shall be initiated.
b) A defined point on a final approach of a non-precision approach procedure, from which a normal descent from the
MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided the visual references are present.
c) The point in an instrument approach procedure after which the prescribed missed approach procedure shall be
initiated.
50. Definition of Non Precision Approach
a) means an instrument approach and landing operation that utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise
vertical guidance;
b) means an instrument approach for landing in which precision azimuth guidance and precision glide path guidance
are provided in accordance with the minima prescribed for the category of operation
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from
obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point
from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding
or en route obstacle criteria apply.
51. Night means the period of time from:
a) sunset to sunrise
b) the end of evening twilight to the beginning of morning twilight
c) 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise
52. Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between
a) 20h00 to 06h00
b) 24h00 to 06h00
c) 02h00 to 06h00
53. A natural or artificial entity holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof authorising such persons
to conduct scheduled or non-scheduled commercial air services is
a)
b)
c)
d)
An operator
Civil Aviation Authority
Manufacturer
Department of Transport
54. Pilot-in-command under supervision (PICUS) means:

a) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC
b) Flying as PIC of an aircraft
c) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of the PIC in accordance
with a method of supervision acceptable to the Authority;
d) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of the PIC
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55. TODA take-off distance available is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
56. Definition of taxi

a) means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
b) means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding takeoff and landing;
c) means the movement of any vehicle on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding take-off and
landing;
57. Definition of Transition altitude:
a) The Transition Altitude specified at major airports, and is where the pilot is expected to set the QNH in the
subscale of the altimeter
b) The Transition altitude is always at 18000 feet and at this point in the climb the pilot will set 1013 in the subscale
c) The Transition altitude is designated at major airports and is given to the pilot on the ATIS; this is where he or she
is expected to contact ATC after departure
d) The Transition Altitude is designated at major airports and is where the pilot will set 1013 on the climb out
to a flight level.
58. The transition level:
a)
b)
c)
d)
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

is calculated and decided by the commander
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
59. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima means:

a) The reduced separation above flight level 280 of aircraft to a 2000 feet in the opposite direction and 4000 feet in
the same direction
b) The reduced separation above flight level 100 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite direction and 2000 feet in
the same direction
c) The reduced separation above flight level 290 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite direction and 2000
feet in the same direction
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AIR LAW study guide

PART 12 ACCIDENTS & INCIDENTS
SUBPART 1:
GENERAL
12.01.1 Applicability
60. Which section of the SA CARs would you refer to for information on Accidents & Incidents?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Part 91
Part 12
Part 21
Part 61
61. Part 12 is applicable to which operations?

a) All aircraft except turbo-jets
b) Jet aircraft only
c) All aircraft except aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in tow by vehicles or
vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and aircraft designed to fly without any person on board.
d) Piston aircraft and light sports aircraft
12.01.2 Designation of body or institution
62. A body or institution designated by the SACAA may be required to perform which functions?
1) promote aviation safety
2) reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents
3) advise the Director on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation safety
4) report to the President regarding aviation related matters
Choose the correct combination:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
63. A body or institution designated by the SACAA to promote aviation safety or to reduce the risk of aviation accidents or
incidents, shall perform according to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
All Civil aviation regulations only

conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 12.
conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 91
conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 61
..
12.01.9 Powers of the Investigator in Charge or an Investigator
64. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:
a) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be produced for inspection or
investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or other document relating to the aircraft or crew
b) Arrest the pilot, owner, operator if there is sufficient evidence that the aircraft crashed due to improper operation
of such aircraft
c) Withdraw the pilots licence immediately
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SUBPART 2:
ACCIDENT OR INCIDENT NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES
12.02.1 Notification of accidents

12.02.2 Notification of incidents
65. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages
the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a)
b)
c)
d)
This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to
insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.
66. Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic:

1. The appropriate authority
2. The Director
3. ATSU
4. SAP
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2
1, 2, 3
1, 3
67. Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:

a) The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station
b) Nearest Police station, the Director, an ATSU
c) An ATSU, nearest police station, the Director
68. An aircraft is lost in the jungle. This is ..
a) An accident
b) An incident
c) A hazard
12.02.3 Notification of accidents or incidents outside the Republic
69. In the event of an accident or incident with a South African Registered aircraft occurring outside the Republic of South
Africa, the following procedure must be followed:
a) Notify the appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred
b) Notify the Director of the SACAA
c) Notify the appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred and
the Director as soon as possible
d) Notify the South African Police
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12.02.4 Particulars of notification
70. Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other than an ATS incident
shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1. Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2. The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3. Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical point and if known, with
reference to latitude and longitude
4. Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and other persons killed or
seriously injured
5. Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
12.02.5 Notification of hazards
SUBPART 4:
SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT
12.04.1 Guarding of aircraft involved in accident

12.04.2 Access to the scene of accident
71. Who may have access to the scene of an accident:
1. An investigator
2. A member of the media
3. An advisor
4. A member of the public
5. A member of the rescue team
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 3, 5
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4, 5
72. After an accident, can a person from the public go to the scene directly after it happens?
a) No
b) yes
c) Yes, if investigator give authorisation
12.04.4 Interference with objects and marks at scene of accident
12.04.5 Removal of damaged or disabled aircraft
12.04.6 Non-disclosure of records

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73. After you have been involved in an accident, may all your statements to the investigator, cockpit voice recordings or any
other document be made available to anyone for purposes other than accident or incident investigations?
a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge
b) Never
c) Only when a court of law has ordered so
74. When can members of the public have access to accident investigations information?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Never
If the investigator in-charge decides to tell them
Only with a court order
On completion of the final report
75. After an accident or incident, the public will have access to the information collected, including statements,
communications with ATC, medical reports of persons involved, information obtained from the flight data recorder:
a) When the investigation is completed;
b) If requested from the Director of Investigations;
c) If requested from the Director of Civil Aviation;
d) Only if a court of law determines that their public disclosure outweighs the adverse domestic and
international impact.
12.04.7 Use of information for internal proceedings
PART 61 PERSONNEL LICENSING

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SUBPART 1:
GENERAL
76. Part 61 applies to:
a) The issuing of pilot licenses and ratings for South African national pilots, the privileges and limitations of such
licences and ratings
b) The issuing, revalidation and re-issuing of South African pilot licences and ratings
c) Flight simulator training devices that may be used by a person to gain aeronautical experience
77. The classification of Type ratings are found in which part of the CARs?
a)
b)
c)
Part 91
Part 61
Part 121 and 135
61.01.2 Pilot licences

78. Licences issued under Part 61 are:
1. NPL
2. SPL
3. PPL
4. CPL
5. ATPL
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements are:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 3, 4, 5
61.01.3
Ratings for pilots
79. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes or light sport
aeroplanes, he/she:
a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and undergoing differences
or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.
80. Select the category rating:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Turbine.
Tug pilot rating.
Helicopter.
Nil
81. An example of a type rating will be:

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a)
b)
c)
d)
61.01.5
Multi engine turbo prop aeroplanes

Single engine piston
Multi engine piston aircraft
Helicopter
Maintenance of competency and Skills Test
82. Within how many days following any skills test shall the forms be submitted
a)
b)
c)
d)
14 days
15 days
21 days
30 days
83. The revalidation check for a licence other than a PPL must be done by a
a)
b)
c)
Grade II flight instructor.

DFE.
Grade I flight instructor.
84. If a skills test or revalidation check is conducted within 90 days prior to the expiry date of competency then the new
expiry date:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Will be calculated from the date on which the paperwork is handed in at CAA
Be calculated from the date of expiry of the existing licence
Will be calculated from the end of the month in which the paperwork is handed in at CAA
Will be calculated from the date on which the skills test took place
85. In the case of an unsuccessful skills test or revalidation check, the pilot must undergo remedial training with a flight
instructor, other than the person who conducted such skills test or revalidation check, before submitting him or herself for
a recheck: Provided that no recheck may be conducted within . of an unsuccessful skills test.
a)
b)
c)
d)
4 hours
30 hours
72 hours
7 days
86. The skills test for CPL (Aeroplane) may be conducted by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Grade III instructor

Grade I or II Instructor
DFE I or II
All of the above
61.01.6
Medical requirements and fitness

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87. The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that licence
1) Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part 67 and complies with
all medical endorsements on that medical
2) While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to meet the medical
standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been assessed and declared medically fit again by
an aviation medical examiner designated in terms of Part 67
3) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of any psychoactive
substance
4) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of alcohol
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
61.01.7
Language
61.01.8
Logging of flight time
88. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight to be recorded
a) 24 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away from the base where
the pilot logbook is normally kept;
b) 36 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away from the base where
the pilot logbook is normally kept
c) 48 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away from the base
where the pilot logbook is normally kept.
89. The holder of a CPL, having completed a MCC course, when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the
PIC, the functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited
a) In full with no flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
b) a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards the PIC flight time experience required for the
ATPL in the same aircraft category, provided that the supervision is in accordance with a programme
approved by the Director and such PIC time under supervision has been countersigned by the PIC.
c) with not more than 50 % of the PIC flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade pilot licence
90. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the
functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
a) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements
of the licensing authority
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) to a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards total time required for higher grade of pilot
licence
d) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
91. Student Pilot in Command (SPIC) time can be credited:

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a) As PIC time towards a higher licence or rating even if the instructor advised the student pilot on some aspect of
the flight;
b) Cannot be credited as PIC time towards a higher licence or rating;
c) Can be credited at Co-pilot time towards a higher licence or rating;
d) Can only be credited towards a higher licence or rating if the instructor did not at any time influence or
control any part of the flight.
92. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight to be recorded
a) 7 days in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training, and domestic
commercial air transport operations;
b) 4 days in the case of international commercial air transport operations;
c) 8 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away from the base where
the pilot logbook is normally kept.
93. When acting as PIC under the supervision of an appropriately rated flight instructor during flight training on an approved
integrated course of CPL or CPL/IR training and for a successful CPL or IR initial flight test, a person may log the time
as:
a) Pilot in command time and SPIC noted under the remarks column
b) Dual flight time
c) Co-pilot flight time
94. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled
to be credited with not more than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
61.01.9
50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
40% of the co-pilot flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
100% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
60% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge
61.01.11 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

95. Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
a) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years may not act as pilot of an aircraft engaged in
international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that
such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years
b) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in
international commercial air transport operations.
c) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as pilot of an aircraft engaged
in international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of a multi-pilot crew and
provided that such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years
61.01.12 Flight simulation training device

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96. Training in a FSTD:
a)
b)
c)
d)
May not be logged

May be logged
May be logged provided it is certified by the instructor
Does not count towards your total time
97. Hours of flight training in a FSTD approved for that purpose must :
a) be logged as instrument time
b) be logged as instrument time and certified by the instructor
c) be logged as simulated flight with or ? Approved bla bla blue...
61.01.14 Register of licences
61.01.15 Training for acquiring licence, rating or validation
61.01.16 Payment of currency fee
61.01.18 Endorsements and record keeping
98. An applicant for a licence, rating, revalidation, class or type rating or any familiarisation or differences training must have
the applicable endorsements in his or her pilot logbook as described in Document SA-CATS 61. (2) The endorsement
must include, but is not limited to, the following details
1. Date of the skills test;
2. Aircraft registration and type;
3. Name of student
4. Name and licence number of examiner;
5. Name of the ATO.
a)
b)
c)
d)
SUBPART 5:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 4, 5
COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANE)
61.05.1 Requirements for a CPL (Aeroplane)

99. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of
the licence are to be exercised at night
a)
b)
c)
d)
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 10 take offs and 10 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 10 take offs and 10 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
100.The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:

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a) 18
b) 21
c) 17
101.An applicant for CPL must have completed not less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 Hours of instrument time.

