Professional Documents
Culture Documents
50
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE .............................................................................. 3
EXERCISE-5 .............................................................................................. 51
EXERCISE-6 .............................................................................................. 51
EXERCISE-7 .............................................................................................. 52
EXERCISE-8 .............................................................................................. 53
NUMBERS .................................................................................................... 9
EXERCISE-9 .............................................................................................. 54
EXERCISE-10 ............................................................................................ 55
EXERCISE-11 ............................................................................................ 56
EXERCISE-12 ............................................................................................ 58
EXERCISE-13 ............................................................................................ 59
EXERCISE-14 ............................................................................................ 61
INDICES - SURDS....................................................................................... 28
EXERCISE-15 ............................................................................................ 62
LOGARITHMS ............................................................................................ 29
TABLES ..................................................................................................... 64
BAR CHARTS............................................................................................. 64
PROGRESSIONS......................................................................................... 34
PROBABILITY ............................................................................................ 37
STATISTICS ............................................................................................... 38
MISCELLANEOUS ...................................................................................... 68
TRIGONOMETRY ....................................................................................... 41
EXERCISE-1 .............................................................................................. 47
CLOCKS .................................................................................................... 96
EXERCISE-2 .............................................................................................. 48
CALENDARS .............................................................................................. 98
EXERCISE-3 .............................................................................................. 49
5.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
SIMPLE EQUATIONS
1.
2.
3.
4.
=>
3x =12
x =8
The number is 8.
= 9 => R = 18
6.
Choice (3)
Let the cost of each Samosa and Puff be Rs.S and Rs.P respectively.
From the data,
S + 2P = 14 -> (1)
3S + P =17 -> (2)
2x (1) + (2) => 2S + 4P = 28
3S + P = 17
--------------5S + 5P = 17
The cost of 5 Samosa and 5 Puffs is Rs.45
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
7.
Let the two digit number be 10x + y. When its digits are reversed it becomes 10y + x
The difference is ( 10x + y) (10y + x)
= 9x 9y =9(x y)
Given that the two digits differ by 4, (x - y) = 4
The difference = 9(x - y) = 9 * 4 = 36
Choice (3)
8.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (4)
Let the cost of each pencil and each pen be Rs.x and Rs.y respectively. From the data,
2x + 3y = 8 -> (1)
3x + 2y = 7 -> (2)
Adding (1) and (2) , we get 5x + 5y = 15
The cost of 5 pencils and 5 pens is Rs.15
Note that in some cases it is not necessary to solve individually for x and y.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
(ii)
(iii)
=
=
11. Let the cost of each sharpener and eraser be S and E respectively.
From the data,
3S + 4E = 25 -> (1)
4S + 3E = 24 -> (2)
(1) + (2) =>
7S + 7E = 49
7(S + E) = 49 => S + E = 7 -> (3)
(1) (3) * (3) =>
3S + 4E = 25
3S + 3E = 21
----------------E=4
Substituting E = 4, in (3) we get
3 + 4 = 7 => S= Rs.3
The cost of each sharpener Rs.3 and that of each eraser is Rs.4
12. 2x + 4y = 8 ->(1)
3x + 6y = 8 ->(2)
Multiplying the equation (1) with 3
6x + 12y = 24 ->(3)
Multiplying the equation (2) with 2
6x + 12y = 20 ->(4)
From (3) & (4), we find that, the two equation are inconsistent.
There is no solution for the set of equations i.e. Zero solution.
13. 2x + 6y = 12 -> (1)
3x + 9y = 18 -> (2)
3 * (1) => 6x + 18y = 36 -> (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
15. Let the cost of each chocolate, cake and milk shake be Rs.a, Rs.b and Rs.c respectively.
From the data,
2a + 4b + 3c = 17 -> (1)
a + 2b = 4 -> (2)
The corresponding coefficients of a and b in both the equations are in the same ratio
i.e., We can find the value of c
(1) 2 * (2) =>
2a + 4b + 3c = 17
2a + 4b
=8
-----------------------3c = 9
C=3
The cost of each milk shake is Rs.3.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
2.
3.
4.
a:b=2:7
2a : 3b = 2 x 2 : 7 x 3 = 4 : 21
Choice (1)
x: y = 3: 7 --- (1)
y : 3 = 7 : 4 --- (2)
from (1) and (2) we have
x : y : z = 3 : 7 : 4, since y = 7 in both the ratios.
i.e. x : z=3 : 4
Choice (4)
5.
6.
7.
a : b=7 : 4
By applying component and dividend we get
(a + b): (a - b) = (7 + 4) : (7 - 4) = 11 : 3
p: q=4:1
p = a + b, q = a - b
(a + b) : (a - b) = 4 : 1
By applying component and dividend
We get (a + b) + (a - b) : (a + b) - (a - b) = (4+1) : (4 - 1)
2a : 2b = 5 : 1
a:b=5:3
8.
Let the marks obtained in maths, physics and chemistry be 2x, 3x and 4x respectively.
i.e. Total marks = 2x + 3x +4x = 9x = 189
x = 21
i.e. The marks obtained in maths is 2x = 2 x 21 = 42
Choice (2)
9.
Let the number of working days and the salary be x and y respectively.
yx
y = kx.
25 = k * 10,000
10,000 = k.25
k = 400
If x = 26,
y = x * k = 26 * 400 = RS.1 0,400
Choice (4)
10. x
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
xy = k
9 * 30 = k
If x = 6, y =
= 45
11. A B. C
A = k . BC
300 = k (20) (50)
K=
When A = 900, c = 60
900 = * B * 60
B = 50
Choice (3)
Let the number of male employees be 8x and the number of female employees be 7x
Total number of employees = 8x + 7x = 15x = 30
x=2
i.e. Number of male employees is 16 and that of female employees is 14.
If two female employees are recruited then the total number of female employees will be
14 + 2 = 16 which is equal to that of male employees.
Then the ratio becomes 16 : 16 i.e. 1: 1
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
12. P (Q + R)
P = K (Q + R)
If Q increased by 2 and R inversed by 2, then P increased by4k [ i.e. P = k(Q + R + 4)].
Since k is not known, 4k cannot be found.
Choice (4)
13. x
xyz = k
when x = 5, y = 7 and z = 8
k=5*7*8
when y = 4 and z = 10
x * 4 * 10 = 5 * 7 * 8
x=7
Choice (4)
Let 100 be the price of the product, if it is increased by 10%; the price will become 110.If
this price is decreased by 10%, then the final price will be 99.A decrease of 1%. Any price
when first increased and then decreased by x%, then the Change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
(x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease.
Choice (2)
2.
Any price if first decreased and then increased by x% then the change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
Let Rs.100 be the price of the product, if it decreased by 10%, the price will become Rs.90.
If this price is increased by 10% than the final price will be RS.99.
The change is 1 % decrease
(x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease.
Choice (2)
3.
Let the original price be Rs.100. Price after increase = Rs.135. When the price after
increase is Rs.54, original price =
x 100 = Rs.40
Choice (3)
:
17. a = 50% of b =
b = 25% of c =
c = 4b
a : c = : 4b = 1 : 8
18. Let the present ages of the two persons be 3x years and 5x years
From the data,
(3x + 5) : (5x + 5) = 2 : 3
9x + 15 = 1 Ox + 1 0
x=5
The present age of the younger person is 3x = 3 x 5 = 15 years.
19. Let the weights of Arun and Bala be 4x kg and 5x kg respectively.
4x + 5x = 45
x=5
Weight of Bala = 5x or 25 kg
20. x = A
Choice (4)
Alternately the price of the product after being increased by 35% will become to 1.35 times
the original price. The original price =
= Rs.40
Choice (3)
4.
Let the salary of each person be Rs.x The total salary = Rs.2x. Total salary after the changes
in the salaries of the two persons = x (1 +0.1)+ x (1 -0.1) = Rs.2x
There is no change in the total Salary.
Choice (3)
5.
If the price of a product is decreased by 10%. Then it becomes 0.9 times the original price
The original price = =Rs.80
Choice (4)
6.
Let the price of the product B be Rs.100. The price of the product 'A will be Rs.200. Total
price of A and B = 100 + 200 = Rs.300. The price of A after 10% Increase = 200(1.1) =
Rs.220
The price of B after 25% Increase = 100(1.25) = Rs.125
Total price = 220 + 125 = Rs.345
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
wnere A is constant.
A=
=1
i.e. x =
when y = 216, x = 6
Alternative solution:
=
x 100 = 15%
7.
--- (1)
100
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
9.
salary.
Choice (3)
100 = Rs.125
100 = 20%
Choice (2)
= 300%
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
100
x 100 = 30%
Choice (3)
100
= Rs.300
14. Given that shop keeper incurred a loss of 10% after selling the item at Rs.36
90% of the cost price of the item = 36
The cost price of the item = x 100 = Rs.40
30% profit = 40
= Rs.12
Choice (2)
i.e., 9 % less.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
100
Bs share =
=
13. Let the total salary of first 30 employees before hike be Rs. X
The total salary of these 30 employees after 20% increase will be x (1.1) = 1.1x
Let the total salary of remaining 20 employees before like be Rs.y
The total salary of these 20 employees after 20% increase will be y (1.2) = 1.2 y
Total percentage change in the salary = p%
=
100
As p depends on the values of x and y we cannot find the percentage increase in the total
8400 = Rs.4800
Choice (2)
= Rs.6.50
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
By selling one piece 1 the profit made is equal to of the cost price.
Profit percentage =
100 = 66 %
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
21. Let the total income of the family before Karan's increment be Rs.100 Karan's income is
Rs.30
Karan's income after increment is 30 x (1 + ) = Rs.35
Total income of the family = 100 - 30 + 35 = RS.105
Karan's contribution =
1 00 = 33 %
Choice (1)
) 75 = 75=RS.100
Choice (1)
27. Anil and Nikhil invest same amount of money for the different time periods. .. The profits
are shared in the ratio of respective time periods.
The ratio is 8:12 i.e., 2 : 3
Anil's share is
i.e., of the total profit
Which is 1,000 = Rs.400.
Choice (2)
28. Rajath invested RS.10,000 for eight months and Manoj invested RS.6,000 for six months.
The ratio of profit that is to be shared
10,000 8: 6,000 12 = 10: 9
Manoj's Share is
of the total profit
i.e.,
5,700 = RS.2,700
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Rs.60
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
NUMBERS
1.
Choice (3)
2.
Choice (2)
3.
The tens digit of a perfect square ending with 6 is always odd. So, a perfect square can never
end with 46.
Choice (2)
4.
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (3)
Because, the money invested in 6% stock, every stock of face value of RS.1 00 gives an
Income of RS.6 end of the year.
200 units will give 200 6 = RS.1200.
6.
It is useful for the students to remember the perfect squares up to 502. None of 136, 236,
336, 436, 536. 636. 736, 836 and 936 is a perfect square.
Choice (2)
Yield percent =
7.
8.
The three-digit perfect squares of the form A6B are 169, 361 and 961. So, whatever be the
number. A is always odd.
Choice (1)
9.
There is only one three-digit square of the form X9Y and that is 196.
Hence, X + Y = 1 + 6 = 7
10. The product of an m-digit and an n-digit number will have either (m + n - 1) or (m + n)
digits.
So, the given product has either 14 or 15 digits.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
33. 13% discount means the market value RS.87 where as the face value is RS.100
The number of units of this stock purchased
=
= 200
Choice (1)
= 30
= 40
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
11. The product of m-digit. n-digit and p-digit numbers will have either (m + n + p - 2),
(m + n + p - 1) or (m + n + p) digits. So. the given product has 25 or 26 or 27 digits.
Choice (4)
12. The least 15-digit number is 1 x 1014 and its square-root is 1 x 107, an eight-digit number.
The largest 15-digit number is (1 x 1015 - 1) whose square root is less that
x 101 =: 3.-3 x
101, which is also an eight- digit number. Note that while the square of an eight-digit
number has either 15 or 16 digits, the square root of a 15-digit number has exactly 8 digits.
Choice (2)
13. 2000 < (2ABC) < 3000
=> (2000)4 < (2ABC)4 < (3000)4
(16)(1012) < (2ABC)4 < (81)(1012)
both (16)(1012) and (81)(1012) have 14 digits. Hence, (2ABC)4 also has 14-digits.
Choice (2)
14. The smallest and the largest 23-digit numbers are [1 x 1022] and [1 x 1023 - 1] respectively.
Their cube roots are [310 107] and [3100 107] (approximately). In either case, the cube
root of a 23- digit number has exactly 8 digits. Note that, though the cube of an eight-digit
number has 22 or 23 or 24 digits, the square root of a 23-digit number exactly has eight
digits.
Choice (2)
Note: In general nth root of a M-digit number will
is not an integer, where
digits if
is an integer OR
+1 if
Choice (1)
17. A composite number may be even (like 4, 6..........) or odd (like 9, 15). Since we do not
know how many of them are even and how many are odd, we cannot say whether the sum
is even or odd.
Choice (3)
18. For the same reason as mentioned above, we cannot say whether the product of odd
number of composite numbers is even or odd.
Choice (3)
19. 2 is the only even prime number. Since we do not know whether 2 is included or not we
cannot say whether the required product is even or odd.
Choice (3)
20. Except 2 all other primes are odd. If all the primes are odd. then their sum would of also be
odd. But since the sum is given as even, hence 2 have to be one of them.
Choice (1)
21. 17017=17000+17=17(1001)
= 17(7)(11)(13) = (71)(111)(131)(171)
The number of prime factors of 17017 is 4.
Choice (4)
22.
Choice (1)
24. 0.
Choice (2)
=
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
15. Sum of two odd numbers is even. The even number (say 2k) of odd numbers can be written
as k such sums. So, it turns out to be sum of k even numbers, which is even.
Choice (1)
=0. =
23. 0
27. A number is a multiple of 11, if and only if the difference of the sum of the digits in the
even positions and that in the odd positions is a multiple of 11.
Only for 123321, this is true.
Choice (3)
28. If a number is divisible by 9, the sum of the digits is also a multiple of 9.
Sum of the digits = 28 + A = 36
=>A = 8
Choice (2)
29. Since the number 975321A is a multiple of 9, sum of the digits (27 + A) is also a multiple of
9.
=> 27 + A = 27 or 36 =>A = 0 or 9
Choice (4)
30. A number is divisible by 2n or 5n if the number formed by the last n digits, taken in that
order (from left to right), is divisible by 2 n or 5n respectively.
So, the number is divisible by 32, if F8768 is divisible by 32.
Since we do not know F, we cannot say.
Choice (3)
31. Applying the divisibility rule mentioned in the previous solution, we need to know if 9125
is divisible by 625. It is not divisible.
Choice (2)
32. Let N be the number and S be the sum of its digits.
N=9m+r
S = 9n + r
N - S = 9 (m - n), a multiple of 9.
Note: A number N and the sum of its digits S have the same 9's remainder.
Choice (2)
= 18
34. If LCM (A, B, C) = ABC, then every pair of A, Band C are co-prime.
Hence, HCF (A, B) = 1
35. Given HCF (A, B, C) = 1
Let (A, B, C) = (4, 6, 9)
HCF (4, 6, 9) = 1
But LCM (4, 6, 9) = 36
4x6x9
Let (A, B, C) = (3, 5, 7)
LCM (3, 5, 7) = 105 = (3)(5)(7)
36. (36)(63) = (23)(39)
The number of factors of the given number
= (3+1) (9+1) = 40
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
43. If a number has n distinct prime factors, it can be written as a product of co-primes in 2n-1,
ways. The given number has two prime factors. So, it can be written as a product of coprimes in 22 -1= 2 ways.
Choice (2)
44. The given number has 4 distinct prime factors. Hence it can be written as a product of coprimes in 24 -1, i.e., 8 ways.
Choice (1)
45. The sum of the factors of (23)(34)
= (13+1)(17+18) = 252
Choice (2)
40. 112=121
1112 = 12321
11112 = 1234321
111112 = 123454321
1111112 = 12345654321
47. Sum of the factors of a perfect number is twice the number. Hence K=2
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
48. If a , b, c, ..Are the prime factors of N, then the number of numbers less than N that are
co-prime to N, is
.
21
Choice (2)
49. N = (2 A+2C)(3b)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
50.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
51. 36=22*32
Choice (2)
46. 221=(13)(17)
Sum of the factors of 221
37. A number N is expressed as a product of the powers of its prime factors. If it is a perfect
square, the exponents of all the prime powers must be even.
(37) (511) [(3) (5)]5= (312) (516)
Hence, the number is a perfect square.
Choice (1)
=1815
Choice(3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
= a2+
a2+
Choice (3)
Rem
Choice (3)
= Rem
= Rem
54. a- = 2
=>
=a+bc
53. a+ =3
=>
62. a3 + b3 - c3 + 3abc
= a3 + b3 + (-c)3 - 3ab (-c)
= (a + b - c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab + bc + ca)
= a2+
a2+
55. x4+x2+1
= (x4+2x2+1)-x2=(x2+1)2-x2
= (x2-x+1)(x2+x+1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
N = 72n + 23
Rem
= 23 is
Rem
= is either 59 or 23
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
68. LCM of fractions first expresses the fractions in the simplest form. They
LCM =
Choice (2)
= 59
Let k = 2n
56. (7101+18101) is always a multiple of (7+18) i.e., 25. Note that an+bn is always a multiple of
(a+b) when n is odd.
Choice (2)
57. a+b=10 and ab=23
a3+b3=(a+b)3-3ab(a+b)
=103 3(10)(23) = 1000-690 = 310
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
=5
Choice (3)
= 10
Choice (3)
69. For the LCM of fractions, first express the fractions in the simplest form.
HCF =
HCF
=
= HCF
77. Rem
Choice (3)
70. When finding the HCF of more than two numbers, each number must be involved in the
HCF functions at least once.
For e.g. HCF [a, b, c, d]
= HCF [HCF (a, b, c), d]
HCF [HCF (a, b, c), HCF (b, c, d) and so on
HCF [a, b, c, d] = HCF [HCF (a, b) HCF (c, d)]
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Rem
79. Rem
= Rem
= Rem
=1
Choice (4)
= Rem
=4
= Rem
=1
Choice (1)
= Rem
= Rem
=7
= Rem
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
= (-1)175
=-1 or 13 - 1= 12
Choice (2)
82. A number is divisible by 19 If twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the number
results in a multiple of 19. If the result of twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the
number is a large number, we repeat the procedure till we get a number which can readily
be identified whether it is a multiple of 19 or not carrying out this process for all the
options it can be found that only 554781 is divisible by 19.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
=ab
=4
80. Rem
9, and so on
= Rem
Rem
Choice (1)
73. The units digit of 137682533 is the same as the units digit of 82533
The last digit of 8n repeats in a cycle of 4.
81
, 8 2 4 , 8 3 2 , 84 6 , 85 8 , 8 6
, 8 5 2 , and so on
2533
4(k)
+
1
8 =8
8
74.
= Rem
Rem
71. The same rule (as mentioned) above holds good for LCM.
Hence LCM (a, b, c, d, e)
= LCM [LCM (a, b), LCM (c, d) LCM (a, e), LCM (b, c)]
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
25 the number of
Choice (1)
83. 1 + 3 x 4 2 of 0.5
= 1 + 3 x (4 1) = 1 + 3 (4) = 13
Choice (2)
84. 5 is present in the first 30 odd numbers. All odd multiples of 5 end with 5.
Hence the product of the first 30 odd numbers ends with 5.
Choice (1)
85. Similarly the product of the first 75 even numbers ends with a 0.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
91. (2 ) (3 ) (5 ) = 2 (3
) (5
)
Hence it must be divided by (32) (51) i.e., 45 to make
the resulting number a perfect cube.
Choice (4)
92. The least perfect cube greater than 399 is 83 i.e., 512.
Hence 113 must be added to 399 so that the sum is a perfect cube.
Choice (3)
3(3)
2(3)+2
Choice (1)
99. The side of the smallest square that can be formed with dimensions 3 x 2 is LCM (3, 2) i.e., 6
Hence its area is 36.
Choice (3)
100. A number divisible by 5, 6 and 8 is always divisible by LCM (5, 6, 8) i.e., 120.
The three-digit multiples of 120 are 120, 240, 360, 480, 600, 720, 840 and 960.
Choice (3)
2(3)+1
1.
If two sides of a triangle are a, b and the included angle is C, then the area is given by
ab sin C= (4)(5)(sin 30)=5 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
2.
If the in radius and semi perimeter a triangle are known, then the area of the triangle is
given by product of the in radius and semi perimeter i.e., Area=rs
Choice (4)
4.
If the three sides and the circum radius of a triangle are known, the area of the triangle is
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (1)
3.
three sides divided by four times the circum radius i.e., area=
= 12 sq.cm
=4
sq.cm.
Choice (3)
6.
7.
7,8) + 6= 56k + 6
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
. In right-angled triangle,
16. Let D be the mid-point of BC. If in a triangle, the three sides are known, then the sum of the
twice the sum of squares of the median to the third side and the half of the third side.
(Apollonius Theorem)
i.e., AB2+ AC2=2 [AD2+ ( ) 2] = 2[AD2+BD2]
9.
Choice (1)
The in radius of a triangle is always, less than the half of the smallest attitude. Given the
length of the smallest attitude is 6 cm, the in radius is always less than 3 cm.
Choice(3)
In an isosceles triangle, all the four centres i.e., the centroid, the orthocentre, the
circumcentre and the in centre lie on the median to the base. The given triangle is an
isosceles triangle. [ Two sides are equal]
The area of the quadrilateral formed by the centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
and the incentre is 0.
Choice (4)
10. In an equilateral triangle, the centroid and the orthocenter coincide. The orthocenter
divides each of the medians in the ratio 2:1. [ the centroid divides each of the median in
the ratio 2:1]
Choice (3)
11. In an equilateral triangle all the four centres, i.e., centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
and the incentre coincide. The area of the triangle formed by the centroid, the incentre
and the circumcentre is zero.
Choice (4)
12.
(12) = 6
(6) = 3
)= 2
cm.
)= 2
cm.
BD =2.4 cm.
= 90 +
=125
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
15. Angle bisector of an angle divides the opposite side in the ratio of the other two sides.
=
BIC =90 +
Choice (3)
14. The six triangles formed by drawing three medians to a triangle are of equal area, each of
which is equal to th of the area of the original triangle.
17. In a triangle, the angle subtended by two vertices at the in centre is equal to the sum of 90
and half of the angle subtended by these vertices at the third vertex.
i.e.,
Choice (2)
42+62= 2[AD2+42]
26= AD2+ 16
AD=
cm.
Choice (4)
In a triangle a line drawn parallel to one side of a triangle divides the other two sides in the same
proportion i.e.,
=
=
= 4.5 cm
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
23.
10 +
20
Choice (3)
24.
Choice (3)
Here ABD and BDC are similar and are similar to ABC, i.e., the attitude drawn from the
vertex of the right angle to the hypotenuse divides the triangle into two triangles, each of which
is similar to the original triangle.
The similar triangles are BDA and CDB
=
= 14.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
28.
AD(CD)=BD2
4(9) =BD2
BD=6 cm
Choice (2)
25.
OBA=90, since radius at the point of contact is always perpendicular to the tangent.
AB2=OA2-OB2=172-82=25(9)
AB=5(3)=15 cm
Choice (1)
29.
Let AB be the chord and C be the foot of the perpendicular from O to AB.
AC2 = OA2-OC2 = 52 32=42
AC =4 cm and AB=8 cm
Choice (4)
30.
Choice(2)
35. The volume of a cuboids is equal to (length) (breadth) (height) = (4)(3)(5) = 60 cm3
Choice (4)
AOB= 2 ACB, since, the angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angles
subtended by the arc at any point on the remaining part of the circle. Given AOB=80
ACB= 80) = 40
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
37. The lateral surface area of a cube of side a is 4a2 i.e., 4(42) = 64 sq.cm.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
39. The total surface area of a cube of side a is 6a2 i.e., 6(3)2 =54 sq.cm
Choice (2)
31. The lateral surface area (LSA) of a prism is equal to the product of the perimeter of the base
and the height of the prism.
LSA=2(4+5)(6)=108 sq.cm.
Choice (1)
40. The total surface area of a cuboids=2(l+b)h+ 2lb = 2(lb+bh=hl). This area is 148cm2.
148=2(4b+6b+24)
10b=74-24 b=5cm
Choice (1)
32. Total surface area of a prism = Lateral surface area + 2(Area of base)
Lateral surface area= (4)(5)(8)=160 sq.cm.
Total surface area=160+2(5)(5)=210 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
cm3
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
frustum and the base of the smaller cone formed after cutting the original cone have equal
radii and the smaller cone is similar to the original cone. Let the height of the cone be h.
The required ratio
44. The prism and pyramid have the same base, height and the area of the base.
Volume of pyramid= ( area of base) (height of the pyramid)
The required ratio is
=3/1=3:1
53. Let the radius of the base be R. The radius of the top of the frustum is . The top of the
Choice(4)
)(5)=
sq.cm
Choice (3)
( )2( )
(the length
of the side)
Area = ( )(6)(5)(
=7:8
R2h
= 1:8
Choice (2)
Choice(3)
55. The height of the smaller cone =
46. Area of the parallelogram = (product of two adjacent sides) (sine of included angle)
=3(4) sin (30)=12( )= 6 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
47. Total surface area of a pyramid = Lateral surface+ Area of the base.
Lateral surface area= (perimeter of the base) (slant height)
Total surface area= 48+(4)(4)=64 sq.cm.
Choice (2)
49. Lateral surface area of a cone frustum = ( )(slant height) (sum of the top radius and the base
radius)= (5)(4+6)= 50 sq.cm.
Choice (1)
50. Total surface area of frustum of a pyramid = Lateral surface + sum of the surface area of top
and that of base. Lateral surface area=( )(sum of perimeters of the base and top) (Slant
= 1:4
Choice (2)
=
The ratio =
=1:2
Choice (3)
57. Let h, l, R be the height, slant height and radius of the original cone.
height)
=( )[4(3)+4(8)](6) = 144 sq.cm.
The ratio of the curved surface area of the smaller cone to that of the original cone
Choice (1)
48. Total surface area of a cone = curved surface area + area of the base
Curved surface area= (radius)(slant height)=
4 5= 20 sq.cm.
Total surface area=20 +( )(4)2=36 sq.cm.
Choice (1)
If l3, R3 are the slant height and radius of the smaller cone then from the property of
similar triangles,
=
Rs=
Choice (3)
)2 (
)=
s=
= 8:19
s=
Choice (4)
= 13
Area =
=
58.
=4
sq.cm
Choice (1)
66.
Let S be the side of the base of the original pyramid. From the similar triangle property the side of
base of the smaller pyramid= S
= S/2
ADC =
The ratio =
= = 1:7
Choice (4)
(62-42)=20 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
(6 + 8)(4) = 28 sq.cm.
(10) (4 + 5) = 45 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
64. Area =
(r2)=
+ 14 =22 + 14 = 36cm.
(72)=15.4 sq.cm.
70=35
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
67. AB is the diameter, therefore the arc ACB is a semicircle. As the angle in a semicircle is
right angle
ACB = 90
BAC = 180 - ( ACB + ABC)
=180 - (90 + 30) = 60
Choice (2)
68. Angle between the radius and the tangent at the point of tangency is 90
PAD= PBO = 90
In quadrilateral OAPB AOB = 360-( APB + PAO + PBO)
=360 - (40 + 90 +90) = 140
69. AB, CD and IJ are parallel and EF and GH are parallel.
We can extend GH
AOC =
Choice (1)
72. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles touching each
other externally is 3.
ILH = 60, since alternate angels are equal and corresponding angels are and corresponding
angles are equal.
Choice (2)
70. In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of the opposite angles is 180
BAD + BCD = 180
BAD = 180 - 130=50
PP1, QQ1, and RR1, are the three common tangents to the two externally touching circles
Choice (3)
73. In a cyclic quadrilateral the sum of opposite angles is 180. In parallelogram, opposite angles
are equal and their sum need not be equal to 180.In rhombus, opposite angles are equal
and their sum need not be equal to 180.Now, consider an isosceles trapezium ABCD.
Choice (1)
71. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to 2 circles is 4.
In an isosceles trapezium, non-parallel sides are equal and the corresponding angles made
by them with the parallel sides are equal.
i.e., DAB = CBA
And ADC = DCB
Sum of the four angles is 360
i.e., DAB + ABC + BCD + CDA = 360
ABC + ABC+ ADC+ ADC=360
[
AA1, BB1, CC1 and DD1 are the four common tangents to the above two circles.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
6.
=36 sq.cm.
8.
If Q starts from the same point from which P started, then the distance of separation
between them is the distance travelled by P in 2 hours,
(because 8:00 a.m. - 6:00 a.m. = 2 hours).
The information about the starting points of P and Q is not available.
Hence, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (4)
9.
Choice (1)
2.
To completely cross the bridge the train has to travel a distance of 300 m +700 m =1000 m
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
= 3 hours.
Choice (2)
From 9:00 a.m. to 10:00 am, A travels for 1 hour i.e. 60 km. At 10:00 am. B and A are
Separated by 60 km. The relative speed of B with respect to A = 80 - 60 = 20 kmph. (Since,
A and B are travelling in the same direction)
The time taken by B to meet A = = 3 hours.
At 10:00 a.rn. + 3 hours = 1:00 p.m., B meets A.
5.
Choice (2)
Consider the line joining the centre of the dial and the number 12 on the dial as the
reference line. Measurements of angles made by the two hands, during any specified
interval, are measured with reference to their line. At 12' 0 clock, the two hands coincide
and the angle made by each of the hands with the reference line is zero degrees. The angle
made by the hour hand at 3:30 p.m.
