Professional Documents
Culture Documents
ANALYSIS
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IC : PTpnrps03 1 of (17)
1. Ans.(3). If we look up paragraph 3, we can understand that the author has a grudge against tacking the story up with the gameplay. Why does he think
so? Because as he explains further, the storyline moved previously with one motivator, which was "fun". Even in the newer version of the game, this
inducement could have done its part. There was no actual need for the added narrative. Now, the answer to question would require us to understand
what is "blatant". It means something that is completely obvious or vehemently loud. The reason why the storyline justifies this adjective is that
according to the author it is the most visible feature because of its uselessness. Thus, option (3) is correct because it encompasses all the major points.
Option (1) misses out the unsuccessfulness of the storyline. Option (2) is an innocuous one and could have been chosen given there was a lack of
better choice. Option (4) is not supported by the author. He may have mentioned that the narrative was redundant but he never says that it shifts the
focus away. These are two different things. Option (5) is not even close as it is talking of improving the gameplay, when the question asks about the
fallacies of the move.
2. Ans. (1). Harrowing means "causing pain, or trouble". Option (2) is incorrect because intertwining means overlapping which isn't the intended meaning.
Option (5) is wrong because levels is not what the author meant by courses. Among options (1), (3) and (4) option (1) is a better choice because when
one is talking about the difficulty of the game what one means is that it is troublesome, and not traumatic or agonizing. These are higher degrees which
should be avoided.
3. Ans.(1). Read the first line of the passage and it becomes clear that the author loves the newer version (Marble Saga) over the older one (Marble
Mania). Also, throughout the passage, he maintains this tone. Options (3) and (4) are wrong as they ask for the removal of the narrative for the making
of the choice. This, as is evident from the passage is not a necessary condition. Of course, the improvement of the controls is an enhancement in the
later version, but this is mentioned as a sideline benefit.
4. Ans.(1). The passage uses disarming as "Marble Saga Kororinpa is disarming in its simplicity". Here, the clear meaning is that Marble Saga has won
over the critic's heart with its simplicity. Even the meaning of the word "disarming" is "to win over".
5. Ans.(3). Option (3) best rounds up what the author has in mind. Options (1) and (2) are incorrect because they compare the newer version with the
older one; this is not required. Option (5) misses out the negative feedback. Option (4) is a close one but it forgets to mention the game's "already great
formula".
6. Ans.(5). The third reason given in the passage about the acceptance of relativism talks of accepting different reasons or logics in view of different
cultures. So, option (1) is ruled out. Options (2) and (3) can be deduced from the first paragraph. Option (4) implies the same as the other three and
says that there is no singular benchmark for absolute truth. Hence, the answer is option (5).
7. Ans.(5). A doctrine is selfrefuting if its truth implies its falsehood .Option(1) plays on the definition of relativism, since the truth value of a particular
statement is relative, it can at the same time be true or false with respect to different statements hence it clearly implies that relativism itself is false, at
least relative to some standpoints. Option (2) is a clear example of self refutation given in the passage. Option (3) is stated in the opening paragraphs
of the passage.
8. Ans.(4). Options (1), (2) and (3) can be inferred from the second ,third and fourth reasons for acceptance of cognitive relativism. Media here refers to
the broader term that reflects all medium of expression, viz. Drama, Literature, etc. Option (5) is stated in the seventh and eighth paragraph. Option (4)
is the only one that is not supported by the passage.
9. Ans (4). Option(1) is not correct as this is the view of critics and not that of realists themselves. Option (2) is also wrong as it describes the perspective
of certain 'sophisticated' relativists and not that of all relativists on the whole. Option (3) is wrong as the passage says "cognitive relativism is a thought
to undermine………..",i.e. , not the view of realists themselves. Option (4) is right as it has been explicitly stated in the passage.
10. Ans.(2). Option (1) fails because it brands all unintelligent people to be the degrader of relativism. Option (3) speaks about who do not represent
relativism, while the paragraph was talking about who represent relativism incorrectly. Option (4) is close but covers only one part of the paragraph and
leaves out what this activity leads to. Option (5) is incorrect as it intends to state information contrary to the paragraph.
11. Ans.(4). If we look at the given statement in the passage, we clearly see that author agrees to it as being an issue, but an overrated one and not as
serious as is made out to be. Option (1) is given nowhere in the passage. Option (2) though has been given in the passage but is not the right answer
because it does not relate to the question. It is just a justification of how other issues have been overshadowed by global warming. Option (3) shows
how activists exaggerate things and does not convey the meaning of given, it is simply an example to prove it. Option (5) clearly does not fit in.
12. Ans.(3). Immediately before the last statement, the author has said that popular media has given 300 problems arising out of global warming. Last line
is a mockery of this and means that just the way people believed pope when he said witches caused deaths due to cold, similarly people today believe
global warming as being the "witch" that is causing all the problems. Although author believes that activists sometimes misguide people he does not
relate it to people's belief about witches. Nowhere has the author talked about superstition as being one of the major problems. Hence, option (4) is
rejected.
13. Ans.(2) At first glance option(5) seems to be right as all others have been mentioned in the passage but on reading again we find that though the
author has talked of countereffects of global warming, nowhere does he say that the two will balance out each other's effects. Option (1) finds mention
in the last line of paragraph 3. Option (3) has been justified in the last paragraph. Option (4) can be inferred from paragraph 4.
14. Ans.(4) This is the correct answer as in the last two paragraphs, the author talks of investing funds wisely and equally in all the major problems than
just focusing on global warming. This is on the same lines as options (3) and (5) but is more appropriate as it justifies them both. Thus, (4) is an all
inclusive answer. Options (1) and (2) are the assertions made by author as reasons causing the exaggeration of issue. He does not talk of eradicating
them.
15. Ans.(2). Arrant actually means "without qualification; used informally as (often pejorative) an intensifier". Clearly, option (2) is the correct one. We can
solve this question by looking up the context in which this word has been used in the passage.