15 Hours of cross-country flight time.
5 Hours of instruction on an aeroplane with adjustable propeller.
Nil
102.An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 15 hours may have been acquired in a FSTD
25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a FSTD.
20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 5 hours may have been acquired in a FSTD .
20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a FSTD.
103.The total hours required by an applicant for a commercial pilots license shall include:
a) 100 hours as PIC, 20 hours of cross country flight time, 10 hours of night flying as PIC and 20 hours of
instrument flight instruction
b) 75 hours as PIC, 75 hours of cross country flight time, 20 hours of night flying as PIC and 20 hours of instrument
flight instruction
c) 100 hours as PIC, 20 hours of cross country flight time, 20 hours of night flying as PIC and 40 hours of
instrument flight instruction
104.An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country
flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (- NM), in the course of
which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
105.An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
100 hours as pilot in command

100 hours as pilot in command or as co-pilot
70 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
70 hours as pilot in command
106.An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than:
a) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
b) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
c) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
d) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
107.For the issue of a CPL, the applicant must have completed, inter alia:
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a) 30 hours of cross country time as PIC.
b) 20 hours of cross country time as PIC.
c) 25 hours of cross country time as PIC.
61.05.3 Theoretical knowledge examination for a CPL (Aeroplane)
108.An applicant for the initial issue of a Commercial pilots licence must pass the practical flight test:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Within 36 months from the date of being notified of having passed the examination.
Within 24 months of the date of the examination.
Within 12 months of the date of the examination.
Nil
61.05.4 Skills test for a CPL (Aeroplane)

61.05.5 Privileges and limitations of a CPL (Aeroplane)
109.The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air
transportation
b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation
d) none of the answers are correct
110.The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which he/she holds the
appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew members logbook or license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by certification to be operated
with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
61.05.6 Period of validity of a CPL (Aeroplane)
111. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
Is only considered for PPL.
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
61.05.7 Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane)

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112.Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane) - in the case of a holder of a CPL where the maintenance of
competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the licence holder shall be required to:
a) comply with the initial issue requirements of Subpart 61.05.
b) rewrite the Air Law examination; undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the
standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the recency requirements to act as
PIC; and pass an initial licence skills test in the same category of aircraft.
c) passing a revalidation check or an initial licence skills test in the same category of aircraft
d) undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the
revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass a
revalidation check in the same category of aircraft;
113.Maintenance of competency is revalidated for a CPL holder every 24 months. If this maintenance of competency lapses
by more than 36 months, then:
a) the CPL can be revalidated by passing a proficiency check carried out by a DFE;
b) the CPL can be revalidated by passing an air law and procedure examination and passing a proficiency check
carried out by a DFE;
c) the CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training at an ATO in order to pass a
proficiency check with a DFE to revalidate the competency;
d) The CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training (including 3 take-offs and landings) to pass the
initial skills test with a DFE to revalidate the competency.
114.In the case of a holder of a CPL where the maintenance of competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the
license holder shall be required to:
a) Undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the
revalidation check of a SPL (Aeroplane) and meet the recency requirements to act as PIC
b) Re-write and pass the Air Law and Procedures examination
c) Pass a revalidation check in the same category of aircraft
d) Pass an initial skills test in the same category of aircraft
61.05.8 Ratings for special purposes for a CPL (Aeroplane)
SUBPART 9:
CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS
61.9.1 Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings

115.To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the following experience:
a)
b)
c)
d)
70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
300 hours total time
6 hours of training.
116.An applicant for a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating must have at least:
a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
b) 300 hours experience in aeroplanes
c) 100 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
61.9.2 Training for class and type ratings
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117.An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-engine aircraft, a
minimum:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 Hours dual flight training.

7 Hours dual flight training.
6 Hours dual and 5 hours instrument flight training.
Nil
118.An applicant for a single pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating shall have at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 hours theoretical knowledge and 7 hours dual flight training

119.Successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes

Obtain the first type rating on multi-engine aeroplanes
Obtain a professional pilot licence
Revalidate any rating or licence
61.9.3
Skills test for class and type ratings
61.9.4
Circumstances in which type and class ratings are required
61.9.7
Type and class ratings: Privileges and variants
61.9.8
Type and class ratings
120.Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three
criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
121. Type rating shall be established

a) For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
b) For all types and classes of aircraft
c) For all aircraft
122.An example of a class rating is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aeroplane
Helicopter
Single engine piston aeroplane land
Multi engine turboprop aeroplane
SUBPART 11:
INSTRUMENT RATING
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61.11.1 Requirements for an Instrument Rating
123.An applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least
50 hours:
a) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall
be in aeroplanes.
b) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10
hours shall be in category of aircraft for which rating is sought.
c) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
124.Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument rating is :
a)
b)
c)
d)
100 hours
150 hours, including 50 hours of cross country time
200 hours, of which 20 hours can be in a FSTD approved for the purpose
There is no minimum hour requirement.
125.An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed not less than:
a) 100 hours of flight time as PIC cross country and 40 hours of instrument time,
b) 50 hours of flight time as PIC cross country and 40 hours of instrument time,
c) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument time.
126.An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall..
a) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least 20 hours must have
been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
b) Have completed not less than 20 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least 10 hours must have
been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
c) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least 10 hours must
have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
127.An applicant for an instrument rating shall:
a) have completed not less than 150 hours of flight time as PIC
b) have completed not less than 100 hours of flight time as PIC
c) have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time as PIC
128.An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class rating shall inter alia:
a) Have completed not less than 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been
acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
b) Have completed not less than 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours may have been
acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
c) Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours may have
been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
61.11.3
Theoretical Knowledge Examination for an Instrument Rating

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61.11.4
Skills test for an Instrument Rating
129.An IF skills test must be undergone within :

a) 24 month
b) 12 month
c) 36 month
61.11.5
Privileges and limitations of an Instrument Rating
130.An instrument rating comprises a rating, permitting the holder inter alia to:
a) act as safety pilot
b) act as pilot in command of a tug aircraft
c) act as safety pilot, provided he is the holder of the appropriate type of group type rating
61.11.6
Period of validity and re-issue of an Instrument Rating
131.An instrument rating is valid for:

a) 12 months
b) 6 months for the initial and 12 months thereafter
c) 10 years
61.11.7
Revalidation of an Instrument Rating
132.In the case of a holder of an instrument rating which has lapsed by less than 36 months, the license holder shall be
required to:
1) Undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the
revalidation check and instrument rating including at least 5 instrument approach procedures and a missed
approach
2) Re-write and pass the Air Law and Procedures examination
3) Pass a revalidation check in the same category of aircraft or a FSTD
4) Pass an initial skills test in the same category of aircraft or in a FSTD
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4
3 only
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
PART 67 MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

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67.00.2 Classes of medical certificates
133.Which class of medical certificate is required for a CPL?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
67.00.3
Functions of Director regarding medical examinations
134.Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:

a) Not determine standards for examinations or tests and for the training of aviation medical examiners
b) Exercise control over medical drugs prescribed to aviation personnel
c) Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical examiners performing
such examinations
67.00.6
Period of validity of medical certificates
135.What is the validity period of class 1 medical certificate between 40 and 60 years hold
a)
b)
c)
24 month
12 month
6 month
136.How long is the medical valid for an ATPL pilot flying multi-crew environment
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months
137.Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
a)
b)
c)
d)
24 months until age of 50, 12 months above the age of 50

24 months until age of 40, 12 months above the age of 40
24 months until age of 30, 24 months thereafter
24 months until age of 60, 12 months thereafter
138.The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the licence is delivered to the pilot

the medical assessment is issued
the licence is issued or validated
the licence is issued or renewed
139.How long is the medical valid for an ATPL pilot flying single-crew environment
a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months
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140.Class 1 medical will be issued:
a) For a CPL, 6 months if the candidate is under 40 years of age for single pilot operation;
b) For a CPL over 40 years of age, for 12 months, unless he or she operates in a single pilot operation, then it is
issued for 6 months;
c) For an ATP in any multi-crew commercial operation it will be issued for 6 months;
d) For a CPL or ATP in any multi-crew operation it will be issued for 6 months if the candidate is over 60
years.
67.00.8
Issuing of medical certificate
67.00.9
Duties of holder of medical certificate
141.The holder of a pilots licence should inform the authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity
to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or m0re. The
number of days is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
60
30
21
90
142.In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must
a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate
b) Not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate validity
c) Notify the designated body or institution
143.The holder of a crew member licence who has given birth may act as a flight crew member:
a) Only after 12 weeks of giving birth
b) After 2 weeks of giving birth
c) After 6 weeks of giving birth
144.If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority
must be informed:
a)
b)
c)
d)
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
after one calendar month of consecutive illness
145.How long after giving birth may a pilot fly

a)
b)
c)
d)
2 weeks
6 weeks
2 months
6 months
67.00.13 Substance abuse

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146.When is a pilot required to go for substance abuse testing?
a) When requested to do so
b) Only when required by the Director or Medical Examiner
c) He should not go
147.The holder of a medical certificate may be subjected to a substance abuse test if there is a reasonable suspicion of the
holder is abusing substances:
a) The holder must present himself/herself within 36 hours to the collection facility;
b) If there is a positive result, then the holder will have the medical certificate suspended by the medical
assessor;
c) An appeal can be made within 48 hours, and must be responded to within 3 days;
d) Confirmatory testing of the holder of the certificate will only be required if the preliminary test is negative.
67.00.14 Suspension or cancellation of medical certificate
148.If the medical examination for the CPL is suspended by a DAME, the pilot may appeal this suspension within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
14 days
21 days
30 days
90 days
149.If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall suspend that license:
a) for a maximum of 14 days
b) for a period not exceeding 6 months
c) until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical requirements
150.If your medical has been suspended within what time must you appeal to the Director?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7 days
14 days
21 days
30 days
151.If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall suspend that license:
a)
b)
c)
d)
For a maximum of 14 days.