= (3 x 30) + (30 x 1/2) = 105..... (1)
The angle made by the minute hand, in 30 minutes
= 30 x 6 = 180 .... (2)
Hence, at 3:30 p.m., the minute hand leads the hour hand by
an angle equal to (180 -105) = 75.
Hence, the required angle is 75.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
= 15 m/sec
= 54 kmph.
7.
75. After joining the midpoint of the 4 sides of any quadrilateral formed is a parallelogram and
its area is half of the area of the original quadrilateral
3.
The length of the train is equal to the distance travelled by the train in 20 seconds.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
10. The ratio of speeds of A and B = The ratio of distances travelled by A and B.
A beats B by 250 m means that by the time A covered 1000 m, B covers only 750 m.
The ratio of speeds of A and B = 1000 : 750 = 4 : 3
The speed of B =
Average speed =
= 3 hours.
= 6 m/sec.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
= 80 kmph
Choice (3)
= 72
Choice (4)
13. As the duration of journey at different speeds is constant, the average speed of the journey
is average of the speeds. i.e.
= 50 kmph.
Choice (2)
(here
=24,
=54 ) ]
Choice (2)
18. To cross each other completely two trains together have to cover a distance equal to the
sum of the lengths of the trains.
i.e. 700 + 800 =1500 m.
Choice (3)
14. Let the distance between P and a be d km. and the required time be t hours.
= 5 hours.
Required speed =
= 48 kmph
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
17.
P
|
C
||
10:00 a.m.
A
V
|
Q
|
10:00 a.m.
|
A
24 min.
|
|
54 min.
Let Vijay and Ajay take t minutes to meet at C.
=> Vijay takes t minutes to cover PC.
But CP is covered by Ajay in 54 minutes.
As distance is same, speeds are in the inverse ratio of times.
=>
(1)
Choice (4)
Hence,
= ;
Hence,
= t becomes
21. The time taken is 20% more than the usual time.
i.e. if t is the usual time , then is the actual time taken.
i.e. t has become
=
In 6 minutes they will meet each other.
19. The first train would have to gain a total distance of 700 + 800 = 1500 m to cross the second
train completely.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
22. As we don't know the distance of the race. We cannot find the ratio of speeds and hence we
cannot determine by what distance A beat C.
Choice (4)
23. By the time B finishes the race, C requires 20 more seconds to finish the race. 10 seconds
before that, when A finishes the race, B requires 10 seconds more. C requires 30 seconds to
finish the race.
A beats C by 30 seconds
Choice (3)
24. Ratio of speeds of A and B
= 1000: (1000 - 100) = 10: 9.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
(2)
= 54
24 and t = 36.
27. Let the speed of A be 3x kmph, speed of B is 2x kmph. In one hour B covers a distance of 2x
km. As, at 9:00 a.rn. A and B are travelling in the same direction the relative speed
= (3x -2x) kmph = x kmph.
To catch, B, A has to gain 2x km.It takes 2 hours to gain 2x km.
At 9:00 a.m. + 2 hours = 11 :00 a.m., they meet
Choice (2)
28. Let the speed of Tarun be 4x kmph. The speed of Varun is 3x kmph. If Tarun covers a
distance of 4x km, he gains x km over Varun;
=> to gain x km, he shall cover 4x km.
Distance between Tarun and Varun is 10 km.
In order to gain 10 km over Varun, Tarun has to cover 40 km.
Choice (2)
29. For every minute, minute hand gains 5.50 over hour hand. From the time the two hands
Coincide once, to the next time the two hands coincide, minute hand has to gain 360 .
The required time =
=
minutes.
Choice (4)
30. In normal clock for every
each other. As in this clock, for every 65 minutes, coinciding of both hands occurs, the
clock is running fast i.e. gaining
Choice (1)
31. The relative speed, if they are running in the same direction = 12 - 8 = 4 m/sec,As Bharat is
faster, Bharat has to gain 300 movers Anil in order to meet Anil.
The time required =
= 75 seconds.
The relative speed, if they are running in the opposite directions = 12 + 8 = 20 m/sec.
In order for them to meet, they together have to cover 300m.
The time required =
= 15 seconds.
The required times are 75 sec and 15 sec.
= 15 seconds.
= 10 seconds.
After a time which is the LCM of (15, 10) seconds, they will meet right at the starting point
i.e. after 30 seconds.
Choice (2)
= 32
minutes
minutes
Choice (1)
(0 <
< 180) between the two hands (hours and minutes) of a clock
Choice (2)
37. In a day the angle between the two hands is 0 for 22 times and is 180 for 22 times.
The two hands coincides (i.e. 0) for 22 times.
Choice (1)
38. Let the distance be 'd' km. The speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of
current be v kmph.
..(1)
..(2)
(1)
=2
Choice (4)
sec,
sec,
Choice (1)
39. Let the speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of the current be v kmph.
u v =12
. (1)
u + v = 18
.(2)
(2) (1) 2v = 6 v = 3 kmph.
Choice (2)
40. Length of the track = 300 meters
Speeds of A and B, respectively, are: 5 m/sec and 8 m/sec.
35. If the angle between the minute hand and hour hand is 90, then the minute hand has to
gain 180, to get the angle between both the hands again as 90.
(2)
Choice (2)
After a time which is the LCM of (15, 12, 10) see, they will meet right at the starting
point for the first time after 60 seconds.
Choice (1)
sec.
Let S be the starting point and let them meet after Kumts of time.
4.
7.
th
th
th
th
th
of the tank
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
5.
th
Choice (4)
Given one man can eat one fruit in one day Eating one fruit represents a work of 1 manday
by 1 man. In n days, 1 man can eat n fruits. In n days, m men can eat m x n fruits. They
would do a work of m x n mandays.
8 men in 8 days i.e. in. 8 x 8 = 64 mandays = 64 fruits.
Choice (2)
th
th
Choice (4)
Number of manhours = 8 6
one man working 8 hours a day needs
i.e. 4 : 3
of the tank.
Note: Here, the actual time taken to fill the tank is not required.
8.
3.
In the time the tank is filled completely by both taps working together tap P can fill
2.
Choice (3)
9.
th
th
of the work.
Choice (1)
th
of the work
Choice (1)
=6:4:3
Choice (2)
=:
the exact time taken by them to complete the work and this will depend upon who starts
the work
th
Rs. 1000.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
20. A and B take less time to complete the work than Band C take to complete the work
working together. Hence A takes less time than C to complete the work working alone.
Band C take less time to complete the work than A and C take to complete the work
working together. Hence B takes less time than C to complete the work. C is the slowest
worker.
Choice (3)
Present average age of the family is 20 years. After 4 years, each person in the family will be
older by 4 years. Hence the average also increases by 4 years.
So, it is 24 years.
Choice (2)
2.
Total weight of the 40 students is '40 x 40 = 1600 kg. Total weight including the weight of
the new student is 1600 + 40 = 1640 kg.
New total number of students is 41.
The average weight of the class =
= 40 kg
Choice (1)
3.
Let the number persons in each group be x. Total age of the first group = 2 x 30 = 30x
Total age of the second group = x x 40 = 40x
Average age of the two groups combined =
= = 35 years
Choice (2)
4.
Given the average height of female employees and that of male employees. Also, given total
number of employees. But as we don't have the information regarding number of female
employees or male employees, we cannot say anything about the average height of all in
employees.
Choice (4)
5.
If there are exactly 30 boys, the average weight of the entire class is obtained from the rule
of alligation table as follows.
Girls
Class
Boys
Number
..20
..30
Weight
..40
.. x
..50
=
=
150 -3x = 2x - 80
Choice (2)
i.e. 12 days.
Choice (4)
18. If A starts the work, A can do 1/10th of the work on the 1 st day. B can do 1/15th of the work
on the 2nd day. In the first two days, 1/6th of the work will be completed. Working in this
manner, the work will be completed in 12 days. Similarly if B starts the work, the work will
be completed in 12 days.
Choice (3)
19. If P starts the work, P can do 1/3th of the work on the 1st day; Q can do 1/5th of the work on
the 2nd day. In the first two days, 8/15th of the work will be completed. 7/15th of the work
remains on the third day, P completes 1/3 rd of the work. 2/15th of the work remains. This is
completed by Q in another 2/3rd of a day. Hence the work is completed in 3 days.
Similarly, if Q starts the work it can be shown that the work will be completed in 3
The work is completed in less number of days if P starts the work.
days.
Choice (1)
Note: Suppose two persons work on alternate days to complete a work. If the work done by
them in 1 day by both working together is 1/nth of the total work and n is an integer, the
approach in solution 21 is to be used to find the time taken by them to complete the work.
Also, in such a case, the work will be completed in the same time irrespective of who starts
the work. However, if n is not an integer, the approach is solution 22 is to be used to find
x=
= 46
As there are possibly more boys, the average could be greater than 46 but not less.Choice (4)
6.
7.
9.
= 75
Choice (2)
8.
= Rs. 20000
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
= 38 kg
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
16. The quantity of pure milk is 100% The profit of 150% should be because of water that is
added 100% 10 liters
150%
15 liters
15 liters of water is to be added
Choice (2)
17. The concentration of milk in the final solution
=
Choice (4)
(10) = 4 litres.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
liters. To get the ratio 1 : 1, the solution must contain 14 liters of pure milk.
14 - 6 = 8 litres of milk is to be added to get 1 : 1 ratio of concentration.
Choice (3)
(100%)
(100%) = 81%
= 8.1 liters.
Choice (3)
19. The average number of chocolates given per child for the boys is 4 and for the girls, it is 5.
For the entire group it is 4.4. This data is tabulated below.
Boy
Group Girl
Number
A
B
Number of class/child 4
4.4
5
From the rule of allegation
=
As a + b = 10, a = 6, b = 4.
There are 4 girls.
Choice (3)
20. As the period for which each of these average salaries is drawn is the same i.e. four months,
the average of these salaries will give the average salary for the entire year.
The average salary per month
=
=
= Rs. 7000
Choice (2)
= RS.13.20
4.
Choice (4)
24200 = 2000
22. The smallest of the numbers is 21 and the largest of the numbers is 39.
The average should lie between 21 and 39 (both exclusive), i.e. the average is more than 21
and less than 39.Except 29 all the three choices are out of range.
Choice (2)
23. Let 10 liter of first solution and 90 liter of second solution are mixed, then the content of
sulphuric acid.=
10 +
10 = 19 liters.
The concentration of sulphuric acid in new solution is 19%.
1.21 =
5.
I=
= Rs.2000
2.
3.
= 5%
= Rs. 10
= Rs. 10.5
Choice (2)
The amounts at the end of each year, in compound interest, are in geometric progression of
common ratio
> 1, i.e. the progressions are increasing. Also the difference between any
two consecutive terms, say interest for ith year and interest for (i + 1 )th year will be aRi+1 Choice (2)
aRi [Where R =
common ratio R .Hence, the difference in the interest for the k th and (k + 1)th year will be
more than that for the mth and (m + 1 )th year if k > m.
Choice (1)
7.
When interest is compounding many times a year, the equivalent rate of interest that will
fetch the same amount of interest, if the interest was calculated annually, is called the
effective rate of interest. The effective rate of interest is constant for every year. Choice (1)
8.
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
6.
= 0.1
Choice (3)
= 1.1
r =10%
24. The, average income is RS.10,000 per month for 9 months and that is RS.20,000 for 3
months. As Rs.10,000 is maintained for greater period; the average income per month for
the entire year lies between RS.1 0,000 and RS.15,000.
Choice (1)
25. Total income for the family = 5 x 8,000 = Rs 40,000 In a particular month a
total or Rs.800 x 5
= Rs 4000 is decreased
Total income in that month = 40,000 - 4,000
= Rs.36,000 income per person
=
= Rs. 7200
A=P
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
9.
Interest accrued on a certain sum under simple interest is same for every year
The sum of interests accrued in 6th, 8th and 9th years
= 2.000 + 2,000 + 2,000 = RS.6,000
15.
= 1500
Choice (1)
10. The interests accrued under compound interest are in the geometric progression of common
Ratio =
Hence
Choice (4)
INDICES - SURDS
= 1.1
r = 10 %.
Alternative solution:
The difference in the interests accrued in the fifth year and sixth year is the interest on the
interest accrued in the fifth year.
1,408 - 1,280 = RS.128 is interest accrued on RS.1,280
Rate of interest =
100 = 10%
Choice (1)
(1.5) =1500
P = Rs.1,000
The present value of RS.1,500 due after 5 years is Rs 1,000.
1.
2.
= 81
=> 2x = 4 [ If
=> x = 2
, then m=n]
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
11. The amounts for every year under compound interest are in geometric progression of
3.
common ratio =
Similarly,
Hence
r = 10 %
Alternative solution:
The difference in the amounts after five years and six years is the interest on the amount
after five years.
6,050 - 5,500 = 550 is interest on. 5,500
Rate of interest =
100 = 10%
Choice (3)
= 2P
=(
4.
)+(
) =2-
5.
12. P
= 2+
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
=2
=4
= 4P
Choice (1)
6.
=
13. P
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
= 2P
=1
=3
= 4P
7.
Choice (2)
14. In all the four cases the nominal rate of interest per year is same. If the nominal rate of
interest is constant, then the interest will be more if the number of times compounding is
done per year is more. In choice (1), the interest is compounded the maximum number of
times. Therefore, the interest will be the maximum.
Choice (1)
=
=
Choice (1)
8.
1.
(24)(18) = (3)(8)(2)(9) = 33 x 24
(27)(16) = (33 )(24 )
(24)(18) = (27)(16)
=1
(
= 1]
we get
If we multiply
with
We get
Choice (3)
2.
9.
=
=
10.
as
11.
Choice (2)
=
Choice (1)
13.
= 16
=4
=
14.
Choice (4)
=
]
Choice (4)
= 0 [ m0 = 1 and log1 = 0]
6.
=3
=1 =>
=1
.
.
=>
Choice (4)
]=
=3
=3
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
=p
]=3
Choice (2)
=1
=1
=
8 = 2x
Choice (3)
5.
7.
=>
x = 3 and y = 3
15.
=
Choice (2)
+
=
[
+
=
=>m = (6)(12) = 72
4.
= 216
=
=
is equal to
=>
12. 6 + 3 = (3)(2) + 3
= 3 (2 + )
To rationalize 3 (2 + ) , we need to multiply
2 is the rationalizing factor of 6 + 3
Given
=
,
If a = 1, logx 1 = 0 and logy 1 = 0
Irrespective of values of x and y,
If a = 2,
=
Choice (2)
<
is greater than
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
]
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
LOGARITHMS
9.
= k =>
= k [
= N] => k = 9
Choice (3)
10. 4 =
=
p = 81
11.
= p [ If N =
then x=
]
Choice (1)
3.
=
=
=>
=>
=>
=>
=
4.
Choice (2)
12. If
13.
=k
5.
=k
=k
= k => k =
Choice (3)
QUADRATIC EQUATION
2.
and 4 -
Choice (3)
Choice(3)
Given the sum of the roots is 7 and product of the roots is 12.
The equation is
x2 - (sum of the roots) x + (product of the roots) = 0
i.e., x2-7x+12 = 0
Choice(3)
Choice(1)
3x2+ 6x-5= 0
Discriminant = 62 -4(3) (-5) =36 +60 =96
96 is not a perfect square.
=>Discriminant > 0 and not a perfect square.
The roots are conjugate surds
Choice(3)
Choice(4)
Choice (2)
7.
=4
Choice (3)
6.
=4
=>
=
The roots are 4 +
=> x = 9
1.
8.
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (1)
=5
Choice(4)
Choice(3)
7x + 5x+ 3= 0
15. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are
half of the equation, x2+ 5x+ 9= 0, we have to
replace x by 2x.
The equation is (2x)2 +5 (2x) +9 = 0
=>4x2+ 10x +9 = 0
16. Here the equation (x -4)2 =0 is given.
Number of distinct roots = 1
= 3
Choice(4)
where a>0,
Choice(1)
expression.
When a<0,
expression.
Choice(3)
Choice(4)
+ +7 = 0 => 3 + 5x + 7x2 = 0
2
Choice (3)
1.
Choice(4)
2.
x - 2 => x (- , -2]
x 5 => x [5, )
x - 2 or x 5 => (- , -2]
Choice(3)
Choice(1)
[5,
3.
] => 1 x 7
4.
x < 3 => x
5.
(- , 3]
Choice(2)
Choice(4)
Choice(1)
Choice(4)
6.
(x 3)(x + 5) 0
Choice(2)
=> x 3 0 and x + 5 0
=>
12.
When a and b are positive, the first two options are true, but if a and b are negative
numbers, they are not true. When c > 0, ac > be => a > b, but when c < 0,
is not true. None of the options is always true.
Choice (3)
13.
x+3
14.
5 - 2x 6 => -2x
x
=> x
Or x -3
=>
7.
[-5, 3]
-2x - 6 0
-2x 6
x < -3
9.
6 - 5 => -2x
11.
The set of all real numbers greater than 3 and less than
6 is (3, 6)
1 => x
Choice(2)
=>No solution
Choice (2)
16.
x2 - 7x - 18 0 =>(x- 9) (x + 2) 0
-2 x 9
The number of integral values in the interval [-2, 9] is 12.
Choice(4)
Choice (3)
18.
=> x >
Choice(3)
20
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
20.
Given x is negative
Let x = -a when a is positive
x + = -a +
=> - (a + )
We know that the minimum value of a +
The maximum value of - (a +
Choice (3)
Choice(1)
19.
8.
[4,
15.
17.
0 if x
4 => x
[-5 ,3]
7 => x
Choice (1)
is -2
Choice(4)
21.
Since the modulus of a number is always non-negative, the given inequality is true for all
values of x.
x R.
Choice (2)
22.
When a and b are negative real numbers then ab and are always positive a b is positive.
When a <b, a - b is negative but when a > b, a - b is positive. 2a + 3b is always negative for
all negative values of a and b
Choice (1)
when a> 0 is 2.
) is -2
Since the modulus of a real number is always non-negative, it cant be less than -7.
The solution set is {}
Choice (1)
23.
24.
25.
8.
Choice (4)
Since the modulus of a number is always greater than or equal to 0 and |x + 3| and |x 5|
simultaneously cannot be zero, for any real value of x, the number of solutions = 0.
Choice (2)
1.
2.
4.
5.
Given, 7x + 4y = 64, x, y
4y and 64 are multiples of 4
Values of x are also multiples of 4
Rem
= 3 or Rem
6.
Rem( ) = 4 => 4x = 5
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
As Rem
= 0, Rem
is also 0.
Choice (2)
10. Let the number of gel pens, ball point pens and pencils, the student purchased be x, y and z
respectively, Total amount spent is 15x + 5y + 3z = 28
As x > 0, x = 1 and y = 2 and z = 1
Only one combination is possible.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
= 1 or y1 = 1,5,9.
Choice (4)
13. In order that the total number of toys is the minimum, toys of the first variety have to be
bought for remaining Rs.125
He can buy one toy each of the first and third varieties for Rs.125
Minimum number of toys he can sell is = 2 + 1 + 2 or 5.
Choice (3)
Rem =3
+4
=> x1 = 0, 4, 8,
and x = 1,6,11
x = 5k + 1, where k is any integer.
Choice (4)
=3 .i.e.,
= 3,7,11,.and = 8, 17 ,26..
= 8 satisfy the above condition.
9.
Choice (4)
= 6 and one of the values of x that satisfies this equation is 2. The possible values of x
11. In the problem above, the number of ball point pens purchased, y is 2.
Choice(2)
Rem
are 2, 9, 16, 23, 30. They form an arithmetic progression with a common difference
of 7.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
SPECIAL EQUATION
3.
7.
Choice (1)
15. Let the number be 10x + y where (x > y). The sum of the number and the number formed
PROGRESSIONS
8.
1.
Arithmetic mean =
=
= 11
9.
Arithmetic mean of an AP =
2.
= 11
Geometric mean =
=
Choice (2)
Alternative solution:
Geometric mean of a geometric progression
=
=
=
3.
4.
Choice (2)
The Fourth term is equidistant (3 terms away) from the first and the seventh term in the
arithmetic progression.
The fourth term is the arithmetic mean of the first term and the seventh term in an A.P.
Fourth term =
= = 16
Choice (1)
Sum of the first n terms of an A.P.
= = ( ) [2a + (n - 1)d]
= ( ) [4 + 24] = (28) = 98
6.
, the
Given
term is 9
Choice (2)
In A.P.
= ( ) [First term + Last term]
Choice (2)
In an A.P.,
term ( ) = a + (n - 1) d
= 9 + (7 - 1) 3 = 9 + 6 (3) = 27
Choice (1)
10. The fourth term is equidistant from the second term and the sixth term.
In a G.P. the fourth term is the geometric mean of the second term and the sixth terms.
Fourth term =
=
= 16
Choice (4)
Note: It can't be -16. The common ratio would be complex and
we are considering only progressions with real terms.
11. In a G.P.
=
Choice (2)
5.
As
In an A.P. as
= n (A.M.)
= 100(15) = 1500
= = ( ) [2(2) + (7 - 1)4]
The
= ( ) [5 + 15] = 110
Alternative solution:
=
Choice (1)
+ 2kd =
[ n = m + k]
[ p = m + 2k]
= [ + 2 kd] - [ + kd] = kd
= = kd
, and
are in A.P.
term,
term and
term are in A.P.
Term,
and
term and
>4
Choice (3)
= 3(64) = 192
Choice (3)
20. The
are in G.P.
term are in G.P.
=4
19. In a G.P.
=
=
=
=
Given
Arithmetic mean,
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
21. In G.P. if the number of terms is n which is odd, then the middle term i.e.,
term is zero.
i.e.,
term is zero.
16. Given
= 30 and
= 30
=
+
+ +
+
+ +
=0
The mean of
to
is 0.
Sum of to
is zero.
17. Given m, n and p are in G.P.
Let = = r
n = mr and p=
Let log m = a.... (1)
Log n = log (mr)
= log m + log r [ log (xy) = log x + log y]
Let log r = b
log n = a + b .... (2)
log p = log (
) = log m + log ( )
= log m + 2 log r [ log = 2log r]
log p = a + 2b ..... (3)
From1,2,3
term is
Choice (2)
22. Common ratio =
=
Choice (1)
=
=2
Choice (2)
, .
=> mr = 1 - r => mr + r = 1
r=
Choice (2)
24. Given a = 1, = 27
=
2
27= (1) => r = 3
=
= 1093
Choice (1)
= 45
Sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers = (Sum of first n natural numbers)2
Choice (2)
2.
3.
When a coin is tossed n times the number of ways of getting exactly r heads is n ,
Choice (2)
4.
We know that
120
= 120
5.
6.
7.
or
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
.
= 210 ways.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
15. Since all the digits are even, no odd numbers can be formed. Number of odd numbers
formed = 0.
Choice (1)
= 120
We know that n
35
= 35!
= 120
Choice (3)
= n!
Choice (1)
Given n = n
We know that if n = n , then r + s = n
n
= n => n = 5 + 7 = 12
2n + 1
= 2(12) + 1 = 25 = 300
Given n = n ,
We know that n
=> r! = 1
21
.r!
r = 0 or 1
=>
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
.r!
Choice (4)
8.
We know that 'n' persons can be arranged in a row in n! Ways here n = 6 =>
of ways of arranging 6 members in a row = 6!
the number
Choice (1)
9.
In the given word GINGER there are six letters of there G : y occurring two times
= 360.
Choice (4)
10. Since one particular member is always included, we have to select 3 members from 9
members. This can be done in 9 = 84 ways.
Choice (3)
11. 11.The word COUNTRY has 7 letters. Since the first letter is N, the remaining 6 places can
be filled with 6 letters in 6! ways.
The number of words that begin with N is 6! = 720.
Choice (1)
12. We know that there are 21 consonants.
Two consonants can be selected from 21 consonants in
= 5n => n - 3 = 10 => n = 13
20. We know that n persons can be positioned around a circle in (n - 1)! ways.
8 persons can be arranged in 7! or 5040 ways.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
21. The number of different words that can be formed using all the letters of word TRINETRA
is or
or 10080.
Choice (4)
= 360 ways.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
4.
When three dice are rolled, there are 6(6) (6) or 216 outcomes. The number of ways in
which all the dices show the same number is 6.
The required probability =
=
Choice (2)
5.
In the given set all the numbers are odd, any two numbers are selected their sum is always
even.
The required probability is 1.
Choice (3)
6.
Choice (4)
7.
Choice (2)
27. The number of blue balls is 6. 3 balls can be selected from 6 blue balls in 6
8.
Choice (1)
P(A) + P ( ) = 1
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
28. When two coins are tossed there are 4 possible outcomes.
When a dice is rolled there are 6 outcomes
When two coins are tossed arid a dice is rolled, there
are 24 outcomes.
29. Rahul can invite 5 friends or 6 friends. 5 friends can be invited in 6
can be invited in 6 ways
The total number of required ways = 6 + 6 = 6 + 1 = 7.
ways = 20.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
ways and 6 friends
Choice (3)
9.
30. Bananas can be selected in 4 ways and apples can be selected in 5 ways.
The number of ways of selecting fruits is = 4 (5) = 20.
The number of ways of selecting one or more fruit is
= 20 -1 = 19.
Choice (4)
PROBABILITY
1.
2.
3.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
= .
When a dice is rolled the outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} with this dice getting a number
Choice (2)
11. When four dice are rolled, there are 64 or 1296 outcomes.
When the outcomes are (1, 1, 1, 1) and (6, 6, 6, 6) the sum is the minimum and maxim
respectively.
There are 2 possibilities.
The required probability is = .
Choice (3)
12. If five letters are placed into 5. Corresponding envelopes, then the 6th letter is also placed
into the corresponding envelopes. Exactly five letters cannot be placed into corresponding
envelopes. Probability = 0
Choice (3)
13. In February of a leap year we have 29 days. Only one day of the week occurs five times.
Two days can never occur 5 times.
Required probability = 0.
Choice (2)
P ( ) = 1 - P (A) = 1 - =
Choice (1)
15. In the calendar, there is a cycle of 400 years of which 97 are leap years.
The required probability =
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
STATISTICS
B)
B)
P( )= ,P( )=
) = P ( ). P ( ) = . =
18. We know that A, B, C are three mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1
0.3 + 0.5 + P(C) = 1
P(C) = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2
P ( ) = 1 - P(C) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8
1.
Size or length of the class is the difference between the lower (or upper) limits of two
successive classes i.e., 34 - 24 = 10.
Choice (3)
2.
Choice (4)
3.
Choice (2)
4.
Mid value =
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
=
19. When a dice is rolled, there are 6 possible outcomes.
The prime numbers are 2, 3, 7 i.e., there are 3 primes.
The required probability = =
20. In the English alphabet, there are five vowels.
The probability of selecting a vowel is .
Choice (4)
=8
Choice (1)
7.
Of all the given observations 3 is occurring for 4 times even if the value of x is either 2 or 1
still 3 only most occurring value.
Mode = 3.
Choice (1)
8.
The boundaries of a class are obtained by subtracting 0.5 form lower limit and adding 0.5 to
upper limit.
The upper boundary of the given class is 14.5.
Choice (3)
9.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
= 32.5
6.
Choice (1)
= 4.5
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
10. By adding or subtracting a fixed value to each of the observations of an individual data the
standard derivation of the data does not change.
Standard derivation remains same i.e. unchanged.
Choice (3)
22. If A, G, H are arithmetic mean, geometric mean and harmonic mean of any two positive
11. The sum of deviations about mean is zero. (standard result)
Choice (1)
12. The sum of deviations about median is the least. (Standard result).
Choice (2)
13. Since given 10 < x < 15 and when arranged the given observations in order the value that
lies between 9 and 21 is the median i.e. x
Median of the data is x.
Choice (3)
14. We know that arithmetic mean
=
= 12
Choice (4)
23. When each observation of the data is increased or decreased by a constant, the range does
not change.
Choice (3)
Number of observations =
=
quartile ( ).
Here n = 7 (
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
)th observation is the first
=8
15. We know that for a. symmetric distribution, arithmetic mean, median and mode coincides.
Arithmetic mean = mode = 24
Choice (3)
16. We know that for a moderately symmetric distribution, mode = 3 median - 2 mean
mode - median = 2(median - mean)
Choice (4)
17. The sum of the first n natural numbers =
Their arithmetic mean =
Choice (1)
is the 3(
)th observation
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
28. |
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
| (standard result)
18. When the number of observations is odd. The median of observations when arranged in
order is the exact middle most observation. Here middle observation is 13.
Median = 13.
Choice (2)
19. When the number of observations is even, the median of the observations when arranged
in order is the average of two middle observations.
Here the number of observations = 6
is , then the
Median =
=
= 24.5
NUMBER SYSTEMS
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
is
i.e.
1.
2
2
2
2
2
2
132
66 - 0
33 - 0
16 - 1
8 - 0
4 - 0
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
2 - 0
1 - 0
----------=
2.
3.
4.
7
7
12
12
235
33 - 4
4 - 5
=
9.
=
Choice (1)
10.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
13. 17 625
Consider the integer part
2 17
2 8 -1
2 4 - 0
2 2 - 0
1 - 0
=
Choice (2)
14.
2 3 4 (8)
4 3 2 (5)
-----------
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
-----------
x
-----------1540
352
-----------------------
7.
8.
11.
Choice (2)
1364
113 - 8
9 - 5
=
5.
6.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
15.
Choice (2)
=
2 x k0 + 5 x k + 1 x k2 = 86
2 + 5k + k2 = 86
k2 + 5k 84 = 0
(k + 12) (k - 7) = 0
Since k is a positive integer.
k = 7.
=
= 1 + 27 + 243 + 729 =
The cube root of
Choice (3)
-----------
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
437 =
Choice (2)
5.
