TORDILLO (Edited For Ans)

ELEMENTS
IN
MODULE 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The function of the clutch in the machine

tool is:
A. lowering of drive speed
B. alignment of drive shaft
C. to disconnect or connect at will the drive
D. to insure that two shafts line up at high
speed
Height of tooth above the pitch circle or the
radial distance between pitch circle and top
land of the tooth
A. top root
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting tooth
In involute teeth, the pressure angle is often
defined as the angle between the line of
action and the line tangent to the pitch
circle. It is termed as:
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
C. angle of obliquity
D. arc of action
In the selection of wire rope, regular lay
means wires and strands are arranged in
the following manner:
A. twisted in same direction
B. twisted in any direction
C. twisted in opposite direction
D. twisted in along direction
Also called eccentrically loaded bearing is
__________________.
A. full bearings
B. offset bearing
C. partial bearing
D. bearing
The property of material that relates the
material strain to longitudinal strain.
A. stress
B. strain
C. Poissons ratio
D. endurance limit
The angle included between the side of the
thread measured in an axial plane in a
screw thread:
A. angle of thread
B. angle between thread or 40
C. helix angle thread
D. half angle thread or 20
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for
use in an excess of ___________ fpm.
A. 3600
B. 4800
C. 6000
D. all of these
9. Ability to resist deformation under stress:
A. plasticity
B. all of these
C. stiffness
D. toughness
8.
The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or the

ratio of pitch diameter to the number of
teeth.
A. lead
B. module
C. involute
D. clearance
11. For an evenly distributed and uniform
wear on each meshing gear tooth, the ideal
design practice is to consider a ________.
A. wear resistance alloy addition to tooth
gear
B. heat treatment of gears
C. hardening of each tooth
D. hunting tooth addition
12. The changes in shape or geometry of the

body due to action of a force on it is called
deformation or ___________.
A. shear stresses
B. stresses
C. compressive stress
D. strain
MACHINE
DESIGN
13. Could be defined as simply push or pull.
A. work
B. force
C. inertia
D. power
14. The differential of shear equation is which
one of the following
A. bending moment of the beam
B. tensile strength of the beam
C. slope of the elastic curve
D. load of the beam
15. Gear used to transmit power at high
velocity ratios between non-intersecting
shaft that are usually but not necessarily at
right angle
A. helical gear
B. bevel gear
C. worm gear
D. spiral gear
16. The ratio of moment of the inertia of the
cross sections of the beam to the section
modulus.
A. equal to the radius of gyration
B. equal to the area of the cross section
C. measure of a distance
D. beam measure
17. Opposite direction parallel forces:
A. concurrent
B. coplanar
C. couple
D. non-coplanar
18. Which of the following is the structural class
of steel?
A. high speed steel
B. tool and die
C. low carbon
D. high carbon
A. working stress
B. operating stress
C. residual stress
D. shear stress
25. It is used to change rotary motion to
reciprocating motion:
A. helical gear
B. rack gear
C. worm gear
D. spur gear
26. It is recommended not to have a direct
drive and sprockets if the ratio of the teeth
exceeds ________ use two or more step
combination.
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
27. The motion of an object diminished/
decreased speed:
A. deceleration
B. all of the above
C. retarded motion
D. negative impulse
28. Most popular soldering material:
A. 10/80
B. 45/55
C. 50/50
D. 60/40
29. The following pertain to joining of metals
except:
A. welding
B. soldering
C. casting
D. brazing
30. Killed steel is always associated with:
19. Continous stretching under load even if the

stress is less than the yield point
A. plasticity
B. elasticity
C. creep
D. ductility
20. It is recommended for high speed
application that the minimum number of
teeth in small sprocket should be:
A. 26 to 30
B. 12 to 16
C. 26 to 28
D. 18 to 24
21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch diameter in
inches to the number of teeth
A. module
B. diametral pitch
C. English Module
D. circular
22. The concave portion of the gear where it
joins the bottom of the tooth space:
A. fillet curve
B. fillet radius
C. bottom curve
D. fillet
23. The distance of the tooth which is equal to
the addendum and dedendum:
A. full
B. whole depth
C. working depth
D. dedendum
24. Stresses that are independent of loads:
A. silicon
B. manganese
C. phosphorous
D. sulfur
31. The usual ratio of water to soluble oil used
as cutting fluid:
A. 50% water to 50% oil
B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
32. The good deoxidizer in steel melting:
A. manganese
B. silicon
C. all of these
D. aluminum
33. Good stabilizer in stainless steel:
A. columbium
B. titanium
C. all of these
D. tantalium
34. What is the common cutting fluids used for
cutting materials?
A. all of these
B. water with soda or borax
C. light mineral oil
D. soluble oil
35. It is considered semi-solid lubricant:
A. all of these
B. lube oil
C. graphite
D grease
D. bench vise and planner

36. Metals are conductive because:
A. the electrons are loosely bound to the
nuclei and therefore
B. having a characteristic metallic luster
C. they are on the left side of periodic table
D. they have extra electrons as inhibited by
normally possible balance state
37. The purpose of this parts in application are
to have better bearings to seal the guard
against, etc:
A. bearing journal
B. metallic seal
C. washer
D. shaft seal
38. The yield strength of a regular yellow brass
(65 to 70 % Cu, 30 to 35% Zn) can be
increased/improved by:
A. cold working
B. tempering
C. chill casting
D. heat treatment
39. Used in a cast condition steel casting with
carbon contains less than ____ %C.
A. 0.26
B. 0.15 to 0.18
C. 0.20
D. 0.25
40. Liners normally are made of
A. Cast iron
B. alloyed bronze
C. alloyed steel
D. alloyed aluminum
41. Endurance strength is normally proportional
to the ultimate strength but not with ___________.
A. yield strength
B. design stress
C. shear stress
D. all of the above
42. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous
metals.
A. copula furnace
B. crucible furnace
C. induction furnace
D. normalizing furnace
43. Alloy that improves strength of steel at high
temperature application:
A. tungsten
B. molybdenum
C. all of these
D. chromium
44. In a gear design, the total work load must
be equally shared by its arms. It must be
rigid to support these arms and also the
bead is recommended for its stiffening
value. The assumption in the detailed
design of rim thickness and depth of bead is
__________ circular pitch.
A. 0.65
B. 0.50
C. 0.56
D. 0.44
45. Tooth width measured along the chord at
the pitch circle
A. flank
B. face width
C. width of space
D. chordal thickness
46. The best instrument for measuring a
thousand of an inch
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
C. Caliper
D. Pyrometer
47. All are associated with standard material

specification EXCEPT:
A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron Steel Institute
D. American Society for testing Materials
48. The allowable stresses that are generally
used I practice are 4 ksi for manpower
transmitting shaft, 6 ksi for small, short
shaft/countershaft, etc. With these
allowable stresses what will be simplified
formula to determine transmitted HP
diameter of the shaft or even the rpm?
A. HP = D3N/80
B. HP = D3N/53.5
C. all of these
D. HP = D3N/38
49. Machine tool used for laying straight lines
on metal surfaces made of sharp tool steel
is called:
A. plain scriber
B. a trammel
C. hermaphrodite
D. divider
50. It is the difference of addendum and
dedendum which is equivalent to the whole
depth less working depth
A. fillet space
B. fillet radius
C. clearance
D. backlash
51. A lathe machine threading mechanism
A. reverse gear and lever
B. spindle gear
C. all of these
D. change stud gear
52. Separate forces which can be combined are

called:
A. non-concurrent forces
B. couple
C. combined forces
D. concurrent forces
53. That property of matter which causes it no
result any change in its motion or state of
rest:
A. brake
B. friction
C. Inertia
D. impulse
54. Negative allowance is also called:
A. Interference of metal
B. clearance
C. advance
D. allowance of positive fit
55. Which of the following is not used to
resemble the shape of tool bit?
A. round nose
B. center cut
C. square nose
D. thread cutting
56. A kind of thread in which the width of the
thread is approximately equal to the depth
of the thread and the space between
threads are approximately equal.
A. square thread
B. acme thread
C. battress thread
D. whitworth thread
57. A shaft is to be checked for concentricity. A
suitable method of performing the check is:
A. bench centers and dial indicator
B. bench bottom and caliper
C. bench top and tachometer
58. For moderate speed of mating gears, the

ideal ratio of contact is:
A. 1.25 4
B. 1.2 1.45
C. 1.0 1.3
D. 1.35 1.45
59. Nominal diameter of the bolts is the
A. major diameter
B. minor diameter
C. mean diameter
D. average diameter
60. A lathe with multiple cutting stations:
A. turret lathe
B. lathe machine
C. milling machine
D. grinding machine
61. Major and minor diameters are commonly
used in:
A. screw thread
B. bolt
C. gear
D. all of these
62. The distance of helical gear or worm would
thread along its axis in one revolution if it
were free to move usually is called:
A. length of action
B. line of action
C. land
D. lead
63. Length of contact between two mating
parts in a screw and nut threads measured
axially is called:
A. arc of contact
B. depth of engagement
C. length of engagement
D. axis of contact
64. If the velocity of a mass is the same all the
time during which motion takes place is
called:
A. deceleration
B. uniform motion
C. acceleration
D. none of the above
65. Device used to measure accurately speed:
A. speedometer
B. dial indicator
C. tachometer
D. dial gauge
66. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it
will take pressure to put the parts together.
The allowance is said to be negative and is
termed as:
A. negative tolerance
B. negative allowance
C. negative fits
D. interference of metal
67. When two elastic bodies collide, which of
the following laws can be used to solve for
the resulting velocity?
A. Daltons law
B. Avogadro
C. Conservation of energy
D. Conservation of momentum and
Conservation of Energy
68. The ability of a metal to be deformed
considerably without rupture is called:
A. Plasticity
B. all of these
C. ductility
D. malleability
69. Permanent deformation of strain may occur

without fracture:
A. malleability
B. elasticity
C. ductility
D. plasticity
70. It is the science of motion that can be
showed in terms of scalar or vector algebra:
A. Kinematics
B. curvilinear translation
C. projectiles
D. acceleration
71. A system of forces in space is in
equilibrium. If two equal and opposite
collinear forces are added, which of the
following if any is true?
A. equilibrium is destroyed
B. equilibrium maintained
C. none of these is true
D. an unbalance of moment exist
72. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant is?
A. zinc
B. antimony
C. babbit
D. lead
73. A mechanism which is usually do the
indexing in a machine tool:
A. universal chuck
B. slotter
C. dividing head
D. indexing
74. It equalizes the energy exerted and the
work done thus preventing excessive or
sudden changes of speed:
A. flywheel
B. balance wheel
C. all of these
D. flywheel pulley
75. The smallest area at the point of rupture of
a tensile specimen divided by the original
area is called:
A. percentage elongation
B. Izod test
C. Charpy test
D. Percentage reduction of area
76. The product of the resultant of all forces
acting on a body and the time that the
resultant acts:
A. angular impulse
B. angular momentum
C. linear impulse
D. linear momentum
77. Which of the following is not a structural
class of steel?
A. low carbon steel
B. tool and die steel
C. high chrome alloy steel
D. high strength low alloy steel
78. Poissons ratio is the ratio of:
A. shear strain to compressive strain
B. elastic limit to compressive strain
C. lateral strain to longitudinal limit
D. elastic limit to proportional limit
79. All are associated with the grade of steel,
EXCEPT:
A. SAE 43XX
B. SAE 13XX
C. SAE 10XX
D. SAE 74XX
80. The property of material which relates the
lateral strain to the longitudinal strain:
A. stress
B. strain
C. Poissons ratio
D. strength
81. The maximum stress to which a material
may be subjected before failure occurs:
A. ultimate strength
B. ultimate stress
C. endurance limit
D. tensile stress
82. Hypoid gear is a special type of gear for:
A. worm gear
B. spur gear
C. herringbone gear
D. bevel gear
83. Considered a maximum safe center
distance of sprockets should be _______
inches. Very long center distance cause
centenary tension in the chain.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50
84. Cold working of steel plates makes the
metal:
A. tougher
B. more ductile
C. harder
D. more malleable
85. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for
work on steel or cast iron is _______ degrees
A. 48
B. 63
C. 59
D. 50
86. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may
used the date experienced by link-belt for
1/8 inch to 1 pin and the breaking stress is
_______ ksi.
A. 40
B. 55
C. 50
D. 45
87. Deals only with the motion of bending
without reference is the forces that causes
them:
A. dynamics
B. kinetics
C. statics
D. kinematics
88. The property that characteristics a material
ability to be drawn into a wire:
A. ductility
B. thermal conductivity
C. tensile strength
D. endurance limit
in repair works of some materials. It is

called:
A. spot welding
B. bronze welding
C. brazing
D. gas welding
92. It is advised that in rubber belts
application/mounting, it should have an
initial tension of ____ inch/ply.
A. 18 to 24
B. 15 to 20
C. 12 to 15
D. 10
93. Normal stress relieving temperature for
hard steel:
A. 200 to 350F
B. 400 to 500F
C. 300 to 400F
D. 450 t0 550F
94. Most effective alloying element for reducing
brittleness of steel at very low temperature:
A. manganese
B. molybdenum
C. silicon
D. nickel
95. Statement that a given body is in static
equilibrium means that the body cannot:
A. have any type of motion
B. be acted upon by more than one force
C. undergo any displacement
D. have any acceleration
96. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and
elasticity significantly at about ______ C.
A. 900-1000
B. 800-900
C. 700- 850
D. 600 700
97. Clearance to a new boiler installation to the
existing
A. 2000 mm (max)
B. 1000 mm (max)
C. 2130 mm (max)
D. 2150 mm (max)
98. For a high cohesion resistant stainless steel,
what minimum chromium content is
required?
A. 8 %
B. 4.3 %
C. 1.1 %
D. 5.8 %
99. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of
about:
A. 4500
B. 4400
C. 4200
D. 3600
89. The three-moment equation may be used to

analyze:
A. tapered column
B. continuous beam
C. compressive beam
D. axially and loaded beam
90. What is the common shop practice to
prevent solder from running away from its
surface to be joined?
A. all of these
B. surround the work with clay
C. introduce around the work rolled with
cloth
D. put asbestos sheeting around the work
91. Non-ferrous filler metal is melted into
grooves or as fillet on the mother metal; the
base metal is not melted. This commonly
used for joining iron based machine parts or
100. What type of gear is used for high speed

operation?
A. helical
B. spur
C. bevel
D. worm
7.
A type of coupling that allows slight amount

of torsional/angular flexibility due to
introduction with some elastic material
cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in
the flange.
A. simple elastic bonded coupling
B. elastic-material bushed coupling
C. elastic material bonded coupling
D. all of these
8.
In a uniformly loaded beam, the maximum

vertical shearing force occurs
A. at the center
B. at the section of maximum moment
C. at beam bottom fiber
D. at either end support
9.
Copper and most of its alloys can be

hardened by:
A. patenting
B. cold working
C. case hardening
D. soaking
10. What happens to a drill if the operating

speed is too fast?
A. drill will crack
B. drill will become overheated and will be
drawn from the steel
C. drill will become overheated and will
bend
D. drill will become very dull and wear dust
class of steel?
A. low carbon steel
B. stainless steel
C. medium carbon steel
D. tool and die steel
MODULE 2
1.
In a pair of gears, _______ is the plane

perpendicular to the axial plane and
tangent to the pitch surface.
A. pitch
B. pitch plane
C. pitch circle
D. pitch point
12. The section modulus of a rectangle if base

b and height h about its base is:
A. bh2/6
B. bh3/3
C. bh3/12
D. bh2/12
13. A material that should be avoided in
constructing wood pattern:
2.
The phenomenon of continuous stretching

under load even if the stress is less than the
yield point:
A. elasticity
B. ductility
C. plasticity
D. creep
3.
The machinery operation whereby done

with the work accurately fastened has
reciprocating (forward and backward)
motion and the tool head is stationary.
A. shaping
B. planing
C. turning
D. reaming
4.
Finding the resultant of two or more forces

is called:
A. coplanar forces
B. non-coplanar
C. couple
D. composition
5.
6.
The capacity of metal to withstand load

without breaking is:
A. strength
B. stress
C. elasticity
D. strain
Outstanding safety record contributes to:
A. High productivity and quality of work
B. Outstanding performance that expects
reward from management
C. Confidence in foremens ability to
perform well
D. Pride and Enthusiasm to one-self
A. sap wood
B. kiln dried wood
C. heart wood
D. core portion of wood
14. The gradual chemical reaction by other
substance such that metal is converted to
an oxide or other compounds:
A. corrosion
B. Cheaping
C. Rusting
D. Weathering
15. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or
cone with a total height of H is:
A. H
B. 3/5 H
C. 1/3 H
D. H
16. Which do not belong to foundry or metal
casting shop?
A. shake-out machine
B. molding machine
C. coremaking
D. forging machine
17. What is the property of a material which
resists forces acting to pull the material
apart?
A. shear strength
B. tensile strength
C. torsional strength
D. compressive strength
18. The reciprocal of diametral pitch equivalent

to the ratio of pitch diameter to the number
of teeth:
A. lead
B. clearance
C. module
D. involute
19. What is the difference between brass and
bronze?
A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc
while bronze is composed of copper and
zinc
B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc
while bronze is basically copper and tin plus
non-ferrous alloy such as manganese,
aluminum and chromium
C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a
mixture of copper and antimony
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and
tin while brass is a mixture of copper and
antimony
20. The first derivative with respect to velocity
of kinetic energy is:
A. power
B. energy
C. momentum
D. none of these
21. The arbitrary modification by removing a
small portion of a tooth material at the tip
of the gear tooth is called:
A. tip removal
B. tip undercut
C. tip relief
D. pressure angle cut
22. Types of V-Belts to use in driving pulley with
speed of 350 rpm and transmitting 5 hp:
A. Type C belts
B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts
23. What type of gears that can transmit power
at an angle?
A. helical gear
B. worm gear
C. bevel gear
D. herringbone gear
24. A liquid metal:
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
25. An object thrown upward will return to earth
with the magnitude of the terminal velocity
equal to:
A. zero
B. one-half of the initial velocity
C. twice the initial velocity
D. the initial velocity
26. Used in conjunction with circular cross
sectional members to retain oil and prevent
dirt, foreign particles, moisture and to
permit pressure differential between
exterior and interior of the applied part:
A. Seal
B. Gasket
C. Safety shield
D. Packing
27. Commonly used in parallel-shaft,
transmission especially when a smooth,
continuous section is essential as in high
speed drives up to 12,000 fpm:
A. bevel gear
B. herringbone gear
C. spur gear
D. helical gear
28. The hardness of helical gear and

herringbone gear teeth after heat treatment
is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness, for gear and

pinion is at:
A. 360 Brinell min
B. 400 Brinell max
C. 340-360 normally
D. all of the above
29. The path of contact in involute gears where
the force/power is actually transmitted. It is
a straight imaginary line passing through
the pitch point and tangent to the base
circle.
A. principle reference lane
B. pitch point
C. front angle
D. line of action
30. What is the difference between a shaper
and planer?
A. the tool of the shaper moves while the
planer is stationary
B. the shaper can perform slotting
operation while the planer cannot
C. the shaper handles large pieces while the
planer handles only small pieces
D. the tool of the shaper moves in
reciprocating motion while the tool in the
planar moves in rotary motion
31. What is the metal characteristics to
withstand forces that cause twisting?
A. torsional strength
B. modulus of elasticity
C. twisting moment
D. elasticity
32. In greater quantity this element is harmful
to the ferrous metal:
A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
33. To prevent leakage in dynamic seal:
A. gaskets
B. seals
C. felts
D. packing
39. Galvanized steel plate is a plate coated

with:
A. Aluminum
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Lead
40. Major component of bronze casting:
A. Copper
B. Manganese
C. Zinc
D. Lead
41. Split pulley or pulley made of separate
sections bolted together at the rim, the
maximum speed should be limited to about
______ % of the maximum speed of solid
pulley.
A. 65 to 75 %
B. 45 to 50 %
C. 55 to 60 %
D. 80 to 90 %
42. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
introduced to:
A. improve the look of the parts
B. reduce concentration of stress and
extend life of the parts
C. to avoid obstruction
D. necessary to lessen casting weights
43. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both ends:
A. stud bolts
B. acme threaded bolts
C. square threaded bolts
D. hex bolts
44. Heating of the metal to a temperature
above the critical temperature and then
cooling slowly usually in the furnace to
reduce the hardness and improve the
machinabality is called:
A. Annealing
B. Tempering
C. Normalizing
D. Quenching
45. A hydrostatic bearing is one which:
34. It has molybdenum alloy except:

A. SAE 43XX
B. SAE 41XX
C. SAE 6XXX
D. SAE 2XXX
35. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder of
ring:
A. rack gear
B. ring gear
C. miter gear
D. internal gear
36. Flexible material used to seal pressurized
fluids, normally under dynamic condition:
A. nylon
B. seal
C. teflon
D. packing
37. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature
application:
A. manganese-nickel steel castings
B. high chrome steel casting
C. chrome-nickel steel casting
D. high manganese casting
38. What heat treatment process can cast steel
materials of high chrome, high
manganese,etc. type of steel be subjected
for the purpose of machining process?
A. Annealing
B. Tempering
C. Normalizing
D. Quenching
A. the lube oil is supplied under pressure

B. lube oil is not pressurized
C. there is no lube oil
D. bearing is lightly loaded
46. One of the following materials is unsuitable
as a bearing:
A. Teflon
B. Low Carbon Steel
C. Cat iron
D. Nylon
47. Safety features that must be placed and
maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding
and foundry shop:
A. safety goggle
B. walk away guide
C. safety notices in markings
D. all of these
48. The angle, at the base cylinder of an
involute gear, that the tooth makes with the
gear axis:
A. base helix angle
B. pressure angle
C. arc of recess
D. arc of approach
49. A kind of thread that is generally used:
A. UNEC
B. UNC
C. UNF
D. UNEF
50. Which is not the generally used standard:
A. ASTM
B. SAE
C. IPS
D. AISI
51. Alloy steel known for its resistance to
corrosion, abrasion and wear that is usually
ideal for mill grinding of ore in cement and
concentrator application with molybdenum
to increase the depth hardening:
A. manganese chromium steel
B. chromium molybdenum steel
C. chrome-nickel-moly steel
D. manganese-moly steel
52. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material
available in the market with carbon content
of 0.28cto 0.34 % C.
A. SAE 4132
B. SAE 4320
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 4130
53. In a pair of gears is it the plane that
contains the two axis, in single gear, it may
be any plane containing the axis and the
given point.
A. axial plane
B. pitch plane
C. normal plane
D. all of the above
54. Accident prevention is:
A. an association of employers,
organizations and individuals
B. the foremens responsibility just as much
as production
C. a job of a safety director
D. the responsibility of top management
55. Heating of metal above the critical
temperature and then cooling slowly usually
in the furnace to reduce the hardness and
improve the machinability is called:
A. normalizing
B. annealing
C. tempering
D. quenching
56. A type of welding whereby a wire or powder
from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a
gas flame, arc or plasma jet and the molten
particles are projected in a form of a spray
by means of compressed air or gas.
A. electro-slug welding
B. electro-beam welding
C. plasma-arc welding
D. metal spray welding
57. Killed steel is very much associated with:
A. manganese
B. sulphur
C. phosphorous
D. silicon
58. The concave portion of the tooth profile
where it joins the bottom of the tooth
space.
A. fillet curve
B. fillet
C. undercut
D. plane
59. The length of arc between the two sides of
a gear tooth on the pitch circle:
A. circular thickness
B. axial plane
C. helix angle
D. chordal angle
60. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast
metal is being heated to a very high
temperature then suddenly subjected to
rapid cooling to improve hardenability or
wear resistance is called:
A. normalizning
B. tempering
C. quenching
D. annealing
61. To reduce cost in manufacturing of large

worm gears the material to utilize:
A. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron
spider
B. bronze rim with cast steel spider
C. all of these
D. cast iron with bronze spider
62. The differential of the shear equation is
which one of the following:
B. load of the beam
C. tensile strength of the beam
D. slope of the elastic curve
63. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment:
A. SAE 1060
B. SAE 1117
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 102O
64. A circle bounding the bottoms of the teeth:
A. addendum circle
B. addendum cylinder
C. pitch circle
D. dedendum circle
65. A unit deformation is called:
A. torsion
B. strain
C. stress
D. shear
66. An oil storage roof formed to approximately
a spherical surface, supported only at its
periphery:
A. self-supporting umbrella roof
B. self-supporting cone roof
C. self-supporting
D. supporting cone roof
67. Test sometimes referred to as an upsetting
test:
A. bend
B. flaring
C. flange
D. crush
68. An oil storage roof formed to approximately
the surface of a right cone, supported only
at its periphery:
A. self-supporting umbrella roof
B. self-supporting doem roof
C. supported cone roof
D. self supporting cone roof
69. Have the same thermal and minimum film
thickness limitation as sleeve bearing:
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. thrust bearing
D. oil whip
70. Test is designed primarily for application to
electric-welded tubing for detection of lack
of penetration or overlaps resulting from
flash removal in the weld:
A. butt weld
B. paste
C. lap weld
D. double butt weld
71. Is a form of correction that develop on a
highly localized areas in metal surface:
A. crevice
B. erosion
C. galvanic
D. apitting
72. The deterioration of organic coating
characterized as completely:
A. chalking
B. rusting
C. checking
D. fritting
73. A gear is one which is 90 deg that is the
pitch cone has become a plane:
A. angular gear
B. crown gear
C. miter gear
D. spiral bevel gear
74. A machine used for the testing of very thin
steel or surface layers:
A. Charpy test
B. Izod test
C. Description
D. Rockwell superficial
75. A cone formed by elements which are
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch
cone at the large end:
A. cone distance
B. back cone
C. root cone
D. cone center
76. The temperature above which the alloy I
liquid and will run:
A. melting point
B. flow point
C. pour point
D. liquidus
77. A weld made to hold the parts of a
weldment in proper alignment until the final
welds are made:
A. butt weld
B. tack weld
C. fillet weld
D. full fillet weld
78. Is used to enable milling machine to take
climb milling cuts:
A. helical driving mechanism
B. spindle
C. read out
D. backlash eliminator
79. The total amount of permanent extension of
the gage length measured after the
specimen has fractured and is expressed as
percentage increase of the original gage
length:
A. elongation
B. strain
C. stress
D. elastic limit
80. It refers to any layer or deposit of
extraneous material on a heat-transfer
surface:
A. low line
B. pressure drop
C. fouling
D. scaling
81. Steels containing large amounts of mild
nickel and chromium:
A. carbon steel
B. stainless steel
C. alloy steel
D. cast steel
82. The corrosion of iron or iron-base-alloys:
A. rusting
B. crazing
C. chalking
D. fritting
83. The ratio of stress to the corresponding

strain below the proportional limit
A. stress-strain diagram
B. gage method
C. modulus of elasticity
D. tensile strength
84. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the

thickness of the thinner joint member:
A. butt weld
B. tack weld
C. lap weld
D. full-fillet weld
85. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on a
shafts at 90 deg:
A. crown gear
B. spur gear
C. angular gears
D. miter gears
86. Gearing in which the motion of power that
is transmitted depends upon the friction
between the surface in contact:
A. bevel cones
B. spur friction wheels
C. evans friction cones
D. friction gearing
87. Wheels are sometimes used for the
transmission of high power when an
approximately constant velocity ratio is
desired:
A. bevel cones
B. friction gearing
C. spur friction wheels
D. evans friction cones
88. A corrosion occurs within the or adjacent to
a crevice formed by contact with another
piece of the same or another metal:
A. pitting
B. galvanic
C. erosion
D. crevice
89. A weld of approximately triangular crosssection that join two surface at
approximately right angles as in lap joint,
tee-joint, corner joint:
A. single welded lap joint
B. fillet weld
C. tack weld
D. butt weld
90. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony, or
sometimes lead:
A. gold
B. babbitt
C. aluminum
D. cast iron
91. A weld place in a groove between two
abutting members:
A. full-fillet weld
B. tack weld
C. butt weld
D. fillet weld
92. A t6est for pipe used for cooling in sizes 2
inches:
A. flaring
B. crush
C. flange
D. bend
93. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a
plane parallel to the axis of rotation:
A. cam curves
B. cylindrical cam
C. tangential cam
D. radial cam
94. Strength of a material that is of a stress
intensity determined by considering the
maximum test load to act over the original
area of the test specimens:
A. yield point
B. ultimate strength
C. breaking strength
D. elastic limit
D. rectangle
95. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a
plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation
of the cam:
2.
A. spindle-nose tooling
B. milling machine vise
C. vertical milling attachment
D. milling machine arbors
A. cam curves
B. cylindrical cam
C. tangential cam
D. radial cam
96. Impacts of reciprocating motion to a singlepoint cutting tool:
3.
4.
97. A joint between two overlapping members
in which the overlapped edge of one
member is welded with a fillet weld:
5.
99. The maximum stress which is reached

during a tension test:
7.
Gears used to transmit power between

shafts axis of which intersect:
A. spur gear
B. bevel gear
C. helical gear
D. straight gear
An iron has physical properties closely

resembling those of mild steel:
A. malleable cast iron
B. malleable iron
C. white iron
D. gray iron
100. If gears cannot connect parallel shafts, they

are called:
A. cycloidal gears
B. helical gears
C. spur gears
D. toothed gears
An important accessories of milling

machines:
A. milling machine vise
B. cutters
C. ram
D. vertical milling attachment
6.
A. stress
B. elasticity
C. strain
D. tensile strength
They are usually the steel or steel casting:

A. mild steel
B. carbon steel
C. firebox steel
D. drop-forge-dies
98. Welded-metal impact specimen shall be

taken across the weld face substantially
parallel to and within:
A. in
B. 1/32
C. in
D. 1/16 in
The cheapest and the most abundant

engineering material:
A. steel
B. aluminum
C. cast iron
D. Babbitt
A. dividing head
B. slotting attachment
C. circular pitch
D. circular milling arrangement
A. a single welded lap joint

B. double-welded lap joint
C. a single-welded lap joint with backing
D. tack weld
Milling machine accessories are used to

hold milling cutter in the milling machine:
8.
An iron in which most of the carbon is

chemically combined with the iron:
A. cast iron
B. gray iron
C. white iron
D. malleable iron
10. A machine used in testing steel generally

strike the specimen with an energy from
220 to 265 ft-lb:
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Rockwell test
D. Test blocks
11. The area in the machine shop whose metal
is being melted to form a new shape is the:
A. foundry area
B. tool and die
C. welding area
D. mass production rate
12. Which of the following is not the work of the
machinist:
A. reboring
B. overhauling
C. grinding
D. boring
MODULE 3
1.
The size of an equal-leg length fillet weld

shall be based on the length of the largest:
A. isosceles right triangle
B. square
C. right triangle
14. Which of the following is not part of a lathe

machine:
A. fan
B. carriage
C. headstock
D. tailstock
15. One important skill that operators of
machine tools must have an understanding
of measurement which demands:
A. speed
B. neatness
C. precision
D. sociability
16. Which of the following metals is nonmagnetic?
A. manganese steel
B. cast steel
C. alloy steel
D. cast iron
17. Which tool does not belong to the group?
A. vise grip
B. feeler gage
C. torque wrench
D. adjustable wrench
18. What process does not belong to the group?
A. brazing
B. soldering
C. hardening
D. resistance welding
19. A machinery operation whereby the tool
rotates while the feed is stationary:
A. shaping
B. milling
C. turning
D. reaming
The space between the adjacent teeth:

A. tooth
B. backlash
C. flank
D. width
9.
D. lathe machine
13. The machine which can flatten surface on a

horizontal, vertical or angular plane is:
A. drilling machine
B. shaper machine
C. power saw
20. Which of the following is not a kind of cast

iron:
A. gray iron
B. white iron
C. malleable iron
D. lead iron
21. Which of the following is not used to temper
steel?
A. oil bath
B. brine/salt bath
C. steam bath
D. water bath
22. Which of the following is not a part of a
headstock?
A. anvil
B. spindle
C. motor
D. back gear
23. The ability of material or metal to resist
being crushed is:
A. fatigue strength
B. bending strength
D. compressive strength
24. Which of the following metal is easy to
chisel?
A. alloy steel
B. manganese steel
C. stainless steel
D. cast iron
25. Ferrous metal contain a relatively large
amount of:
A. manganese
B. carbon
C. sulfur
D. phosphorous
26. Which of the following is not a classification
of iron ore:
A. siderite
B. hematite
C. sulfurite
D. magnetite
27. The ability of metals to stand loads without
breaking down is:
A. strain
B. stress
C. elasticity
D. strength
28. Herringbone gears are gears which:
A. do not operate on parallel shafts
B. have line of contact between the teeth
C. tend to produce end thrust on the shaft
D. consists of two left handed helical gears
29. In general, the design stress and factor of
safety are related as follows:
A. Design = ultimate stress divided by
factor of safety
B. Design = ultimate stress times factor of
safety
C. Ultimate = stress factor for safety
divided by design stress
D. factor of stress = design stress divided
by ultimate stress
30. The internals stresses existing in a welded
connection are:
A. relieved by x-ray analysis
B. may be relieved when weld is peened
C. not relieved when the weld is peened
D. not relieved by heat treatment
31. In the usual spur gearing the:
A. pitch circle and base circle are the same
B. working depth includes the clearance
C. tooth outline are always cycloidal curves
D. tooth outline are usually involute curves
32. One of the following is not common terms

relating to the classification:
A. tunking
B. snug
C. medium-force fit
D. bound
33. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron
coated with:
A. tin
B. zinc
C. magnesium
D. aluminum
34. Stainless steel is obtained principally by the
use of which alloying element:
A. chromium
B. nickel
C. carbon
D. tungsten
35. One of the following is not at tap used for
cutting threads in holes:
A. tapping tap
B. plug tap
C. taper tap
D. bottoming tap
36. A machining operation whereby the tool
reciprocates and the feed is stationary, is
called:
A. planning
B. shaping
C. turning
D. reaming
37. One of the following metals which respond

to heat treatment:
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
D. low carbon steel
38. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large
amount of:
A. carbon
B. manganese
C. phosphorous
D. sulfur
39. Which of the following is not a strength
property of metals?
A. tensile
B. rocking strength
C. fatigue
D. torsional strength
40. A machine used in shaping metal by means
of abrasive wheel or the removal of metals
with an abrasive is called:
A. planer machine
B. power saw
C. shaping machine
D. grinding machine
48. The stress strain curve for a glass rod

during tensile test is:
A. a straight line
B. a parabola
C. a sudden break
D. an irregular curve
49. When shear strain curve for a glass rod
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
D. minimum or maximum
50. Percentage reduction of area while
performing tensile test on cast iron may be
of the order of:
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 0%
D. 15 %
51. The intensity of stress that causes unit
strain is known as:
A. Unit stress
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Modulus of elasticity
52. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as
compared to in tension is nearly:
41. Which of the following is not a kind of

mandrel?
A. expansion mandrel
B. taper mandrel
C. contraction mandrel
D. gang mandrel
42. The kind of center which is being attached
and meshed to the tailstock spindle which is
also static while the work is rotating is:
A. dead center
B. live center
C. focal center
D. work center
43. Which of the following is not a part of the
headstock?
A. spindle
B. anvil
C. back gear
D. motor
44. Which process does not belong to the
group?
A. resistance welding
B. soldering
C. hardening
D. brazing
45. The ratio of the average shear to maximum
shear stress for a circular section equal to:
A. 2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D.
46. When a solid cube is subjected to equal
normal forces of the same type on all its
faces. The ratio of volumetric strain/linear
strain along any of the three axes will be
equal to:
A. 1
B. 2
C.
D. 3
47. The ratio of Bulk modulus to shear modulus
for Poissons ratio of 0.25 will be equal to:
A. 3/2
B. 5/6
C. 1
D. 6/3
A. same
B. half
C. one-third
D. two-third
53. Select the one that has no unit:
A. Kinematic viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Bulk modulus
D. Strain
54. When a part is constrained to move and
heated, it develops:
A. principal stress
B. tensile stress
D. shear stress
55. The tensile stress of a material is given by:
A. Maximum load during test over Original
cross-sectional area
B. Average load during test over Original
cross-sectional area
C. Maximum load during test over Area at
the time of fracture
D. Average load during the test over Area at
the time of fracture
56. The size of hole that is drilled in plates for
riveting is:
A. equal to the diameter of rivet shank
B. slightly smaller than the diameter of rivet
shank
C. 1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of
rivets of 25 mm and above size
D. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of
the rivet for rivets 25 mm and above size
57. The horsepower that can be transmitted by
a shaft 60 mm diameter at 180 rpm with
permissible shear stress of 850 kg/cm2 shall
be approximately:
A. 30-35
B. 35-50
C. 50-60
D. 60-85
58. A column is called short column when:
A. the length is more than 120
B. Slenderness ratio is more than 120
C. The length is less than 8 times the
diameter
D. the slenderness ratio is more than 32
59. Which one is the correct statement about

