Q.

A flight route distance is 500 nm, during climb time 30 minutes and ground
speed 160 knots. During cruise ground speed is 265 knots, during descent time
20 minutes and ground speed 210 knots. Total time for the route is:

Q.2

1.

1 hours 40 minutes.

2.

1 hours 50 minutes.

3.

2 hours 30 minutes.

4.

2 hours 10 minutes.

The distance flown by an aircraft in 40 seconds at a ground speed of 480 kt is

shown on a chart by a straight line 1.4 inches long. Give the scale of the chart in
centimeter to kilometers:

Q.3.

1.

1 cm to 2.778 km.

2.

1 cm to 3.89 km.

3.

1 cm to 38.9 km.

4.

None of the above.

Aircraft present Hdg 170 (M), ADF 345 relative. Make 40 degree intercept of the
355 Track out bound. What shall be the Hdg to intercept and ADF indication at
the time of intercept:
ADF on intercept (R)

Q.4.

Intercept Hdg (M)

1.

310

175

2.

040

135

3.

045

130

4.

130

000

Route details of a flight from station P to station Q are, Track 047 (T), W/V
250/35. Normal TAS 270 kt, Reduced TAS 210 kt (in the event of one engine
failure).
The distance to critical point of the above flight is 460 Nm in the event of engine
failure, Calculate the distance between Station P and Q?
1.

1089 Nm.

2.

1046 Nm.

3.

1245 Nm.

4.
Q.5

798 Nm.

An aircraft on heading 041 (T) is experiencing a drift of 12o P while the TAS and
Ground Speed happen to be almost equal. Wind affecting the flight is

Q.6.

1.

305/30

2.

131/30

3.

125/30

4.

109/30.

The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator is inclined at about 30 o with respect to the
aircrafts longitudinal axis in order to:

Q.7.

1.

Make the rate of turn more accurate.

2.

Make the gyro sensitive to banking of the aircraft as well as to turning.

3.

Make the gyro more effective during inverted flight.

4.

Have a higher rotor speed which will prolong the life of the instrument.

Given the following data relating to a flight from A to B:

Maximum take off weight

55000 lbs.

Weight less fuel and payload

29000 lbs.

Mean TAS

260 kt

Distance A to B

1550 Nm

Mean fuel consumption

180 GPH

Specific Gravity

0.72

Reserve fuel carried (assume

305 gallons

unused)
Maximum landing weight

40500 lbs.

Maximum authorized zero fuel

38500 lbs

Weight.
The maximum payload that can be carried in 25 kts Headwind is:
1.

15250 lbs.

2.

9300 lbs.

3.

9000 lbs.

4.

9500 lbs.

Q.8.

Cruising at FL 390, M 0.84 is found to give a TAS of 499 kt. The ISA deviation at
this level will be:

Q.9.

1.

-17

2.

+17

3.

+19

4.

-19

A static vent is used to measure:

1.

dynamic pressure minus pitot excess.

2.

dynamic pressure plus pitot excess.

3.

atmospheric pressure.

4.

pitot excess pressure.

Q.10. The flux valve of a remote indicating compass is

1.

pendulously mounted and is free to turn to remain aligned with the earth
magnetic field.

2.

not subject to acceleration errors.

3.

pendulously mounted and so it is not subject to or affected by the earths

magnetic field.

4.

fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the angle
between the aircraft and the earths magnetic field.

Q.11. The rate of turn indicator uses . Which spins

1.

space gyroscope

up and away from the pilot.

2.

Tied gyro

anti-clockwise when viewed from pilots position.

3.

rate gyro

up and away from the pilot.

4.

earth gyro

clockwise viewed from pilots position.

Q.12. Inside an artificial horizon:

1.

The inner gimbal ring is pivoted laterally inside the outer gimbal ring and
the outer gimbal ring is pivoted longitudinally inside the case.

2.

The inner gimbal ring is tied to the vertical by a control system.

3.

The rotor axis is kept level by a calibrated spring attached to the outer
gimbal ring and the instrument case.

4.

There is only one gimbal ring.

Q.13. Apparent wander may be corrected in a DGI by:

1.

Causing the gyro to precess in a clockwise direction (in the northern

hemisphere).

2.

Attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess
in azimuth in the same direction as apparent wander.

3.

Correcting wander by means of air jets.

4.

Attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess
in azimuth in the opposite direction to apparent wander.

Q.14. Real wander of a gyro can be caused by:

1.

Asymmetrical friction at the spinning axis.

2.

Rotation of the earth.

3.

Increasing the RPM of the rotor.

4.

Moving the gyro north or south of its present position.

Q.15. Errors of the directional gyro are:

1.

Acceleration error, turning error, altitude error, transport wander, rotor

speed error.

2.

Gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error,

transport wander.

3.

Gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport
wander.

4.

Transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error,

acceleration error.

