Prometric Exam Sample Questions

1. A resident often carries a doll with her, treating it like her baby. One day she is wandering
around crying that she cant find her baby. The nurse aide should:
(A) Ask the resident where she last had the doll.
(B) Ask the activity department if they have any other dolls.
(C) Offer comfort to the resident and help her look for her baby.
(D) Let the other staff know the resident is very confused and should be watched closely.
2. A nurse aide is asked to change a urinary drainage bag attached to an indwelling urinary
catheter. The nurse aide has never done this before. The best response by the nurse aide is
to:
(A) Change the indwelling catheter at the same time.
(B) Ask another nurse aide to change the urinary drainage bag.
(C) Change the bag asking for help only if the nurse aide has problems.
(D) Ask a nurse to watch the nurse aide change the bag since it is the first time.
3.

Before feeding a resident, which of the following is the best reason to wash the residents
hands?
(A) The resident may still touch his/her mouth or food.
(B) It reduces the risk of spreading airborne diseases.
(C) It improves resident morale and appetite.
(D) The resident needs to keep meal routines.

4. Which of the following is a job task performed by the nurse aide?

(A) Participating in resident care planning conferences
(B) Taking a telephone order from a physician
(C) Giving medications to assigned residents
(D) Changing sterile wound dressings
5. Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM) exercises?
(A) Done just once a day
(B) Help prevent strokes and paralysis
(C) Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
(D) Are often performed during ADLs such as bathing or dressing
6. While the nurse aide tries to dress a resident who is confused, the resident keeps trying to
grab a hairbrush. The nurse aide should:
(A) Put the hairbrush away and out of sight.
(B) Give the resident the hairbrush to hold.
(C) Try to dress the resident more quickly.
(D) Restrain the residents hand.
7. A resident who is lying in bed suddenly becomes short of breath. After calling for help, the
nurse aides next action should be to:
(A) Ask the resident to take deep breaths.

(B) Take the residents vital signs.

(C) Raise the head of the bed.
(D) Elevate the residents feet.
8. A resident who has cancer is expected to die within the next couple of days. Nursing care for
this resident should focus on:
(A) Helping the resident through the stages of grief.
(B) Providing for the residents comfort.
(C) Keeping the residents care routine, such as for bathing.
(D) Giving the resident a lot of quiet time and privacy.
9. While giving a bed bath, the nurse aide hears the alarm from a nearby door suddenly go off.
The nurse aide should:
(A) Wait a few minutes to see if the alarm stops.
(B) Report the alarm to the charge nurse immediately.
(C) Make the resident being bathed safe and go check the door right away.
(D) Stop the bed bath and go check on the location of all assigned residents.
10. Gloves should be worn for which of the following procedures?
(A) Emptying a urinary drainage bag
(B) Brushing a residents hair
(C) Ambulating a resident
(D) Feeding a resident
11. When walking a resident, a gait or transfer belt is often:
(A) worn around the nurse aides waist for back support.
(B) Used to keep the resident positioned properly in the wheelchair.
(C) Used to help stand the resident, and then removed before walking.
(D) Put around the residents waist to provide a way to hold onto the resident.
12. Which of the following statements is true about residents who are restrained?
(A) They are at greater risk for developing pressure sores.
(B) They are at lower risk of developing pneumonia.
(C) Their posture and alignment are improved.
(D) They are not at risk for falling.
13. A resident has diabetes. Which of the following is a common sign of a low blood sugar?
(A) Fever
(B) Shakiness
(C) Thirst
(D) Vomiting
14. When providing foot care to a resident it is important for the nurse aide to :
(A) Remove calluses and corns.
(B) Check the feet for skin breakdown.
(C) Keep the water cool to prevent burns.
(D) Apply lotion, including between the toes.

15. When feeding a resident, frequent coughing can be a sign the resident is :
(A) Choking.
(B) Getting full.
(C) Needs to drink more fluids.
(D) Having difficulty swallowing.
16. When a person is admitted to the nursing home, the nurse aide should expect that the
resident will:
(A) Have problems related to incontinence.
(B) Require a lot of assistance with personal care.
(C) Experience a sense of loss related to the life change.
(D) Adjust more quickly if admitted directly from the hospital.
17. A resident gets dressed and comes out of his room wearing shoes that are from two different
pairs. The nurse aide should :
(A) Tease the resident by complimenting the residents sense of style.
(B) Ask if the resident realizes that the shoes do not match.
(C) Remind the resident that the nurse aide can dress the resident.
(D) Ask if the resident lost some of his shoes.
18. A residents wife recently died. The resident is now staying in his room all the time and eating
very little. The best response by the nurse aide is to:
(A) Remind the resident to be thankful for the years he shared with his wife.
(B) Tell the resident that he needs to get out of his room at least once a day.
(C) Understand the resident is grieving and gives him chances to talk.
(D) Avoid mentioning his wife when caring for him.
19. When a resident refuses a bed bath, the nurse aide should :
(A) Offer the resident a bribe.
(B) Wait awhile and then ask the resident again.
(C) Remind the resident that people who smell dont have friends.
(D) Tell the resident that nursing home policy requires daily bathing.
20. When a resident is combative and trying to hit the nurse aide, it is important for the nurse
aide to :
(A) Show the resident that the nurse aide is in control.
(B) Call for help to make sure there are witnesses.
(C) Explain that if the resident is not calm a restraint may be applied.
(D) Step back to protect self from harm while speaking in a calm manner
21. During lunch in the dining room, a resident begins yelling and throws a spoon at the nurse
aide. The best response by the nurse aide is to:
(A) Remain calm and asks what is upsetting the resident.
(B) Begin removing all the other residents from the dining room.
(C) Scold the resident and ask the resident to leave the dining room immediately.
(D) Remove the residents plate, fork, knife, and cup so there is nothing else to throw.

22. Which of the following questions asked to the resident is most likely to encourage
conversation?
(A) Are you feeling tired today?
(B) Do you want to wear this outfit?
(C) What are your favorite foods?
(D) Is this water warm enough?
23. When trying to communicate with a resident who speaks a different language than the nurse
aide, the nurse aide should :
(A) Use pictures and gestures.
(B) Face the resident and speak softly when talking.
(C) Repeat words often if the resident does not understand.
(D) Assume when the resident nods his/her head that the message is understood.
24. While walking down the hall, a nurse aide looks into a residents room and sees another
nurse aide hitting a resident. The nurse aide is expected to :
(A) Contact the state agency that inspects the nursing facility.
(B) Enter the room immediately to provide for the residents safety.
(C) Wait to confront the nurse aide when he/she leaves the residents room.
(D) Check the resident for any signs of injury after the nurse aide leaves the room.
25. Before touching a resident who is crying to offer comfort, the nurse aide should conside:
(A) The residents recent vital signs.
(B) The residents cultural background.
(C) Whether the resident has been sad recently.
(D) Whether the resident has family that visits routinely.
26. When a resident is expressing anger, the nurse aide should :
(A) Correct the residents misperceptions.
(B) Ask the resident to speak in a kinder tone.
(C) Listen closely to the residents concerns.
(D) Remind the resident that everyone gets angry.
27. When giving a backrub, the nurse aide should:
(A) Apply lotion to the back directly from the bottle.
(B) Keep the resident covered as much as possible.
(C) Leave extra lotion on the skin when completing the procedure.
(D) Expect the resident to lie on his/her stomach.
28. A nurse aide finds a resident looking in the refrigerator at the nurses station at 5 a.m. The
resident, who is confused, explains he needs breakfast before he leaves for work. The best
response by the nurse aide is to:
(A) Help the resident back to his room and into bed.
(B) Ask the resident about his job and if he is hungry.
(C) Tell him that residents are not allowed in the nurses station.
(D) Remind him that he is retired from his job and in a nursing home.

