Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Class Questions
1. CPA-02588
For which of the following audit tests would an auditor most likely use attribute sampling?
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPA-02588
Choice "b" is correct. Attribute sampling is used to test controls. Inspecting employee time cards for
proper approval by supervisors is a test of controls. Controls often relate to authorization, validity,
completeness, accuracy, appropriate classification, accounting in conformity with GAAP, and proper
period. Look for these terms in identifying which option is a test of controls. Words such as account
balance, amount, valuation, presentation, and disclosure are more likely to relate to substantive tests.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Selecting accounts receivable for confirmation of accounts balances is a
substantive test.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Making an independent estimate of the amount of a LIFO inventory is a
substantive test.
Choice "d" is incorrect. Examining invoices in support of the valuation of fixed asset additions is a
substantive test.
2. CPA-02602
As a result of tests of controls, an auditor assessed control risk too low and decreased substantive
testing. This assessment occurred because the true deviation rate in the population was:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less than the risk of assessing control risk too low, based on the auditor's sample.
Less than the deviation rate in the auditor's sample.
More than the risk of assessing control risk too low, based on the auditor's sample.
More than the deviation rate in the auditor's sample.
CPA-02602
Choice "d" is correct. If the actual deviation rate in the population exceeds the maximum deviation rate
based on the sample, control risk will be understated, since the control will be less effective than sample
results would indicate.
Choice "a" is incorrect. No comparison should be made between the true deviation rate and the risk of
assessing control risk too low.
Choice "b" is incorrect. If the true deviation rate is lower than the deviation rate in the sample, control risk
may be assessed at a rate that is too high, potentially leading to audit inefficiencies.
Choice "c" is incorrect. No comparison should be made between the true deviation rate and the risk of
assessing control risk too low.
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CPA-02620
Choice "c" is correct. Erroneously concluding that an account balance is materially misstated is an
example of incorrect rejection.
Choice "a" is incorrect. The assessment of control risk relates to tests of controls, not to tests of details
(substantive testing).
Choice "b" is incorrect. The assessment of control risk relates to tests of controls, not to tests of details
(substantive testing).
Choice "d" is incorrect. If the auditor had concluded that the account was fairly presented when, in fact, it
was not, it would be an example of incorrect acceptance.
4. CPA-02594
An auditor who uses statistical sampling for attributes in testing internal controls should reduce the
planned reliance on a prescribed control when the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk equals the tolerable rate.
Sample rate of deviation is less than the expected rate of deviation used in planning the sample.
Tolerable rate less the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the sample rate of deviation.
Sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate.
CPA-02594
Choice "d" is correct. The auditor will reduce reliance on a control if the upper deviation rate exceeds the
tolerable rate. The upper deviation rate consists of the sample deviation rate plus an allowance for
sampling risk. Therefore, if the sample deviation rate plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the
tolerable rate, that is equivalent to the upper deviation rate exceeding the tolerable rate.
Choice "a" is incorrect. If the sample deviation rate plus the allowance for sampling risk equals the
tolerable rate, the auditor may still place the planned amount of reliance on the control.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Whether the actual sample deviation rate is less than the expected deviation rate
is irrelevant for making decisions about planned reliance levels.
Choice "c" is incorrect. If the tolerable rate less the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the sample rate
of deviation, then the upper deviation rate is less than the tolerable rate. This situation supports the
planned reliance, and no reduction in planned reliance would be necessary.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Expected
amount of
misstatements
No
Yes
No
Yes
Measure of
tolerable
misstatement
No
Yes
Yes
No
CPA-02617
Choice "b" is correct. When planning a particular sample for a substantive test of details, the auditor
should consider how much monetary misstatement in the account might exist without causing the
financial statements to be materially misstated (tolerable misstatement) as well as the expected size and
frequency of misstatements.
Choices "a", "c", and "d" are incorrect, per the above explanation.