Q.16. An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading in the N. Hemisphere. The compass

needle rotates ________ indicating a turn towards __________
1.

Clockwise

North.

2.

Anti-clockwise

North.

3.

Clockwise

South.

4.

Anti-clockwise

South.

Q.17. The restricted choke in the VSI:

1.

Will prevent the instrument being damaged by high rates of climb and
descent.

2.

Compensates for changes in temperature and density only.

3.

Creates a differential pressure between the capsule and the case as its
main function.

4.

Compensates for time lag in the instrument.

Q.18. An uncorrected gyro is set to read 100o . The gyro reading after 45 minutes when
stationary on the ground in latitude 25o S is:
1.

106.3o.

2.

104.8o.

3.

093.7o.

4.

095.3o.

Q.19. The sub scale of an altimeter is set to 1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when the
QNH is 996 mb. The true height of the aircraft AMSL is:
1.

3180 ft.

2.

3990 ft.

3.

5520 ft.

4.

3480 ft.

Q.20. An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number. Assuming the temperature is

ISA, the CAS will:
1.

Rise due to TAS increasing with falling density.

2.

Fall due to density decreasing due to the increase in local speed of sound.

3.

Rise due to the decreasing pressure.

4.

Fall due to the increasing density error.

Q.21. Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is:

1.

IAS corrected for compressibility.

2.

IAS corrected for instrument error only.

3.

CAS corrected for compressibility.

4.

CAS corrected for position error.

Q.22. The bearing signal transmitted from a Conventional VOR beacon is:

1.

Produced by a 30 Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates

at 30 revs./ sec.

2.

Produced by a 30 Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Cardiod, which rotates

at 30 revs./ sec.

3.

Produced by a 30 Hz frequency modulated signal, rotating at 30 revs./

sec.

4.

Produced by a 30 Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates

anti clockwise at 30 revs./ sec.

Q.23. The middle marker of an ILS system has an audible code which is:
1.

Alternating dots and dashes at 400 Hz.

2.

Alternating dots and dashes at 1300 Hz.

3.

Alternating dots and dashes at 3000 Hz.

4.

High pitch dots.

Q.24. Assuming an accuracy of +/- 5.5o, the maximum spacing of two VORs. Defining
the centre line of an airway, that would ensure no aircraft could be outside the
airway is:
1.

54 nm.

2.

51 nm.

3.

109 nm.

4.

132 nm.

Q.25. When tuning, identifying and monitoring an NDB, which has the emission
characteristic NON A1A, it is necessary for the:
1.

BFO to be on for all three.

2.

BFO to be off for tuning only.

3.

ADF function to be selected.

4.

ANT function to be selected.

Q.26. An aircraft at FL 250 is using an Airborne Weather Radar ( stabilization on) with a
beam width of 5 degrees. An isolated cloud at a range of 25 nm just ceases to
paint when the tilt control is at 1 deg tilt up. The approximate altitude of the
cloud top is:

1.

21000 ft.

2.

25000 ft.

3.

29000 ft.

4.

33000 ft.

The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to fly the centre line of an airway
within Indian airspace. The indication on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is TO
three dots Fly Left and OBS selected 347. At the same time the DME gave a range
of 115 nm from the facility. Use this information to answer the next two questions.
Q.27. At the time of the observation, the aircraft was on the radial and, assuming
still air conditions, on regaining the centre line it will be necessary to turn
1.

159 deg right onto 347 deg

2.

175 deg left onto 167 deg

3.

339 deg right onto 167 deg

4.

355 deg left onto 347 deg

Q.28. At the time of the observation the aircraft was displaced from the centre line by:
1.

4 nm.

2.

8 nm.

3.

12 nm.

4.

15 nm.

Q.29. The rate of descent of an aircraft with an approach speed of 140 kt on an ILS
approach with a glide path angle of 3.25o is:
1.

700 ft/min.

2.

780 ft/min.

3.

860 ft/min.

4.

1050 ft/min.

Q.30. The correct SSR code to indicate radio failure is:

1.

7700

2.

7600

3.

2000

4.

7500

Q.31. A Primary radar has a PRF of 500 pulses per seconds. The maximum theoretical
range, ignoring all other factors, is:
1.

300 Nm.

2.

162 Nm.

3.

600 Nm.

4.

324 Nm.

Q.32. When a VOR is selected, the identification is PSV and the paired DME channel
identification is PSZ. This means that:
1.

The two aids are associated and the aerials are less than 2000 feet apart.

2.

The two aids can together be used for an airfield approach.

3.

The two transmitter aerials are in totally different positions.

4.

The two transmitter aerials are within 6 nm of each other and the two aids
can be used together for normal airways navigation.

Q.33. An apparent increase in transmitted frequency, proportional to the velocity of the

transmitter, is caused by:
1.

The receiver moving towards the transmitter.

2.

The transmitter moving away from the receiver.

3.

The transmitter moving towards the receiver.

4.