29. Which of the following is true about caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid?
(A) Apply hairspray after the hearing aid is in place.
(B) Remove the hearing aid before showering.
(C) Clean the ear mold and battery case with water daily, drying completely.
(D) Replace batteries weekly.
30. Residents with Parkinsons disease often require assistance with walking because they :
(A) Become confused and forget how to take steps without help.
(B) Have poor attention skills and do not notice safety problems.
(C) Have visual problems that require special glasses.
(D) Have a shuffling walk and tremors.
31. A resident who is inactive is at risk of constipation. In addition to increased activity and
exercise, which of the following actions helps to prevent constipation?
(A) Adequate fluid intake
(B) Regular mealtimes
(C) High protein diet
(D) Low fiber diet
32. A resident has an indwelling urinary catheter. While making rounds, the nurse aide notices
that there is no urine in the drainage bag. The nurse aide should first :
(A) Ask the resident to try urinating.
(B) Offer the resident fluid to drink.
(C) Check for kinks in the tubing.
(D) Obtain a new urinary drainage bag.
33. A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing :
(A) Dementia.
(B) Urinary tract infections.
(C) Pressure sores.
(D) Dehydration.
34. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse aide should:
(A) Cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the
tip.
(B) Replace the foreskin when pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
(C) Cleanse the rectal area first, before cleansing the genital area.
(D) Use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female
resident.
35. Which of the following is considered a normal agerelated change?
(A) Dementia
(B) Contractures
(C) Bladder holding less urine
(D) Wheezing when breathing
36. A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident to :
(A) Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.

(B) Wear an incontinent brief in case of an accident.

(C) Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
(D) Have a schedule for toileting.
37. A resident who has stress incontinence :
(A) Will have an indwelling urinary catheter.
(B) Should wear an incontinent brief at night.
(C) May leak urine when laughing or coughing.
(D) Needs toileting every 12 hours throughout the day.
38. The doctor has told the resident that his cancer is growing and that he is dying. When the
resident tells the nurse aide that there is a mistake, the nurse aide should :
(A) Understand that denial is a normal reaction.
(B) Remind the resident the doctor would not lay.
(C) Suggest the resident asks for more tests.
(D) Ask if the resident is afraid of dying.
39. A slipknot is used when securing a restraint so that
(A) The restraint cannot be removed by the resident.
(B) The restraint can be removed quickly when needed.
(C) Body alignment is maintained while wearing the restraint.
(D) It can be easily observed whether the restraint is applied correctly.
40. When using personal protective equipment (PPE) the nurse aide correctly follows Standard
Precautions when wearing:
(A) Double gloves when providing perineal care to resident.
(B) A mask and gown while feeding a resident that coughs.
(C) Gloves to remove a residents bedpan.
(D) Gloves while ambulating a resident.
41. To help prevent resident falls, the nurse aide should
(A) Always raise side rails when any resident is in his/her bed.
(B) Leave residents beds at the lowest level when care is complete.
(C) Encourage residents to wear largersized, loosefitting clothing.
(D) Remind residents who use call lights that they need to wait patiently for staff.
42. As the nurse aide begins his/her assignment, which of the following should the nurse aide do
first?
(A) Collect linen supplies for the shift
(B) Check the entire nurse aides assigned residents
(C) Assist a resident that has called for assistance to get off the toilet
(D) Start bathing a resident that has physical therapy in one hour
43. Which of the following would affect a nurse aides status on the states nurse aide registry
and also cause the nurse aide to be ineligible to work in a nursing home?
(A) Having been terminated from another facility for repeated tardiness
(B) Missing a mandatory infection control in service training program
(C) Failing to show for work without calling to report the absence

(D) Having a finding for resident neglect

44. To help prevent the spread of germs between patients, nurse aides should
(A) Wear gloves when touching residents.
(B) Hold supplies and linens away from their uniforms.
(C) Wash hands for at least two minutes after each resident contact.
(D) Warn residents that holding hands spreads germs.
45. When a sink has handcontrol faucets, the nurse aide should use:
(A) A paper towel to turn the water on.
(B) A paper towel to turn the water off.
(C) An elbow, if possible, to turn the faucet controls on and off.
(D) Bare hands to turn the faucet controls both on and off.
46. When moving a resident up in bed who is able to move with assistance, the nurse aide
should:
(A) Position self with knees straight and bent at waist.
(B) Use a gait or transfer belt to assist with the repositioning.
(C) Pull the resident up holding onto one side of the draw sheet at a time.
(D) Bend the residents knees and ask the resident to push with his/her feet.
47. The residents weight is obtained routinely as a way to check the residents:
(A) Growth and development.
(B) Adjustment to the facility.
(C) Nutrition and health.
(D) Activity level.
48. Which of the following is a right that is included in the Residents Bill of Rights?
(A) To have staff available that speak different languages on each shift
(B) To have payment plan options that are based on financial need
(C) To have religious services offered at the facility daily
(D) To make decisions and participate in own care
49. Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a
possible warning sign of a stroke?
(A) Dementia
(B) Contractures
(C) Slurred speech
(D) Irregular heartbeat
50. Considering the residents activity, which of the following sets of vital signs should be
reported to the charge nurse immediately?
(A) Resting: 98.69832
(B) After eating: 97.06424
(C) After walking exercise: 98.29828
(D) While watching television: 98.87214

Answer key:
1C
2D
3A
4A
5D
6B
7C
8B
9C
10 A

11 D
12 A
13 B
14 B
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 D

21 A
22 C
23 A
24 B
25 B
26 C
27 B
28 B
29 B
30 D

31 A
32 C
33 C
34 B
35 C
36 D
37 C
38 A
39 B
40 C

41 B
42 C
43 D
44 B
45 B
46 D
47 C
48 D
49 C
50 A

Prometric Exam Sample Questions

1. A client with pemphigus is being seen in the clinic regularly. The nurse plans care
based on which of the following descriptions of this condition?
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. An autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by a virus
D. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales

2. The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit. The display on the cardiac
monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation. What should the nurse do first?
A. Perform defibrillation
B. Administer epinephrine as ordered
C. Assess for presence of pulse
D. Institute CPR
answer is C: Assess for presence of pulse .Artifact can mimic ventricular fibrillation
on a cardiac monitor. If the client is truly in ventricular fibrillation, no pulse will be
present.
3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks
the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive
HIV test. The nurse responds
A. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."
B. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
C. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
D. "Developmental delays in children."
A answer C: "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200." CD4 lymphocyte counts are
normally 600 to 1000.
4. The home care nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been
diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the clients risk factors associated
with the allergy, the nurse questions the client about an allergy to which food item?
A. Eggs
B. Milk
C. Yogurt
D. Bananas
Answer: D
5. Initial step while detecting pulmonary embolism?
A. Start IV line
B. Check vitals
C. Administer morphine
D. Administer oxygen
Answer: D
6. Major health complications associated with maternal Zika virus infection?
A. Macrocephaly
B. Microcephaly
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Myasthenia gravis .
Answer: B
7. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse
completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most
significant for this client?
A. Compulsive behavior

B. Sense of impending doom

C. Fear of flying
D. Predictable episodes
Answer is B: Sense of impending doom
The feeling of overwhelming and uncontrollable doom is characteristic of a panic
attack.

8. Indications for fundoplication?

A. Hiatus hernia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. GERD
D. All the above
Answer: D
9. Left ventricular pressure can be measured by using
A. C.V. C
B. Pulmonary artery catheter
C. Swanz - Ganz Catheter
D. All the above
E. Both B&C
Answer: E
10. United Nations decided to mark the importance of Indias former President and great
scientist APJ Abdul Kalam and declared his birthday as World Students Day. The
world students day is ....?
A. November 15
B. October 15
C. October 17
D. November 17
Answer: B
11. Sex education should be given to
A. Toddler
B. Preschooler
C. Schoolar
D. Adolescents
Answer: D
12. Dowager's hump is the forward curvature (kyphosis) of the spine resulting in a stoop,
caused by collapse of the front edges of the thoracic vertebrae commonly seen in....?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Lumbar fracture
Answer; C

13. Cessation of breathing more than ....seconds is known as apnea

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 30
Answer: D
14. While newborns vitals assessments , it should be
A. T,P,R
B. R,P,T
C. P,T,R
D. P,R,T
Answer: B
15. Koplik spots (also Koplik's sign) are a prodromic viral enanthem of ---- disease?
A. Chikun gunya
B. Diphtheria
C. Herpes zoster
D. Herpes simplex
E. Measles.
Answer: E
16. CVP is the pressure within
a)inferior venacava
b)pulmonary artery
c)pulmonary vein
d)subclavian vein
17. Anti - infective vitamin?
A. A
B. B12
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
18. Scilent killer in neonates?
A. Hypothermia
B hypoxia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Dehydration
Answer: A
19. Which of the following condition Christmas disease ?
A. Leukemia
B. DIC
C. Hemophilia A

D. Hemophilia B
Answer : D

20. Zika is a viral diseases transmitted by mosquito

A. Culex
B. Ades
C. Anopheles
D. Asian tiger
Answer : B
21. Malnutrition landmark in children?
A. Head circumference
B. Chest circumference
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Milestone achievement
Answer: C
22. Trendelenburg test is used to detect
A. DVT
B. Varicose vein
C . vulvular disorder
Do thrombophlebitis
23. A reflex that is seen in normal newborn babies, who automatically turn the face
toward the stimulus and make sucking motions with the mouth when the cheek or lip
is touched.
A. Moro
B. Rooting
C. Sucking
D. Swallowing
Answer: B
24. Rh positive mother has to receive Rh immunoglobulin at
A. 14 weeks
B. 26 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. None of these.
E. 28 weeks
F. After delivery
Answer: D
25. CA cervix caused by
A. HPV
B. H. Pylori
C. E coli
D. Treponema

E. Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer: A

26. " Vande matharam " project associated with

A. Immunization
B. Antenatal care
C. Breast feeding
D. Child care
Answer: B
27. Royal disease is....
A. DM
B. Hypertension
C. Hemophilia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Answer: C
28. Immediately after amniotomy the nurse should check
A. Uterine tone
B. Bladder distension
C. FHS
D. BP
E. Cervical dilation
Answer: C
29. Degree 4 th , uterine prolapse?
A. uterine inversion
B. Uterine atony
C. Parametritis
D. procidentia
Answer: D
30. Toxic shock syndrome is due to
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Pneumococus
D. Haemophilus.
Answer: B
Toxic shock syndrome is a rare, life-threatening complication of certain types of
bacterial infections. Often toxic shock syndrome results from toxins produced by
Staphylococcus aureus (staph) bacteria, but the condition may also be caused by
toxins produced by group A streptococcus (strep) bacteria.
31. Molloscum contagiosum is caused by...
A. Poxvirus
B. Candia

C. HPV
D. Variola
E. Gonorrhoea
Answer: A

32. Colostrum contains highest %

A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins & minerals
Answer: B
33. Normal sperm densities range
A. 20 - 300 million/ ml
B. 10- 20 billion/ ml
C. 10000- 20000/ ml
D. None of these.
Answer: A
34. Mr.Ashok orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the
organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?
A.Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C.Esprit d corps
D. Unity of direction
Answer: B
35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements
are TRUE?
A. Highly cost-effective
B. Makes management easier
C. Reflects the interest of the worker
D. Allows quick decisions or actions.
E. Both A&B
F. Both C&D
Answer: E
36. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives
for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences
Answer: D

37. Rh negative mother has to receive RH D immunoglobulin with in ----- days

postpartum
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 7
E. None
Answer: C
38. Pelvic cellulitis
A. Parametritis
B. Vulvitis
C. Pelvic abscess
D. Perinitis
Answer: A
39. An opioid analgesic is administered to a client during surgery. The nurse assigned to
care for the client ensures that which medication is readily available if respiratory
depression occurs?
40. A. Betamethasone
B. Morphine sulfate
C.Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
Answer: C
41. Fetal bradycardia means HR below
A. 80/mts
B. 100/mts
C. 120/mts
D. 140/mts
Answer: C
42. A good fetal outcome in contraction test ...?
A. Neutral
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. None of these.
Answer: C
43. Liquor amnie exceeds 2000ml
A. Hydramnios
B. Oligohydramnions
C. Polyhydramnions
D. Both A & C
Answer : D

