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1.

It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through
different modes of transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

2.

A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

3.

Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign

4.

When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay

5.

A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. True infection
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection

6.

Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted
in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza

8.

The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when
the body is immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection

9.

When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent

of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?
Surgical wound infection
Sepsis
Urinary tract infection
Respiratory tract infection

10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and
contagious?
a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
11. Which of the following statements are true?
a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
b. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.

c.
d.

Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.

12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:
a. Pathogenecity
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria
to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what
property of the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some
communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when
they lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and
are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented.
This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air
current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne

b.
c.
d.
22. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

Droplet
Pressurized
Fomites
of the following is considered a fomite?
Staphylococcus aureus carrier
Urinals
Mosquito
Hands

23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
A pregnant mother
A healthy sexual worker
A patient who is discharged from the hospital

25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is
pattern of disease occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
29. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:
Mass screening
Contact tracing
Hand washing
Prompt treatment

30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of
IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?

a.
b.
c.
d.

BCG
DPT
Measles
Hep B

33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and
developed pertussis with the first dose.
36. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?
It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid region
It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given

37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in man’s physical environment which may exercise or
may not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included?
a. Safe and Water Supply
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal
c. Food Sanitation
d. Sexual worker’s occupation sanitation program
38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking
39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of:
a. 10-60 degrees C
b. 70 degrees C
c. 100 degrees C
d. 150 degrees C
40. For right storage, the following is correct except:
a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours
b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.
c. Food must not be stored with room temperature
d. No rethawing, if possible.
41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following
is important for the cook or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
d. Compliance to health certificate
42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind
of isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation

Standard precautions d. Bonnet . b. It can be done through dry heat. eye protection and gowns when appropriate 48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Surveillance d. d. b. Source isolation c. of the following is true regarding source isolation? Negative pressure in the room and positive outside Positive pressure in the room and negative outside Equalized pressure from both areas Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out 44. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of precaution: a. b. d. scalpels and other sharps Wearing gloves. masks. Which a. b. Which a. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. Gloves d. Source isolation d. Gown c. c. or influenza Transmission-based precautions will be necessary 47. of the following is not part of the standard precaution? Hand washing between patient contacts Placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure Proper disposal of needles. Mask b. c. c. Reverse Isolation c. Which a. c. of the following statements about source isolation is false? Air entering the room is passed through filters The room is under negative air pressure Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the patient? a. Disinfestation 52. Which of the following is not appropriate? a. Sanitation d. Which a. Contact b. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider 49. whooping cough. c. of the following statements about medical asepsis is false? Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms 51. moist heat and radiation: a. Droplet precautions b. of the following precautions doesn’t require any private room? Reverse isolation Strict isolation Droplet precaution Universal precaution 50. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements: a. Source isolation c. d. Complete quarantine b. d.c. Drainage precaution d. Enteric precaution 46. b. Reverse isolation 43. d. Sterilization c. You are caring a client in isolation. Which a. Separation 45. Disinfection b.

Attenuation d. The removal of all harmful microorganisms is also known as: a. every time the client coughs. Lyophilization c. 10 – 15 seconds: up c. except: a. 10 – 15 seconds: down b.53. a. Sterilization d. Decontamination d. 3 days to 3 weeks c. Concurrent c. Decontamination c. Sterilization d. Terminal b. Moist heat application 54. Use of formaldehyde b. Disinfectant c. This process is used for making vaccine: a. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as: a. Aerobic. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ : a. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client’s skin before an injection. 3 to 3 months 63. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS) b. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent. Disinfection b. Disinfestation c. 3 to 30 days b. Sanitization b. The incubation period of tetanus among infants is: . 3 . Medical asepsis b. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known as: a. Post-expulsion 58. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics. she uses what kind of chemical-removingmicroorganism? a. 3 – 5 minutes: up 60. Decontamination 61. Decontaminant d. Antiseptic b. Incubation period of Clostridium tetani is: a. Produces one of the most potent toxin 62. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. Gaseous Desentisization 59. Anti-septic 55. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human d. Antimicrobial 56. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication.5 minutes: down d. Disinfection 57. spore-forming rod shape bacteria c. removes the soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. Sanitation c. This technique is what kind of disinfection? a. The nurse. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine b. Sanitation d. 3 to 9 days d. Longitudinal d. Surgical asepsis c.

c. Risus sardonicus 67. Abdominal rigidity c. Which a. Booster dose in every other pregnancy 70. Direct control over contraction of muscles c. The initial sign of tetanus is: a. DPT immunization provides how many years of protection? a. Tetanolysis causes RBC destruction while tetanospasmin causes: a. Cydex 72. c. of the following facts about meningitis is not true: 2/3 of humans are asymptomatic carrier It is caused by gram negative sphere bacteria Can be caused by other bacteria other than Neisseria meningitides Non-infectious after one week of treatment . IM.5 cc d. b. Absence of sodium potassium pump that inhibits contraction d. 3% hydrogen peroxide c.a. Soap and water b. 2 years b. 5 years c. d. d. Opisthotonus d. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum among infants is best achieved through: a. At thigh region . Frequent hand washing among health care providers especially during child birth 71. Opisthotonus d. Stimulation of salivary which produces excessive salivation 65. 7 years d. Tetanus toxoid for mothers are given. of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus? Anti-tetanus toxin Tetanus immunoglobulin Penicillin Equine anti toxin 68. except: a. Trismus b. d. Proper wound care d. Trismus b. Abdominal rigidity c. 3 to 30 days 3 days to 3 weeks 3 to 9 days 3 to 3 months 64. Provision of adequate medicine to tetanus infected child c. b. The pathognomonic sign of tetanus is: a. b. Iodophor d. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by: a. Two doses at the 2nd trimester b. Which a. With one month interval c. Risus sardonicus 66. c. 10 years 69. Adequate and effective maternal and child health b. 0. Inhibition of impulses that stops muscle contraction b.