The transmitter and the receiver moving away from each other.

Q.34. Which of the following statements is correct?

1.

Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object, whereas secondary

radar uses responses from a transponder beacon.

2.

Primary radar gives range not bearing, of a reflecting object.

3.

Secondary always measures the baring of a reflecting object more

accurately than primary radar.

4.

Only secondary radar can be carried on an aircraft.

Q.35. A Doppler VOR (DVOR) is more accurate because it minimizes . Error. The
reference signals and variable phase directional signals rotate .. are .. and
.. respectively, and an aircraft .. to be fitted with a special receiver.
1.

Site; anti-clockwise; FM; AM; needs.

2.

Equipment; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.

3.

Site; clockwise; AM; FM needs.

4.

Site; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.

Q.36. An aircraft at 36,400 indicate a DME range of 10.5 nm. The ground distance to
the beacon is:
1.

8 nm.

2.

Between 8 nm and 9 nm.

3.

8.5 nm.

4.

9 nm.

Q.37. The Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is a system which consists of
active satellites plus .. operational spare satellites in orbital planes
around the earth. A minimum satellites are needed to provide a
.dimensional fix.
1.

21; 3; 6; 3; 3;

2.

21; 3; 4; 3; 2;

3.

21; 3; 6; 4; 3;

4.

24; 3; 5; 3; 3;

Q.38. Aircraft A is homing, with 11o port drift, on a track of 060o (M) to NDB P, whilst
aircraft B is maintaining an outbound track of 320 o (M) with 13 o starboard drift
from the same NDB. Relative Bearing Indicator of each aircraft will indicate:
Relative

Bearing

Aircraft A

Aircraft B

1.

349 o

167 o

2.

011 o

167 o

3.

349 o

193 o

4.

169 o

193 o

Q.39. An aircraft is inbound, with 20o starboard drift, on the 180 o radial from VOR K .
The relative bearing of NDB L is 300 o . RMI presentation in the aircraft is:

1.

HDG (M)

K POINTER L POINTER

340 o

000 o

300 o

2.

340 o

000 o

280 o

3.

020 o

000 o

320 o

4.

160 o

180 o

100 o

Q.40. In reference to NDB/ADF, Night Effect is caused by sky-waves from ______

interfering with its omni-directional surface wave. The effect occurs at ______ and
is worst ______
1.

The NDB in use; ranges of 70 nm and above; at down and dusk.

2.

Their distant NDBs on the same or similar frequencies; outside the NDBs
DOC and up to 70 nm and above; during hours of darkness.

3.

The NDB in use; ranges of 100 nm and above; diurnally in the winter.

4.

The NDB in use: any range; at midnight when the D layer is the weakest.

Q.41. The maximum safe fly-up indication on an ILS approach when using a meter with
a 5 dot display is:
1.

0.35o

2.

2.5dots.

3.

1.3dots.

4.

0.7o

Q.42. A frequency of around 10 Ghz is chosen for an Airborne weather radar because;
1.

It gives the best results for ground mapping.

2.

A higher frequency gives greater attenuation from all types of precipitation.

3.

This frequency will produce narrow beams, for good target resolution, from
antennas whose diameters are constrained by the dimensions of the
aircrafts radome.

4.

This frequency reflects from areas of clear air turbulence.

Q.43. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 KHz?

1.

8m

2.

80 m

3.

800 m

4.

8000 m.

Q.44. Given that the compass heading is 270o , the deviation is 2o W, the variation is 30o
E and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316o, determine the QDR:
1.

044

2.

048

3.

074

4.

224.

Q.45. The maximum range an aircraft at FL 370 can receive transmissions from a
VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
1.

275 nm.

2.

200 nm.

3.

243 nm.

4.

220 nm.

Q.46. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E ( VAR 13oE) is an aircraft at 59N025E
( VAR 20o E)?
1.

160

2.

347

3.

193

4.

167

Q.47. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects
replies to other aircraft transmissions because;
1.

The PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft.

2.

The pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation.

3.

The interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft.

4.

The interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz.

Q.48. The principle of operation of the ILS localizer transmitter is that it transmits two
overlapping lobes on:
1.

Different frequencies with different phases.

2.

The same frequency with different phases.

3.

The same frequency with different amplitude modulations.

4.

Different frequencies with different amplitude modulations.

Q.49. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
1.

The surface of the runway

2.

Less than 50 ft.

3.

Less than 100 ft.

4.

Less than 200 ft.

Q.50. The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localizer centre line is:
1.

+/- 10o to 8 nm

2.

+/- 10o to 25 nm

3.

+/- 8o to 8 nm

4.

+/- 35o to 17nm

Q.51. In primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:
1.

Pulse width.

2.

Beam width.

3.

Pulse recurrence rate.

4.

Rate of rotation.

Q.52. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. What is the maximum range of the radar?
1.

150 km.

2.

333 km.