44. MTP act enforced in ...?

A. 1927
B.1972
C. 1989
D. 1871
Answer: B
45. Early sign of DIC
A. Pain
B. Hematuria
C. Clot formation
D. Vascular obstruction
Answer: B
46. Highest degree of abortion seen among
A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group
Answer: A
47. Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers
Answer: A
48. The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating the
lesson, the nurse performs an assessment on the client.The priority nursing
assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity level
D. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility
Answer: C
49. Most specific enzyme for MI?
A.CPK-M,
B.CPK-MB,
C.CPK-BB,
D.LDH,
Answer: B
50. Which is the following largest and most muscular chamber of heart
a)right atrium

b)right ventricle
c)left ventricle
d)left atrium

51. Uterine contractions monitored by ......?

A. Friedman's curve
B. Tonometer
C.Tocodynamo meter
D. Fetoscope
Answer: c
52. Which of the following drug shows drug holiday
a)Ecospirin
b)streptokinase
c)morphine
d)digoxin
53. After TURP, the client having continues bladder irrigation. Which of these statements
explain the reason for continuous bladder irrigation?
a. To remove clot from the bladder
b. To maintain the patency of the catheter
c. To maintain the patency of the bladder
d. To dilute urine
Answer: A
54. The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.
Which client problem should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
A. Malnutrition
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition
Answer: A
55. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhoea after delivery or in postpartum
period..(in proper lactating women)..??
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. LH
Answer: B
56. Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse checks his
fontanels?
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet, upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.

D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to bulge.

Answer: D

57. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal
calculi?
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Risk for infection
D. Decreased cardiac output
Answer: C
58. Most common site of hematoma during postpartum period?
A. Uterine hematoma
B.Vaginal hematoma
C.cervical hematoma
D. Vulvar hematoma
Answer: D
59. Which trait is the most important for ensuring that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills
Answer :A
Communication skills are a necessity for a successful nurse-manager. The manager
must be able to communicate with the staff, clients, and family members. Clinical
abilities, experience, and time management are also important to the manager's
success, but without communication skills the manager won't be effective.
60. Which of the following ECG lead shows changes In IWMI
A. LEAD 2
B.AVL
C.LEAD 1
D. V3
61. Absence of recognizable QRS Complex in ECG indicate
1)Atrial fibrillation
2)Ventricular fibrillation
3)Sinus arrhythmias
4)paroxysmal VT
62. Another name Of Glucose?
A. Fruit sugar,
B. Cane Sugar,
C. Fructose,
D. Dextrose,

Answer: D

63. Daily Requirements of protein Is per Kilogram of Body weight?

A) 1 gm,
B) 10gm,
C) 20gm,
D) 30gm,
Answer: A
64. A client on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no
signs of healing even though the client has received appropriate skin care and has
been turned every 2 hours. Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to
heal?
A. Inadequate vitamin D intake
B. Inadequate protein intake
C. Inadequate massaging of the affected area
D. Low calcium level
Answer: B
Clients on bed rest suffer from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance.
65. In Gynace ward , the find out a client, she is on PPH . What the nurse should do
first?
A.monitor vitals
B. Call physician
C. Eliminate the blood loss
D. Stay with the client & call for help.
Answer: D
Client may goes to shock. So stay with client
Call help and ask another to call doctor.eliminate blood loss. Then monitor & record
vitals
66. A client complains of abdominal discomfort and nausea while receiving tube feedings.
Which intervention is most appropriate for this problem?
A. Giving the feedings at room temperature
B. Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula
C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position while feeding
D. Changing the tube feeding administration set every 24 hours
Answer: B
Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula. Its the higher
priority.
67. which detail of a client's drug therapy is the nurse legally responsible for
documenting?
A. Peak concentration time of the drug
B. Safe ranges of the drug
C. Client's socioeconomic data

D. Client's reaction to the drug

Answer: D
The nurse legally must document the client's reaction to the drug in addition to the
time the drug was administered and the dosage given. The nurse isn't legally
responsible for documenting the peak concentration time of the drug, safe drug
ranges, or the client's socioeconomic data.

68. The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be given.
Why?
The risk for ---?
A. cerebral embolism
B. Pulmonary edema
C.hypertension
D. Fluid overload
Answer: B
Rapid fluid shift will results pulmonary edema
69. The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the client
would alert the nurse to the presence of risk factors for postoperative complications?
A "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for the past 2 days."
B. "I've never had surgery before."
C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't want to have another one."
D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to one pack per day."
Answer: D
70. The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain. The
nurse should be on the alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Neutropenia
D. Respiratory depression
Answer: D
The nurse should be alert for respiratory depression after morphine administration.
Other adverse reactions include bradycardia (not tachycardia), thrombocytopenia
(not neutropenia), and hypotension (not hypertension).
71. The nurse is auscultating a client's chest. How can the nurse differentiate a pleural
friction rub from other abnormal breath sounds?
A. A rub occurs during expiration only and produces a light, popping, musical noise.
B. A rub occurs during inspiration only and may be heard anywhere.
C. A rub occurs during both inspiration and expiration and produces a squeaking or
grating sound.
D. A rub occurs during inspiration only and clears with coughing.
Answer: C

72. A male client has been complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath for the past
2 hours. He has a temperature of 99 F (37.2 C), a pulse of 96 beats/minute,
respirations that are irregular and 16 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of
140/96 mm Hg. He's placed on continuous cardiac monitoring to:
A. prevent cardiac ischemia.
B. assess for potentially dangerous arrhythmias.
C. determine the degree of damage to the heart muscle.
D. evaluate cardiovascular function.
Answer: B
73. A client with mitral stenosis is scheduled for mitral valve replacement. Which
condition may arise as a complication of mitral stenosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Myocardial ischemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Answer: C
Mitral stenosis, or severe narrowing of the mitral valve, impedes blood flow through
the stenotic valve, increasing pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation.
74. INR Value of patient with mechanical valves
1)2.5-3.5
2)1-2
3)0-1
4)none of above
75. A client with chest pain doesn't respond to nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). On admission to
the emergency department, the health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and
administers I.V. morphine. The physician also considers administering alteplase
(Activase). This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon after onset of
myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms?
A. Within 3 to 6 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 24 to 48 hours
D. Within 5 to 7 days
Answer: A
76. An unconscious infant received to the emergency department. Which pulse should
the nurse palpate during rapid data collection of an unconscious infant?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Femoral
D. Carotid
Answer: B
The brachial pulse is palpated during rapid data collection of an infant.
During rapid data collection, the nurse's first priority is to check the client's vital

functions by checking his airway, breathing, and circulation.

77. The nurse places a neonate with hyperbilirubinemia under a phototherapy lamp,
covering the eyes and gonads for protection. The nurse knows that the goal of
phototherapy is to:
A. prevent hypothermia.
B. promote respiratory stability.
C. decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level.
D. decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level.
Answer: D
Phototherapy is the primary treatment in neonates with unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia. Photoisomerism is the therapeutic principle working here.
This conjugated form of bilirubin is then excreted into the bile and removed from the
body via the gut/urine.
78. The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug
absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Answer: C
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and
strength have no effect on drug absorption.
79. What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with
hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
Answer: D
80. For a client with cirrhosis, deterioration of hepatic function is best indicated by:
A. fatigue and muscle weakness.
B. difficulty in arousal.
C. nausea and anorexia.
D. weight gain.
Answer: B
Hepatic encephalopathy, a major complication of advanced cirrhosis, occurs when the
liver no longer can convert ammonia (a by-product of protein breakdown) into
glutamine. This leads to an increased blood level of ammonia a central nervous
system toxin which causes a decrease in the level of consciousness. Fatigue,
muscle weakness, nausea, anorexia, and weight gain occur during the early stages of
cirrhosis.

