1

III.
SECTION A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Encircle the letter corresponding to the right answer
PEDIATRICS
1.Which of the following acts can a one year old child perform?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sits down from standing position

Drinks from cup
Speaks one or two words with meaning
Rings purpose fully

2.A normal infant sits briefly leaning forward on her hands, reaches for and grasps a cube and
transfers it from hand to hand. She babbles but cannot wave bye-bye nor can she grasp objectives
with the finger and thumb. Her age is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

4 months
7 months
10 months
14 months

3.An infant sits with minimal support, attempts to attain a toy beyond reach, rolls over from
supine to prone position and does not have pincer grasp is a development of:
a.
b.
c.
d.

3 months
4 months
6 months
8 months

4. Order of development of secondary sexual characteristics in male is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Testicular development-pubic hair-axillary hair-beard

Pubic hair-testicular development-axillary hair-beard
Testicular development-beard-pubic hair-axillary hair
Axillary hair- beard-pubic hair-testicular development

5.Which is incorrect about Thumb sucking

a.
b.
c.
d.

Can lead to malocclusion

Is a source of pleasure
Is a sign of insecurity
Must be treated vigorously in the first year

6. Head control is possible in an infant at age of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

1 month
2 months
3 months
6 months

7.The I.Q between 50-70 indicates

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mild mental retardation

Moderate retardation
Severe retardation
Profound retardation

8.By years all milk teeth are erupted:

a.
b.
c.
d.

1.5
2
2.5
3

9. A new born baby has a head circumference of 35 cm at birth. His optimal head circumference
will be 43 cm at:
a.
b.
c.
d.

4 months of age
6 months of age
8 months of age
12 months of age

10. Normal heart rate at birth is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

120-160/min
100-120/min
160-180/min
Is always less than 100/min

11.Taste perception of baby develops at:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Birth
4 months
6 months
8 months

12. A child can copy a circle first at:

a.
b.
c.
d.

2 years of age
One and half year
4 years
3 years

13. Neonatal period extends up to:

a. 21 days of life
b. 30 days of life
c. 28 days of life
d. 35 days of life
14. Delayed speech in a 5 years old child with normal motor and adaptive development is most
likely due to:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mental retardation
Cerebral palsy
Kernicterus
Deafness

15. The commonest cause of enuresis in children is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Urinary tract infection

Spina bifida
Psychologic stress
Diabetes mellitus

16.A school age child is most apt to have fears about:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Snakes
High places
Loud noises
Death or injury

17. Anterior fontanelle closes at the age of:

a.
b.
c.
d.

1 year
2 years
3 years
4 years

18. The most important factor to overcome protein energy malnutrition in children less than 3
years is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Supply of subsidized food ration shop

Early supplementation of solids in infants
Immunization to the child
Treatment of anaemia and pneumonia in infant and toddlers

19.A pediatric nurse, who is caring a 12 years-old patient with septic shock, perceives a potential
complication of fluid resuscitation upon noting:
a. A heart rate of 50 beats/min

b. A temperature of 38.8C
c. Complaints a leg pain
d. Rates and rhonchi by auscultation
20. With gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, the purpose of esophageal pH monitoring is
evaluation for:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Esophagitis from the reflux

Frequency of the reflux
Gastric emptying delays
Possible obstructions

NORMAL OBSTERICS (25)

21. Which of the following observations would suggest the placenta separation is occurring after
normal delivery?
a) Uterus stops contracting
b) Uterine shape changes from discoid to globular
c) Umbilical cord pulsations stops
d) Maternal blood pressure decreases
22. A skilled nurse conducted delivery of mother who delivered a female healthy full term baby
in good condition. During the second stage of labor, the nurse assisted the delivery with a medio
lateral episiotomy. The aim of the episiotomy is to:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Shorten the length of first labor

Allow fetal head to extend during restitution
Prevent perineal and anal lacerations
Decrease trauma to the babys head as it extends

23. A woman have been advised by the medical doctor that she will receive Gamma Globulin
In which period of time Gamma Globulins are administered?
a. Within 12hours only after delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
b. 24 hours post delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
c. Within 72 hours post delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
d. 36 hours only post delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative

24. Rh is immunization in a pregnant client develops during which

conditions?
a. Rh positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal
antibodies.
b. Rh positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating
maternal antibodies.
c. Rh Negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating
maternal antibodies.
d. Rh negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal
antibodies.
25. Which of the following answers best describes the stage of pregnancy
in which maternal and fetal blood are exchanged?
a. After the fusion of ovum and spermatozoon
b Maternal and fetal blood are never exchanged
C.32-34 weeks gestation 3rd trimester
d. At 9 weeks gestation when the fetal heart is well developed
26. A primigravida in early first stage of labor is worried about a thick

yellow discharge from both of her breasts. Which of the following actions
by the nurse would be correct with this client?
a. Tell her that her milk is starting to come in because c she is in labor
b. Complete a thorough breast exam and document the results in the chart.
c. Perform a culture on the discharge and inform the client that she might
have mastitis
d. Inform the client that the discharge is colostrum, normally present
after the 4th month of pregnancy.
27. On the 2nd post partum day, a client complains that she is urinating

more than when she was pregnant with about 3liters a day. Which is the
primary cause of increased urinary output post delivery :
a). Reduction of the extracellular fluid volume increased during
pregnancy
b) Renal plasma flow and glomelurar filtration rate increase slightly until
1 week post partum
c) Renal malfunctioning following the normal delivery
d) Increased post partum fluid intake and breast feeding
28. During moulding, there is overlapping of cranial bones at the membranous spaces and the:
a) Parietal bones slip under frontal l bone

b) Frontal bones slip under parietal bones

c) Parietal bones and occipital slip under each other
d) Frontal bones escape to molding
29. While caring for a mother in labor, the following changes occur in the 2nd stage of labor
EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Uterine contractions become longer, stronger but less frequent

Fetus descends through the cavity to the outlet
Pressure on rectum and pelvic floor creates urge to push
There is a TURTLE sign always

30. Which of the following statement is not true regarding good antenatal care?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Continuous care from a skilled attendant

Providing the best care continuously to mothers at risk
Preparation of birth and potential complications
Promoting health and preventing disease

31. The active management of the 3rd stage of labor involves one of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Delay in cutting the cord, observe gushing out of blood from the vagina
Oxytocin administration by the cord and gentle rubbing of the uterine fundus
Immediate cord clamping, administration of oxytocin and control cord traction
Promote baby skin to skin contact with the mother and apply control cord traction

32. Which of the following hormones would be administered for the stimulation of uterine contractions?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Prostaglandin
Estradiol
Fetal cortisol
Progesterone

33. The ultrasounds performed in the first trimester of pregnancy aims at the following except:
a) To establish the dates of a pregnancy
b) To determine the number of fetuses and identify placental structure
c) To diagnose an ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage

d. To evaluate the lie and position

34. The mechanism of forewater formation includes the following EXCEPT:
a). The amount of amniotic fluid
b) Hydrostatic force due to uterine contractions
c) The pressure of the fetus within the amniotic sac
d) Normal uterine polarity
35. the most important conjugate in obstetrics is:
a. Obstetric conjugate
b. Diagonal conjugate
c. External conjugate
d. Anatomical conjugate
36. Fetal presentation refers to:
a. The long axis of the fetus to that of the mother.
b. The part of the fetus that is presents at the pelvic brim.
c. The relation of the fetal presenting part to the right or left transverse side birth canal.
d. The relationship of the fetal head to that of the maternal spine
37. Engagement of the presenting part occurs when the largest diameter of the presenting part:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Begins to enter the pelvic inlet but be dislodged with gentle pressure.
Is at the level with the ischial spines
Enters through the pelvic inlet
Passes through the pelvic outlet