88
14 - 4
2 - 2
=
88
9 -7
1 - 0
=
All are true
Choice(4)
.
Choice (1)
TRIGONOMETRY
= and
Choice (2)
=4
=4
=>
= 30 .
Choice (1)
7.
Choice (4)
8.
(1 +
=
Choice (2)
) (1 .
Given p =
=> =
)
=1
= (1 -
+
-
p + =
=2
=
10. 3
is 3 x 360 =
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
- 4 = 0 =>
=
=
( 180 <
< 270 )
positive and
is negative in third
Choice (3)
and s of a triangle is r = or
= rs.
Choice (2)
6.
9.
3.
Given 5
=> 4
+
4
=3
)2 - 1 =
Choice (3)
9
9
2.
=
=(
is acute
6
7
=> e
as
quadrant ( )
=>
88
12 - 4
1 - 5
Given
=
=> cot
1.
Given
=
19. 7
7
4.
, x
Choice (3)
is in radians.
Choice (4)
=1
Choice (3)
is [-1, 1]
is [-2, 2]
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
13.
(
=
14. We know that
lies in
or
15.
)=1
=5
=0
16. If
Then
= 90 =>
is negative in
=0
and
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
<1
Choice (1)
)2 = 1
Choice (3)
+
=(
is negative,
lies in the
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
+
2
=
= 1(
when
= ,
= 2,
= 22
cot22
=> 2 = 45
=
+1
Choice (3)
=1
21. When = 90 ,
is not defined.
The given statement is not true for
Choice (4)
28. When 0 x
/2, the graphs of sinx and cosx intersect
only at x = /4, lie at only one point.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
=
Choice (2)
Put
)2 = 7
AC = 41
E = (2)2 + (
=>
=2
=>
17.
< cot
24.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
tan
<
Choice (3)
= 90 .
Choice (4)
)=
sin C =
Choice (1)
9.
COORDINATE GEOMETRY
1.
2.
The perpendicular distance from P(3, 5) to the x-axis is the y-coordinate of the point
P(3, 5).
given
= 3,
and
= 1/3
3.
4.
5.
Choice (2)
A line perpendicular to the x-axis is the y-axis (or a line parallel to the y-axis.
The slope y-axis (or any line parallel to y-axis) is undefined.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (h, k) is y = k.
The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (3, 4) is y = 4.
Choice (3)
6.
The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis i.e., parallel to the x-axis and passing
through (h, k) is y = k. The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis and passing
through (5, 6) is y = 6.
Choice (4)
7.
Choice (2)
11. We know that a line passing through only two quadrants is parallel to the x-axis or the yaxis or passes through the origin. All options can be true.
Choice (4)
is
Distance is 5 units.
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
14. We know that the equation of a line with slope m and y-intercept c is y = mx + c
Given slope is ; y-intercept is 'a'.
y=
x + a => my = x + am
15. When the first equation is multiplied by 5 we get the second equation.
The two lines are coincident lines.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
16. Slope of the line joining the points (a, b) and (c, d) is
8.
=>
y + 4 = 0 is
Given slope is 0
= 0 => d - b = 0 => b = d
Choice (2)
= 30
17. The equation of the line with slope -1 and passing through the origin is y = -x.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
18. Given
135 =-1
Choice (1)
) and (
5.
Choice (4)
) in the ratio - :
Choice (1)
24. The point of intersection of diagonals is the midpoint of each of the diagonal i.e., the
midpoint of (1, 2) and (3. 4) = (2, 3)
Choice (3)
25. The distance from (0,,0) to 5x + 12y + 26 = 0 is
=2
Given f(x) = x - [ x ]
x z ; [ x ] = x => f(x) = x - x = 0
x z;0 x[x]<1
Range of f(x) = x - [ x ] is [0,1)
Choice (4)
7.
Choice (3)
8.
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Given f(x) =
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
3.
Given, f(x) =
f(x) is real when x + 2 0 => x
Domain is given by x -2
Choice (2)
-2
Choice (3)
Given f(x) =
f(x) is real when x - 3 > 0 => x > 3
Domain is given by x > 3
4.
is odd.
Choice (2)
Domain = R - {-1}
2.
Choice (2)
Domain is R - { 1 }
Given, f(x) =
When x = 1, f(x) is not defined.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
19. When a point is reflected in the origin, then the sign of both the coordinates of the point
changes.
Reflection of ( , ) in y-axis is (- ,- ).
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
20. The graph of y = f(x - 3) is obtained by shifting the
graph of y = f(x) to the right (horizontally) to 3 units.
Choice (3)
28. x2 + y2 = 4 represents a circle with centre origin and 3x + 4y - 7 = 0 represents a line distance
of the line from the centre of the circle is = |
Choice (2)
29. y =
|=
Choice (2)
+ ] is as follows.
=> x - y = 2. Since origin side is shaded when the coordinates of the origin are substituted it
must result in a true statement. The required relation is x - y 2.
Choice (4)
23. The product of even and odd functions is always an odd function.
Choice (2)
24. If f(x) is a constant function then the image is same for all x.
Given f(2) = 4 => f(4) = 4
Choice (4)
25. If f(x) is a given graph then f(x - a) is obtained by shifting the graph of f(x) to the right
(horizontally) by a units.
Choice (3)
26. We know |x 3| =
=> Range of
=
(x - 3)
1
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
30. The given function is y = f(x) The graph of y = f(x) + c, c > 0 is obtained by moving the
graph y = f(x) vertically above for c units
Choice (3)
2.
Given
a b = a2 - b2 + ab
2 3 = 23 - 32 + 2(3)
49+6=1
x
Choice (3)
4
3.
5 = 2(4) (5) = 40
4.
5.
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Option (1)
= 2( ) = not an integer.
11.
Choice (4)
=xy
= x 3 y3
=x+y
= x 3 + y3
As 1 < y < x, < and < . Also < and < but
then . Among the options, only < < is true.
= not an integer.
= not an integer.
Option (4)
=2
= 1 is an integer.
Choice (4)
8.
14.
a 3 = 0 => a + 3 - 3a = 0
=> 3 - 2a = 0 => a =
a 1=a
=> a + 1 - a = a => a = 1
Choice (4)
= =
Choice (1)
=
=
For all a, b,
a b = a + b ab
a e = a + e ae
a = a + e - ae (given)
=> e(1 - a) = 0 => e = 0
Option (iii)
=< 0
Option (3)
7.
Choice (4)
= y2
Option (2)
6.
(x, y) = x3 + y3
(x, y) = x3 - y3
Option (ii)
>0
Choice (2)
(x, y) = x + y
(x, y) = x y
(1, 1) = 0 and (2, 1) = 3
( (1, 1), (2, 1)) = 03 + 33 = 27
Option (4)
-5 2 = -5 + 2 (2) = - 1 < 0
9.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
16. H (15,10) = 5, H (20, 64) = 4
] = L(5, 4) = 20
Choice (4)
17. (b * c) * (d * a) = b * d = c
Choice (1)
18. c2 = c * c = d, c3 = d * c = c
n=3
Choice (3)
19. d2 = d * d = a, d3 = a * d = d, d4 = a etc.,
a2 = a * a = b, a3 = b * a = a, a4 = b etc
d 6 * a5 = a * a = b
Choice (2)
20. (a * b) * c = c * c = d
While a * (b * c) = a * (b * c) = a * b = c.
Unless the order in which the operations are performed
are indicated, we cannot determine the value of a * b * c.
5.
Let the cost of an orange and an apple be b and a respectively from statement A, 3b = 2a +
15 from this equation we can't say whether b > a or not. Form statement B, 5b = 6a + 12 =>
b > a Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Choice (2)
6.
7.
Let Bhavan's daughter's and wife's ages be y and x respectively. The data is tabulated below
Amar
Bhavan
Wife
y + 24
Wife
x
Son
x-6
Daughter
y
Using both the statements, 7y - (x - 6) = Y + 24 - x
=> 7y - x = y+ 24 - (x - 6)
=> 6y = 30 => Y = 5
Age of Amar's wife = y + 24 = 29
Choice (4)
8.
Neither 0 the statement is independently sufficient, as we do not know the savings of the
third year. Using both the statements, we have 30% of (4k + 5k) + 30,000 = Savings of the
third year. As the ratio of income and expenditure = 30: 11, the ratio of income and savings
becomes 30 : 19. Combining the two statements, total income of 3 years = 4k + 5k + 6k =
15k
Total savings of 3 years
= 30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + (30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + 30,000)
= 5.4k + 30,000
Ratio of 3 year's income to 3 year's savings
= (15k) : (5.4k + 30,000) = 30 : 19.
This equation can be solved for k; and savings can be calculated.
Choice (4)
9.
From statement A alone, we cannot find the score as we do not know the number of
mistakes he committed. From statement B alone, we cannot find the number of
marks he got as we do not know the number of questions he attempted. From statements A
and B, we can find his marks as
39-18- (18/3) = 15.
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
DATA SUFFICIENCY
EXERCISE-1
1.
If the prices are 3x, 2x, 5x, from statement A, we get 5x - 3x = 30,000; hence we get x and
the price of the car of medium price. From statement B, we get 2x = 20,000 hence x and
then the required price. Hence, each statement itself is sufficient.
Choice (3)
2.
From statement A, we can assume the number of students in each class as 2x, 3x and 5x.
Since we don't know x, 1Qx cannot be found. From statement B, we get 2x + 20 = 4y; 3x +
20 = 5y and 5x + 20 = 7y. Solving these we can get x, and hence the number of students in
the three classes. Hence, both the statements are required.
Choice (4)
3.
From statement A, If Amisha purchases equal number of apples and oranges, she must pay
RS.12n (n, positive integer). Since 65 12n, she has not bought equal number of apples and
oranges. Hence A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, had she bought 3 oranges
and 4 apples more, she would have paid RS.1 08. So, she actually paid 108 - 3 x 5 - 4 x 7 =
65.This is now same as statement A and hence B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)
4.
From statement A, for Rs.72, Hrithik can buy (1 apple and 13 oranges or (6 apples and
6 oranges). So, we cannot conclude from A. From statement B, for Rs.46 (101 - 5 x 7 - 4 x 5),
he can buy 5 oranges and 3 apples. So, we can conclude from B. Hence B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
10. Statement A alone is not sufficient, as it does not deal with salaries. Statement B states:
SavA : SavB = SalA : SaIB.
This data is not sufficient. However, when the two statements are combined, the question
can be answered. Salary = Saving + Expenditure.
Choice (1)
5.
From statement A, as the relation between the cost prices of the two articles is not given,
statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we know that the selling price of
both the articles is same and hence, the overall loss% is x 2/100.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)
6.
From statement A, We have 15% of SP = 18% of CP + 3. Profit = SP - CP. But from the
above equation, we cannot uniquely determine (SP - CP). Hence statement A alone is not
sufficient. From statement B, 9% of SP = 10% of CP + 1. So, we cannot find the profit.
Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Using A and B together, we have two
independent linear equations. in SP and CP. So, we can find SP and CP, hence, we can find
the profit. A and B together are sufficient.
Choice (3)
7.
Given that 35% are men ~ 65% women. From statement A, 20% of 35% of the total = 7% of
the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the women employees attended the
meeting. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, 40% of 65% of the
total = 26% of the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the men attended the
meeting. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. But, if we take both the statements
together, we have (7% + 26%) of the total i.e., 33% of the total employees attended the
meeting.
Choice (3)
8.
From statement A, we can say that Ram's income < Shyam's income. Hence, statement A
alone is sufficient. From statement B, though Ram's expenses are 80% of Shyam's expenses,
he is able to save the same amount. Ram's income - (0.8) Shyam's expenses = Shyam's
income - Shyam's expenses. Shyam's income - Ram's income = (0.2) Shyam's expenses.
Hence Ram's income is less than Shyam's income.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
9.
From statement A, p% = (d + 10)%, from which nothing can be concluded. From statement
B, when p% = d% => Discount> Profit, as mark up price is more than the cost price.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-2
1.
We know that discount percentage = discount/MP x 100 Using statement A alone S.P = 4d
MP = SP + d
MP=5d
Since MP is known in terms of discount, discount percentage can be found. Statement A
alone is sufficient. Using statement B alone, 5MP = 6SP
=>
Let M.P be 6x and S.P be 5x.
Discount = 6x - 5x = x As discount and MP are found in terms of x, Discount percentage can
be found.
Either statement A alone or statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
2.
3.
4.
Statement A gives us only the market value of the house, and cannot help us to calculate the
actual purchase price. Statement B says that, if the purchase price is p, then the mortgage
price, 4p/5 = 8,00,000.
So, 4p = 40,00,000, or p = 10,00,000. So statement B alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice (1)
From statement A, if the diagonal of the cube increases by 17% then its side (or edge) also
increases by 17%. So, the percentage increase in the volume can be found. From statement
B, when the lateral surface area increases by 56.25%, then its side increases by 25%. So, the
percentage increase in the volume can be found.
Choice (2)
Given, selling price of article = 1.2 time the cost price. From statement A, Selling price I =
market price As we do not know the marked price we cannot find the selling price.
Without knowing the selling price we cannot find the cost price as SP = 1.2 CP. From
statement B, as the SP is Rs. 180 we have (1.2) CP = 180. Hence CP can be found.
10. Given S.P. = Rs.144, if c is the cost price. From statement A, c(1 + C/100) = 144
100c + c2 = 14,400
(or)
c2 + 100c - 14,400 = 0 or c = 80 or -180. As c cannot be negative c is 80.
From statement B,
SP-CP x 100=45
SP
144-CP x 100 =45
144
Choice (2)
EXERCISE-3
1.
2.
3.
4.
From statement A, one of a and b is an even prime. Hence one of a and b is 2 as 2 is the only
even prime. From statement B, a+ b + c + d = 89 If a, b, c and d are all odd, their sum would
have been even. As all primes are distinct only one of them can be even (i.e., assume value
of 2).
Let us say a = 2
b + c + d = 89 - a = 87
Consider a = 2, b = 3, c = 5, then
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 5) = 79. So, 79 is the largest.
Consider a = 2, b = 5, c = 11, then
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 11) =71. So, 71 is the largest.
So, we cannot find out the value of the largest of a, b, c and d.
Even using both statements, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (4)
From statement A, N can be 121 or 169 or 225 or 441 or 529 or 961. As we have more than
one value of N, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, N is the square of a
prime number as it has only three factors.
Hence, N ranges from 112 = 121 to 312 = 961.
The possible values of N are 112 = 121, 132 = 169,
172 = 289, 192 = 361, 232 = 529, 292 = 841 and 312 = 961
We do not get a unique value of N using either of the statements.
From both statements together N is 121 or 169 or 529 or 961.
We still do not get a unique value of N.
Choice (4)
When the number is divided by 18 the quotient is 3, so the number is greater than or equal
to 54 and less than 71. From statement A, the value of the number is only 61 as from the
number 54 to the number less than 74 there is only one number (61) which leaves
remainder 1 when divided by 15. So when 61 is divided by 18 the remainder is 7.
Hence x = 7.
Statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, the possible values of the numbers are 58
and 66. When 58 is divided by 18 the remainder is 4.
When 66 is divided by 18 the remainder is 12. Hence x can be 4 or 12. As x is not unique,
statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
From statement A, abc = 35 and a = 7 so bc = 5 => b = 5 and c = 1 since b > c
or b = -1 and c = -5 is also possible. So statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, abc = 35 and c = 1 =>ab = 35 a and b are odd integers so a = 7 and b = 5, as
a > band b > c so b is always positive as c = 1
Choice (2)
5.
We know that for both 2 and 3 the last digits of their powers repeat after every 4 powers.
Hence, in order to get the last digit of any power of 2 or 3, we divide the respective power
by 4, get the remainder r and check the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to power r. But if the
power is a multiple of 4 then the last digit will be the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to 4 itself.
From statement A, if n is an even number we cannot say whether it is a multiple of 4 or not
and hence we cannot say what the last digit is. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, we know that the power is a multiple of 4 and can get the last digits
according to the above-mentioned rule.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
6.
7.
8.
Let the two parts be 18x, 18y with 18x > 18y. Where x and yare co-primes
From statement A, 18x - 18y = 522 => 18(x - y) = 522
=> x - y = 29. If x = 31, y = 2. If x = 37, y= 8.
Hence unique values of x and y is not possible even though x and yare co-primes.
From statement B, 18x x 18y = 10044 => xy = 31 So the only possible pair of (x, y) is (31,1).
As x and yare known we can find the number i.e., 18x + 18y.
Hence statement B, alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
9.
2.
6.
7.
8.
From statement A x x Y = 8 x 9
8 - 9 = -1 or 9 - 8 = 1
x-y=-1 or x-y= 1
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B alone, x = 4, or x = 9 and y = 6 or y=8
Hence (x - y) will have more than one value. Statement B alone is also not sufficient.
Combing both the statements. x = 9. And y = 8 because 9 has exactly three factors and 8 has
exactly four factors. Hence x - y = 9 - 8
Choice (4)
9.
When a fraction x/y is converted into decimals, the properties of the resultant decimals
depend on the prime factors involved in y. If y has only 2 and 5 as prime factors, then the
decimal will be of finite length. If y has prime factors, other than 2 and 5, a nonterminating recurring decimal is produced.
From statement B alone, which says y has exactly 3 distinct prime factors i.e., y has one
more prime factor besides 2 and 5; which means x/y is a non-terminating recurring decimal.
So statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
EXERCISE-4
1.
5.
From statement A the number will be of the form 210k + 45. We cannot say whether the
above number is divisible by 23 or not. From statement B, the number will be of the form
(276k + 81). 276 is divisible by 23 and hence the remainder, when the above number is
divided by 23, will be the remainder of the division of 81 by 23 i.e., 12. Hence, statement B
alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
Let the numbers be hk and hl such that from statement A,
LCM is hkl = 160 ------------ (1)
From statement B h (k + I) = 72 ------------ (2)
Divide equation (1) with equation (2). Then we get
Since k and I are co-primes and they can only take the values 5 and
4, from (1) h x 5 x 4 = 160 =>h = 8, the numbers are (8 x 5) and (8 x 4)
i.e., 40 and 32.
Choice (4)
3.
4.
From statement A alone, we can rewrite the number a as a = n(n + 1). We can say that the
HCF is n. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot find
the HCF, if n = 1. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
10. It is given that x/y is in its simplest form. From statement A, x is 128, that means 2 is not a
factor. of y. From statement B, y has 2 prime factors. From both the statements A and B, y is
of the form 5P x b2 where b is a prime factor other than 2 and 5
x/y is a non-terminating and recurring decimal.
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-5
1.
2.
An infinite number of different triangles can be drawn having the same given area, and
each of them will have a different perimeter. So, statement A by itself cannot enable us to
answer the given question. Again, an infinite number of triangles can be drawn with one
angle being . So, statement B by itself cannot enable us to answer the given question.
Even using both the statements A and B, an infinite number of triangles having both
properties can be drawn. So, both the statements A and B together also do not help us to
answer the given question.
Choice (5)
Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as complete information about the
figure is not given.
From statement A alone, Though we know that the given polygon has 3 sides, the triangle is
not fully defined. Also we do have any other information to find its area. From statement B
alone, we do not know whether the polygon is a triangle or not. Hence this statement alone
is not sufficient. From A and B together, we know that the two adjacent sides of the triangle
and the included angle. Hence its area can be formed.
Choice (4)
4.
From statement A, x = 360/3 = 120 . So, statement A by itself is sufficient for answering the
given question. Since the length of the radius of the circle is irrelevant for calculating the
value of x, statement B by itself cannot help us to answer the given question.
Choice (1)
5.
Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O'
clock twice, the answer choice is (4).
Choice (4)
6.
It is given that a, c and e are parallel and b, d are parallel. Even after combining both the
statements, we cannot conclude that a is parallel to d,
which is necessary to conclude that x = y.
Choice (5)
8.
9.
For a given hypotenuse, there can be more than one combination of the other two sides, so
we cannot compute a unique value of the perimeter with statement A alone. However, with
another side as 4 units, the third side can be computed and hence the perimeter. Choice (4)
10. Since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact, radius OT = AT 2
OA2. Taking both the statements together, we have AO = 12 - r and AT = 6, where r is the
radius of the circle.
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-6
1.
Let d km be the distance. d = 400 Let the speed of the bus be s kmph and the time taken be t
hours. 400 = st -->(I)
From statement A, (s - 20) (t + 20) = 400
=>st + 20s - 20t - 400 = 400
=>20(s - t) = 400
=>s - t = 20 --> (II)
From (I) and (II), we get (20 + t) (t) = 400
t2 + 20t - 400 = 0
A unique value of t exists and hence 's' can be determined. So statement A alone is
sufficient. From statement B
s 20 and t 20 and st 400
from (I) st = 400
=>s = 20, t = 20
Hence statement B alone is also sufficient. Either statement alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
2.
3.
From statement A, PQ= relative velocity x time of travel; and the time of travel 11.30-9.30 =
2 hours; relative velocity (60 + 40) = 100 kmph. So statement A is sufficient to answer the
question. From statement B, do not know whether two trains starts at same time or not. So
we can't answer to the question.
Choice (1)
Time taken to cross the bridge
= length of the bridge + length of the train
speed of the train
= time taken to cross the bridge, Statement A alone is sufficient.
the time taken by B is not know we can't find the speed of A. Using both the statements A's
speed = 100/20 = 5m/sec.
Choice (3)
10.
Choice (1)
4.
Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as the length of the track and the
speed of A and B are mentioned in two different statements. Using both the statements, as
the length of the track is 1200 m and the speeds are co-prime, always time taken by them to
meet at the starting point = length of the track.
i.e., 1200 seconds will be the answer.
Choice (3)
5.
Since neither the speed of the train nor the speed of the. man is given, the question cannot
be answered even by taking both the statements together.
Choice (4)
6.
Let the distance travelled = d km Let the speed in still water be x kmph and the speed of the
->Ram,Ramesh,Rameez
Length of the track = 500 m From statement A, Ram and Ramesh meet after 10 seconds for
the first time. There is no information of Rameez. So statement A alone is insufficient. From
statement B, Ramesh and Rameez meet after 10 seconds. There is no information of Ram
here. So, statement B alone is insufficient Using both the statements we get that Ram,
Ramesh and Rameez, met for the first time after 10 seconds. But it cannot be deduced
whether they are meeting for the first time at the starting point or elsewhere. So both the
statements together are not insufficient.
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-7
1.
2.
From statement A, time taken to complete the work by each of Kavya and Karuna is not
known so we can't answer the question. From statement B, time taken by Karuna, Kavya
and Kavita cannot be calculated so statement B alone also is not sufficient. Even by
combining both the statements, the time taken by Karuna or Kavya is not known. We can't
find their shares.
Choice (5)
But we can't find d. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, speed in still
water and the total time taken to cover the distance is not known. So statement B alone also
not sufficient. Using both the statements,
=>
So we can't find the value of d. So using both the statements also we can't answer the
question.
Choice (4)
7.
Whether they run in the same or in the opposite direction, they will meet at the starting
point after a time equal to the LCM of time taken by them individually to complete one
round. The time taken by each individually is given in statement B and hence, statement B
alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)
8.
Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O'
clock twice, the answer choice is (4).
Choice (4)
9.
From statement A, B takes 100/4 = 25 seconds, but time taken by A is not known. So we
can't find A's speed. From statement B, A takes 5 sec less than B to complete the race but
3.
4.
From statement A alone, since 50% of the work is completed by B, 5 days we can say that
work can be completed by B in 10 days. So, we can answer the question. Hence, statement
A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, since B works twice as fast as A, he can
complete the work in 5 days and hence we can answer the question. So, statement B alone
is sufficient. Each statement by itself is sufficient.
Choice (4)
6.
7.
Let the work done by a man, boy and woman be m, b and w respectively. Consider
statement A: 2b + 3w = 1/5 ------ (1)
10m+3b =1/5------(2)
We need 6m + 4b + 3w = k -------- (3).
To get 6m, we multiply (2) by
We have 1.8b from (2). We need 4b in (3).
We multiply (1) by we get 3.3w and 3w, i.e., (3) is not a linear combination of (1) & (2)
5.
Given a + b = 1/10
-------- (1)
Statement A gives a + b + c => 1/6
-------- (2)
Statement B gives c = 2a
-------- (3)
Using (1), (2) and (3), the question can be answered.
of the
8.
Question statement gives, A + C do 1/20 ... (1) of the work in 1 day B + C do 1/15 .... (2) of
the work in 1 day. Statement A gives A + B do 1/12 in 1 day ..... (3) we can get C from the
three equations and hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Statement B gives A + B + C do
1/10 in 1 day ... (4). By solving (1), (2) and (4), we can get C and hence, statement B alone is
also sufficient.
Choice (4)
9.
sufficient.
Consider statement B: In a period of 2 hrs, Sudhir and Sunil complete
Choice (4)
10. Given P + Q = 1/216. Statement A gives P + R = 1/540. It is clear that statement A alone is
not sufficient as it gives another equation, but not the values of P and R. Statement B gives
Q = 1/540. This statement also gives one more equation and hence is not sufficient by itself
to find R. When both the statements are taken together, we get three equations and by
solving we get P, Q and Rand hence can answer the question.
Choice (3)
Sudhir starts the work it is completed in the 20th hour, as he takes more than 1 hr to
complete the remaining part. In that case n = 19. If Sunil starts, it is completed by him in
(16) =1hr.Here n=18 As we don't get a unique value for n, statement A alone is not
From statement A, The earnings are distributed in the ratio of work done, as one days work
ratio of A and B is 3 : 2, so the time taken by A and B is in the ratio 2 : 3.
Hence we can find the time taken by A to complete the Work Statement A alone is
sufficient. From statement B,
A's 2 day's work = 3. 1/12 = .
A's 1 day's work = 1/8
So time taken by A to complete the work is 8 days So statement B alone is sufficient. Hence
either statement alone is sufficient.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
EXERCISE-8
1.
Since the profit percentage earned is not given in both the statements. It is not possible to
find the proportion of coffee in the mixture.
Choice (5)
2.
To require both the prices, we require both the statements. Since the other mixture is worth
1.45 (1.60 - 0.15), we can tell in what ratio they have to be mixed by applying the rule of
allegation.
Choice (4)
th part of
is completed in
(12) = 2 hr.
3.
4.
5.
If x is the total mixture, then 2x/3 is milk from the main statement; From statement A, we
get (60 x 2/3) = (60 + y) 1/3, where y is the water added. Hence, y can be determined. From
statement B, we know that water in the initial mixture is 20 liters and hence, milk should
be 40 liters. Now 60 liters of water is to be added to make the ratio of milk and water equal
to 1: 2. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)
From statement A, we can know that the milkman added 20% water. From statement B, we
can know that the milkman added 20% water.
Choice (3)
Using both the statements and applying the rule of Allegations
8.
9.
Since the ratio of boys and girls is given in statement A, we get, average weight
= 5/7(28) + 2/7(21) = 26 kg.
Choice (1)
Since the weights of the boys and the girls are not given, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (5)
10. From statement A, we do not get an idea of either the total volume of the initial mixture or
of the volume of either of the components. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B also, we do not get any information regarding the volumes of the total mixture
or of the components and hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Even when we take
both the statements together, we have the same problem.
Choice (5)
EXERCISE-9
1.
1 : 85
The ratio of the number of clerks to the number of supervisors can be found but we cannot
find the number of clerks and supervisors.
Choice (5)
6.
7.
From statement A,
Viv's average> Sachin's average.
Viv's innings < Sachin's innings.
So, nothing can be concluded from statement A, From statement B
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + x)/100.
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - y)/100. and x > y > 0.
For Example :
If x = 25%; Y = 24%. runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin.
If x = 25% and y = 16%, runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin.
From the statements A and B also, nothing can be concluded.
a3 b2 - a2 b3 = a2b2 (a -b)
From statement A, a2 > b2
=> when a and b are positive then a > b When a and b are negative then a < b
so a > b or a < b
If a > b, then a3b2 - a2b3 is positive.
If a < b, then a3 b2 - a2b3 is negative.
Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.From statement B, a3> b3=>a>b
Hence a3b2 a2b3 is always positive.
Thus the question can be answered using statement B, alone.
Choice (2)
2.
Statement A gives an equation in terms of Principal and the rate of interest. Statement B
gives the rate of interest. Principal can be found using the statements A and B. As the
principle and the rate of interest can be found, compound interest can be calculated.
Choice (3)
3.
Statement A alone gives us the rate of interest and the number of installments is known to
be 36. Hence, using the formulae for equal installments
Choice (5)
From statement A,
Viv's average > Sachin's Average.
Viv's innings > Sachin's innings.
runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin.
statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B,
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + y)/100.
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - x) /100.
Since x > y > 0.
statement B alone is also sufficient. (For example, substitute suitable values for x and y)
Runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin.
Choice (3)
equal installments =
We can find the answer. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Using statement B, we
cannot answer the question because we do not know anything about the rate of interest.
The rate of annual increase in land rates is irrelevant.
Choice (1)
4.
To solve this, both the rate and the principal amount are required. A + 205
= A (1 + x/100)n. A and x are required. As they are given in two different statements, both
the statements are required.
Choice (3)
5.
Given the rate of interest is 12% p.a. From statement A, the difference between S.I and C.l
for 1 year when compounded half yearly is Rs.8. If principal is P, then S.I for 1 year is
=8, p can be found, Hence statement A alone is sufficient.
To solve this, we require the rate of interest B gives and also know whether it is compound
interest or simple interest. We should also know the amounts A and B or the ratio of the
amounts. Statement A tells about the interest B fetches but does not give us any information
about the amounts. Statement B only gives the ratio of the amounts but does not inform
about the rate of interest B fetches. Hence, each statement by itself is not sufficient but if
taken together we get the required information to solve the problem.