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$1,000
$2,000
$5,000
$10,000
CPA-02584
Choice "b" is correct. The sample error of $1,000 ($5,000 $4,000) is projected to the entire interval
through use of a "tainting factor" of 20% ($1,000/$5,000). If this were the only misstatement discovered
by the auditor, the projected misstatement of this sample would be 20% of $10,000, or $2,000.
Choice "a" is incorrect, as the sample error of $1,000 needs to be projected to the entire interval.
Choices "c" and "d" are incorrect, per the above explanation.
8. CPA-02596
In addition to evaluating the frequency of deviations in tests of controls, an auditor should also consider
certain qualitative aspects of the deviations. The auditor most likely would give broader consideration to
the implications of a deviation if it was:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPA-02596
Choice "d" is correct. The auditor should consider both the qualitative and the quantitative aspects of
deviations in tests of controls. Qualitative aspects might include whether deviations are indicative of an
error or fraud. Such an evaluation is important because fraud is intentional, has implications beyond the
direct monetary effect, and requires consideration of the implications for other aspects of the audit. Thus,
a deviation initially concealed by a forged document is very serious and deserves broader consideration
than a deviation of the same dollar amount due to an error.
Choice "a" is incorrect. The fact that a deviation was the only one discovered would have no importance
beyond its impact on the computation of the upper deviation rate.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Discovery of a deviation identical to one discovered during the prior year's audit is
not necessarily cause for additional concern.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Employee misunderstanding of instructions is an inherent limitation of internal
control and is not necessarily cause for concern.
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CPA-02927
Choice "a" is correct. An integrated test facility uses test data commingled with actual data to test
transactions.
Choice "b" is incorrect. An input controls matrix is an input control.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Parallel simulation involves writing a computer program that duplicates the logic
of a client's program, using identical data as input, and comparing output.
Choice "d" is incorrect. A data entry monitor is an input control.
10. CPA-02920
Which of the following computer-assisted auditing techniques processes client input data on a controlled
program under the auditor's control to test controls in the computer system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Test data.
Review of program logic.
Integrated test facility.
Parallel simulation.
CPA-02920
Choice "d" is correct. Parallel simulation is a technique in which the auditor reprocesses the client's data
using the auditor's own software. The auditor then compares his or her results to those obtained by the
client.
Choice "a" is incorrect. The test data approach uses the auditor's input data on the client's system, offline.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Reviewing program logic is not a computer-assisted audit technique.
Choice "c" is incorrect. An integrated test facility uses the auditor's input data on the client's system, online.
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I only.
II only.
Either I or II.
Neither I nor II.
CPA-02547
Choice "c" is correct. An engagement to examine and report on a written assertion by management is an
example of an attest engagement. Management may present its written assertion either in 1) a separate
report that will accompany the practitioner's report, or 2) a representation letter to the practitioner.
Choices "a", "b", and "d" are incorrect, based on the above explanation.
14. CPA-02551
In reporting on a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in an attest engagement, a
practitioner should include a paragraph that describes the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPA-02551
Choice "d" is correct. In reporting on a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in an attest
engagement (not an audit), the practitioner's report should include a paragraph stating that, because of
inherent limitations of any internal control, errors or fraud may occur and not be detected.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Documentary evidence need not be provided in the practitioner's report.
Choice "b" is incorrect. The practitioner need not mention any changes in internal control since the last
report.
Choice "c" is incorrect. The practitioner should not describe any potential benefits that might result from
the practitioner's suggested improvements.
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CPA-05604
Choice "b" is correct. Under the Single Audit Act, materiality is determined separately for each major
federal financial assistance program.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Under a GAAS audit, materiality is determined in relation to the financial
statements taken as a whole. Under a GAGAS audit, materiality levels may be lower due to the public
accountability of the entity, the various legal requirements, and the visibility and sensitivity of
governmental programs, activities, and functions.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Materiality must be determined before risk assessments.
Choice "d" is incorrect. Under the Single Audit Act, all balances need not be tested.
