IDBI Bank Previous year question paper

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IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012 Selection
Process:
IDBI Bank written test
Question type: Objective type multiple choice
IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Test of quantitative aptitude
Directions (Q.1.5) In each of the following questions a number series is given which has
only one wrong number. You have to find out the wrong number.
1 7.5 47.5 87.5 157.5 247.5 357.5 487.5
(1)357.5
(2)87.5
(3)157.5
(4)7.5
(5)47.5 (Ans)

2 1500 1581 1664 1749 1833 1925 2016

(1) 1581
(2) 1664
(3) 1833(Ans)
(4) 1925
(5) 1749

3 1331 2197 3375 4914 6859 9261 12167

(1) 4914(Ans)
(2) 6859
(3) 9261

(4) 2197
(5) 12167
4 13 16 21 27 39 52 69
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

21
39
27(Ans)
52
16

5. 66 91 120 153 190 233 276

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

120
233 (Ans)
153
276
190

What will come in place of the question marks (?) in the following questions?
6 22.5 ? 0.05 = ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

11.25
1.125 (Ans)
22.55
112.5
None of these

7 999 + 111 ? 0.5 = ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

555
500
1054.5 (Ans)
1110.5
None of these

8 40% of 250 = 50% of ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

200 (Ans)
100
150
400
None of these

9 (4)? = 1024
(1) 1
(2) 2

(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) None of these (Ans)

10. + + + 2/3 = ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

2 1/5
1/16
2 1/16
2 1/6 (Ans)
None of these

Directions (Q.11.15 ) Study the following table carefully and answer the question given
below. Installed Capacity and Production of Vehicles over the Years
image
11The only category of automobiles, which experienced a steady decline in production
was?
(1) Motor bikes
(2) Jeeps
(3) Autos
(4) Tempos
(5) None of these (Ans)
12 Which of the following statements are true?
I.All categories of automobiles experienced a growth in production between 2001 and
2002.
II. In 2002 the capacity utilization of jeeps was higher than the of motor bikes.
III. Cars, scooters and autos experienced a decline in production from 2001 to2002
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

I only
II only
III only (Ans)
II and III only
I and III only

13. Capacity utilization was the highest for which category of automobiles in the year
2002?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

Jeeps
Tempos
Scooter
Motor bikes (Ans)
None of these

114 Which of the following experienced no growth in installed capacity over the period of
2000 to 2002?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

Cars
Motor bikes
Jeeps (Ans)
Autos
None of these

15 Capacity utilization was the lowest for which category of automobiles in the year
2000?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

Scooters
Tempos (Ans)
Cars
Autos
None of these

Directions (Q.16-25) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
16 (98 ?198) (48 ? 148) = ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

3.13
2.43
2.73 (Ans)
3.53
2.41

17. (2.0001)3 =?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

6
6.75
5
4
8 (Ans)

18 5.6% of 240 0.3% of 480 = ?

(1) 8.43
(2) 9.33 (Ans)
(3) 7.53
(4) 8.33
(5) 13.44
19 ?4556 + ?7943 56 =?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

100 (Ans)
150
200
250
125

20. (1786 + 23.894 + 3251) 50 = ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

81
121
131
101 (Ans)
91

21 The perimeter of a square is 164 metres. What is the area of the square?
(1) 1089 sq. metres
(2) 1764 sq. metres
(3) 1661 sq. metres
(4) 1681 sq. metres (Ans)
(5) None of these

22. The product of two successive numbers is 1980. Which is the smaller number?
(1) 34
(2) 44 (Ans)
(3) 35
(4) 45
(5) None of these
23. The difference between 55% of a number and 25% of the same number is 11.10.
What is 75% of that number?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

27.75 (Ans)
37
21.25
45
None of these

24. The average of the ages of 3 friends is 23. Even if the age of the 4th friend is added
the average remains 23. What is the age of the 4th friend ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

32
21
23 (Ans)
Cannot be determined
None of these

25. 8 men working for 9 hours a day complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many
days can 7 men working for 10 hours a day complete the same piece of work?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

21 days
20 3/5 days
20 days
21 3/7 days
None of these (Ans)

Directions (Q.26.) Study the following table carefully to answer these questions
Image.
26. What are the average marks obtained by all students in English?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

52.5
64.38
56.38
60.5
None of these (Ans)

27. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the student in Science?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

99
82.78 (Ans)
88.72
78.88
None of the above

28. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in all subjects? (rounded off
to two digits after decimal)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