true stress-strain method?
A. there is no such phenomenon like true
stress or true strain
B. True stress is load per unit area (actual)
and similarly true strain is determined
under actual conditions
C. This method can be used for
compression test as well
D. It is more sensitive to changes in
mechanical conditions
60. The total strain energy stored in a body is
called:
A. Resilence
B. Proof resilience
C. Modulus of resilience
D. Toughness
61. A material that is capable of absorbing a
large quantity of energy before fracture is
called:
A. Ductility
B. Toughness
C. Resilience
D. Shock proof
62. Coaxing increases the:
A. Strength by reversible cycling
B. Corrosion resistance by spraying
C. Hardness by surface treatment
D. Fatigue resistance by over-stressing the
metal by successively increasing loadings
63. Two shafts made up of mild steel one
having circular cross section and the other
being hollow circular with inner diameter
half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the
torque that can be transmitted in two cases
give by:
A. 2
B. 17/16
C. 1
D. 15/16
64. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the
value of shear stress is equal to:
A. is uniform throughout
B. Has maximum value at the axis
C. Has maximum value at the surface
D. Is zero at the axis and linearly increases
to a maximum value at the surface of the
shaft
65. In laminated spring the strips are provided
in different lengths for:
A. Economy
B. Reduction in weight
C. Improved appearance
D. Equal distribution stress
66. Select the one for which diamond riveted
joint can be adopted:
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted joint
D. All types of joint
67. Hoop stress refers to:
A. Circumferential tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Radial stress
D. Longitudinal stress
68. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the
ratio of:
A. Linear stress to longitudinal strain
B. Stress to volumetric strain
C. Shear stress to shear strain
D. Stress to strain
69. 1 Meganewton per square meter is equal to:
A. 1,000,000 N/mm
B. 10,000 N/mm2
C. 100 N/mm2
D. 1 N/mm2
70. The value of shear stress changes is
induced in the shaft because of the applied
couple that:
A. From maximum at the center to zero at
the circumference
B. From zero at the center to maximum at
the circumference
C. From maximum at the center to
minimum at the circumference
D. From minimum at the center to
maximum at the circumference
71. In the design of pulley, key and shaft:
A. All three are designed for same strength
B. Key is made weaker link
C. Pulley is made weaker
D. Shaft is made weaker
C. The tangent of the angle of the net

resultant force with the direction of motion.
D. The friction force acting on a body when
it is in motion
80. The limiting force of friction is equal to:
A. The value of friction force that stops the
movement of the body.
B. The value of the friction force that cannot
exceed under a given situation
C. The friction force when the body is just
about to move
D. The friction force acting on a body when
it is in motion
81. Ice is slippery when a man walks on it
because:
A. It has a smooth surface
B. It has no friction
C. It is very chilly
D. Increase of pressure causes it to melt
72. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a

thick cylinder is:
A. Maximum at inner surface and decreases
towards outer surface
B. Minimum at inner surface and increased
C. Minimum at inner and outer surfaces and
maximum in middle
D. Maximum at inner and oiter surfaces and
minimum in middle
73. Auto frottage is the method of:
A. Calculating stresses in thick cylinders
B. Relieving thick cylinders
C. Prestressing thick cylinders
D. Increasing life of thick cylinders
74. Ties are load carrying members that carry:
A. Torsional loads
B. Axial compressive loads
C. Axial tension loads
D. Transverse loads
75. If the areas of cross sections of square and
circular beams are same and both are put
to equal bending moment, then the correct
statement is:
A. The circular beam is more economical
B. The square beam is more economical
C. Both the beams are equally strong
D. Both the beams are equally economical
76. In actual machines:
A. Mechanical advantage is unity
B. Mechanical advantage is less than
velocity ratio
C. Mechanical advantage is less than unity
D. Mechanical advantage is equal to
velocity ratio
77. The essential condition of equilibrium of a
body is:
A. The algebraic sum of horizontal
components of all forces must be zero
B. The algebraic sum of vertical
components of all forces must be zero
C. The algebraic sum of forces about a point
must be zero
D. All of the above
78. Coulomb friction is:

A. Friction between two electrically charge
bodies
B. Friction between two bodies having
relative motion
C. Friction between a solid and a liquid
D. Friction between two dry surfaces
79. The coefficient of friction is equal to:
A. The angle between the normal reaction
and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting friction
B. The tangent of the angle between the
normal reaction and the resultant of the
normal reaction and the limiting friction
82. One joule is the same as:

A. 106 ergs
B. 107 ergs
C. 105 ergs
D. 108 ergs
83. Static friction is:
A. Always greater than the dynamic friction
B. Always less than the dynamic friction
C. Always equal to the dynamic friction
D. Either greater or more than the dynamic
friction
84. When two forces that act at a point are
such that if the direction of one is reversed,
the direction of the resultant is turned
through 90, the forces must be:
A. Equal in magnitude
B. Inclined at less than 90
C. Inclined at more than 90
D. Acting at 180
85. The curve of a catenary by nature is:
A. Ellipse
B. Hyperbolic
C. Circular
D. Parabolic
86. If the only force acting on two bodies is
their mutual interactions and if both bodies
start form rest, the distance traveled by
each will be a:
A. Proportional to the masses of the bodies
B. Inversely proportional to the masses of
the bodies
C. Inversely proportional to the square of
the masses of the bodies
D. Directly proportional to the square of the
masses of the bodies
87. Which statement is correct?
A. A body cannot have any energy without
having momentum.
B. A body can have kinetic energy without
having momentum
C. A body in motion will always have kinetic
energy more than the potential energy.
D. None of the above
88. A man is standing near the edge of a
uniformly rotating platform about an axis
passing through its center. The speed of
rotation of the platform will decrease if he:
A. Moves towards the axis of rotation
B. Accepts a heavy bag form one of its
friends standing near by and hold it in his
hand
C. Extend his arm outwards
D. Jumps out from the platform
89. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a:
A. Lower pair
B. Sliding pair
C. Higher pair
D. Cylindrical pair
A. The direction of rotation of first and last

gear is opposite
B. The direction of rotation of first and the
last gear
C. The first and last gear are in the same
shaft
D. The first and the last gear are essentially
on separate by parallel shafts
90. Select the one that is a higher pair:

A. Thomson indicator mechanism
B. Harts straight line mechanism
C. Crossby indicator mechanism
D. Tooth gearing mechanism
91. The mechanism used to enlarge or reduce
moments for reproducing drawings to
different scales is called:
11. The function of a governor is to:
A. Rolling
B. Pitching
C. Steering
D. All of the above
A. Open the belt depends in sum pf the

diameter of the pulleys
B. Open belts depends on the difference of
the diameters of the pulleys
C. Cross belts depends in the sum of the
diameters of pulleys
D. Cross belt depends on the difference of
the diameter of the pulleys
Module 4
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
100. A reverted gear train is one on which:
In case of helical gears the axial plane is

given by:
A. Diametral pitch over the sine of helix
angle
B. Diametral pitch over the cosine of helix
angle
C. Diametral pitch over the cotangent of
helix angle
D. Diametral pitch over the tangent of helix
angle
A. store energy and give up whenever

needed
B. Regulate the speed during one cycle of a
prime mover
C. Increase variation of speed
D. Adjust variation of speed by varying the
input to the engine
12. According to law of gearing:
A. Teeth should be of involute type
B. Clearance between mating teeth should
be provided
C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.157 m
D. None of these
13. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary
motion between two shafts whose axes are:
A. Parallel
B. Non-coplanar
C. Non-intersecting
14. If D and T be the pitch circle diameter and
no. Of teeth of a gear, then its circular
pitch:
A. DT
B. T-D
C. D-T
D. D/T
15. If D1 and T1 be the diameter and no. Of teeth
of gear 1 and D2 and T2 the corresponding
values of other gear in mesh, then speed
ration N1/N2 will be equal to:
A. D1/D2
B. D1/D2 x T2/T1
C. T1/T2
D. D2/D1
16. Cold working:
A. Increase the fatigue strength
B. Decrease the fatigue strength
C. Has no influence on fatigue strength
17. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing:
6.
A cam wherein the follower reciprocates or

oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of
the cam is called:
A. Cylindrical cam
B. Reciprocating cam
C. None of the above
D. Circular cam
7.
Rope brake dynamometer uses:

A. Oil is lubricant
B. Water is lubricant
C. Grease is lubricant
D. No lubricant
99. Module can be expressed in:

A. mm
B. mm/no. of teeth
C. dimensionless
Gears for watches are generally

manufactured by:
A. Die Casting
B. Machining on hobber
C. Machining on a gear shape
D. Stamping
98. The cam angle is:

A. The angle of rotation of the cam for a
define displacement of the follower
B. Angle subtended by live portion of cam
at the cam center
C. The angle subtended at the cam center
by the portion of cam during which the
follower moves.
D. The angle subtended by the cam at the
cam center when the follower dwells
In case of gears the addendum is given by:

A. One module
B. 2.157 x module
C. 1.57 x module
D. 1.25/module
97. The pitch point on a cam is:

A. Any point in pitch curve
B. The point of cam pitch that has the
maximum pressure angle
C. A point of a distance equal to pitch circle
radius from the center
In case of cross helical worm the axes of

two shafts are:
A. Parallel
B. Intersecting
C. Non-parallel
D. Non-parallel-non-intersecting
96. A cam with a roller follower would

constitute, which type of pair?
A. Lower pair
B. Higher pair
C. Open pair
D. Close pair
In case of spur gears the flank of the tooth

is:
A. The part of the tooth surface lying below
the pitch surface
B. The curve forming face and flank
C. The width of the gear tooth measured
axially along the pitch surface
D. The surface of the top of the tooth
95. Kinematic pairs are those parts that have:

A. Point or line contact between the two
elements when in motion
B. Surface contact between the two
elements when in motion
C. Elements of pairs not held together
mechanically
D. Two elements that allow relative motion
A. cps
B. gram
C. gm-cm-cps
D. gm-cm
A. Expansion Valve
B. Slide Valve
C. Flywheel
D. Governor
92. When a ship is traveling in sea, which of the

effect is more dangerous?
A. Loss of power
B. Difference between the angular velocities
of two pulleys
C. Difference between the velocities of two
pulleys
D. Difference between the linear speed of
the rim pulley and the belt on it.
94. In case of flat belt drive the length of belt in
case of:
In a balancing machine the units for

unbalance measurements are:
10. The supply of working fluid to the engine to

suit the load conditions can be controlled
by:
A. Clinograph
B. Trisquare
C. Graphometer
D. Pantograph
93. Slip in belt drive is:
9.
8.
Which of the following dynamometer is

widely used for absorption of wide range of
powers at wide range of speeds?
A. Hydraulic
B. Belt transmission
C. Rope Brake
D. Electric Generator
A. Metal strength by cycling

B. Metal hardness by surface treatment
C. Metal resistance to corrosion by coating
D. Fatigue limit by overstressing the metal
by successively increasing loadings
18. The notch angle of the Izod impact test
specimen is:
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 45
19. In Vickers hardness testing, the pyramid
indentor apex is:
A. 40
B. 136
C. 161
D. 122
20. In testing, a material for endurance

strength is subjected to:
32. Universal coupling is:

A. used for non-collinear shafts
B. rigid coupling
C. type of flange coupling
D. used for collinear shafts
A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic
D. Completely reversed load
B. Composite material
C. Homogeneous material
D. Heterogeneous material
44. Rankine formula is valid up to slenderness
ratio of:
33. A flange coupling is:

21. Select the correct statement:
A. A member made of steel will generally be
more rigid than a member of equal loadcarrying ability made of cast iron
B. A member made of cast iron will
generally be more rigid than a member of
equal load carrying ability made of steel
C. Both will be equally rigid.
D. Which one is rigid will depend on several
other factors
22. In majority of machine members, the
damping capacity of the material should be:
A. low
B. zero
C. high
D. could be anything
A. Major diameter
B. Pitch diameter
C. Minor diameter
A. Shaft diameter/shaft length

B. Column height/Column cross section
C. Column height/least dimension of column
cross section
D. Length of strut/least radius of gyration
34. In flange coupling the weakest element

should be:
A. flange
B. shaft
C. bolt brush
D. key
A. Left hand threads on both ends

B. Right hand thread on both ends
C. Left hand threads on one end right hand
threads on the other end
D. Through slots are made at a top and a
cotter pin is passed through
36. Elastic nut is a locking device that has:
A. On small nut is tightened over main nut
B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut
C. Hard fibre or nylon cotter is received in
the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing tight grip
D. Through slots are made at top and a
cotter pin is passed through
24. Muntz metal contains:

A. copper-nickel
B. copper-zinc
C. copper-tin
D. copper-aluminum
25. A Babbitt is:
A. a eutectoid of iron and iron phosphide
B. a gadget for measuring
C. a measure of magnetic induction
produced in a material
D. antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
ball
bearings
are
A. Turning
B. Bolting
C. Casting
D. Cold heading
27. The blow of pressure of a safety valve is:
A. slightly more than atmospheric pressure
B. half of the boiler working pressure
C. equal to boiler working pressure
D. 106 % of boiler working pressure
28. In case of a knuckle joint the pin is most
likely to fail in:
A. compression
B. shear
C. tension
D. double shear
29. Splines are used when:
A. the power to be transmitted is low
B. the power to be transmitted is high
C. the torque is high
D. axial relative motion between the shaft
and hub is necessary
30. Splined shafts are generally used in:
A. machine tools
B. aircraft
C. bicycles
D. automobiles
31. Which key normally used in wrist watch?
A. kennedy key
B. tangent key
C. sunk key
45. Slenderness ratio of a column is:
46. In hydrodynamic bearings:

A. The oil film pressure is generated only by
the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil
under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
D. Grease is used for lubrication
35. Turn buckle has:
23. The crest diameter of a screw thread is

same as:
26. Steel
balls
for
manufactured by:

B. used for collinear shafts
C. flexible
D. used only on small shafts rotating at low
speeds
A. 80
B. 150
C. 60
D. 120
37. Treating the welds as a line, the moment of

inertia about center of gravity of a circular
weld of diameter d would be:
A. d2/36
B. d/6
C. d3/36
D. d3/4
38. A single ply leather belt running at a
velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit
per inch width:
A. 2.5 HP
B. 5.0 HP
C. 4.0 HP
D. 3.0 HP
39. For but welding of two plates each of which
is 25 mm thick, the best process would be:
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
D. Electro slag welding
40. The compression members tend to buckle
in the direction of:
A. Axis of load
B. Perpendicular to the axis of load
C. Minimum cross section
D. Least radius of gyration
41. The diameter of a washer is generally:
A. Equal to the diameter of the bolt
B. Slightly more than the diameter of bolt
C. Slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
D. Of any size that suits the application
42. If the lead angle pf a worm is 22 1/2 then
the helix angle will be:
A. 45
B. 67 1/2
C. 90
43. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to
be made up of:
A. Clad material
47.
The rayed life of a bearing changes:

A. directly as load
B. inversely as fourth power of load
C. inversely as cube of load
D. incversely as square of load
48. In oil less bearings:

A. the oil film pressure is produced only by
B. the oil film is maintained by supplying oil
under pressure
C. do not need external supply of lubricant
D. grease is needed to be applied after
some intervals
49. In cross or regular lay ropes:
A. Direction of twist of in strands is opposite
to the direction of twist of strands
B. Direction of twist of wires and strands are
same
C. Wires in two adjacent strands, are
twisted in opposite direction
D. Wires are not twisted
50. Gears for wrist watches
manufactured by:
are
generally
A. lead angle
B. pitch angle
C. helix angle
D. pressure angle
51. The type of cam used for low and moderate
speed engines is generally:
A. Harmonic
B. Tangent
C. involute
D. Flat
52. The form coefficient of a spring is:
A. The load/unit deflection
B. Load/spring area
C. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
D. Its capability of store energy.
53. Coriolis component of acceleration is found
in:
A. Four bar mechanism
B. Lower pair
C. Mechanism of steam engine
D. Wit worth quick return motion
54. Cold working materials:
B. Decreases the fatigue strength
C. Does not change fatigue strength
D None of the above
55. A Babbitt is:
A. A eutectic of iron and iron phosphide

B. A gadget for measuring volume
C. Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
D. A measure of magnetic induction
67. The maximum size of the fillet weld that

can be used at:
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 5 mm
56. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth is:

A. Cycloid
B. Epicycloid
C. Straight rack
D. Involute
57. Spiral gears are suitable for transmitting:
A. small power
B. no power but motion only
C. any power
D. huge power
58. As pump speed increases, its (NPSH) net
positive suction head requirement:
A. Increases
B. Remains
D. Decreases
59. In pump NPSH requirements are not
satisfied:
A. it will not develop head
B. Efficiency will be low
C. It will consume excessive power
D. It will be cativated
61. Which of the following ropes will be most

flexible?
A. 6 by 9
B. 6 by 7
C. 8 by 19
D. 6 by 37
62. The working load (P) for a chain for crane
application is expressed in terms of
diameter of link d in cm as follows:
A. P=1.5d2
B. P=50d2
C. P=500d2
D. P=25d2
63. If the square key and the shaft are to be of
the same material and of equal strength,
the length of key would be (d = shaft
diameter)
A. d
B. 1.5d
C. 2d
D. 1.23d
A. 6 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 3 mm
69. A rolled steel that flat designated as 50 ISF
8 means:
A. the flat is 50 mm and 8 mm thick
B. the flat is 50 mm wide and 8 mm thick
C. The flat has cross section 50 sq. Mm and
width 8 mm
D. The flat has cross section 50 sq. Mm and
depth 8 mm
70. The column splice is used for increasing:
A. Strength of the column
B. Cross-sectional area of the column
C. Length of the column
D. All of the above
71. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
A. Helical gears
B. Spiral gears
C. Herringbone gears
D. Bevel gears
72. In order to realize the advantage of fluid
friction, it is essential to have:
A. Parallel oil film in bearing
B. Converging oil film
C. No oil film
D. Diverging oil film
73. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at
slow speed inside a bearing will be:
A. At bottom most of bearing
B.Towards left side of bearing making metal
to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and making
no metal contact
74. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
B. Stages at whic further heating does not
increase temperature for sometime
C. Stages at which properties do not change
with increase in temperature
D. There is nothing like points of arrest
75. Delta iron occurs at temperature of:
A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400 to 1539C
D. Between 1000C to 1400C
64. In a standard coarse thread bolt, the stress

concentration is maximum at:
A. root
B. flank
C. all over the surface
D. top surface
65. Fatigue strength of a syrface may be
increased by:
A. Making surface rough
B. Filling the surface
C. Applying concentrated hydrochloric acid
on the surface
D. Polishing the surface
66. The maximum deflection allowed in gantry
griders is:
A. L/200
B. L/500
C. L/300
D. L/1000
occurs
when
part
is
A. compressive stress
B. tensile stress
C. torsion
D. fluctuating stress

can be made in single pass is:
60. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?