Streptococcus pneumonia c. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by: a. coli 75. West Nile Encephalitis and St. except: a. The following strains of N. Ceftriaxone d. Convulsion 77. b. Hypotension c. Penicilin 80. Avoid valsalva maneuver b. of the following causes of encephalitis is brought by a mosquito? Japanese B encephalitis Amoebic meningoencephalitis Toxic encephalitis Spongiform encephalopathy 82. d. d. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin: a. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure. Nuchal rigidity 78. Flavivuris . The drug of choice for Meningitis is: a. Meningococcus d. Which a. DIC d. Y c. This is known as: a. Rifampicin b. Administer anti-diuretics c. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by except: a. C d. A b. Ceftriaxone d. meningitides do not have vaccines? a. B 74. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2 dose and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives: a. Kernig’s sign b. Penicillin c.73. Penicillin c. Tetracycline 79. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position. b. Brudzinski’s sign c. when neck is flexed. of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children? Hemophilus influenza Streptococcus pneumonia Meningococcus E. Elevate head part 81. c. Opisthotonus d. Petechial rash b. c. Clostridium tetani 76. Which a. Rifampicin b. Lessen environmental stimuli d. Hemophilus influenza b.

Elderly c. Under 15 years old b. d. c. High-pitched cry b. Male 85. The following are included in the CLEAN program of DOH: a. d. What is this amoeba? a. Australian X Encephalitis b. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body through nasal passages. Which a.b. Nose and throat swab d. St. Stream clearing . Projectile vomiting 89. Bovine spongiform encephalitis 87. brucei 88. Pregnant d. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as: a. T. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease c. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis. Lumbar puncture 90. N. Bulging of fontanels c. Japanese B encephalitis d. c. Kuru b. olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. in exception of: a. Zooprohylaxis c. Stream seeding b. except: a. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to ascending infection: a. Acanthamoeba c. Scrapie d. Louise encephalitis 86. Mosquito-borne encephalitis 84. EEG b. Decrease pulse rate d. Equine Encephalitis c. Plasmodium ovale d. fowleri b. of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis? Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis CLEAN program of DOH Influenza virus vaccine Proper food handling 91. Togavirus Bunyavirus Paramyxovirus 83. Secondary encephalitis b. La crosse virus is very potent to patients who are: a. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following. Toxic encephalitis d. Amoebic encephalitis c. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse. b. Blood culture c. given for three doses of I cc: a.

Penicillin b. d. d. Drug of choice for encephalitis is: a. except: a. except: a. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following. Variable d. Poliotic 96. 100 days 98. b. Priority nursing diagnosis for clients with poliomyelitis is: a. OPT d. 30 days b. 90 days d. Lumbar puncture d. c. Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabin’s vaccine? a. 60 days c.d. Stimson’s sign d. Paralytic d. Stage of poliomyelitis where no evident involvement of CNS noted? a. Poker’s sign c. IRS 92. Ineffective airway clearance 101. kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles? Spinal Bulbar Bulbo-spinal Laundry’s paralysis 99. Which a. Hoyne’s sign b. Electroencephalogram c. Invasive b. IPV c. Self Care deficit d. Which a. of the following strain of Legio-debilitans causes permanent immunity? Brunhilde Lansing Leon Paquita 95. Azithromycin 93. Ciprofloxacin c. Stool exam 100. c. Paralysis 97. Muscle Grading Scale b. Pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis includes all of the following. Pre-paralytic c. In 1955. b. Impaired Physical Mobility c. a. OPM 94. b. Impaired gas exchange b. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis? a. OPV b. IPV is given for three doses and: 2 doses are given at 1 to two months interval 3rd dose after 6 to 12 months .

Pre-exposure vaccine is not given: To high risk individuals such as veterinarians For 3 doses of 1 ml IM At 0. c. except? Nature of contact Animal species Vaccination or clinical status of animal Amount of saliva present during biting period a. b. c. d. dog? Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected . d. 104. d. d. c. Rhabdovirus is: Bullet shaped Drum-stick in appearance Chinese characters-like Cork-screw appearance a. b. 4. Intense salivation of a rabid animal is seen in what form? Dumb form Furious form Both dumb and furious None of the above a. 6-18 months Booster dose at 10 years old a. b. A dog can be vaccinated as early as: During at birth 3 months 6 weeks One year 102. Post-exposure prophylaxis is given for: 14 doses plus 2 booster doses 3 doses and no booster doses 21 doses included of which is the 3 booster doses 10 doses plus 2 doses for the animal a. c.c. 110. 105. d. c. 108. Given at 2. 7. 21 to 28 days to animals quarantined and observed for 10 days a. c. b. b. d. b. d. d. The pathognomonic sign of rabies is: Hydrophobia Intense salivation Bizarre behavior Laryngospasm a. b. b. d. d. Which of the following factors determines treatment of rabies. Absence of laryngospasm during the paralytic stage indicates: Poor prognosis Recovery Paralysis of extremities Aerophobia a. 111. 103. 109. Incubation period of Rabies virus for man is: 10 days to 10 years 3 to 8 weeks 3 to 10 days Hours to 3 days a. 107. c. 106. b. c. c.

20 IU/kg HyperRab 40 IU/kg Imogam 60 IU/kg a. Three b. b. c. c. d. except: Animal should not be cooked for food Keep the brain frozen Send animal’s head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies Put it in a cool dawg a. b. DOB. If an animal dies after 10 days. 118. except: Aerobic. The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by: Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response Exotoxin kills leukocytes and forms congregation in the throat Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs a. 117. A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice. c. d. 48 hours c. c. b. 115. Pharyngeal c. Two . 2 to 4 days d. non motile Gram positive Arrange like Chinese letters Drum stick in appearance a. ERIG. the following are the considerations. d. c. b. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of infection? a. c. Management for the wound includes all of the following. 24 hours b. b. 14 days must have a strict 120. d. 40 IU/kg HRIG . Nasal b. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva and considered uncommon yet very dangerous? a. d. The following are the characteristics of Cornyebacterium diptheriae. 116. b. d.a. 114. Laryngeal d. d. and aphonia is observed: Nasal Pharyngeal Laryngeal Mucous membrane 112. c. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory isolation for: a. 113. b. animal should be: Observed for 10 days Killed at once Send to PAWS Donated to Malabon Zoo a. Mucous membrane 119. except: 70 % alcohol antisepsis Running water and soap cleaning Suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding Place blockage tie above the injury site a.