Prometric Exam Sample Questions

1.Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as...???
A. Stomatitis
B. Glositis
C. Angina pectoris
D. Angina Ludovici
E. Gingivitis
Answer:D/ ludwing's angina
2. To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient

Answer:B
3.A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse
should
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer:D
4. A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer:D
5.A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best
response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer:A
6. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that
would indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer:D
7. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready
pulses,hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy,
and decreased urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse
should suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer:D
8. Client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should

the nurse assess first?

A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Cardiac rhythm
Answer: D
9.The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the
following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
A. Administration of cough suppressants
B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Answer is B: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day. Secretion removal is enhanced
with adequate hydration which thins and liquefies secretions.
10.Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?
A. EEG
B. PET
C. MRI
D. CT scan
Answer: A
11.The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?
A Enhance comfort
B Improve respiratory status
C Peripheral edema decreased
D Increase cardiac output
Answer: D
12.The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury
that has resulted in paraplegia. Which of the following muscles is best site for the injection
in this case?
A. Deltoid.
B. Dorsal gluteal.
C. Vastus lateralis.
D. Ventral gluteal.
Answer: A
13. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this
specimen is:
A. early in the evening.
B. anytime during the day.
C. in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.
D. before bedtime.
Answer: C Because sputum accumulates in the lungs during sleep, the nurse should collect

a sputum specimen in the morning, as soon as the client awakens and before he eats or
drinks. This specimen will be concentrated, increasing the likelihood of an accurate culture
14. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive
therapy. The nurse requests assistance moving the client from the stretcher to the bed.
There are 2 people available to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer
for this patient?
A. Carry lift.
B. Sliding board.
C. Lift sheet transfer.
D. Hydraulic lift.
Answer:B
15. Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral
care to a client?
A. Psychomotor.
B. Educational.
C. Maintenance.
D. Supervisory.
Answer:c
16. On her 3rd postpartum day, a client complains of chills and aches. Her chart shows that
she has had a temperature of 100.6 F (38.1 C) for the past 2 days. The nurse assesses
foul-smelling, yellow lochia. What do these findings suggest?
A. Lochia alba
B. Lochia serosa
C. Localized infection
D. Cervical laceration
17. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a client?
A. Eupnea
B. Apnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea
18. A client receives a painkiller. Thirty minutes
later , The nurse asks the client if the pain is
relieved. Which step of nursing process the
nurse is using?
A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
19. A client says to the nurse "I know that I'm going to die." Which of the following
responses by the nurse would be best?

A. "We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem."

B. "Don't worry. We know what we're doing and you aren't going to die."
C. "Why do you think you're going to die?"
D. "Oh no, you're doing quite well considering your condition."
20. A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Prostatitis
C. Peritonitis
D. Distended Bladder
Answer: D
21. The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the
following reflexes by placing a finger in the newborns mouth?
A. Moro reflex
B. Sucking reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Babinski reflex
Answer: B
22. When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse
advises the patient to:
A. apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.
B. elevate the legs when sitting.
C. refrain from exercise.
D. walk as tolerated.
Answer: D
23. The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the
following nursing interventions is most effective in the management of the clients
condition?
a) Gastric lavage
b) Activated charcoal
c) Cathartic administration
d) Milk dilution
Answer:B Activated charcoal
The administration of activated charcoal is the most effective in the management of
poisoning because it absorbs chemicals in the gastrointestinal tract, thus reducing its
toxicity.
24. A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following
clients is at risk for fluid volume deficit?(DHA)
a) Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.
b) Client with diminished kidney function.
c) Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
d) Client attached to a colostomy bag.

Answer: D
25. Best time to check IOP?
A. Early morning
B. After noon
C. Late evening
D. At noon
Answer: A
26. The physician teaches a client about the need to increase her intake of calcium. At a
follow-up appointment, the nurse asks the client which foods she has been consuming to
increase her calcium intake. Which answer suggests that teaching about calcium-rich foods
was effective?
A. Broccoli and nuts
B. Yogurt and kale
C. Bread and shrimp
D. Beans and potatoes
Answer: B
27. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke. Because of the stroke, the client
has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Which intervention by the nurse is best for preventing
aspiration?
A. Placing the client in high Fowler's position to eat.
B. Offering liquids and solids together.
C. Keeping liquids thinned.
D. Placing food on the affected side of the mouth.
Answer: A
28. When administering an I.M. injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which
site?
a. Deltoid
b. Dorsogluteal
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
Answer: D
29. Which organ in the body always recieve the most percentage of blood(%cardiac
output)flow?.(AIIMS,ME,BPSC )
A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Lung
Answer: D
Lung recieves 100% of cardiac output via both pulmonary & systemic circulation.
30. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test (UPT)is:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
Answer: C
31. The stool guaiac test (gFOBT) for the detection of...?
A. Piles
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Colo-Rectol carcinoma
Answer: D
32. Which of the following, if observed as a sudden change in the resident, is considered a
possible warning sign of a stroke?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Slurred speech
D. Irregular heartbeat
Answer:C
One of the clasical symptom of stroke
33. A resident who is incontinent of urine has an increased risk of developing (prometric
saudi2016)
A. dementia.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. dehydration
D. pressure sore
Answer
Risk for altered skin integrity due to contact with wet surface
34. A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The nurse aide can expect the resident to
A . Have a fluid intake restriction to prevent sudden urges to urinate.
B . Wear an incontinent brief in case of an accident.
C . Have an indwelling urinary catheter.
D . Have aschedule for toileting.
35. What is the first choice of MI
a)Ecospirin
b)Streptokinase
c)Morphine
c)Heparin
36. In a client with chronic bronchitis, which sign would lead the nurse to suspect rightsided heart failure?
A. Cyanosis of the lips

B. Bilateral crackles
C. Productive cough
D. Leg edema
37. Which of the following is considered a normal agerelated change?
A. Dementia
B. Contractures
C. Bladder holding less urine
D. Wheezing when breathing
Answer: C
Is a age related physiological changes. Othes are pathological
38. Which is the primary consideration when preparing to administer thrombolytic therapy
to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI)?(HAAD2014)
A. History of heart disease.
B. Sensitivity to aspirin.
C. Size and location of the MI.
D. Time since onset of symptoms.
Answer: D
Its the crieteria for thrombolytic therapy, early onset.Thrombolytic medications are
approved for the immediate treatment of stroke (with in 3hrs of onset)and heart attack(with
in 12 hrs of onest)
39. Which of the following statements is true about range of motion (ROM) exercises?
A Done just once a day
B Help prevent strokes and paralysis
C Require at least ten repetitions of each exercise
D Are often performed during ADLs such as bathingor dressing
Answer:D
40. When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse
should stress the importance of:
A. restricting fluids.
B. restricting sodium.
C. forcing fluids.
D. restricting potassium.
41. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?
A. Complaints of double vision.
B. Complaints of halos around lights.
C. Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg.
D. Soft globe on palpation.
42. In the emergency department, the nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who
was brought in by ambulance after losing consciousness. Upon assessment, the client's
breath was noted to be fruity. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?