A. Bush roller
B. Pintle
D. Silent
79. Fatigue failure

subjected to:
76. Gamma iron exists at following

temperature:
A. Room temperature
B. Near melting point
C. Between 1400 to 1539C
D. Between 1000C to 1400C
77. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in
temperature range of:
A. Below 723C
B. 700-910C
C.1000-1440C
D. 1400-1539C
78. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma
iron at:
A. 970C
B. 910C
C. 440C
D. 1639C
80. A body having identical properties all over it

is called:
A. Homogeneous
B. Elastic
C. Ductile
D. Isentropic
81. If a material recovers its original
dimensions, when the load is removed, it is
called:
A. Plastic
B. Elastic
C. Brittle
D. Annealed
82. A behavior of metals where in strength of a
metal is increased and the ductility is
decreased on heating at a relatively low
temperature after cold working, is called:
A. twinning
B. solid solution hardening
C. clustering
D. strain aging
83. A ductile fracture is characterized by:
A. rapid rate for crank propagation
B. negligible deformation
C. fragmentation into more than two pieces
D. appreciable plastic deformation prior to
propagation of crack
84. The ability of a material to absorb energy
when deformed elastically and to return it
when unloaded is known as:
A. creep
B. fatigue strength
C. hardness
D. resilience
85. Machining properties of steel can be
improved by adding:
A. sulphur, lead, phosphorous
B. silicon, aluminium, titanium
C. vanadium, aluminum
D. chromium, nickel
86. Eutectoids steel the percentage of carbon
is:
A. 0.02 %
B. 0.3 %
C. 0.63 %
D. 0.8 %
87. A cold chisel is made of:
A. Mild steel
B. MSS
C. Cast iron
D. High Carbon steel
88. Cyaniding is the process of:
A. Dipping steel is cyanide bath
B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat
treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness
D. Obtaining cyanide salts
89. The constituent that has a powerful
softening effect on cast iron and its
presence in cast iron reduces the ability of
the iron to retain carbon in chemical
combination is:
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. carbon
D. sulphur
C. lead
D. angle of thread
90. Tensile strength of common varieties of cast

iron is in the range:
9.
The rule of thumb in journal bearing

design, the clearance ratio/ clearance
should be:
A. 0.0090
B. 0.0042
C. 0.0010
D. 0.0012
A. 40-60 MPA
B. 150-180 MPA
C. 840-1500 MPA
D. 1500-1650 MPA
91. In carbon steel castings:
10. The moment of inertia of a rectangle

whose base b and height h about
its base is:
A. bh3/4
B. bh3/12
C. bh3/24
D. bh3/3
A. The percentage of carbon is less than

1.7%
B. The percentage of carbon is between
1.7% to 2%
C. The percentage of alloying element is
controlled
11. Cold rolled shafting is not available in

diameter larger than __________.
A. 6 inches
B. 5 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 5 inches
92. Aluminium alloys for pressure die casting:

A. Must possess considerable fluidity
B. Must not be free from hot shortness
C. Must have iron as one of the constituents
D. Must be light
12. The cast iron flywheel are commonly

designed with a factor of safety of
____________.
A. 14 to 15
B. 10 to 13
C. 8 to 9
D. 6 to 12
93. Electro-forming is especially valuable for:

A. good conductors of electricity
B. decorative items
C. thin walled parts requiring a high order of
accuracy and internal surface finish
D. non-ferrous components
94. In powder metallurgy the process of heating
the cold pressed metal powder is called:
A. sintering
B. granulation
C. deposition
D. precipitation
MODULE 5
The property of material that relates
the lateral strain to longitudinal strain
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Poissons Circle
D. Endurance Limit
1.
2.
95. Which one is different from the remaining:
A. cyaniding
B. nitriding
C. flame hardening
D. electroplating
Also
called
eccentrically
bearing is ___________.
A. full bearing
B. offset bearings
C. partial bearings
D. fitted bearings
A. austenite
B. pearlite
C. all of the above
D. martensite
In the selection of wire rope, regular

lay means wires and strands are
arranged in the following manner.
A. twisted in the same direction
C. twisted in the opposite direction
D. twisted in along the direction
4.
97. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes:

A. It easily machinable
B. It hard
C. Increases the fluidity
D. martensite
98. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in
tones/cm2 is one of the order of:
A. 3-5
B. 7-10
C. 15-22
D. 5-7
99. The machinability of steel can be increased
by:
A. silicon and sulfur
B. phosphorous, lead and sulphur
C. sulphur, graphite and aluminum
D. phosphorous and aluminium
100. Steel with 8% carbon and 100% pearlite is
known as:
A. eutectoid
B. hyper-eutectoid
C. austenite
D. solidius
In involute teeth, the pressure angle is

often defined as the angle between
the line of action and the line tangent
to the pitch circle. It is also termed as:
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
D. arc of action
5.
Height of tooth above the pitch circle

or the radial distance between the
pitch circle and top land of the tooth.
A. top root
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting tooth
6.
The function of the clutch in the
machine is:
A. lowering of drive speed
D. to ensure that two shafts line up at high
speed
7.
It is generally recommended and

normal for a designer to add a hunting
tooth to evenly distribute the wear on
meshing teeth like a 53 teeth gears
mesh with 30 teeth pinion. Find the
rotation of pinion to mesh with the
same pair of teeth again.
A. 120
B. 81
C. 61
D. 53
8.
A. couple
B. centroids
C. equilibrium
D. vector
loaded
3.
96. The hardness of steel increases if it
contains:
13. A pair of equal and opposite (not

collinear) forces that tend to cause a
rotation of a body.
The angle made by the helix of the

thread (in a straight thread) at the
pitch
diameter
with
a
plain
perpendicular to the axis is called
___________.
A. lead angle
B. truncation
14. The ratio of the pitch diameter in

inches to the number of teeth.
A. Pitch Circle
B. English module
C. Module
D. Pitch
15. When the motion is diminished/
decreasing instead of increasing is
called
A. deceleration
B. uniform negative impulse
C. retarded motion
D. all of these
16. ____________ is a unit of energy
A. ft-lb
B. hp
C. Btu/ hr
D. Watt
17. When high strength and durability are
a requirement for choosing ear
materials it is preferable to use
________ material.
A. hardened bronze
B. steel
C. phenolic laminated
D. white iron
18. __________ forces when actions are
parallel.
A. couple
B. non collinear
C. resultant
D. non concurrent
19. The product of the mass and the
velocity of the center of gravity of the
body is called
A. linear momentum
B. angular impulse
C. linear impulse
D. angular momentum
20. The distance between the similar,

equally- spaced tooth surfaces in a
given direction and along a given line.
A. pitch circle
B. pitch plane
C. pitch
D. pitch diameter
21. Could be defined as simply push or
pull.
A. power
B. inertia
C. work
D. force
22. Opposite directional forces equal in
magnitude and parallel is called ______.
A. non coplanar
B. centro
C. couple
D. coplanar
23. Quantities such as time, volume and
density are completely specified when
their magnitude is known is also
called:
A. couple
B. resultant
C. components
D. scalar
24. The use of hardened steel for the

mating metal gear appears to give the
best results and longer operational life.
The usual hardness is in the range of:
A. over 600 BHN
B. 300 to 400 BHN
C. below 350 BHN
D. below 400 BHN
25. _________ is the product of the
resultant of all forces acting on a body
and the time.
A. linear momentum
B. linear impulse
C. angular momentum
D. angular impulse
26. The separate forces which can be so
combined are called:
A. concurrent forces
B. non concurrent forces
C. couple
D. component
27. Continuous stretching under load even
if the stress is less that the yield point.
A. plasticity
B. elasticity
C. creep
D. ductility
28. The most known lubricants being
applied in whatever category of load
and speed are oil, grease and dry
lubricants
A. bronze
B. lead
C. silicon
D. graphite
29. A coupling that allows axial flexibility/
movement in the operation. Made of
alternate bolting steel, leather, fabric
and/or plastic material into the two
flanges:
A. Flexible disc coupling
B. Flexible toroidal spring coupling
C. Flexible Oldham coupling
D. Elastic-material bonded coupling
30. It consists of two cranks, a stationary
called the line of centers and the
connecting rod is a:
A. five-bar linkage
B. four-crank braces
C. three-crank linkage
D. four-bar linkage
31. Used to change rotary motion
reciprocating motion _______.
ideal design practice is to consider a

________.
to
A. rack gears
B. hypoid gears
C. helical gears
D. herringbone gears
32. The effective face width of a helical
gear divided by the gear pitch.
A. Approach ratio
B. Arc of action
C. Arc of recess
D. Face overlap
33. Pitch diameter less the diameter of the
roller chain is equal to:
A. top land
B. bottom diameter
C. addendum
D. inside diameter
34. Generally applied on speed reducer
due to large speed ratio
A. bevel gears
B. helical gears
C. worm gears
D. hypoid gears
35. If shaft is specified as ~diameter 2.00
max and 0.99 min in diameter then
the 0.010 could be defined as
_________.
A. allowance
B. fit
C. variance
D. tolerance
36. A material plane was subjected to a
load. When the load was removed, the
strain disappeared. From the structural
change, which of the following can be
considered about this material?
A. it has a high modulus of elasticity
B. it does not follow Hookes Law
C. it is plastic
D. it is elastic
37. Helix angle in the range of _______
degrees is recommended for wide face
helical gears.
A. less than 15
B. less than 20
C. 20 to 35
D. 20 to 22

gears
42. The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or
the ratio of the pitch diameter to the
no. of teeth.
A. lead
B. module
C. involute
D. clearance
43. Ability to resist deformation under
stress.
A. plasticity
B. all of these
C. stiffness
D. toughness
44. Flat leather belting not recommended
for used in a speed in excess of
_________ fpm.
A. 3600
B. 4800
C. 6000
D. all of these
45. The angle included between the sides
of the thread measured in an axial
plane in a screw thread.
A. Angle of Thread
B. Angle between the thread or 40
C. Helix angle thread
D. Half angle thread or 20
46. An elastic body whose primary
function is to deflect under load.
A. clutch
B. stopper
C. brake
D. spring
47. Steel plates allowable tensile strength.
A. 390.41 N/m2
B. 296.12 N/m2
C. 379.31 N/m2
D. 310.11 N/m2
48. Poissons ratio is the ratio of:
A. elastic limit to yield strength
B. lateral deformation to the longitudinal
deformation
C. shear strain to unit strength
D. elastic limit shear strength
38. Difference between the maximum

material limits of mating parts. Or it is
the minimum clearance or maximum
interference between parts.
49. Manganese
Steel
designation, SAE _______.
A. tolerance
B. fits
C. variance
D. allowance
A. 13xx
B. 10xx
C. 11xx
D. 8xxx
39. The concave portion of the tooth

profile where it joins the bottom of the
tooth.
50. One of these materials

structural steel?
A. root circle
B. fillet radius
C. fillet curves
D. fillet
A. low carbon steel

B. tool and die steel
C. stainless steel
D. medium carbon steel
40. The changes in shape or geometry of

the body due to action of a force on it
is called deformation or _____________.
51. The ratio of moment of inertia on a

cross-section of a beam to this section
modulus is:
A. shear stress
B. stresses
D. strain
A. a measure of distance
B. equal to the radius gyration and
compression
C. multiplied by the bending moment
D. equal to the area of the cross-section
and tension

wear on each meshing gear tooth, the
standard
is
not
52. The SAE 2340 shafting contain ______

Nickel.
C. 26 to 28
D. 18 to 24
73. The property of material wherein the

content is continuously distributed
through its entire mass.
A. 3.85 % Ni
B. 4 % Ni
C. 3.25 to 3.75 % Ni
D. 3.84 % Ni
63. Stresses that are independent of loads

is called _______.
A. plasticity
B. malleability
C. homogeneity
D. all of these
53. Chromium steel standard designation,

SAE ______.
A. working stress
B. residual stress
C. simple stress
D. combined stress
A. 92xx
B. 5xxx
C. 3xxx
D. 11xx
64. Material having a high electrical

resistance and should not be used as
the conductor of electrical current.
74. The property of material to withstand

load without breaking down is:
54. Alloy that improves strengtength of

steel at high temperature application.
A. Nickel
B. aluminum oxide
C. silicon base alloys
D. iron oxide
A. aluminum
B. manganese
C. silicon
D. chromium
65. The best material for brake drums is

_______.
55. When an air entertainment agent is

put into a concrete mix.
A. the water/ cement ration must be
reduced
B. the strength will decrease
C. minimal effect
D. the strength will suffer up to 50%
56. In general, alloys with high nickel
content retain toughness to quite low
temperature up to _____ F.
A. -380
B. -400
C. -250
D. -320
57. The differential of the shear equation
is the __________.
A. deflection of the beam
B. compressive strength of the beam
D. load on the beam
58. It is recommended not to have a direct
drive between driven and drive
sprockets if the ratio of their teeth
exceeds _______. Use 2 or more step
combinations.
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
59. The length of the hub should not be
made lesser than the face width of the
gear. Hub lengths usually vary 1.25D
to 2D, where D is the shaft diameter.
The reasonable diameter of steel hub
should be:
A. 2D
B. 1.8D
C. 1.55D
D. 1.20D
60. Length of contact between two mating
parts in a screw and nut threads
measured axially is termed ________.
A. Length of engagement
B. Axis of contact
C. Arc of contact
D. Depth of engagement
61. The sum of their addendums and
dedendums.
A. whole depth
B. full depth
C. width of space
D. working depth
62. It is recommended for high speed
application that the minimum number
of teeth in small sprocket should be:
A. 26 to 30
B. 12 to 16
A. aluminum
B. cast iron
C. steel material
D. wrought iron
A. elasticity
B. strength
C. plasticity
D. strain
75. Shafts are readily available in the
market are made in many ways and
wide variety of material composition. It
is likely be cold drawn carbon steel in
size smaller than _______ inches
diameter.
A. 3.75
B. 4
C. 5
D. 5 1/2
66. The alloy materials used in the

production of metals working tools.
A. titanium, phosphorous
B. tungsten, silicon, hadfield mn.
C. vanadium, chromium, molybdenum
D. high carbon steel
76. Plain
carbon
designation, SAE
steel
standard
A. 6xxx
B. 13xx
C. 10xx
D. 2xxx
67. Torsional deflection is a significant

consideration in the design of shaft
and the limit should be in the range of
_______.
A. 0.4 to 1
B. 0.1 to 1
C. 0.08 to 1
D. 0.6 to 1
68. The property that characterizes a
materials ability to be drawn into a
wire.
A. tensile strength
B. ductility
C. endurance limit
D. thermal conductivity
69. For steel shafting design in an average
condition, the maximum distance in
feet between the bearing to avoid
excessive linear deflection is by
formula, L=8.95D2/3 for shaft subjected
to no bending except its own weight
but for shafting with bending action of
pulley, etc. the formula then will be L=
______.
A. 4D2/3
B. 7.0D2/3
C. 5.2D2/3
D. 6.0D2/3
77. The rigidity

increased by:
of
polymer
can
be
A. furnace smelting
B. normalizing
C. crystallization
D. shot peening
78. The difference between cast steel and
cast iron.
A. all of these
B. cast steel has usually less than 1%C
while cast iron has 2% or 3.6% carbon
range
C. cast iron has lower strength, more brittle
and has lower ductility than cast steel.
D. iron is usually the initial product after
purifying iron ore then further processing by
removal of more impurities and carbon
content to be able to produce steel grade.
79. It is general practice to use the
following allowable stresses, 400 psi
for main transmitting shaft, short
shafts and countershaft. For lineshaft
carrying pulley it is ____ psi.
A. 7800
B. 7000
C. 6000
D. 6500
70. Which of the phases of steel elements

has a face-centered cubic structure?
80. Drilling machine cannot do:
A. pyrite
B. austenite
C. all of these
D. cementite
A. reaming
B. soot facing
C. tapping
D. broaching
71. Steel spring material is usually

hardened to 400 to 500 BHN and the
carbon content is in the range of
________.
81. Material charges in foundry melting

operation are composed of
A. 0.50% to 0.90%
B. all of these
C. 0.45 to 0.48%
D. 0.96 to 0.97%
72. Principal
plane.
stresses
occur
on
these
A. which are subjected to ultimate tension

B. the shearing stress is zero
C. which are subjected to maximum
compression
D. which are 45 apart
A. limestone, foundry coke and silica sand

B. iron ore, quartz, and charcoal
C. steel scrap, alloys and charcoal foundry
coke
D. scrap wood, alloys and limestone
82. _________ is a work supporting device
which is bolted to the saddle of the
lathe machine. It travels with the
cutting tool. It is a prevention of the
springing away of the workpiece from
cutting tools.
A. 6xxxrubber-flex collets
B. tool post
C. follower rest
D. carriage stop
83. Almost always the soldering materials

are a combination of the following
alloys:
A. all of these
B. lead and tin
C. tin and antimony
D. lead and antimony
1.
94. The distance from a point on a screw

thread to a corresponding point on the
next thread measure along the axis.
A. flank
B. lead
C. crest
D. pitch
84. The most popular of all soldering

materials in use has composition of:
A. 45/55% tin and lead
B. 50/50% tin and lead
C. all of these
D. 60/40% tin and lead
2.
A. 95
B. 98
C. 90
D. 92
A. 2.26
B. 1
C. 1
D. 2.59
3.
A. blade type micrometer

B. dial caliper
C. planimeter
D. micrometer
A. silica sand, bentonite, flour/paste water

B. silica sand and paste
C. silica sand, paste, graphite electrode
D. silica sand, linseed oil, flour
of
A. thimble
B. head screw
C. spindle
D. anvil
88. To avoid brittleness of weld or the
residual stress in the welding it is
normally stress relieved of ______.
A. normalizing
B. tempering
C. flame hardening
D. annealing
89. Steel with certain % of carbon
maximum can readily be welded by all
process and the resuling strength of
the portion welded is as strong as the
base material.
5.
99. Big
chain
sprocket
wheels
are
designed
with
spokes/arms
are
generally elliptical in cross section with
major axis _____ times the minor axis.
The recommended center distance of

sprockets should not less than _____ times
the diameter of bigger sprocket.
A. 1.75
B. 2
C. 1 1/2
D. 2 1/2
6.
A. 0.020
B. 1.010
C. 1.012
D. 0.150
The product of the mass and the linear

velocity of the body:
A. linear impulse
B. couple
C. linear momentum
D. vector
98. Recommended design practice for

steel lineshafting to limit the linear
deflection to _____ inch/foot of length
(maximum).
The absolute viscosity of the fluid divided

by its density expressed in the same terms
of units is also called __________.
A. centistokes
B. kinematic viscosity
C. Petroffs equation
D. tight petroleum oil
7.
A. 2
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
It improves red hardness of steel:

A. silicon
B. lead
C. cobalt
D. manganese
A. 0.15%C max
B. 0.35%C max
C. 0.25%C max
D. 0.30%C max
100. Molybdenum
designation, SAE
90. Commonly used steel melter as

deoxidizer because of its easy
availability and cheap price.
A. 88xx
B. 48xx
C. 40xx
D. 46xx
steel
standard
8.
It is required that pipes bigger than _____

mm should not be screwed but flanged
A. 76.2
B. 63.5
C. 2 1/2 inch
D. 68.5
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. zinc
D. manganese
9.
Formed by the intersection by the adjacent

flanks of adjacent threads when extended is
called:
A. crest apex
B. all of these
C. sharp root
D. sharp crest
91. Curved formed by the path of a point

on a straight line as it rolls along a
convex base curve. The base curve is
usually a circle and generally used as
the profile of gear tooth.
10. In designing the spoke or wheel arm of a

flywheel, it is ideal to consider that the
cross-sectional area of the spoke at rim side
should not be less than _____ of the cross
area at the hub side.
A. axial plane
B. involute
C. arc of recess
D. arc of action
A. 80%
B. 1/3
C. 90%
D. 3/8
92. Several force which can be obtained is

called:
A. resultants
B. composition of forces
C. components
D. collinear forces
11. The cutting up to 70 is best for drilling

extremely hard metals and for soft
materials _____ degrees may be applied.
93. Ideal herringbone gear helix is in the

range of ________.
A. 30 to 45
4.
A. saw and chisel

B. band saw
C. knives and drills
D. drill machine
A material having a high electrical

resistance and should not be used for
conductor of electric current.
A. alloyed magnesium
B. silicon base alloy
C. nickel
D. zinc
97. Tools usually used in wood pattern

making in a foundry shop.
a
A radian is equal to _____

A. 57.02
B. 57.706
C. 57.296
D. 57.190
96. Machine shop instrument for checking

the flatness of plane surfaces to 10ths
of thousands of a centimetre.
86. Which of the following raw materials

are used in the foundry molding
operation?
For acceptable ideal range of tightness

which may result from the application of
specific combination of allowances and
tolerances:
A. allowance limit
B. tolerance limit
C. interference
D. fit
95. As recommended the center to center

distance between sprockets should not
less than _____ times the bigger
sprockets.
85. The relative strength of a butt welding

could safely assumed as ______ as %
efficiency.
87. The
following
are
parts
micrometer caliper except for
B. 35 to 50
C. 25 to 30
D. 15 to 20
MODULE 6
A. 60
B. 45
C. 40
D. 48
12. Single force which produces the same effect

upon a mass replacing two or more forces
acting together is called:
A. tolerance class
B. crest truncation
C. crest clearance
D. tolerance limit
A. vector
B. resultant
C. component of forces
D. resolution
13. __________ is the process necessary to
reduce the brittleness in alloy steel.
A. martempering
B. carburizing
C. normalizing
D. tempering
14. The welded joints permit placing the added
metal exactly where needed and produce
an integral structure which can develop
_____% efficiency on any thickness section
specially for mild metal materials.
A. 95%
B. 85%
C. 100%
D. 90%
A. overloading
B. jamming
C. all of these
D. overheating
16. __________ forces means when their lines of
action can be extended to meet to one
point.
A. Concurrent
B. centroids
C. collinear
D. resultants
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 0%
A. sharp crest
B. sharp root
C. root apex
D. all of these
A. allowance
B. bottom land
C. top land
D. backlash
A. aluminum bronze
B. manganese
C. copper
D. bronze
27. Should two equal and opposite collinear
forces is added to the forces already in
equilibrium, which of the statement is true?
A. Unbalanced of moment is maintained
B. Equilibrium is disturbed
C. Equilibrium is maintained
D. It creates an unbalanced situation
A. Mn Hadfield steel
B. Chrome-moly steel
C. Stainless steel
D. High chrome steel
A. 3050
B. 4500
C. 7000
D.10000
30. The distance between rivet centers nearest
each other in adjacent rows is called
_________,
of
dimension
the
is
A. intolerance fits
B. deviation
C. allowance
D. tolerance
20. Molybdenum-chromium-nickel
designation.
A. Pitch
B. Back pitch
C. Margin
D. Diagonal pitch
31. The purpose of lubrication is mentioned
EXCEPT:
steel
A. SAE 48xx
B. SAE 43xx
C. SAE 56xx
D. SAE 46xx
21. __________ is also called strain hardening.
A. Cr
B. FeN
C. Cobalt
D. Mn
25. The width of a tooth space exceeds the

thickness of each of the engaging tooth on
the pitch circle.
29. A rule of thumb, the speed limit of flywheel

rim, speed should be 6000 fpm for cast iron
material and for cast steel flywheel rim at
_____ meters/min.
18. Imaginary formed by the intersection of the

flanks of a thread when extended is called
__________.
22. A major alloy in tool steel.
A. offset bearing
B. full bearing
C. centrally loaded bearing
D. Babbitt bearing
28. Iron base alloy containing 9-16% chromium.
17. Percentage of cut on the return stroke of

hacksaw blade is _____.
A. work hardening
B. quenching
C. annealing
D. normalizing
24. Bearing surface that completely surrounds

the journal is also called __________.
26. __________ addition imparts resistance to

atmospheric corrosion in steel, etc.
15. The lack of backlash in a spur gear

design/operation may result to _________.
19. Permissible
variation
manufactured/machined
called:
23. Distance measured perpendicular to the

axis between the crest of the thread and
the root of its mating thread in a thread
assembly of screws.
A. to lighten the load

B. prevent corrosion/adhesion
C. prevent adhesion
D. cool the moving elements
32. The process of peening the joint portion
immediately after the welding greatly
improves the fusion structures, avoids
possible
cracking,
avoids
possible
distorsion, etc. Peening can also _________
process at the same time.
A. tempering
B. martempering
C. normalizing
D. annealing
33. Resultant of two or more components forces
is also called _________.
A. component of forces
B. resultant
C. component
D. collinear forces
34. For stable equipment foundation, the total
combined engine, driven equipment and
foundation center of gravity must be kept
below the foundations to that usually about
_____ times the usual total combined weight
of the machinery it is supposed to support.
A. 3 to 4
B. 3 to 7
C. 2 to 4
D. 3 to 5
35. All associated with
specification EXCEPT:
standard
materials

B. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
C. Society of Automotive Engineers
D. American Society of Testing Materials
36. It is ideal for maximum quietness in
sprocket drive operation to choose _____ or
more teeth.
A. 24
B. 18
C. 27
D. 21
37. Shafting up to 3 inches in diameter of cold
rolled steel is __________.
A. 4 1/4 inches
B. 6 7 /8 inches
C. 6 3/4 inches
D. 5 inches
38. Designated
pipe
communication:
color
used
in
A. silver gray
B. aluminum gray
C. bare
D. white
39. Not part and in fact should not be used in
the steel melting process.
A. Coke
B. Silicon
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
40. It is rigid piece which serves to transmit
force from a piece to another piece or to
cause/control motion.
A. follower
B. crank
C. cam motion
D. link
41. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both ends.
A. Stud bolt
B. Acme thread
C. Hex bolt
D. Square threaded bolts
42. Ten normal helix angles in helical gears is
recommended in the range of _____
degrees.
A. less than 18
B. 20 to 35
C. 15 to 25
D. 20 to 30
43. The ratio of stress acting on an elastic
substance to the decrease in volume per
unit volume.
A. Bulk modulus
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Elastic limit
44. Rule of thumb in calculating the equipment
foundation mass should be _____ times the
weight of the machinery it is suppose to
support.
A. 3-5
B. 3-6
C. 3-9
D. 2-4
55. Peculiar strength of the metal to resist

being crushed.
45. The strength of non-ferrous alloys is at

maximum at room temperature while that
of ferrous metal has a maximum strength at
_____F.
A. 400 )
B. 1200
C. 450
D. 350
A. groove joint
B. fillet joint
C. edge joint
D. corner joint
57. Alloy steel used in manufacturing bolts,

studs, tubings subjected torsional stresses.
A. AISI 3141
B. AISI 2330
C. AISI 4830
D. AISI 4310
decreased
increasing
A. aluminum
B. p-type semiconductors
C. metals
D. n-type semiconductors
48. Cast iron flywheels are commonly designed
with a factor of safety of:
A. 10 to 13
B. 10 to 12
C. 10 to 14
D. 8 to 13
49. Stress relieving also __________ for the
purpose of reducing the internal stresses of
steel material/metal.
A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. All of these
D. Annealing
50. A ridge of uniform section in the form of a
helix cut around the circumference of a
cylinder and advancing along the axis.
A. Thread roots
B. Helix thread
C. Screw threads
D. Chamfers
51. Martensite (stainless steel) contains 4 to
26% Cr and a maximum of _____% nickel.
A. 2.5
B. 3.25
C. 3.5
D. 2.0
52. The design of stress and factor of safety are
related in the following manner:
A. Design stress = ultimate stress/factor of
safety
B. Ultimate stress = factor of safety/design
stress plus concentration factor
C. Factor of safety = design stress/ultimate
stress
D. Design stress = factor of safety/times
stress concentration factor
53. The material that can cut/wear hardest
substance subjected to:
A. Carbide
B. Abrasive
C. Tungsten
D. Vanadium
54. The resulting force that replace two or more
forces acting together.
A. Vector
B. Couple
C. Resultant
D. Equillibrant
56. Which of the following is not a viscoelastic

material?
A. Teflon
B. Plastic
C. All of these
D. Metal
46. The welding made along the edges of two

parallel plates is called __________.
47. Class of material exhibiting

electrical conductivity with
temperature.
A. Shear strength
B. Ultimate strength
C. Compressive strength
D. Elastic limit
58. Method of finishing/shaping a machine part

of exceptionally high carbon or high
chromium steel parts (or very hard
material)
A. Using oxygen lanching
B. Machining using carbide insert
C. Using abrasive grinding
D. Machining with high speed tool steel
59. In a chain drive for large speed reduction it
is preferable to use a double reduction or
compound type of transmission instead of
single two sprockets transmission. Drives
should be so designed that the angle
between two tight chain strands does not
exceed _____ degrees.
A. 45
B. 60
C. 55
D. 90
60. Steel springs are made of high carbon steel,
heat treated and/or cold worked to a high
elastic limit to get good elastic deflection.
IN general the carbon content is at
__________.
A. 0.40% or more
B. 0.65% or more
C. 0.50% or more
D. 0.66% or more
61. The surface along the fillet curves or
between the fillet radius of the two adjacent
tooth of gear:
A. Bottom land
B. Flank
C. Fillet
D. Top land
62. Not adaptable to welding due to low tensile
strength and poor ductility, etc.
A. Copper parts
B. Cast iron materials
C. Aluminum parts
D. Bronze parts
63. Plus or minus tolerance can also be called
as __________.
A. Total tolerance
B. Unilateral tolerance
C. Bilateral
D. Allowance
64. the total machinery weight plus the
foundation
weight
should
be
well
distributed in the corresponding soil area
which is enough to cause a bearing stress
within the safe bearing capacity of the soil
with a factor of safety of _____.
A. 4.5
B. 3
C. 4.2
D. 5.0
65. __________ is a plane perpendicular to the
axial plane and to the pitch plane. In gears
the parallel axes, and the plane of rotation

coincide.
A. Tangent plane
B. Straight plane
C. Transverse plane
D. Reference plane
66. The stress in an elastic material is:
A. Inversely proportional to the materials
yield strength
B. Inversely proportional to the force acting
C. Proportional to the displacement of the
material acted upon by the force
D. Inversely proportional to the strain
67. The slenderness ratio of a column is
generally defined as the ratio of its:
A. Length of its minimum width
B. Unsupported length to its maximum
radius of gyration
C. Length of its moment of inertia
D. Unsupported length to its least radius of
gyration
68. The relationship between the extension of a
spring and the force required to produce the
extension is:
A. F = ma
B. F = N
C. F = mV2/R
D. F = kx
69. The linear portion of the stress-strain
diagram of steel is known as the:
A. Modulus of elongation
B. Plastic range
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range
70. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the
cross section of a beam to the section
modulus is:
A. Equal to the radius of gyration
B. Equal to the area of the cross section
C. A measure of distance
D. Dependent on the modulus of elasticity
of the beam material
71. When an air entrainment
introduced into a concrete mix
agnet
is
A. The strength will increase

B. The strength will decrease
C. The strength will not be affected
D. The water/cement ratio must be reduced
from 10-15%
72. Structural
develop:
steel
elements
to
torsion
A. Tensile strength
B. Compressive stress
C. Shearing stress
D. Moment
73. The deflection of a beam is:
A. Directly proportional to the modulus of
elasticity and moment of inertia
B. Inversely proportional to the modulus of
elasticity and length of the beam cube
C. Inversely proportional to the modulus of
D. Directly proportional to the load imposed
and inversely proportional to the length
squared
which of the following?
A. Load of the beam
B. Tensile strength of beam
C. Bending moment of the beam
D. Slope of the elastic curve
75. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end
and simply supported at the other is
indeterminate to what degree?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
76. A thin walled pressurized vessel consist a
right circular cylinder with flat ends. Midway
between the ends the stress is greater in
what direction?
A. Longitudinal
B. Circumference
C. Radial
D. At an angle of 45 to the longitudinal
77. The bending moment at a section of a
beam is derived from the:
A. Sum of the moments of all external
forces on one side of the section
B. Difference between the moments on one
side of the section and the opposite side
C. Sum of the moments of all external
forces on both sides of the section
D. Sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports
78. The stress concentration factor:
A. is a ratio of the average stress on a
section to the allowable stress
B. Cannot be evaluated for brittle materials
C. is the ratio of the areas involved in a
sudden change of cross section
D. is the ratio of the maximum stress
produced in a cross section to the average
stress over the section
79. Poissons ratio is the ratio of the:
A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit
longitudinal deformation
B. Unit stress to unit strain
C. Elastic limit to the proportional limit
D. Shear stress to compressive stress
80. Hookes Law for an isotopic homogenous
medium
experiencing
one-dimensional
stress is:
A. Stress = E (strain)
B. Strain = E (Stress)
C. Force (Area) = E (Change
length/length)
D. Strain energy = E (Internal energy)
in
81. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member

is:
A. A function of the length and depth
B. Defined as the unit shear stress divided
by the unit shear deformation
C. Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
by one plus Poissons ratio
D. Defined as the length divided by the
moment of inertia
82. A
thin
homogenous
metallic
plate
containing a hole is heated sufficiently to
cause expansion. If the coefficient of
surface expansion is linear, the area of the
will:
A. Increase at twice the rate the area of the
metal increases
B. Increase at the same rate as the area of
the metal increases
C. Stay the same
D. Decrease at the same rate as the area of
the metal increases
83. The maximum bending moment of a beam
simply supported at both ends and subject
to a total load W uniformly distributed over
its length L is expressed by the formula:
A. WL/8
B. WL2/8
C. WL/2
D. WL2/2
84. The three moment equation may be used to
analyze:
A. A continuous beam
B. A beam loaded at the third points
C. A step tapered column
D. The three element composite system
85. In a long column (slenderness ratio < 160)

which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle under a
compressive load.
94. All of the following statements about strain

hardening are correct EXCEPT:
A. Strain hardening strengthens metals.
Resistance to deformation increases with
the amount of strain present.
B. Strain hardening is relieved during
softening,
annealing
above
the
recrystallization temperature.
C. Strain hardening is produced by cold
working
(deformation
below
the
recrystallization temperatue)
D. More strain hardening requires more
time-temperature exposure for relief
A. The modulus of elasticity of the material

B. The compressive strength of the material
C. The radius of gyration of the column
D. The length of the column
86. The area of the shear diagram of a beam
between any two points on the beam is
equal to the:
A. Change in shear between the points
B. Total shear beyond the two points
C. Average moment between the two points
D. Change in moment between the two
points
95. All of the following processes strengthen

metals EXCEPT:
A. Annealing above the recrystallization
temperature
B.
Work
hardening
by
mechanical
deformation below the recrystallization
temperature
C. Heat treatments such as quenching and
tempering, fro production of a finer
microstructure.
D. Increasing the carbon content of low
carbon steels.
87. Poissons ratio is principally used in:

A. The determination of capability of a
material for being shaped
B. The determination of capacity of a
material for plastic deformation without
fracture
C. Stress-strain relationship where stresses
are applied in more than one direction
D. The determination of the modulus of
toughness
96. Intrinsic
silicon
becomes
extrinsically
conductive, with electrons as majority
carriers, when doped with which of the
following?
88. Youngs modulus of electricity for a material

can be calculated indirectly from which of
the following properties of the material?
A. Temperature, coefficient of expansion
and dielectric constant
B. Temperature, coefficient of expansion
and specific heat
C. Density and velocity of sound in the
material
D. Density and interatomic spacing in the
material
89. The linear portion of the stress-strain
diagram of steel is known as the:
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Plastic range
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range
A. Aluminum
B. Antimony
C. Boron
D. Germanium
97. Steels can be strengthened by all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Annealing
B. Quenching and tempering
C. Work hardening
D. Grain refinement
98. If 1080 steel (0.80 wt. % C) is annealed by
very low cooling from 1000C (1832F) to
ambient temperature, its microstructure will
consist almost solely of:
A. Austenite
B. Bainite
C. Cementite
D. Pearlite
90. Modulus of resilience is:

A. The same as the modulus of elasticity
B. A measure of a materials ability to store
strain energy
C. The reciprocal of the modulus of
elasticity.
D. A measure of the deflection of a member
91. Imperfections
within
structures maybe all
EXCEPT:
99. Which of the following is not a method of

non-destructive testing of steel castings
and forgings?
A. Radiography
B. Magnetic particle
C. Ultrasonic
D. Chemical analysis
metallic
crystal
of the following
A. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial

atoms
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
C. Displacement atoms to interstitial sites
D. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations
caused by shear
100. Compressive strength of fully

concrete is most directly related to:
cured
A. Sand-gravel ratio
B. Fineness modulus
C. Absolute volume
D. Water-cement ratio
92. All of the following statements about strain

energy are correct EXCEPT:
A. It is caused by generation and movement
of dislocations through shear or plastic
deformation
B. It results from trapped vacancies in the
crystal lattice
C. It is proportional to the length of
dislocation, shear modulus and shortest
distance between equivalent lattice sites
D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries
than for internal sites within the crystal
structure
93. When a metal is cold worked of the
following generally occur EXCEPT:
A. Recrystallization temperature decrease
B. Ductility decreases
C. Grains become equi-axes
D. Tensile strength increases
MODULE 7
1.
All of the following group of plastic are

thermoplastic, EXCEPT:
A. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) and polyvinyl
acetate
B. Polyethylene, polypropylene, and

polystyrene
C. Acrylic (Lucite) and polyamide (nylon)
D. Phenolics, melamine and epoxy
2.
In the design of reinforced concrete

structure, tensile strength of the concrete is
normally:
All of the following statements

rusting of iron are correct, EXCEPT:
about
A. Contact with water and oxygen are

necessary for rusting to occur
B. Contact with a more electropositive
metal reduces rusting
C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process
which involves electrochemical oxidationreduction reactions
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic
areas and the rust is deposited nearby
4.
Select the correct statement:

A. A member made of steel will generally be
more rigid than a member of equal loadcarrying ability made of cast iron
B. A member made of cast iron will
generally be more rigid than a member of
equal load carrying ability made of steel
C. Both will be equally rigid
D. Which one is rigid will depend on several
other factors
5.
In majority of machine members, the

damping capacity of the material should be:
A. Low
B. Zero
C. High
D. Could be anything
6.
A. 10 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 60 mm
13. In case of knuckle joint the pin is most likely
to fail in:
A. Determined by split cylinder tests

B. Determined by beam tests
C. Neglected
D. Assumed to be 200 psi
3.
cotter. If the pull on the bolt is 14000 kg,

the diameter of the bolt should be:
At quite low temperature (says -75C) the

notched bar impact value of steel:
A. Increases significantly
B. Decreases significantly
C. Remains unchanged
D. Depends on heat treatment carried out
A. Compression
B. Shear
C. Tension
D. Double shear
14. In case of sunk key:
A. The key is cut in both shaft and hub
B. The key way is cut in hub only
C. The key way is cut in shaft only
D. The key is helical along the shaft.
A. The power to be transmitted is low
B. The power to be transmitted is high
C. The torque is high
D. Axial relative motion between motion
between shaft and hub is necessary
16. Splined shafts are generally used in:
A. Machining tools
B. Aircraft
C. Bicycles
D. Automobiles
17. Which key normally used in wrist watch?.
A. Kennedy key
B. Tangent key
C. Sunk key
The crest diameter of a screw thread is

same as:
A. Major diameter
B. Pitch diameter
D. Minor diameter
8.
Muntz metal contains:

A. Copper-nickel
B. Copper-zinc
C. Copper-tin
D. Copper-aluminum
9.
A babbit is:
A. A eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
B. A gadget for measuring volume
C. A measure of magnetic induction
D. Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy

A. Used for non-collinear shafts
B. Rigid coupling
C. Type of flange coupling
D. Used for collinear shafts
A. Used for non-collinear shafts

B. Used for collinear shafts
C. Flexible
D. Used only on small shafts rotating at
slow speeds
20. In flange coupling the weakest element
should be:
A. Flange
B. Shaft
C. Bolt bush
D. Key
A. Turning
B. Rolling
C. Casting
D. Cold heading
11. The blow off pressure of a safety valve is:
A. Slightly more than atmospheric pressure
B. Half of the boiler working pressure
C. Equal to boiler working pressure
D. 106% of boiler working pressure
12. A foundation bolt with a circular end is
secured to the floor by means of a steel
A. 2.5 HP
B. 5.0 HP
C. 4.0 HP
D. 3.0 HP
25. For butt welding of two plates each of which
is 25 mm thick, the best process would be :
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gio welding
26. The compression members tend to buckle
in the direction of:
A. Axis of load
B. Perpendicular to the axes load
C. Minimum cross section
D. Least radius of gyration
27. The diameter of a washer is generally:
A. Equal to the diameter of bolt
B. Slightly more than the diameter of the
bolt
C. Slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
D. Of any size that suits the application
28. If the lead angle of a worm is 22 1/2 than
the helix angle will be:
A. 45
B. 67
C. 22
A. Clad material
B. Composite Material
C. Homogenous material
D. Heterogeneous material
30. Rankine formula is valid up to slenderness
ratio of:
A.
B. 150
C. 50
D. 120
31. Slenderness ratio of a column is:
A. Shaft diameter over shaft length
B. Column height over column cross section
C. Column height over least dimension of
column cross-section
D. Length of strut over least radius of
gyration
21. Turn buckle has:

A. Left hand threads on both ends
B. Right hand threads on both ends
C. Left hand threads on one end and right
hand threads on other end
D. No threads
22. Elastic nut is a locking device that has:
10. Steel balls for ball bearings are

manufactured by:
24. A single ply leather belt running at a belt

velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit
per inch of width.
29. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to

be made up of:
19. A flange coupling is:

7.
D. d3/4
A. One small nut is tightened over main and

main nut tightened against smaller one
loosening, creating friction jamming.
B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and
then slot reduced by tightening a screw.
C. Hard fiber on nylon cotter is released in
the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip.
D. through slots are made at top and a
cotter pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt.
23. Treating the weld as a line, the moment of
inertia
A. d2/36
B. d/6
C. d3/64
32. Belt slip may take place because of:

A. Loose load
B. Heavy belt
C. Driving pulley too small
D. All of the above
33. In hydrodynamic bearings:
A. The oil film pressure is generated only by
under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
D. Grease is used for lubrication
34. The rated life of bearing changes:
A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as fourth power of load
C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as square of load
35. In oilless bearings:
A. The oil film pressure is produced only by

under pressure
C. Do not need external supply lubricant
D. Grease is needed to be applied after
some intervals

flexible?
A. 6 by 19
B. 6 by 7
C. 8 by 19
D. 6 by 37
A. Helical gears
B. Spiral gears
C. Herringbone gears
D. Bevel gears
59. In order to realize the advantages of fluid
36. In cross or regular lay ropes:

A. Direction of twist of in strands is opposite
to the direction of twist of strands
B. Direction of twist of wires and strands are
same
C. Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted
in opposite direction
D. Wires are twisted.
37. Gears for wrist watches
manufactured by:
are
generally
A. Lead angle
B. Pitch angle
C. Helix angle
D. Pressure angle
38. The type of cam used for low and moderate
speed engines is generally::
A. Harmonic
B. Tangent
C. Involute
D. Flat
48. The working load (P) for a chain for crane

applications is expressed in terms of
diameter of link d in cm as follows
A. P = 1.5d2
B. P = 50d2
C. P = 500d2
D. P = 25d2
49. If be the angle of friction, then the radius
of friction circle is given by:
A. r
B. r cos
C. r cos2
D. r sin
50. If a square key and the shaft are to be of
the same material and of equal strength,
the length of key would be (d = diameter of
shaft).
A. d
B. 1.50d
C. 2d
D. 1.23d
40. Cold working of materials:

A. Increases the fatigue strength
41. A babbit
A. a eutectic of iron and iron phophide
B. a gadget for measuring volume
C. antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
D. a measure of magnetic induction
42. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth is:
A. Cycloid
B. Epicycloids
C. Straight rack
D. Involute
43. Spiral gears are suitable for transmiting:
A. Small power
B. No power but motion only
C. Any power
D. Pulsating
44. Te center of gravity of a solid pyramid or
cone with a total height of H is:
A. 1/4 H
B. 3/5 H
C. 1/3 H
D. 1/2 H
45. Which does not belong to foundry or metal
casting shop?
A. shake-out machine
B. molding machine
C. coremaking
D. forging machine
46. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?
A. Bush roller
B. Pintel
D. Silent
60. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at

slow speed inside bearing will be:
A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing and making
metal to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and making
no metal contact
D. Towards right side of bearing and making
no metal to metal contact
61. Points of arrest of iron corresponds to:
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
B. Stages at which further heating does not
increase temperature
C. Stages at which properties do not change
with increase temperature.
D. There is nothing like points of arrest
62. Delta iron occurs at temperature of:
39. The form coefficient of a spring is:

A. The load/unit deflection
B. Load/spring area
C. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
D. Its capability to store energy
A. Parallel
B. Converging
C. No oil film
D. Diverging oil film
51. In a standard coarse thread bolt the stress

A. Root
B. Flank
C. All over the surface
D. Top surface
52. Fatigue strength of a surface may be
increased by:
A. Making surface rough
B. Filing the surface
C. Applying concentrated hydrochloric acid
on the surface
D. Polishing the surface
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 5 mm
can be made single pass is:
A. 6 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 3 mm
55. A rolled steel shaft designated as 50 ISF 8
means:
A. The flat is 50 mm long and 8 mm thick
B. the flat is 50 mm wide and 8 mm thick
C. The flat has cross-section 50 sq. mm and
width 8 mm
D. The flat has cross-section 50 sq. mm and
depth 8 mm.
56. The column splice is used for increasing:
A. Strength of the column
B. Cross-sectional area of the column
C. Length of the column
D. All of the above
57. The minimum thickness of steel members
exposed to weather and accessible for
painting is:
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 10 mm
58. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400 and 1539C
D. Between 1000 and 1400C
63. Gamma
iron
temperature:
exists
at
following
A. Room temperature
B. Near melting point
C. Between 1400 and 1539C
D. Between 910 and 1400C
64. Ferromagnetic
alpha
temperature range of:
iron
exists
in
A. Below 732C
B. 700-910C
C. 1000-1440C
D. 1400-1539C
65. Paramagnetic iron changes to gamma iron
at:
A. 970C
B. 910C
C. 440C
D. 1639C
66. Fatigue failure
subjected to:
occurs
when
part
is
A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Torsion
D. Fluctuating
67. A body having identical properties all over
is called:
A. Homogenous
B. Elastic
C. Ductile
D. Isentropic
68. If
a
material
recovers
its
original
dimensions, when the load is removed, it is
called:
A. Plastic
B. Elastic
C. Brittle
D. Annealed
69. The behavior of metals where in strength of
a metal is increased and the ductility is
decreased on heating at a relatively low
temperature after cold working is called:
A. Twinning
B. Clustering
C. Screw dislocation
D. Strain aging
81. In powder metallurgy the process of heating

the cold pressed metal powdered is called:

A. Rapid rate of crank propagation
B. Negligible deformation
C. Fragmentation into more than two pieces
D. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to
propagation of crank
A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience
72. Machining properties
improved by adding:
A. Sintering
B. Granulation
C. Deposition
D. Precipitation
82. Which one is different from the remaining?
of
steel
can
be
A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorus

B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium
C. Vanadium, aluminum
D. Chromium, nickel
A. Magnesium alloys
B. Chromium
D. Titanium alloys
steel
increases
if
it
A. Austenite
B. Pearnite
C. All of the above
D. Martensite
84. The presence of sulfur in pig iron makes:
73. Eutectoid steel the percent of carbon is:

A. 0.02%
B. 0.3%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.8%
A. It easily machinable
B. It hard
C. It brittle
D. The casting unsound
85. Compressive strength of gray cast iron is
of the order of:
A. 3-5
B. 7-10
C. 15-22
D. 5-7
74. A cold chisel is made of:

A. Mild steel
B. German silver
C. Cast iron
D. High carbon steel
86. The machinability of steel can be increased

by:
75. Cyaniding is the process of:

A. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat
treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness
D. Obtaining cyanide salts
76. The constituents that has a
softening effects on cast iron
presence in cast iron reduces the
the iron to retain carbon in
combination is:
of
powerful
and its
ability of
chemical
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur
77. Tensile strength of common varieties of cast
iron is in the range of:
A. 40-60 MPa
B. 150-180 MPa
C. 840-500 MPa
D. 1500-1650 MPa
A. Silicon and sulphur

B. Phosphorus, lead, sulphur
C. Sulphur, graphite and aluminum
87. Steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is
known as:
A. Eutectoid
B. Hyper-eutectoid
C. Austenite
D. Solidus
88. The maximum hardenability of any steel
depends on:
A. The carbon content
B. The chemical composition
C. The grain size
D. The alloying elements present
89. In 18-4-1 high speed steel the maximum
percentage is of:
A. Carbon
B. Tungsten
C. Chromium
D. Iron
78. In carbon steel castings:

A. The percentage of carbon is less than
1.7%
B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7
to 2%
C. The percentage of alloying elements is
controlled
79. Aluminum alloys for pressure die castings:
A. Must poses considerable fluidity
B. Must not be free from hot shortness
C. Must have iron as one of the constituents
D. Must be light
80. Electro-forming is specially valuable for:
A. Good conductors of electricity
B. Decorative items
C. Thin walled parts requiring a high order
of accuracy and internal surface finish
D. Non-ferrous components
A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and
precipitation hardening system
D. Improving machinability
94. Which of the following has the highest
specific strength of all structural materials?
A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Electroplating
83. The hardness
contains:
93. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminum

results in:
90. In compression, a prism of brittle material

will break:
A. Into large number of pieces
B. By forming a bulge
C. By shearing along oblique plane
D. In a direction along the direction load
91. Hastalloy contains:
A. Nickel and copper
B. Copper and aluminum
C. Aluminum and nickel
D. Nickel and molybdenum
92. Trimming is a process associated with:
A. Forging
B. Electroplating
C. Press work
D. Machining of metal
95. Foundry crucible is made of:

A. Mild steel
B. Lead
C. Graphite
D. German silver
96. Age hardening is related with:
A. Stainless steel
B. Cast iron
C. Gun metal
D. Duralumin
97. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the
material used with lead to reduce the risk of
seizure is;
A. Tin
B. Silver
C. Zinc
D. Iron
98. Compressive strength of woods is generally:
A. More along the grains
B. More across the grains
C. Equal in all directions
D. Maximum at 45 to the direction of
grains
99. Select the one that has highest specific
gravity:
A. Brass
B. High carbon steel
C. Lead
D. Aluminum
100. Super conductors:
A. Are non-crystalline
B. Exist at temperature below 10K
C. Are the purest forms of materials
D. Are non-metallic substances
A. Taper bores
B. Cylindrical bores
C. Spherical bores
D. Screw threads
13. Choose the one that will have the highest
cutting speed.
MODULE 8
1.
The phenomenon
associated with:
of
weld
decay
is
A. Brass
B. Manganese steels
C. Aluminum alloys
D. Stainless steels
2.
14. When large number of components are

turned and parted off from a bar, the chuck
generally used is:
Which of the following timber is used for

sports goods?
A. Mulberry
B. Mahogany
C. Sai
D. Deodar
3.
A. Four jaw chuck

B. Two jaw chuck
C. Collect chuck
D. Magnetic
15. Gear tooth vernier is used for measuring:
A knoop indenter is a diamond ground to a:

A. Prismoidal form
B. Pyramidal form
C. Cylindrical form
D. Needle form
4.
A. Cast iron
B. Tool steel
C. Brass
D. Aluminum
A. Gear tooth profile

B. Module
C. Pitch line thickness of gear tooth
D. Gear tooth thickness
16. Undercutting is:
The process commonly for thermo-plastic

materials is:
A. Decasting
B. Injection moulding
C. Shell moulding
D. Cold forming
A. An operation of cutting extra deep

groove
B. An operation of cutting a groove next to
a shoulder on a piece of work
C. Cutting from the base of a work piece
D. An operation of cutting extra wide
threads
17. Laser welding is widely used in:
5.
The most important element that controls

the physical property of steel is:
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Tungsten
D. Carbon
6.
The imperfection in the crystal structure of

metal is known as:
A. Dislocation
B. Slip
C. Fracture
D. Impurity
A. Process industry
B. Structural work
C. Heavy duty
D. Electronic industry
18. Unlike materials or materials of different
thickness can be butt welded by:
A. Control of pressure and current
B. Adjusting time duration of current
C. Adjusting initial gap
D. All of the above
Polyesters belong to the group of:
A. Thickness of plate
B. Voltage across the plate
C. Size of the electrode
D. Length of welded portion
A. Thermoplastics
B. Phenolics
C. All of these
D. Thermosetting plastics
8.
24. What for is a gagger used?

A. a tool used in clearing welds
B. A tool used in clearing material before
welding
C. A tool used in foundry for cleaning of
castings
D. A shaped metal accessory
25. What for are bellows used?
A. Used in foundry in moistening the mould
B. Used in foundry for cleaning of casting
C. Used in foundry for blowing loose end
D. Used in foundry for smothering and
cleaning out depression in the mould
26. Permeability of a foundry sand is:
A. Capacity to hold moisture
B. Porosity to allow the escape of gases
C. Distribution of binder in sand
D. Fineness of sand
27. What for arc metal patterns used?
A. Precision casting
B. Small casting
C. Large casting
D. Large scale production of castings
28. An important factor to be considered while
designing a core print is:
A. Pattern material
B. Type of mould
C. Moulding sand characteristics
D. Pouring temperature
29. Which of the following metals can be
suitably welded by TIG welding?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. All of the above
D. Stainless steel
30. Weld pattern refers to:
19. In arc welding operations the current value

is decided by:
7.
C. The tool used in foundry for smoothening

the mould
D. A tool used in foundry for repairing the
mould
The effect of alloying zinc to copper is:

A. To increase hardness
B. To impart free-machining properties
C. To improve hardness and strength
D. To increase strength and ductility
20. The phenomenon of weld decay takes

palace in:
A. Cast iron
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Stainless steel
A. Welding electrode
B. Filler metal
C. Shield
D. Welding defect
31. A is:
A. A tool used in mould repairing
B. A process of cleaning castings
C. A chemical that is added to molten
materials for sound castings
D. A vertical passage through the cope
32. What is a gate?
9.
Projection welding is:
21. Arc blow takes place in:.
A. Continuous spot welding process

B. Multi spot welding process
C. Used to form
D. Used to make mesh
10. In
resistance
released:
welding,
the
A. Gas welding
B. Arc welding when straight polarity is
used
C. Arc welding when reverses polarity is
used
D. Welding stainless steel
pressure
A. Just at the time of passing the current

B. During the weld cools
C. After the weld cools
D. After the completion of currents
11. Grey cast iron is best welded by:
A. MIG
B. Submerged arc
C. TIG
D. Oxy-acetylene
12. A plug gauge is used to measure:
A. A passage through which metal is poured

into the mould
B. A passage through which metal rises
when the mould is filled
C. A passage that finally lead molten metal
from the runner into the mould cavity
D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to
escape
22. What for is a rammer used?