d. clinical sign is enough to confirm presence a. are not a. increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of pertussis? a. 122. otherwise. Presence of whooping cough. d. 124. If client is experiencing diphtheria. b. given first at 6 weeks Injected IM at deltoid region Booster dose every two years especially for travelers DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine Which of the following about pertussis. 123. Spasmodic c. It produces pertussis toxin that increases mucus production d. b. c. c. b. Pertussis is characterized also by increase in thoracic and intracranial pressure 128. Convalescence 129. Whooping cough is characterized by repeated violent coughing followed by rapid expiration c. c. Patients under 6 months and vaccinated do not create a whoop b.c. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria? Nasal Laryngeal Cutaneous Mucous membrane 121. b. Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria: After three positive result to nose and throat culture Even without laboratory result Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed If not allergic to equine. 126. is considered incorrect? a. d. d. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. The diagnostic procedure for pertussis is: Shick’s test Maloney’s test Bordet-gengou test Pandy’s test . Catarrhal d. One None. d. 125. which of the following is a must at the client’s bedside? Pair of scissors Mechanical ventilator Tracheostomy set Bottle a. b. The pathognomonic sign of diphtheria is: Inspiratory whoop Hemoptysis Pseudomembrane Coryza a. b. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria? Meningitis Orchitis Myocarditis Gastro-intestinal affectations a. c. b. Which of the following considerations intended for diphtheria vaccine? 3 doses. d. d. 127. c. d. a. c. c. Invasive b. human equine anti-toxin must be given a.

d. a. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through: a. b. a. a. especially for type A is: Amantidine Acyclovir Zidovoudine Zanamivir a. Mutate and create another strain c. which of the following intervention would the nurse do? a. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics: Type A Type B Type C Type D a. Reactivate after latent infection b. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility 136. Malaria b. d. d. b. c. c. Contact isolation b. 138. Tuberculosis c. 132. The drug of choice for influenza. multiple organ failure d. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type: A B Both A and B Type C 137. d. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after: Negative result on the laboratory test Five days after continued therapy Increased WBC up to 20 per cent Absence of whooping cough a. Influenza 135. d. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to: a. except: Abdominal hernia Increase ICP Secondary infection Blindness 131. Droplet isolation d. Infiltrate other organs. AIDS d. Give DT for the next dose d. b. No vaccination on the next schedule 134. c. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization. Give DTaP on the next dose c. Possible complication of Pertussis include. b. Airborne isolation c. Give the next dose as scheduled b.130. Transmission based precaution 133. b. c. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more mortality than the World War I. c. hence. .

146. d. b. b. b. singing Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin Feco-oral route Unpasteurized milk or dairy products a. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means. b. d. c. Category III d. d. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called: Ghons complexes Caseous necrosis Consumption Cavity a. 144. b. 145.139. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if: Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs 140. Category IV 148. d. Category II c. The major cause of disability in the world is brought by: Leprosy Tuberculosis Pneumonia Poliomyelitis a. b. 142. has a new smear negative PTB with minimal parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray? a. c. c. c. except: Coughing. The patient is considered non-infective after: Two to four weeks after therapy one week after therapy after negative Microscopic Examination result after negative chest X-ray a. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must: Category I Category II Category III . c. Category I b. d. Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza? Contact isolation Vaccination each year especially for travelers Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine Adequate nutrition a. b. d. c. Which of the following TB category according to DOH. c. sneezing. b. except: Gram positive and rod shape Acid-fast and highly aerobic Can be killed by drying and disinfectants May cause delayed hypersensitivity reaction a. 147. 143. The following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 141. d. c. TB in the bones is also known as: Miliary Tuberculosis TB meningitis Pott’s disease Extrapulmonary TB a. b. c. d. a. a.

c. Allergic reaction is frequently observed with: Rifampicin Ethambutol Pyrazinamide Isoniazid a. c. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test? 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR 10 mm induration for those with DM. a. b. d. 158. 154. . b. d. d. d. Afternoon fever c. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting tuberculosis? a. Side effect of Ethambutol is: Peripheral neuritis Orange bodily secretions Optic neuritis Ototoxicity a. 156. b. 157. 153. b. The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is: Direct sputum smear microscopy Chest X-ray Mantoux test Purified protein derivative a. b. 155. c. d. Induration of 8 to 10 mm. d. b. c. Category IV 149. Renal Failure and hematological problem 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss 10 mm for HIV patient a. TB formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately: Single drug formulation Fixed dose combination DOTS MDT paucibacillary a. c. Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB: Rifampicin Ethambutol Pyrazinamide Isoniazid a. 152. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is: Taking INH for prophylaxis 151. according to DOH. c. d. b. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form? Rifampicin Ethambutol Pyrazinamide Isoniazid a. Chest pain b. means? Past exposure to tuberculosis Positive tuberculosis case Immunocompromised patient Possible with HIV a. Shortness of breath 150. d. c. Cough for two weeks d.d. b. c.

d. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils. 160. Salmonella enteritidis d. 165. BCG immunization 159. d. Salmonella choleraesuis 167. Which of the following bleeding episodes indicates upper GI bleeding Hematemesis Hematochezia Melena Hemoptysis 162. d. HRZES for 2 months. c. b. A vector that transmits typhoid bacillus to its infective host: Mosquito Snail Fly . c. c.b. a. b. d. Healthy environment d. the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food. The causative agent of typhoid fever is: a. b. must: Take medication with food Take vitamin B6 Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision Have kidney and liver function test The recommended regimen for patients under category 2 is: a. BCG immunization came from what mycobacterium strain? Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium africanum Mycobacterium bovis Mycobacterium caninum a. Salmonella typhosa c. c. a. d. Salmonella enterica b. c. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor. except: Cook thoroughly Use safe water Separate raw and cook Use hand sanitizer a. Diet that is frequently ordered for a client with diarrhea: Acid ash diet Alkaline ash diet Bland diet High fiber diet a. b. during and after food preparation. TYPHOID FEVER 166. According to WHO. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect? Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius. 2 months of HRZE (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase) c. c. Wash hand before. HRZE for 1 month (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase) b. 2 months of HRZE and 2 month of HR (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase) 161. Good nutrition c. b. c. d. a. b. 163. 164. b. HRZES for 3 months (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase) d. a. Patients taking isoniazid primarily.