19. CPA-03579
Wolf is auditing an entity's compliance with requirements governing a major federal financial assistance
program in accordance with Government Auditing Standards. Wolf detected noncompliance with
requirements that have a material effect on the program. Wolf's report on compliance should express:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPA-03579
Choice "c" is correct. If material instances of noncompliance are identified, the auditor should express
either a qualified or adverse opinion on compliance.
Choice "a" is incorrect. The auditor's report directs the reader to a separate schedule of findings after
stating the importance of compliance testing and indicating that providing an opinion on compliance is not
an objective of the audit.
Choice "b" is incorrect. The auditor's report directs the reader to a separate schedule of findings after
stating the importance of compliance testing and indicating that providing an opinion on compliance is not
an objective of the audit.
Choice "d" is incorrect. If material instances of noncompliance are identified, a disclaimer of opinion is not
appropriate.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Direct reporting
of illegal acts
Yes
Yes
No
No
Reporting on
internal controls
Yes
No
Yes
No
CPA-04628
Choice "a" is correct. Government auditing standards (GAS) prescribe additional standards on the direct
reporting of illegal acts. For example, the auditor is required to directly report illegal acts discovered
during the audit to federal inspector generals if management fails to disclose such illegal acts to the
grantor or fails to take appropriate remedial action. In addition, GAS also prescribe additional standards
related to internal control reporting, such as requiring that the auditor provide a written report on internal
control in every financial statement audit.
Choices "b", "c", and "d" are incorrect, based on the above explanation.
21. CPA-03514
Although the scope of audits of recipients of federal financial assistance in accordance with federal audit
regulations varies, these audits generally have which of the following elements in common?
a. The auditor is to determine whether the federal financial assistance has been administered in
accordance with applicable laws and regulations.
b. The materiality levels are lower and are determined by the government entities that provided the
federal financial assistance to the recipient.
c. The auditor should obtain written management representations that the recipient's internal auditors
will report their findings objectively without fear of political repercussion.
d. The auditor is required to express both positive and negative assurance that illegal acts that could
have a material effect on the recipient's financial statements are disclosed to the inspector general.
CPA-03514
Choice "a" is correct. Audits of federal financial assistance under the Single Audit Act require that the
auditor determine if the auditee has complied with laws, regulations, and provisions of the contracts or
grant agreements.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Materiality in audits of federal financial assistance is set at the program level and
is not determined by the government entities that provided the federal financial assistance to the
recipient.
Choice "c" is incorrect. If the internal auditors are considered organizationally independent for internal
auditing purposes, then they can be considered independent when conducting audits external to the
government entity to which they are routinely assigned. Organizationally independent refers to the audit
organization being outside of line management, reporting to the chief executive or administrative officer;
that is, the internal auditors will report their findings objectively without fear of political repercussion.
However, in this case, an external auditor need not be involved in the audit, and no written management
representations regarding the internal auditors need be obtained.
Choice "d" is incorrect. In audits of federal financial assistance under the Single Audit Act, the auditor
does not express negative assurance on those items not tested.
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23. CPA-02533
Which of the following matters would an auditor most likely include in a management representation
letter?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Communications with those charged with governance concerning weaknesses in internal control.
The completeness and availability of minutes of stockholders' and directors' meetings.
Plans to acquire or merge with other entities in the subsequent year.
Management's acknowledgment of its responsibility for the detection of employee fraud.
CPA-02533
Choice "b" is correct. The purpose of the management representation letter is to confirm management's
oral evidence supplied during the engagement. Specific written representations obtained by the auditor
should include acknowledgment as to the completeness and availability of minutes of stockholders' and
directors' meetings.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Communications those charged with governance are generally not included in the
management representation letter, whereas communications from regulatory agencies regarding
noncompliance with, or deficiencies in, financial reporting practices would be included.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Management's subsequent plans need not be included in the management
representation letter, unless they will affect the carrying value or classification of assets and liabilities.
Choice "d" is incorrect. Management acknowledges its responsibility for the fair presentation of the
financial statements and states that they are unaware of any employee fraud, but does not acknowledge
responsibility for the detection of employee fraud.
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