For a period not exceeding 6 months
Until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical requirements
Nil
PART 91 GENERAL OPERATIONS

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SUBPART 1:
91.01.1
GENERAL PROVISIONS
Applicability
152.General aviation operation includes:

a)
b)
c)
d)
aerial work;
private flying;
commercial flying for cargo carrying flights;
air ambulance flights.
91.01.2
Authority of PIC and crew members
91.01.3
Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes
153.No owner or operator shall permit the taxing of and no person shall taxi an aircraft on the movement areas of an
aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aircraft:
1) Is the holder of a valid pilot license
2) Has received instruction in the taxiing of an aircraft from, and has been declared competent to taxi an aircraft
by holder of a flight instructors rating or in the case of a foreign aircraft, a person authorised by an appropriate
authority
3) If a person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus
4) Is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic service signals and
instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to perform to the standards required for safe
movements at such aerodrome. Provided the aircraft does not enter the manoeuvring area in a case where
radio communication is mandatory.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
91.01.6
Method of carriage of persons
91.01.7
Admission to flight deck
154.Admission to the flight deck is permitted if:

a)
b)
c)
d)
91.01.9
The person is made familiar with all safety equipment and pertinent operational procedures;
The flight operations department permits persons who are not crew, to the flight deck;
The Flight Operations Manual permits persons on to the flight deck;
Is only permitted if the person is not permitted to sit in any pilot seat.
Portable electronic devices
155.Which PEDs may not be used during critical phases of flight?

a) Electric shaver, portable voice recorder, any other portable electronic device which interferes with A/C
system
b) a heart pacemaker; a hearing aid;
c) a portable voice recorder; an electric shaver; portable equipment used to sustain life
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156.No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on board the aircraft during
flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the performance of the systems and equipment of
the aircraft: This does not apply to:
a) A cellular telephone without flight mode
b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time
91.01.10 Endangering safety
157.Time used for aviation is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
South African Standard Time.

Greenwich Mean Time.
Co-ordinated Universal Time.
Bravo Time
91.01.12 Use of time

158.Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to
within plus or minus
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 seconds of UTC at all times

1 minute of UTC at all times
159.Time used for aviation is:

a)
b)
c)
d)
South African Standard Time.

Greenwich Mean Time.
Co-ordinated Universal Time.
Bravo Time
91.01.13 Additional flight crew member equipment

91.01.15 Passenger intoxication and unruly behaviour
91.01.16 Psychoactive substances
160.Psychoactive substances:
a) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis, cocaine, tobacco and caffeine
b) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding tobacco and
caffeine
c) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding tobacco and caffeine
d) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding tobacco and caffeine
SUBPART 2:
CREW
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91.02.1
Crew composition and qualifications
91.02.3
Crew member responsibilities
161.In any one month a pilot not regularly assigned as a flight crew member may fly:
a) 100 hours
b) 150 hours
c) 120 hours
162.No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior to each flight the
expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for all flying of:
a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days
b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and duty period schedule
163.Licence holders shall not consume alcohol:
a) Less than 8 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the concentration of alcohol in
the blood is more than 0.08 gram per millilitres.
b) Less than 10 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the concentration of alcohol
in the blood is more than 0.02 gram per millilitres.
c) Less than 12 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the concentration of alcohol
in the blood is more than 0.08 gram per millilitres
d) Less than 8 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the concentration of
alcohol in the blood is more than 0.02 gram per millilitres
164.No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:
a) Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.
b) Flown more than 38 hours during the preceding 14 days.
c) Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.
165.No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations if prior to each flight the
expected flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for all flying of:
a) 600 hrs during the preceding 6 months
b) 10 hrs within a 24 hr period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and duty period
scheme
c) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days
166.Under Part 91 flying IFR and as a member of a multi pilot crew not operating commercially, the maximum hours that may
be flown are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
300 hours in 3 months

120 hours in 1 month
120 hours in the preceding 30 days
300 in the preceding 2 months
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167.As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
168.No pilot shall fly more than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 hours in one day.

100 hours in 30 days.
1 000 hours in 12 months
300 hrs in 3 months
169.No pilot who is a member of a multi crew aircraft undertaking an IFR flight shall exceed:
a) 10 hours in any one week
b) 37 hours in any 14 days
c) 120 hours in any one month
170.The overall maximum number of flying hours permitted in the course of one year is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
800
1 000
1 200
700
171.A pilot may be scheduled to fly:

a)
b)
c)
d)
10 hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during such 10 hours.
8 hours or less during any 30 consecutive hours without a rest period during such 10 hours.
8 hours or less during any 24 hours without a rest period during such 8 hours.
Nil
172.Under Part 91, flying IFR as a solo crew for non-commercial gain, the maximum hours that may be flown under IFR are:
a)
b)
c)
d)

400 hours in 3 months
173.Under Part 91 under IFR as a solo crew. The maximum hours that may be flown are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
100 hours in the preceding 30 days.

120 hours in the preceding 30 days.
300 hours in 3 months.
8 hours in any 24 hours.
174.As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
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d) Nil
175.For pilots not subject to an approved flight and duty scheme, the maximum hours to be flown in any 24 hours is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
8 hours;
10 hours;
12 hours;
6 hours.
176.How many hours after being involved in an accident are you allowed to drink?
a)
b)
c)
d)
91.02.4
6 hrs
8 hrs
12 hrs
24 hrs
Recency
177.No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a Passenger by night unless he has carried out, in an
aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
a) five take offs and landings within six months of the flight
b) three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight
c) three take offs and landings within six months of the flight
178.The minimum required recency experience for a PIC or SIC for an instrument approach under IMC shall be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only

2 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
3 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only
2 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
179.An operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:
a) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
b) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the
type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
c) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved
simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days
d) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight
simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
180.A pilot may not act as pilot in command carrying passengers of an aircraft unless he has, in the preceding:
a) 90 days carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an
approved simulator,
b) six months carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved
simulator,
c) six months carried out six take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved
simulator,
d) Nil
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91.02.5
Crew members at duty stations
181.May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?
a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls
of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.
91.02.6
Laws, regulations and procedures
182.While on a flight which is being operated for reward, a pilot deviates from the CAR. The PIC is required as soon as
practical to:
a) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurred, of
such deviation without delay.
b) Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurred, of such
deviation within 24 hours.
183.When a pilot departs from the provisions of CARs in the interests of safety he shall:
a) report to the Commissioner of Civil Aviation within a period of seven days
b) as soon as practicable report the matter to the nearest police
c) as soon as practicable report such departure and the reasons therefore to the nearest convenient air
traffic services unit
184.The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed Rules and Regulations in the interest of safety, when such a
departure has been made the pilot must report it to the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
91.02.7
Director General: Department of Transport

nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit
nearest police station
Airport manager
Duties of PIC regarding flight preparation
185.Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet?
a) the operator
b) the pilot in command
c) the loadmaster
91.02.8
Duties of PIC regarding flight operations
186.Smoking is permitted:
a) Never in aircraft.
b) Within 25 metres of an aircraft.
c) On private flights if the aircraft manual permits smoking on board the aircraft.
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SUBPART 3:
DOCUMENTATION AND RECORDS
91.03.1 Documents to be carried on board

187.Which additional documents are to be carried on board an aircraft engaged in International flights?
1) the general declaration
2) if passengers are carried, the passenger manifest
3) if cargo is carried, a manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo
4) if a flight in RVSM airspace is contemplated a) a valid RVSM licence endorsement issued by the Director;
and b) if applicable, a valid RVSM operational approval for the particular RVSM airspace;
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3
188.For which flight are you required to carry a passenger manifest?

a) International
b) Domestic
c) Both
91.03.2
Aircraft flight manual
91.03.3
Aircraft checklists
91.03.4
Air traffic service flight plan and associated procedures
189.A flight plan TAS is recorded as 150 kts in controlled airspace. Due to winds to improve the range, you reduce power,
and the TAS is now 138 kts.
a)
b)
c)
d)
You must inform ATSU, because your ETA has changed.

You must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed.
You must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed by more than 5%.
No need to inform ATSU just update you ETA, when convenient.
190.Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or
advisory airspace shall be filled:
a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure
b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in such airspace, it
shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended
point or entry into the controlled or advisory airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure
191.The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a
flight plan form. This speed is the:
a) estimated ground speed (G/S).
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b) indicated air speed (IAS).
c) true air speed (TAS).
d) true air speed at 65% power.
192.The ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of
a) a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles
b) an international flight;
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS
authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services; and
d) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS
authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid
the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification.
193.A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
24 hours before departure
194.A flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:

a)
b)
c)
d)
30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
24 hours before departure
195.If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30 minutes.
1 hour.
10 minutes.
24 hours.
196.It is mandatory to notify air traffic services of revised estimated times when such times differ from the original times by
more than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
197.A flight plan not activated within one hour of ETD:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Is regarded as cancelled.
Is still available if activated within 24 hours of ETD.
Is regarded as cancelled if not activated within 30 mins of ETD
198.When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
a) it is a deviation from the track.
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b) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
c) of an emergency.
d) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
199.Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks
and:
a)
b)
c)
d)
On at least 20 days consecutively

On at least 20 occasions
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
200.The ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of all flights to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace: Provided
that this requirement shall not apply in respect of
a) an international flight;
b) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS
authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services; and
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS
authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid
the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification.
d) a local flight;
201.A flight plan not activated within one hour of ETD:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Is regarded as cancelled.
Is regarded as cancelled if not activated within 30 mins of ETD
202.If A files a flight plan and B does not:

a)
b)
c)
d)
A has priority.
No one has priority.
A may be given priority.
Priority given to commercial flight.
203.For a private flight from Mthatha (controlled) to Escourt (controlled) a flight plan:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Must be filed.
Must be filed if for SAR.
Need only be filed if the flight is at night.
Need not be filed because it is VFR.
204.On a VFR flight from X to Z an airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated outside Controlled
airspace.
a)
b)
c)
d)
A flight plan may not be filed.