16. Ans.(1). It is clear that all options are mentioned in the passage except option (1). This is contrary to what the passage says that 'Chickens and eggs
raised on small, sustainable farms seem relatively expensive' in paragraph 2.
17. Ans.(4). The line has to mean that after eating your first egg sandwich, the taste that lingers in the mouth is one that you remember and hence in every
next purchase, you try to have something like it or better than it. So, the eggs that you purchase, you try to have the ones that can provide the best
possible taste. This is mentioned in option (4). All other options can be true if we visualise the line alone. But if taken in the context of the passage, only
option (4) fits in.
18. Ans.(3). The author is thrilled in the first paragraph to witness eggs being sold at $6. This reveals that this is a high price and yet there are people who
are buying the eggs. This goes to show that there is a change in the buying pattern of the consumers. This change becomes evident as we read the
next few paragraphs. Thus, option (3)is the best answer.
19. Ans.(3). Paragraph 1 states that the author viewed $6 eggs as a rarity. He felt thrilled to see this. The answer to why he felt thrilled can be given by
answering why he considered the eggs as a rarity. He did that because he had never seen so expensive eggs being sold. This eliminates options (2),
(4) and (5). Option (1) is cancelled out because the inability to sell eggs at $4 or $5 was not a discovery for the author as the option makes us believe.
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20. Ans.(4). Only option (4) is incorrect as the passage says "humane standards for the animals" which means treating animals considerately and kindly,
not humanly.
21. Ans.(2). The passage undoubtedly talks about winemaking, but in clear reference to the state of Burgundy. Even from the first paragraph one can
deduce the author's motive that he wishes to examine the role played by Burgundy in the making of wine. Only option (2) speaks about this.
22. Ans.(2). If all the grapes from differnet vineyards could provide similar (best) quality of the grapes they could be used to create a similar (best) quality of
wine. Thus, option (2) seems the most plausible answer. Options (1) and (3) are redundant as they state something that the passage states. Option (4)
has the flaw that the advantage enlisted has nothing to do with the development of winemaking.
23. Ans.(3). This question can be answered only by understanding the text that follows this line in the passage. On reading it we can ascertain that the
author is speaking about the experience a person has after drinking Burgundy wine. The person savours the taste for the first time but then cannot
experience it again because of the wine being present there everytime. Thus, there is a clear indication to overabundance of wines, and hence option
(3) is correct.
24. Ans.(4). Ethereral as used in the passage can correspond to an experience which is outofordinary, or simply something higher than earthly things. All
options except option (4) refer to something that is out of ordinary. Option (4) erroneously links commonsense to ethereal.
25. Ans.(2). Option (1) finds a mention in paragraph 4. Option (3) is there in paragraph 2 and option (4) is there in the next to last paragraph. Option (2) is
incorrect as the passage states that Gamay grape was considered to be unfit for human consumption and hence was not grown. Pinot Noir was grown
for making wine. Gamay grape was not the reason for growing Pinot Noir.
26. Ans.(2). The argument in option (2) is essentially that the proposed creation of a Censor Board makes no sense because sitcoms show the same
content. The argument relies explicitly on an analogy between movies and sitcoms. Thus, the two must be similar in all respects relevant to the
argument. Otherwise, the argument is unconvincing. Option (2) affirms that sitcoms are in fact detrimental, thereby solidifying the analogy between the
two. (1), (3) and (4) each in its own way supports the bare assertion that the proposed Censor Board might not be effective. However, none of these
answer choices confirms the argument's essential reasoning. (5) actually weakens the argument, by providing a reason why sitcoms and movies are
not relevantly similar.
27. Ans.(5). A typical weekend IPL match generates more revenue than a typical Art Exhibition. Hence, increasing the number of weekend IPL matches is
the surest way, among the five choices, for Detro to maximize revenues, especially if the number of days per year that the stadiums are used for Art
Exhibitions would at least remain the same, as (5) implies. Options (1) and (2) are incorrect for essentially the same reason. By increasing the
admission fee, Detro might either enhance or reduce its total revenues, depending on the decrease in attendance (if any) due to the fee increase.
Besides, neither plan would add to the number of days during which one or the other type of event takes place. Hence, neither is as likely to succeed
as the one that option (5) suggests. (3) is the worst of the five choices, and the easiest one to eliminate; replacing an event with one that generates
significantly less revenue can only serve to reduce revenues. Option (4) suggests a course of action that is unlikely to be as effective as the one that
option (5) suggests. Increasing the number of weekend exhibitions might boost revenues. However, since a weekend art exhibition generates less
revenue than a weekend IPL match, the boost would be less than if the number of weekend IPL matches were increased instead.
28. Ans.(1). The argument relies on the unstated assumption that no other event since the fest could have caused the outbreak instead. Statement (1)
provides some evidence that the students who have reported Psoriasis symptoms in fact contracted it at least one week ago. Accordingly, (1) helps
support the claim that it was the swim in the contaminated water during the trip two weeks ago that caused the outbreak. (4) has no effect on the
argument. It is the time after contact that symptoms begin to occur, not the duration of those symptoms, that is key to identifying the source of spread.
(2) actually weakens the claim, by providing another possible explanation for the outbreak. Specifically, (2) provides for the possibility that the outbreak
can be attributed to the water in the swimming pool of the school rather than the dip at the picnic. (3) provides some support for the argument, insofar
as it helps to explain why only one of those reporting symptoms has tested positive so far. Additional statistical information would be required to assess
whether (5) supports the argument. For example, assume for the moment that several studentsincluding the 63 later reporting Psoriasis symptoms
attended the trip. In this event (5) would strengthen the teacher's claim, by providing an explanation for how the picnic bath could have been
contaminated if only a small percentage of attendees have reported Psoriasis symptoms. Or assume on the other hand that the only students attending
the trip were the 63 later reporting Psoriasis symptoms. In that case all who took a bath showed symptoms for Psoriasis and hence, teacher’s assertion
will be repealed.