38. During the normal evolution of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is secreted and excreted. One of
the following is not the origin of this fluid:
a) Extravaseted from maternal vessels in the deciduas
b) Secreted from fetal vessels in the placenta
c) Secreted by the inner membrane of amniotic bag

d) Secreted by external membrane of amniotic bag

39. A nurse/ midwife perform Leopold maneuvers while doing abdominal examination for a
pregnant woman. The following are purposes of Leopold maneuvers EXCEPT:
a. To evaluate the fetal life by fetal heart rate
b. To Evaluation of abdominal muscles tone
c. To determine the fetal lie and presentation
d. To estimation of fetal weight
40. A pregnant woman telephones the emergency room stating that she

thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has
probably begun when:
a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.
41. In spontaneous vaginal delivery, what do you do next after the head coming out :

a. return the baby quickly, check the umbilical cord, clean air way and deliver the posterior
shoulder
b. return the baby quickly, check the umbilical cord, clean air way and deliver the anterior
shoulder
c. Wait the baby return himself, check the umbilical cord, clean air way and deliver the posterior
shoulder
d. Wait the baby return himself, check the umbilical cord, clean air way and deliver the
anterior shoulder
42. Directly after birth, what do you do firstly for the baby born without a problem?
a. Clean the baby and cut the cordon
b. Put the baby on skin to skin and cut the cordon
c. Clean the baby and put him skin to skin
d. Cut the cordon and put the baby skin to skin
43. Which of the following rationales best explains why a pregnant client
should not lie a long time on her right side when resting or sleeping in the

later stages of pregnancy or in labor:

a) To facilitate digestion and prevent heartburn
b) To prevent compression of vena cava
c) To facilitate bladder emptying
d) To avoid abnormalities of fetal cord
44. A woman with a term, uncomplicated pregnancy comes into labor ward
in early active phase of labor saying that she thinks her forewater is
broken. Which action should the nurse/ midwife takes:
a) Prepare the woman for delivery without delay
b) Perform immediately vaginal examination
c) Immediately contact doctor for next action
d) Collect sample of fluid for microbial analysis
45. One of the following is not an indicator of the adequate pelvis for vaginal delively during
vaginal examination:
a. Sacral promontory cannot be felt
b.Ischial spines are not blunt
c.Subpubic arch accept 2 fingers
d.Intertuberous diameter accept 4 knuckles
46. During the examination of a pregnant woman, the nurse / midwife have to determine the
foetal position .The denominator in the Left Occipal Anterior and Right occipital Anterior is
the:
a. Nasion
b. Mentum
c. Occiput
d. Sacrum
NEONATOLOGY (9)
47. The routine administration of vitamin K to all newborns is due to:

a. Maternal insufficiency of Vitamin K

b. The maternal liver dysfunction during pregnancy
c.Immature fetal liver immediately after birth
d. Lack of absorption of vitamin K.

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48. The APGAR score is composed of five elements:

a. Temperature, grimace, heartbeat, breathing, muscle tone
b.Couleur, grimace, heartbeat, breathing, muscle tone
c.Couleur, grimace, temperature, heartbeat, breathing.
d. Breathing, muscle tone, weight, color and temperature
49. Which of the following statements is true in relation with care of the umbilical cord in
newborns.
a. Cover the umbilical cord with Vaseline
b. Apply antiseptic solution every day
c. Do not cover to expose it to the air
d. Apply antiseptic solution twice daily
50. A client has just given birth at 42 weeks gestation. When assessing the
neonate, which result of physical exam is expected to be founded?
a. A sleepy and lethargic baby
b. Lanugo covering body
c. Desquamation of the epidermis
d. Vernix caseosa covering the body
51. Mm Cyiza has vaginally delivered her first baby. During the newborn
examination, the neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum.
Which statement is true related to its meaning?
a) Collection which usually resolves in 3-6 weeks
b) Collection of blood between the skin and periosteum
c) Boggy collection of fluid over the fetus head due to pressure
d) Boggy collection of fluid which cross the cranial suture line.
52. The newborn care include a set of nursing interventions aim to assure
the welfare of the baby. Which nursing intervention helps prevent
evaporative heat loss in the neonate immediately after birth?
a. Administer warm oxygen
b. controlling drafts in the room
c. Immediate drying the neonate
d. Placing neonate on a warm, dry towel
53. Which of the following is correct about the fetal circulation?
a) 100% of the cardiac output goes to the lungs through the artery
b) The ductus arteriosus sends oxygenated blood to the brain
c) The foramen ovale carries blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery
d) Umbilical veins carry well-oxygenated blood during intrauterine life