3.

666 km.

4.

1326 km.

Q.53. At 1.9 DME from the runway threshold the glide slope needle of VOR / ILS
indicator show below its central position. The radio altimeter at this instant reads:
1.

644 feet.

2.

577 feet.

3.

510 feet.

4.

None of the above.

Q.54. A flight taking two hours time from station X ( 30oN, 120o) to station Y ( 30oN,
90o) is to be reached just before sunset. The sun set time at the destination is
1900 LMT. LMT the flight from station X should set courses is:
1.

2100 LMT.

2.

1900 LMT.

3.

1500 LMT.

4.

1700 LMT.

Q.55. An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 5o starboard drift and is making good
a track parallel to the centre line 090 M of airway, but 12 Nm off the right of the
centre line. The distance to go to the station is 45 N. If the NDB is sited at the
destination station, what aircraft ADF will indicate at this position.
1.

016 R

2.

021 R

3.

339 R

4.

344 R

Q.56. During a compass swing the values of coefficients are as, A = +3, B= +2 and C=
-10. What will be the expected deviation on Hdg 145 in the Southern
Hemispher;
1.

12o easterly.

2.

12o Westerly.

3.

9.3o Westerly.

4.

9.3o easterly.

Q.57 For a flight on Track 020 (T), expecting wind velocity 220/30, TAS 250 kt and
Mean Fuel Flow 8200 kg / hr the Gross fuel flow will be:
1.

32.8 kg / Nm

2.

29.4 kg / Nm

3.

31.1 kg / Nm

4.

28.6 kg / Nm

Q.58. The critical angle, at which the Radio Signal refract enough to return to the earth,
depends on;
1.

Ionospheric conditions

2.

Frequency.

3.

The angle at which the radio wave strikes a layer in the ionosphere.

4.

All the above.

Q.59. In earth magnetic field, the following quantities are given to the H and Z factors:
1.

At the magnetic equator, H is minimum and Z is maximum.

2.

At the poles, Z is maximum and H is minimum.

3.

At the poles, H is maximum and Z is minimum.

4.

At a magnetic equator or at the poles, H and Z have similar values.

Q.60. The three components of permanent magnetism are:

1.

P fore and aft; Q Vertical; R athwart ship.

2.

P- fore and aft; Q athwart ship; R- Vertical.

3.

P Vertical; Q athwart ship; R fore and aft.

4.

P- athwart ship; Q Vertical; R fore and aft.

Q.61. A rate gyro comprises of A:

1.

Horizontal gyro carried in a single horizontal gimbal with the gyro axis
lying athwart ships.

2.

Horizontal gyro carried in a single vertical gimbal with the gyro axis lying
parallel to the aircraft vertical axis.

3.

Vertical mounted gyro with two freedoms of movement and an athwart ship
spin axis.

4.

Vertically mounted gyro with a vertical axis super imposed on a single

gimbal.

Q.62. When a force is applied to a spinning gyro, the effect is evident:

1.

45o forward in the direction of rotation.

2.

Immediately in line with the plane of rotation.

3.

90o anti-clockwise to the direction of rotation.

4.

90o forward in the direction of rotation.

Q.63. A space (free) gyro is defined as a gyro having:

1.

Three degrees of freedom.

2.

Two degrees of freedom.

3.

One degrees of freedom.

4.

Free in the longitudinal axis only.

Q.64. The amount of apparent topple shown by a vertical axis gyro located in turn at the
equator, North 45o and the poles is:
1.

No topple at the equator, or at the poles and 15 Sin Lat deg / hr at 45 o

North

2.

5o / hr topple at the equator, no topple at the poles and 15 Cos LAT / hr at

45o North

3.

15o / hr at the poles, 15 Tan Lat deg / hr at 45o N and no topple at the
equator.

4.

No topple at pole and equator and 15x Cos Lat deg / hr at 45 o N

Q.65. GPWS mode three gives warning of:

1.

Excessive descent rate.

2.

Height loss after take off / missed approach.

3.

Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.

4.

Excessive terrain closure rate.

Q.66. GPWS mode Four gives warning of:

1.

Excessive descent rate.

2.

Height loss after take off / missed approach.

3.

Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.

4.

Excessive terrain closure rate.

Q.67. The aural messages provided by TCAS are:

1.

Threat climb, threat Descent.

2.

Climb left, climb right, descent left, descent right.

3.

Climb, descent, increase climb, increase descent.

4.

Turn left, turn right, increase turn, decrease turn.

Q.68. On a receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to:

1.

Make a ratio of the details.

2.

Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC.

3.

Do nothing until TA is received.

4.

Initiate the required manouver Immediately.

Q.69. Some ASI have coloured arcs and lines marked on their dials, A yellow arc and a
white are indicate:
1.

Cautionary range and normal operating speed.

2.

Flap operating speed range and normal operating range.

3.

Cautionary range and flap operating speed range.