A flight plan must be filed if search and rescue is required.
A flight plan must be filed with the nearest Air Traffic Service Unit, because you are entering controlled airspace.
Only need to file a plan if it is an IFR flight.
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205.A flight plan shall be submitted in respect of:

a)
b)
c)
d)
91.03.5
All flights for which search and rescue is required

An international flight.
All commercial flights air transport and aerial work.
Both a and b are correct.
Flight folio (SACATS91.03.5)
206.A flight folio must be carried:

a)
b)
c)
d)
By all aircraft.
Only by aircraft operated in commercial air transport operations.
Only by aircraft on an international flight.
Nil
207.A flight folio must be completed after each flight:

a)
b)
c)
d)
This must be completed by the flight crew member, and must include routeing and oil and fuel uptake;
The information must be completed in a legible writing and in permanent ink;
This document must be kept for a period of at least 3 years after the last entry;
The flight folio can be kept in flight operations, and need not be carried in the aircraft.
208.A regular requirement for the completion of a flight folio is:

a) The number of landings completed during the flight
b) The duty assignment of flight crew members
c) The number of passengers carried on board
91.03.6
Fuel record
91.03.7
Certificate of release to service
209.On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:
a) Only for domestic flights.
b) Only for international flights.
c) On all flights
210.Certificate of Release to service is issued by the AMO after a Mandatory periodic inspection of an aircraft as required by
the maintenance schedule. This will certificate will be retained for a period of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
12 months;
6 months;
24 months;
5 years.
211.Does the release of service pertain to:

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a) Annual scheduled maintenance only
b) Specific line maintenance
c) Both
91.03.9
Logbooks
SUBPART 4:
91.04.1
INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Use and installation of instruments and equipment
212.An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to:
a) All instruments
b) All equipment
c) Required flight instruments
91.04.2
Circuit protection devices
213.No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there are spare fuse
available for use in flight equal to at least:
a) 10% or 3, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit
protection
b) 10% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection
c) 5% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection
214.In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
91.04.3
20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
Aircraft operating lights
215.No aircraft shall be operated at night without:

a) An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.
b) Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two separately
energised filaments.
c) Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is 5 700 kgs or less.
216.Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 320 degrees at the
same flight level and the bearing remains constant. You should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the other aircraft fails to give way.
Alter heading to starboard.
Maintain speed and alter heading to port.
Nil
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91.04.4
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated under VFR
217.The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying VFR:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator.

Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator.
Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, direction indicator.
Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, turn & bank indicator
91.04.5 Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated under IFR
218.Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that ..
a)
b)
c)
d)
The flight crew wear watches showing hours, minutes and seconds
The flight crew have stop watches
The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes and seconds
The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes
219.No aircraft shall be operated under IFR unless such aircraft is equipped with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
A timepiece, unless the pilot is wearing a watch.

A timepiece with sweep or second hands.
A timepiece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
Nil
91.04.6
Additional equipment for single-pilot operation under IMC or at night
91.04.8
Radio altimeter
91.04.11 Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices
220.Seats for cabin crew close to the emergency exit must be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15 in the longitudinal axis

25 in the lateral axis
15 in the lateral axis
25 in longitudinal axis
91.04.13 First aid and universal precaution kits

221.A precautionary kit shall be carried on board an aircraft for which the maximum certificated passenger seating is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 or more
15 or more
20 or more
30 or more
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91.04.16 Supplemental oxygen in case of non-pressurised aircraft

222.On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight
period during which the pressure altitude is greater than
a)
b)
c)
d)
13 000 ft
12 000 ft
11 000 ft
10 000 ft
223.On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve
enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin
depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
12 000 ft.
11 000 ft.
10 000 ft.
13 000 ft.
224.Supplemental oxygen is used to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

protect a crew who fights a fire
provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
assist a passenger with breathing disorders
225.On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight
period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
12 000 ft
13 000 ft
10 000 ft
11 000 ft
226.On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of
flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
91.04.18 Hand-held fire extinguishers

91.04.23 Emergency locator transmitters
227.The frequency designated for ELT communications is:
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a)
b)
c)
d)
121.5 KHz and 243 KHz

121.5 MHz and 243 KHz
121.5 KHz and 243 MHz
121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
228.An Emergency Locator Transmitter is required to be carried by all flights, except:

a)
b)
c)
d)
All training flights;

Aerial work except for aircraft used for spraying of chemicals for agricultural purposes;
Any flight remaining within a radius of 100 nm of the point of departure;
Any aircraft that has the ELT repaired can operate for not longer than 60 days without one.
91.04.24 Life jackets and other flotation devices

229.A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a distance from the shore
of more than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
50 NM
Beyond gliding distance
30 NM
100 NM
230.If an aircraft is not capable of flight to an aerodrome if the critical power unit becomes inoperative, the aircraft should
carry sufficient life jackets for an overwater flight for every person on board and is restricted to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Flight within gliding distance from land.

Within 15 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed
Within 30 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed.
Nil
91.04.25 Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights
231.An extended flight over water, aircraft not equipped with life rafts is limited to:
a) gliding distance from the shore except during take-off and landing
b) route where no portion of the flight is further than 50 nm from the shore
c) route where no portion of flight is further than 90 minutes from the shore, calculated at the cruising speed of the
aircraft
232.No person shall operate an aircraft over water equivalent to .. minutes at normal cruising speed or .. NM, whichever
is the lessor unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts and survival equipment:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30 mins and 50 nm.

50 mins and 30 nm.
50 mins and 50 nm.
30 mins and 30 nm.
233.Flights over routes which may be at any point over water away from the shore and for which insufficient lifesaving rafts
and equipment as prescribed are carried on board may not exceed:
a) 90 minutes at cruising speed from the shore
b) a distance of 90 nm from the shore
c) a distance of 50 nm from the shore
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d) 60 minutes at cruising speed from the shore
234.No person shall operate an aeroplane, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flotation device or life jacket containing
a survivor locator light for each person on board:
a)
b)
c)
d)
when flying over land & beyond gliding distance from water
when flying over water & beyond gliding distance from land;
when flying beyond 50 nautical miles from land
when flying beyond 30 nautical miles from land;
235.Lifesaving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the distance and time from the shore is:
a) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four engines
b) 50 miles or 30 minutes, whichever is the lesser,
c) 300 miles or 100 minutes, whichever is the lesser if the aircraft has 2 turbine engines.
91.04.28 Airborne collision avoidance system
236.No person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or
authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was issued after 1
January 2007, unless such aircraft is equipped with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
ACAS & TAWS.

TAWS.
ACAS.
RVSM.
91.04.30 Terrain awareness and warning systems (TAWS)

237.Terrain awareness and warning systems are required for:
a) All aircraft operating commercially in accordance with IFR
b) All turbine engine aircraft operating according to IFR
c) Turbine engine aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg or authorised to
carry more than 9 passengers operating according to IFR
238.When is an aircraft required to be equipped with Terrain Awareness and Warning Systems (TAWS)?
a) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to carry more than 9 pax
operating according to IFR
b) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to
carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
c) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry more than 9 pax
operating according to IFR
d) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry
more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
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AIR LAW study guide
91.04.31 RVSM operations

239.RVSM operations requires:
1) a valid RVSM approval certificate has been issued for such aircraft;
2) the prescribed minimum RVSM equipment is serviceable; and
3) the flight crew has successfully completed the RVSM training
4) Only applicable to Large aircraft
Choose the correct combination
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
240.The holder of a RVSM approval certificate endorsed for operations within RVSM airspace, shall:
a) report each height-keeping error in RVSM airspace.
b) report within 24 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in an RVSM
environment
c) report within 12 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in an RVSM environment
d) Need not report height-keeping errors in RVSM airspace.
241.RVSM operations apply to operations between flight levels:
a)
b)
c)
d)
SUBPART 5:
290 and 410;

280 and 410;
290 and 400;
310 and 410.
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
91.05.01 Communication equipment

242.Except with the approval of the Director, the crew of any aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must maintain communication at all times with boom or throat microphones;

must maintain communication on 121.5MHz with boom or throat microphones;
must maintain communication on boom or throat microphones with each other;
must maintain communication with boom or throat microphones when below transition altitude or
transition level when on the flight deck of a large aeroplane.
91.05.02 Navigation equipment

91.05.03 Use of global navigation satellite system
243.Pilots may fly RNAV routes provided they have:
a) done initial GNSS training and the 12 month revalidation is valid.
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b) done GNSS training and the 6 month revalidation is valid.
c) done initial GNSS training and revalidation every 3 months.
SUBPART 6:
RULES OF THE AIR Division One: Flight Rules
91.06.1 Landing on roads

244.No person shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except;
a)
b)
c)
d)
In an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants

For the purpose of saving human lives,
When involved in civil defence or law enforcement operations.
All of the above
245.No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing of take-off, except:
a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft
b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department
c) where no licensed aerodrome is available
91.06.2
Dropping objects, spraying or dusting
246.No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or
dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight except:
a) In a emergency.
b) By special permission granted by the Director of Civil Aviation (DCA).
c) Both a and b are correct.
91.06.3
Picking up objects
247.The PIC of an aircraft may pick up an object:

a)
b)
c)
d)
With approval from the Director

Only when he/she has obtained prior written approval from the Director
At the discretion of the PIC
With permission from the Operator
248.The pilot in command of an aircraft shall not permit objects to be picked up except:
a) if the aircraft is suitably equipped and such operation is authorised in the operating manual of the aircraft
b) if such pick up can be made with no hazard to property or persons on the ground
c) with prior authority of the Commissioner for Civil Aviation
91.06.6
Proximity and formation flights
249.No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except:

a.
b.
c.
d.
By prior written approval having been granted by the Director

By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft
In uncontrolled airspace
Nil
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91.06.7
Right of way
250.When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each aircraft shall:
a) Follow the ICAO deviation procedure as listed in ICAO Doc 4444
b) Alter heading to the right
c) Alter heading to the left
251.The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another aircraft on a relative
bearing of 030, the bearing remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right
b) there is no danger of collision
c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left
252.When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left:
a) When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety;
b) When a right-hand circuit is in force;
c) When a left-hand circuit is in force
253.Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is
approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
254.When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give
way, except that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Airships shall give way to aircraft, which are seen to be towing.

Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
Gliders shall give way to balloons.
Nil
255.When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other on its right shall give
way, except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to gliders and balloons,
gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
None of the above
Nil
256.A helicopter is to the right of the aeroplane. The aircraft that has the right of way is:
a) Helicopter, because helicopter has right of way over aeroplane
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b) Aeroplane.
c) Helicopter, because helicopter is to the right of the aeroplane.
d) Nil
91.06.8
Following line features
257.An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC:
a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL
258.An aircraft following a line feature at or below 1500 ft. AGL and within 1 nm. of that line feature shall:
a)
b)
c)
d)
91.06.9
Fly to the right of the line feature

Fly to the left of the line feature
Fly directly along the line feature
Nil
Aircraft speed
259.The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000 feet is:
a) 200 knots
b) 250 knots,
c) 300 knots.
260.Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone
at an indicated airspeed or more than:
a) 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft
b) 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft
c) 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft
261.If no one-engine operative speed is given for a twin aircraft, use:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Minimum control speed

Minimum control speed plus 20 kts
Speeds for holding
Speeds for missed approach
262.No person shall fly an aircraft within an aerodrome traffic area at an indicated airspeed of more than:
a) 160 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 200 kts in the case of turbine powered aircraft
b) 160 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 180 kts in the case of turbine powered aircraft
c) 140 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 250 kts in the case of turbine powered aircraft
263.The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a) 250 KT IAS
b) 250 KT TAS
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c) Not applicable
d) 240 KT IAS
264.The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
240 KT IAS
91.06.10 Lights to be displayed by aircraft

265.An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a)
b)
c)
d)
outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
on the ground when the engines are running
91.06.11 Taxi rules

266.Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right. The pilot should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Continue to taxi.
Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
Nil
267.The vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall as far as practical keep to the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
right side of the runway or taxiway,

either edge of the runway or taxiway,
left side of the runway or taxiway.
Nil
268.On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
aircraft taking off or about to take off
other vehicles and pedestrians
other converging aircraft
269.Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right. The pilot should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Continue to taxi.
Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
Nil
270.A vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall, as far as practicable, keep to the:
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a) right
b) left
c) centre
91.06.12 Operation on and in vicinity of aerodrome
271.The minimum height an aircraft may fly over an airfield:
a)
b)
c)
d)
500 ft
1000 ft
1500 ft
2000ft
272.An aerodrome and its environs shall not be overflown at a height of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Less than 1 500 ft.

Less than 2 000 ft.
Less than 1 000 ft.
Nil
273.An unmanned aerodrome with runway directions 18/36 is approached from the West. The wind is 160/20. The correct
procedure is to:
a) make a direct approach to runway 18
b) fly overhead the aerodrome, join left hand downwind and land on runway 36
c) fly overhead the aerodrome, join left hand downwind and land on runway 18
274.The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing shall:
a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircrafts position.
275.The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall be responsible for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Making all turns to the right when other air traffic are observed doing so.
Making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force.
Making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk of collision.
Nil
91.06.13 Signals (SACATS 91.06.13)

276.Whilst flying in an aerodromes traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
is cleared to land.
must land immediately and clear the landing area.
must give way to another aircraft.
277.Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:

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a)
b)
c)
d)
Flashing red or preferably yellow.

Fixed red or preferably orange.
Fixed red or preferably blue.
Flashing blue.
278.During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will first see the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
green flashing light

red steady light
green steady light
white steady light
279.The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an instruction to the aircraft to
give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
an intermittent green beam

a continuous red beam
an intermittent red beam
a continuous green beam
280.While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal
means that the aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must vacate the landing area in use.

must stop.
must return to its point of departure.
may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
281.A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

Give way to other aircraft in emergency
Continue circling and wait for further instructions
The airport is unsafe, do not land
282.A parachute flare showing a red light means:

a) Grave and eminent danger threatens.
b) Do not land for the time being.
c) Do not take-off.
283.A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cleared for take-off.

Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
Cleared to taxi.
Stop
284.At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals,
the pilot must:
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a)
b)
c)
d)
make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.
fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
285.Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must give way to another aircraft.

must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
is cleared to land.
must land immediately and clear the landing area.
286.While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means
that the aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must stop.
may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
must vacate the landing area in use.
287.While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This
signal means that the aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)

is cleared for take-off.
may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
must stop.
288.An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that
the aircraft must:
a)
b)
c)
d)
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

not land because the airport is not available for landing.
give way to another aircraft.
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
289.A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
Come back and land.
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
290.While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This
signal means that the aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
must stop.
may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.
"must return to its point of departure.
"is cleared for take-off.
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291.The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.

White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
292.Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate
difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Switching on and off three times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
293.The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

a)
b)
c)
d)
glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
this aerodrome is using parallel runways
294.Distress signals include:

a)
b)
c)
d)
parachute flare showing a red light;

signal sent by radio telephony consisting of PAN, PAN, PAN;
signal made by radio telegraphy consisting of morse for MAYDAY;
rockets or shells throwing a green light, fired at short intervals, one at a time.
295.A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
296.A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The airport is unsafe, do not land

The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
Give way to other aircraft in emergency
Continue circling and wait for further instructions
297.A signalman uses the following signal: Arms down with palms towards the ground, then moved up and down several
times: this means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Brakes on
Start taxi
Slow down
Stop
298.A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
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a)
b)
c)
d)
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Crossing arms extended above his head.
Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
299.A marshaller signal: Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward. The hand is moved
side wards with the arm remaining bent indicates:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stop
Brakes
Cut engine
Chocks
300.If the marshaller: arms repeatedly crossed above his head this means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Brakes
Chocks
Cut engines
Stop
301.When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Arms repeatedly crossed above the head

Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards
91.06.15 Reporting position

302.The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that reports are made to the responsible ATSU as soon as possible of
the time and level of passing each compulsory reporting point, when:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Flying in controlled airspace only

Flying in controlled or uncontrolled airspace
Flying in controlled or uncontrolled airspace or on a flight for which alerting action is being provided
Flying in controlled airspace or on a flight for which alerting action is being provided
91.06.16 Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace (SACATS 91.06.16)

303.In case of communication failure:
a) Squawk A7700 on the transponder
b) Squawk the appropriate code on the transponder, and remain VMC if possible; land at the destination and
contact ATSU immediately on landing
c) Contact a responsible on the ground, and get her/him to contact ATSU as soon as possible
d) Use your mobile phone to contact a responsible person who can then relay messages to the pilot as to what
action to take.
304.You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure. However, an ATC
clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified in the current flight plan. Your actions
should be:
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a) Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of climb to the flight
plan level.
b) Climb immediately to the flight plan level.
c) If terrain permits, descend until VMC.
305.The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:
a) Correspond to ICAO procedures
b) Have absolutely no relation to ICAO procedures
c) Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned speed and level
before climbing to the level in the current flight plan
d) Differ from ICAO procedures in several respects
306.SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that dont
Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in the provision of ATC
and flights in airspace where it is not
307.The communication failure procedure require that flights where VMC cannot be maintained and in controlled airspace:
a) Shall proceed according to the current flight plan.
b) If cleared to a flight level below that in the flight plan, if terrain permits maintain this level for 7 minutes,
then climb to flight plan level.
c) If cleared to a flight level below that in the flight plan, if terrain permits maintain this level for 3 minutes then climb
to flight plan level
d) Nil
308.Radio communication failure procedures include setting 7600 on the transponder and:
a) If VMC then, if on an ATC flight plan, land at the nearest airport and report failure to the nearest ATSU;
b) If VMC and not on an ATC flight plan, then land at an uncontrolled airfield and notify ATSU;
c) If IMC and in airspace where air traffic surveillance system is not being used then maintain the last cleared level
for 7 minutes, before continuing on the flight plan route;
d) If in IMC and in airspace where there is ATC, maintain the last cleared level for 7 minutes before
continuing on the flight plan route and level.
309.During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
310.In the event of communication failure the squawk code to be selected on the transponder is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
7600
7500
Maintain assigned squawk code and ident
7700
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311.Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Return to the aerodrome of departure.
312.A pilot experiences radio communication failure. He is in contact with ATC. He decides to continue to destination. He
must:
a) Squawk 7600
b) He must not change his transponder unless instructed by ATC
c) He does not have to say anything to ATC
91.06.17 Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace
91.06.18. Compliance with rules of air and air traffic control clearances and instructions
313.The pilot in command of an aircraft:
1) must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2) is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3) may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4) may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5) may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2-3-5
3-5
3-4-5
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314.While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be
taken?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Squawk 7700
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
315.If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft

a) Can do whatever he wants
b) He may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
c) May disregard the clearance
91.06.19 Prohibited areas
316.No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space of a prohibited area:
1) Below the height specified above the ground surface of such area
2) Unless permission has been obtained from the relevant authority
a) 1 is correct; 2 is correct
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b) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect
317.No person shall fly an aircraft within a prohibited airspace:

a) Below the height specified above the surface
b) Above the height specified above the surface
c) Below 1500 ft AGL
91.06.20 Restricted areas
318.The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so declaring an area to be
a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1. The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2. The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
91.06.21 Visibility and distance from cloud
319.The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:
a) 500 meters horizontally and 300 feet vertically
b) 600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically
c) 1500 meters horizontally and 1000 feet horizontally
320.Above FL100, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:
a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
b) 5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
321.No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an aerodrome traffic zone under
normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome concerned is less than:
a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft
322.VFR flight is not permitted:
1. At supersonic speeds
2. In Class A airspace
a) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
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323.A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and
distance from clouds
a)
b)
c)
d)
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
324.Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is
less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

325.From above FL100 up to and including FL200 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
a) 5 km visibility, horizontally 2 000 ft and 500 ft vertically
b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 ft vertically
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.8 km and 1 500 ft vertically
326.From 1 500 feet above the surface to FL100 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
one nautical mile and clear of cloud

5 km visibility, 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically
5 km visibility, 1 nm horizontally and 1 000 ft vertically
8 km visibility, 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically
327.Except when a clearance is obtained from ATC unit a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when the ceiling is
less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2000 ft or visibility is less than 5 km

328.An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR,
must remain on principle at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
329.An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR,
must remain on principle at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
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330.Above FL200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
Nil
91.06.22 Special VFR weather minima

331.VFR Operating minima, establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least
for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of
cloud)
332.The minimum visibility required by CAR to commence a special VFR flight is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1.5 km
2.5 km
5 km
3 km
333.To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
5000 meters
1500 meters
3000 meters
2500 meters
334.In a case of special VFR flight within a control zone an aircraft, in respect of a cross country flight, may leave when the
ground visibility is equal to or greater than:
a) 5 km and ceiling 1 500 ft
b) 3 km and ceiling 600 ft
c) 1.5 km and clear of cloud
335.Special VFR can be given
a)
b)
c)
d)
By day only
When visibility is less than 1500m.
In a CTR or ATZ.
When the ceiling is less than 1200 feet.
336.Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of
clouds and in sight of the ground.
b) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC.
c) A flight in IMC where the pilot and/or aeroplane are unable to comply with the requirements for VFR.
d) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit an area in IMC without compliance with IFR.
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91.06.23 VFR flight determination and weather deterioration
91.06.24 Compliance with IFR
91.06.25 Aircraft equipment
91.06.26 Change from IFR flight to VFR flight
337.Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
a)
b)
c)
d)
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes

Only when leaving controlled airspace
If the commander so requests
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
338.Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:

a)
b)
c)
d)
on the initiative of the aircraft commander

at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
as instructed by an air traffic control unit
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
339.When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1) He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2) He must request and obtain clearance.
3) He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 4
2 and 4
2 and 3
91.06.29 Identification and interception of aircraft (SACATS 91.06.29)