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54. Lequel des lments suivants est correct propos de la circulation ftale?
a. 100% du dbit cardiaque va vers les poumons par l'artre
b. Le canal artriel envoie le sang oxygn au cerveau
c. Le trou de Botal transporte le sang de l'aorte l'artre pulmonaire
d. Les veines ombilicales transportent le sang bien oxygn pendant la vie intra-utrine

55. When the service nurse accidentally strikes the cradle, the infant throws his arms open hands
in the air and began to cry. The nurse interprets this reaction as an indicator of what reflex from
the following?
a) Moro reflex
b) Babinski reflex
c) Gripping reflex
d) Tonic reflex neck
56. All the following are features of prematurity in a neonate EXCEPT
a. No creases on feet underneath
b.Abundant lanugo
c.Thick ear cartilage
d.Empty scrotum
GYNECO ( 10)
57. All of the following symptoms are associated with endometriosis EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Infertility
Dysmenorrhea
Incontinence
Dyspareunia

58. What is the agent taught to be responsible for causing primary dysmenorrhea?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Estrogen
Progesterone
Prostanglandin E2
Prostanglandin f2a

12

59.Which of the following statements about the management of suspected fibro-adenomas is

INCORRECT?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ultrasound is not useful in distinguishing fibroadenomas from breast cysts

Surgical excision is indicated if the breast mass is painful
Surgical indication is indicated if the breast is rapidly growing
Fine needle aspiration may provide sufficient information to allow management by
frequent examination and mammographic evaluation

60. How frequently should a breast self examination be performed?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Immediately following menstruation

At 2 weeks intervals, on the same day of the week
Weekly, on the same day of the week
3 to 5days before menstruation

61. Hysterosalpigography is LEAST appropriate for the evaluation of one of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The size of the uterine cavity

The configuration of the uterine cavity
Patency of the uterine tubes
Pelvic endometriosis

62. What is the first evidence of diminished reproductive efficiency in a woman?

a.
b.
c.
d.

A change in the length of the reproductive cycle

Hot flushes
Vaginal atrophy
Premenstrual mood changes

63. What is the common condition characterized by breast tenderness, Mood changes, Fluid
retention, abdominal bloating and weight gain?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Primary dysmenorrhea
Secondary dysmenorrhea
Premenstrual syndrome
Perimenopause

64. What is the typical cause of the endometrial scarring that characterizes Ashermans
syndrome?
a. Cervical infection
b. Dilatation and curettage

13

c. Pelvic inflammatory disease

d. Hysterosalpingography
65. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Reduced height for weight

Late menopause
Low calcium intake
Family history of osteoporosis

66. Stage 4 of vaginal carcinoma is characterized by one of the following:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Carcinoma involving the vaginal tissues but not extending onto the pelvic wall
Carcinoma extending unto the pelvic side wall
Carcinoma limited to the vaginal mucosa
Carcinoma extending into the bladder mucosa or distant metastases

67. Screening for the recognition of potential malignancy of the cervix is best accomplished by
one of the following methods?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Self investigation of the vagina

Papanicolaou smear
Cervical canal curettage
Aspiration of endocervical mucus

68. which of the following is the LEAST likely complication noted after radiation therapy for
cervical carcinoma?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Radiation cystitis
Increased vaginal infection
Hemorrhage
Dyspareunia

69. All of the following are common symptoms of uterine fibroids EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pain
Anemia
Constipation
Bleeding

70. What is the most common treatment for adenomyosis of the uterus?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Therapy with estrogen

Therapy of gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists
Expectant management
Hysterectomy

14

71. Adeline, 15 years old was transferred from a health center to district hospital. She was
transferred because of periodic lower abdominal pain for four months, fullness of the breast,
heaviness in the lower abdomen; vital signs in the normal range, and sub-pubic swelling. The
vulvar inspection revealed a bulging membrane. Among the following pathologies suspected by
the nurse in the health center, what would be the most likely diagnosis?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Ovarian cysts
Threatened abortion
Imperforated hymen
Uterine myoma

72. What is the first line of treatment for recurrent endometrial carcinoma?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Immediate surgery
Hormonal therapy, usually progestin
Radiation therapy
Chemotherapy