169. d. 174. a. b. c. d. c. d. Feces a. Shigellosis is also known as. b. d. c. b. c. d. c. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is: Rose spots on the abdomen Butterfly rash Stimson’s sign Forscheimer spots 168. except: Asylum dysentery Bacillary dysentery Blood flux El tor 171. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent: . 176. c. b. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of 170. action? a. 173. d. c. Possible complication of typhoid fever includes. b.d. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage. 172. b. b. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause: Liver cirrhosis Aplastic anemia Sterility Blindness a. d. c. except: Intestinal perforation Hemorrhage Extraintestinal typhoid fever Peritonitis a. d. b. c. A cook of a restaurant is free from typhoid bacillus only if: 3 consecutive cultures are done. with one month interval and found negative After 48 hours of continued therapy and found negative during culture After a negative scotch tape result After 10 days of fecalysis and found negative a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea Burrowing to the Peyer’s patches of the small intestine Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically 177. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever: Increase IgG Increase IgM No Ig increase Increase in both IgG and IgM a. except: Typhoid psychosis Carphologia Subsultus tendinum Intestinal perforation a. b. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is: Chloramphenicol Ampicillin Ceftriaxone Penicillin a. d. 175.

d. the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is considered also a pathognomonic sign of cholera: a. Possible effects of diarrhea is: Respiratory alkalosis Hypokalemia Hypernatremia Respiratory acidosis 178. Cholera. Shflesneri Shboy-dii Sh-dysenteriae Sh-connei a. a. c. d. c. d. Drug of choice for cholera is: Ampicillin Tetracycline Cotrimoxazole Loperamide 185. Washerwoman’s sign d. c. 179. c. except: Violent dysentery El tor Washerwoman’s disease Flux a. b. d. Which of the following gastro-intestinal disease is caused by protozoa? Violent dysentery Typhoid fever Bacillary dysentery a. Sultus tendinum c. d. 181. approximately one half of a drinking cup 2 successive fecal sample twice a day Must be sent in the laboratory at once Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms a. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus. 183. d. c. milk and food Droplet transmission Transmission by fly a. c. c. b. except: Feco-oral transmission Contaminated water. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin: Ampicillin Tetracycline Cotrimoxazole Loperamide a.a. b. c. Rose spots on the abdomen 184. b. b. During the collapse stage of cholera. b. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis? Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result. d. b. 182. Another term to connote cholera is. dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and 186. b. 180. d. b. c. Marked mental depression b. 6 months immunity 1 year immunity 3 years immunity 5 months immunity . gives: a.

b. Drug of choice for Paragonomiasis is: Praziquantel Hetrazan Chloroquine Penicilin 192. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation: PTB Diptheria Pneumonia Pertussis a. Camarines region Sorsogon. 193. 196. Pangasinan and Zambales a. Antemelania asperata b. Paragonomiasis is endemic in the following areas. 194. PARAGONOMIASIS 190. Paragonimus siamenses 191. Alternative drug choice for Paragonomiasis a. Amebic dysentery 187. d. Diagnostic examination for Paragonomiasis are the following. c. c. d. Paragonimus westermani d. b. Cebu and Basilan Guimaras. d. a. b. d. a. c. c. BITIN . d. b. 195. c. except: Mindoro. b. d.d. The following are the possible modes of transmission of Paragonomiasis Ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs Contamination of food and utensils Drinking contaminated water Sexual contact a. b. The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis a. b. except: Sputum examination CSF analysis Immunology Fecalysis a. c. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is: Extraintestinal amebiasis Dehydration Hemorrhage Shock a. The drug of choice for amebiasis is: Chloramphenicol Cotrimoxazole Metronidazole Tetracycline 188. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is: Larva Cyst Trophozoites Gametocytes a. c. Varona litterata c. Samar and Leyte Albay. d. b. 189. d. c.

Drinking pure coconut milk b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion c. c. Classical clinical manifestations of PSP are the following. Drinking milk c. Take metronidazole. 202. d. c. except? a. 199. d. the least poisonous shellfish b. d. 198. as ordered. d. d. c. b. 205. Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)is commonly known as: Red Tide Green algae Poisoning Sting Ray Poisoning Paragonomiasis a.b. c. Those who have eaten pamaypay. Rifampicin Chloroquine Tetracycline a. let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize toxin. except: Tahong Talaba Halaan Pamaypay a. c. Those who urged and successfully vomited 204. 200. The most important means of preventing Paragonomiasis is: Sanitary disposal of excreta Food sanitation Avoid bathing in infected water Anti-mollusk campaign a. d. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution . c. b. Which of the following facts about PSP’s causative agent is not true? Caused by Dinoflagellates Common term is plankton Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer a. 201. Which of the following mollusks is the cause of PSP. in exception to: Paralysis Ataxia Dysphagia Urticaria 197. 203. b. c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfish’s poison d. a. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true: It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium The toxin affects the CNS primarily It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature a. b. b. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous shellfish? a. d. During the early stage of poisoning. b. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first: Drink decaffeinated coffee Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice. Induce vomiting. c. d. b.

while 6 to 14 are easily infected a. d. Causative agent of pinworm: Oxyuris vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Strogyloides stercoralis Trichuris trichuria a.d. Which of the following facts about botulism is not true: Manifest within 12 to 36 hours First 24 hours – critical Initial signs and symptoms includes dry mouth. 214. d. b. 211. Primarily. Liver b. weakness. Lungs c. b. c. b. d. a. d. 212. d. b. d. Kidneys . vomiting diarrhea Infants are rigid and muscle contraction is evident. c. sore throat. 210. 213. It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks: a. pinworms are transmitted through: Droplet Soil Fomites Airborne a. c. d. b. Which of the following facts about STH is not true? third most prevalent infection worldwide ranked top 10 among the World’s Top Ten Infectious Diseases Killer Deworming is the number one cost effective priority intervention among five to fourteen year group 2-5 years old are the reservoirs. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are. Another term for pinworm: Enterobiasis Strongyloidiasis Trichuriasis Ancylostosomiasis a. The pathognomonic sign of Pinworm infection is: Aplastic anemia Nocturnal ani Eczema Hemorrhoids a. Ascariasis lumbricoides is also known as: Pinworm Tapeworm Roundworm Threadworm 207. Drinking vinegar 206. b. 208. c. d. b. c. a. 209. The most common reason of botulism among infants is: Eating fecal material of the child Eating commercially prepared food such as Cerelac Introduction of honey to baby Inadequately boiled drinking milk a. c. b. b. d. c. c. 215. c. except: Ascaris lumbricoides Trichuris trichuria Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus) Oxyuris vermicularis a.