72.88
76.28
73.17
72.68
None of these (Ans)

29. Which student has scored in Maths closest to the average marks in Maths?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

P
Q
T (Ans)
F
None of these

30. What is the ratio between total marks obtained in all subjects by F and G
respectively?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

87:89 (Ans)
89:87
67:69
69:67
None of these

31. If 12a +12b =45, what is the average of a and b?

(1) 3.75

(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

1.875 (Ans)
3.875
1.75
None of these

32. How much part of a day is 45 minutes?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

1/42
1/24
1/32 (Ans)
1/48
None of these

33. Samir drove at the speed of 45 km from home to a resort. Returning over the same
route, he got stuck in traffic and took an hour longer, also he could drive only at the
speed of 40 km. How many kilometers did he drive each way ?
(1) 250 km
(2) 300 km
(3) 310 km
(4) 275 km
(5) None of these (Ans)

34. What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 640, if the sum of the two
numbers, exceeds their difference by 32?
(1) 45
(2) 50
(3) 55
(4) 40 (Ans)
(5) None of these
35. On a test consisting of 150 questions. Rita answered 40% of the first 75 questions
correctly. What per cent of the other 75 questions does she need to answer correctly for
her grade on the entire exam to be 60%?
(1) 80 (Ans)
(2) 70
(3) 40
(4) 50
(5) None of these
Directions (Q.36.150) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,

while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question.

36. What is the speed of the bus?

I. The bus covers a distance of 80 km in 5 h.
II. The bus covers a distance of 160 km in 10 h.
37. What is the ratio of the number of fresher to the number of seniors a college?
I. The ratio of males and females in the college is 2:3
II. There are 1125 females fresher in the college.
38. What is Mr. Mehtas present income?
I. Mr. Mehtas income increase by 10% every year.
II. His income will increase by Rs. 2500 this year.
39. What is Nidhis age?
I. Nidhi is 3 time younger to Rani.
II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their ages is 72.
40. What is the ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys in the
school?
I. The ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, last year was 4:5
II. There are 3500 students in the school out of which 60% are boys.

IDBI stands for Industrial Development bank of India (IDBI) latest job recruitment
details,syllabus and examination pattern,IDBI banks job interview and written test
question paper and procedure for Probationary officer, Executive recruitment written test
pattern and procedure, specialists officers job recruitment questions papers with
answers,IDBI Date of Written Test at all centers,IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date
of Written Test :September 02, 2012 IDBI bank based general awareness,IDBI Learn and
practice model question papers with latest syllabus and pattern,IDBI free solved sample
placement papers of Test of Quantitative aptitude,IDBI Test of Reasoning,IDBI Test of
working English language solved question papers,IDBI bank fully solved previous years
question papers,IDBI bank upcoming job interview written test examination details and
syllabus latest test pattern ..

IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012 Selection
Process:
IDBI Bank written test
Question type: Objective typemultiple choice
IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Test of quantitative aptitude
IQs. 1-4. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
1. 14 13 22 55 212 1035
(1) 55
(2) 13
(3) 212
(4) 22
(5) None of these
(1) 14 1 12 = 13, 13 2 22= 22, 22 3 32 = 57,
57 4 4 2= 212, 212 5 52= 1035
55 is wrong, it should be 57
2. 217 224 213 226 210 228
(1) 213
(2) 226
(3) 210
(4) 228
(5) None of these
(3) By adding and subtracting alternatively 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 (all prime nos.) we get the
next term. In place of 210, it should be 209
3. 153 495 712 837 901 928
(1) 712
(2) 837
(3) 901
(4) 928
(5) None of these
(5) Add 73,63, 53, 43, 33 to get the next term495 is wrong, it should be 496
4. 488 245 124 64 35 20.25
(1) 124
(2) 64
(3) 245
(4) 35
(5) None of these
488+2/2=245,245+3/2=124,124+4/2=64,64+5/2=34.5,34.5+6/2=40.5/2=20.25
Inplace of 35,it shouldbe 34.5

5. A 250 metres long train crosses a platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the
train?
(1) 25 metres/second
(2) 20 metres/second

(3) 22 metres/second
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
(4) Length of platform is not given Speed of train
Length of train+ Length of platform/ Time taken
6. The compound interest earned on an amount of Rs 15,000 at the end of 3 years is Rs
3895.68. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(1) 8
(2) 6.5
(3) 5
(4) 12
5) None of these
3895.68 = 15000

7. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete
the same piece of work. 12 men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many
more days would 10 women alone require to complete the remaining piece of work?
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 16
(5) None of these
(1) Work done by 16 men in 8 days
= work done by 20 women in 16 days
? 16 8M = 20 16W ? 2M = 5W
12M + 10W 5/2= 12 + 10 = 40 W
20 16 = 320 women can do work in 1 day
40 women can do work in 320/40= 8 days
40 women can do work in 6 days
6/8 =3/4
Remaining work 1/4=
work women days
12016
1/4 10 x

8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FORMULATE be arranged?
(1) 81,000
(2) 40,320
(3) 3,62,880
(4) 1,53,420
(5) None of these
(3) There are 9 different letters
? No. of ways = 9! = 362880
9. The frogs in a pond increase by 10% at the end of every year. If at the start of the

year 2004, there were 2,14,000 frogs in the pond, then what would be the number of
frogs in the pond by the end of the year 2006?
(1) 2,35,400
(2) 2,68,940
(3) 2,64,328
(4) 2,98,644
(5) None of these
(5) Reqd no. of frogs = 214000 (1+10/100)3=284834

Q. 10-14. In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these
equations and find out the values of x and y and
Give answer If
(1) x<y
(2) x>y
(3)xy?
(4)xy?
(5) x=y or if the relationship cannot beestablished
10. I. 12x2= 6x
II. y + x2= 0.45
11. I.x=6.25
II. y== 6.25
12. I. 20x
33x + 7 = 0

15. On childrens day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But
on that particular day,120 children were absent. Thus, each child got 4 sweets extra.
How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 18
(2) 25
(3) 14
(4) 20
(5) None of these
(3) Children present = 540 120 = 420
Let the no. of sweets got by each child be x
? Total sweets = 540x = 420(x + 4) ? x = 14
16. A boat covers a distance of 24 kms in 10 hours downstream. To cover the same
distance upstream, the boat takes two hours longer. What is the speed of the boat in still
waters?
(1) 2 km/hr
(2) 2.8 km/hr
(3) 4 km/hr
(4) 4.2 km/hr
(5) None of these
(5) Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/hr

and that of stream be y km/hr

Downstream, speed of boat = x + y km/hr
Upstream, speed of boat = x y km/hr
On solving, we get x = 2.2 km/hr
17. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 121
sq cms. What is the area of the circle?
(1) 44 sq cms
(2) 154 sq cms
(3) 121 sq cms
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. Sonia started a business by investing Rs 60,000. Six months later Vivek joined her
by investing Rs 1,40,000. After one year Kirti joined them by investing Rs 1,20,000. At
the end of two years from the commencement of the business, they earn a profit of Rs
4,50,000. What is Viveks share in the profit?
(1) Rs 1,40,000
(2) Rs 1,98,500
(3) Rs 2,15,000
(4) Rs 2,10,000
(5) None of these
Ratio of profits = Ratio of the investments by Sonia,
Vivek and Kirti
= 60000 24 : 140000 18 : 120000 12 = 4 : 7 : 4
? Viveks share
7/4+7+4*450000= Rs 210000
19. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random,
what is the probability that only two of them are blue?
(1)49/55
(2)7/11
(3)28/ 55
(4)11/28
(5) None of these
Qs. 20-24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
1 and 3/4+1 and 5/8-2 and 4/5+1/2=
(1)2 and 7/40
(2)1 and 7/40
(3)2 and 3/40
(4)1 and 3/40
(5 None of these
21. 14 18.6 12 + 19.3 = ?
(1) 41
(2) 33.5
3) 291.9
(4) 8.32
(5) None of these

22. 84.2 642.1 78.4 563.5= 5?

(1) 18.2
(2) 9.8
(3) 11.9
(4) 12.6
(5) None of these
23. (4)2+ (3)2= ?
(1) 25
(2) 5
(3) 125
(4) 425
(5) None of these
24. 53% of 120 + 25% of 862 = ?% of 500
(1) 42.50
(2) 55.82
(3) 63.68
(4) 38.89
(5) None of these

Qs. 25-29. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give
answer:
(1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
StatementII alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
25. What is the area of the square?
I. Measure of the diagonal of the square is 80 cms.
II. The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of a circle.
26. What is Ashas present salary?
I. Her salary increases every year by 15 per cent.
II. She joined the organization seven years ago.
27. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
I. The compound interest acurred on an amount of Rs 1,500 at the end of 2 years is Rs
660.
II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
28. What is the total staff strength of the organization?