29. Ans.(5). The argument relies on the unstated assumption that Tamil Nadu's Karanatakan population either remained stable or increased during 2007.
However, (5) provides that this population actually declined in 2007, despite the influx of Karanatakans. Given that the number of Karanatakans
residing in Tamil Nadu decreased while the crime rate increased, (5) reduces the likelihood that it was Karanatakans who were responsible for the
increase in violent crime in 2007. (1) would appear to weaken the argument, by providing ostensible evidence that Tamil Nadu citizens are more likely
than Karanatakans to commit violent crimes. However, (1) does not account for the possibility that in Karanataka far more violent criminals go
unapprehended than in Tamil Nadu. In fact, the argument's explicit reference to "reported" violent crimes underscores this possibility, which prohibits us
from drawing any firm conclusion as to which group is more likely responsible for violent crimes. (2) provides no information useful in evaluating the
argument. Whether (2) strengthens the argument depends on additional considerations as well, such as: the total population of Karanataka compared
to Tamil Nadu; whether the Karanatakan population increased or decreased in each state during the year; and whether the crime rate in Karanataka
increased or decreased during 2007. (3) actually strengthens the argument. By providing evidence that number of Karanatakans residing in Tamil Nadu
increased in 2007, (3) makes it more likely that Karanatakans were responsible for the increase in violent crime that year. (4) actually strengthens the
argument, by affirming the essential premise that the number of violent crimes in Karanataka increased dramatically during 2007.
30. Ans.(1). According to the passage, the total aluminium demand for packaging has been decreasing, while the amount of aluminium packaging recycled
for the same purpose has been increasing. These two facts, considered together, lend strong support to the conclusion that manufacturers have
substituted recycled aluminiumpackaging for "fresh" aluminium to meet their demand for aluminium packaging. (2) is not strongly inferrable from the
passage, because without any numbers, it is impossible to compare the total amount of recycled packaging to the total amount of "fresh" packaging. (3)
is incorrect because the passage provides no information for the inference that all recycled aluminium packaging has been used to meet the aluminium
packaging demands of manufacturers. (4) is not a strong option. The only information in the passage about the demand for packaging material involves
aluminium packaging. It is impossible to draw any strong conclusions about the demand for nonaluminium packaging material. In (5), just because the
amount of recycled aluminium packaging has increased, it is unfair to conclude that the amount of aluminium from products has also increased.
31. Ans.(2). It is clear that in protectionist policies one country would protect its own jobs whatever the type of job may be. Thus, global is incorrect. Since,
the paragraph is not worried about the type of job, we can even cancel out options (3), (4) and (5).
32. Ans.(1). Since we are talking of a grave situation, option (1) clearly is the best choice. Option (2) is in opposite context. Option (3) though might seem
true with respect to protectionism but does not fit in because nowhere has the authenticity of situation been questioned. Option (4) is not right because
such a situation already occurred in 1930. Option (5) is close but ponderous (heavy; or having a great mass and weight and unwieldiness) is not of the
required level that is expected from an occurence that causes end of globalization.
IC : PTpnrps03 3 of (17)
33. Ans.(4). Selfish in this option cannot fit because it would be redundant to speak "selfish protectionist" when protectionism has the meaning of selfish
built in. Tender will be inept because the speaker is condemning protectionism. Fearsome implies something that is dreadful or frightening. Fearful
might have been an apt choice. Mediocre doesn't explain anything. Only shortsighted seems correct as the speaker warns that decisions like these
may hamper growth in the future.
34. Ans.(3). Since we are talking of a threat against globalization, options (2) and (4) are ruled out. Options (1) and (5) talk of temporary hindrance, but
option (3) says choke off; i.e. ,complete devastation and thus option (3) most aptly defines the threat.
35. Ans.(2). Since we are talking of resisting protectionism, (1) and (5) are rejected as instead of tackiling it, they would further promote it. Options (3) and
(4) are general words and do not fully bring out the graveness of the need to work together. Hence option (2) is the right answer.
36. Ans.(3). Options (1) and (4) that mention "special mark" presupposing that it has been introduced are incorrect as it is nowhere in the first part of the
paragraph. Option (5) is close but is incorrect because had it been in the paragraph, the construction would have looked like, "Its not just this attitude
that is mysterious. Its also their special mark". There is an also missing there. Option (2) is wrong because long eyelashes and sombre face does not
prepare the donkeys for long journeys. Only option (3) gives a link between the two parts.
37. Ans.(2). A clear look at the lines above the missing one will reveal that what we need in the missing line is something that shows what the Government
can do (using its buying power) to improve the security of the products. Thus, options (1), (3), (4) and (5) all get negated. Option (1) speaks of fake
products (an unnecessary inclusion). (4) specifies that the cybersecurity issue will be dealt with in the fullest, while the statement in the last line
mentions "improved security" not "complete security". (3) and (5) talk nothing about the "buying power" of the Government.
38. Ans.(3). A careful analysis will reveal that the author is trying to hold the American leadership and the citizens responsible for the sorry state that
America portrays on the global front today. Thus, options (1), (4) and (5) can be negated because they are trying to say that the world has been
unworthy of America's efforts. Among options (2) and (3), option (3) is a brilliant filler because it quickly ditributes the onus of the responsibility for the
American predicament between the people and the leaders. Option (2) could have been a better choice if only option (3) was not there.
39. Ans.(4). This one should be easy. When one compares the options and looks up what are the differences, she/he can easily make out two: indicate(s);
and lie/lay. Considering the subjectverb agreement, "information" will entail an "indicate". Thus, options (1), (2) and (3) are ruled out. Option (5) is
wrong because it uses the incorrect verb "lay" rather than "lie". Lay usually implies "put into a certain place or abstract location". While lie is "to have a
place in relation to something else".
40. Ans.(1). Here we need to be clear about the usage of few, fewer, less and lesser. 'Fewer' answers the question, "How many?" (bats, balls, dogs,
chairs) and 'less' answers the question, "How much?" (cola, dirt, salt, capacity). Fewer and lesser are always used when comparing things. This
eliminates answer choices (2), (4), and (5). Answer choice (3) is unnecessarily wordy and implies that the auditoriums had already been built before the
buttonholing began.