4.

Flap operating speed range and cautionary speed.

Q.70. Which of the following statement is true in respect of an ILS:

1.

If the glide path is not operating, the ILS will be switched off.

2.

An ILS cannot be used if either of the outer or middle markers is switched

off.

3.

The glide path frequency is paired with the markers frequency.

4.

The glide path transmits on UHF frequency.

Q.71. Descending from 15,000 feet to 1000 feet at CAS 180 kts, head wind composition
of 20 kts, temperature at MPA, ISA + 20 condition, rate of descent 500 feet /
minutes, distance traveled is:
1.

88 Nm.

2.

75 N.

3.

114 Nm.

4.

96 Nm.

Q.72. Aircraft on heading 090 (T) in DR position 69o S, 68 o W obtains relative bearing
359 o from station 69 o S, 64 o W. Bearing to plot on Lamberts Confarmal chart is:
1.

265 o

2.

273 o

3.

085 o

4.

093 o

Q.73. The errors in the VSI are due to:

1.

Temperature and pressure differences.

2.

Density changes.

3.

Pressure, instrument, manoeuvre and lag errors.

4.

Those of the same type as the altimeter.

Q.74. The aircraft is homing on a QDM 060. You receive ATC instruction hold north of
VOR on the three six zero radial for non standard hold. The VOR OBS should be
selected to ( _______ ) on the inbound leg and TO/ FROM will ( ________ )
1.

180

FROM

2.

360

FROM

3.

180

TO

4.

360

TO

Q.75. An aircraft heading towards a station of Hdg (M) 060 and ADF indication 030 .
The pilot is cleared to intercept a radial 250 and enter into a standard hold:
The pilot should alter the heading _______ to intercept the radial.
1.

130

2.

250

3.

070

4.

030

Q.76 On a track and distance 090 (T), 2000 Nm and a Head Wind component of 50 kts
on the way up and Tail wind component of 50 kts on the way back, the calculated
CP is 1200 Nm from the departure. In flight it is discovered that the winds are the
other way around, the new distance to CP is:
1.

900 Nm.

2.

Remains unchanged.

3.

800 Nm.

4.

1400 Nm.

Q.77. Assume an aircraft is flying in an area of high barometric pressure where the
regional pressure setting is 1000 hPa. It now transits into an area where the
regional pressure setting is 960 mb but the altimeter subscale is maintained at
1000 mb. The aircraft will now be flying:
1.

1200 feet lower.

2.

1200 feet higher.

3.

120 feet lower.

4.

120 feet higher.

Answer next two questions based upon the following data:

For a flight from station A to station B Track 047 (T), W/V, 200/30, Normal TAS
240 kt. Reduced TAS 190 kt. ( in the case of engine failure), Fuel on Board 2200
lbs.
Q.78. Considering the following details, if the distance to Point of No Return for the
above flight is 550 Nm, what is the fuel consumption:
1.

475 lbs / hr.

2.

405 lbs / hr.

3.

378 lbs / hr.

4.

423 lbs / hr.

Q.79. For the above flight in the event of engine failure, critical Point is reached 35
minutes before Point on No Return. Calculated the stage length between station A
to station B;
1.

898 Nm.

2.

918 Nm.

3.

985 Nm.

4.

1039 Nm.

Q.80. Executing a standard rate of turn, it would take _________ seconds to turn left
from, magnetic heading 050 to magnetic heading 320:
1.

30 seconds.

2.

60 seconds.

3.

45 seconds.

4.

90 seconds.

NAVIGATION TEST (Surrenders

Q.1

Question Bank)

Flying from A to C via B. During return flight ac shall land at B.

Dist

Track

Winds

TAS/FF(N)

TAS/FF

A-B

325

090

045/20

230/350

185/290

B-C

780

150

210/35

230/350

185/290

Calculated distance and time to CP from A, if engine fails will be

Q.2

Dist

Time

1.

605

217

2.

705

199

3.

752

213

4.

600

170

Considering fuel on board be 2400, calculated latest time to return to B. Assume

failure at PNR between B and C.

Q.3

Dist

Time

1.

918

260

2.

771

231

3.

682

193

4.

766

217

Flying from P to Q MTOW 71500 lbs, Wt less fuel and pay load 49000 lbs, mean
TAS 195 knots, W/v 30 Knots HW, distance 1010 nm, MFC ( SG 0.72) 215 Imp
Gal/Hr, Res fuel 260 Imp Gal, MLV 62800 lbs. Max payload in flight in still air will
be

Q.4.

1.

12610

2.

12243

3.

14547

4.

11928

An ac on final approach on ILS gets 2 dots left and 2 dots above at 2 DME. The
position of ac is:
1.

230 right of C/L 106 mtrs below.

Q.5

2.

230 left of C/L 245 mtrs below.

3.

115 right of C/L 245 mtrs below.

4.

115 left of C/L 310 mtrs below.