Choice (3)
7.
9.
B=1000[
]=10x +
Statement A gives the rate at which 40% of the total amount is invested and statement B
gives the rate at which the remaining 60% is invested. Hence, we observe that each
statement by itself does not give us any conclusive answer, but when taken together, we
can get the total earnings as part of the total investment and hence the total interest p.a. per
rupee.
Choice(3)
10. As A and B are given in two different statements, neither of them is independently
sufficient. Using both the statements,
Choice (3)
1.
Statement A alone is not sufficient since the triangle can be of any type i.e., right-angled or
equilateral. Using statement B also, it has to be an equilateral triangle (as the area is
maximum) From both the statements.
AB = AC = AC = P/3.
we can find the area of ABC.
Choice (3)
2.
3.
From statement A, a/(1 - r) = 5a => r = 4/5. Statement B alone is not sufficient, as t3 -t4 = 10
and cannot be found
Choice (5)
4.
Choice (3)
EXERCISE-10
Choice (1)
6.
8.
]=10x.
As 10x +
A=1000[
if r = -2 then a = -2
So the 16th term is 2(215) or (-2) (-2)15, i.e., it is uniquely determined. Second statement alone
is sufficient to answer the question.
Choice (4)
5.
From statement A, leaving out the first nine digits 1 to 9, a total number of 87- 9 = 8 digits
were used in the succeeding 2-digit numbers, or, in other words, = 39 two-digit numbers
were used. So, the two digit numbers used must be those from 10 to 48. So, we can say from
statement A alone that the term paper had 48 pages.
From statement B, the first 5 occasions in which the digit 6 would be used are in the
numbers 6, 16, 26, 36 and 46. So, the number of pages in the term paper could have been
ranged from 46 to 55. So, it is not possible to answer the given question uniquely from
statement B alone.
Choice (1)
6.
10. From statement A, if a is the first term and d is the common ratio, then we have 4(a + 11 d)
= 3 (a + 15d).
But with this, we cannot find any value. From statement B, we know the thirteenth term.
Sum of the first twenty-five terms.
=
[a + (a + 24d)]
[2 (a + 12d)] =
[2 x t13]
( if
1.
Therefore
= =
8.
From statement A x3 1 or x3 -1
Or x 1 or x -1 | x | 1
Statement A alone is sufficient.
Using statement B alone, | x3| 1 so -1 x3 1 => -1 x 1
If x = 1, the answer is yes, if x 1, then | x | < 1.
Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.
(-b/a)2 = 4c/a
=> b2 = 4ac
As the value of the discriminate b2 - 4ac = 0, of the roots equation are equal.
Statement A alone is sufficient.
From statement B
Choice (2)
EXERCISE-11
9.
= => -b = c
If b - 4ac = 0 then the roots are equal. We do not know the value of a so we cannot say
whether b2 - 4ac = 0 or not. So the second statement alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
2.
3.
Is PQ < Q
Is PQ - Q < 0
P > 2. So, to decide whether PQ < Q or not, we need the sign of Q. Statement A is not
enough, while statement B tells us that PQ < Q as Q is negative.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
4.
Let the number of sweaters, raincoats and pairs of gloves be x, y, z respectively. From
statement A, 225x + 125y + 75z = 425 or 9x + 5y + 3z = 17
(x, y, z) = (1,1,1) or (0,1,4)
Statement A alone is not sufficient From statement B, the number of items of each variety
cannot be determined.
But by combining both A and B, (x, y, z) = (1, 1, 1)
Choice (3)
5.
= 18 sq. units and each diagonal is a diameter of the circle. Area of the
Area of square = = 32
Area of shaded region = 16 - 32 = 16(-2)
Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
We can answer the question from either of .the statement.
9.
Choice (2)
6.
From statement A, we cannot say whether r > s or not as signs of rand s are not known.
From statement B, we can say r > s as rand s are raised to an odd power so their sign will not
change.
Choice (1)
7.
8.
f(x)=f(x + 1) + f(x - 1)
f(x + 1) = f(x) - f(x - 1)
To find f(5).
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Given the cost of each of apple, mango and orange respectively is Rs.9,Rs.8 and Rs.3
From statement A Ashok spent an amount of Rs.67.The following table gives the possible
number of fruits of each variety
Apples
1
2
3
4
Mangoes
2
2
2
2
Oranges
14
11
8
5
Total cost
67
67
67
67
Choice (2)
EXERCISE-12
1.
From statement A, all companies which have managers also have engineers. But there is no
specific information about engineers in XYZ. Statement A alone is not sufficient. Statement
B alone is not sufficient as there is no information about engineers in the company XYZ.
Using both the statements, company XYZ has a manager implies it has an engineer also.
Choice (3)
2.
From A alone, Rohan does not play Hockey.Hence Sanjay does not play Cricket. So A alone
is sufficient. From B alone, Rohan plays Hockey, Sanjay plays Cricket and Sunil plays
Football. So, B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
3.
Choice (1)
5. Let the statement be denoted by p, q, r and s respectively where p = Dhoni losses the toss
q = India selects to bat first r = shewag opens the inngings. s = India sets a target of more than
250 runs. Now. the problem statements and their implications are as follows.
Implications:
Unless p, then q
~p =>q and ~q=>p
If q, then r
q =>r and ~r=>~q
If r, then s
r =>s and ~s=>~r
From statement A, r is not true
Since ~r=> ~q and ~q=>p, we can conclude that p is true. i.e., Dhoni lost the toss, thus statement
A alone is sufficient. From statement B, s is not true. Since, ~s =>~r and
~r=>~q and ~q =>p, we can say that Dhoni lost the toss. Thus statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
6.
From statement A alone we do not know the percentage of students who passed in only
Maths or in only English or both the subjects. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B alone, we do not know the percentage of students who pass only in
Maths or Maths. Statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the statements, those
who passed only in English = 50% - 25% = 25%
Those who passed only in Maths = 50% - 25%
Those who have passed either in English or Maths
= 25% + 25% + 25% = 75%
Those who failed in both English and Maths. = 100% - 75% = 25%
Choice (3)
7.
8.
From statement A alone, we know the total number of persons in the club as 500 and the
number of persons who play both hockey and football is 250. But to find the number of
persons who play only football, we require the number of persons playing football.
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
Statement B alone is not sufficient as we don't have any information about the number of
persons who play football. Using both the statements, as we know the number of persons
who play only hockey as 50, both the games as 250 and total as 500, we can find that the
number of persons who play only foot ball = 550 - 250 = 50.
Choice (3)
From A, as the numerical value is not given we cannot determine the number of members
who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B alone we cannot
determine the number of members who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not
sufficient. Combining A and B, we get
= 40 - x + x + 40 - x
80 -x = 100
x = 20.
20 players play both Chess and Bridge.
10. From A, as we do not have any information regarding A we cannot determine how A
relates to B. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B, as we do not have any information
regarding B, we cannot determine how B relates to A. Combining A and B, we get A is the
wife of B.
Choice (3)
EXERCISE-13
1.
From statement A, B is not seated to the right of A. This means B is seated to the left of A.
So B may be in the middle of the row or to the extreme left of the row. So the first
statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, C is not seated to the left of B. This
implies C is seated to the right of B. So B may be in the middle of row or extreme left of the
row. So the second statement to alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements, B is to
the extreme left of the row.
I
II
III
B
A or C A or C
So by using both the statements we can say that S is not seated in the middle of the row.
Choice (3)
2.
Choice (3)
9.
So, the first statement alone is not sufficient. From the second statement we get A, D and G
are sitting together. But we cannot determine whether B is sitting exactly in the middle of
the row or not. So, the second statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the
statements, the possible different arrangements are
From A, We have b + c + e = 40 --- (1)
a + c + f = 60 --- (2)
and c = 20. but we have a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 100 --- (3)
(1)+ (2) =>a+b+2c+e+f=100
---(4)
(3) - (4) => g + d - c = 0
=> c = g + d.
but it is given c = 20. d + g = 20
So, A alone is sufficient. From B, we have d + e + f + g = 70.
a + b + c = 20. So, B alone is not sufficient.
From the above arrangements we can conclude that B can never sit exactly In the middle of
the row.
Choice (3)
3.
Choice (1)
From statement A, we know that Band E are adjacent to each other and B is to the
Immediate right of E, but as we do not know the positions of the other people, we cannot
determine who is sitting in the middle of the row. So, statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B as E is the only person sitting adjacent to C, C is at either of the ends of
the row.
C E A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D
A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D E C
So, statement B alone is not sufficient. From A and B, we get,
C E B D A or C E B A D
Hence, we can find that Bharat is sitting at the middle of the row.
Choice (3)
4.
5.
6.
the other two people. Hence, A alone is not sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot
say if Ravi is in the first or in the last position. From A and B together, we can say that he is
in the first position.
Choice (3)
8.
From statement A as we do not know the position of Rupesh and Nishant we cannot
determine the number of people in the row. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B as we do not know the number of people standing in between Rupesh and
Nishant, we cannot determine the number of people standing in the row. So statement B
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements,
Number of people in the row = 20 + 15 + 22 = 57 (or)
Number of people in the row = 5 + 15 + 7 + = 27
So the number of people in the row cannot be determined uniquely.
Choice (4)
In none of the above cases, it is possible to say if A is standing next to C or not. So statement
A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we only know that A occupies the middle
position
From A, we have Physics and Zoology are at the bottom and top and neither of these are
adjacent to Chemistry which implies that the book on Chemistry is in the middle. So, A
alone is sufficient. From B alone, we get the book of Mathematics is in the middle.
Choice (2)
Case a) and c) are not possible, since D and G must have one place between them. In case b,
Except in the second arrangement where A and C cannot be next to each other the others
two arrangements we cannot conclude if A and Care together or not. So even by using both
the statements together it cannot be determined if A is next or C or not.
Choice (4)
9.
The distance between A and D, Band D, A and C is maximum. So, A alone is not sufficient.
Similarly, from (B) alone we get
As explained earlier, (B) alone is also not sufficient. Combining A and B, we get
From statement A, we know that there are 3 persons standing between E and F.
From statement A, we cannot conclude if Pratp is sitting next to Vijay for we only know
that Pratap and Ramkuar are sitting next to each other. So statement A alone is not
sufficient. From statement B, we only know that Abhishek and Kishore do not sit next to
each other. From this we cannot conclude if Pratap is sitting next to Vijay or not. So
statement B alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together. We can conclude
that Pratap is not sitting next to Vijay.
Choice (4)
From statement A alone, as Jaipal is behind Ravi, we can conclude that Ravi is to in the last
position. But we cannot say if he is in the first position as we do not know the positions of
OR
EXERCISE-14
The above two possibilities shows that Vijay must be sitting between Kishore and
Abhishek, so he cannot be next to Pratap.
Choice (3)
10. From statement A, we cannot conclude as to who is sitting opposite to C for we only know
that Band D do not sit next to each other. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B we know that E and F sit on either side of A. Now from this we cannot draw
my conclusion as to who is sitting opposite to C. Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.
By using both the statements together, we can conclude that A sits opposite to C.
The possible cases are as follows.
1.
To find if "X is the father of Y" From statement A, Y is not the son of X. But this does not
imply "X is not the father of Y". X still, may be father of Y (if Y is the daughter of X) So first
statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, here, the gender of Z is not specified. X
may be male or female. Combining both the statements it is clear that Y is the female and is
the daughter of X and Z. But whether X is male or female, that can't be determined.
Choice (4)
2.
From statement A, Z, is the father of Y and X. X is the brother of Y since X is the son.
Hence we can say that X is not the cousin of Y. First statement alone is sufficient. From
statement B, Y is the daughter of the mother of X. Therefore Y is the sister of X. Hence we
can say that X is not the cousin of Y.
Second statement alone is also sufficient.
Thus, either of the statements is sufficient.
Choice (2)
3.
From statement A, P's father's mother's only child is none other than P's father. As his
spouse is Q, Q is the mother of P. As Q is the female she cannot be the husband.
So, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, R is the father of Q and they belong
to different gender which implies that Q is a female. So Q cannot be the husband. So
statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
4.
From A, we get X's mother's father is Band V's father's father is B. X's mother and V's father
are siblings. Hence X is the cousin of Y. So, A alone is sufficient. From B alone, X could be
either the brother of Y or the cousin of Y. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
5.
Statement A alone is not sufficient to find the relationship between A and B as the genders
of A as well as B are not known. From statement B, as D's father's only son is A and B is the
daughter's daughter of D, A is the uncle of B. Hence statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)
6.
7.
Among six members there are two housewives and two spinsters and the other two are
fathers. Hence, there are only two male members. So, A alone is sufficient. Among six
members there are two couples which imply that two females are there and two nieces
which implies the other two are males. So, B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
(or)
Choice (3)
8.
9.
10. From statement (A), we cannot say if D is the niece of B, since nothing is mentioned
regarding D. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement (B), we cannot say
regarding D being the niece of B or not, as nothing is mentioned about B. So, statement B
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together we can conclude that D is the
niece of B.
A-E
|
B, C-F
|
.
D
There are three females E, F and D and there males A, B, C. Married couples.
1. A-E
2. C- F
B is D's uncle or D is B's niece. Using both the statement together we can answer that D is
the niece of B.
Choice (3)
EXERCISE-15
1.
From A, between 4 and 5 oclock, the two hands of the Clock is at 90 at 4 hrs 5 min and at
4 hrs
min.
So, A alone is not sufficient From B alone we cannot determine as no time is mentioned.
Combining A and B, we can conclude that Michael asked Change to meet him at 4hrs 5
min but he came at 4 hrs
Choice (3)
2.
From statement A, the total number of times the clock strikes in 12 hours =
= 78 times.
So, A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone we cannot determine the number of times
the clock strikes in each hour. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
3.
In 12 hours the two hands of the clock are together for 11 times. So, A alone is not
sufficient. From B alone the time could be any time between 4 and 5. So, B alone is not
sufficient. Combining A and B, at 4 hrs 21 min the two hands of the clock are together
between 4 and 5.
Choice (3)
4.
When the reflection of the clock is seen in the mirror it shows 8 hrs 25 min. Hence the
actual time is 12- 8 hrs. 25 min = 3 hrs -35 minutes. So, A alone is sufficient. From
statement B alone we cannot find the time in the clocks as it may 6 o' clock, 9 o' clock 3 o'
clock etc. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
5.
From statement A, we can find the time for which he was outside. Let the time when he
went out and the time when he returned be x minutes past 5 pm and y minutes past 6 pm
respectively.
12
12
6
Clock when he went out
6
Clock when he returned
From 12:
150+
6x
When he returned,
Minute hand position
From 12:
6y
Now 6x =180+ ---(1)
6y=150+ ---(2)
12x-y=360---(1)
12y-x=300---(2)
Multiplying (2) by 12 and adding
Since there is only one leap year among the given 5 years, it has to be year C. So statement
B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)
143y=3960 or y=27
Substituting this value of y in (1)
12x=360+
x = 30 +
=32
He went out at 32
mins past 5 pm
He returned at 27
mins past 6 pm
127
minutes
From statement A, any two years having same number of days may be both leap years or
non-leap years. If both are leap years, the two years must differ by 4 years or a multiple of
4. As A and D differ by only 3 years, they are not leap yea's. Hence B or C has to be a leap
year as in any four consecutive years one of them must be a leap year. Hence statement A is
insufficient. From statement B, either B or D is a leap year. Hence statement B is
insufficient. Using both the statements as D is not a leap year, B is a leap year.
Choice (3)
8.
From statement A, in a non leap year the year starts and ends with the same day of the
week. So, the year X is not a leap year Statement A alone is sufficient. In a non leap year the
months February and Mach start with the same day of week, where as in a leap year they
will not start with the same day of the week. So, the year X is a leap year statement B alone
is sufficient.
Choice (2)
9.
From statement A, we can say that Menon has not celebrated hrs birthday in February. But
this alone is not sufficient to find the month in which he celebrated his birthday.
From statement B, we have the following possibilities.
(i) December, January and February :
31 + 31 + 28 = 90 days
(ii) February, March and April:
29 + 31 + 30 = 90 days
(iii) January, February and March:
31 + 28 + 31 = 90 days
So statement B, alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements also we cannot find the
month exactly as still there are two possibilities (Dec, Jan, Feb) or (Feb, March, April).
Note: (January, February, March) combination is ruled out as in that case we get Menon has
celebrated his birthday in February which is contradicting statement A.
Choice (4)
pm
Thus statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, let the time when he went out be x
minutes past 5 pm. So when he returned it was x minutes to 7 pm. Let the time he spent
outside be T.
x + T + x = 2 (60) mins [From 5 pm to 7 pm]
T = 120 - 2x We cannot find the value of T without knowing the value of x. So statement B
alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
6.
7.
Let us consider the years such that only one among them is a leap year.
A 2001
2002
2003
B 2002
2003
2004
C 2003
2004
2005
D 2004
2005
2006
E 2005
2006
2007
But we take years where the centre year is not a leap year, we get anyone of the five years
as leap year.
A 1896
1895
1894
1893
1900
B 1897
1896
1895
1894
1901
C 1898
1897
1896
1895
1902
D 1899
1898
1897
1896
1903
E 1900
1899
1898
1897
1904
From statement A, we cannot say which are among them is the leap year.
Since A + B + C > C + D + E
A+B>D+E
It is possible that one of A or B is the leap year, but we cannot say which one, Statement A
alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we can conclude that year C is the leap year.
Since (A + B + C) = (C + D + E)
A+B=D+E
10. Let us assume that the year 'X' is a leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 1st March (Sunday)
and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. Let us
assume that year 'X' is a non leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 28th February (Sunday)
and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. So, the
year X could be either a leap year or a non leap year. So, A alone is not sufficient. Similarly
B is also not sufficient.
Choice (4)
DATA INTERPRETATION
TABLES
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choice (3)
9.
Choice (5)
The number of people whose first preference is Eclairs and second preference is munch are
129 and the number of people whose first preference is munch and second preference is
Eclairs are 83.
%=
x 100 =(
) x 100
55%
Choice (2)
The population of the residential area cannot be determined as we don't know the exact
number of people whose first preference is a certain brand and the second preference other
brand.
Choice (5)
6.
Out of the given choices, the increase in B will be greater than that of A, since 15% of 115
will be greater than 20% of 110 which is greater than 20% of 108. The tie is between A and
E only. The overall percentage increase from 1997 to 2000 in case of
A = 1.3 x 1.2 x 1.1 x 1 = 171.6
In case of E = 1.28 x 1.1 x 1.12 x 1 = 172.03
The increase in E is the greatest.
Choice (5)
7.
Let the sales turnover in 1997 be 100 The sales turnover of Company A in 1999 = 110 + 20%
of 110 = 132. But sales turnover in 1999 = 135 crores
Sales turnover in 1997 =
less than 100
There is only one company, whose sales turnover was more than 100 crores.
Choice (2)
10. The sales turnover of company C in 2001 = 100 x 1.08 x 1.2 x 1.3 x 1.3 = 219%
The increase is 219 - 100 = 119%
Choice (3)
BAR CHARTS
1.
Choice (4)
2.
8.
Choice (1)
In whichever square the 'brand' in the column and the brand in the row meet. that gives
the exact number of chocolates of the brand. The number of each brand of chocolates is in
the diagonal form starting with 256 and ending with 132. Adding all these values,
256 + 498 + 178 + 144 + 286 + 124 + 88 + 132 = 1,706
Choice (1)
= (1.55 - 1) 100
5.
= 30 x 107
Choice (1)
4.
7.
Choice (4)
Exports after three years will become 160(1.1)3 = 212.96 thousand crores.
Imports after three years will become 150(0.9)3 = 109.35 thousand crores
Total trade = 213 + 109 = 322 thousand crores.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
1.
6.
2.
3.
Choice (3)
Total quantity of food grains in the year 2000 = 190 + 13 = 203 million tons = 203 x 10 6 x 103
kg Indian population = 100 crores = 100 x 10 7 persons.
Per capita availability =
= 203 kg
Choice (2)
PIE CHARTS
Quantity of food grains in 1999-2000 as per the target = 175 + 20% of 175 = 210 m tons.
Whereas achieved quantity of production = 203 m tons.
Deficit = 7 m tons.
Deficit as a percent of total production
= 7/210 x 100 = 3.3%
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (4)
4.
Choice (3)
Angle made by Bulk goods and paper and allied products is 147.6 .
360
------ 36 billion dollars
147.6
------?
Clearly 1
------ 0.1 billion dollars
147.6 will be = 147.6 x 0.1 = 14.76 billon dollars
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
5.
6.
Fuel bill was 90 in 1999-2000 and has increased by 40%. Hence the new angle is 90 + 36
= 126. Since all the other commodities bills have not changed, the total angle for these
remains = 270 i.e. the total angle is 396 .
Angle for Capital C300ds is 39.6. Hence for a new pie
chart, angle of Capital Goods is
x 360 = 36 .
Choice (1)
Child mortality in Afghanistan =
8.
= 4.16%
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
4.
Observing the graph and the values of income computed for the given years, none of the
variables income, expenditure and profit shows the similar trend.
Choice (5)
5.
The imports may be in dollars or in some other currency. This is not mentioned. Hence the
profit or loss cannot be determined.
Choice (5)
6.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
x 18 = 1.25
= 1 lakh
= 16.66 lakhs
Choice (1)
If child mortality in Bangladesh decreases by 40% it will reduce by 40% of 20 i.e. 8 . The
total will also reduce to 360 - 8 = 352. Hence child mortality rate in 2000-01
would be =
x 360 which must be slightly greater than 12 .
Choice (4)
10. In others half i.e., 40 are from For East countries. 20%
i.e., 16 are from Arab countries.
Angle made by remaining countries in others will be
= 80 - 40 - 16 = 24
7.
Choice (3)
LINE GRAPHS
1.
3.
Choice (3)
The percentage increase in the income is highest in 1999-2000 over its previous year, since
here only income is doubled, whereas for others it is not doubled.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
2.
x 18 = 81akhs
But this is equal to 40% of its child population below five years of age.
Child population of this segment
=
= 20 lakhs
7.
Income = Expenditure + Profit for different years, income is as follows, (Rs. 00,000)
1994-95 = 20 + 5 = 25
1995-96 = 30 + 10 = 40
1996-97 = 40 -10 = 30
1997-98 = 40 + 0 = 40
1998-99 = 20 + 10 = 30
1999-2000 = 40 + 20 = 60
8.
9.
The EPS of the shares approximately for the year 1998-99 are RS.10 and Rs.25 respectively.
Number of shares of x and Y in 1998-99 is
X=
and
Y=
=
4.
and
Ratio of shares
:
= 10 : 1
By observing the table given in situation 1, we see that France, USA and Argentina had 50%
success rate and won 60 matches in all. The other two teams, Germany and Brazil won 50
matches in all.
Choice (3)
6.
By observation
7.
Choice (5)
= 16.66%
8.
=(
Germany
France
Brazil
USA
Argentina
Matches
won
20
15
30
30
15
Matches
lost
30
10
15
?
Matches
drawn
10
15
5
15
?
9.
Originally, Brazil had the highest success rate, Even after doubling, it will have the highest
success rate, (Since the ratio of matches drawn and won to total matches respectively
remains the same)
Choice (2)
3.
As we do not know the number of matches played by each team against Argentina, the
success rate cannot be determined.
Choice (5)
x 100) x
x 100) x = 50%
Choice (1)
By observation, the production of cotton is less than denim for 1997-98 and 1999-2000. The
percentage may not 'be required to find as the base i.e. the denominator will be the same for
both cotton and Denim.
Choice (2)
10. As we do not know the price per bale of each type for any of the years, we cannot find for
which type, the cost of production is the least.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
2.
Choice (2)
1.
Matches
played
60
30
45
60
30
Choice (5)
In 1999-2000
=
= 5,000 ('000 bales)
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (3)
1.
2.
Choice (4)
be
x 100 =
x100 = 10.0101%
3.
As we do not know the total sales in 1999-2000, we cannot find the percentages of sales of
Sony and RPG.
Difference in percentage points also cannot be found.
Choice (5)
4.
5.
MISCELLANEOUS
Choice (5)
1.
2.
Choice (4)
Now, 300/360 will be common for all the states we need not calculate the entire percentage.
It would be sufficient if we observe the percentage Increase in the percentages of the
respective states.
i.e., for AP
12% to 16%
which is <100%
for TN
4%t010%
which is>100%
for Kerala
8% to 5%
which is a decrease
for Karnataka 5% to 8%
which is <100%
Choice (2)
6.
Share of Maharashtra in the total production of food grains in 1999-2000 and 2000-01 is
10% of 360
i.e., 36 and 8% of 300 i.e., 24 respectively.
required percentage =
x 100
= 37.5%
7.
8.
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
4.
Choice (2)
The number of students who do not play Cricket, Football or Hockey is 31 + 159 = 190
Choice (2)
REASONING APTITUDE
3.
We can find the production of the food grains of A.P. and Karnataka for the year 2001-02
but the total food grail production in 2001-02cannot be found. Hence,
Choice (5)
Students playing at least three games = students playing exactly three + students playing
exactly four. = 8 + 13 + 36 + 31 + 37 = 125
Choice (1)
5.
2.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
3.
x 100
- 1) x 100
4.
5.
6.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
6+2,8+4,12+6.18+8,26+10, 36
26 + 10 = 36 (Consecutive even numbers are added)
Choice (1)
63+3,66+5,71+7,78+9,87+11, 98
87 + 11 = 98 (Consecutive Odd numbers are added)
Choice (2)
75 + 25 = 98
7.
8.
9.
Choice (4)
4,49,144,289, ___
This can be written as (2)2, (7)2, (12)2, (17)2, __
2 + 5 = 7, 7 + 5 = 12 and 17 + 5 = 22 and (22) 2 = 484
4,8,12,7,11,18,9, ____,22
4+8=12; 7+11=18; Similarly, 9 + 13 = 22
2,4,8,3,9,27,5,25,125,___,___,___
(2), (2)2, (2)3, (3), (3)2, (3)3, (5), (5)2, (5)3, __,__
2, 3, 5 are consecutive primes and the prime number
after 5 is 7.
7, (7)2, (7)3 =7, 49, 343
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
, ,
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
21. 24,30,36,42,52,60, __
Sum of the consecutive prime numbers are given.
.. 11 + 13 = 24; 13 + 17 = 30; 17 + 19 = 36 and so on.
So, 31 + 37 = 68
Choice (5)
Choice (5)
23. 2,8,4,64,7,343,11,1331,16, __
This can be written as 2,23,4,43,7,73,11,113, 16, 163
(16)3 = 4096
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
26. 17x2,34x3,102x4,408x5,2040x6, __
2040 x 6 = 12240
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
,___ The number given in the numerator the square of its number is given in the
denominator.
Next number is
Choice (2)
27. 12, 14, 18,26,38,62, __ The product of the digits in each number is added to the number to
get the next number in the series.
12 1 x 2 = 2 and 12 + 2 = 14
14 1 x 4 = 4 and 14 + 4 = 18 and so on.
Similarly, 62 6 x 2 = 12 and 62 +12 = 74
Choice (3)
28. 12,36,150,392,1452, __
The given series can be written as
(2)3 + (2)2, (3)3 + (3)2, (5)3 + (5)2, (7)3 + (7)2,
(11)3+ (11)2, (13)3 + (13)2
(13)3 + (13)2 = 2197 + 169 = 2366
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
30. 49,925,2549,___,121169
This can be written as 22 32, 32 52,52 72, 72 112, 112 132
Squares of successive prime numbers are given
72 112 49121
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
37. 8,9,125,49,1331, __
This can be written as
23, 32, 53, 72, 113, 132
132 =169
Choice (3)
38. 15,66,132,363,726, __
The digits in each number are reversed and the number
so formed is added to the original number.
15 + 51 = 66; 66 + 66 = 132 and so on
Similarly, 726 + 627 = 1353
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
42. 4, 18,
100,
294,
1210
Choice (3)
43.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
2,
30,
130,
350,
13 + 1
33 + 3
53 + 5
73 + 7
Odd numbers in the form of n3 + n.
738
93 + 9
44.
506
222+22
930,
302+30
812,
282+28
702,
262+26
600,
242+24
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
45. 0 ,
4,
48 ,
180 ,
448 ,
900
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
47. The letter which is 8th to the right of P is X. The 6th letter to the left of X is R
Choice (4)
48. The 7'h letter to the left of is H. The third letter to the right of H is K.
Choice (3)
49. The fourth letter to the left of H is L. The fifth letter to the left of L is Q.
Choice (1)
50. The letter which is 5th letter to the right of X is S. The letter immediately to the left of S is T.
Choice (1)
51. The letter which is four places to the right of P is L. The letter which is two places to the left
of L is N.
Choice (3)
52. C+5 , H+5 , M+5 , R+5 , W+5 , B+5 , G
Choice(1)
53. The series consists of pairs of corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet So
the next pair is ER
Choice (5)
54. B E,
2
5
+3
G K, M R,
T Z,
B I.
20
28
11
+4
18
+5
55. J L, M O,
10 12
13
13 15
26
+6
35
Choice (2)
+7
P R,
S U,
V X
16
19 21
22
18
24
Choice (4)
56. The first two letters in each group make a series. LM,NO, PO, RS, TU. The third letter in
each group makes another series.
N-2, L-2, J-2, H-2, F. Hence, TUF is the next group in the series.
Choice (3)
57. N L K, J H G, F D C, B Z Y,____
14
12 11
10 8 7
N-2=L N-4=J
L-1 =K J-4=F
6 4
28 26 25
Choice(1)
58. The three letters in each group make three different series.
F+6 = L+6 = R+6 = X+6 =D
-5
T = O-5 = J-5 = E-5 = Z
J+4 = N+4 = R+4 = V+4 = Z
So, 'DZZ' is the next group in the series.