41. Ans.(3). Statement A can be classified as an inference because even though we do not have the data from where this conclusion has been drawn, yet
we are sure that it is a conclusion atleast. B is a judgement because of the use of the word "narrowly". This is an unquantifiable adjective, i.e. it can
change according to the perspective of the person and the tendency of the situation. C and D are facts and can be easily verified.
42. Ans.(5). Statements A and C are facts that can be easily verified. B is acknowledged as a fact because it is something that someone has spoken
publicly. This can be verified for its truth value. D is an inference because a conclusion has been drawn in the later part of the sentence based on the
former half.
43. Ans.(2). Statement A is an inference drawn from data that is not provided in the question. B and C are inferences based on information given in A and
B respectively. D is a fact because the function of the State Water Resource Regulatory Authority can be confirmed.
44. Ans.(1). Statement A is a fact and can be verified whether differnet cases of incest have come up in the country or not after the expose of the Mira
Road case. C is a fact and can be identified first among all. B is a conclusion drawn based on the information provided in A. D is a judgement becasue
of the unquantifiable phrase "frowned upon". One cannot say for certain what this may mean to the speaker. Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.
45. Ans.(4). Statement A is a judgement of the situation presented by the speaker. Statements B and C are conclusions drawn. In B, we can see "How that
will pan out remains uncertain" is the conclusion drawn on the basis of information provided ahead in the line. In C, the second part of the sentence
after the comma is the inference drawn as the speaker clears that the "No Means Yes" brigade may have to move on. D is a clear judgement that the
speaker is passing on the prevalent situation.
46. Ans.(3). The quote means that mercy blesses both the giver and the taker and its blessings are not exhausted by the increase in the number. That is
why, everyone should show mercy to others.
47. Ans.(4). An optimist's quest for looking at the brighter side everywhere can lead to trying situations. Any person who gets through these traumas can
be pardoned if he doubts things and becomes a pessimist. Option (4) is the best answer. Option (3) is near but it labels all optimism as bad which is not
what is meant here.
48. Ans.(4). The quote implies that real intelligence is comprehending the length and the breadth of one's knowledge. Only option (4) is correct.
49. Ans.(4). The quote can be understood as "a custom that is honoured by not observing it and rather breaching or avoiding it." Hence, option (4) is
correct.
50. Ans.(3). The opposite of a true statement can be a false statement. But as the quote says the opposite of a profound truth can be another profound
truth. This implies that truly nature doesn't distinguish between right or wrong and treats both of them equally. Thus, option (3) is the only correct option.
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For Questions 5154
The number of people in each of these categories can be calculated by adding all the values of the columns:
3(Lords + Vyaparies + Brahmans + Kshatriyas + Vaishya + Shudra + Bhikshuk) = 3375
Hence, total number of people from all the categories =1125
Now, the number of people from the Shudra category =
1125 –(Brahmans +Kshatriyas + Vaishya) – (Bhikshuk + Lords + Vyaparies)
= 1125 – (425) – (600) = 100
Similarly, all the values can be determined:
Lords 250
Vyaparies 200
Brahmans 75
Kshatriyas 50
Vaishya 300
Shudra 100
Bhikshuk 150
51. For getting the minimum number of categories that have more than 50 people unhappy,
70% of 50 = 35
55% of 75 = 41.25
33% of 100 = 33
30% of 150 = 45
24% of 200 = 48
20% of 250 = 50
65% of 300 = 195
Hence, only 1 category is possible. Ans.(1)
52. The number of categories with more than 200 people can be counted from the above table (Lords and Vaishyas). Ans.(5)
53. The number of unhappy people in the categories, Vaishya, Lords, Vyaparies, Bhikshuk, Shudra and Brahmans can be at the most more than 40 if the
percentage distribution is: 20, 24, 30, 33, 55, 65 and 70 respectively. Ans.(4)
54. If the number of people in the Shudra category is reduced by 25%, then the number of people = 100 × 75% = 75. 70% of 75 = 52.5. Thus, the
maximum number of unhappy people = 52. Ans.(5)
55. It is clear that if we know who made the sixth move, we also know who can make the seventh move and can eventually win.
If Gautam (zeroes) has made the sixth move, there are three possible situations after five moves:
Possibility 1: Possibility 2: Possibility 3:
O O O O
O X O X X
X X X X X X
Based on the rules of the game, only possibility 1 could have resulted in the present situation after six moves. In that case, there are three possibilities
for ‘possibility 1’ to result in the present situation
Thus, after four moves:
Possibility 1: Possibility 2: Possibility 3:
O O O
O X O O X
X X X X
Based on the rules of the game, Maithli (crosses) would have made the winning move, which however did not happen. From this we can conclude that
Maithli did not make the fifth move and hence, Gautam did not make the sixth move. So, it must have been Maithli who made the sixth move and
Gautam then makes the seventh, winning move.
To check that Maithli made the sixth move, we look at the the following three possibilities after five moves:
Possibility 1: Possibility 2: Possibility 3:
O O O O O O
O O X O X
X X X X
Based on the rules of the game, only possibility 3 can result in the situation after six moves. So, Maithli indeed made the sixth move. Ans.(2)
IC : PTpnrps03 5 of (17)
For Questions 5657
We will indicate the numbers in the long division in the manner shown below:
_ _ _ / _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ \ _ _ 8 _ _ A / B \ C
_ _ _ D
_ _ _ _ E
_ _ _ F
_ _ _ _ G
_ _ _ _ H
0 0
For E and G, two blank spaces have been brought down; therefore both the second and the fourth space of C are 0.
Because F consists of three spaces and equals the outcome of 8 times A, A must be smaller than 1000/8 or 125. Number H consists of four spaces
and is the product of number A and the last space of C. Therefore, H is at least 1000, and because A is smaller than 125, the last space of C must be
9. Moreover, A must be at least 1000/9 and hence, larger than 111.
Because the number D is subtracted from a number represented by four spaces and the outcome of the subtraction consists of two spaces, the first
space of D must be 9. This is possible only if the first space of C is 8.