73. A client who had had pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis is
at risk for which of the following:
a) Anovulatory menstrual cycles
b) Ectopic pregnancy
c) Multifetal pregnancy
d) Cervical dysplasia

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH ( 15)

74. The passage of clots during menstruation:
a. Is always abnormal
b.May either be normal or abnormal
c. Is always normal
d. Is extremely rare
75. The following events take place in repetitive sequences of the menstrual cycle EXCEPT:
a. The shading of the inner lining of the uterus (the endometrium).
b. Ovulation which is the release of the ovum.
c. Proliferative phase

15

d. Implantation phase

76. The following event occurs during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The continued thickening of the endometrium and its lining is thickened further.
The accumulation of glycogen which will provide the nourishment for the zygote
The growth of milk ducts in the breasts.
A mild shedding of the endometrium

77. The following are risk behaviors which can increase the vulnerability of becoming infected
with Sexually transmitted infections including HIV infection EXCEPT:
a. Anyone of any age who engages in unprotected sexual intercourse
b. Any woman who engages with her partner in unprotected sexual intercourse
c. Drug addicts or users who share needles
d. Any person with multiple partners
78. Mentioned below are benefits of involving and testing the male partner EXCEPT;
a.
b.
c.
d.

Encourages the womans partner to be tested for HIV

Helps to prevent the transmission of HIV to her partner(s) sometimes
Helps to prevents transmission of HIV from the mother to her baby
Stops the husband from infecting other women

79. A young school girl who is HIV positive comes to you for advice regarding continuing her
education and you discover she is not yet started on anti retro virus therapy. When would you
advise her to start taking treatment?
a. When the CD4 count CD4 is 200/mm3
b.When the CD4 count is less than 200/ mm3
c.When the CD4 count is 300/ mm3
d.Start the treatment without considering the CD 4 count
80. A man who has just been done vasectomy will be advised:
a. Not to have unprotected sex for the first three months
b. To use condom while having sexual intercourse except with his wife
c. To come for spermatozoa control after one week.
d. To have sexual intercourse with his wife any time he wants

16

81. The hormone responsible for the development of the ova during the
menstrual cycle is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Estrogen
Progesterone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone

82. Pre nuptial consultation is when a couple receives the following information EXCEPT:
a Female and male physiology knowledge in relation to reproductive health
b Conception and pregnancy
c Family economic status
d Importance of prenatal and postnatal consultation
83. A woman is 38 years old and has 3 children. She smokes more than a packet of cigarettes per
day. Which of the following family planning methods should she avoid?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cervical cap
Oral contraceptive pills
Depo provera injection
Intrauterine device(IUD)

84. When a woman is taking combined oral contraceptive pills, she should start taking them on:
a. The 5th day of menstrual cycle up to the 28th day of the cycle
b. The first day of the menstrual period and continues for 21days followed by 7days
without taking the pills .
c. On the last day of the menstrual period and continue until ovulation day.
d. The 1st day of menstrual cycle up to the 28th day of the cycle
85. Emergency contraception is applicable in one of the following options:
a. A strong desire of adolescents who want to induce abortion
b. Newly married couples who do not want a child immediately after marriage
c. When the users are less than 16years of age
d. In situations of unprotected sexual intercourse, rape, failed coitus interruptus or missed
pills
86. The effectiveness of Emergency contraceptive is within:
a. Within 3days
b. Within 5days

17

c. Within 7days
d. Within 6 hours to 7days
87. Sexually transmitted infections are the second most important cause of healthy life years lost
among women of child bearing age(after Pregnancy related problems). It is therefore
important to recognize that biologically women are more vulnerable to diseases of the genital
tract than are men because:
a. The lining of the vagina is a mucous membrane more permeable to infection than the
skin on the outside of the penis
b. Womens genital tract has more surface area through which infection can easily occur
c. Women are more sexually active than men
d. Due to traditional and cultural beliefs, women must always say yes to male sex partners.
88. The following statements characterize an ideal contraceptive method EXCEPT ONE:
a. Easily obtainable
b. Acceptable to the user and sexual partner
c. Affordable
d. Chosen by the health provider

89. The following are possible complications related to male sterilization EXCEPT:
a.

Bleeding, infection and scarring

b.