I. 75% of the staff consists of male employees.

II. The ratio of female to male employees in the organization is 1 : 3 respectively.
29. What is the two digit number?
I. The sum of the two digits of the number is 8.
II. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is lesser than the
original number by 18.
Qs. 30-34. Study the table carefully to answer the following questions:
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different subjects
30. What are the approximate average marks obtained by all students in Hindi?
(1) 45
(2) 51
(3) 62
(4) 59
(5) 66
31. What is the respective ratio of marks obtained by students A, B and C together in
Maths to the marks obtained by students D, E and F together in Marathi?
(1) 7 : 22
(2) 23 : 7
(3) 23 : 4
(4) 4 : 21
(5) None of these
32. Which student has scored the second highest in all the subjects together?
(1) D
(2) F
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these
33. In order to pass the exam, if the students need minimum 75 marks in Social Studies
and minimum 85 marks in Science, how many students have passed the exam?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) None of these
34. What is the percentage of marks obtained by B in all the subjects together? (rounded
off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 68.62
(2) 66.83
(3) 69.24
(4) 64.84
(5) None of these
Qs. 35-38. Study the graph carefully to answer thefollowing questions:

35. If the profit of Company B in the year 2003 was Rs 7,83,000, then what was its
profit in the year 2000?
(1) Rs 2,25,000
(2) 3,75,000
(3) Rs 4,16,000
(4) Rs 4,05,000
(5) None of these
36. What is the approximate average per cent profit of Company B over the years?
(1) 58
(2) 40
(3) 53
(4) 62
(5) 46
37. If the profit of Company A in the year 1999 was Rs 1.5 lakhs, what was its profit in
the year 2001?
(1) Rs 2.65 lakhs
(2) Rs 4.25 lakhs
(3) Rs 3.15 lakhs
(4) Rs 4.90 lakhs
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(1) Company B has made more profit than Company A in the year 2003.
(2) Profit made by Company A and Company B in the year 2000 is the same. the year
1999 from the previous year is 10 per cent.
(4) Company A has made lowest profit in the year 1999.
(5) Profit of Company A remained the same in the year 1999 and 2000.
39. What is the per cent increase in per cent rise in profit of Company A in the year 2001
from the previous year?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) 25
(5) None of these
Qs. 40-44. Study the table carefully to answer the following questions:
Number (in crores) of ball bearings manufactured by Six Companies over the years
40. What is the respective ratio of number of ball bearing manufactured by Company R
in the year 1999 to those manufactured by Company T in the year 2003?
(1) 16 : 17
(2) 17 : 16
(3) 23 : 21
(4) 21 : 23

(5) None of these

41. What is the approximate per cent increase in thenumber of ball bearings
manufactured by Company P in heyear 2004, from the previous year?
(1) 143
(2) 157
(3) 59
(4) 122
(5) 94
42. What is the average number of ball bearingsmmanufactured by all companies
together in the year 2002?
(1) 3360000
(2) 336000000
(3) 3360000000
(4) 33600000
(5) None of these
43. Number of ball bearings manufactured byCompany Q in the year 2000 is
approximately what per cent of the total number of ball bearings manufactured by it in
all
the years together?
(1) 24
(2) 32
(3) 11
(4) 29
(5) 17
44. How many more ball bearings need to be manufactured by Company S in the year
2004 to make the ratio between the number of ball bearings manufactured by
Company S to those manufactured by Company U in the year 2004, 54 : 83
respectively?
(1) 80000000
(2) 2500000
(3) 34000000
(4) 5000000
(5) None of these
Qs. 45-49. Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions:

45. What is the total number of men studying in the Institute?

(1) 1665
(2) 2421
(3) 2025
(4) 1954
(5) None of these
46. Number of women studying Marketing are approximately what per cent of the total
number of students in the Institute?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

5
12
15
7
2

47. What is the total number of men studying Banking and International Business?
(1) 1125
(2) 297
(3) 1015
(4) 594
(5) None of these
48. Number of women studying Finance are what per cent of the number of men
studying the same?
(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 95
(4) 70
(5) None of these
49. In which specialisation do the maximum number of women study?
(1) HR
(2) IT
(3) Marketing
(4) Finance
(5) None of these
IDBI stands for Industrial Development bank of India (IDBI) latest job
recruitment details,syllabus and examination pattern,IDBI banks job interview
and written test question paper and procedure for Probationary officer,
Executive recruitment written test pattern and procedure, specialists officers
job recruitment questions papers with answers,IDBI Date of Written Test at all
centers,IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02,
2012 IDBI bank based general awareness,IDBI Learn and practice model
question papers with latest syllabus and pattern,IDBI free solved sample
placement papers of Test of Quantitative aptitude,IDBI Test of Reasoning,IDBI
Test of working English language solved question papers,IDBI bank fully solved
previous years question papers,IDBI bank upcoming job interview written test
examination details and syllabus latest test pattern ..
IDBI Bank Executives Recruitment Date of Written Test :September 02, 2012
Selection Process:
IDBI Bank written test
Question type: Objective type multiple choice
a)Test of working English Language
English Section 2 Parts (50 Objective Type Questions in both parts )