Now we know that the number C equals 80809 and number B is at least 10000000. From this, it follows that A is at least 124. Because we also know
that A lies between 111 and 125, A equals 124.
The complete long division can now be filled in:
1 2 4 / 1 0 0 2 0 3 1 6 \ 8 0 8 0 9
9 9 2
1 0 0 3
9 9 2
1 1 1 6
1 1 1 6
0
56. The problem has a unique solution. Ans.(1)
57. From 0 to 9, only 5 and 7 are not required to complete the long division. Ans.(2)
For Q.58 to Q.61
58. To find the maximum number of employees who were recruited in January and not fired at the end of August, the fired employees must include all the
employees of that particular month except January and if there are more number of fired employees in a month than the recruited ones, only then we
will assume the January employees to be fired.
TABLE1
New recruitments(at the Employees who were
Fired Emoloyees(after the
Month beginning of the not fired since the
corresponding month)
corresponding month) month of January
January 80 55 25
February 70 74 254=21
March 45 48 213=18
April 56 66 1810=8
May 80 70 8
June 62 73 8(1110)
July 56 50 7
August 20 6 7
Hence, 7 employees were recruited in January and were not fired till the end of August. Ans.(3)
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59. To find the maximum number of employees who were recruited in March and were not fired till the end of June, we need to follow the table:
Fired Employees Employees recruited
New recruitments(at the
(after the in March and not fired
Month beginning of the
corresponding at the end of the
corresponding month)
month) month
January 80 55
February 70 74
March 45 48 18
April 56 66 8
May 80 70 8
June 62 73 7
July 56 50
August 20 6
Ans.(3)
60. The employees who were recruited in a particular month and fired exactly after 3 months would be the employees who were recruited in the months of
January, March and May.
So, from table 1, the number of employees who were recruited in January and were fired at the end of March were 21.
The so the number of employees who were recruited in the month of March and were not fired in the same month were 18 as shown in the table. In the
month of April 10 employees from the previous month were fired. Thus, the number of new recruitments in March who were not fired in the next month
were 8.
In the month of May 80 employees were recruited at the begining and 70 were fired at the end of the month. So, 8 employees who were recruited in
March were fired at the end of May while 18 employees who were recruited in May were not fired at the end of same month. In the month of June, total
73 emplyees were fired out of which 62 must be new June recruitments. Thus, 11 employees who were recruited in the month of May were fired at the
end of June. So, 7 emplyees who were recruited in May were left and were fired at the end of July. So, maximum total number of employees who wre
recruited in a month and were fired after exactly after three months were 21 + 8 + 7 = 36. Hence, the total amount the company would have paid to
these employees = 36 × 15000 = 540000 Rs. Ans.(3)
61. The maximum number of employees who were recruited at the beginning of a month and fired at the end of the same month were 55 + 70 + 45 + 56 +
70 + 62 + 50 + 6 = 414. Ans.(3)
For Q.62 to Q.64
Given that 40% of the total employees who joined AMA as Marketing Executives = 21720
So, total employees from the other company who joined AMA = (21720 × 100)/40 = 54300
This is equal to 80% of the total employee base of the other company.
So, the total number of employees of the other company = (54300 × 100)/80 = 67875
Total number of
80% of 16% of 80% of OC 44% of 80% of OC 40% of 80% of OC
employees of other
OC who joined HR who joined Finance who joined Marketing
company (OC)
67875 54300 8688 23892 21720
16% of the total employees who joined as HR executive AMA = 20% of the total employees who failed the promotion test = 8688
So, total employees who failed the promotion test = (8688 × 100)/20 = 43440
This is equal to 30% of the total employees of AMA.
So, total number of employees of AMA before the merger = (43440 × 100) / 30 = 144800
Total number of employees who passed the promotion test = (70 × 144800) / 100 = 101360
30% of TEP
Total employees who 25% of TEP promoted as 40% of TEP promoted as
promoted as Finance
passed the test (TEP) HR executive Marketing executive
executive
101360 25340 30408 45612
62. So the total number of employees after the merger = 144800 + 54300 = 199100. Ans.(1)
63. We can calculate only the number of male employees before the merger. But we cannot calculate the number of male or female employees after the
merger, because we do not know about the number of males or females who joined AMA from the other company. Ans.(5)
64. Following table is prepared from the given information:
Total number Other
Company HR Marketing Finance
of employees employees
AMA 144800 25340 45612 30408 43440
OC 67875 8688 21720 23892
212675 34028 67332 54300 43440
Old Finance executives = 30408
25% got pink slip, so, remaining 75% = (75 × 30408) / 100 = 22806
15% of the HR executives changed their department and joined as Finance executives, i.e. (15 × 34028)/100 = 4563
So, total Finance executives = 4563 + 22806 + 23892 = 51261. Ans.(3)
IC : PTpnrps03 7 of (17)
For Questions 6568
From the given information, following tables can be prepared:
Table I
Price in INR
Dress (1 Euro = 65 (1 USD = 50 (1 SGD = 35
(1 GBP = 75 INR) (1 AUD = 30 INR)
INR) INR) INR)
Ladies Evening Dress 65000 135000 60000 60000 45500
Knit Cover up 91000 58500 84000 49500 68250
Voile Cover up 58500 84750 65000 56100 57750
Cotton Ladies Tunic 103350 69000 72500 63000 68250
Embroidered Tunic 78000 125250 88000 54000 50750
Stylish Ladies Tunic 88400 115500 71500 35400 65100
Party wear saree 77350 71250 43000 52500 44100
Wedding Wear 149500 197250 114500 101400 97300
Table II
Custom Duty on goods
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68. Ladies Evening Dress, Rosemount Fashion Week = 47775
Party Wear Saree, San Francisco Fashion Week = 43000
Stylish Ladies Tunic, Singapore Fashion Week = 42480
So, the maximum number of dresses that she can buy with an amount of Rs.180000 (INR) is 3. Ans.(1)