Reaction to the anesthetic that is used

c.

Swelling of testicles

d.

Premature ejaculation

90. During the menstrual cycle especially during ovulation period, Progesterone causes the body
temperature to rise. It rises by:
a.0.250C
b.0.50C

18

c.0.050C
d.0.0050C
91. A young girl of 17 years old told to her grandmother that she will never be married because
she hasnt pleasure in sex .Emotional Causes of frigidity may be due to ONE of the following
factors:
a. Dramatic sexual experience.
b. Emotional distance from sexual partner,
c. Poor male sexual performance,
d. Vaginal dryness

HEALTH PROMOTION

92. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the
community?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Integration
Community organization
Community study
Core group formation

93. In which steps are plans formulated for solving community problems?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mobilization
Community organization
Follow-up extension
Core group formation

94. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Participate in community activities for the solution of community problem

Implement activities for the solution of community problem
Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
Identify the health problem as common concern

19

95. In preparing a primegravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery

Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted
Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding
Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery

96. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Conducting assessment of suspected case to detect the communicable diseases

Monitoring the condition of cases affected by the communicable disease
Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic
Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease

97. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of natural history of disease?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Prodromal
Terminal
Pre-pathogenesis
Pathogenesis

COMMUNITY HEALTH

98.Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Primary
Secondary
Intermediate
Tertiary

99. Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is
an indicator of success in the use health care approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families

Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matter of health
Health workers are able to provide care based on identified health needs of the people
Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community

100.What is given to a woman within a month after delivery of a baby?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Folic acid tabs

Ferrous sulfate
Retinal 200,000 I.U od capsule
Potassium iodate 200mg 1 capsule

101.Which biological vaccine is used in EPI(Expanded Program for Immunization) is stored in

the freezer?

20

a.
b.
c.
d.

DPT
Tetanus toxoid
Hepatitis B vaccine
Measles vaccine

102. It is hospital policy to assess and record a patients pulse before administering digoxin. By
auditing the nursing records to determine the frequency of compliance with this policy, the
quality assessment and improvement committee is conducting:
a.
b.
c.
d.

A process analysis
Quality analysis
A system analysis
An outcome analysis

PRIMARY HEALTH CARE

103. The following are factors affecting health, EXCEPT:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Biological factors
Political and economic factors
Environmental factors
Electronic factors

104. The following is the definition of health promotion

a.
b.
c.
d.

Services delivered within a power pyramid structure

Process of enabling people to increase control over and to improve the health
Enabling equity, equality to health services
Intrinsic to health promotion and argues that the major function of the health provider is
to increase peoples health

105.Health promotion in nursing practice describes different conflicts that can occur between
health-care professionals and these are, EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Accommodating conflict
Communication conflict
Personality conflict
Role conflict

106.Among the following activities, one is a role of a nurse in prevention of cancer :

a.
b.
c.
d.

Health talk on good diet

Early screening and early detection
Home visit to detect exposed people
Role play about cooking

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107. Among the following nurses activities, one aims at health promotion among the young
females:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Provision of prescribed drugs

Provision of family planning methods
Provision of Gardasil HPV
Provision of health education about preventable diseases.

MANAGEMENT

108. It is hospital policy to assess and record a patients pulse before administering digoxin. By
auditing the nursing records to determine the frequency of compliance with this policy, the
quality assessment and improvement committee is conducting:
e.
f.
g.
h.

A process analysis
Quality analysis
A system analysis
An outcome analysis

109. If the institution is defining authority and communication channels for employees, it is
performing:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Staffing
Organizing function
Leading function
Controlling function

110.The one who assists other managers in human resource functions of management process is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Line manager
First line supervisor
Staff manager
Estate manager

111.The following are functions of a HRM(Human Resource Manager) EXCEPT:

a. Strategic planning
b. Recruitment and staffing

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c. Retention of employees
d. Discharging patients
112. Health promotion is based on the assumption that:
a. Everyones health is their own business
b. Individuals may be influenced purposefully by both knowledge base and resource
availability
c. Individuals do not have a choice with regards to their own health
d. None of the above