Ancylostomiasis is also known as: Pinworm Hookworm Roundworm Tapeworm a. 219. 222. 221. b. b. b. beef and pork. 220. 224. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish. c. b. b. GI tract a. c. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity. d. b. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by: Diphyllobothrium latum Taenia saginata Taenia solium Taenia baraziliense a. d. b. d. 217. b.d. The most effective measure against worm infections is: a. d. c. b. d. except: Reproduce even without host Eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite Eggs are the infective stage a. c. 223. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodanale infection can result: Eczema Ear infection Anemia Vitamin B 12 deficiency a. d. Avoid walking bare footed b. c. 218. c. d. Mebendazole and its drug family kills worms by: Paralyzing the worms Inhibiting the glucose intake of the worms Detoxifying their toxins Chemically altering their component 216. Threadworms are also known as: Enterobiasis Strongyloidiasis Trichuriasis Ancylostosomiasis a. d. Promoting hygiene . c. d. 225. c. c. Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form? Cysticerci Proglottids Rhabdozoites Sporozoites a. The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is: Stool Exam Scotch tape method Direct fecal smear Sigmoidoscopy a. Whipworm infection is caused by: Oxyuris vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Strogyloides stercoralis Trichuris trichuria a.

Also known as post-infusion hepatitis: Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D a. d. especially Vitamin B Complex 228. d. b. b. a. 235. Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the Hepatitis A: Blood screening for blood donation. d. b.g. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except: small. c. Hepatitis D 227. frequent feedings high CHO increase CHON high in vitamins. Hepatitis A b. Post infection of a fulminant hepatitis B: Hepatitis A Hepatitis C Hepatitis D Hepatitis F a. Hepatitis C d. Avoid oro-anal sexual intercourse No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin. c. a pathognomonic sign of hepatitis. c. appears on what stage of illiness: Pre-icteric Icteric Latent Post-icteric a. Vaccination Isolation Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis? a. b. b. (e. 230. sexual contact Semen Transfusion a. c. razor) a. d. b. it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer.c. c. Considered AIDS’ twin. 233. d. b. Transmission of hepatitis E includes which of the following? Feco-oral route Blood. HEPATITIS 226. 229. Hepatitis B c. c. b. 231. d. Relieve pruritus – warm. Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles. d. Jaundice. c. c. d. Most common type of hepatitis: Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D a. d. moist compress or emollient lotion . 232. second to tobacco: a. 234. Another term for hepatitis B is: Homologous serum jaundice Epidemic hepatitis Catarrhal jaundice Post-transfusion hepatitis a.

241. a. Liver protector – Essentiale) Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane: Exanthem Enanthem Papule Lesions 237. Health teaching – avoid alcohol Isolation precaution Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids. a.b. c. b. b.5 cc is introduced at deltoid muscle. b. b. d. Trim nails and wear mittens among children d. b. d. d. d. c. d. d. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems? a. c. 240. except” Conjuctivitis with photophobia Bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa Low grade fever Deep red macula-papular eruptions a. Use calamine lotion b. except: Begins at the hairline and behind the ears Appears at the trunk first (unifocal) Desquamation occurs after rashes Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed 239. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching MEASLES 238. c. ID AMV can be given as early as 6 months Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3 to 4 days a. c. d. paralysis and 243. d. except: Introduced once at nine months O. coma: a. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure. The pathognomic sign of measles is: Forscheimer spots Koplik’s spots Stimson’s sign Postherpetic Neuraglia a. 236. except: Three-day measles Rubeola Little Red Disease Morbili a. except: Pneumonia Otitis media Encephalitis Renal failure 244. d. a. Possible complication of measles include. c. Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations. b. c. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following. b. b. Administer anti-histamine c. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis Herpes Zoster African Sleeping Sickness . The following are the clinical manifestations of Measles. 242. Measles is also known as. c. c.

The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus c. It causes abortion d. except: Pink-red maculopapular rash Rashes are slightly bigger than measles Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking 248. b. b.245. Rothein 247. c. Papulae c. c. a. c. 249. This is observed because: a. Rubella b. d. Pustule 253. b. a. German measles is also known as. a. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its possible effect to the baby. b. The following are the possible complication of German measles. d. c. b. a. CHICKEN POX 250. a. b. . d. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox. d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus. except: a. Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following. c. Rubeola c. b. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote. 251. Roseola d. Penicillin prevents other infection accompanied possible by chicken pox. except: Congenital anomaly Otitis media Bronchopneumonia Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis The causative agent of chicken pox is: Herpes simplex Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus) Paramyxovirus Morbili virus The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is: Pneumonia Peripheral Neuropathy Cataract Shingles 252. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the: 9th months 15th month 12th month 14th month GERMAN MEASLES 246. c. a. Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox is given because: Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by what kind of lesion? a. Maculae b. d. Vesicle d. d.

a. nerves a. d. c. except: Ilocos region Basilan Sulu Aparri 260. Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox? Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10 Physical assessment Fecalysis CSF analysis on the 2nd day 255. 256. b. Cushing’s sydrome c. 1985 1987 1989 1991 a. Borderline . b. Indeterminate d. d. c. Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 258. Ramsay-hunt syndrome b. hearing loss. in: The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible: Leprosy Cholera Typhus Bubonic plague Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte a. d. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles. d. d. d. b. c. a. Tuberculoid c. loss of taste in half of the tongue and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as: a. c.254. c. 259. c. Psychotic syndrome d. Lepromatous b. b. b. along courses of peripheral sensory experienced by those with shingles is called: Postherpetic neuralgia Herpetic Blisters Dermatologic pain Shingle’s pain 257. Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent: Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome Reye’s syndrome Herpes Zoster Postherpetic neuralgia a. d. c. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis. 262. 261. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally symmetrical? a. b. b. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in: 1985 1987 1989 1991 a.