For Questions 6971
Number of programs offered by University
Year of Nanda Sherpa
Taxla University Appa University Rana University
Inception University University
2001 9 6 12 11 20
2002 12 18 8 7 17
2003 6 17 13 16 11
2004 17 9 17 10 18
2005 6 13 14 11 6
2006 19 15 9 13 12
2007 18 16 10 5 19
2008 13 11 18 19 7
Total 100 105 101 92 110
Average 12.5 13.125 12.625 11.5 13.75
69. There are 4 universities which on an average offer more than 12 programs. Ans.(4)
70. There are three universities which offer more than 100 programs.
Number of programs offered by University
Year of Taxla Appa Rana
Inception University University University
2001 6 12 20
2002 18 8 17
2003 17 13 11
2004 9 17 18
2005 13 14 6
2006 15 9 12
2007 16 10 19
2008 11 18 7
Total 105 101 110
P1 = 105 + 101 + 110 = 316
P2 = 100 + 105 + 101 + 92 + 110 = 508
Hence, required percentage = (316 × 100)/508 = 62.20 % Ans.(2)
71. The maximum percentage drop in new programs offered was by Rana University in the year 2005 over 2004. Ans.(5)
For Questions 7275
72. From the question we get the following table
R a ting
WH A / T REAT ME
Ho sp ita l n a me Me dic in a l In fra struc tu re
WO HA N T US ED
re se rve & e qu ipme n t
CHILDREN'S
WOHA ART, AT 7.5 7.5
HOSPITAL
CIVIC CENTER
HOSPITAL WOHA UT, AT 9 6
FOUNDATION
ESKATON DOCTORS
WOHA HT, MT 9 9
HOSPITAL
HAYWARD HOSPITAL WOHA UT, AT 13.5 10.5
IC : PTpnrps03 9 of (17)
73. From the question we get the following table:
Ra tin g
CHILDREN'S
WOHA ART, AT 7.5 10.5 13.5 18 0.75
HOSPITAL
SAN
MT, ART,
LEANDRO WHA 7.5 7.5 10.5 15 0.7
UT
HOSPITAL
EDEN
MEDICAL WHA HT, UT 7.5 7.5 7.5 15 0.5
CENTER
SUMMIT
RT, MT,
MEDICAL WHA 10.5 13.5 12 24 0.5
ART
CENTER
OAKLAND
AT, ART,
HOSPITAL WHA 10.5 9 10.5 19.5 0.538461538
UT
CORPORATI
OGORMAN
WOHA AT, HT, 9 9 9 18 0.5
INFANT
PERALTA
WOHA HT, MT, UT 7.5 7.5 7.5 15 0.5
HOSPITAL
SUMMIT
RT, ART,
MEDICAL WHA 9 9 12 18 0.666666667
UT
FOUNDATION
HERRICK
MEMORIAL WHA RT, UT 13.5 9 10.5 22.5 0.466666667
HOSPITAL
Hence, there are 9 hospitals. Ans.(5)
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74. Number of hospitals which do not have In House facility of Ambulance having ART or HT and their rating of doctors is more than 7.5 are given below.
WHA / TREATMENT
CHILDREN'S HOSPITAL Doc tors
WOHA USED
CHILDREN'S HOSPITAL WOHA ART, AT 10.5
NAVAL HOSPITAL WOHA ART, AT 9
OGORMAN INFANT WOHA AT, HT 9
Also, number of hospitals which have In House facility of Ambulance having RT or UT and their rating of Infrastructure & equipments equal or greater
than 7.5 are given below.
BOOTH MEMORIAL
WHA HT, ART, RT 9
HOSPITAL
SAN LEANDRO
WHA MT, ART, UT 7.5
HOSPITAL
HERRICK MEMORIAL
WHA RT, UT 9
HOSPITAL
SUMMIT MEDICAL
WHA RT, MT, ART 10.5
CENTER
OAKLAND HOSPITAL
WHA AT, ART, UT 10.5
CORPORATION
SUMMIT MEDICAL
WHA RT, ART, UT 7.5
FOUNDATION
{(Rating of
WHA /
Hospital TREATME RATING OF feedback) ×
WOH Medic i RATING
name NT USED feedb MEDICINAL 5 + 3
A nal OF FEED
ac k RESERVE × ×(Rating of
reserve BACK × 5
3 medic inal
reserve ) }
BOOTH
HT, ART,
MEMORIAL WHA 10.5 10.5 52.5 31.5 84
RT
HOSPITAL
SUMMIT
RT, MT,
MEDICAL WHA 10.5 12 60 31.5 91.5
ART
CENTER
SUMMIT
MEDICAL RT, ART,
WHA 9 12 60 27 87
FOUNDATIO UT
N
Ans.(2)
76. Factorizing the numbers,
120 = 2 3 x 3 1 x 5 1
1320 = 2 3 x 3 1 x 5 1 x 11
A is definitely a multiple of 11, but it cannot be a perfect square as A cannot have 11 2 as a factor.
1680 = 120 x 2 x 7 = 2 4 x 3 1 x 5 1 x 7 1
B is definitely a multiple of 2 4 x 7 1 but it cannot be a perfect square as B cannot have 7 2 as a factor.
1800 = 120 x 3 x 5 = 2 3 x 3 2 x 5 2
Since, the LCM of 120 and C is 1800, therefore, C can be a perfect square. One of the possible values of C is 3 2 x 5 2 . But it is not necessary that C be
a perfect square. Ans.(5)
IC : PTpnrps03 11 of (17)
77. Since, in the new number system, decimal number 5 is represented by a single sign, so the base of that number system is atleast 6.
Similarly, the decimal number 95 is represented by three signs, so the base of this number system is not more than 9.
Now, checking for base 6, decimal number 20 can be written as (32)6 and decimal number 95 can be written as (235)6. But each sign represents
different decimal number. So, base 6 is not possible.