340.Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You
should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
request ATC for other instructions.

select code A7500 on your transponder.
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
follow ATC instructions.
341.When an aircraft is intercepted the PIC shall forthwith establish radio contact, if so equipped, and if radio contact has not
already been established. Such contact shall be on:
a) 121.5 mhz
b) 120.5 mhz
c) 125.0 mhz
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342.When an aircraft is being intercepted:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the PIC must immediately try to establish radio contact with the intercepting aircraft on 121.5 Mhz
The PIC must immediately communicate using visual signals
The PIC may disregard the intercepting aircraft if he has filed a flight plan
The PIC should immediately warn the passengers
343.If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
instructions received?
a)
b)
c)
d)
CAN NOT COMPLY

UNABLE TO COMPLY
NOT POSSIBLE
CAN NOT
344.Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You
should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
follow ATC instructions.

request ATC for other instructions.
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
select code A7500 on your transponder.
345.An aircraft intercepting in front and to the left rocking its wings means:
a) follow me away from a prohibited area
b) follow me to a landing area
c) extend your landing gear
346.Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted
aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
a) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
b) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
c) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted
aircraft.
d) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
347.If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an Intercepted aircraft, visual signals shall be used.
If the intercepting aircraft rocks its wings while in front of and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, this means:
a) follow me away from a prohibited area
b) leave the prohibited area by reversing track
c) follow me to a landing terrain
348.Having been intercepted, the signal from the intercepting aircraft to the intercepted aircraft to indicate that it is clear to
proceed is:
a) Cut across in front of the intercepted aircraft
b) Rocking wings
c) Breaking climbing turn left
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d) Flashing lights
91.06.30 Air traffic service procedures
91.06.31 Priority
91.06.32 Minimum heights
349.At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the height of the highest
obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 500 ft.
1 000 ft.
2 000 ft.
Nil
350.Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except by individual Permission from the Commissioner, aircraft shall
be flown over built areas at heights:
a) which will permit, in the event of the failure of a power unit, an emergency landing without due hazard to persons
or property on the surface
b) of not less than 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2 000 ft from the aircraft
c) of not less than 1 500 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2 000 ft from the aircraft
351.Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 000 ft
2 000 ft
3 000 ft
not permitted
352.Except with the written permission of the CAA no aircraft shall circle over or within 1 km of or make repeated flights over
an open-air assembly of persons below a height of:
a) 3 000 ft above the surface
b) 2 000 ft above sea level
c) 1 000 ft above the surface
353.At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the height of the highest
obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 500 ft.
1 000 ft.
2 000 ft.
Nil
354.The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve is:

a)
b)
c)
d)
500 ft
2 000 ft
500 m
1500 m
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91.06.33 Semi-circular rule (SA CATS 91.06.33)
355.VFR flight levels start:
a) FL35
b) FL15
c) Above the airfield transition level
356.Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected in accordance with
semi-circular rules depends on:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

The Magnetic track only.
The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.
357.The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1000 feet (300 m).

500 feet (150 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
4000 feet (1200 m).
358.What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1000 feet
500 feet
1500 feet
2000 feet
359.The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2000 feet (600 m).

500 feet (150 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
360.An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with flight levels according to magnetic track
when flown at a height (above the surface) of less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 000 ft
2 000 ft
1 000 ft
1 500 ft
361.Flying above FL200 on a magnetic track of 240 requires:

a) FL290 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km from cloud
b) FL280 and flight visibility 8 km and horizontally 1,5 km from cloud
c) FL280 and flight visibility 8 nm and horizontally 1,5 nm from cloud
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362.The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2000 feet (600 m).

500 feet (150 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
363.The vertical IFR separation minima being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 410 is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
500 ft (150 m)
1 000 ft (300 m)
2 000 ft (600 m)
4 000 ft (1 200 m)
364.In order to fly according to visual flight rules, below 1000 feet outside controlled airspace, the flight visibility must be at
least:
a) 5 km
b) 3 km
c) 1.5 km
91.06.34 Aerodrome approach and departure procedures
SUBPART 7:
FLIGHT OPERATIONS
91.07.1
Routes and areas of operation
91.07.2
Minimum flight altitudes (SACATS 91.07.2)
365.Route MORA values are computed on the basis of:

a) an area extending 5 NM to either side of route centreline and including a 5 NM radius beyond the radio
fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment;
b) an area extending 10 km to either side of route centreline and including a 10 km radius beyond the radio
c) an area extending 5 km to either side of route centreline and including a 5 km radius beyond the radio
d) an area extending 10 NM to either side of route centreline and including a 10 NM radius beyond the radio
366.The minimum cruise level for IFR flight is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
91.07.3
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle.

2 000 ft above the highest obstacle.
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle 5 000 ft or below.
Nil
Use of aerodromes
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367.Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
a) Such aircraft is equipped with landing lights in terms of the provision of A. In which case such landing lights may
be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night.
b) The PIC of such aircraft is familiar with the aerodrome and according to his judgement sufficient means are
available to assist in take-off or landing in the absence of runway lights.
c) The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has ensured that night
flying facilities are available for take-off or landing.
368.Except in an emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night Unless:

a) the aircraft is equipped with landing lights in accordance with Air Navigation Regulations in which case such
landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night
b) the pilot in command is familiar with the aerodrome and that the aerodrome is manned
c) the place of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and the pilot in command shall be responsible
for ensuring that night flying facilities are available for the take-off or landing
91.07.3
Use of aerodromes
91.07.4
Helicopter landings and take-offs
91.07.5 Aerodrome operating minima (SACATS 91.07.5)

369.An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
a)
b)
c)
d)
the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
the pilot is following the published approach procedure
all mentioned answers are correct
370.The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3000 m
800 m
500 m
1500 m
371.Which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach:
1)
the required RVR,
2)
the ceiling
3)
the minimum descent height (MDH)
4)
the decision height (DH)
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 4.
1, 3.
1, 4.
1, 2, 3.
372.The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :
1) equipment available for navigation
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2) dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3) composition of the flight crew
4) obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5) facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2,3,4,5
1,2,4,5
2,4,5
2,3,5
373.Circling to land MDA refers to:

a) aerodrome elevation
b) runway elevation
c) both a and b
374.The aerodrome operating minima for a specific type of approach and landing procedure shall be applicable if
a) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach, are inoperative;
b) the required aircraft performance criteria are not complied with; and
c) the ground equipment shown on the respective instrument approach and landing chart required for the
intended procedure, is operative;
d) the flight crew is not qualified to conduct the type of approach.
375.CAT II approaches for General Aviation are found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
Part 135 and 121

Part 91 Operation of aircraft
Part 127- Commercial operation for General Aviation
Technical Standards: part 91
376.According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I runway to be classified as having full facilities, the
minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting required is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
720 m
1200m
900m
420m
377.Aerodrome Operating Minima: An operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures",
which are based upon the use of ILS without glide path (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH
following value with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
ILS facility without glide path (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
378.When carrying out a non-precision approach the MDA refers to:

a) the aerodrome elevation
b) the runway elevation
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c) the runway threshold elevation
379.The approval of the Director of Civil Aviation is required to conduct CAT II operations. Where in South African aviation
legislation is this provided for in respect of General aviation operators.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Part 127
Part 135
Part 121
Part 91
380.During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower

MDH minus circling minima, if included
The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
The higher of the DH or the State minima
381.The lowest RVR minima to be used for a category I precision approach is;
a)
b)
c)
d)
1200 m
800 m
550 m
200 ft
382.What are the lowest minima to be used by an operator for a circling approach. Category B
a)
b)
c)
d)
Visibility 1500 m, MDH 400 ft

Visibility 2400 m, MDH 700 f
383.RVR may be calculated as follows:

a) RVR =visibility x factor
b) RVR = visibility / factor
c) RVR = visibility factor
RVR = visibility + factor
384.During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to
a)
b)
c)
d)
The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower.

MDH minus circling minima, if included.
The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
The higher of the DH or the state minima.
385.Aerodrome operating minima:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Take-off minima are given in terms of RVR/visibility and ceiling;

Landing minima are given for a precision approach in terms of RVR and cloud ceiling;
Landing minima for a a non-precision approach are given in terms of RVR/visibility and ceiling;
Landing minima for an approach with vertical guidance (APV) are given in terms of RVR/visibility and ceiling.
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386.The minimum RVR for a visual approach is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 000 m
1 500m
1 000m
500m.
91.07.7 Pre-flight selection of aerodromes (SACATS 91.07.7)

387.For the take-off alternate, if the AFM does not give engine out cruising speeds, then the operator shall use:
a) The remaining engine set at maximum continuous power;
b) The remaining engine set at take-off power;
c) The all engine cruise speed reduced by 10% and an additional 5% for each degree above ISA that the actual
temperature of the day is;
d) The all engine cruise speed reduced by 10%.
388.According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome, the appropriate
weather reports or forecasts or a combination of thereof must be at or above the applicable planning minima for a period
of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETD of the aircraft at the aerodrome
1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
389.Take-off alternate: A take-of alternate is required to be nominated if return to the departure airfield is precluded due to
weather. This will be:
a) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour engine out cruise speed from the departure
aerodrome, in ISA conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated take-off mass of that aeroplane;
b) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours all engine cruise in ISA and still air conditions at the
actual take-off mass;
c) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours one engine out engine cruise in ISA and still air
conditions at the actual take-off mass;
d) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour all engine cruise speed from the departure aerodrome, in ISA
conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated take-off mass of that aeroplane.
390.One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates
that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted
time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
391.On an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination
and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
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a) the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after
such a predicted time.
b) the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.
c) the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
d) the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the
aerodrome.
392.One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates
that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or
better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
393.The route of a twin engine aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum
approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

394.The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for the destination and alternate
aerodromes for a duration of at least:
a) one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes
b) the fuel endurance of the aircraft
c) the ETA plus 1.5 hours at both aerodromes
395.The weather condition at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome required to
a)
b)
c)
d)
Be at or above the applicable landing minima.