b)Test of Reasoning
Reasoning Section 2 Parts
Part 1 - 75 Objective Type Questions in
Part 2 - 100 Questions
c) Test of Quantitative Aptitude -Parts
Part 1-Mathematics/Maths section -50 Objective type questions
Part- 2 40 questions
REASONING ABILITY
1. In a certain code BASKET is written as '5%3#42' and A R M is written a s ' % @ 9 ' .
H ow is T E RM written in that code ?
(1) 23@9
(2) 249
(3) 4 2 @9
(4) 2 4 @9
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word C H R O N ICLE each of which
has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) T w o
(4) Thre e
(5) More than three
3. The positions of how many digits in the number 53269718 will remain unchange d if
the digits with-in the numbe r are rearranged in ascending order ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) T w o
(4) Thre e
(5) More than three
4. In a Certain code A R C H I V E is written as D S B G F W J. H o w is SYSTEMS written
in that code ?
(1) T Z T S T NF
(2) T Z T U T NF
(3) T Z T S F NT
(4) RXRSTNF
(5) None of these
5. If 'R' denotes 'divided by'; T' denotes 'added to'; 'W denotes 'subtracted from' and 'B'
denotes 'multiplied by', then 15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 = ?
12
(3) 27
(4) 3
(5) None of these

6. Wha t should come next in the bfollowing letter series ?

IHGFEDCBA1HGFEDC
IHGFE
(1) I
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) T w o
(4) Thre e
(5) More than three
8. Pointing to a boy, Sunita said "He is the son of my grandfather's only son". How is the
boy related to Sunita ?
(1) Son
(2) Nephew
(3) Uncle
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
9. T h e positions of the first and the fifth d i g i ts i n t h e n u m b e r 89123654 are
interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged
and so on. Which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the
rearrangement ?
(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 1
(4) 2
(5) None of these
10. 'MP' is related to 'HK' in the same wa y as 'WZ' is related to ?
(1) QS
(2) RU
(3) PS
(4) QU
(5) None of these
Directions ( 1 1 - 1 6 ): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II give n below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and
Give answe r (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answe r (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,

while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answe r (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question.
11. How is 'sure' written in a code language ?
I. 'he is sure' is written as ja ha ma' in that code language.
II. 'is she sure' is written as 'ka ja ma' in that code language.
12. What is Rs position from the left end in a row ?
I. M is tenth from the left end of the row.
II. T h e r e are sixteen children between M and R.
13. How is J related to M ?
I. M has only one brother and two sisters.
II. J is daughter of T who is wife of M.
14. T o wn P is towards which direction of town T ?
I. T o wn T is towards South of town K which is towards West of town P.
II. T o wn R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.
15. A m o n g P, Q, R, S and T each having different age, w h o is the youngest among
them ?
I. Q is younge r than only P.
II. S is older than only R.
16. On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi ?
I. Soura v visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday but not on an odd day of the
week.
II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday.
Directions (17-22) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed
by three conclusions numbered 1,' II and III. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
17. Statements:
All chairs are fires.
Some fires are winds.
AllWinds are nets.
Some nets are clocks.
Conclusions:
I. Some clocks are winds.
II. Some nets are fires.
III. Some winds are chairs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
18. Statements:
Some tyres are ropes.
Some ropes are tents.
Some tents are walls.
Some walls are buildings.
Conclusions:
I. Some buildings are ropes.
II. Some walls are ropes.
III. Some tents are tyres.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
{4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
19. Statements:
All desks are pillars.
All pillars are circles.
Some circles are squares.
Some squares are rectangles.
Conclusions:
I. Some rectangles are pillars.
II. Some circles are desks.
III. Some squares are desks.
(1) Nonefollows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
20. Statements:
Some beads are rings.
Some rings are bangles.
All bangles are clothes.
All clothes are boxes.
Conclusions:
I. Some boxes are bangles.
II: Some clothes are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
(1) Nonefollows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
21. Statements:

Some plates are knives.