Now, checking for base 7, decimal number 5 is represented by (5)7, decimal number 20 can be represented by (26)7 and decimal number 95 can be
represented by (164)7. So, according to the signs provided in the question, 1 = 'µ', 2 = '+', 4 = '#', 5 = '$' and 6 = '%'.
Therefore, decimal number 778 can be written as (2161)7 in the number system of base 7
Or, (+µ%µ). Ans.(4)
78. (x + 1)yz = 12 ………………(1)
(y + 1)zx = 4 ………………(2)
(z + 1)xy = 4 ………………(3)
Dividing equation (1) by (2),
(x + 1)y
= 3
(y + 1)x
y
x =
(2y + 3)
Dividing equation (2) by (3),
z = y
Now, on subtracting equation (2) from equation (1), we get
y 2 – xy = 8 (Since, y = z)
y
x =
(2y + 3)
by putting the value , the equation becomes
2 y 2
y - = 8
(2y + 3)
On solving for y, we get
y = –2, 3
Now, for y = –2, xyz = 2 × –2 × –2 = 8, an integer.
1
for y = 3, xyz = 3 × 3 × 3 = 3, an integer.
Ans. (5)
79. Given: A 5 = B 4 , also A, B, C and D are positive integers. Hence, only possible values of A and B are A = 1 and B = 1.
Now, (C – A) = 3, so C = 4.
Also, C 6 = D 2
Hence, 4 6 = D 2
So, D 2 = 4096, so D = 64.
Therefore, D – A = 64 – 1 = 63. Ans. (4)
80. Let the speed of the bus and the scooter be x and y respectively,
Distance from A to Mumbai = 2x
Distance from Mumbai to B = x/2
Distance from A to B = 2x x/2 = 3x/2
To cover a distance 3x/2 (from A to B), the scooter takes 7/2 hours (from 2pm to 5:30 pm)
Now, to cover the remaining distance from B to Mumbai i.e. x/2, the scooter will take 7/6 more hours or 1 hour 10 minutes from 5:30 pm. So, the
scooter will reach Mumbai at 6:40 pm. Ans.(2)
81. Let A be the event that there are exactly 4 Chinese among the first 6 speakers.
Let B be the event that the seventh speaker is a Chinese.
F G B I J
Then, Required Probability = P(A) ´
P
H A K
Now,
5
C 4 ´ 7 C 2 F G B I J 1
P(A) =
12
C 6
and
H A K =Prob. that the seventh speaker is a Chinese given that there were 4 Chinese speakers among the first 6 speakers= 6
P
5
C 4 ´ 7 C 2 1 5
12
´
C 6 6
Hence, required probability = = 264 Ans.(3)
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82. On generalizing the above equation,
F(x)=2x 2 + a(b–c) 2 x + abc
We know that for an equation ax 2 +bx+c=0,
the minimum or the maximum value of f(x) lies at x = –b/2a.
Therefore, –a[(b–c) 2 ]/4 = –128 or a(b–c)=512
Now, the sum a + (bc) + (bc) + (bc) will be minimum when
a = b–c = 8
Hence, the minimum value of a + 3(bc) = 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 = 32 Ans.(3)
83. 1st process
Divide the larger square in 4 equal squares of side A/2. Then the area of total scrap
= 4[(A/2) 2 – p(A/4) 2 ] = A 2 (4 p)/4
2nd process
Area of total scrap generated in this process = A 2 – p(A/2) 2 = A 2 (4 – p)/4
So, required ratio = 1:1. Ans.(3)
84. For a given volume, cuboidal shape of minimum surface area is a cube. So, he will arrange all the cubes in the form of a large cube and the side of this
O
A B
86. Q S R
The sides of triangle PQR = 1unit
PO = OS = 3 / 4 units and angle AOP is 120° (Central angle theorem)
1 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3
´ ´ ´ Sin 120 ° = ´ ´ ´ =
Area of triangle POA = Area of triangle POB = 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 64
F 3 I = p
2
120 °
360 °
´ p G H 4 JK 16
Area of the minor sector OASB =
Area of the part of triangle that lies outside = Area of triangle PQR [Area of triangle POA + Area of triangle POB + Area of minor arc OASB]
3 / 4 - [ 3 3 / 32 + p / 16 ] = ( 5 3 - 2 p ) / 32
= . Ans.(3)
87. If (a,b) is a solution then obviously a = 0 and (a,b) is a solution too. For a = 0, we get two solutions (0, 2) and (0, 2).
Now, let (a,b) be a solution with a>0;
The equation can be rewritten as,
2 a (1+2 a+1 ) = (b+1)(b–1)
Shows that the factors b–1 and b+1 are even, exactly one of them divisible by 4. Hence a ³ 3 and one of these factors is divisible by 2 a1 but not by 2 a .
So, b = 2 a–1 m + c1, m odd ………………….(1)
Putting this into the original equation we obtain
2 a (1 + 2 a+1 ) = (2 a1 m + c–1) 2 –1=2 2a–2 m 2 +2 a mc
or, equivalently
IC : PTpnrps03 13 of (17)
1+2 a+1 = 2 a–2 m 2 + mc.
Therefore, 1– cm = 2 a–2 (m 2 – 8). ………………….(2)
For c = 1 this yields m 2 – 8 £ 0, i.e., m = 1, which fails to satisfy (2).
For c = –1 equation (2) gives us
1 + m = 2 a–2 (m 2 – 8) ³ 2(m 2 – 8),
Or, 2m 2 – m – 17 £ 0.