b. 268. 266. A patient with more than 5 lesions is categorized as: Single lesion paucibacillary Paucibacillary Multibacillary Tuberculoid a.263. c. d. b. Indeterminate d. d. nodules. c. 272. Change in skin color . Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months? 6 to 9 months 24 to 30 months 12 to 24 months 8 to 16 months a. d. Diagnosis of leprosy is currently based on: Positive slit skin smear Clinical signs and symptoms ELISA Antibody test a. and crusting of the nasal mucosa. c. Borderline 264. c. c. c. 267. obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs. d. a. d. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program: MDT DOTS IMCI MBS a. 270. Madarosis b. All but one is an early sign of leprosy: a. b. infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical. b. numerous and extensive. b. d. papules and macules are diffuse. Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy: Anhydrosis Lagopthalmos Madarosis Gynecomastia a. c. Tuberculoid c. b. d. a. c. 271. b. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy? 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months 12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months 265. In this type of leprosy. Lepromatous b. d. A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT? Three weeks One week After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment Four weeks a. Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders: Lepromatous Tuberculoid Indeterminate Borderline a. 269. b.

The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is: Sharing needles for injecting drug use Sexual contact Vertical transmission Blood transfusion 280. d. 276. d. . 450 mg c. Leprosy can be transmitted through: Blood Semen Sex Prolonged skin to skin contact a. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy? BCG immunization Leprosy vaccine Slit skin smear Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin a. d. 6 b. Nasal obstruction or bleeding Ulcers that doesn’t heal a. d. 277. d. c. 50 mg 278. c. c. 24 279. b. c. The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is: Clofazimine Rifampicin Dapsone Streptomycin a. b. c. 274. 600 mg b. 12 c. c. b. d. b. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB. 18 d. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except: Ofloxacin Rifampicin Clofazimine Minocycline a. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is: Syphilis Gonorrhea Chlamydia Trichomoniasis a. a. b. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy: Once a month then daily Once a month only Daily None 273. c. 281. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is recommended for a child with leprosy? a.c. d. b. 100 mg d. the patient should continue treatment until how many blister packs are consumed? a. d. b. 275.

b. a. except: Strain Morning drop GC Bad blood a. d. d. Trich c. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm c. c. Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea. d. The most common reportable sexually transmitted disease is: Trichomoniasis Chylamydia Syphilis Gonorrhea a. Males do not manifest any signs and symptoms for the first 10 days c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse. d. b. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because: Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism a. The drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea is: Penicillin Azithromycin Tetracycline Metronidazole 289. Females produces a vaginal discharge that is cheesy in appearance d. d. b. b. c. b. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism d. Lues b. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through: a. GONORRHEA 283. c. b. a. d. c. Females are asymptomatic carriers making transmission of disease very easy and undiagnosed b. 284. c.282. a. 292. These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high. 286. a. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact. Which of the following is true about gonorrhea? a. Gleet . 290. d. Another term to connote gonorrhea is. c. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion b. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because: These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another. b. What is the most effective means of preventing STI? Use of condom Contact tracing Drug compliance Routine screening of sexual workers The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is: Nocturnal ani Gleet Dyspareunia Chancre a. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal 288. c. b. d. c. Infection of the eyes among infants is not possible unlike tetanus neonatorum 291. 285. 287. except? PID Arthritis Kidney damage Liver cirrhosis Syphilis is also known as: a.

d. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is: a. c. c. b. Secondary c. where the blood vessels are severely damaged. Cases of chylamdia is difficult to trace and diagnose because: Microorganism is resistant to staining Females who are infected are usually asymptomatic Males do not report it because of cultural factors Microorganism looks like that of Treponema pallidum a. c. d. b. The presence of rashes. b. 303. Jack a. a. d. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics. c. c. b. is an indicator that the stage of syphilis is now at what stage? a. d. b. Latent d. 302. c. specifically a single injection of: Tetracycline Benzathine Penicillin Vancomycin Metronifazole a. Cheesy like discharge c. b. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can differentiated through culture test is: Syphilis Gonorrhea Trichomoniasis Herpes simplex 300. The incubation period of Trichomonas vaginalis is 10-20 days 14-21 days 10-30 days 4-20 days 301. b. a. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is: Syphilis Gonorrhea Chylamydia Herpes simplex a. The pathognomonic sign of syphilis is: Chancre Gumma Gleet Painful urination 293. c. b. 295. d. d.d. c. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people: Primary Secondary Latent Tertiary a. d. 294. Tertiary 296. d. b. The incubation period of syphilis is: 10 to 90 days 2 to 10 days 2 to 21 days 4 to 20 days a. 299. d. only be a. Primary b. Whitish with red spots discharge . White-greenish discharge with fish like odor b. c. 298. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is: Syphilis Gonorrhea Trichomoniasis Nonspecific vaginitis 297.

b. d. c. The possible complication of trichomoniasis is: PID Cervical cancer Sterility Blindness a. c. . c. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge a. Nursing management for Candidiasis includes: Provide a diet high in alkaline Provide care for itching Increase fluid intake Weigh the client everyday a. b. d. c. c. d. d. d. itching. b. c. 309. 310. c. 308. b. d. 314. c. b. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis. 305. d.d. c. d. 311. 312. The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is: Herpes simplex Syphilis Gonorrhea Candidiasis a. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is: Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome Hypo-immunity syndrome Acquired immune deficiency disease Venereal disease a. b. c. d. d. b. sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels: Type 1 Type 2 Latent type Type 3 a. 306. d. b. swished and swallowed Imidazole suppository five times a day for 2 weeks Myconazole retained for five minutes in the mouth then discarded Amphotericin B via IV a. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is? Metronidazole Tetracycline Penicillin Erythromycin a. c. b. 307. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing. 313. muscular pain and burning sensation is: Type 1 Type 2 Latent type Type 3 a. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS: 1983 1984 1985 1986 304. A kind of candidiasis manifested in the nails is known as: Onychomycosis Moniliasis Thrush Diaper rash a. Which of the following medication is effective against oral thrush? Nystatin solution taken 4 to 6 times a day. b. except? Cancer Diabetes Broad spectrum antibiotics Hereditary factors a. b.