Hdg 170(M), ADF 355 ( R) . Make an intercept of 50o track inbound on 355 radial
from the station. Initial track, hdg to station will be . And ADF on intercepted
radial will be .

Q.6.

Q.7.

1.

335, 205M, 330R

2.

315, 045M, 175R

3.

165, 125M, 050R

4.

None

Coeff A= -1, B= -2, C=-3. Deviation from hdg 295(C) will be

1.

+4.06

2.

-4.06

3.

0.46E

4.

0.46W

Ac homing on VOR with 10o stbd drift. Variation at VOR 5o W and at DR position
is 3o W. Initial hdg to maintain 274 radial will be

Q.8.

1.

084

2.

264

3.

087

4.

104

A and B are on parallel of 30o. GC bearing of B from A is 087. Long of A is PM.

Long of B will be

Q.9

1.

12o W

2.

6o W

3.

30o W

4.

None

An ac is flying a 24,320, at 30 NM from station indicated reading will be

1.

34

2.

32.5

3.

30.2

4.

30.5

Q.10. Ac hdg 170 (M) ADF 345(R). Make 45o intercept of 355 track OB. Hdg to intercept
and ADF reading at the time of intercept will be
ADF/intercept HDG
1.

310/175

2.

040/135

3.

045/130

4.

130/090

Q.11. GMT X (36o 50N 010o14 E) is 19:47:00 28 April. X is 1 hr ahead of GMT. LMT
and ST will be
LMT

ST

1.

19:06:04: 28/4

20:06:04 28/4

2.

20:27:56: 28/4

21:27:56 28/4

3.

20:27:56: 28/4

20:47:00 28/4

4.

19:06:04: 28/4

18:47:00 28/4

Q.12 A DG is set to read 090 hdg and located at 50o N 60DE W. Observed drift is 8o /hr
reading decreasing. Real drift will be
1.

3.5 decreasing.

2.

3.5 increasing.

3.

4 decreasing.

4.

1.6 decreasing.

Q.13 On Mercator Chart scale at 60o N is 1:2000,000 scale at 40o N will be

1.

1:3080000

2.

1:3000000

3.

1:2683200

4.

1:2560000

Q.14 Ac take off position 53o S 178o 30 W flies RL track of 090T for 300 NM. New
position is
1.

53S 17630 E

2.

53S 17010 E

3.

53S 17010 W

4.

53S 17830 E

Q.15 Factor affecting Density Altitude

A- reduction in barometric pr
B- increase in barometer pr
C-reduction in temp
D- increase in temp
E- reduction in RH
F-increase in RH
SELECT which causes DA to increase
1.

B, C, D

2.

A, D, F

3.

B, C, F

4.

A, D, E

Q.16. Earth is at greatest distance from Sun at

1.

Spring Equator.

2.

Aphelion

3.

Perihelion

4.

Summer solstices.

Q.17. ADC has inputs from

1.

all pressure instrument, gyro computer and engine instrument.

2.

Pressure and temp sensor only.

3.

Autopilot control system and all winds.

4.

All flying control surface.

Q.18 Duration of time for apparent solar day is

1.

>24 hrs.

2.

< 24 hrs.

3.

can be < or >

4.

24 hrs.

Q.19 ACARs stands for

1.

Aircraft communication, addressing and reporting system

2.

Airborne collision and resolution system.

3.

Aircraft collision avoidance and reporting system.

4.

None.

Q.20. Max pulse range radar is given by

1.

PRF

2.

Pulse width

3.

PRP

4.

Beam width

Q.21. Radio altimeter transmits a frequency which is

1.

Variable

2.

Increasing at known rate.

3.

Constant.

Q.22. Nano second is

1.

.001 micro second.

2.

.01 micro second.

3.

.01 micro second.

4.

.0001 micro second.

Q.23 Localiser needle of ILS indication when fully deflected to L or R are

1.

10o

2.

> 5 <10o

3.

2.5 o or more

4.

less than 2.5 o

Q.24. Which of the following should not trigger OFF warning flag on VOR
1.

site error > 1 o

2.

Standby station on line.

3.

ground monitor failure.

4.

outside usable range from station.

Q.25. Real wander is caused by

1.

Incorrect drift.

2.

Topple due to earth rate.

3.

Transportation of gyro.

4.

Lat nut correction.

Q.26. AH employs
1.

Rate gyro

2.

Earth gyro

3.

Tied gyro

4.

Space gyro

Q.27. List errors of Mach Meter.

1.

Compressibility, Lag blockage.

2.

Barometric instrument, compressibility, position

3.

Blockage and instrument.

4.

Barometric, instrument and position

Q.28. The VOR receiver check can be made.

1.

At designated check point on airport surface.

2.

Any where on airport as transmitter is transmitting all 180 o readials.

3.

Any where in the air.

4.

All the above.

Q.29. Following is a situation of reverse sensing

1.