Choice (2)
59. The three letters in each group constitute three different series as follows.
P-2 = N-2 = L -2 = J -2 = H
L +2 = N+2 = P+2 = R+2 = T
J-2 = H-2 = F-2 = D-2 = B
So, the next group, in the series as HTB.
Choice (3)
60. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
The first letters are consecutive vowels.
A, E, I, O, U
C+3 , F+3 , I+3 , L +3 , O
D+4 ,H+4 , L +4 ,P+4 , T
Hence the missing letters are IIL.
Choice (2)
61. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
A2 , B2 , D2 , H2 , P
J+2 , L+2 , N+2 , P+2 , R
X-3, U-3 , R-3 , O-3, L
Hence the missing letters are DNR.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
63. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
B+l , C+1 , D+1 , E+l , F
D-2, B-2 , Z-2 , X-2 ,V
F+3 , I+3 , L+3 , O+3 , R
H-4 , D-4 , Z-4 , V-4 , R
Hence the missing letters are FVRR.
Choice (3)
set of letters.
A+1 , B+2, D +3 , G+4, K
C+2, E+3, H+4, L+5, Q
D+3, G+4, K+5,P +5, V
B+4, F+5, K+6, Q+7, K.
Hence the missing letters are KQVX.
81,100,121,144,169,196
92,102,112, 122, 132,142
Hence, 170 is the wrong number.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
66. 1 L 2
12 and the 12th letter is L.
1Q7
17 and the 17th letter is Q.
Similarly, 2 V 2 is 22 and the 22nd letter is V.
Choice (2)
67. 4 B 2
4 - 2 = 2, and the 2nd letter is B,
8G1
8 - 1 = 7, and the 7th letter is G.
Similarly, 6 C 3
6 - 3 = 3, and the 3rd letter is C.
22 ,
Choice (3)
68. It is a series of vowels written in ascending first and then in descending order, hence 'e'
comes next.
Choice (1)
69. c+1 = d+1 = e+5 = j+1 = k+l = I+5 = q+1 = r+1 = s+5 = x
Choice (2)
70. This is the series of consecutive consonants. So, the next letter in the series is p. Choice (1)
71. The given series is
82, 162, 322, 642, 1282,256
Hence, 120 is the wrong number.
72. The given series is.
8+31, 39+37, 76+41,111+43, 160+47,207
Prime numbers are added in the increasing order.
Hence, 120 is the wrong number.
73. The given series is the series of consecutive squares.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
, 125 ,607 ,
,462013 ,60060
Given numbers are multiplied with prime numbers. Hence, 425 is the wrong number with a
greater margin.
Choice (2)
78. The given series is
521+1 , 522+2, 524+4, 528+8, 536+16, 552+32, 584+64, 648
where the added numbers are 12, 22, 42, 82, 162 , 322,64.
Hence, 540 is the wrong number with a greater margin;
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
(d)
(e)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
,
,
,
, 0.192
Hence, the fourth number is 0.24.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
92. Row (1) is 22 9 15
Resultant of 22 9 = 22 x 9 = 198 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 198 = 198 - 15 = 28 (from rule (2
Row (2) is 12257
Resultant of 12 25 = 12 x 25 = 300 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 300 5=
= 60 (from rule (4))
Choice (5)
Resultant of row 2 = 60
Hence, the sum of the resultants of row (1) and row (2)
is 183 + 60 = 243.
93. Row (1) is 24 15 33
Choice (2)
Row (2) is 20 20 5
Resultant of 20 20 =
96. Row(1) is 19 4 3
Resultant of 19 4 = 19 - 4 = 15 (Form rule (3))
Resultant of 15 3 = 15 x 3 = 45 (from rule (4))
Row (2) is 90 45 13
Resultant of 90 45 = 90 45 = 2 (from rule (2))
Resultant of 2 13 = 2 x 13 = 26 (from the rule (4))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) = 26.
97. Row (1) is 49 5 1 2
Resultant of 49 51 = 49 + 51 = 100 (Form rule (1))
Resultant of 100 2 = 100 x 2 = 200 (from rule (4))
Resultant of row (1) = 200.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
9: 16: : 49 : ___
3 2 : 4 2: : 7 2 : 8 2
3 + 1 = 4, 7 + 1 = 8 and 82 = 64
Choice (3)
2. 48 : 120 : : 35 :___
72-1: 112-1 : : 62-1: ___
7 + 4 = 11, 6 + 4 = 10 and 102 - 1 = 99
Choice (2)
3. 324: 18 : : 576 :
= 18 and
Choice (4)
4.
= 24
5. 15:90: :17:___
15 x 6 = 90 and 17 x 6 = 102
6. 7: 91 : : 13 :___
7 x 13 = 91 and 13 x 13 = 169
7. 625: 526 : : 225 : ___
The digits in the given numbers are reversed.
625 when reversed is 526. Similarly, 225 when reversed is.522.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
8. 9: 72 : : 16 : ___
92 - 9 => 81 - 8 = 72
Similarly, 162 - 16 = 256 - 16 = 240
Choice (3)
9. 31:37: :41:___
Next prime number to 31 is 37. Similarly, next prime number to 41 is 43.
Choice (4)
10. 3 : 81 : : 7 :___
3 and (3)4 = 81
Similarly , 7 and (7)4 = 2401
11. 110: 132 : : 210 : ___
102+ 10 => 100+ 10= 110
112+11 =>121 +11 =132
where 10 + 1 = 11
Similarly, 142 + 14 = 210 and 152 + 15 = 240.
12. 23: 529 : : 29 : ___
23 and (23)2 = 529
Similarly, 29 and (29)2 = 841.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
18. 2: 32 : : 4 : ___
2 and (2)5 = 32
Similarly, 4 and (4)5 = 1024
Choice (4)
19. 7: 53 : : 8 : ___
7 x 7 + 4 = 49 + 4 = 53
Similarly, 8 x 7 + 4 = 56 + 4 = 60
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
42. 6: 42 : 14 : ___
6 x 7 = 42
Similarly, 14 x 7 = 98
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Similarly, 23 x 3 + 3 = 69 + 3 = 72
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
61. S
-3
P
L
-3
I
62. T
-4
P
S
-3
P
Similarly,
L
-3
I
P
-3
M
Choice (1)
J
-4
F
T
-3
Q
Choice (2)
63. J P
Similarly,
-10 -10
Z F
K
-10
A
T
-10
J
Choice (3)
64. J M
+5 +7
K
+5
F
+7
Similarly,
Similarly,
65. L J
+15 +15
A Y
G
+15
V
66. P C
+3 +4
S
G
0
+5
I
Similarly,
M
K
+15
Z
Similarly, B
+3
E
Choice (3)
M
+15
B
T
+15
I
K
+4
0
S
+5
X
P
+3
S
Similarly, M
+3
P
O
+3
R
68. M U
+2 +0
O U
Similarly,
P U
+2 +0
R U
L
+3
O
T
+0
T
A
+4
E
N
+0
N
R
+3
U
I
+0
I
F
+4
J
Y
+0
Y
69. F R
+0 -2
F P
Similarly,
M E
+0 -2
M C
I
+0
I
E
-3
B
N
+0
N
D
-4
Z
N
+0
N
T
-3
Q
0
+0
O
R
-4
N
70. P A
+1 -1
Q Z
Similarly,
T A
+1 -1
U Z
R
+1
S
K
-1
J
N
+1
O
K
-1
J
71. L E
+4 +4
P I
M
+4
Q
0
+4
S
N
+3
0
A
+4
E
N
+4
R
G
+4
K
72. A M
+5 -5
F H
Similarly,
A R
+5 -5
F M
B
+5
G
E
-5
Z
R
+5
W
R
+5
W
0
-5
J
W
+5
B
73. S
T
+2 +2
U V
G Similarly,
+2
I
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
L
+2
N
Choice (1)
M
+2
O
Q
+2
S
74. Each letter in the word is coded with its preceding and the succeeding letters.
Preceding and succeeding letters for M are Land N.
So, MAN: LNZBMO
Similarly, SUN.: RTTVMO
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
S
-2
S
+2
E -2
C
E +2
G
T -2
R
T +2
V
Hence, SET: QUCGRV and MAT: KOYCRV.
75. S
Q
U
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
N
+4
R
E
+4
I
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
67. C A
+3 +3
F 0
Similarly,
O R
+4 +4
S
V
76. T O
P
T +2
=V
T -2
=R
O +2
=0
O -2
=M
P +2
=R
P -2
=N
Hence, TOP: VRQMRN and SET: UQGCVR
77. F L
+3 +4
I
P
A
+5
F
S
+6
Y
H
+7
O
Choice (1)
Similarly,
C L
+3 +4
F P
U
+5
Z
S
+6
Y
H
+7
O
A
-3
X
I
+4
M
N
-5
I
U
-3
R
M
+4
Q
P
-5
K
80. L A
-7 -7
E T
Similarly,
B A
-7 -7
U T
M
-7
F
P
-7
I
N
-7
G
D
-7
W
81. P L
-3 -3
M I
Similarly,
A P
-3 -3
J
X
A
-3
X
N
-3
K
L
-3
M
E
-3
I
83. L is the 2nd letter from the left and Q is the 2nd letter from the right. Similarly, Y is the 12 th
letter from the right end and B is the 12 th letter from the left.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
84. Corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet are taken. H is the 6th letter from
the left in the first half, whereas U is the 6th letter from the left in the second half.
Similarly, the corresponding letters for the other letters are also obtained. Hence, HDB:
UQO:: WTS : JGF.
Choice (3)
85. J is the 4th letter from the left and Q is the 4th letter from the right of the alphabet. So, J and
Q are corresponding letters. Similarly, M and N are the corresponding letters. Hence, JM :
QN : : CT : XG.
Choice (4)
86. Corresponding letters from the other side of the alphabet series are written.
LKH : OPS : : TSQ : GHJ.
Choice (1)
87. Corresponding letters of the two halves of the alphabet are written as
ZUS: MHF: : PJN : : CWA.
Choice (5)
88. Corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet are written as
LMST: ONHG:: PKLM : KPON.
Choice (3)
89. T
-2
V
P
-2
R
U
-2
W
Similarly , J
-2
L
C
-2
E
K
-2
M
Choice (1)
90. L
-7
S
J
-7
Q
O
-7
V
P Similarly, T
-7
-7
W
A
K V
-7 -7
R
C
M
-7
T
Choice (2)
91. L
-1
M
J
-2
L
T
-3
W
U Similarly, P S T U
-4
-1 -2 -3 -4
Y
Q U W Y
Choice (4)
92. W S
+3 +4
T O
T
+5
O
Similarly, B
+3
Y
Choice (5)
93. A
-4
E
Similarly,
Choice (2)
-3
B
Choice (2)
82. J is the fourth letter from the left and Q is the fourth letter from the right end of the
alphabet. Similarly, D is the 10th letter from the left and W is the 10 th letter from the right.
Choice (2)
E
-4
I
I
-4
M
T
+4
P
O
-4
S
U
+5
P
Choice (1)
94. L J
-4 +4
P F
T
-4
X
U Similarly, P S T U
+4
-4 +4 -4 +4
Q
T O X Q
95. K J
-1 -2
L L
W
-3
Z
D Similarly,
-4
H
S G P Q
-1 -2 -3 -4
T I S U
Code:
PL
LLTP FLZ
Similarly, 'MILLION' is coded as BTZZTFD.
Choice (2)
96. There are two possibilities. a and e are consecutive vowels. o and u are the consecutive
vowels.
Similarly, a + 4 = e , o+ 4 = s
Choice (4)
97. P and k are the corresponding letters with respect to the two directions of the alphabet
series. Similarly, s and h are the corresponding letters.
Choice (1)
98. e=5 5 x 2 = 10 = j
p = 16 16 x 2 = 32; 32 - 26 = 6 = f
Choice (3)
100. a = 1 1 X (1)2 = 1 = a
b = 2 2 X (2)2 = 8 = h
Choice (1)
R
x2+2
R
x2+2
R
x2+2
Y
x2+2
Choice (4)
5. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its code value.
Number of letters in the word ENERGY = 6 and (6) 2= 36
Number of letters in the word 'ACQUIRE' = 7 and (7) 2 = 49
Similarly, COMPETITION = (11)2 = 121.
Choice (2)
6. Word: A R R I V E D
Logic: The word is reversed.
Code: D E V I R R A
Similarly, PETROLEUM is coded as MUELORTEP.
Choice (5)
7. Word :
SECTOR
Logic: The word is divided into two halves and each half is reversed.
Code: C E S ROT
Similarly, OPPOSITION is coded as SOPPONOITI.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
99. c = 3 (3)2 = i
d = 4 (4)2 = p
3. Word: T
Logic: x2+2
T
x2+2
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
I
x2+2
Choice (2)
8. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 10 to get the code value
i.e., PIONEER => 7 x 10 = 70
BRAND => 5 x 10 = 50
Similarly, TECHNOLOGY => 10 x 10 = 100.
Choice (3)
9. Word: FOUNDATION
Logic: Pairs of letters in the word are reversed
Code: O F N U A D I T N O
Similarly INTERIOR is coded as NIETIRRO.
Choice (5)
10. Word:
C O N C E P T
Logic:
+1 +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7
Code:
D Q Q G J V A
Similarly, EXECUTION is coded as FZHGZZPWW.
Choice (4)
11. In the word COMPANY, every alternate letter starting from the first is coded by taking the
sum of the digits in its place value as per the alphabet.
i.e., C = 3,
M = 13
1 + 3 = 4 and the 4th letter is D and so on
Logic 2 : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Code : O P J U B U V Q F S
Choice (1)
15. In this, product of the digits in the place-values of the letters as per the alphabet is obtained
first and then added i.e., CUSTOM
C=3
U = 21
2x1=2
S=19 1x9=9
T = 20 => 2 x 0 = 0
0=15 1x5=5
M=13 1x3=3
Now (3 + 2 + 9 + 0 + 5 + 3) = 22
So, CUSTOM = 22
Similarly, HISTORY = 49.
Choice (2)
16. PURPOSE is coded as EPSUORP.
Choice(2)
Choice(1)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
20. Word : R E P U T A T I O N
Logic 1 : N O I T A T U P E R
21. Word :
Logic 1:
Logic 2:
Code :
L I Q
Y T I
+1 +1 +1
Z U J
U
D
+1
E
22. Word :
Logic 1 :
Logic 2 :
Code :
O
Y
+1
Z
23. Word :
Logic 1 :
Logic 2 :
Code :
S I T U
N O I T
+1 +1 +1 +1
O P J U
I D I T Y
I U Q I L
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1
J V R J M
Choice (4)
R
U
+1
V
T
T
+1
U
Choice (1)
A
A
+1
B
T I O
U T I
+1 +1 +1
V U J
Choice (3)
13. In this, the digits in the place-value of the .letters as per the alphabet are added. i.e.,
CHAMBER
=> C = 3 = C; H = 8 = H; A = 1 = A; M = 13
=> 1 + 3 = 4 = D and so on.
Similarly, INDUSTRY is coded as IEDCJBIG.
Choice (4)
14. Word : D O M E S T I C
Logic: x2 x1 x3 x1 x4 x1 x5 x1
Code: H O M E X T S C
Similarly, the word 'EXECUTIVE' is coded as JXOCFTSVD.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
P P U
T I N
+1 +1 +1
U J O
U
R
+1
S
N
O
+1
P
I T Y
P P O
+1 +1 +1
Q Q P
N
S
+1
T
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
26. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 3 to get the value i.e., CONSUMER =>
8 x 3 = 24 and
DETERGENT =>.9 x 3 = 27
Similarly, EXPLORATION => 11 X 3 = 33.
Choice (5)
27. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its value.
KNOWLEDGE = 9 and (9)2 = 81 and
INNOVATION = 10 and (10)2 = 100
Similarly, INTERNATIONAL = 13 and (13)2 = 169.
28. The given words and their codes are as follows
1. SOUND 67039
2. BOARD 85723
3. WORK 1847
In all words the letters O and digit 7 are common.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
$
o
The code for 'lit' is ' '.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
as
Choice (5)
37. Word :
CUSTOMER
Logic:
The letters in the word are reversed
Code:
REMOTSUC
Similarly, DISTANCE is coded as ECNATSID.
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
38. Let us number the letters in the given word
P R
O
T
E
I
1
2
3
4
5
6
N as
7
L = 12 and is coded as 2.
P
1
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
46. If all the letters represented by a prime number are coded as 2 and the remaining letters are
coded as 1, then the word TOGETHER is coded as 11221121, in which only G = 7, E = 5
represent prime number values.
Choice (4)
39. Word :
A D D RE SS
Logic:
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1
Code:
Z C C Q D RR
Similarly, BUILDING is coded as ATHKCHMF.
Choice (1)
40. Word :
E N E R G Y
Logic:
-2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
Code:
C L C P E W
Similarly, FORTUNE is coded as DMPRSLC.
Choice (4)
41. Word :
R E S I D E N T
Logic:
-2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
Code:
P C Q G BC L R
Similarly, VILLAGE is coded as TGJJYEC.
Choice (1)
42. Word :
M E A S U R E
Logic:
-1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1 -1
Code:
L F Z T T S D
Similarly, OCCASION is coded as NDBBRJNO.
43. Word : P
U
B
L
I
Logic: +3
+3
+3
-3
-3
Code: S
X
E
I
F
Similarly, NUMBER is coded as QXPYBO.
Choice (3)
C
-3
Z
Choice (1)
44. In this, the place-values of the letters in the word as per the alphabet are given as the code.
CHEER is coded as 385518.
WATER is coded as 23120518
Similarly, EXPRESS is coded as 524161851919.
Choice (2)
45. Given that in a certain code language, A is represented by 1, B by 2, C by 3, all the multiples
of2 are given a code of 2, the multiples of 3 are given a code of 3. In case of a clash 2 will
prevail, and the rest of the letters in the alphabet are given a code of 4. Hence, VOWEL
V = 22 and is coded as 2
O= 15 and is coded as 3
W = 23 and is coded as 4
E = 5 and is coded as 4
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
*.
Choice (3)
Choice (l)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
61. The code for "Balbua is expensive will win Race' is 'Zar
Tar Dar Yar Car Mar'.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
6 .
Choice (2)
3 6 . This group
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
$29
2 = o " is jpobij.
Choice (1)
@ # = " is tlkhiu.
Choice (2)
is rmbpr.
Choice (3)
4" is pjrgop.
7 @ 1" is cmnfkq.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
68. The given group of elements is $ 3 @ 9 5. This group follows condition (i).
Hence, the code is C M A M E M H.
62. The code for 'Rocky lose Balbua win' is 'Par Lar Dar
Car'.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
1.
Choice (3)
2.
Choice (5)
3.
Choice (4)
4.
Place values of all the letters except 'u' are perfect squares.
5.
All except 'FV' are the pairs of corresponding letters in the alphabet series. (Sum is 27 for all
except FV)
Choice (5)
6.
Choice (4)
(1 ) C+13P
(2) J+14X (3)D+13Q
+13
(4) L Y
(5) K+13X
All except JX follow the same pattern.
Choice (2)
7.
Choice (4)
8.
Choice (1)
9.
Choice (4)
18. All except 'DW' are the corresponding letters with to the two halves of the alphabet series.
Choice (3)
19. 8 = 23; 81 = 34; 1024 = 45; 3125 = 55; 15625 = (5)6
All the numbers except 3125 are of the form N(N+l)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
22. All except s are from the first half of the alphabet series
Choice (2)
23. All the groups of letters except RST are from the first half of the alphabet series. Choice (5)
10. All except '50' are divisible by 3.
11. (1 ) 222 = 63 + 6
(2)
350 = 73 + 7
(3) 520 = 83 + 8
(4)
738 = 93 + 9
(5) 130=53+5
As choice (1) is 214, it is the odd one.
Choice (4)
24. All except 'SF' are the pairs of corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet
series.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
25. (1) L+l M+2 O-1 N
(2) P+1 Q+2 S-l R
(3) S+l T+3 W-1 V
(4) G+1 H+2 J-l I
(5) A+l B+2 D-1 C
All except (3) follow the same logic.
Choice (3)
12. All the numbers except 748 can be expressed in the form of
N3 - N2.
Ex: 18 = 33 - 32; 48 = 43 - 42; 294 = 73 - 72;
100 = 53 - 52; 648 = 93 - 92
Choice (5)
26. All except 'IE' are pairs of vowels in the natural order of the alphabets.
Choice (5)
13. All the given letters except '0' are from the first half of the alphabet series.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
15. All except '603' have sum of the digits equal to 11.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
17. First and the third letters are consecutive and the second and the fourth letters are their
respective corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet series.
Choice (4)
29. The digits in each set represent the position of the given letter in the English alphabet.
2W3 => 23 =W
1Q7=>17=Q
1M3 => 13 = M,
2Y5 => 25 = Y,
1R9 => 19 = S but not R.
Hence 1 R9 is the odd one.
30. (1) C2 F
(2) F3R (3) J3 D
3
(4) D l
(5) K3 G
All except 'CF' follow the same logic.
44. All except 'Football' require a stick or a bat to hit the ball.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
46. All the given pair of letters except 'lR' comprise of corresponding letters from the other end
of the alphabet.
Choice (4)
31. B = 2 & D = 4 i.e., 2 and its square. Similarly CI = 3, 9, FJ = 6, 36, DP = 4, 16. EV = 5, 22 is the
only pair of letters that does not satisfy this criteria.
Choice (4)
32. (1) Z Y X (2) L K J
(3) U T S
(4) F-1 E-1 D (5) L+1M+1N
All except 'LMN' follow the same logic.
-1
-l
-l
-1
-1
-l
Choice (5)
34. All the groups have a set of consecutive letters but only 'PQR' is a group which has no vowel
in it.
Choice (4)
35. All except '21' are prime numbers.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
37. All the given numbers except 225 are perfect cubes whereas 225 is a perfect square.
Choice (4)
38. 35 = 5 x 7; 77 = 7 x 11; 437 = 19 x 23; 63 = 7 x 9.
All the numbers except 63 are the product of successive prime numbers.
Choice (4)
39. The number of times a digit is repeated is equal to its value except in (1).
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
41. All except 'Brown' are the constituent colors of the rainbow.
Choice (3)
42. All except the word 'Two' have two vowels each.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
47. The alternate letters in each group except in PBRC are consecutive.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
55. Pairs of prime numbers in descending order are taken and written one next to the other.
Ex: 97 & 89 = 9789; 83 & 79 = 8379; 61 & 59 = 6159; 5961 = 59 & 61
The only number that does not follow this pattern is 7573.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
67. In each group of letters the second letter is the corresponding letter from the other end of
the alphabet and the third letter is the corresponding letter with respect: to two halves of
the alphabet. This process is followed in all the groups except in 'SHG'.
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
68. The number of times a letter is written is equal to its place value except in AA.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
59. Except 'page' all are living places of some living beings.
Choice (5)
69. (1) G2 N
(2) D4 P (3) F4 X
4
(4) B H
(5) C4 L
All except 'GN' follow the same logic.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
73. In all the numbers except '223' same digits are used.
Choice (1)
74. The value of the letters is added and is given in the middle.
C9F => C = 3 and F = 6 and 3 + 6 = 9
GHJ => G = 7 and J = 10 and 7 + 10 = 17
F14H => F = 6 and H = 8 and 6 + 8 = 14
B60 => B = 2 and 0 = 4 and 2 + 4 = 6
K23M=> K = 11 and M = 13 and 11 + 13 = 24 but not 23.
Hence K23M is the odd one.
Choice (1)
60. The difference of the digits in each set represents the position of the letter in the English
alphabet.
8F2 => 8 - 2 = 6 = F
703 => 7 - 3 = 4 = D
9B7 => 9 - 7 = 2 = B, 9C6 = 9 - 6 = 3 = C
6H2 => 6 - 2 = 4 = 0 but not H.
Hence 6H2 is the odd one.
Choice (4)
61. The letters at the ends and the letters at the middle make two pairs of corresponding letters
from the other end of the alphabet.
Choice (4)
62. In all the fractions except '12/4' the number is divided by sum of its digits.
63. (1) P+1 Q+1 R+1 S
(2) K+1 L+1 M+1 N
(3) W+1 X+1 Y+1 Z
(4) F+1 G+1 H+2 J
(5) J+1 K+1 L+1 M
All except (4) follow the same logic.
64. (1) T+1 U+2 W+3 Z
(2) P+1 Q+2 S+3 V
+1
+2
+3
(3) L M O R
(4) A+1B+2 D+3 G
+1
+3
+3
(5) F G J M
All except FGJM follow the same logic.
65. (1) Y-1 X-2 V-3 S
(2) L-1 K-2 I-3 F
-1
-2
-2
(3) C B Z X
(4) P-1 O-2 M-3 J
-1
-2
-3
(5) W V T Q
All except CBZX follow the same logic.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
75. All the given numbers are perfect cubes but only '729' is a number which is both a perfect
square as well as a perfect cube.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
76. (1) C1 C2 F3 R
(2) D1 D2 H3 X
1
2
3
(3) B B D L
(4) P1 P2 F2 L
1
2
3
(5) F F L J
All except PPLF follow the same logic.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
66. In each pair, there are two groups consisting of three letters. The second group is the set of
corresponding letters of the first in the reverse order except in (3) where it is not given in
the reverse order.
Choice (3)
78. In all the given numbers except '765' the digits of all other numbers are written in the
ascending order.
Choice (3)
79. All except '13' are composite numbers.
80. (1) K2 Y
(2) H2 P (3) E2 J
2
(4) P F
(5) A4 D
All except 'AD' follow the same logic.
81. The sum of the digits-in each set represents the position
of the letter in the English alphabet.
1 D3 => 1 + 3 = 4 = D
2F4 => 2 + 4 = 6 = F
2J8 => 2 + 8 = 10 = J,
5K6 => 5 + 6 = 11 = K,
3H4 => 3 + 4 = 7 = G but not H.
Hence 3H4 is the odd one.
82. Book is used to read.
Pen is used to write.
House is used to live.
Bed is to sleep.
But Table is not used to sit.
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
90. The letters in the words are given in jumbled form. When arranged in a proper order, we get
the following
(1) GUITAR (2) SITAR
(3) FLUTE
(4) TABLA (5) RADIO
All except 'RADIO' are musical instruments.
Choice (5)
91. The letters in the words are in jumbled order. We get the following words when they are
arranged properly.
(1) CARROT (2) ONION (3) POTATO
(4) MANGO (5) RADISH
All except 'MANGO' are vegetables.
Choice (4)
92. In all the groups the first four letters are consecutive letters of the alphabet series. The fifth
letter is a vowel. This is followed in all the groups except in (2).
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
93. In all the pairs, the sum of the digit and the place value of the letter is equal to 5 except in
E2.
Choice (1)
95. The letters in the words are jumbled. We get the following words when arranged properly.
(1) BULB
(2) FAN
(3) LAMP
(4) TORCH
All except 'FAN' are the appliances used for getting light.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
85. In all the choices except (3), the letters 0, U, Sand R are used.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
86. All the given numbers except (4) consist of consecutive digits in ascending order. Choice (4)
87. All except '33' are prime numbers.
88. (1) E-2 C+1 D-2 B
(3) X-2 V+1 W-2 U
(5) P-2 N+1 O-2 M
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
98. The product of the digits in each set represents the position of the given letter in the English
alphabet.
1D4=> 1X4=4=D
3L4 => 3 X 4 = 12 = L
2P8=> 2X8=16=P
4T5 => 4 X 5 = 20 = T
2J6=> 2X6=12=L but not J.
Hence 2J6 is the odd one.
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
6.
VENN DIAGRAMS
7.
EXERCISE 5(a)
As per the given data , we get the following diagram :
8.
9.
H History
G Geography
1. 55 like only Geography.
Choice (3)
2.
Choice (2)
3.
10 students like both History and Geography out of a total of 150 students. Hence, 150 - 10 =
140 students do not like either History or Geography.
Choice (4)
4.
Choice (5)
5.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
10% of the youngsters did not like any of the two games.
10% of 200 = 20
Choice (2)
45% of total
Football.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
17. 25 families use mobile-phones of both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens (Region
common to Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens).
Choice (1)
18. Exactly one company
= Only Panasonic + Only Nokia + Only Siemens
= 22 + 10 + 35 = 67 families
Choice (2)
19. Neither Panasonic nor Siemens implies only Nokia. So, 10 families use mobile-phones of
neither Panasonic nor Siemens.
Choice (5)
20. All the families use mobile-phones of at least one out of the three mentioned companies. So,
there is no family which did not use any mobile phone.
Choice (3)
Given .100 students were surveyed who read novels of Christie or Doyle or both.
Choice (2)
From the given table we get the information that 40 females read Doyle and 70 students read
Christie.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
P Panasonic
S Siemens
N Nokia
22 families use only Panasonic Phones.
10 families use only Nokia phones.
35 families use only Siemens phones.
4.25 families use both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens.
15 families use both Nokia and Siemens but not Panasonic.
23 families use both Panasonic and Siemens but not Nokia.
All the 200 families use mobile-phones of at least one company.
Further,
37% of the total students read both i.e. 37 students.
The ratio of males and females is 1 : 1. i.e. number of
males = number of females = 50.
50% of the females i.e. 50% of 50 = 25 females read
both.
With the above information, we get,
So, Doyle = 27
Christie = 35
Both = 12
Christie
Both
Total
Male
27
35
12
50
Female
40
35
25
50
Total
67
70
37
100
I Indian Express
H The Hindu
T The Times of India
Percentage of residents who read at least one newspaper
= 22 + 5 + 14 + 7 + 10 + 6 + 20 = 84%
Therefore 16% of the residents read none of the three newspapers which is given as 64.
i.e. total x
= 64
Total = 400
So, Doyle = 40
Christie = 35
Both = 25
21. 12 Males read the books by both the authors.