d. One b. Four 319. 323. The transmission of HIV of a mother to her baby is known as: Vertical transmission Horizontal transmission Definitive transmission Diagonal transmission a. c. 321. Three d. Herpes Simplex c. d. b. d. a. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV: ELISA Western Blot Immunosorbent test Fluorescent Antibody test a. c. The second to largest region where AIDS is prevalent: Africa South East Asia Latin America Europe a. Pneumocystic carinii Pneumonia 324. b. b. b. a. 317. c. c. b. d. The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results no remarkable immune system defect? Sero-conversion period Cell-mediated period Fastigium period Early asymptomatic period 318. . except: a.315. 322. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and Western Blot diagnostic procedure? a. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are: Below 200 cells/mm3 Below 300 cells/mm3 Below 400 cells/mm3 Below 100 cells/mm3 a. b. The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is: Herpes Simplex Candidiasis Tuberculosis AIDS-related Dementia a. d. d. d. The causative agent of AIDS is: Retrovirus – HTLV-3 Human lentivirus immuno-deficiency virus Human immunocompetent virus G6 PD virus 316. c. Candidiasis d. Toxoplasmosis b. Two c. c. Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following. shows a. c. d. b. except: Sexual contact Kissing Blood transfusion Use of contaminated syringe 320. c. d. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as: Protease Reverse transcriptase Integrase Nuclease 325. c. b. Transmission of HIV is possible through. b. a.

b. 2-4 fish per square meter should be placed for immediate result 200 – 400 fish per hectare for delayed impact are bred. d. Hand washing c. will the a. c. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would likely best perform to prevent further infection: a. Drug of choice for HIV is: Indinavir Zidovoudine Ritonavir Acyclovir 330. b. . c.326. a. c. d. if the following characteristics is observed. Bio-ponds will be created by the Local Government Unit. 327. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells 329. all are true. c. According to the goals of Reproductive health. b. a. c. Stream clearing d. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10 minutes. d. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquitocausing diseases such as dengue and malaria? a. Use of OFF lotion to the skin 334. Every pregnancy should be intended Every birth should be healthy Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy Every sex should be free of coercion and infection a. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except: a. b. With a seal by the DOH. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis d. c. as inspected. soiled linen or any body fluids. Breeding of larva-eating fish c. a. It must have 156 holes/ square inch. d. d. except: Condom Contact-tracing Counseling Cooperation 332. d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must. a. as ordered b. What nurse do? Respect client’s inability to discuss problem Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted Let the patient sign a refusal slip Report patient to DOH at once 331. except: Janitor fish is an effective fish that eats larva. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions. Stream seeding involves the following considerations. d. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. c. d. b. except. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of: Household bleach Alcohol Iodine Hydrogen peroxide 328. 335. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito. c. b. except: a. b. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. b. Administration of antibiotics. 333. It must be tuck under the bed or mat. The four C’s of STD management includes all of the following. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen. Insecticide treated mosquito net b.

c. c. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans . except: . Brokenbone syndrome c. A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away: Safeguard Lifebuoy Likas Papaya Lanzones soap a. Brokeback fever 341. except: Culex fatigans Aedes Aegypti Aedes albopictus Aedes poecilus 342. d. c. d. b. 343. Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following. b. 344. b. b. d. DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER 340. Breakbone fever d. 338. dengue virus type: 1 2 3 4 a.336. d. known a. c. c. Dengue cases usually peaks in months of: July to November February to April September to December January to December a. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many hours? a. 2-3 hours only 337. b. b. b. c. d. the most common is. The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last: 1953 1958 1984 1985 a. 345. 12 to 24 hours d. Among the viral strain of Dengue. bits an animal proximal to it. d. A local plant that is proven to repel mosquito away: Talahib Tanglad Tsaang gubat Talong 339. 4-12 hours c. d. a. This technique is also as: Chemoprophylaxis Zooprophylaxis Faunoprophylaxis Malaria-dengue animal technique a. 24 hours b. Brickback fever b. Another term for dengue hemorrhagic fever is: a. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus. c.

d. b. Vomiting of blood b. rapid weak pulse. In what stage is Herman’s sign clinically manifested by the client? Febrile stage Hemorrhagic stage Circulatory failure stage Hypovolemic Shock a. b. except: a. a. d. Low flying mosquito Bites at the lower extremities Bites before sunrise and sunset Breeds on a flowing water a. Which of the following manifestations of the client. d. c. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is: Below 150 Below 100 354. a. Abdominal pain plus joint fever 348. that according to WHO. c. purpura d. 350. d. d. if possible comforters. Complete bed rest Provide warmth to patients. Liver Enzymes d. Abdominal pain with bone pain 351. b. Viral count 353. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue infection? a. except? Hemoptysis Melena Hematochezia Hematemesis 349. narrow pulse pressure d. b. . c. A positive Rumpel Lead’s test indicates that: Decrease blood supply is observed in the arm with tourniquet 20 or more petechiae are present per 1 inch square The client manifests general flushing of the skin Melena is observed in the stool 352. Fever lasting 2-7 days b. Thrombocytopenia c. b. Platelet count c. ecchymoses. Hypotension. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae. d. The virus attacks what blood formed element: Thrombocytes Megakaryocytes Eryhtrocytes Leukocytes 346. 347. c. c. c. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue? a. Troponin b. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue. may lead to definitive diagnosis of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever.a. a. a. Herman’s sign c. b. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue? Administer Vitamin K. b. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.

c. Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue? DAT Noodle soup Pineapple and watermelon NPO a. a. b. d. d. b. P. b. malariae P. vivax P. falciparum P. falciparum P. in every bout d. Anopheles mangyanus . Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases? Insecticide use Health education Hand washing Contact tracing a. d. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children c. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea 356. b. b. ovale 363. Below 50 Below 25 355. what would be the most appropriate nursing response? Provide ice chips Ice bag over the abdomen Low fat. c. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial 361. In cases that the client is experiencing melena. malariae P. d. Anopheles litoralis b. d. ovale a. c. The following are the characteristics of malaria-causing mosquito. Anopheles balabacensis d. d. 359. a. c. d. c. Which of the following species of plasmodium doesn’t exist in the Philippines? P. c. except: Only female mosquito bites Breeds on partly shaded water Bites at night Clean stagnant water is a good breeding site 362.c. the nurse understands that this management is aimed to prevent such case: a. low fiber diet Assume dorsal recumbent position a. cases: a. c. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution. 360. b. b. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children b. Anopheles flavistoris c. 358. Another term for malaria is: Brokeback fever Ague Bilharziasis Weil’s disease 357. d. vivax P. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the country? a.

the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce. c. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito? Sporozoites Merozoites Thropozoites Gametocytes a. During febrile stage. b. a. hot and diaphoretic stage. c. 367. 369. 373. Fever is evident in a particular period of time and not all through the disease process because: a. 372. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community: Malarial Blood Smear Quantitative Buffy Coat ELISA Nocturnal Blood Examination a. 368. iron is sequestered by the liver. c. then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day d. During febrile stage. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of malaria? a. c. a. b. d. c.364. then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day c. c. d. The protozoan stage present in the RBC. Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose: a. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days. then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day b. then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine? . the gametocytes are produced. b. multiplies and causes lysis: Sporozoites Merozoites Thropozoites Gametocytes a. b. c. b. The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the: Lungs Kidneys Liver Gall bladder a. The protozoa Plasmodium causes organ failure due to: Production of toxins that causes cell death Clogging of rigid RBC’s infected by the plasmodia Formation of merozoites that inhibits cellular metabolism Sequestration of water from the cell causing cellular lysis or dehydration 366. d. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days. Amazingly. 370. b. Humans b. d. Mosquito d. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. During febrile stage. d. d. The drug of choice against malaria is: Chloroquine N-diethyl-D-toluamide Pyethrinoids Biltricide 371. Fly 365. Streams c. b. patients with malaria have a cycle of cold. During febrile stage toxins are present. d.

scrotum or breast is known as: a. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects: Corticosteroids / antihistamine Penicillin Metronidazole Amoxicillin 381. d. d. b. Lymphadenitis. A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime: NBE ICT MBS ELISA a. b. b. It should be given before meals. Lymphangitis. Drug of choice for filarisis is: Hetrazan Biltricide Chloroquine Praziquantel a. b. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities. .a. Which of the following term is use to connote Filariasis? Elephantiasis Schistosomiasis Ascariasis Trichenelliasis a. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication. Elephantiasis d. 377. a. d. c. 376. d. b. Lymphedema b. The immediate source or vector of Filariasis is: Aedes Aegypti Anopheles flavistoris Aedes poecilus Anopheles mangyanus a. d. 378. except: Region V Region IX Region X Region XI a. c. 379. b. d. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed. d. c. d. a. Lymphadenitis c. 375. c. 382. b. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color. c. where Filariasis is said to be endemic are. b. c. The following regions in the Philippines. c. epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis? Asymptomatic stage Acute stage Chronic stage Immune stage 374. Funiculitis 380. b. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases: Wuchureria bancrofti Brugia malayi Brugia timori Oncomelania quadrasi a. c. d. c.

393. c. d. b. c. 389. haematobium S. d. b. c. b. 390. b.383. d. Alternative drug for S. d. c. d. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is: S. d. d. Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through: Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys Lymphoveous anastamosis Inversion and resection of tunica vaginalis Fistulectomy a. c. d. d. b. Nocturnal form of filariasis-causing microorganism is active during: 10 PM to 2 AM 8 PM to 12 PM 12 PM to 5 AM 7 PM to 10 AM a. c. The medical term similar to schistosomiasis is : Brokeback fever Ague Bilharziasis Weil’s disease a. schistosomium a. flood fever Spiroketal jaundice. 391. 388. 385. c. Japanese seven days fever Swineherd’s disease. c. b. The infective stage of Schistosoma is: Oncomelania Cercariae Trophozoite Gametocytes a. 387. The intermediate host of schistosoma species is: Oncomelania quadrasi Aedes poecilus Humans Cattle a. mansoni S. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species: . except: Weil’s disease. After exposure to water. b. standing 48 to 72 hours before use Use rubber boots a. c. a. b. c. 386. japonicum S. 392. Leptospirosis is also known as. mansoni is: Hetrazan Biltricide Metrifonate Oxamniquine a. b. b. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis: Hetrazan Doxycycline Chloroquine Praziquantel a. d. infectious jaundice 384. mud fever Trench fever. the susceptible individual must: Drink the medication that has been prescribed as prophylaxis Apply 70% alcohol to exposed area of the body Treat water with iodine.

d. icteric – septicemic and immune Anicteric – septicemic and jaundice. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. b. c. c. c. b. d. b. d. c. b. c. Urine – 7 days after c. icteric hemorrhagic and immune a. b. d. Blood – after 7 to 10 days b.septicemic and immune. CSF – during the 10th day d. c.jaundice and hemorrhagic. 400. 396. d. 399. b. anicteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic Anicteric . The following statement refers to the objective of EPI? Reduce the morbidity among infants and children To reduce the morbidity among children Reduce the mortality among the children Reduce the maternal mortality 398. The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis: Leptospiremic phase Immune phase Septicemic phase Hemorrhagic phase 394. . c. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis? Anicteric . 395. Which of the following is the primary carrier of Leptospira species? Snails Rats Dog Bats a. icteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic Icteric – septicemic and immune. d. Which of the following is incorrectly paired: a. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases? Information dissemination Education provision Communication Hand washing a. d.a. b. Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weil’s disease and is most virulent It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends Attacks and have a strong affinity to liver and gall bladder a. Feces – 3rd day 397. a. Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis? Use of rubber boots Eradication of rats Use of chemoprophylactic drugs Water treatment a.