Comply with the criteria for en-route aerodrome.
Comply with the enhanced minima requirement for destination alternate aerodrome.
Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take- off.
396.The operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR flight unless:
1. Isolated aerodrome
2. 2 separate runways
3. Duration of the flight from departure taking into account all the operational information for a period of at
least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA and can be made in VMC
4. Sufficient fuel to hold for at least 2 hours
5. Weather for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA is above the applicable minima
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 1, 3 & 5
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d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
397.When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a
twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
398.An IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
399.When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination alternate fuel to be carried
shall be:
a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption above
the destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes
400.For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:
a) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine
operative.
b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
d) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
401.According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome, the appropriate
weather reports or forecasts or a combination thereof, must be at or above the applicable planning minima for a period
of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
20 minutes flying time in the case of single-engine aircraft
2 hours prior to the ETA at the destination
402.If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
a)
b)
c)
d)
select two destination alternates.

take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
(not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.
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403.When is a take-off alternate aerodrome required?
a) When flying any multi-engine aircraft which is not able to comply with the take-off performance conditions
specified in SA CATS 91
b) When weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable minima for landing
c) When departing from an aerodrome with SID performance requirements which cannot be complied with
d) Requirements are specified in SA CATS Parts 121, 127 and 135 and are operator defined
404.What are the minimas for a NPA at an alternate destination aerodrome?

a) Same as for a NPA
b) NPA: with MDH + 200 ft & RVR + 1000 m
c) Same as for Cat 1
405.Planning minima for en-route alternates CAT I:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Non precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDA

Non-precision RVR/Visibility + 1000 m and ceiling must be at or above the MDH + 200 ft
Must be forecast at or above the CAT I minima
Must be forecast at or above the CAT II minima
406.Destination alternates planning minima: Aerodromes supporting straight in instrument approach and landing operation to
different suitable runways. The ceiling:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 400 ft

Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 200 ft
For CAT II operations at least 300 ft, for CAT III operations at least 200 ft
For CAT II operations at least 200 ft, for CAT III operations at least 300 ft
407.The weather conditions at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome are required to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
To be at or above the applicable landing minima

Comply with the criteria for en route aerodromes
Comply with the enhanced minima requirements for destination alternate aerodromes
Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take-off
408.For three- and four-engine aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.
2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
409.When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for
aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
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410.When planning a non-precision approach at the destination alternate aerodrome:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Add 200 ft to the MDH and 800 m to the RVR

411.For two-engine aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air
conditions) within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
412.A take-off alternate on an IFR flight must be specified:

a) If weather conditions at departure aerodrome precludes returning for landing if there is a technical
problem
b) Is always specified in case there is a need to return after departure
c) Only specified if it is a Commercial flight carrying passengers for reward
d) Is specified if there is insufficient maintenance at the departure aerodrome if there is a technical problem
413.On a flight from Cape Town to Bloemfontein in a twin-engine aircraft that is capable of climbing to 1 500 ft on a single
engine. The surface conditions at Cape Town are: - Visibility 1 500 m with runway 01 in use. For the take-off, these
conditions are:
a) Suitable, provided the conditions at an alternate aerodrome within 1 hour flight time on one engine are
at or above landing minima
b) Not suitable for take-off because in the event of an engine failure the aircraft would not be able to return for
landing
c) Suitable for take-off provided the conditions at an alternate within 1 hour flight time has a ceiling of at least 600
ft. a visibility of 3 200 m and an ILS available
d) More information is required to answer the question
91.07.8 Planning minima for IFR flights (SACATS 91.7.8)
414.A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest
accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
a) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required
for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
b) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for
landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
c) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
d) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing,
with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
415.As far as the planning minima for IFR flights is concerned, in which of the following cases shall the cloud ceiling be taken
into account?
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a) When the only approaches are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
b) In all cases
c) When an IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome en route where an approach can be made to encounter VMC and
then continued in VMC to the destination
d) When the only approaches available are non-precision or circling approaches
416.As far as the planning minima for IFR are concerned, in which of the following must the cloud ceiling be taken into
account?
a) When the only approaches available are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
b) Where an IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome en route where the approach can be made to encounter VMC
and then continued to the destination
c) In all cases
91.07.9
Meteorological conditions
91.07.12 Fuel supply (SACATS 91.07.12)

417.On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant
sufficient for flying during:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at cruising speed
418.The commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.
419.A commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed
to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

15 minutes of remaining fuel.
final reserve fuel remaining.
fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.
420.On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel
and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 hours with normal cruising consumption

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
421.On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant
sufficient for flying during :
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a)
b)
c)
d)

422.Minimum final reserve fuel for a turbo-propeller aircraft on a commercial flight is:
a) Fuel for 30 minutes holding
b) Fuel to fly for 45 minutes.
c) Fuel for 30 minutes flying at holding speed 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
423.Final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines when operating under Part 91 only is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
45 minutes if operating VFR or IFR

30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation if operating IFR.
30 minutes if operating VFR.
45 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation
424.On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel
and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

2 hours with normal cruising consumption
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
425.If no alternate is available for an isolated destination, the reserve fuel carried must be:
a) 2 hours holding fuel for a turbine engine aeroplane, including final reserve fuel;
b) 2 hours normal cruise consumption for a turbine engine aeroplane, including final reserve fuel;
c) 45 minutes + 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level, including reserve, or 2 hours, whichever
is more, for a reciprocating engine aeroplane;
d) 2 hours of normal cruise consumption for turbines and reciprocating engine aeroplanes.
91.07.13 Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board
426.When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

The aircraft's stairs must be completely extended.
Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
All the flight crew must be on board.
91.07.18 Seats, safety belts and harnesses

91.07.19 Passenger seating
91.07.20 Passenger movements and briefing
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91.07.21 Passenger health and safety

427.When it appears that a passenger on board your flight displays symptoms of a communicable disease, you as PIC shall
immediately notify:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The South African Police Services

The Director
The Port Health Authority (PHA)
The other passengers
91.07.24 Use of supplemental oxygen

428.All aircraft must carry a supplemental oxygen supply if operated above:
a) at altitudes of 12 000 ft for 1 hour
b) an altitude above 10 000 ft for 2 hours
c) an altitude above F120
429.The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that when a flight is conducted above FL 410:
a)
b)
c)
d)
At least one pilot wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any reason.
At least one crew member wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for any reason.
At least one passenger wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for any reason
At least one pilot at a pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for
any reason.
91.07.25 Approach and landing conditions

91.07.26 Approach ban
430.With reference to Approach Ban The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if
a) at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or, where there is no FAF,
the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in the case of a non-precision approach,
below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome;
b) the aircraft is on a flight where a landing is not intended
c) the RVR is varying between distances less than the minimum RVR.
431.Approach ban is applicable to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
all IMC approaches;

Only precision approaches;
Only non-precision approaches and APVs;
Only cat 11 and Cat 111 approaches
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91.07.28 Turning helicopter rotors
91.07.29 Starting and running of engines
91.07.30 Acrobatic flights

432.Acrobatic flight, including spins, may not take place, except with the permission of the CAA:
a)
b)
c)
d)
below 4 000 ft
below 2 000 ft
below 3 000 ft
below 1500 ft
433.Except by permission from the Director aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically within:
a.
b.
c.
d.
five nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 4000 feet above ground level,
six nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground level,
eight nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground level.
Nil
434.Except by individual permission from the CAA aircraft shall not be flown aerobatic ally inter alia:
a) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 4 nm of an aerodrome
b) within 5 nm from an aerodrome unless at a height of not less than 4 000 ft agl
c) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 8 nm from an aerodrome
91.07.31 Simulated instrument flight in aircraft
435.You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:
a) Do so at your discretion without any aid provided you are outside of controlled airspace
b) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an instrument rating
c) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds at least a VFR PPL and night
rating
436.A private pilot with an instrument rating shall be permitted inter alia to:
a) act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night and for remuneration
b) act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night and to carry passengers therein, but not for
remuneration
c) act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night for remuneration, provided he has the appropriate type
rating
437.A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:
a) occupy a control seat
b) be able to keep a look out in all directions
c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out
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438.A Private pilot may..
a) Fly as a safety pilot on condition that he is the holder of a night rating
b) Fly at night without a night rating
c) May carry passengers and cargo for remuneration
91.07.32 Aeroplane operating procedures

91.07.33 Heads up display
91.07.34 Electronic flight bags
439.The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:
a) May not be used under any circumstances
b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is approved for the purpose
by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.
91.07.35 Extended twin engine operations
440.For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
a)
b)
c)
d)
At the discretion of the air traffic controller

If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain
own separation
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PART 92 CARRIAGE OF DANGROUS GOODS

92.00.2
Prohibition of conveyance of dangerous goods
92.00.8
Training
92.00.18 Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck

441.Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA CATS 92, dangerous goods may be transported:
1. In the passenger cabin, occupied by passengers
2. On the flight deck
3. In the cargo compartment
a) 3 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
442.Is Medical equipment used to aid a patient classified as Dangerous goods?
a) Yes
b) no
c) almost
443.Dangerous goods to be transported includes medical equipment. This will be permitted in the cabin:
a)
b)
c)
d)
If required by a passenger in the cabin

Will not be permitted if it is for a sick animal
Must be declared to the PIC and the PIC will decide if it is to be permitted
Only applies to a pacemaker
92.00.21 Loading in cargo aircraft

444.Dangerous goods may be stowed
a) Only in the flight deck
b) In the passenger cabin only
c) Only in the cargo compartment
445.Any dangerous goods labelled Cargo aircraft Only shall be loaded so that:
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a) the pilot or operator personnel can see and handle the package in flight;
b) the pilot can be given a notice notifying the pilot where this is located, but he or she does not need to be
able to see it;
c) the operator is notified of the contents of the package;
d) the packaging is clearly labelled so that the pilot can identify the package on landing for removal at the
destination.
446.In the event of a package containing dangerous goods and bearing a cargo aircraft only sticker:
a) The pilots and ground personnel require additional training about the package being flown
b) It shall be loaded in a manner that any flight crew member or other person authorised by the operator can
still handle the package and where size and weight permit, separate such package from the other cargo
on the flight
c) The operator shall always ensure that in this instance the securing meets the requirements regarding the
separation of materials referred to in regulations 92.00.19(3)
92.00.27 Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members
447.Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
no passenger is carried on the same flight

the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
national aviation administration permission has been granted
government permission has been granted
448.May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?

a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission
b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in document SA
CATS 92
449.No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance in an aircraft, unless
a) These are carried in the cargo hold, in a manner described in CATS 92;
b) Some dangerous goods are allowed to be carried in the cabin or the cockpit: these goods are limited to, amongst
others, medical goods required by a patient on board;
c) Military aircraft are not covered by the regulations in Part 92;
d) All of the above.
450.May a passenger have dangerous goods with him?
a) yes
b) never
c) yes if it is in respect of the SA-CATS 92
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PART 93
93.01.1
93.02.2
CORPORATE OPERATIONS
Applicability
Extended range twin-engine operations
451.A private operator shall not operate a twin-engine aircraft, under Part 93, over a route which contains a point further from
an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60
minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed unless:
a) The extended range twin-engine operations are conducted in accordance with the procedures approved
for the operator in the operations manual.
b) The pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes and the weather is such that for one hour before and
one hour after the ETA the weather conditions are VMC
c) The pilot(s) is(are) type rated and RVSM approved.
93.02.10 Fatigue management programme
452.In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
a) Obtain the appropriate Air Service License from the Department of Transport
b) Automatically be granted RVSM, FDP and LVP approvals
c) Establish and implement a fatigue management program
453.In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
a) Shall only employ pilots with an ATPL
b) Shall be certified to operate under Part 121 and 135
c) Shall establish and implement fatigue management program
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PART 121 - AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS - CARRIAGE ON AEROPLANES OF MORE