Choice (2)
22. The number of students who read books by only Christie is 23 + 10 = 33.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
24. 37 students read the books by both the authors. Hence, those who do not read both the
books is 100 - 37 = 63.
Choice (5)
25. 27 males read books by Doyle.
From the given data, we get the following diagram.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
29. Residents who read only The Times of India = 20% Residents who read only The Hindu =
14%
So, the residents who read only The Hindu, expressed as a percentage of the residents who
read only The Times of India, is: x 100 = 70%
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
30. Residents who read The Indian Express = 44%
Residents who read only The Times of India = 20%
Ratio = 44: 20 = 11 : 5
The given information can be represented as in the following Venn diagram.
Choice (2)
34. 10 guests have eaten Vanilla and Chocolate ice cream but not Strawberry ice cream.
Choice (3)
35. The guests who did not eat Vanilla are b + z + c + n = 60 + 40 + 100 + 80 = 280 guests
Choice (5)
From the given data, we get the following diagram.
Choice (2)
33. Only Vanilla and Strawberry ice creams have been eaten by 30 guests.
Choice (2)
x + y + z=45
a + b + c = 20
Total = x + y + z + a + b + c + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70
36. There are 70 people in the locality.
Choice (2)
37. Number of people who read at least two magazines is given by a + b + c + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25.
Choice (1)
38. Given, IT: SS : BI = 2 : 3 : 4
Let IT = 2x, SS = 3x and BI = 4x
But it is given that
2x = 18
x=9
So, SS = 3x = 27
BI = 4x = 36
Therefore, 27 persons read Sports Star.
Choice (5)
39. The 10 people who stop reading India Today and start reading Business India could be from
region 'x' or from region 'a'. If it is from 'x' they would be added to 'z' and if they are from 'a'
they would be added to 'c'. In either case there is no net addition to a + b + c. Therefore the
maximum value of a + b + C remains uncharged i.e., 20.
Choice (1)
40. a + b + c = 20 read exactly two magazines.
(x + y + z) + (a + b + c) + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70 read at least one magazine.
Percentage = 100 = 28
%
Choice (3)
Given that out of a total of 150 students, 10 students failed in both the subjects.
This implies remaining 150 - 10 = 140 students passed in at least one subject.
Total = 140
So, 70 - x +x+90-x= 140
x= 20
20 students passed in both Physics and Statistics.
a + b + c + 10 = 60
=>a+b+c=50
It is known that Pop + Classical + Light
= 2(a + b + c) + (x + y + z) + 30
=> 125 + 135 + 95 = 100 + (x + y + z) + 30
=> x + y + z = 355 - 130 = 225.
41. x + y + z = 225 cassettes belonged to exactly one type of music.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
49. The number of students who passed in both = 20. Number of students who passed in physics
= 70.
100 = 28
% of the students those passed in physics also passed in statistics.
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
7.
'v', 's', 'w' and z are in the Triangle but not in Square. Hence those represent the people who
like Marinda but not Thumbs up.
Choice (5)
8.
u, y, x belong to both Circle and Square, hence they like Maaza and Thumbs up.
Choice (4)
9.
The letter 'v' belongs to Circle and Triangle but neither to Square nor Rectangle. Hence v
represents the people who like Ma'aza and Marinda but not the other 2.
Choice (2)
10. w belongs to Circle and Rectangle but not Square, hence w represents the people who like
Maaza, Marinda, Coca-cola but not Thumbs up.
Choice (4)
1.
The number belongs to only Circle is 5. Hence 5 students passed only in Mathematics.
Choice (2)
2.
Total 12 + 11 = 23 students belong to the Triangle and Square. Hence 23 student pass in both
Physics and Chemistry.
Choice (3)
3.
10 + 12 = 22 people belong to Square but not Circle. Hence the number of student passed in
Chemistry but not in mathematics is 22.
Choice (1)
4.
3 students belong to Triangle and Circle but not Square. Hence 3 student like Physics and
Chemistry but not Mathematics.
Choice (1)
5.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
In the diagram b represents the people who like only Coca - cola and Thumbs up.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
C = b + 40 + 20 + 20 = 340
b = 260
B = 500 + 20 + 20 + x = 590
x=50
A= a+ x(=50) + 40+ 20 =420
a = 310
n = 0 [given]
27. It is given that the number of students having an 10 card is half of the number of student
having PAN card
x + 12 + 15 + 13 =
= 50
x= 10
Choice (1)
28. The number of students not having either voter ID or Passport = n + z = 20+ 58 = 78.
Choice (3)
29.
y = = 29
x=2y=58
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
30. x = y = z = 58
Number of students not having PAN card = x + 12 + Y + 20
= 58 + 12 + 58 + 20 = 148.
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
34. All fathers are males and some males are Doctors.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
35. Some odd numbers are natural numbers and both are real numbers.
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
36. All brothers are males but no female is males any venn diagram given cannot represent this
relation.
Choice (5)
37. Coca Cola is a cool drink which is a Beverage.
Choice (3)
CLOCKS
38. Cardiologists are Doctors some of whom are Professors. No Venn diagram can represent this.
Choice (5)
1.
39. No Doctor is an Engineer but some of Doctors some of engineers are females.
Choice (2)
40. Some of Singers can be Actors, some Actors can be Dancers and some Dancers can be
singers.
Choice (1)
The given diagram is
Choice(4)
2.
3.
Choice (2)
4.
The time in the mirror is 4 hours 20 minutes. The actual time = (12 - 4 hours 20 minutes)
= 7 hours 40 minutes.
Choice (3)
5.
The actual time given in the mirror is 7 hours 15 minutes. The time shown by this clock
when seen in the mirror is (12 - 7 hours 15 minutes) = 4- hours 45 minutes.
Choice (4)
6.
= 30 h - 11/2 m.
=>
7.
8.
9.
= (120 -110) = 10
Choice (2)
=> 11/2 m = + 30 h
11 m = 2(70 + 30 x 7)
m = 560/11 = 50
min past 7.
At 4 hrs 30 min, the hour hand is In between 4 and 5 and the minute hand is at 6. It is given
that the minute hand points towards South which implies that the minute hand point
towards South-east.
Choice (1)
At 7 hours 50
minutes, the angle between the two hands is 70 .
When = 30 h -11/2 m
11/2 m = 30 h -
=> m =
m = 280/11 = 25
14.
=>
=>
= 95/2 = 47
Choice (4)
=> m =
m = 280/11 = At 25
= 30 h -11/2 m
11/2m=30h
=>
=> m =
=>
= 265/2 = 132
Choice (3)
=> m = 80/11 = At 7
10.
= 11/2m - 30h
Here it is given that = 0 and h = 6
11/2 m = 30h
=> 11 m = 60 h => m =
m = 360/11 = 32
15.
min past 6.
Choice (1)
minutes past 3, the two hands of the clock are in opposite directions. Choice (5)
= 30 h - 11/2 m, where h = 7, m = 20
= 30 x 7 - 11/2 x 20
= 210 - 110 => 8 = 100
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
= 11/2m - 30h
11/2 m = + 30 h
The angle between the two hands of a clock at 2 hours 35 minutes is e = 11/2 m - 30 h,
here h = 2 and m = 35
= 11/2 x 35 - 30 x 2
=
min past 7.
Choice (2)
= 11/2 m - 30 h
11/2 m = + 30 h
11 m = 2(62 + 30 x 5)
m=
= At 38
min past 5 O'clock the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
= 30 h - 11/2 m => 11/2 m = 30 h
=> 11 m = 2(30 x 5 - 62)
=> m = 176/11 = At 16 minutes past 5 O'clock, the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
minutes in 24 hours.
Choice (3)
minutes in 24 hours.
19. Time from 12 noon Monday to 6 p.m. the next day = 30 hours.
The watch gains (5 + 10) = 15 minutes in 30 hours.
The watch gains 5 minutes in 5/15 x 30 = 10 hours.
10 hours from 12 noon = 10 p.m.
The clock shows the correct time at 10 p.m. of the same day.
Choice (5)
25. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute
Number of hours between 12 noon to 8 p.m. on that day = 8 hours.
In 8 hours, one of the clocks gains 8 minutes and shows the time as 8:08 p.m. The other
clock which gains 2 minutes in 1 hour shows the time as 8:16 p.m.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
CALENDARS
1.
It is given that 22nd April, 1982 was a Thursday. Number of days from 22 nd April 1982 to 3rd
November 1982.
Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October + November
In each month number of odd days:
1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 6 odd days
6th day after Thursday is Wednesday.
Choice (2)
2.
Number of odd days from 30th June, 1989 to 30th June, 1993 is five.
Number of days from 30th June, 1993 to 17th September, is
Month: July + August + September
Odd days: 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Number of odd days = 9 + 5=14 = 0 odd days
Hence, 17th September 1993 was a Friday.
Choice (4)
24. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 3 minutes.
Number of hours from 8 a.m. to 12 noon on that day = 4 hours.
The two clocks differ by = 3 x 4 = 12 minutes.
3.
It is given that 26th February, 2014 is a Wednesday. 26th February, 2017, is four days after
Wednesday, i.e., on Sunday.
Number of odd days from 26th February, 2017 to 14th July, 2017 = 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 0 = 12
odd days. Number of odd days in 12 days = 1217 = 5 odd days 5 th day after Sunday is Friday.
Choice (1)
4.
5.
Choice (3)
23. Time from 4 a.m. on 6th of this month to 6 p.m. on 10th of this month = 110 hours.
The watch loses (12 + 20) = 32 minutes. The watch loses 32 minutes in 110 hours.
The watch loses 12 minutes in 12/32 x 110 = 41 hours 15 minutes
Hence 41 hours 15 minutes from 4 a.m. on 6th is 9:15 p.m. on 7th.
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
7.
8.
9.
Number of odd days from 1st January, 2012 to 1st January, 2016 is 5.
5th day after Sunday is Friday.
Number of days from 31st January 1995 to 30th July, 1995.
Month: Feb + Mar + Apr + May + Jun + July
Odd days: 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 12 days
Number of odd days in 12 days = 12/7 = 5 odd days
5 odd days after Tuesday is Sunday.
Number of odd days from. so" July, 1995 to so" July, 1993 are 2.
2nd day before Sunday is Friday.
20th January, 2000 is a Thursday.
20th January, 1997 is 3 days before Thursday, i.e., Monday.
Number of days from 20th January, 1997 to 26th February, 1997 is
Month: January + February
Days: 11 + 26 = 37 = 2 odd days
2nd day after Monday is Wednesday.
2008 is a leap year.
The number of odd day from 10th January to 1st December of 2008.
Jan + Feb ..: Mar + Apr + May + Jun + Jul + Aug + Sep + Oct + Nov + Dec (1st)
21 (0) + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 4
the week on first December is = Monday + 4 days = Friday.
Hence, 3rd December is on Sunday.
3, 10, 1'7, 24, 31 are Sundays in the December.
12. Whether the given year is a leap year or a non-leap year, is not given, hence the answer
cannot be determined.
Choice (5)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
15. The number of odd days from 23rd February 2011 to 25th March 2013 can be calculated as
follows:
24th Feb 2011 to 23rd Feb 2012 1
24th Feb 2012 to 23rd Feb 2013 2
24th Feb 2013 to 25th March 2013 - 5 + 25 = 30 = 2
The day on 25th March 2013 is Tuesday + (1 + 2 + 2) days = Sunday.
Choice (4)
16. The person met the boss 15 days ago and he said that he would give the salary after 36 days
i.e. after 36 - 15 = 21 days from the day referred as today.
The required day is = Wednesday + 0(21 days) = Wednesday.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
18. Number of days from 3rd April, 1995 to 1st October, 1995
Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October
Odd days = 6 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 20 days = 6 odd days
6th day after Monday is a Sunday.
Hence, 1st October, 1995 is a Sunday.
I can meet my friend on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th of October.
Choice (2)
19. A century year is a leap year only if it is divisible by 400. In the given years, only 2800 is
divisible by 400. Hence, 2800 is a leap year.
Choice (3)
20. As the year starts and ends with Sunday means the given year is a non leap year. As the one
odd day is a Sunday, there will be 53 Sundays in the year.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
4.
5.
Choice (4)
2.
3.
13 + 3 - 5 - 20 + 25
becomes 13 - 3 x 5 x 20 25
=13 300 25 = -312
Choice (3)
196 x 14 25 x 5 + 225 x 15
becomes 196 14 x 25 5 - 225
= 14 x 5 15 = 70 15 = 55
15
Choice (5)
The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get the
10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
According to BODMAS rule 10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
=5x5+3x2+1
= 25 + 6 + 1 = 32
Choice (1)
7.
The given expression is on conversion as per the directions we get the expression
11 x 6 3 - 4 + 10 2
= 11 x 2 - 4 + 5 = 22 - 4 + 5 = 23
Choice (4)
8.
The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get
= 34 17 x 6 + 11 x 21 7 4
= 2 x 6 + 11 x 3 4 = 41
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (4)
6.
Choice (5)
Choice (5)
= 11 x 5 - 30 = 25
2x54
Choice (3)
10. The given expression is on conversion this expression according to directions we get
16 + 5 - 3 + 8 2 x 3
= 16 + 5 - 3 + 4 x 3 = 16 + 5 - 3 + 12 = 30
Choice (5)
Given that
+
Choice (1)
$
2
Choice (3)
x
=
A
<
>
Let us convert the symbols as per the given directions.
11. (1) 8 2 4 6 36
becomes 8 + 2 4 6 = 36
0 = 36 (false)
(2) 8 2 4 6 36
becomes 8 2 > 4 6 + 36
6 > 34 (false)
(3) 8 $ 2 4 6 A 36
becomes 8 x 2 - 4 = 6 < 36
12 = 6 = 36
(false)
(4) 8 2 $ 4 6 A 36
becomes 8 + 2 x 4 + 6 < 36
22 < 36 (true)
12. (1 ) 4
A1 8 9
becomes 4 6 < 1 + 8 + 9
- 2 < 18 (true)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
13. (1 ) 5 10 $ 2 8 5
becomes 5 + 10 x 2 = 8 5
25 = 3 (false)
(2) 5 10 2 A 8 $ 5
becomes 5 10 - 2 < 8 x 5
-1.5 < 40 (true)
14. (1) 7 A 3 5 6 $ 1
becomes 7 < 3 + 5 > 6 x 1
7 < 8 > 6 (true)
15. (1)
3 5 10 7 5
becomes 3> 5 > 10
3> 5> 12 (false)
75
(2) 3 5 A 10 7 5
becomes 3 - 5 < 10
-2< + 5(True)
7+5
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
16. Statement
P + Q means P Q
Q R means Q > R
R S means R < S
P Q > R and S > R
Conclusion I:
R x S means R = S is definitely false.
Conclusion II:
P R means P > R is true from both the given statements.
Choice (2)
17. Statement:
L x M means L = M
L + N means L N
N - T means N < T
implies
L = M N and T > N
Conclusion I:
M - T means M < T is not definite from both the given statements.
Conclusion II:
L x M means L = N is also not definitely true from the given statements.
Choice (4)
18. Statements:
A + B means A B
A x C means A = C
A = D means A D implies A < D or A > D.
Implies C = A B and A < D or A > D
Conclusion I:
B - C => B < C may be true C > B is not definitely true and hence it does not follow.
Conclusion II:
B x C means B = C may be true D < C.
Hence, either B C is definitely true.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
19. Statements:
K + R means K R
R P means R > P
P x Q means P = Q
Implies K R > P = Q
Conclusion I:
Q - K means Q < K is true.
Conclusion II:
P - K means P < K is also true.
Choice (3)
20. Statements:
G x H means G = H
G - J means G < J
H + K means H > K
Implies that
J>G=H>K
Conclusion I:
K - J means K < J is true.
Conclusion II:
G - K means G < K is not true.
26. 2 | 8
2 | 4-0
2 | 4-0
1-0
22. T+2,
Choice (3)
+2
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
, J+1,
8 => 1000
i.e. N M M M
27. M M N M represents
0 0 1 0 in binary system
1 0 = 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 2 in decimal system.
So, M M N M represents the number 2.
0
10 => NM
similarly, 3 is written as NN
Because
2 | 3
1-1
11 NM
Based on this system, we can answer the given questions.
+2
23. There are two such symbols which are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately
followed by a digit. They are A $ 6 and R 7.
Choice (3)
24. Eleventh element from the right is . The seventh letter to the right of
is .
Choice (3)
25. If the first ten elements from left are reversed then the given series transforms as follows.
8QP J? UTSL1@C3S A#62BR79
Fifteenth letter from the right is @ and the tenth letter/element to the left of@ is P.
Choice (4)
The coding pattern is based on the binary system in which only two digits 1 and 0 are used.
Given that
0
is written as M
1
is written as N
2
is written as NM
because
2 | 2
28. 2
2
2
2
|
|
|
|
30
15 - 0
7-1
3-1
1-1
=> 11110 = N N N N M
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
31. A B = A + AB + B - 6
So. 7 8 = 7 + 7 x 8 + 8 - 6 = 65
Choice (3)
32. P q = p2 + q2 + pq + q
1 0 5 = 102 + 52 + 1 0 x 5 + 5 = 180
Choice (1)
33. C D = C2 +CD + D2 - (C + D)
7 8 = 72 +7 x 8 + 82 - (7 + 8) = 154
Choice (2)
34. x $ y= +
49 $ 16 =
+
+
x 16 = 39
Choice (4)
35. a 0 b = 2ab
5 0 2 = 2 x 52 = 50
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
44. 2 ? 3 = 23 + 32 = 17
5 ? 2 = 52 + 25 = 57
Hence, 5 ? 3 = 53 + 35 = 368
Choice (4)
45. 9 3 = 93 = 729
5 4 = 54 = 625
8 2= 82 = 64
Choice (2)
46. R 1 N T S 7 $ J 3 8 A # 2 L M 9 * C 0 8 4 P Y %
NO letter is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a digit.
Choice (1)
47. The pattern of the given series is as follows.
7+2, J+2, B+2, #x2, L
+2, M-2, 2-2, A-2, 3
+3
T , $+3, B+3, 2+3, 9
The series is
7 * T, J M $, B 2 B, #A2, L 3 9
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
49. The digits which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a
letter are 7 and 9 i.e., only two.
Choice (2)
40. 17 * 18 = (17 + 1) (18 -1) = 306 and 14 * 23 = (14+ 1) (23 -1) = 330
Hence, 10 * 12 = (10 + 1) (12 - 1) = 121
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
42. 32 47 = (3 x 2) + (4 x 7) = 34
48 22 = (4 x 8) + (2 x 2) = 36
Hence, 78 13 = (7 x 8) + (1 x 3) = 59
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
51. After reversing the first half sequence, the news sequence is as following
NML
R P 7 B # A 3 S 8 % $ 2 1 C 5 T W
Fifth element from the right end Q
Fourth element to the left of Q $
Seventh element to the right of $ T
T is the seventh element to the right of the fourth element to the left of the fifth element
Choice (3)
E
|
|
E
a=3
Now 3
Choice (3)
A - E and A - E are the only two pair of letters which have as many letters between them as
in the English alphabet.
Choice (2)
54. The given word is C E R E M O N Y
After arranging the letters in alphabetical order, C E E M N O R Y
C, E, O and Y i.e., four letters remain in the same position.
Choice (2)
55. According to the given condition i.e., after reversing first ten elements of the sequence, the
new sequence is as follow:
$ # 2 * 6 P K S R 3 A E J % 9 D F I 4.
The sixth element from the left end P
Seventh element to the right of P J.
Fifth element to the left of J S.
Hence, S is the fifth element to the left of the seventh element to the right of the sixth
element from the left end.
Choice (4)
56. 5 # 7 $ 4 = ( 5 x 7) - 4 = 35 4
x = 31
31 5 3 = 31 x 3 + 5
= 93 + 5 = 98.
57. 40 * 3 @ 3 = 40
= 40 - 9 = 31
P = 31
Now,
6 # 6 $ 31 = 6 x 6 31
= 36 - 31 = 5.
58. 7 2 3 =
3
=3
5 = 5 x 3 + 3 = 18
4 9 = 9 x 4 + 4 = 36 + 4
b = 40
Now. 40 & 5 2 8 = 40 - (5 x 8) = 40 - 40 = 0
Choice (3)
59. 4
Choice (1)
60. 12 24 6 = 12 + 24 6 = 36 6
y=6
Now, 7 # 6 $ 3 = 7 x 3 3 = 42 - 3 = 39
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
62. 8 @ 4 % 16 = 8 x 4 + 16 = 32 + 16
a=2
Now, 76 # 19 $ 2 = (76 + 19) x 2 = 95 x 2 = 190.
Choice (3)
63. 12 4 5 = 12 x 5 + 4 = 60 + 4
P = 64
Now, 64 40 30 = 40 + 30 64 = 70 - 64 = 6.
Choice (2)
64. 11 # 5 $ 8 = (11 + 5) x 8 = 16 x 8
x = 128
Now, 128 50 90 = (50 + 90) 128 = 140 128 = 12.
Choice (5)
65. 9
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
2 7 = (9 x 7) + 2 = 63 + 2
Z = 65
Now, 13 @ 10 % 65 = (13 x 10) 65 = 130 65 = 2.
66. P Q P > Q
QR Q=R
R S RS
P>Q=RS
Conclusion I: Q S Q = S
Conclusion II: S $ Q S < Q
Either conclusion I or II follows.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
67. S T S +
UV U>V
T$V T<V
U > v> T S
Conclusion I: V $ S V < S does not follow.
Conclusion II: T $ U T < U follows.
Hence only II follows.
Choice (2)
68. A B A B
CD C=D
B$D B<D
A$E A<E
E<AB<D=C
Conclusion I: C B C > B follows.
Conclusion II: A D A > D does not follow.
Hence only 1 follows.
Choice (1)
69. M N M > N
O P OP
NP N=P
M<N=PO
Conclusion I: M O M > O follows.
Conclusion II: P $ M P < M follows.
Hence, both I and II follows.
Choice (5)
70. I J I J
K L KL
L M LM
M$I M<I
JI>MLK
Conclusion I: I L I > L follows.
Conclusion II: K M K M follows.
Hence, only conclusion II follows.
Let 'A' and 'B' be the initial and the final points in the journey.
Hence, AB =
=
= 10 km.
2.
For these questions, we should draw figures based on the given data:
Let A be the starting point and B be the final point of Shahana's journey,
Hence, Shahana walks 2 km horizontally. She is facing North at the end of the journey.
Choice (2)
3.
Choice (2)
DIRECTION SENSE
1.
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
8.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. The vertical distance between A
and B is (15 - 13) = 2 m
Choice (5)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The vertical
distance travelled is equal to 25 + 6 = 31 km.
Choice (5)
5.
9.
From the given description it is clear that the person starts from the same place and reaches
the starting -point. Hence, the distance between the Railway Station and his house is 0 km.
Choice (2)
6.
Let A and B be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 12 km (approx)
He is towards the South-West
Choice (2)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Distance he is away from the original place:
Vertically 10 km
Horizontally 5 + 3 = 8 km
Choice (1)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
He is 20 - (8 + 10) = 2 km away from the starting point.
Choice (4)
10.
Choice (1)
7.
11.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey.
B is to the North-East of A.
AB =
= 11 km (approx).
Choice (2)
12.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
B is 5 km away from A.
Choice (5)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Salil is towards the North-East with respect to the original place.
AB =
= 18 km (approx)
Choice (4)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 10 km (approx)
Choice (5)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 11 km (approx)
He is 11 km away from his house towards the North-West.
Choice (3)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AD = 15 + 6 = 21, DB= 6 + 4 = 10
AB =
= 23 km (approx)
Choice (1)
Let A and B be the' initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Horizontal distance travelled => 6 + 10 + 8 = 24 km
Choice (3)
17.
13.
14.
18.
Let A and B. be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
AB =
=
=5km approx. in South-East direction.
Choice (3)
15.
19.
The person is 2 km away from the starting point.
Choice (1)
16.
20.
West.
Choice (2)
25.
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
Tanya is now in the North-East direction with respect to the starting point.
Choice (5)
The shortest route is through the hypotenuse.
AB =
= 17 km
They meet at a point 8.5 km midway between A and B.
21.
Choice (1)
26.
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
B is to the North-West with respect to A.
Choice (3)
22.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. Mayank is travelling
towards the North-East.
Choice (3)
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
G is the Grocery shop. AB = 200 - 150 = 50 m
27.
Choice (2)
23.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The cat
is now running towards the North.
Choice (2)
Let the two motorists started from points A and B. The first one started from A and stopped at
Sl. The second one started from B and stopped at S2. First, one travelled 50 km and the second
one travelled 65 + 45 = 110 km. So, distance between S1 and S2 is 250 - (50 + 110) = 90 km
Choice (5)
28.
24.
Since, I am now moving towards East, I must have started my journey from the
Vinay is walking towards the South. Now, if he turns 180 (in any direction),
then he will be facing North. Then, turning 45 in anti-clockwise direction, he
will be facing North-West direction.
= Turns 180 clockwise
= Turns 90 anti-clockwise
At this point he is facing the North-West.
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
31. The actual direction and the directions shown by the compass are as follow.
Sudha started to travel towards west shown by compass which is nothing but north
path travelled by Sudha is as follows.
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
34. In evening the sun is in west hence shadow anything falls towards east. Sum as
right is towards east, i.e. she is facing north.
Rama is facing South.
Choice (1)
35. It was evening and the shadow of the pole fell to Shyam's right. This means Sun
was towards his left (West). So, Shyam was facing North.
Choice (1)
36. Given, the clock is so placed that the minute hand points towards North-West
when it is 3p.m.
37. When a watch shows 3:45, the minute hand points towards East, as shown below:
(when the minute hand points towards 9, and hour hand points between 3 and
4, the time is 3:45.)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively In the journey. B is to
the North-West with respect to the point A.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
41.
Now, when the watch shows 6 0' clock, then the minute hand points towards 12
and hour hand points towards 6, as shown below:
42.
Choice (4)
38. Riya's shadow fell to her left i.e. towards East (as it was evening).So, Riya was
facing South As Priya had her back towards Riya, hence, Priya was facing North.
43.
Choice (5)
39. Given that a compass was damaged and its needle turned in such a way that it
showed North for East and so on.
So, the original directions
44.
Choice (4)
PQ =
= 36 (approx)
=
Choice (4)
45.
So, finally he is facing the South-West.
Choice (5)
Let Hand C be the points representing House and Cinema theatre respectively.,
Cinema Theatre is towards the North of the House.
Choice (3)
46. A watch shows 5: 15, with the minute hand pointing towards West, as shown
below:
At 5:15 the minute hand points towards 3, and the hour hand just beyond 5
Hence, the hour hand points towards North-West.
47. Given that - Piyush and Ravi were facing each other. Piyush's shadow fell to his
left (i.e, towards West as it was morning). So. Piyush was facing North. and Ravi
was facing South.
BLOOD RELATIONS
Choice (1)
49. Given that Rahim, who was facing West, turns 120 clockwise and then 155 anticlockwise.
1.
Anil's mother's husband is Anil's father. His father's mother is his grandmother.
Anil's grandmother's granddaughter can be Anil's sister or his cousin.
Choice (5)
2.
Choice (1)
3.
Choice (3)
4.
5.
Choice (2)
48.
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 36 m (approx).
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
6.
Sheela is Rohit's sister's daughter. So Rohit is the maternal uncle of Sheela. Sheela was
playing with Namit But how Rohit is related to Namit IS not given.
Choice (5)
7.
The man whom X met is the brother of X's husband. Hence the man is the brother-in-law of
X.
Choice (1)
8.
The man's sister's husband is the man's brother-in-law.Brother-in-Iaw's wife is his sister.
Daughter of his sister is his niece.
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
brother of
father of
Choice (2)
X = Z = Y means
X
father of
father of
Choice (2)
father of
mother of
X is the grandfather of Y.
Choice (3)
18. Q P R means
Q
daughter of
mother of
Choice (2)
13. Gerhard is the friend of Celina and there is no relationship between Gerhard and
Dimitri.
Choice (5
14. Emanuel is the grandfather of Celina.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
E D A means
E
mother of
son of
D is the son of A
Choice (3)
20. P * R + Q means
P
sister of
P is the sister of Q .
Solutions for questions 21 to 25:
Given that
L M means L is the father of M.
L M means L is the mother of M.
brother of
Q
Choice (4)
aunt of
father of
T
S
Choice (1)
AB
uncle of
Choice (5)
brother of
mother of
None of the given statements are true.
Choice (5)
sister of
Choice (5)
mother of
Choice (5)
P
Choice (3)
father of
29. Y Z ( ) K means
K
daughter of
R is the sister of P.
M means
28. P of Q + R
R
son of
L()MN
M
sister of
M is the sister of N.
N is the sister of M.
C means
24. P $ Q
27.
U means
brother of
sister of
M
30.
mother of
Z is the son of K.
S J + T means
brother of
Since Paunt
is the
of aunt of Q. P is also the aunt of M because Q is the sister of M.
Choice (1)
25. L O J
L
means
father of
Uncle of
brother of
T is the niece of S.
Solutions for questions 31 to 35:
31. My father's sister is my aunt. My aunt's son's mother is my aunt.
M.
T daughter of
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
32. Anil's sibling's grandfather is Anil's grandfather too Grandfather can be either
paternal or maternal. In this case it cannot be maternal as it says 'only daughter's
only child' which is not possible as Anil has a sibling. Paternal grandfather's
only daughter is Anil's aunt and only child of Aunt is Anil's cousin.