A. pH: 7.49 PCO2: 50 HCO3: 18

B. pH 7.28: PCO2: 40 HCO3: 16
C. pH:7.38 PCO2: 45 HCO3: 26
D. pH: 7.31 PCO2: 60 HCO3: 29
Answer:B
Risk for metabolic acidosis in type1 DM
43. Before administering methergine , to treat PPH the nursing priority to check
A. Uterine tone
B. Output
C. BP
D. amount of lochia
E. Deep tendon reflex
Answer: C
44. High risk clients for the reactivation of herpes zoster?
the clients with ....
A. First degree burns
B. Renal transplant
C. Post ORIF
D. Head injury.
45. The cardiac marker which is elevated soon after MI is
A:Trop-T
B:CKMB
C:LDH
D:Myoglobin
46. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease.
After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the nurse expects to note which
assessment finding?
A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
B. Intense pain in the toe
C. Yellow-tinged sclera
D. Headache
47. A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is
most useful in distinguishing acute respiratory distress syndrome from acute respiratory
failure?
A. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
C. pH
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3)
Answer: A
48. The procedure involves removal of the "head" (wide part) of the pancreas, the

duodenum, a portion of the common bile duct, gallbladder, and sometimes part of the
stomach.And anastomosis to jejunum ?
A. Birloth 1procedures
B. Birloth 2 procedures
C. Wipple procedures
D. Subtotal cholecystectomy
Answer: C
49. A client with a fluid volume deficit is receiving an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in water
and lactated Ringer's solution at 125 ml/hour. Which data collection finding indicates the
need for additional I.V. fluids?
A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
B. Temperature of 99.6 F (37.6 C)
C. Neck vein distention
D. Dark amber urine
Answer: D
Normally, urine appears light yellow; dark amber urine is concentrated and suggests
decreased fluid intake.
50. Pseudo membraneous colitis is due to
A. Tetenus toxins
B. Clostridium difficile
C. H.pylori
D. E- Coli
51. Glomerulonephritis is the complication of impetigo due to...?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
52. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between
mother and infant in the womb?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
53. The most severe expressions of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?
A. disequilibrium syndrome
B. dawn phenomenon
C. somogyi phenomenon
D. Delirium tremens
Answer : D
54. A 39-year-old forklift operator presents with shakiness, sweating, anxiety, and

palpitations and tells the nurse he has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the follow actions
should the nurse do first?
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon subcutaneously.
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% glucose I.V.
C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL) of orange juice.
D. Give the client four to six glucose tablets
55. The nurse is collecting data on a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom
likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?
A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis
D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
56. A client with B negative blood requires a blood transfusion during surgery. If no B
negative blood is available, the client should be transfused with:
A. A positive blood
B. B positive blood
C. O negative blood
D. AB negative blood
Answer: C
If the clients own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative
blood. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they can cause reactions that can prove
fatal to the client
57. An woman is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status
pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of
metformin?
A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
C. Metallic taste
D. Hypoglycemia
58. A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell
crisis. What is the best position for this client?
a. Side-lying with knees flexed
b. Knee-chest
c. High Fowlers with knees flexed
d. Semi-Fowlers with legs extended on the bed
59. Which of the following vein is commonly used for CABG
a)Femoral
b)greater saphenus
c)popliteal
d)brachial

60. Chronic alcoholic's needs which of the following vitamins

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavine
C .cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
Answer : A
61. Which of the following is the warning sign of dying?
A. Rigor mortis
B. Kussmaul breathing
C. Chyene stroke respiraton
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
62. The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to treat a client with heart failure. Which
adverse effect must the nurse watch for most carefully?
A. Increase in blood pressure
B. Increase in blood volume
C. Low serum potassium level
D. High serum sodium level
Answer: C

63. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. The nurse must monitor the serum
potassium level and assess for signs of low potassium. As water and sodium are lost in the
urine, blood pressure decreases, blood volume decreases, and urine output increases.
A confirmational test for gestational diabetes ?
A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Urine sugar
C.glucose tolerance test
D. Fasting lipid profile with RBS
Answer: C
64. Nasal septum disruption is an indication for over usage of --A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
C. cocaine
D. Brown sugar
Answer: C
65. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of
ceftriaxone (Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per day. The medication label
indicates that the strength is 150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the
nurse pour to administer the correct dose?
A. 2.5 ml

B. 4 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 20 ml
Answer: D
66. The nurse is preparing to discharge a 70-year-old man on warfarin therapy for a
pulmonary embolism. The nurses dischargeteaching should include which of the following
instructions?
A.Follow a healthy diet by increasing ingestion of green, leafy vegetables.
B. Take herbal remedies to manage cold symptoms.
C. Avoid alcohol due to enhanced anticoagulant effect.
D. Take Coumadin only on an empty stomach.
67. Route of administration of BCG vaccine?question (AIIMS Delhi 2011)
A. IM
B. ID
C. SC
D. IV
Answer: B

68. Major part of cardiac output used for which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Spleen
D.kidney
69. Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed by ....
A. Fibro scan
B. Sweat test
C. Myelogram
D. USG
70. World immunization day?
A. Oct 10
B. Nov 10
C. Dec 10
D. Aug 10
Answer: B
71. A client with a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock is placed on an intra-aortic
balloon pump (IAPB). If the device is functioning properly, the balloon inflates when the:
A. tricuspid valve is closed.
B. pulmonic valve is open.
C. aortic valve is closed.
D. mitral valve is closed

72. QM1: world malaria day?

A. March 18
B. April 25
C. May 12
D. May 25

73. World Cancer day is ...?

A. January 30
B. December 1
C. February 4
D. March 7
Answer: C
74. In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?
A. 40-90 mm of Hg
B. 70-140 mm of Hg
C. 130- 180 mm of Hg
D. 180-320 mm of Hg
Answer: B
75. A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery(DHS) to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the
right hip. The nurse should include which intervention in the postoperative plan of care?
A. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift
B. Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times
C. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
D. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's position
Answer: B
76. During the initial admission process, a geriatric client seems confused. What is the most
probable cause of this client's confusion?
A. Depression
B. Altered long-term memory
C. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
D. Stress related to an unfamiliar situation
Answer: D

78. The stress of being in an unfamiliar situation, such as admission to a hospital, can cause
confusion in geriatric clients. Depression doesn't produce confusion, but it can cause mood
changes, weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and early morning awakening. In geriatric
clients, long-term memory usually remains intact, although short-term memory may be
altered. Decreased LOC doesn't normally result from aging; therefore, it's a less likely cause
of confusion in this client.