All knives are chains.
Some chains are wheels.
All wheels are poles.
Conclusions:
I. Some poles are chains.
II. Some wheels are knives.
III. Some chains are plates.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements:
All sticks are hammers.
No hammer is dress.
Some dresses are doors.
All doors are cots.
Conclusions:
I. Some cots are hammers.
II. No cot is hammer.
III. Some dresses are sticks.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or II follows
(5) Only either I or II and III follows
Directions (23^28) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below :
F4J2E%MP5W9@IQR6
UH*3Z7*ATB8V#G$YD
23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group ?
(1) 2 4
(2) P W M
(3) R I 6
(4) R U Q
(5) V G 8
24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement ? '
JEM591RU3?
(1)7AB
(2) 7 AT
(3) * 7 8
(4) A B V
(5) None of these

25. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number?
(l)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
26. Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end
of the above arrangement ?
( DM
(2)T
(3) #
(4) 2
(5) None of these
27. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following
will be the fourteenth from the left end ?
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) U
(4) 3
(5) None of these
28. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?
(l)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (29-34) : In the following questions, the symbols 8, *, %, @ and are used
with the following meaning as illustrated below :
'P * Q' means 'P is not greater than Q\
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q\
'P % Q' means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
' P 8 Q' means 'F is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and
give your answer accordingly.
29. Statements:
R K, K6 M. M * J
Conclusions:
I. J 5 K II. M R
III. M % R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true

(3) Only II is true

(4) Only either II or III is true
(5) Only III is true
30. Statements:
D @ K, K % F. F B
Conclusions:
I. F 8D II. B @ K
III. B % K
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) Only either II or III is true
(5) Only either II or III and I are true
31. Statements:
H W, W @ N. N % R
Conclusions:
I. R 8 W II. N 5 W
III. H @ R
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of these
32. Statements:
Z % M, M * F, F 8 D
Conclusions:
I. F % Z II. F 8 Z
III. D @ Z
(1) Only I is true .
(2) Only either 1 or II is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) None of these
33. Statements:
R 8 B, B N , N @ T
Conclusions:
I. N @ R II. T 8 B
III. T 8 R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only 1 and II are true
34. Statements:
W K. K 8 R, R % N

Conclusions:
I. N @ K II. R @ W
III. W 8 N
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only either II or III is true
(3hOnly II and III are true
(4) Only I and III are true
(5) All I, II and III are true
Directions (35-40) : In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2). (3) and (4). You have to find out
which of
the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following
coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination
as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters,
mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.
Letter R E A U M D F P Q 1 0 II N W Z B
Digit/ 7 1 $ 6 % 8 5 * 4 9 3 1 ?
Symbol
Code
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the third letter is a vowel, their codes are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the fourth letter is a consonant, both are to be coded
as the code for the vowel.
(ill) If the second and the third letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code
for the third letter.
35. EMIRDP
(1) #%978*
(2) #%9#8*
(3) 7%9#8*
(4) #9%78*
(5) None of these
36. HUBDIM
(1) 6289%
(2) 2689%
(3) 6289
(4) 629%
(5) None of these
37. FWZERA
(1)581 #7$
(2)588#7$
(3)5817#$
(4) 511 #7$
(5) None of these
38. PQIMHZ
(1) *49%1

(2)
(3) *49*.l
(4)
(5) None of these
39. NUBAQE
(1) 263$4#
(2)%49*1
(3)949% 1
(5) None of these
40. OREDHM
(1) @7*8%
(2), #7#S%
(3) @78#<9%
(4)!.@7@^;^'
(5) None of these
Directions (41-45) : Study -jthc following information carefully and answer the questions
given below :
A, B, C, D, E. F, G. H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is fourth to the
left of G who is second to the right of C. F is fourth to the right of C and is second to the
left
of K. A is fourth to the right of K. D Is not an immediate neighbour of either K or B. H is
third to the right of E.
41. Who is second to the right of K ?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) Data inadequate
42. Who is third to the right of H ?
(DA
(2) D
(3) G
(4) F
(5) None of these
43. Who is fourth to the left of E ?
(ii A . .
(2) C
(3) G
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
44. Who is fourth to the right of D ?
(I) K
(2) H
(3) E
(4) B
(5) None of these

45. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first
and the second persons ?
(1) EKB
(2) CHB
(3) AGC
(4) FGD
(5) None of these