Choice (2)
33. My mother's sister's husband's only son is my aunt's son i.e. cousin. My cousin's
sister is also my cousin.
Choice (2)
34. My mother's father's only daughter is my mother. My mother's only son can be
either my brother or myself
Choice (4)
35. Pratima's daughter-in-Iaw's son is her grandson. Her grandson's son is the great
grandson for both Pratima and her husband.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
The three married couples are L - A, M-B, and C-X. L and A have two
grandchildren, Y and D. Either M or B is the
mother of Y. C is the mother of D. Gender of D is not known.
36. Either M or B is the mother of Y.
Choice (5)
37. Since, the gender of D is not mentioned we can only say that D is the grandchild
of A.
Choice (5)
G(Salesman) is the husband of H(Teacher). Their daughters are C(Writer) and F(Lecturer) C's
husband is B(Doctor). B and C have a son A. F and E are the parents of D(Gender not
mentioned)
46. G is the salesman.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
49. D's gender is not mentioned. Hence the relationship cannot be determined.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
43. Given Shilpa is the only child of her parents. Her sister-in-law is the sister of her
husband. Hence if her sister- in-law is the daughter of Rahul then her husband is
ANALYTICAL PUZZLES
Hence, only the statement "F" is sitting between B .and C, must be true.
8.
Choice (2)
2.
Choice (5)
3.
Choice (4)
4.
Choice (3)
5.
F is opposite to D.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
As per the given conditions. if H is sitting between B and D, then H must be sitting to the
left
of D, as already E is sitting to the right of D. hence, we get the-following seating
arrangement.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
11. A IS sitting opposite to B. E interchanges places with A, then E sits to the right of F.
Choice (5)
12. If every person interchanges seat with the person sitting opposite to him, then also the
arrangement remains the same, but rotates by 180. Hence. F is sitting to the right of C.
Choice (4)
19. 10 students enter Jpto the class after A and 15 students enter into the class before Band 5
students enter into the class between A and B.
Case I :- 15 B A 10
The total number of students in the class are
15 + B + 5 + A + 10 = 32
Case-II :-9A B 4
The total number of students in the class are
9+A+5+B+4
In this the total number of students are = 20
Hence, we cannot determine the number of students in the class.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
17. The person sitting between C and D is E (after' exchanging seat with H).
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
20. If A enters into the class before B. then the total number of students in the class are
9 + A + 5 + B + 4 = 20
Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 21 and 22:
S.No
1
2
3
4
5
Stations
Leaving Reaching
S1
S2
B3
B5
B4
B1
B5
B3
B1
B2
B2
B4
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
24.
Stations
Train t1
S1
6.30
S2
S3
S4
S5
S6
7.00, 7.40, 8.20, 9.00, 9.40
7.10 7.50 8.30 9.10
10.20 9.50, 9.10, 8.30, 7.50, 7.10 Train t2
9.40 9.00 8.20 7.40
Hence, t1 and t2 start at 6:30 a.m. and 7:10 a.m. respectively.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
29.
Case I
Case II
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (1)
1
B6
B6
2
B2
B4
3
B3
B2
4
B5
B3
5
B4
B5
6
B1
B1
B4 leaves the station either at 5th position or at 2nd position.
Choice (5)
F
G
H
Blue / Pink
Pink / Blue
White
36. There are two persons ahead of the 5th tallest person.
Choice (2)
37. The fourth tallest person could be either in the sixth or eighth positions.
Choice (5)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
38. Either the seventh tallest person or the third tallest person is immediately ahead of the third
tallest.
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
40. Only one stood between the third tallest and the second shortest.
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
VERBAL APTITUDE
SYNONYM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
5
1
2
3
1
4
5
3
4
2
3
5
4
2
1
3
17.
18.
19.
20.
2
2
3
5
2
1
4
2
5
2
2
1
5
3
1
4
3
1
5
3
3
4
5
4
2
5
1
3
4
3
5
1
3
4
1
5
2
4
1
4
5
1
3
3
WORD MATCHING
FOREIGN EXPRESSION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
4
1
3
5
3
2
1
2
2
2
5
4
2
2
3
3
5
1
3
4
3
4
1
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
PAIR OF ANTONYM
4
5
1
3
5
2
4
4
1
4
5
4
5
1
2
3
4
ANTONYM
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
5
2
3
4
5
4
3
1
1
3
4
1
5
2
3
1
5
5
2
4
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
1
2
3
4
5
2
1
5
4
1
3
5
2
4
3
1
2
3
4
5
IDIOMS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
3
4
1
5
4
1
2
3
5
3
2
4
1
3
4
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
2
5
3
4
4
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (5)
6.
Spiders are members of the arachnid family or they belong to the group of arachnids.
Choice (3)
7.
Novels have a main plot and within this there are many minor stories.
8.
The sentence suggests that now he is not in excellent health. But as far as nine months
ago he was in good health. Hence until is the most appropriate conjunction to be used
here. Before is redundant.
Choice (1)
9.
Assume here means to adopt or put on. The Chinese assume European names so that they
can pretend to be Europeans.
Choice (5)
EXERCISE-A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
2
5
3
1
2
1
3
4
5
2
2
3
1
5
1
4
1
5
4
1
Choice (2)
10. The reason for body odour is perspiration, or perspiration causes body odour.
Choice (4)
11. Mental talents should be nurtured. If they are buried, they 'tend' to or they are inclined to
deteriorate.
Choice (3)
12. The most appropriate preposition is 'at' as it shows a particular time in his life. 'At' the age
of 15.
Choice (2)
13. One has a 'strong' or 'deep' faith in something. 'Stubborn' collocates with attitude.
Choice (1)
14. Changing winds can cause, 'bring' or produce rain or result in a drought.
SELECTING WORDS
1.
Often which means in many instances is the most appropriate adverb to be used in this
context.
Choice (2)
2.
When people speak they allow others to read their mind because they express their
thoughts.
Choice (4)
3.
4.
Choice (1)
15. He hated school and so he 'dropped' out of school. He was not given a choice (i.e.) to
continue or to drop out and so 'opted' is incorrect. 'Escaped' from school is incorrect. One
can escape from jail or even from hostel but not from school.
Choice (5)
16. The clue is the adverb 'mostly' and hence 'generally' harmless is most appropriate.
Choice (4)
17. Computers cannot 'think' like people is the idea conveyed in this sentence.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
18. A tarpaulin is a waterproof canvas and so spread is the most appropriate verb as a cloth is
spread to allow people to sit on it.
Choice (5)
19. 'Together' means in close association. Family helps people of a society to come 'together' or
live in close association.
Choice (1)
20. There were good books written once, but now a day it is difficult to find them. To track or
to know them are out of context.
Choice (3)
11. 'Evoke' means inspire. Mascots serve to evoke or inspire enthusiasm in fans.
Choice (3)
EXERCISE -A
13. 'Renowned' means famous. 'Adorned' means to add beauty or lusture.
1.
The correct option is 4. 'Retaining' means not lose. When food is cooked in the oven it
helps to retain the vitamins in the food. It also makes cooking faster. The other options are
not appropriate.
Choice (4)
2.
The words 'cause' 'reason' 'dispute' and 'doubt' are inappropriate. The correct option is 1.
Blind beliefs have to be 'erased' or wiped out and there can be no 'denial' about that.
Choice (1)
3.
4.
5.
Choice (3)
On view are works by various artists from different cities. The word 'assorted' fits the
context appropriately.
Choice (4)
6.
'Abide' means to 'act in accordance with rules. All the citizens must abide by the rules
Choice (5)
7.
'Access' means the right or opportunity to reach, use, or visit. 'Relevant' means to have
reference to the matter in hand. The other options are not appropriate.
Choice (1)
14. 'Emphatic' means forcibly expressive. Dr. Yamuna is expressing her opinion on parenting
techniques. So 'emphatic' is appropriate in the context.
Choice (2)
15. Renowm' is famous. 'Profound' is showing great insight. The other options are not
appropriate.
Choice (4)
16. The right option is (5). Calcutta witnessed one of the most turbulent periods of the state's
political history.
Choice (5)
17. 'Exchant' means charm, delight. Queen Victoria was delighted when she read 'Alice in
wonderland'. She wrote a letter appreciating him.
Choice (1)
18. 'Impeccable' means exemplary performance. The highlight of the games was Jesse Owens'
exemplary performance.
Choice (3)
19. 'Voracious' means very eager in some activity. It is an apt word to describe the eagerness
with which the hi-tech industry wants to hire workers. 'Spawned' means to produce in
large quantities. The other options are not appropriate.
Choice (1)
20. 'Impinge' means make an impact or encroach. It is the right option.
8.
9.
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
SENTENCE IDENTIFICATION
'Latent' means dormant. Information technology has the latent ability to transform or
change a teacher from an expert to a co-learner.
Choice (2)
1.
The word 'beneficial' shows that the blank must be fitted with a word which is negative in
context as the sentence draws a comparison among different species of birds. 'Perilous'
which means 'dangerous' is appropriate.
Choice (4)
Everyone of the students has, Students must be plural (since all the students are included)
while the verb must be singular (as we are talking about everyone taken individually)
Choice (2)
2.
With the first person (I) 'shall' gives information about the future action while 'will'
denotes determination. Here no determination is implied. Use of 'may' in choice 4 is wrong
as no permission is being given.
Choice (3)
10. An 'accomplice' is someone who helps in crime or wrongdoing. The other options are not
relevant.
Choice (5)
3.
Aids and cancer are two different diseases. Hence choice (4) is ruled out (Aids of cancer).
Nobody should be followed by singular verb (has). So choice (3) is ruled out. Choice (2) is
incorrect because 'found out' implies finding what exists already
Choice (1)
16. The definite article 'The' is used before names of rivers or mountain ranges. Hence 'The
Himalayas', choice (2) and (4) are wrong in choice (3) barriers is used with (of) which is
incorrect.
Choice (1)
4.
Choices (3) and (4) are semantically wrong. (Harsher punishment will not increase crimes).
Choice (1) is wrong because 'crime' is used in singular where as the sentence implies plural
- a number of crimes.
Choice (2)
17. Since we are talking of each or everyone the verb must be singular - was not were. In
choice (3) 'all' is used which must take the plural verb 'were' not 'was'.
Choice (4)
5.
'Problem' should be singular as 'This' is singular. Choice (4) is wrong. Everyone must be
spaced as one is common to each and every (each one and everyone).
Choice (2)
6.
The word assassinated is used when we are referring to the murder of a political or a
religious leader.
Choice(5)
7.
Scenery is always used only in singular (not sceneries).Hence Choice (4) is wrong. Lots of
kings lived - not merely stayed there. So (3) is wrong. Beauty and scenery are not two
different things. So (2) is wrong.
Choice(1)
18. We are talking about 'The victims ... ' not 'Those victims.. ' (since those implies only some
of them not all). So choice (1) is wrong. They are living 'in the open' not on. So choice (3) is
wrong. Choice (2) is also wrong as it does not have the article before open.
Choice (4)
19. 'Less' is used with reference to quantity and 'fewer' with reference to number. So choice (1)
is wrong. 'no fewer than ....' means at least. It is not 'not fewer than ....' So (3) and (4) are
wrong.
Choice (2)
20. The described his journey' not 'about his journey'.
Choice (5)
SENTENCE CORRECTION
8.
Choice(2)
9.
Choice(3)
1.
10. Tell is merely to communicate information whereas ask is to say in order to obtain an
answer or response. Hence asked is a better word here (choice (1) is ruled out) Asked us
not to us (so choice (2) is ruled out) the past continuous rather than the past perfect
continuous.
Choice(3)
In type 3 conditional clause the verb in if clause is in past perfect tense. Hence answer is
choice (4) (of the two 'had') one had refers to past perfect and the other means owned or
possessed.
Choice (4)
2.
The future perfect continuous tense must be used here because the action will have been in
progress for some time.
Choice (3)
11. We are comparing Chinese with other languages and in that the difficulty of learning.
Hence more difficult to learn thanis the correct construction.
Choice(5)
3.
If used as (when had I...) the clause has the structure of an interrogative sentence though, it
is a declarative sentence.
Choice (3)
12. We are comparing two aspects of the same person being a statesman and being a politician.
Hence structure of the comparative degree morethan is right.
Choice(2)
4.
Here again two actions in the past are referred to. So the earlier action must have the past
perfect tense.
Choice (4)
13. We say 'in spite of .... .' but 'despite ....' Despite is not followed by of. So choice (1 )(2) and
(3) are wrong.
Choice (4)
5.
The main clause is in the past tense (He told.) so the subordinate clause must also be in the
past tense. The verb 'hate' is not used in progressive form.
Choice (3)
14. Unanimous in not by. So, choices 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect. Since the jury has a difference of
opinion, a plural verb and a plural pronoun are used.
Choice (1)
6.
7.
It is incorrect to use 'in' when the sentence refers to 'dumping something'. Option (3) is
incorrect. in options 2, 3 and 4 preposition is used incorrectly (in, of, at). Option (5) is
15. The present perfect continuous 'have been asking' is correct here since the employees have
been asking for some time and are still asking.
Choice (3)
When we refer to a scheduled future event, we normally use the present simple tense, not
'going to'.
Choice (3)
9.
When a pointed object is pushed into something it pierces it. To use a preposition with
pierce will be incorrect.
Choice (4)
10. The reflexive pronoun 'myself is needed to complete the sense 'to enjoy what?' to enjoy
myself.
Choice (2)
11. The conjunction 'but' implies that what follows is the opposite of what preceded. This is
expressed by choice (2).
Choice (2)
12. Although implies a contrast or concession between the main clause and' the sub-ordinate
clause. This is provided by choice (2)
Choice (2)
13. The simple present tense - I hope to see you - is used to express a future action \then the
futurity is indicated by the context. The verb 'Hope' is not used in progressive form.
Choice (4)
14. Structurally only (2) is correct.
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
16. Here two negatives are used to express a positive. The sentence means he was industrious,
so he got a seat.
Choice (3)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
4
2
5
4
3
2
1
4
5
2
1
3
4
5
2
3
5
2
3
SPOTTING ERRORS
1.
Since the action has taken place yesterday, the verb must be in the past tense - not present
perfect -yesterday I wrote.
Choice (1)
2.
The conjunction so that is used to join two negatives or two positive. Here it is 'badly' and
'stopped his speech' that are linked by so that. He was stammering so badly that. In the
second sentence the future tense is used in the subordinate clause. In the subordinate clause
of condition and time, the simple present is used instead of the simple future when you pass
the examination.
Choice (3)
17. Conditional clause - a rejected condition - something that could have happened but did not.
Choice (2)
18. In the reported speech the second person is changed to third person.
Choice (4)
3.
19. The subject here is 'Not one' (not books)m hence the verb should be singular.
Choice (2)
4.
Choice (3)
'Pity' is a noun. It should be the adjective 'pitiful' as it qualifies children. These pitiful
children. In the second sentence the preposition 'for' normally follows the noun 'pity'. To
feel pity for .
Choice (3)
5.
'Let go' means release or set at liberty so sentences should be.... Let you go to.
JUMBLE WORDS
1.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
6.
Sentence (1) is correct. In sentence (2), 'I' need not be repeated after 'but' since the subject
is the same. 'I could not see anything but heard some noises.
Choice (2)
7.
Sentence 1 should be 'Scarcely had I opened my book when. Scarcely in followed by when,
correlative conjunction.
Choice (1)
8.
In sentence II 'looking after' means 'taking care of-ego Parents look after their children.
'Looking for means searching which is the meaning intended here.
Choice (2)
9.
In sentence I, it should be brushed aside 'not' brushed away. 'Aside' means 'to one side', 'out
of the way' where as 'away' means 'to a distance'. Sentence II should be 'One mustn't waste
one's time .... 'One must 15e followed by one's, he by his.
Choice (3)
Choice (3)
19. Sentence I, the verb must be in the past tense as it is from my childhood - I was interested
in painting from my childhood. Had it been the present 'now' then 'am'
can be used - I am interested in paining now.
Choice (1)
20. Sentence I, One cannot make a success of one's.....or He cannot make a success of his..
Sentence II, the subject 'he' need not be repeated in the subordinate clause as it is the same
as in the main clause - 'In spite of being very tired, he..
Choice (3)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES
1.
B cannot be the opening sentence (as it beings with because) so option 2 is ruled out. C does
not follow A so option 1 is ruled out. In option 3, though B can follow C, D cannot follow
A. B cannot follow D immediately and so option 5 is ruled out. So the correct answer is
option 4, which is logical.
Choice (4)
2.
D cannot follow C logically, so options 1 and 2 are ruled out A cannot follow B so
option 4 is also ruled out. B cannot follow D and so 5 is incorrect.
Choice (3)
3.
A follows Band D follows C so we have to choose between 1 and 2. B follows D (sell them
in order to raise money)
Choice (2)
4.
D cannot start a sentence so choices (1) and (2) are incorrect. B too cannot begin the
sentence. D follows B logically.
Choice (4)
5.
D does not follow A, so options 1, 2 and 4 are ruled out. A follows D (it cannot follow C)
Choice (5)
6.
B cannot begin the sentence, so option 1 is ruled out. D follows C (it cannot precede C) so
options 2 and 5 are ruled out. A must follow B logically, so option 3 is ruled out.
Choice (4)
16. Sentence I, accusations were leveled against him not at him. Sentence II, despite is not
followed by of.
Choice (3)
7.
D is the opening sentence in all the choices. B follows (observation .... that). So the answer
is 3 or 4. A follows B (difficulty in writing ....)
Choice (3)
8.
C cannot be the opening sentence (begins with because) so 4 and 5 are ruled out. Since D is
the opening sentence it can be structurally followed by A or B (less than) but logically it is
A.
Choice (2)
10. In sentence I 'refrained' should be flowed by the preposition from - we all refrained from
telling her. In sentence II most must be preceded by the definite article 'the admired the
most. The is always used before an adjective in superlative degree.
Choice (3)
11. I n sentence I, received from not by - received a standing ovation from the audience. In
sentence to the verb must be in the past tense - Many voluntary organizations came
forward to.
Choice (3)
12. In sentence I, - My friend dropped at my place to spend some time.... Not pass time. In
sentence II, it should be regaled.... With not by The artists regaled the audience with their.
Choice (3)
13. Sentence I, 'we enjoyed ourselves', without the reflexive pronoun, it is incomplete (enjoyed
what?)Sentence II is correct.
Choice (1)
14. Sentence II, congratulate on not for - let me congratulate you on your.
Choice (2)
15. Sentence I, the preposition should be 'of not 'in'. All the participants of the programmed.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
18. Sentence I, 'She has a great skill for painting. The indefinite article 'a' should be used as
painting is one of the many skills.
9.
C follows D (... carried out while ....) so the answer is 1 or 3. B logically follows C
(something is done so that ....).
Choice (3)
10. B is the opening sentence in all the choices. We find C immediately follows B (young men
.... may feel). So the answer is choice 1 or 2. D follows A. It makes no sense if it proceeds A.
Choice (2)
EXERCISE A
1.
While B or C can be the opening sentence, E does not follow B logically. So 1 and 2 are
ruled out. We find CA in 3, 4 and 5 but D cannot follow A (... this respect in D cannot refer
to anything in C or A).
Choice (5)
2.
D is not the opening sentence (definite article the) So 2 and 5 are ruled out. B is the last
sentence (Thus .... draws the conclusion).
Choice (3)
3.
While B or D can be the opening sentence, B logically follows D. what some say (in D) is
shown as true (in B).This is found in 2.
Choice (2)
4.
D is the opening sentence in all the choices. It cannot be followed by B (... also ....). Hence 3
and 5 are ruled out. So we have DA in the other three choices. This should be followed by C
since E and B go on to say what 'should' be done to save democracy.
Choice (4)
B follows 1 logically (1 says mosquitoes art the worst enemies of mankind and B explains
why.. because they spread horrible diseases .... ) while both choice 1 and 4 seem O.K. the
response of the government / organization should precedes that of the individual since it
affects the entire society.
Choice (4)
2.
3.
C follows 1 logically (what was the position to what it is now). A comes next - 'it' refers to
the apparatus (B cannot follow C as there is no antecedent for 'he' in C).D comes next (they
had no money.. the banker provided the finance). B comes next (the 'he' refers to the
banker)
Choice (2)
4.
While AOB can follow 1 (choice (3) C can't be the last of the group (having said inspiration
is rare and we learn by practice, we can't now say inspiration is needed before you begin to
write) S choice (3) is ruled out. C follows 1. A comes next (it says a little more about
inspiration) Then comes B (how much inspiration and how much hard work).D follows
(explaining the second part of B).
Choice (1)
5.
B is the opening sentence in all the choices. D follows E (just started.. milestone .... ).
Similarly A follows C (such misadventure in A refers to .... The danger of In C).
Choice (3)
6.
While D can be the opening sentence, E following it does not make sense (no connection
between characters, money, and position). Hence 1 and 5 are ruled out. In the other three
choices we have CA. E cannot follow A (there has been no mention of money or position so
far) so 3 and 4 are ruled out.
Choice (2)
5.
D follows 1 (women are .... Inclined to. in t-hew? . think as men ... in D) A precedes 6 (Her
mission is not to enhance the masculine .... It is better for women.... ).
Choice (3)
6.
7.
A cannot be the opening sentence (pronoun it). Hence 3 and 5 are ruled out. C is the
opening sentence in the other three choices. B follows C more logically than E. So 4 is ruled
out. D follows E ('they' in D refers to 'scientists and technocrats' in E)
Choice (1)
7.
Only B follows (1) logically (form technology changing the world, we come to India). 'But'
in (C) is a connector. So (C) follows (B).
Choice (2)
8.
8.
A follows D (so far ... in 0 now in A). E follows A (aptitude) so we have DAE going together
which is found only in Choice (4)
Choice (4)
While both Band C can follow 1. A follows B (link - also In A and offer criticism in B). This
IS found only in 2.
Choice (2)
9.
9.
A follows C (... they too .... In A refers to CBI in C) It also implies (too) that corruption has
already been referred to (B).
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
10. A follows C (...a special technique in C and that technique in A). Similarly D follows B (..
they. in D refers to ... other countries .. In B).
Choice (5)
SENTENCE SELECTION
1.
.. hire one of them .... voyage ..... or live .. , .. suggests a house boat.
Choice (2)
2.
Since the first sentence talks about polio-affected children and the last time about our cooperation, the blank takes a sentence that shows our co-operation. Hence choice (2).
(choice (1) is not suitable because children don't need help to take the vaccine. We must
ensure that they 'get' the vaccine so we must take them to the hospital).
Choice (2)
3.
The sentence that follows the blank talks about viewers increasing. hence choice (2) which
also talks of viewers fits the blank.
Choice (2)
4.
'This electricity .... .' in the line that follows shows that the word electricity must "come in
the blank. The sentence preceding the blank has mentioned solar panel. hence choice (3)
which mentions converting sunlight into electricity fits the blank.
Choice (3)
5.
The sentence preceding the blank talks of 'one source of pollution'. Obviously the blank
must have 'another source of pollution'. The sentences that follow mention vehicle.
Choice (1)
6.
.... force them to take .... legal action' in the line that follows suggests that the blank refers
to someone who, has the authority to take action.
Choice (3)
7.
Regarding actors as gods'. in the previous sentences suggests that the blank has a sentence
which shows people doing something in excess.
Choice (4)
8.
The blank has a sentence which exemplifies the 'simple truth about the importance of
hygiene.
Choice (2)
9.
The line preceding the blank shows that the monkeys act like human beings. The line that
follows says 'In that case... called monkey man'. So the sentence in the blank must show the
monkeys acting more like humans.
Choice (1)
10. Gandhiji called the down cast people Harijan. The line that follows the blank says 'But now
..... it is a word of insult'. So the blank must have the meaning of Harijan as intended by
Gandhiji.
Choice (3)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
MATCHING DEFINITIONS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
1
2
4
3
4
5
3
2
3
2
2.
Sentence 3 is manmade disaster. The other sentences are about natural disasters.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
3.
Choice (1)
4.
Choice (4)
5.
While others are about pleasure and enjoyment. 5 is about something good or needed.
Choice (5)
6.
SENTENCE ANALOGIES
1.
5
2
2
3
5
2
3
3
4
Choice (2)
7.
Choice (4)
8.
Choice (4)
9.
2 is about meditation while the other 4 are about different systems of medicine.
Choice (2)
10. 3 talks of a two-wheeler while the others talk of precious metals and gems (jewelers)
Choice (3)
VERBAL ANALOGIES
1.
Footpath is on either side of the road and running along its entire length. Similarly the river
bank is on either side of the river and running along its length.
Choice (2)
2.
A carpenter uses chisel. In all the five choices we have people and the things they use. In
the case of the seamstress, the needle is a tool just as the chisel is a tool to work with.
Choice (3)
3.
The flower gives off fragrance just as the sun gives sunlight. In both cases they give
something that they . Posses. (The moon gives moon-light but the light is not inherent. it is
only borrowed).
Choice (4)
10. Colt is a young male horse where as a mare is a fully grown female horse. The same aspect
of age and gender is seen between Prince and Queen.
Choice (4)
11. Cub is the young of a lion just as cygnet is the young of swan.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
14. Memory and amnesia are antithetical just like sleep and insomnia.
Choice (1)
Choice (5)
16. Global means relating to the world just as urban means relating to the city.
Choice (4)
17. A rock is the medium for a sculptor just as a canvas is for the artist.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
EXERCISE-A
4.
5.
6.
1.
Grammar is essential for a language, Notes are essential in music, Herbs are essential for
medicine, Numbers are essential in mathematics, Calories add to weight."
Choice (2) (Zoology is the study of plants)
A cycle is used by peddling just as a horse is used by riding. (A car is also used by driving
but this is motorized where as in the case of a horse and bicycle, the physical energy is
used).
Choice (2)
2.
An author is the source of literature. A brain is the source of ideas, Ocean is the source of
clouds and a bank IS the source of money. Movies offer entertainment.
Choice (3) (Earth is a planet)
3.
Hot is a greater degree of warm, Freeze is a greater degree of cold, Weep is a greater degree
of sob, Laugh is a greater degree of smile. Stare is to look for a longer time, the right hand
side words are a higher degree of the left hand side words.
Choice (4) (laugh and cry are opposites)
4.
Newspaper deals with journalism, Economics deals with currency, Geology deals with land,
Bank deals with money. Press deals with printing.
Choice (5) (Butter is a product of milk)
The paise is a fraction of a rupee just as minute is a fraction of an hour. (The drop is also a
part of the ocean but it is not countable I measurable).
Choice (5)
7.
Choice (1)
8.
Sphere is the shape of the sun just as cube is the shape of the dice.
Choice (2)
9.
Choice (1)
5.
6.
7.
17. Epic deals with heroism just as tragedy deals with sorrow. Comedy deals with humor. satire
with lampoon. a critic with review.
Choice (4)
Work leads to fatigue, thirst leads us to take a drink, poison leads to death and laziness to
failure, hard work leads to success.
Choice (3) (love does not lead to hate)
8.
Pills are to cure just as gum is to stick, brush is to paint, and cake is to eat.
Choice (4)
9.
We sketch a diagram just as we draw a picture, print a book or paint a portrait, dramatize a
play.
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
19. Ornithology is the study of birds just as anthropology is the study of mankind, Botany of
plants, Zoology of animals and numismatist of coins.
Choice (5) (Taxonomy is not about tax)
20. We embroider on cloth paint on canvas, carve on wood and write on paper and chisel on
stone.
Choice (2) (we don't garden on lawn - a lawn is a part of a garden).
CLASSIFICATION
1.
Horse, donkey, monkey, parrot, goat. Choice (4) a parrot is a bird while other are animals.
2.
Friday, February, March, August, April. Choice (1) Friday is the name of a day while others
are of a month.
3.
Yesterday, today, second, tomorrow, Saturday. Choice (3) others refer to days.
4.
Baseball, chess, painting, badminton, cricket. Choice (5) others are names of games.
5.
Engineer, doctor, driver, nurse, teacher. Choice (3) others are educated professionals.
6.
Porter, father, mother, brother, sister. Choice (1) others are members of a family.
14. Terrestrial means relating to earth just as cosmic means relating to the universe, aquatic
means relating to water and arboreal means relating to trees, 'Erudition' is related to
knowledge.
Choice (5) (stars shine)
7.
Dagger, knife, fridge, sword, gun. Choice (3) others are weapons.
8.
Ice cream, pudding, cement, salad, cake. Choice (3) others are eatables.
9.
Labor, worker, coolie, manager, miner. Choice (4) the work of others involves physical
effort.
10. Shirt is inside a coat, feet are inside socks, head inside helmet, and kerchief inside pocket
and roots inside the earth.
Choice (4) (coat gives warmth)
11. Permanent and transient are opposites just as boisterous-calm, sombre lively, wildomesticated are opposites, Mirttr and glee are similar.
Choice (1)
12. Diagnosis leads to treatment ailment to medicine, investigation to report, fracture to x-ray.
(Interrogation does not lead to evidence, it could lead to judqrnent or unravelling the
truth). Crime leads to arrest.
Choice (4)
13. The words on the left are the names of the homes of the animals 1 human on the right.
(Only the orib is not the home of a baby)
Choice (3)
10. Kitchen. bedroom, restroom, owner. parlour. Choice (5) others are rooms In a house.
16. A kernel is inside a nut just as a seed is inside a fruit, a grain inside a husk, yolk inside egg,
brain inside the cranium.
Choice (4) (a house is made of bricks not inside it)
11. Cotton, wool, paper. silk. jute. Choice (3) others are natural fibers used to make fabric.
12. Trousers. Tie. Scarf, luggage, shirt. Choice (4) others are articles of clothing.
2.
3.