80. The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug
absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Answer: C

81. Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and
strength have no effect on drug absorption. The amount of body fat at the injection site may
help determine the size of the needle and the technique used to localize the site; however, it
doesn't affect drug absorption (unless the nurse inadvertently injects the medication into
the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle).
The nursing care plan for a client with decreased adrenal function should include
A. Encouraging activity
B. Placing client in reverse isolation
C. Limiting visitors
D. Measures to prevent constipation
Answer is C: Limiting visitors
Any exertion, either physical or emotional, places additional stress on the adrenal glands
which could precipitate an addisonian crisis. The plan of care should protect this client from
the physical and emotional exertion of visitors.
82. Witch's milk commonly seen only in ----?
A.Infants
B.newborns
C. Adolescents
D. prenatal clients
Answer: A
83. Lactation provides contraception for
A. 14 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 180 days
Answer: C
84. The nurse is doing a physical assessment and electrocardiogram on an elderly client.
Which finding during the nurse's assessment of the cardiac system is of most concern and
warrants prompt further investigation?
A. S4 heart sound.
B. Increased PR interval.

C. Orthostatic hypotension.
D. Irregularly irregular heart rate.

Prometric Exam Sample Questions

1.The nurse is teaching a mother whose daughter has iron deficiency anemia. The
nurse determines the parent understood the dietary modifications, if she selects?
a) Bread and coffee
b) Fish and Pork meat
c) Cookies and milk
d) Oranges and green leafy vegetables

2.Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of G6PD following
ingestion of aspirin?
a)

Kidney failure

b) Acute hemolytic anemia

c) Hemophilia A
d) Thalassemia

3.The nurse assesses a client with an ileostomy for possible development of which of
the following acid-base imbalances?
a) Respiratory acidosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Respiratory alkalosis

4.The nurse anticipates which of the following responses in a client who develops
metabolic acidosis.
a)

Heart rate of 105 bpm

b) Urinary output of 15 ml
c)
d)

Respiratory rate of 30 cpm

Temperature of 39 degree Celsius

5. A client has a phosphorus level of 5.0mg/dL. The nurse closely monitors the client
for?
a)
b)

Signs of tetany
Elevated blood glucose

c)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

d)

Hypoglycemia

6. A nurse is caring for a child with pyloric stenosis. The nurse would watch out for
symptoms of?
a)

Vomiting large amounts

b)

Watery stool

c)

Projectile vomiting

d)

Dark-colored stool

7.The nurse responder finds a patient unresponsive in his house. Arrange steps for
adult CPR.
a)

Assess consciousness

b) Give 2 breaths
c)

Perform chest compression

d) Check for serious bleeding and shock

e)

Open patients airway

f)

Check breathing

___, ___, ___, ___, ___, ___

8.Which of the following has mostly likely occurred when there is continuous bubbling in
the water seal chamber of the closed chest drainage system?
a)

The connection has been taped too tightly

b)

The connection tubes are kinked

c)

Lung expansion

d)

Air leak in the system

9.Which if the following young adolescent and adult male clients are at most risk for
testicular cancer?
a) Basketball player who wears supportive gear during basketball games
b) Teenager who swims on a varsity swim team
c)

20-year-old with undescended testis

d)

Patient with a family history of colon cancer

10.The nurse plans to frequently assess a post-thyroidectomy patient for?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Hypoactive deep tendon reflex

c)

Hypertension

d)

Laryngospasm

11.An 18-month-old baby appears to have a rounded belly, bowlegs and slightly large
head. The nurse concludes?
a)

The child appears to be a normal toddler

b)

The child is developmentally delayed

c)

The child is malnourished

d)

The childs large head may have neurological problems.

12.A nurse is going to administer 500mg capsule to a patient. Which is the correct
route?

13.An appropriate instruction to be included in the discharge teaching of a patient

following a spinal fusion is?
a) Dont use the stairs
b) Dont bend at the waist
c)

Dont walk for long hours

d)

Swimming should be avoided

14.A nurse is preparing to give an IM injection of Iron Dextran that is irritating to the
subcutaneous tissue. To prevent irritation to the tissue, what is the best action to be
taken?
a)

Apply ice over the injection site

b) Administer drug at a 45 degree angle

c) Use a 24-gauge-needle
d) Use the z-track technique

15.What should a nurse do prior to taking the patients history?

a) Offer the patient a glass of water
b) Establish rapport
c)

Ask the patient to disrobe and put on gown

d) Ask pertinent information for insurance purposes

16.A pregnant woman is admitted for pre-eclampsia. The nurse would include in the
health teaching that magnesium will be part of the medical management to accomplish
the following?
a)

Control seizures

b)

promote renal perfusion

c)

To decrease sustained contractions

d)

Maintain intrauterine homeostasis

17.A nurse is going to administer ear drops to a 4-year-old child. What is the correct
way of instilling the medicine after tilting the patients head sidewards?
a) Pull the pinna back then downwards
b) Pull the pinna back then upwards
c) Pull the pinna up then backwards
d) Pull the pinna down then backwards

18.A nursing student was intervened by the clinical instructor if which of the following is
observed?
a) Inserting a nasogastric tube
b) Positioning the infant in a sniffing position
c) Suctioning first the mouth, then the nose
d) Squeezing the bulb syringe to suction mouth

19.Choose amongst the options illustrated below that best describes the angle for an
intradermal injection?

20.During a basic life support class, the instructor said that blind finger sweeping is not
advisable for infants. Which among the following could be the reason?
a) The mouth is still too small
b) The object may be pushed deeper into the throat
c) Sharp fingernails might injure the victim
d) The infant might bite

21.A nurse enters a room and finds a patient lying on the floor. Which of the following
actions should the nurse perform first?
a)

Call for help

b)

Establish responsiveness of patient

c)

Ask the patient what happened

d)

Assess vital signs

22.A patient with complaints of chest pain was rushed to the emergency department.
Which priority action should the nurse do first?
a)

Administer morphine sulfate intravenously

b) Initiate venous access by performing venipunture

c)

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

d) Complete physical assessment and patient history

23.A rehab nurse reviews a post-stroke patients immunization history. Which

immunization is a priority for a 72-year-old patient?
a)

Hepatitis A vaccine

b) Hepatitis B vaccine
c) Rotavirus Vaccine
d) Pneumococcal Vaccine

24.Several patients from a reported condominium fire incident were rushed to the
emergency room. Which should the nurse attend to first?
a)