Fail to change OBS

2.

Flying reciprocal

3.

Setting OBS 90 o

4.

Flying 90 o to station.

Q.30. Ac is homing to station on radial 270 with 10 port drift. It is asked to approach on
radial 290. The .. turn to
1.

right by 60o

2.

Left by 60o

3.

Left by 50o

4.

Left by 90o

Q.31. Maintaining a constant heading the ADF needle increases from Relative bearing of
045 to 090 in 6 minutes. Time to go to station is
1.

8 minutes.

2.

7 minutes.

3.

6 minutes.

4.

None

Q.32 DME is a . Radar and operates in .. band

1.

Secondary

SHF

2.

Primary

SHF

3.

Secondary

UHF

4.

Primary

UHF

Q.33. Maintaining a magnetic hdg of 270, TAS 130 kts radial 360 from a VOR is crossed
at 12:37 and radial 350 is crossed at 12:43 hrs. Approx time and distance to
station is
1.

36 min/78

2.

42 min/91

3.

44 min/96

4.

42 min/104

Q.34. Wing tip bearing changes by 15o in 8 minutes with TAS of 90 Kts. Fuel
consumption is 8.6 gal/hr. Time, distance and fuel required to go to station is
1.

48, 32, 4.58

2.

32, 48 4.58

3.

27, 45, 6.5

4.

48, 4, 5.58

Q.35. Compressibility is corrected for, when obtaining

1.

EAS from RAS

2.

RAS from IAS

3.

TAS from EAS

4.

None

Q.36. An ac descend at constant Mach number through isothermal layer, RAS of ac will

1.

Increase.

2.

Decrease

3.

remain same.

4.

Decrease initially and then same.

Q.37. When accelerating on a westerly hdg in NH the magnet assembly of DRC, when
viewed from above will turn
1.

clockwise towards North.

2.

Anti-clockwise towards North.

3.

Clockwise towards south.

4.

Anti-clockwise towards North.

Q.38. Purpose of caging knob is to

1.

Prevent gyro topple.

2.

Reset heading

3.

Reset gyro and prevent topple.

4.

Prevent apparent wander.

Q.39. Local speed of sound is

1.

Kto F

2.

Kto C

3.

Kto K

4.

None

Q.40. Entering a steep turn IVSI is likely to show

1.

No change in attitude

2.

Slight climb

3.

Slight descent.

4.

Slight descent and high air speed.

Q.41 Max latitude up to which SATCOM are effective

1.

90o N/S

2.

80o N/S

3.

60o N/S

4.

40o N/S

Q.42 Ac climbs at constant RAS, TAS will and M, No, will ..

1.

Increase, decrease.

2.

Increase, increase.

3.

Decrease, decrease.

4.

Decrease, increase.

Q.43 Air speed indicator consists of a casing which has

1.

Pitot and static pressure.

2.

Static pressure.

3.

Pitot pressure.

4.

Dynamic and static pressure.

Q.44. Apparent topple of gyro is given by

1.

15 x sin lat

2.

15 x cos lat

3.

GS/60 x tan lat

4.

None

Q.45. Radio altimeter determines ac height by

1.

Phase comparison

2.

Measuring time interval

3.

Comparing frequency

4.

Employing pulse modulation pattern.

Q.46. DME in an ac flying at FL 390 indicates 15 DME, Approximate horizontal distance

of ac from DME station is
1.

12.5

2.

13.5

3.

14.5

4.

11.5

Q.47. On PAR distance from approach threshold to TDZ marker is

1.

500

2.

1000 m

3.

2000

4.

1000

Q.48. Transponder code for hijacking is

1.

7600

2.

7700

3.

2000

4.

7500

Q.49. Steady decreasing headwind will cause ac Ground speed to And to stay on
ILS Glide slop ROD should be
1.

Increase, decrease

2.

Increase, increase

3.

Decrease, increase

4.

Decrease, decrease

Q.50. Typical holding pattern is

1.

Race track

2.

Rectangular.

3.

Ellipse.

4.

Circle.

Q.51. Time of Sun rise and Sun set given in Almanac are according to
1.

GMT

2.

ST

3.

LMT

4.

ZT

Q.52 Inbound radial 190, pilot selects 195 on OBS and turn 5o to left and notes time.
Flying constant heading pilot notes the time for CDI to centre in 10 Min. ETE to
station is
1.

2.

10

3.

20

4.

60

Q.53. Flying at constant IAS, M, no, will

1.

Increase with altitude

2.

remain same with altitude.

3.

Increase with decrease in altitude.

Q.54. In level flight static tube is blocked, ASI would read

1.

Correct if FL pressure is changed.

2.

Constant if FL pressure is maintained

3.

become unserviceable and would read zero.

4.

None.

Q.55. Compressibility error effect on ASI

1.

Increases with speed.

2.

Increases with speed and increase in FL.

3.

Increases with speed and decrease in FL.