Hence, m = 3; on the other hand m cannot be 1 according to (2). Because m is odd, we obtain m = 3, leading to a = 4. From (1) we get b = 23. These
values satisfy the given equation. Thus, (a,b): (0, 2), (0,2), (4, 23), (4,23). Ans.(3)
88. Let a, b be the roots of the equation.
The equation will have both the roots greater than 3 if it satisfies the conditions given below
Condtion 1: D 0
Condtion 2: a + b > 6
Condtion 3: Value of equation at x = 3 is greater than 0
From condition 1, 36a 2 – 8 + 8a – 36a 2 0 Or, a 1
From condition 2, 6a > 6 Or, a > 1
From condition 3, 9 – 18a + 2 – 2a + 9a 2 > 0
Or, 9a 2 – 20a + 11 > 0
So, a < 1 or a > 11/9
Combining results from the above conditions, a > 11/9 satisfies all constraints. Ans. (3)
37 x 17
< <
197 y 77
89. We have
77 y 197
< <
or 17 x 37
y
4.53 < £ 5.32
or, x
x has minimum value 1 (it is a positive integer). To satisfy the given inequalities y can have a minimum value of 5 since it is also an integer. Ans.(3)
90. 3 2 > 2 3
2 log 2 3 > 3 log 2 2
or
log 2 3 > 3 / 2
..........................(1)
5 2 < 3 3
2 log 3 5 < 3 log 3 3
log 3 5 < 3 / 2
..........................(2)
9 > 8
or 9/4 >2
3 / 2 > 2 ..........................(3)
and, 27>24
(3/2) 3 > 3
( 3 / 2 ) > 3 3
..........................(4)
log 2 3
By comparing all the above four equations we can conclude that is the largest number the given four numbers. Ans.(4)
91. The new hexagon formed, will have its side equal to Ö3/2 times the earlier hexagon.
Thus, the perimeter will also be Ö3/2 times that of earlier Hexagon.
Hence the perimeter of all the Hexagons thus formed will be sum of an infinite GP.
= 540 / (1–Ö3/2).
Or, 1080 / (2–Ö3). Ans.(4)
92. SE : ER = 5 : 4
RF : FS = 8 : 1 P Q
SE = 5x and ER = 4x
RF = 8y and FS = y
so, SR = 9x = 9y
or, x = y
Let x = 1 S F E R
Area of Trapezium PQFS = 1/2 (FS + PQ) × PS = 49
14 of 17 PTpnrps03
On putting the values of FS and PQ, we get
PS = 49/5
Area of Trapezium PQRE = 1/2 (ER + PQ) × PS
On putting the values of ER, PQ and PS, we get
[1/2 × (4 + 9)] × 49/5 = 63.7
Even if the value of x changes, the answer remains unchanged because the value of PS varies with x. Ans. (3)
93. The number of ways of choosing the three digits other than 0 and 1 = 8 C3 = 56
These can be arranged in 6!/(2! × 2! × 2!) = 90 ways
And the digit 1 can be placed in any of the seven possible locations with respect to the six digits.
Total number of ways = 7 × 90 × 56 = 35280. Ans.(1)
94. log 10567 = log 10(81×7) = log10(3 4 ×7) = x
4log 103 + log 107 = x
log 101029 = log10(3×7 3 ) = log103 + 3log107 = y
4log 103 + log 107 = x ……………(1)
log 103 + 3log 107 = y ……………(2)
By solving (1) and (2)
log 107 = (4y–x)/11
And
log 103 = (3x–y)/11
Now, log1021 = log10(3×7) = log103 + log 107
=(4y–x)/11+(3x–y)/11
=(3y+2x)/11 Ans.(1)
95. For getting a sum of 109
The minimum number of cards required are
(13 × 4 + 12 × 4 + 9 × 1) = 109, i.e., 9
Similarly, (11 × 4 + 10 × 1 + 8 × 2) = 70, i.e., 7
and, (10 × 3 + 9 × 2 + 8 × 2) = 64, i.e., 7. Ans.(1)
96. X = 20!(1/20! + 1/19! + 1/18!2! + 1/17!3! + … + 1/2!18! + 1/19! + 1/20!)
Or, X = (20!/20! + 20!/19! + 20!/18!2! + 20!/17!3! + … + 20!/2!18! + 20!/19! + 20!/20!)
These terms are binomial coefficients in the expansion of (1 + x) 20 where x is assumed to be 1 which will lead to the conclusion that
20 C 20 C 20 C 20 20
0 + 1 + 2 + … + C20 = 2
Total surface area of the cube = 6a 2
Therefore, required ratio =
e 2 + 1 j : 6 a = 2 e 2 + 1 j : 3 . Ans.(5)
= 4 a 2 2
98. 180=2 2 ×3 2 ×5
The highest power of 5 in 1!×2!×3!.............49! is 5×[0+1+2+3+4+6+7+8+9+10] = 5×[50] = 250 The highest power of 3 in 1!×2!×3!.............49! is
3×[(22×23)/2 (3+7+11+12+16+20)]22 = 530
Highest powers of 5 and 9 are 250 and 265 respectively.
We need not consider power of 4 as it will definetely be greater than 265
Since b is not a multiple of 5, a is the highest power of 5, 250. Ans.(4)
99. a*a=a + a – a 2 = 2a – a 2 = a(2 – b)
Similarly, b*b = b(2 – b)
2a – a 2 < 2b – b 2
2(a – b) < a 2 – b 2
2(a – b) < (a – b)(a + b)
(a – b){2 –(a + b)} < 0
Then, 1 st case: (a – b) < 0 and 2 – (a + b) > 0
a < b and 2 > (a + b)
IC : PTpnrps03 15 of (17)
1 > b > a
2 nd case: (a – b) > 0 and 2 – (a + b) < 0
a > b and 2 < (a + b)
a > b > 1 which is not true for 0.5 < (a, b) <1, hence it is rejected so only 1 st case satisfies. Ans.(1)
100. We have100 £ 15k £ 10 5
Or, 6.66 £ k £ 6666.66 or 7 £ k £ 6666
The integer 15k is divisible by 35 if and only if k is divisible by 7.
So, k = 7q
we have 7£ 7q £6666
1 £ q £952.28
or1 £ q £ 952
Hence, the required number of positive integers = 952. Ans.(3)
16 of 17 PTpnrps03
Objective key
IC : PTpnrps03 17 of (17)