THAN 19 PASSENGERS OR CARGO
454.Part 121 Air Transport Operations applies to:
a) Any local and foreign operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an aircraft having a maximum
certificated passenger seating capacity of 20 or more as authorized on the initial type certificate issued to such
aircraft
b) Any South African operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an aircraft registered in the
Republic of South Africa having a certificated take-off mass above 5700 kg
c) Any South African operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an aircraft registered in
the Republic of South Africa having a maximum certificated passenger seating capacity of 20 or more as
authorized on the initial type certificate issued to such aircraft
455.Part 121of the CAR is for a)
b)
c)
d)
Air Transport: large aeroplanes that carry more than 19 passengers

Air Transport: Carriage on aeroplanes of more than 20 passengers or cargo
Air transport operations: Small aeroplanes
Air Transport: Large aeroplanes.
PART 129 FOREIGN AIR OPERATIONS

456.Part 129 applies to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aerodromes and heliports

Air ambulance operations
Foreign Air Operations
General Aviation and Operating Rules
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PART 135 AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS CARRIAGE OF LESS THAN 20

PASSENGERS OR CARGO
SUBPART 1:
GENERAL
457.Part 135 cargo operations applies to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or less
Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg or more
Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg or less
Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or more
458.A second sensitive altimeter must be installed on board aeroplanes operated under Part 135 for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
All IFR flights

All VFR flight
All flights above 10 000 ft
All flight
135.01.2 Admission to flight deck

459.May a passenger sit in the co-pilot seat in an aircraft operated under Part 135?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Never
Only in an aircraft operated under Part 91
Not in an aircraft operated under Part 135
An operator of aeroplanes certificated or authorised for flight with one pilot may use the second seat on
the flight deck as a passenger seat
460.Regarding admission to the flight deck in a charter or Part 135 operation, you:
a) May allow a person to the flight deck provided that the person holds at least a PPL and who is able to assist you
in a safety pilot capacity
b) May not allow anyone to ever occupy the front seat
c) May allow a person to sit in a vacant pilot seat, provided that you ensure that any person on the flight
deck is made familiar with the applicable safety equipment and pertinent operational procedures
SUBPART 2:
OPERATIONS PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS
135.02.2 Minimum requirements for assignment as PIC (SACATS 135.02.2)

461.To act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in Part 135 operations, you:
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a) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings and must meet the experience
limitations detailed in SA CATS 135
b) May do so once you automatically meet the minimum regulatory experience requirements even if the published
company requirements are higher
c) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings without any experience limitations
462.How many hours must a PIC have before being able to carry passengers in an aeroplane with a maximum certificated
seating configuration of 10 or more passenger in VFR at night?
a)
b)
c)
d)
SUBPART 7:
100 hours and a suitable type rating

FLIGHT OPERATIONS
135.07.1 Routes and areas of operation and aerodrome facilities (SACATS 135.07.1)
463.Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing operations, but not
supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:
a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a visibility increment
of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility increment of 800 m
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the MDH and 1000 m
added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft
135.07.5 Single-engine aeroplane IMC and night operations (SACATS 135.07.5)
464.According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with passengers on board
at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:
a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight operations in single engine
aeroplanes
c) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications
465.In order to conduct single-engine IMC or night flight operation under Part 135:
a) Only the pilot must be rated and the aircraft must meet the required equipment and operational requirements
b) This operation must specifically be listed as an approval on an operators Ops Spec prior to conducting
such a flight
c) The operator must have a valid AOC but such operation does not have to be specifically listed in its Ops Spec
135.07.8 IFR or night flight without second-in-command
466.Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require for operations at night
without a SIC?
a) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as PIC and 15 hours of
flight time at night
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b) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC and 50 hours
of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as PIC and 15
hours of flight time at night
d) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as PIC and 50 hours of
flight time at night
467.When does the Commissioner not require 2 crew in a small commercial Air transport turbo prop or turbo jet under IFR or
by night
a) A/C certified for 1 crew and operator has a recurrent training programme for the pilot
b) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude and heading hold
c) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with auto pilot with altitude and heading hold and boom mike
468.For a commercial flight which is conducted IFR or VFR at night the requirements include:
a)
b)
c)
d)
At least 50 hours of PIC time in the class of aeroplane to be used for the flight;
At least 10 hours of PIC time in the class of aeroplane to be used for the flight;
At least 25 hours of night time in the class of aeroplane to be used for the flight;
At least 15 hours of IFR time in the class of aeroplane to be used for the flight.
469.In a part 135 operation, the PIC of an aircraft flying IFR must have a second in command if:
a)
b)
c)
d)
SUBPART 8:
The aeroplane is > 5 700kg and certified to carry 19 or less passengers;

has passed a single-pilot proficiency check within the previous 24 months;
In the case of unpressurised aeroplane, not operate at a level that requires continuous use of oxygen;
Cannot perform normal and emergency procedures without assistance.
AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
135.08.7 Dispatch limitations: landing at destination and alternate aerodromes

470.Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft
above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
60% of the landing distance available.

471.According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass of the aircraft on
landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
472.Landing distance available must be at least:
a) For turbo-jet or turbo-fan aircraft the landing distance required must not be more than 60% of the LDA;
b) For all aeroplanes dispatch only permitted if the planned landing mass will allow a landing within 70% of the
landing distance available(LDA);
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c) For turbine aeroplanes, dispatch permitted if the planned landing distance required is not more than 60% of the
LDA;
d) For large propeller driven aeroplanes, the planned landing distance required must not be more than 60% of the
LDA.
Part 138 AIR AMBULANCE OPERATION

a) Airspace
b) Air ambulance operations
c) Aerodromes and heliports
Part 139 AERODROMES & HELIPORTS

474.SA CAR Part 139 refers to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aerodromes and Heliports

Airspaces and Air Traffic Services
Air ambulance services
Air Transportation: Small aeroplanes
475.An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:
a) except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome
b) land at a unlicensed aerodrome
c) land at a unlicensed aerodrome provided the pilot has satisfied himself that there is no danger involved
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Part 172 CLASSIFICATION OF AIRSPACE

476.Airspace in which aircraft only receive Flight Information services is classified as:
a) Class A
b) Class F
c) Class G
477.Air Traffic Control operates in:
a) control zones, aerodrome traffic zones and in upper airways
b) aerodrome traffic zones, aerodrome traffic areas and terminal control areas
c) aerodrome traffic areas, terminal control areas and upper airways
478.Control zones are areas of controlled airspace which have, inter alia:
a) a specified upper limit
b) no specified upper limit
c) in certain conditions, have a specified upper limit which may be determined by the relevant ATSU
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aerodromes and Heliports

General Aviation
Foreign Operators
Classification of Airspace
480.The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:

a)
b)
c)
d)
through a central control unit.

by agreement with the receiving unit.
automatically at the control zone boundary.
with the pilot's consent.
481.The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

a) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region Approach Control Office and Tower.
b) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and
Air Traffic Services reporting office.
c) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
d) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
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482.During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Before penetrating the clouds.

When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.
After take-off.
When advised by Tower.
483.Traffic advisory airspace is . airspace?

a) Class A
b) Class F
c) Class G
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PART 185 ENFORCEMENT

484.A person who gives false information pertaining to the investigation of any aviation accident or incident is:
a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures brought against them
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
485.A person who exercises a privilege granted by, or uses, any license, rating, certificate, permit, approval, authorisation,
exemption or other document issued under the regulations, of which he/she or is not the holder, is:
a) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
b) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures brought against them
c) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
486.A person who operates or attempts to operate any aircraft in respect of which no valid certificate of registration or valid
certificate of airworthiness have been issued is:
a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fined but may have other punitive measures brought against him
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
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PRACTICAL
487.For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with nav aids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the
aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
d)
will land.
will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
will stop on the parking area.
will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
488.An operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on
ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be
retained, during at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15 months
24 months
3 months
12 months
489."ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in
relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever
separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.

All IFR flights.
Only controlled IFR flights.
All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
490.The responsibility for the operation and safety of an aircraft on an IFR flight engaged in commercial air transport
operations rests with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The owner or operator of an aircraft.

The operator and PIC (Pilot In Command) of the aircraft.
The PIC of the aircraft while he or she is in command
Nil
491.The one-engine cruising speed for a multi-engine aircraft which is used to calculate the flight time for purposes of a takeoff alternate aerodrome is based on:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The average route mass, e.g: the average of the actual take-off mass and the estimated landing mass
The maximum certificated take-off mass
The actual take-off mass
The mass at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation using the all-engine operative fuel burn rate for calculation
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492.When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
a) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
b) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy
c) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still
airworthy
493.The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
110.
140.
70.
220.
494.The mass when empty, and the CG data, must be computed every:
a)
b)
c)
d)
12 months
3 years
5 years
6 months
495.The Captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He
a)
b)
c)
d)
can refuse to present them.

can only do so after having consulted the operator.
must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
can request a delay of 48 hours.
496.When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
a)
b)
c)
d)
can request a delay of 48 hours.

shall comply within a reasonable period of time.
shall only comply if authorised by the operator.
can refuse to present them.
497.For flight crew members: Over a 14 day period, the number of days off should not be less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 days
2 days
4 days
Nil
498.The validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Of the last medical certificate

Of issue
Of the skill test
The application is received by the Authority.
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AIR LAW study guide

499.In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that
such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations.
b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in noncommercial operations
c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
500.A South African registered aircraft used by a South African operator must comply with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
The regulations of South Africa, no matter in which country the aircraft is operated;
Must comply with the regulations of the state of operation;
Must comply with the stricter of the two: the South African regulations and the country of operation;
Must consult with the Flight Operation Manual, to see what applies.
501.When navigating a flight along a route whilst IFR:

a)
b)
c)
d)
The pilot should fly directly from point to point if the route is not defined by the ATS system;
The pilot should keep within the area of the designated route if flying on an airway;
Is only allowed to use designated routes;
Must file an ATC flight plan.
502.The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1) must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2) is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3) may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4) may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5) may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2-3-5
1-3-5
3-4-5
14
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AIR LAW Study Guide: Part 1 - Definitions

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