Q.56. If magnet lies in fore and aft axis with blue polarity ahead of compass position.
This will cause
1.

Max deviation on N/S heading.

2.

Increase of directive force.

3.

Decrease of directive force.

4.

Reduction in turning error.

Q.57. Advantage of flux gate (CL-2) compass over the direct reading compass is
1.

Coeff A, B and C are automatically computed.

2.

Accurate near poles.

3.

Dead beat and does not suffer from turn error.

4.

Coeff A, B and C does not suffer.

Q.58. At constant TAS if FL temperature decrease with progression of flight

1.

RAS is not affected

2.

RAS decreases.

3.

RAS increases.

Q.59. Total Air Temp is

1.

Air has suffered full effect of compressive heating.

2.

Static air temp-ram air temp.

3.

True OAT allowing for cooling.

4.

Ambient air temp

Q.60. Compared to VSI what error is eliminated by IVSI

1.

Lag

2.

Turning.

3.

Pressure.

4.

Temperature.

Q.61. Air speed indicator is calibrated to

1.

ISA at MSL

2.

ISA at 36090

3.

ISA at level ac is flying.

Q.62. On a chart which projects meridians as straight lines parallel to each other.
1.

Great circle bearings appear as curved line convex to the nearer pole.

2.

Rhumb lines appear as a straight line towards equator.

3.

Great circle bearings as straight line and Rhumb line as curved line.

4.

(1) and (2) above.

Q.63. In Mercator projection, the scale is correct at

1.

Equator.

2.

Parallel of latitude.

3.

Chosen meridian.

4.

Prime meridian

Q.64. In a Mercator chart, the scale varies as

1.

Secant of latitude, away from equator.

2.

Secant of latitude away from equator.

3.

Sin of latitude away from equator.

4.

Cos of latitude away from equator.

Q.65. In a Mercator charts, the great circles appear as

1.

Straight lines.

2.

Curved lines, concave to the equator.

3.

Curved lines, convex to the equator.

4.

Curved lines, concave to the pole.

Q.66. In a Mercator chart, the rhumb lines appear as

1.

Curved line, concave to the equator.

2.

Curved line, concave to the pole.

3.

Straight line.

4.

Curved line, convex to the equator.

Q.67. In Mercator charts, shapes get more distorted as

1.

Equator.

2.

Large areas in high latitudes.

3.

At poles.

4.

Along meridian.

Q.68. A Mercator charts are more suitable for use

1.

Only up to 70o / 75o/ N/S Lat

2.

For areas close to equator.

3.

Cant be used in polar regions.

4.

All above.

Q.69. Scale in Lamberts conical ortho projections is correct at

1.

At mid parallel

2.

Two standard parallels selection

3.

At poles.

Q.70. How the scale varies at other than the standard parallels in lamberts conical
projections.
1.

Scale contracts between standard parallels.

2.

Scale expands outside standard parallels.

3.

Scale expands between standard parallels.

4.

Both (1) and (2) above.

Q.71. Give standard time and date of arrival in Singapore of a flight of 7 hours duration
which departed Mumbai at 1000h on 12 Feb. ( ST Singapore + 8 hours)
1.

170 h on 12 feb.

2.

1930 h on 12 feb.

3.

2130 h on 12 feb.

4.

None of the above.

Q.72. Rigidity of the spinning axis of gyroscope can be increases by 1.

Increasing the speed of the aircraft.

2.

Increasing the speed of spin and mass of the rotor.

3.

Frequently resetting the Gyro.

4.

Flying according to the Gyro.

Q.73. In a Gyroscope if a force is applied to the axis will shift.

1.

To the direction of the applied force.

2.

Opposite to the direction of the applied force.

3.

Does not move at all.

4.

Moves in a direction at right angles to the direction of the applied force.

Q.74. Component R is -ve

1.

When the Red end of the Compass needle is attracted to the at warship axis
of the aircraft.

2.

When the red end of the Compass needle is attracted upwards of the
vertical axis.

3.

When the blue end of the compass needle is attracted to the forward
direction.

4.

The none of the above is correct.

Q.75. Isogonals are 1.

The lien joining all the places of the same angle of dip.

2.

The lines joining all the places of same angle of variation.

3.

The lines joining all the places of nil deviation.

4.

Represents magnetic equators.

Q.76. Co-efficient C is caused by 1.

Hard iron component P and co-efficient A

2.

Component Q and vertical soft iron in fore and aft axis.

3.

Component P and vertical soft iron in athwart ship axis.

4.

Component Q and vertical soft iron in athwart ship axis.

Q.77. The magnetic compass is swing at Bombay and coefficients A, B, C are

determined. These coefficient are completely compensated. If the aircraft if flown
to London and the compass is swing you will observe
1.

Co-efficient A, B, C are nil.

2.

Co-efficient A, B, C are present.

3.

Co-efficient B & C are present.