The concrete here does not refer to building material but to substantial or definite
achievement 'little concrete has happened' means nothing much has been achieved.
Choice (3)
4.
The ostrich is said to bury its head when it sees danger - what it does not see does not exist
An ostrich like attitude means refusing to face reality.
Choice (4)
17. Valley. lake spring, river. ocean. Choice (1) others are sources of water.
5.
18. Tea. salad, coffee. cocoa. chocolate. Choice (2) others are hot beverages.
6.
'Deter' means to discourage or prevent 'Having failed to deter their entry' means as we were
unable to prevent their entry.
Choice (2)
7.
8.
'To make a virtue of necessity' means to derive some credit from an unwelcome obligation' .
....
Choice (5)
9.
The government takes our money by way of taxes. So, if we are keeping the government's
hands off our money, 'it means we are avoiding tax payment.
Choice (2)
13. Gold, silver, copper, wood, diamond. Choice (4) others are metals.
14. Brick, cement. Sand, rope, steel. Choice (4) others are building materials.
15. Apple. flower. peach. pear. banana. Choice (2) others are fruits.
16. Words. phrase, pencil, sentence, verse. Choice (3) others are parts of language.
Choice (1)
19. Sickle, plough, hammer, scythe, reap. Choice (5) others are tools.
20. Father, earth, sun, moon, Venus. Choice (1) others are heavenly bodies.
VERBAL REASONING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
5
3
4
4
3
3
2
5
2
1
MATCHING DEFINITION
PHRASES
1.
Legislation refers to laws. Stirrings refer to the feelings or passions of the people. Not by
legislation does not mean that laws are ignored. The sentence means that the passions (the
inner motive forces) are more important than laws (which are enforced externally).
Choice (1)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
1
3
5
3
4
3
2
1
5
3
4
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
2
5
4
3
1
4
1
5
2
7.
The clue is in the words that follow the blank. The effects are __ to anybody who does not
deliberately shut his eyes. So, if you don't deliberately shut your eyes it will be 'obvious'
(easily perceived). It is not palpable (able to be touched or felt) or patent (right given by the
government for making or producing something) or conspicuous (what attracts attention in
a crowd) or shrouded.
Choice (4)
8.
Here again the clue is in what precedes and what follows the blank. No sensible person
would say that a terrorist response is justified. By dictating terms it has given an
opportunity for people like Osama Bin Laden or Saddam Hussain to justifiably oppose it.
Hence, the blank is not inefficacious (not producing the desired effect) or abortive (failing
to produce result) or unsuccessful or rational. It is futile (pointless).
Choice (1)
9.
It is no __ . The blank must take a word that means 'chance' (happening by chance) not
luck or fluke. Serendipity means a lucky chance. From the context we can see that it is not
lucky, hence only coincidence can fit in.
Choice (5)
CLOSET TEST
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Here the clue is in the preceding adjective 'irrational'. Since it is irrational, it cannot be
unintelligible (what cannot be understood) or unjustifiable (what cannot be justified) or unmaintainable (what cannot be maintained) Hence, it is indefensible (what cannot be
defended)
Choice (2)
The previous word is browbeating, that is, intimidating. We cannot browbeat jurisdiction
(the territory or area over which authority exits). It is not browbeating people or politicians
or common man (because it is concerned with encroaching public land) Hence, it is
jurisprudence (the legal system) which should act against encroachers.
Choice (1)
'Religion is being Increasingly __ obviously it is 'used So. it IS not redistributed disposed or
even positioned It 15 not advertised either It is deployed (bring Into effective action).
Choice (4)
The quotation of George Bernard Shaw shows that we don't want religion to be used by
scoundrels. So what do we do? We must ensure (make sure) that it does not happen. We
cannot guarantee or certify or even confirm this. We cannot promote it either.
Choice (3)
We must ensure religion does not suffer a similar __ what? It IS not demotion (there is no
promotion or demotion for religion). Depose means to give evidence. So. It cannot be
deposition. It IS not shaming since shaming means feeling of humiliation (religion cannot
feel) Religion is not a thing to discard. Hence, 'it is degradation (causing severe loss of
dignity or respect, demean).
Choice (5)
'Terms' is a way of expressing oneself. So how has Israel been expressing itself? The clue is
in the words that follow'.. from a position of military strength'. From such a position one
will only order or dictate.
Choice (3)
10. With a common enemy, the people 'have been brought together to oppose. Hence, the
word is rally (bring together for concerted action). Group, band, assemble congregate all
refer to bringing people together but the implication of joint action is implicit only in rally.
Choice (2)
11. The clue lies in the words that follow - 'to financial services'. You need an 'access' (the
means or opportunity to approach) rather than gain admission or entry. Avenue means the
same but does not suit in this context.
Choice (5)
12. The words that follow are 'dignity and position'. The self-help groups have empowered
women and what have they done to their dignity and position? They have definitely not
flattered or decorated nor have they seized, they have enhanced (increased).
Choice (4)
13. It has given women the confidence and power to __ with banks. What do they do with
banks? They negotiate (try to reach an agreement or compromise by discussion). They do
not fulfill anything or orchestrate (direct to produce a desired effect) or contract (as a verb
It means decrease or become shorter as a noun only it means an agreement). Corroborate IS
also inapt.
Choice(3)
14. In all these __ , the reference is to dealing with
banks and local governments. These are not events. Occurrences, places or even courses
(lessons In a subject). They are programmers (a set of related measures or activities with a
long term aim).
Choice (2)
ANALYZING ARGUMENTS
1.
16. The words that follow 'have to play' indicate 'Obligation'. 'Mandatorily' means 'required by
law'. Since the order is issued by the government mandatorily is the right choice.
Choice (1)
The given sentence emphasizes the importance of four Ps. Choice 4 which talks of the
indifference of businessmen to the lot of the common man has nothing to do with the
qualities mentioned and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (4)
2.
17. The words that precede 'this is the sort of .... .. .' and the words that follow 'that makes a
mockery of' _. Indicate that what is done is not done in earnest. It is only a show.
'Tokenism' shows that it is only a symbolic move and hence appropriate.
Choice (5)
3.
The given sentence focuses on the responsive governance in Karnataka. Choice 5 talks of
Bangalore being a garden city and is unrelated to the responsiveness and technological
development of the government.
Choice (5)
4.
5.
20. 'Betrays' (unintentionally reveal) is better in this context than merely disclose (expose) or
divulge (make known) or blurt out (say suddenly without careful consideration).Enhances
is inapt.
Choice (3)
The focus is on the exaggeration in reporting about hunger related deaths. Choice 4 is also
about sensationalism but of the different kind - buying children and hence cannot
complement the given sentence.
Choice (4)
6.
The given sentence draws our attention to keeping the world healthy - that is
environmental protection. Choice 2 which ~s on third World War does not complement it.
Choice (2)
7.
The importance of information is emphasized. Choice 3 which is about the three sectors
cannot complement it.
Choice (3)
22. __ of our prime ministers. The blank refers to the killing. The killing of political
personalities is called assassination.
Choice (1)
8.
The given sentence is about the dispute regarding Cauvery water. Choice 1 is about its
being sacred and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (1)
9.
The given sentence focuses on the dispute between BCCI and ICC rather than on the World
Cup Match. Choice 5, which talks of the important people who will attend the match, does
not complement it.
Choice (5)
21. The words that follow the blank are-droughts, floods. oil price shocks, and other things
including war. What has been the effect of these? The effect has been destructive but it is
not plunder (forcibly stial) or demolition (deliberately destroy) or wreckages (associated
with natural disaster or accident). Hence. It is ravages.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
24. The words that follow are poverty, disease, illiteracy, corruption etc: These are all scattered
around. What can they be called? They are not havoc (wide-spread destruction) or mere
fragments (~mall parts, pieces). It can be litter or ebris. Of the two: debris has the implicit
meaning of 'scattered rubbish' (litter only means rubbish or an untidy collection).
Choice (2)
10. Here the focus is on technology. Choice 1 alone does not talk about the technology
involved and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (1)
WORD SUBSTITUTES
1.
2.
3.
'Venom' literally means poison and by extension hatred and bitterness. In this context it can
earn rancor (bitterness) malice (hatred) malevolence (ill-will) and bitterness. It cannot
mean abhorrence which is disgust.
Choice (2)
'Acquittal' means declared not guilty. Hence it can mean vindication (shown to be right or
justified), exoneration (officially absolve from blame), and deliverance (the process of being
set free), and exculpation but not dismissal (order or allow to leave).
Choice (1)
'Presage' means a sign or warning. It also means predict. Hence, in the context it can be
replaced by signaled (indicate a state) or prophesied (predicted) or portended (sign or
warning) or threatened but not supported (bear the weight or give assistance)
Choice (1)
4.
5.
Abjure' means to solemnly renounce Hence, It can mean renounce, relmquish (give up) or
abnegate (renounce or reject) or abandon but not discontinue (stop) discontinue is a
common word by comparison.
Choice (4)
6.
7.
8.
9.
'Despondent' means being in low spirits from loss of hope or courage. It can mean doleful
(sorrowful). Morose (sullen) or crestfallen (sad and disappointed) dismal, but not defiant
(resistance or disobedient).
Choice (3)
'Fitfully' means occurring intermittently, not regularly. Hence, it means erratically
intermittently, irregularly discontinuously but it does not mean faintly which means 'barely
perceptible'
Choice (1)
'Incredulous' means unwilling to believe. Hence, it can be dubious, cynical meaning,
skeptical (doubtful) and disbelieving but not weary (tired).
Choice (3)
'Misconstrued' means 'interpreted wrongly, hence it can mean miscalculated,
misinterpreted or misunderstood (wrongly understood) or erred (mistaken) but not
confused which mean'; bewildered or lacking order
Choice (4)
10. 'Embellished' means adorned or decorated or studded and hence beautified but not beatified
(sanctified)
Choice (5)
11. 'Paeans' means a song of praise hence it can mean tribute, panegyric (in praise of someone)
accolade (special honor), eulogy (praise someone highly) but not anathema (something that
one vehemently dislikes)
Choice (4)
12. 'Sprightly' means lively, energetic, hence it can mean frisky, vivacious (attractively lively)
Jaunty (lively and self confident manner) perky (cheerful and lively) but not voracious
which means greedy or insatiable.
Choice (1)
13. 'Ubiquitous' means found everywhere, hence it means rife, pervasive (widespread).
Prevalent (widespread or existing) and extensive (covering a large area) but not dominating
'which means have a commanding or controlling influence over.
Choice (2)
14. 'Tyro' means a beginner or novice hence it can mean trainee, beginner novice or neophyte
(a person who is new to a subject) but not veteran (a person who has long experience in a
field) which is the opposite.
Choice (2)
15. 'Variegated' means exhibiting different colors hence colorful, kaleidoscopically (changing
patterns, psychedelic (vivid colors and swirling abstract patterns) and many hued (many
colors) but not diversified (enlarge the range).
Choice (4)
16. 'Zany' means amusingly unconventional or idiosyncratic, hence it can mean peculiar,
bizarre (strange), weird (uncanny), ludicrous (absurd, ridiculous) but not weak (lacking
strength).
Choice (2)
17. Adjunct means additional or supplementary, hence can mean complement, supplement, add
on and accessory (something added) but not compliment (expression of praise). Choice (3)
(Note - complement means a thing that enhances or Improves).
18. Lyrical means imaginative and poetic, songlike and hence can mean pleasant, melodious
(tuneful) rhapsodic (enthusiastic expression of feeling), musical (of relating to, or
accompanied by music) but not sumptuous (splendid and expensive looking).
Choice (5)
19. 'Proscribe' means to forbid, especially by law and hence can mean condemned, forbidden,
prohibited= (forbid by law), disallowed (not allowed) but not discourage (cause a loss of
confidence).
Choice (2)
20. 'Venal' means motivated by susceptibility to bribery and hence includes crooked, corrupt
(act dishonestly in return for money), rapacious (aggressively greedy), avaricious (extreme
greed) but not evil (immoral or malevolent not necessarily bribery or corruption).
Choice (4)
SENTENCE COMPLETION
1.
When we achieve something, we are excited about it and want to share our happiness with
others. Selfish persons may keep this success to themselves. Choice 1 some people may get
carried away by success and think that they have extraordinary skills Choice 3. Choice 2
gives incomplete sense as 'impossible' - to whom? Choice (5) like choice (2) gives
incomplete sense. Choice 4 is apt.
Choice (4)
2.
The given part of the sentence has negative acts, so, the blank takes a negative phrase. We
eliminate choice 4 as it is positive. Choice 1 and 3, take sanity as the subject because of the
conjunction 'and'. Sanity has nothing to do with neglect of values and havoc with nature,
though these are negative. Choice (5) is positive. So it is not appropriate. (Choice 2 is apt.)
Choice (2)
3.
The sentence deals with resolving a dispute by talks and negotiations but the attempt to
forge an agreement l at reaching a solution given in choices 1 and 3 respectively make
sense. The attempt proved abortive (useless) completes the sense. Reject the agreement l
acquire dark shades are negative. So, they cannot go with the given part. Choice (4) is a
rhetoric statement. Choice (3) is correct.
Choice (3)
4.
Action is defined positively, so it saves man from some negative effect I condition. So, the
choice should have negative words. 'Use of faculties, prerequisites' in choices 1 and 4 are
positive. The sorrow of fellow- beings does not put a man in danger. Hence, choice 3 is
irrelevant. Activity keeps a man happy and agile. Choice (5) like (1) and (4) has a positive
note. So is incorrect.
Choice (2)
5.
'So highly priced' should be followed by an impossible activity. The ordinary sports-persons
cannot buy the banned substances due to their exorbitant price; neither will the coaches
encourage them to do that. So, we eliminate choices 2 and 4. Price cannot be the reason for
making sportsmen guinea pigs. The impossible activity IS given In choice 1, which
completes the meaning of the sentence. Choice (5) is illogical. If the substance IS so highly
priced it will not be unhesitatingly used.
Choice (1)
6.
7.
Choice (2)
8.
The passions and pathos, real or imaginative literature or the talent of writing, which are
lifeless I abstract cannot be drawn towards the beauties of the universe. Hence, choices 2, 3
and 4 are irrelevant. Choice (5) poetry is not meant to drive away negative thoughts. The
lethargic i.e., lazy and uninterested people can be impressed by the beauty.
Choice (1)
9.
When we are in difficulty, we should get motivated by the successful people. 'Learning a
lesson', 'take an example' or 'perseverance' from others do not help one in overcoming the
difficulty. Only choice 3 is relevant.
Choice (3)
10. The immediate and sure result of acquiring knowledge realizing how little we know. More
knowledge may not lead to more wealth or opportunities. Wisdom is the right use of
knowledge. A person with good knowledge may not be wise. Mere knowledge may not lead
to more skill.
Choice (4)
MISSING PART
1.
The sentence compares other metals to aluminium and finds the latter to be superior. Since
the given part of the question begins with 'as aluminium', the structure has to be 'No other
metal is as .. .' Since the subject is singular the verb is 'takes' (not take - rules out 1 and 3). In
choice (4) and (5) obliging is wrong - it is the adverb 'obligingly'
Choice (2)
2.
The subject of the missing phrase is 'the wrist joints' choice (1) makes the sentence
incomplete. In choice (2)'enabling the hands to permit' is meaningless. In choice (4) the
tenses are mixed up. Choice (5) is meaningless.
Choice (3)
3.
The words 'almost left' make choice (2) wrong 'almost' does not qualify the word left but 'as many delusions' Since 'left' itself IS In the past
tense. The earlier past must be In the past perfect - had had. The singular 'had' makes
choice (3) and (4) wrong.
Choice (1)
4.
The words in the blank must elaborate on 'the new kind of war". The words that follow the
blank'. That we had ignored' qualifies' debits and dangers. Hence these words must be at the
end of the words in the blank. In choice (1) 'while' makes the sentence Incomplete.
Choice (4)
5.
5. The words that follow the blank'. But because, too .. suggest that the structure we have
here is 'not only but also' type. So we look at choices (3) and (4).Choice (4) does not make
much sense.
Choice (3)
6.
Since the subject in the blank is 'a vast network', the verb is 'lies' not 'lie' (rules out choices
(1) and (4). Choice (3) has mistakes in prepositions. In Choice (5) the word 'idea is used in
singular. This distorts the subject/verb agreement.
Choice (2)
7.
Since we recognize that natural properties are of vital importance to the planet, human
rights on these are limited by their use - they must comply with their natural function. This
is expressed clearly in choice (1). In choice (2) the prepositions are wrong. In choices (3),
(4)/(5) the meaning conveyed is wrong.
Choice (1)
8.
9.
The blank ends with a semi colon and the words that follow are a restatement of what has
gone in the blank. Only choice (5) is a statement of what follows. Some things are more
important than their things ('than other' and 'to other' make choices (1), (2) and (3) wrong).
Choice (4) omits more. It is grammatically incorrect.
Choice (5)
5.
Band C are grammatically incorrect sentences. In B the error is in the positioning of the
word 'both'. The right position is 'waste of both time and emotional energy'. The error in 'C'
is in the usage of the word 'imaginative fears' The correction is 'imaginary fears'.
Choice (3)
6.
Statements A and C are incorrect. In 'A' the error is in the usage of the preposition. It is
incorrect to say 'shortcut over', the correction is 'shortcut through'. The correction in C is
'came across' 'came to' makes no sense.
Choice (4)
7.
The statements Band 0 are incorrect. The error in B IS 'if it. .. .' The appropriate conjunction
is 'although it was ....' In 0 the error IS 'holding in', the correction IS 'holding at'.
Choice (2)
8.
B and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in B is 'the best possible'.
The whole paragraph is in past tense. Hence 'will visit' in 0 makes it grammatically
inconsistent. The correction is "visited them...
Choice (1)
9.
Only choice (4) is grammatically correct and conveys the meaning appropriately.
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
10. Something is stated in the given part of the sentence which is compared to something else
in the blank. Hence 'just as' is correct. Between (1) and (4) only the former is correct as
'sparkle by thought' is wrong. Choice (5) 'conflicted' is in correct.
Choice (1)
10. Band D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in 'B' is 'transmuted into; it
does not take 'for' The correction in 0 is 'properties' because they are 'diverse'.
Choice (2)
SPOTTING ERRORS
THEME DETECTION
1.
2.
Statement A is incorrect. It is incorrect to say 'leap and bound; the correction is 'leaps and
bounds'. C is erroneous because it is not 'its' but 'it's'; which means 'it is'. D is erroneous
because 'hang off the cliff' is the appropriate expression.
Choice (5)
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
5.
WORDS USAGE
1.
Choice (2) should read 'It is best' and not 'It is the best
2.
'To break in somebody' means to 'train somebody'. Hence choice (1) is correct Choice (4)
should read 'broke down' and not 'broke out'.
Choice (4)
3.
4.
Choice (4) should read 'root and branch' and not 'roots and branches' (i.e., completely).
Choice (4)
5.
6.
Choice (2) should read 'got wind of (i.e. some Indication) and not 'got a wind of.
PARAGRAPH FORMATION
Choice (4)
1.
Sentence E is the best sentence to follow A because it traces the beginnings of movie
making. The 'beyond that' in B refers to making propaga", 9.a films and (links sentence B to
E). DC are linked try the chronological order. Also, C reiterates what has been said in A and
winds up the paragraph. Hence EBDC.
Choice (2)
2.
Sentence 0 follows A since it continues the line of thought - 'they' refers to the materials. B
and C illustrate why material should be chosen with care. Option 2 can be ruled out
because 'thus' in sentence (E) indicates that it is a concluding sentence. Hence DBCE.
Choice (5)
3.
C follows sentence A 'the presumption' in C explaining why Nano may be regarded as a sign
of favouring green esthetic. D and E are a pair - E explaining what is stated in D and B with
the word 'therefore' sums up the paragraph. Hence CDEB.
Choice (4)
4.
The para begins with the statement that while other businesses are struggling Sun Pharma
registered a growth in the September quarter. D follows, saying such a growth will continue
despite the current meltdown. B gives an illustration of how growth can continue in Sun
Pharma. EC are a pair because the plans cited by Obama in E are elaborated in C. Hence
DBEC.
Choice (2)
5.
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-A
Choice (2)
7.
Choice (1) should read 'come to grips with' (i.e., to come to terms with a problem or
situation).
Choice (1)
8.
Choice (3) should read 'gave the lie to ....' (i.e... to expose something as false).
9.
'To pick at food' means to eat slowly because of a lack of appetite. Hence choice (4) is a
contradictory statement and hence is incorrect.
Choice (4)
1.
The correct option is 5 and order is DCEB. Option D follows A as A gives the reason for the
decline of drama '!(1d option D continues with 'aside from this (reason). Option E is a
continuation of C, this is because option C says that people wanted to see something of their
times to be reflected on the stage and option E gives the reason for this as there were no
papers or magazines available at that time. Option B concludes the para as it says
Shakespeare fulfilled their (above mentioned) desire. Hence the correct option is 5 and the
appropriate order is DCEB.
Choice (5)
2.
The correct option is 4. The correct order is BCED. Option B carries the idea of 'towers'
forward hence is the continuation of option' A. Now, option C talks 'about heating crude oil
till it becomes vapor and option E talks about these vapors rising according to their boiling
point. Hence E follows C. The idea of 'higher the vapor goes, the cooler it becomes' is
carried forward in option D which concludes the para, hence the appropriate order is
Choice (3)
10. 'Playing with fire' and not 'playing with the fire' is the standard idiomatic expression.
Choice (5)
BCED.
3.
Choice (4)
The correct option is 4. The correct order is DBCE. Here an option D talk about Aristotles
statement and option B reinforces this. Option C is a continuation of this idea especially th~
continuation of option B as 'they' refers to 'learned men' of Galileo's time, hence option C
follows B. Option E is the continuation. to be precise appropriate link between the first
statement, through all the options up to the final statement and forms the appropriate
conclusion for the paragraph. The appropriate option is 4.
Choice (4)
4.
The correct option is 1. The correct order is BEDC. The first sentence (A) talks about a
society where man seldom exchanges his goods. Option B is the continuation of this. Option
E in turn is a continuation of B. Option D follows E as the idea of produce by a man in a
society which believes in division of labor is carried forward in option D. Hence the correct
order is BEDC.
Choice (1)
5.
The correct option is 4. The correct order is CBDE. Option C is a continuation of A as 'It'
refers to the 'culture' mentioned in option A. Now 'such things' mentioned in option D
refer to the 'products of mental activity' mentioned in option B. Hence option D should
follow B. 'This mental activity' in option B refers to the culture, hence B should follow C. E
forms the concluding statement. The correct order is CBDE.
Choice (4)
Boot means to kick or start (as in computers). Boost means cause something to improve
or increase and suits the context. Hence B.
Sign is a signal. It can also refer to signature but here signature is appropriate. Hence B.
The answer is BBABB
Choice (3)
3.
Quizzical means puzzling and collocates with looks. Quixotic on the other hand refers to
something strange or odd. Hence A.
Moribund refers to something that is close to death while morbid refers to an interest in
unpleasant things. Hence B.
Clip the wings is the correct expression. Hence A.
Thatched is used with roof and refers to one made of grass, hay or leaves. Hatch is to plan.
Hence A.
To blow ones trumpet is the correct expression and it means make much of ones own
achievements. Hence A.
The answer is ABAAA
Choice (1)
4.
5.
Sever means to cut off while Severe means an excess of something. The former suits the
context. Hence A
Suit is a two or three piece clothing that is worn on formal occasions. Suite refers to a set
of rooms in a hotel. Hence B.
Exhort is to persuade or to enthuse while extort means to get by fore blackmail or by
other means. Hence A.
Exterminate is to kill while Extenuating means circumstances or factors that excuse the
commission of a particular act. Hence B.
Pear is a fruit like an apple while pare means to cut down. Hence A.
The answer is ABABA
Choice (1)
SENTENCE FORMATION
1.
2.
Precocious refers to adult behavior or talk that a child indulges in. Precarious means
dangerous which suits the context. Hence A.
To be pretentious is to try to be more important and significant than one is. To have
pretentions to something is to claim to be or to do that thing which suits the context. Hence
B.
Minor means not very serious. Miner is a person who works in mines. Hence A.
Emergent means emerging or growing. Emigrant is a person who leaves his country to
settle in another country. Hence A.
Behold means to view or see. Be hove means it is right, necessary or useful to do
something. Hence A.
The answer is ABAAA
Choice (4)
Whos is sort for who is while those is a personal pronoun and suits the context. Hence B.
Ran foul of is an expression which means do something which gets into trouble. Fowl
refers to poultry. Hence B.
Passed up means lets go or lose. Past refers to time gone by. Hence A.
EXERCISE-A
1.
In part C the preposition 'to' is faulty and should be replaced by 'with'. In part E again
'beyond' should be replaced by against, parts A, Band D are correct.
Choice (3)
2.
In part A there should be no apostrophe after 1960, hence it is faulty. In part B the noun in
apposition V.S. Naipaul should have comma before and after it, therefore it is incorrect
parts C, D and E are correct.
Choice (1)
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
MATCHING DEFINITIONS
1.
The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'H'. 'BE' is the right combination 'F' matches 'C',
thus, '4' is the answer.
Choice (4)
2.
The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'F'. All choices begin with 'F'.'BG' is the right
combination. Thus, choices '3' '4' and '5' can be ruled out 'H' matches 'C'. Thus, '1' is the
answer.
Choice (1)
3.
The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'G'. Thus, options '1' and '2' and '5' can be ruled out.
'BE' is the right combination. 'F' matches 'C'. Thus '4' is the answer.
Choice (4)
4.
The meaning implied in 'A' IS stated in E. Thus, options '1' and '4' and '5' can be ruled out.
'H' matches 'B' 'CF' is the right combination. Thus, '3' is the answer.
Choice (3)
Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be a plural noun 'advocates', since it is
always one of the many In part D the definite article 'the' is missing before worlds,
therefore it is faulty.
Choice (5)
In part A the verb should be in the 'singular in order to agree with its singular subject. It
should therefore be subjects. In part B immanent is wrongly spelt. In part E 'to' infinitive is
appropriate. It should be 'to extend'. Parts C and D are correct
Choice (5)
In part A the correct spelling should be dictum, hence it is faulty. In part C the past perfect
tense 'had done' should be used. In part E 'make' is correct as they 'were going to make
history' moves only part D is correct.
Choice (2)
READING COMPREHENSION
EXERCISE-1
1.
Choice 3 is characteristic of submarine canyons but not of land canyons. Refer to the last
sentence of para1.
Choice (3)
Parts A, C, D and E are correct. In part B the indefinite article a is missing before
newspaper.
Choice (4)
2.
Choice (4)
3.
Choice (1)
4.
Choice (4)
In part A 'economical' as an adjective means using the minimum amount of time, effort that
is necessary, which is not suitable is this context. The adjective 'economic', concerned with
the organization of money, industry and trade, is more appropriate. Hence part A is faulty.
In part B the conjunction 'but' cannot be used as the Ideas are not contrasted 'And' should
be used instead. In part D the preposition 'up' is Incorrect. Parts C and E are correct."
Choice (5)
Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be 'organizational ability' as it pertains or
relates to the way events are planned and arranged. In option D 'grandest' is already a
superlative, hence 'most' is incorrect.
Choice (4)
10. In part A instead of 'in' it should be 'on' hence A is faulty. In part E the definite article 'the'
is missing before 'coming'. Therefore E is faulty. Parts B, C and D are correct.
Choice (3)
5.
The verb shoaling means creating a shallow, although shoal (noun) means a swarm of
fish.
Choice (2)
6.
Choice (5)
7.
Choice (1)
8.
Choice (3)
9.
Choice (2)
submarine levees sandstone deposits, gravel and sand are all mentioned. The first sentence
of the para negates 4 since turbidities have never been directly observed.
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-2
28. Refer to the secorid point (lines 11 - 12) in the fourth para.
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (2)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Choice (5)
32. Choice 3 is incorrect - it was not 84 but 64 soldiers (refer to para 7 penultimate line).
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
Choice (2)
Choice (5)
Choice (3)
20. Choice 4 is the odd man since it is negative statement about a food while all the others are
positive statements about different foods.
Choice (4)
EXERCISE-3
21. Refer to para 1, line 4 (because it is' warmer and less saline)
Choice (1)
Choice (3)
Choice (5)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
EXERCISE-4
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
Choice (2)
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
38. None of the choices 1, 2 and 3 can be inferred from the passage.
Choice (5)
EXERCISE-5
39. Refer to the last four lines of para 4.
27. Refer to para 4 where the evidences supporting turbidities are cited Telegraph cables,
Choice (2)
Choice (3)
40. Refer to the first four lines of para 5 which make statement I true. Statement II is not true Smith was ready to allow protectionism and tariffs, in certain cases (line 1 of penultimate
para).
Choice (1)
41. Statement I is negated by the last sentence of the passage. Statement II is negated by the first
sentence of the last para. Statement III negates everything that Adam Smith stands for (para
2, line 1). Hence all the three statement are false.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)
43. The first sentence in para 3 shows statement I to be true. The end of para 2 show statement
II to be true. The last 2 sentences of para 5 show statement III to be true.
Choice (4)
44. Refer to para 5, line 1-3. The right policies of the government are essential to ensure low
prices and good supplies.
Choice (3)
45. Refer to the last line of para 6 the mechanism by which cell phones affect living tissue is
not known. Hence for the case against cell phones to be proved the connection will have to
be established.
Choice (2)
46. Statement I is true para 7 last line.
Statement II is false para 6.
Statement III is true para 7.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)
48. Larry King is a prominent personality on a T.V. channel refer to para 4 the Larry King
show.
Choice (1)
49. Refer to the first 4 paras.
Choice (5)
Choice (2)