A 15-year-old girl, with burns on the face and chest, reports hoarseness of the

voice
b) A 28-year-old man with burns on all extremities
c) A 4-year-old child who is crying inconsolably and reports severe headache
d) A 40-year-old woman with complaints of severe pain on the left thigh

25.The doctor ordered 1 pack of red blood cells (PRBC) to be transfused to a patient.
The nurse prepares the proper IV tubing. The IV tubing appropriate for blood
transfusion comes with?
a)

Air vent

b)

Microdrip chamber

c)

In-line filter

d)

Soluset

26.The expected yet negative (harmful ) result for post hemodialysis is a decrease in?

a)

Creatinine

b)

BUN

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Red blood cell count

27.A patient was brought to the emergency room after she fell down the stairs. Which
of the following is the best indicator for increased intracranial pressure in head and
spinal injury?
a) Inability to move extremities
b) Decreased respiratory rate
c) Increase in pulse and blood pressure
d) Decrease level of consciousness

28.A new nurse is administering an enema to a patient. The senior nurse should
intervene if the new nurse?
a) Hangs the enema bag 18 inches above the anus
b) Positions the client on the right side
c) Advances the catheter 4 inches into the anal canal
d) Lubricates 4 inches of the catheter tip

29.The medication nurse is going to give a patient his morning medications. What is the
primary action a nurse should do before administering the medications?
a) Provide privacy
b) Raise head of the bed
c) Give distilled water
d) Check clients identification bracelet

30.A 30-year-old client is admitted with inflammatory bowel syndrome (Crohns

disease). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the health
teaching? Select all that apply
a) Corticosteroid medication is part of the treatment
b) Include milk in the diet
c) Aspirin should be administered
d) Antidiarrheal medication can help

Answer and Rationale

1.) Answer: D
Dark green leafy vegetables are good sources of iron. Oranges are good sources of
vitamin C that enhances iron absorption in the small intestines.
2.) Answer: B
Individuals with G6PD may exhibit hemolytic anemia when exposed to infection, certain
medications or chemicals. Salicylates such as Aspirin damages plasma membranes of
erythrocytes, leading to hemolytic anemia.
3.) Answer: B
Lower GI fluids are alkaline in nature and can be lost via ileostomy. Thus, loss of HCO3,
results to metabolic acidosis.
4.) Answer: C
Initially, respiratory system will try to compensate metabolic acidosis. Patients with
metabolic acidosis have high respiratory rate.
5.) Answer: A
Normal phosphorus level is 2.5 4.5 mg/dL .The level reflects hyperphosphatemia
which is inversely proportional to calcium. Client should be assessed for tetany which is
a prominent symptom of hypocalcemia.

6.) Answer: C
Clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, irritability,
constipation, and signs of dehydration, including a decrease in urine output.
7.) Answer: A, E, F, C, B, D
In accordance with the new guidelines, remember AB-CABS. A-airway B-breathing
normally? C-chest compression A-airway open B-breathing for patient S-serious
bleeding, shock, spinal injury. The nurse should first assess consciousness of the
patient. Next, open patients airway to check for breathing. When there is no breathing,
immediately perform chest compression then give 2 breaths, do the cycle of care over.
Finally, check for serious bleeding, shock, and spinal injury.
8.) Answer: D
Continuous bubbling seen in water-seal bottle/ chamber indicates an air leak or loose
connection, and air is sucked continuously into the closed chest drainage system.
9.) Answer: C
Testicular cancer is most likely to affect males in late adolescence. Undescended testis
is also one major risk for testicular cancer.
10.) Answer: D
Hypocalcemia occurs when there is accidental removal or destruction of parathyroid
tissue during surgical removal of the thyroid gland. Laryngospasm is one of the clinical
manifestations of tetany, an indicator of hypocalcemia.
11.) Answer: A
Its normal for a toddler to have bowlegs and a protruding belly. The head still appears
somewhat large in proportion from the rest of the body.
12.) Answer: D
13.) Answer: B

There is 6-8 months activity restriction following a spinal fusion. Sitting, lying,
standing, normal stair climbing, walking, and gentle swimming is allowed. Bending and
twisting at the waist should be avoided, along with lifting more than 10 lbs.
14.) Answer: D
Z-track technique is used to administer drugs especially irritating to the subcutaneous
tissue. This method promotes absorption of the drug by preventing drug leakage into
the subcutaneous layer.
15.) Answer: B
Establishing rapport is a way to gain trust that will lead for a patient to relax. You can
get more insights and information from a patient when rapport is established.
16.) Answer: A
Low magnesium (hypomagnesemia) produces clinical manifestations like increased
reflexes, tremors, and seizures. Magnesium Sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent
seizures in pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.
17.) Answer: C
Ear canal of children ages 3years and above can be straightened by pulling the pinna up
then backwards. For children below 3 years of age, the ear canal can be straightened by
pulling the pinna down then backwards.
18.) Answer: A
Infants are nose breathers. A gastric tube may be inserted to facilitate lung expansion
and stomach decompression, but not a nasogastric tube as it can occlude the nare,
thus, making breathing difficult for the infant.
19.) Answer: B
20.) Answer: B

Blind finger sweeps are not recommended in all CPR cases especially for infants and
children because the foreign object may be pushed back into the airway.
21.) Answer: B
First step in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is assessing responsiveness of the
patient.
22.) Answer: C
Priority nursing action is to administer oxygen to patients with chest pain. Chest pain is
caused by insufficient myocardial oxygenation.
23.) Answer: D
Pneumococcal Vaccine is a priority immunization for the elderly. Seniors, ages 65 years
old and above, have higher risk for serious pneumococcal infection and likely have low
immunity. This is administered every 5 years.
24.) Answer: A
Burns on the face and neck can cause swelling of the respiratory mucosa that can lead
to airway obstruction manifested by hoarseness of voice and difficulty in breathing.
Maintaining an airway patency is the main concern.
25.) Answer: C
An in-line filter is required for blood transfusions.
26.) Answer: D
Negative outcome: Hemodialysis decreases red blood cell count which worsens anemia,
because RBCs are lost in dialysis from anticoagulation during the procedure, and from
residual blood that is left in the dialyzer.
27.) Answer: D

Decrease in level of consciousness and headache are early signs of increase in

intracranial pressure (ICP). Altered level of consciousness is the most common
symptom that indicates a deficit in brain function.
28.) Answer: B
Recall the anatomy of the colon. The appropriate position is left lateral to facilitate flow
of enema by gravity into the colon.
29.) Answer: D
Recall the 12 Rights of administration. Checking the patients name is critical for clientsafety.
30.) Answer: A , D
Crohns disease is a chronic inflammation of the colon with symptoms of diarrhea,
abdominal pain, and weight loss. Corticosteroid is a treatment for Crohns disease.
Antidiarrheal can give relief to diarrheal episodes. Aspirin should be avoided as it can
worsen inflammation. Those with Crohns disease are mostly lactose intolerant, so
choice no. (2) is incorrect.