A. A tool used in welding for cleaning
purpose
B. A tool used in press work to lift the
pressure components
C. A tool used in foundry to pack the sand
in mould
D. A measuring tool
23. What for is a swab used
A. A tool used in sharper
B. A tool used in foundry for moistening the
sand
33. What for are core prints provided?

A. To form trade mark of company on
castings
B. To produce castings with specific surface
design
C. To form seat to support and hold the core
D. to direct the flow of molten material
during pouring
34. The equipment that is used in pit for supply
of air is known as:
A. B. Hand blower
C. Air cylinder
D. Centrifugal blower
47. A collimated light
producing heat in:
35. Tumbling is done so as to:
beam
is
used
for
A. MIG welding
B. TIG welding
C. Plasma welding
D. Laser welding
A. Clean the surface of small parts

B. Stress relieve the components
C. Get surface finish
D. To plate the surface
59. The ratio of bulk modulus to shear modulus

for Poissons ratio of 0.25 will be equal to:
48. Wipping is the process of:

36. The purpose of inoculation is:
A. To clean casting
B. To decrease the melting temperature
C. To change the chemical composition of a
cast metal
D. To modify the structure and properties of
a cast metal
A. Cleaning the welded surface after the

welding operation is over
B. Applying flux during welding process
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
D. Low temperature
49. In which of the following process hydraulic
fluid acts as transfer media?
37. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the

case of which of the following?
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. White cast iron
D. Aluminum
38. The draft allowance on metallic pattern as
compared to wooden ones is:
A. More
B. Same
C. Less
D. More or less depending on size
A. Electron beam machining

B. Electro-discharge machining
C. iron beam machining
D. Water jet machining
is
not
an
angle
A. Bevel protector
B. Sine bar
C. Combination square
D. Angle iron
40. Diatometer is used to find out which
property of moulding sand:
A. Permeability
B. Hot strength
C. Fineness
D. Moisture content
50. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts

having:
A. Rectangular shape
B. Uniform symmetrical shape
C. Complicated shape having intricate
details
A. A method of cleaning the castings

B. An inspection method for castings
C. A method of deoxidation of molten metal
D. The formation of oxides on the molten
metal surface
52. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is:
A. 110
B. 120
C. 30
D. 60
A. Low carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel
D. Copper
A. Its diameter and lip angle

B. its shank and diameter
C. Shank, material and flute size
D. Shank, material and diameter
A. It is an automatic machine
B. It is a mass production machine
C. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
D. Operations is completed in one stroke
A. RPM of engines
B. Rotation of shafts
C. Twists due to torque applied on shafts
D. Flow of liquids and gases
55. Select the

process:
43. The impedance of piezo-elecric crystal is:
one
that
is
gear
finishing
A. Gear shaving
B. Gear shaping
C. Gear hobbing
D. Gear milling
A. Negligible
B. Low
C. High
D. Very high
44. Hot wire Anemometers are generally for:
A. Measuring pressure of fluids
B. Measuring velocity of air stream
C. Measuring temperature of moving fluid
D. Measuring thermal conductivity of solids
56. Formed milling operation of cutting gears

can be used for cutting which type of
gears?
A. Spur
B. Worm
C. All of the above
D. Bevel
A. Zero
B. Minimum or maximum
C. Maximum
D. Minimum
62. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as
compared to its ultimate compressive stress
will be:
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. More or less depending on other factors
63. Percentage
reduction
of
area
while
performing tensile test on cast iron may be
of the order of:
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 0%
D. 15%
65. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as

compared to in tension is nearly:
A. Same
B. Half
C. One-third
D. Two-third
66. Select the one that has no unit:
A. Kinematic viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Bulk modulus
D. Strain
67. When a part is constrained to move and
heated, it develops:
A. Principal stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Compressive stress
D. Shear stress
68. The tensile stress of a material is given by:
45. Ornaments are cast by:

57. The ratio of average shear stress to
maximum shear stress for a circular cross
section is equal to:
A. Die casting
B. Pressed casting
C. Gravity casting
D. Continuous casting
46. During
MIG
welding
the
transformed in the form of:
A. A straight line
B. A parabola
C. A sudden break
D. An irregular curve
A. Unit stress
B. Bulk
C. Modulus of rigidity
54. Broaching operation is generally used in

automobile industry as:
42. What for is rotameter used?
60. The stress strain curve for a glass rod

64. The intensity of stress that causes unit

strain is known as:
53. A twist drill is specified by:

41. The mould for casting ferrous materials in
continuous casting process is made of:
A. 3/2
B. 5/6
C. 1
D. 6/3
61. When the shear force is zero along a

section, the bending moment at that
section will be:
51. Drossing
39. Select the one that
measuring device.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
metal
A. Continuous flow of molten metal

B. A fine spray of metal
C. Solution
D. Electron beam
is
A. 2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D. 58. When a solid cube is subjected to equal
normal forces of the same type on all its
faces. The ratio of the volumetric
strain/linear strain along any of the three
axes will be equal to:
A. Maximum load during test/original crosssectional area

B. Average load during test/original crosssection area
C. Maximum load during test/area at the
time of fracture
D. Average load during test/area at the time
of fracture
riveting is:
A. Equal to the diameter of the rivet shank
B. Slightly smaller than the diameter of

rivet shank
the rivet for rivets of 25mm and above size
the rivet for rivets of 25mm and above size
70. A column is called short column when:
A. The length is more than 30 times the
diameter
B. Slenderness ratio is more than 120
C. The length is less than 8 times the
diameter
D. The slenderness ratio is more than 32
71. The total strain energy stored in a body is
called:
A. Resilience
B. Proof resilience
C. Toughness
D. Impact energy
72. A material that is capable of absorbing a
large quantity of energy before fracture is
called:
A. Ductility
B. Toughness
C. Resilience
D. Shock proof
A. All three are designed for same strength

B. Key is made weaker link
C. Pulley is made weaker
D. Shaft is made weaker
81. Mohrs circle can be used to find out
following stress on inclined surface:
A. Principal stress
B. Normal stress
C. Tangential stress
D. All of the above
82. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a
thick cylinder is:
A. Maximum at inner surface and decreases
toward outer surface
B. Minimum at inner surface and increases
C. Minimum at inner and outer surfaces
D. Maximum at inner and outer surfaces
83. Autofrettage is the method of:
A, Calculating stresses in thick cylinders
B. Relieving thick cylinders
C. Prestressing thick cylinders
D. Increasing life of thick cylinders
91. In case of spur gears the flank of the tooth

is:
A. The part of the tooth surface lying below
the pitch surface
B. The curve forming face and flank
C. The width of the gear tooth measured
axially along the pitch surface
D. The surface of the top of the tooth
92. In case of cross helical worm the axes of
two shafts are:
A. Parallel
B. Intersecting
C. Non-parallel
D. Non-parallel and non-intersecting
93. In case of gears the addendum is given by:
A. One module
B. 2.157 x module
C. 1.57 x module
D. 1.25/module
94. In case of helical gears the axial pitch is
given by:
A. Diametral pitch/sine of helix angle
B. Diametral pitch/cosine of helix angle
C. Diametral pitch/cotangent of helix angle
D. Diametral pitch/tangent of helix angle
84. Ties are load carrying members that carry:

73. Coaxing increases the:
A. Strength by reversible cycling
B. Corrosion resistance by spraying
C. Hardness by surface treatment
D. Fatigue resistance by over-stressing the
metal by successive increasing loadings
74. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the
A. Is uniform throughout
shaft
75. In laminated springs the strips are provided
ion different lengths for:
A. Economy
B. Reduction in weight
C. Improve appearance
D. Equal distribution of stress
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted lap joint
D. All type of joints
A. Torsional loads
B. Axial compressive loads
C. Axial tension loads
D. Transverse loads
85. If the areas of cross-sections of square and
circular beams are same and both are put
to equal bending moments, then the correct
statement is:
A. The circular beam is more economical
B. The square beam is more economical
C. Both the beams are equally strong
D. Both the beams are equally economical
86. The Biflar suspension method is used to find
out:
A. Position of balancing weights
B. Centripetal acceleration
C. Natural frequency of vibration
D. Moment of inertia
95. A cam where in the follower reciprocates or

oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of
the cam is called:
A. Cylindrical cam
B. Reciprocating cam
D. Circular cam
96. Rope brake dynamometer uses:
A. Oil as lubricant
B. Water as lubricant
C. Grease as lubricant
D. No lubricant
97. Which of the following dynamometer is
widely used for absorption of wide range of
powers at wide range of speeds?
A. Hydraulic brake
B. Belt transmission
C. Rope brake
D. Electric generator
87. Slip in belt drive is:

A. Loss of power
B. Difference between angular velocities of
two pulleys
C. Difference between the velocities of two
pulleys
D. Difference between the linear speed of
the rim of pulley and the belt on it
98. Cold working:

B. Decrease the fatigue strength
C. Has no influence on fatigue strength
99. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing:
77. Hoop stress refers to:

A. Circumferential tensile stress
B. Compressive
C. Radial stress
D. Longitudinal stress
78. 1 Meganewton per square meter is equal to:
A. 1,000,000N/mm2
B. 10,000 N/mm2
C. 100 N/mm2
D. 1 N/mm2
79. The value of shear stress changes is
induced in the shaft because of the applied
couple that:
A. From maximum at the center to zero at
the circumference
B. From zero at the center to maximum at
the circumference
C. From maximum at the center to
D. From minimum at the center to
80. In the design of pulley, key and shaft:
88. In case of flat belt drive the length of belt in

case of:
A. Open belt depends on sum of the
B. Open belts depends on difference of the
C. Cross belts depends on the sum of the
D. Cross belts depends on the difference of
the diameters of pulleys
89. Module can be expressed in:
A. mm
B. mm/no. of teeth
C. Dimensionless
D. mm/mm
90. A reverted gear train is one in which:
A. The direction of rotation of first and last
gear is opposite
B. The direction of rotation of first and last
gear is the same
C. The first and last gears are on the same
shaft
D. The first and last gears are essentially on
separate but parallel shafts
A. Metal strength by cycling

B. Metal hardness by surface treatment
C. Metal resistance to corrosion by coating
D. Fatigue limit by overstressing the metal
by successively increasing loadings
100. In testing a material for
strength, it is subjected to:
A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic load
D. Completely reversed load
endurance
C. Grain growth
D. Cold working
flexible?
A. 6 x 19
B. 6 x 7
C. 8 x 19
D. 6 x 37
11. Muntz metal contains:
A. Copper-nickel
B. Copper-zinc
C. Copper-aluminum
D. None of these
1.
MODULE 9
Vickers, Knoop and Brinell are all names of:
A. Nobel prize in winners in metallurgy
B. Thermodynamic constants
C. Hardiness test
D. Magnetic constants
2.
Which of the following is not a method by

which a single lap joint usually fails?
A. The rivets shear
B. The plate fails in bearing
C. The plate fails in tension
D. The rivets fail in tension
3.
Which type of the hardening will work to

some extent in all metals?
A. Austenizing
B. Annealing
C. Work hardening
D. Shot-peening
4.
The hardiness of steel may be increased by

heating
to
approximately
1500and
quenching in oil or water if:
A. The carbon is above 3.0%
B. The carbon content is from 0.2% to 2.0%
C. The carbon content is below 2.0%
D. All carbon is removed and the steel
contains
only
chromium,
nickel,
manganese, or a combination of these.
6.
One of the main difference between cast

iron and steel is that:
A. Steel has higher silicon content
B. Steel always contains alloying metals
such
as
nickel,
chromium,
manganese and vanadium
C. Steel cannot be annealed whereas cast
iron can
D. Steel has lower carbon content
7.
The yield strength of common yellow brass

(70% Cu, 30% Zn) can be increased by:
A. Annealing
B. Heat Treatment
C. Cold working
D. Chill casting
8.
Which of the following factors will affect the

hardenability of steel?
A. Composition only
B. Grain size only
C. Composition and grain size
D. Cooling rate
9.
A. Slip
B. Shear
C. Creep
D. Bending
13. Honing is used:
A. To remove small amount of metal
B. To correct axial run-out of bore
C. To correct out-of-roundness of a bore
D. On surfaces brought to high degree to
surface finish
14. A special metal formed when two or more
metals are melted together.
A. Alloy
B. Compound
C. Titanium
D. Brass
What do impact test determine?

A. Toughness
B. Yield strength
C. Hardness
D. Creep strength
5.
12. Under very low deformation and at high

temperature, it is possible to have some
plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress
lower than the critical shear stress. What is
the phenomenon called?
The mechanical deformation of a material

at a temperature above its recrystallization
temperature is commonly known as:
A. Hot working
B. Strain aging
15. In a standard coarse threat bolt, the stress

A. Root
B. Top
C. Pitch
D. Flank
16. Fatigue strength of a surface may be
increased by:
A. Cold working
B. Hot working
C. Polishing the surface
D. Quenching
17. Belt slip may take place because of:
A. Loose load
B. Driving pulley too small
C. Heavy belt
D. All of the above
A. The bearing is supplied with less oil than

full bearing
B. The bearing encloses less than 360 deg
of the journal
C. The bearing is slightly loaded
D. The bearing is supplied with oil
intermittently
22. For
a
completely
corrosion-resistant
stainless steel, what minimum percentage
of chromium in the alloy is required?
A. 3.2%
B. 7.3%
C. 11%
D. 15%
23. Which of the following would most likely
require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that
has been spheroidized, cold-drawn, and
slightly tempered?
A. A ball bearing
B. A bridge beam
C. A water pole
D. A cutting tool
24. Modulus of elasticity of a steel member is:
A. A function the length and width
B. Defined as the unit shear stress divided
C. Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
one plus Poissons ratio
D. Defines as the length divided by the
moment of inertia
25. The property which causes it to resist any
change in its motion or state of rest:
A. Momentum
B. Inertia
C. Impulse
D. Friction
26. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth
travels from the point of contact with the
mating tooth to the pitch point of a gear:
A. Arc of recess
B. Arc of action
C. Arc of approach
D. Arc of relief
27. Which of the following
chromium?
steel
contains
A. SAE 2340
B. SAE 4230
C. SAE 5240
D. SAE 1230
A. The power of be transmitted is high
B. The torque is high
C. The speed is high
D. Axial relative motion between shaft and
hub is necessary
29. Instrument used to analyze the composition
of metals:
18. The curve that is generally used as the

profile teeth:
A. Hypoid
B. Epicycloids
C. Involute
D. Cycloid
19. In roller chain drive, the center-to-center
distance between the sprockets, as a
general rule, should be between _________.
A. 30 to 50
B. 45 to 65
C. 60 to 80
D. 75 to 95
20. A hydrostatic bearing is one in which:
A. There is no lube oil
B. Bearing is slightly loaded
C. Lube oil is not pressurized
D. The lube oil is supplied under pressure
21. A partial bearing is one in which:
A. Spectrometer
B. Radiometer
C. Profilometer
D. Ultimate analyzer
30. An impact test is used to test a metal for:
A. Toughness
B. Strength
C. Ductility
D. Hardness
A. unit lateral deformation to the unit
longhitudinal deformation
B. Unit stress to unit strain
C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
D. Shear strain to compressive strain
32. Creep is the term used in referring to the:
A. Elongation before yield point
B. Maximum stress of brittle materials
C. Fatigue limit of ductile materials
D. Continuous increase in the strain, or

deformation, of any material subjected to
stress
33. Creep strength of a material is the:
A. Maximum stress before yield point
B. Constant stress to which a material is
loaded, at a specified temperature and for a
specified time, that will cause a further
elongation
C. Maximum stress before fatigue limit
D. Maximum stress before rupture of ductile
materials.
34. Which is not a heat treatment process?
A. Sintering
B. Annealing
C. Hardening
D. Tempering
A. Clearance
B. Variation
C. Tolerance
D. Deviation
44. Heating or cooling of steel that preduces a
rounded form of carbide:
A. Normalizing
B. Embrittleness
C. Spheroidizing
D. Annealing
45. Heating and slow cooling of metal:
A. Normalizing
B. Annealing
C. Surface hardening
D. Cold rolling
35. When a steel is described as SAE 1320:

A. It is a plain carbon steel
B. It is a nickel-chromium steel
C. It contains 18% to 23% carbon
D. It contains 0.18% to 0.23% carbon
36. In a roller chain drive, the chain should
extend around at least _______ degrees of
the
pinion
circumference,
and
this
maximum amount of contact is obtained for
all center distances provided the ratio is
less than 3
43. Permissible variation of size of a dimension:
1
2
to 1.
A. 90
B. 105
C. 120
D. 135
37. The circle form which an involute tooth of a
gear is generated or developed:
A. Root circle
B. Base circle
C. Dedendum
D. Mohrs circle
38. The product of the mass and the linear
velocity of a body:
A. Angular impulse
B. Angular momentum
C. Linear impulse
D. Linear momentum
46. Steel that has been deoxidized with a

strong deoxidizing agent such as silicon or
aluminum in order to eliminate oxygen and
carbon reaction during solidification:
A. Rimmed steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Killed steel
D. Monel
47. A kind of gear used for heavy duty work
where a large ratio of speed is required and
are extensively used in speed reducer.
A. Hypoid gear
B. Cycloid gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Worm gear
48. A group of thin steel strip for measuring
clearances:
A. Depth gage
B. Lien center gage
C. Feeler gage
D. Lay-out gage
49. An imaginary circle passing thru the points
at which the teeth of meshing gears contact
each other:
A. Pitch circle
B. Base circle
C. Addendum
D. Dedendum
50. A device for accurately measuring diameter.
39. Steels containing large amounts of mild

nickel and chromium:
A. Carbon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Alloy steel
D. Cast steel
40. The stress in an elastic material is:
A. Inversely proportional to the yield
strength of the material.
B. Inversely proportional to the force acting
C. Proportional to the displacement of the
D. Proportional to the length of the material
subject to the force
41. The amount by which the width of the tooth
space exceeds the thickness of the
engaging tooth on the pitch circle of the
gear:
A. Clearance
B. Tip relief
C. Backlash
D. Chordal addendum
42. An impact test for which the specimen is
supported at one end as a cantilever:
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Brinnel test
D. Endurance test
A. Feeler gage
B. Laser
C. Micrometer
D. Diametometer
51. A hand tool used to measure tension in
bolts:
A. Tensometer
B. Torque meter
C. Indexer
D. Torsiometer
52. Distance from center of one tooth of a gear
to the center of the next consecutive tooth
measured on the pitch:
A. Diamettral pitch
B. Pitch circle
C. Circular pitch
D. Module
53. The process of heating a piece of steel to a
temperature within or above the critical
range and cooling rapidly:
A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Hardening
D. Quenching
54. A machine tool in which metal is removed
by means of a revolving cutter with many
teeth, each tooth having a cutting edge

which removes its share of the stock.
A. Milling machine
B. Lathe
C. Drill
D. Grinder
55. Welding operation in which a non-ferrous
filler metal melts at a temperature below
that of the metal joined but heated above
450C.
A. Filled weld
B. Soldering
C. Brazing
D. TIG welding
56. The process of checking or producing
checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling
checkered depressions into the surface:
A. Indexing
B. Knurling
C. Quenching
D. Soldering
57. Steels can be strengthened all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Annealing
B. Quenching and tempering
C. Work hardening
D. Age precipation
58. Modulus of resilience is:
A. The same as the modulus of elasticity
B. A measure of the materials ability to
store strain energy
C. Reciprocal of modulus of elasticity
D. Measure of the deflection of a member
59. The linear portion of the
diagram of steel is known as:
stress-strain
B. Plastic range
C. Elastic range
D. None of these
equal to the:
A. Change in shear between two points
B. Average moment between the two points
C. Change on the moment between the two
points
D. Change in the deflection between the
two points
analyze:
A. Continuous beam
B. Beam loaded at the third points
C. Three moment composite beam
D. Axially-loaded beam
A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit
longhitudinal deformation
B. Unit stress to the unit strain
C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
D. Elastic limit to ultimate strength
63. A structure has five unknown reactions
acting on the structure. Three equations of
static equilibrium have been written. To
complete the analysis, which of the
following equations would be needed?
A. Two dynamic equations
B. Three member deformation equation
C. Three more static equilibrium equations
D. Two member deformation equations
64. For most metals Poissons ratio lies in the
range:
A. 0.25 0.35
B. 0.30 0.40
C. 0.35 0.45
D. 0.40 0.50
65. An operation of sizing and finishing a hole

by means of a cutting tool having several
cutting edges:
A. Planning
B. Reaming
C. Boring
D. Drilling
66. Kind of chuck which has five reversible jaws
which could be adjusted properly:
A. Universal chuck
B. Live chuck
C. Chuck Connors
D. Independent chuck
67. The maximum bending moment of a beam
simply supported on both ends and subject
to total load W uniformly distributed over its
length L is expressed by the formula:
A. WL/8
B. WL2/8
C. WL/2
D. WL/4
68. When machining nickel alloys the best type
of cutting fluid is:
A. Sulfurized oil
B. Straight material
C. Soluble oil
D. All of these
69. Hardening the surface of iron based alloys
by heating them below the melting point in
contact with the carbonaceous substance:
A. Nitriding
B. Cyaniding
C. Carburizing
D. Quenching
70. The ration of the stress acting on an elastic
unit volume:
A. Bulk modulus
B. Poissons ratio
C. Volumetric ratio
D. Strain
B. Gray iron
C. White iron
D. Head iron
87. An alloying element used principally to

produce stainless steel.
76. Total deformation measured along in the

direction of the line of stress:
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Elongation
D. Yield line

A. The lube is supplied under pressure
B. There is marginal lubrication
C. The lube oil is not pressurized
D. The bearing is lightly loaded
77. An alloy of copper and zinc:

A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Bronze
D. Tin
89. The process of working metals by the

application of sudden blows on by a steady
pressure.
78. Which of the following metals is easy to

chisel?
A. Cast iron
B. Alloy steel
C. Cast steel
D. Manganese steel
79. The commonly used joint in cast iron pipe:
A. Bell and spigot joint
B. Compression joint
C. Expansion joint
A. Elasticity
B. Endurance stress
C. Yield stress
D. Ultimate stress
72. A material that can wear away a substance
softer that itself:
A. Tungsten
B. Abrasive
C. Corrosive
D. Carbon
73. In a long column (slenderness ratio , 160),
which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle under a
compressive load?
B. Radius of gyration
C. Moment of inertia
74. Materials, usually ceramics, employed
where
resistance
to
a
very
high
temperature is required, as for furnace
linings and metal melting pots.
A. Bricks
B. Refractories
C. Insulators
D. Conductors
80. A machine tool is used principally to

machine flat or plane surfaces with a single
pointed cutting tool.
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Hacksaw
D. Drill
A. Yield stress
B. Elastic limit
C. Fracture
D. Ultimate strength
75. Which process does not belong to the

group?
A. Malleable iron
A. Calcination
B. Fusion
C. Boiling
D. Forging
A. Planning
B. Shaping
C. Turning
D. Reaming
93. The clearance between tooth profiles of
gear tooth
A. Rack
B. Dedendum
C. Addendum
D. Backlash
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Monel
D. Inconel
94. The Internal stresses existing in a welded

connection are:
83. A hollow shaft made of plain carbon steel

contains 0.35% carbon is mounted on
bearing 20 ft apart. The material of the
shaft will composed of:
A. UNS G 1035
B. SAE 1030
C. AISI C1035
D. SAE 6150
A. Not relieved by heat treatment

B. Not relieved when the weld is peened
C. Maybe relieved when the weld is peened
D. Relieved by x-rays analysis
mandrel?
84. Fluid film desire between two surfaces

having relative sliding motion:
A. Grease
B. Lubrication
C. Margin
D. Clearance
A. Expansion mandrel
B. Gang mandrel
C. Contraction mandrel
D. Taper mandrel
96. A non-ferrous all consists of nickel and
copper:
85. Which of the following is not a strength

property of a material?
A. Endurance strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Torsional strength
D. Elastic resilience
A. Reaming
B. Piercing
C. Tuning
D. Boring
90. Herringbone gears are gears which:

A. Do not operate on parallel shafts
B. Have a line contact between the teeth
C. Consist of two left handed helical gears
D. Tend to produce and trust on the shafts

reciprocates and the feed is stationary is
called:
81. The maximum stress to which a material

can be subjected to without a trace of any
permanent set remaining upon a complete
withdrawal of the stress.
86. The
method
compression.
A. Casting
B. Forging
C. Tempering
D. Peening
91. Subjecting a substance to

a
high
temperature below the fusion point, usually
to make it friable.
82. Usually copper-tin alloy:

71. The maximum stress indicated in a material
subjected to altering or repeated loading
without causing failure:
A. Zinc
B. Tantalum
C. Titanium
D. Chromium
of
A. Monel
B. Bronze
C. Tubing bronze
D. Brass
97. One of the following is not a tap used for
cutting threads in holes.
cold
working
by
A. Tapping tap
B. Plug tap
C. Taper tap
D. Bottoming tap
98. A material is to be drawn into a wire. It
must therefore posses the property of:
A. Toughness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Hardness
9.
99. When cast steel is used for the body of
machine it is used because:
A. It has non-magnetic properties
B. It has good-self lubricating properties
C. It is cheap
D. It is strong in tension
It is the difference of addendum and

dedendum with equivalent the whole depth
less working depth:
A. Fillet space
B. Fillet radius
C. Clearance
D. Backlash
10. Negative allowance is also called:

100. One of the following is unsuitable for
bearings.
A. White metal
B. Mild steel
C. Cast iron
D. Nylon
A. Interference
B. Tolerance
C. Fit
11. The distance a helical gear or worm will
tread along its axis in one revolution if it
were free to move axially is called:
A. Length of action
B. Line of action
C. Fit
D. Lead
12. Reinstall of second hand boilers shall have a
minimum factor of safety of:
MODULE 10
1.
Ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain

when loaded longitudinally in tension.
A. Poissons ration
B. Strain modulus
C. Strain ratio
D. Tension ratio
2.
A shaft is to be checked for concentricity. A

suitable method of performing the check is
by:
A. Bench Micrometer
B. Snap Gage
C. Manometer
D. Bench centers and dial indicator
3.
The following pertain to joining of metals

EXCEPT:
A. Welding
B. Soldering
C. Casting
D. Brazing
4.
Killed steel is always associated with:

A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Phosphorus
D. Sulfur
5.
The good deoxidizer in steel melting:

A. Manganese
B. Silicon
C. All of this
D. Aluminum
6.
Good stabilizer in stainless steel:

A. Columbium
B. Titanium
C. All of this
D. Tantalum
7.
Alloy that improves strength of steel at high

temperature application:
A. Tungsten
B. Molybdenum
C. All of these
D. Chromium
8.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Tooth width measured along the chord at

the pitch circle:
A. Flank
B. Face width
C. Width of space
D. Chordal thickness
20. The concave portion of the tooth profile

where it joins the bottom of the tooth
space.
A. Fillet curve
B. Fillet
C. Undercut
D. Plane
21. In a pair of gears, it is the plane that
contains the two axis, in a single gear, it
may be any plane containing the axis and
the given point.
A. Axial plane
B. Pitch plane
C. Normal Plane
D. All of the above
class of steel?
A. low carbon steel
B. stainless steel
D. tool and die steel
23. The section modulus of the rectangle of
base b and height h about its base is:
A.
13. Secondhand boilers when the longitudinal

seams are of lap riveted construction, the
minimum factor of safety is:
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
14. The lowest factor of safety permissible on
existing installations:
A. 4.5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
15. Horizontal Return Tubular Boilers having
continuous lap seams more than 3650mm
in length, the factor of safety is:
A. 9
B. 5
C. 6
D. 4.5
16. The curve formed by the path of a point on
a circle as it rolls along a straight line.
A. Cycloid
B. Involute
C. Undercut
D. Trochoid
17. The curved formed by the path of a point on
a straight line as it rolls along ta curved
line.
A. Involute
B. Cycloid
C. Trochoid
D. Fillet
18. The curved formed by the path of a point on
the extension of a circle as it rolls along a
curved or line.
A. Trochoid
B. Cycloid
C. Involute
D. Undercut
19. A condition in generated gear teeth when
part of the fillet curve lies inside of the line
drawn tangent to the working profile at its
lowest point.
A. Undercut
B. Trochoid
C. Fillet
D. Involute
B.
bh2
6
bh3
3
2
C.
D.
bh
12
bh3
12
24. A material that should be avoided in

construction wood pattern:
A. sap wood
B. kiln dried wood
C. heart wood
D. core portion of wood
25. The gradual chemical reaction by other
substance such that metal is converted to
an oxide or other compounds.
A. corrosion
B. cheaping
C. rusting
D. weathering
26. Dimensions
permitted:
from
which
variations
are
A. basic dimension
B. nominal size
C. clearance
D. tolerance
27. 1kw is equivalent to:
A. 57 Btu/min
B. 764 hp
C. 41 kcal/sec
D. 44,200 ft-lb/sec
28. The most important factor in determining
high temperature behavior of alloy is:
A. dispersion
B. ionization
C. crystallization
D. composition
29. What is the standard temperature in the
U.S.?
41. SAE steel

treatment:
A. Fahrenheit
B. Rankine
C. Celsius
D. Kelvin
that
corresponds
to
heat
A. SAE 1060
B. SAE 117
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 1020
30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron

coated with:
which of the following:
A. aluminum
B. tin
C. zinc
D. manganese

B. load of the beam
31. All the functions of lubricating oil except:

A. adhesion
B. corrosion prevention
C. act as coolant
D. to lighten the load
43. To reduce cost in the manufacturing of large

worm gears the materials to utilize:
32. For grinding materials having low tensile

strength which abrasive is used:
A. silicon carbide
B. aluminum oxide
C.
D. corundum
44. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast

metal is being heated to a very high
temperature then suddenly subjected to
rapid cooling to improve hardenabilityor
wear resistance is called:
33. What will be the effect in bushing gears

without backlash?
A. jamming
B. overheating
C. overload
D. all of these
34. A metal which has a high electrical
conductivity but should not be used for high
temperature of metal:
A. silcon
B. zinc
C. chrome alloy
D. carbide
45. The length of arc between the two sides of

a gear tooth on the pitch circle:
A. circukat thickness )
B. axial plane
C. helix angle
D. chordal angle
46. Killed steel is very much associated with:
A. chromium
B. vanadium
C. tungsten
D. nickel
A. manganese
B. sulphur
C. phosphorus
D. silicon
form the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a
particles are projected in form of a spray by
means of compressed air or gas.
36. Improves read harness of steel:

A. chromium
B. cobalt
C. boron
D. lead
A. electro-slug building
B. electro-beam welding
C. plasma-arc welding
D. metal spray welding
for
measuring
A. micrometer
B. tachometer
C. caliper
D. pyrometer
38. Range of helix angle on helical gear:
A. less than 18
B. 15 25
C. 20 35
D. 35 40
39. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing
areas, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant,
and N = speed of journal, then the bearing
characteristic number is:
A. zN/p
B. z/pN
C. zp/N
D. p/zN
40. Is the permissible variable of the size of
dimension:
A. tolerance
B. allowance
C. clearance
D. interference
A. normalizing
B. tempering
C. quenching
D. annealing
52. What is the metal characteristic

withstand forces that cause twisting?
to
A. torsional strength
B. modulus of elasticity
C. twisting moment
D. elasticity
53. In greater quality this element is harmful to
the ferrous metal:
A. sulfur
B. silicon
C. zinc
D. aluminum
A. gaskets
B. seals
C. felts
D. packings
55. It has molybdenum alloy steel, except:
A. SAE 43xx
B. SAE 4xxx
C. SAE 6xxx
D. SAE 47xx
56. A type of gear cut inside a cylinder or ring:
A. rack gear
B. ring gear
C. miter gear
D. internal gear
57. Flexible material used to seal pressurized
fluids, normally under dynamic condition:
35. Main alloying element in high speed steel

is:
37. The best instrument

thousand of an inch:
A. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron

spider
B. bronze rim with cast steel spider
C. all of these
D. cast iron rim without bronze spider
B. chromium-moly steel
C. chrome-nickel-molly alloy
D. manganese-moly steel
48. Heating of metal above the critical

temperature and then cooling slowly usually
in the furnace to reduce the hardness and
improve the machinabilty is called:
A. normalizing
B. annealing
C. tempering
D. quenching
A. copper
B. manganese
C. zinc
D. lead
50. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material
available in the market with carbon content
of 0.28 to 0.34% C.
A. SAE 4132
B. SAE 4320
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 4130
51. Alloy steel known for its resistance to
corrosion, abrasion and wear that is usually
ideal for mill grinding of ore in cement and
concentrator application. It is usually
combined with molybdenum to increase the
depth hardening
A. manganese-chromium steel
A. nylon
B. seal
C. Teflon
D. packing
58. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature
application:
A. manganese-nickel steel castings
B. high chrome steel castings
C. chrome-nickel steel castings
D. high manganese castings
59. What heat treatment process can cast steel
materials of high chrome, high manganese,
etc. type steel be subjected for the purpose
of machining process?
A. annealing
B. tempering
C. normalizing
D. quenching
60. Galvanized steel plate is a plate coated
with:
A. aluminum
B. tin
C. zinc
D. manganese
A. copper
B. manganese
C. zinc
D. lead
62. Fillet radius in machine parts are usually
introduced to:
A. improve the look of the parts
B. reduce concentration of stress and
C. to avid obstruction
D. necessary to lessen casting weights
63. Heating of the material to a temperature
above the critical temperature and then
cooling slowly usually in the furnace to
reduce the hardness

machinability is called:
and
improve
the
A. annealing
B. tempering
C. normalizing
D. quenching
A. the lube oil is supplied under pressure
B. lube oil is not pressurized
C. there is no oil
D. bearing is lightly loaded
65. One of the following materials is unsuitable
as a bearing:
A. Teflon
B. low carbon steel
C. cast iron
D. nylon
maintained at machine blacksmith, welding
and foundry shop:
A. safety goggle
B. walkway guide
C. safety notices in markings
D. all of these
67. The angle, at the base of the cylinder of an
involute gear, that the tooth makes with the
gear axis:
A. base helix angle
B. pressure angle
C. arc of recess
D. arc of approach
68. A kind of thread that is generally used:
A. UNEC
B. UNC
C. UNF
D. UNEF
69. Which is not generally used as standard?
A. ASTM
B. SAE
C. IPS
D. AISI
70. In a uniformly loaded simple beam, the
maximum vertical shearing force occurs:
A. at the center
B. at the section of maximum moment
C. at the beam bottom fiber
D. at either end support
71. The capacity of metal to withstand load
without bending is:
A. strength
B. stress
C. elasticity
D. strain
72. Outstanding safety contributes to:
A. high productivity and quality work
B. outstanding performance that expects
reward from the management
C. confidence in foremans ability to
perform well.
D. pride and enthusiasm to one-self
73. A type of coupling that allows slight amount
of torsional/angular flexibility due to
introduction with some elastic material
cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in
the flange.
A. simple elastic bonded coupling
B. elastic-material bushed coupling
C. elastic-material bonded coupling
D. all of these
74. Copper and most of its alloys can be
hardened by:
A. patenting
B. cold working
C. case hardening
D. soaking
75. What happens to a drill if the operating
speed is so fast?
A. drill will crack
B. drill will become overheated and will
bend
C. drill will become overheated and will be
drawn from steel
D. drill will become very dull and wear dust.
76. To reach subjects in mechanical engineering
course, he must be duly licensed ______ or
Masters degree or Doctorate degree holder
in Mechanical Engineering.
A. ME
B. CPM
C. PME
D. CPM, ME and PME
77. To operate, tend or maintain or to be in
charge of the operation, tending, or
maintenance of any mechanical works,
projects or plant of over 2,100kw, he must
be duly licensed ______.
A. ME
B. CPM
C. PME
D. CPM, ME and PME
78. Maximum plant capacity in which a licensed
ME Is allowed to operate, tend, or maintain:
A. 300 kw
B. 1000 kw
C. 2000 kw
D. 3000 kw
79. For a mechanical plant with capacity of 300
kw or over but not more than 2000 kw, the
personnel required to must be at least one
_____.
A. ME
B. PME
C. CPM, ME and PME
D. PME and ME
80. The only accredited national organization
for mechanical engineers.
A. PME
B. NME
C. PSME
D. POME
81. Which furnacedo not belong to the group?
A. Bessemer
B. Open-hearth
C. Induction
D. Pudding
82. Which center is used for supporting open
eng pipes, shells, etc. While turning or
thread cutting in a lathe:
A. ball center
B. half center
C. pipe center
D. female center
83. Steel completely deoxidized with silicon.
A. rimmed steel
B. killed steel
C. capped steel
D. silicate steel
A. is uniform through out

shaft.
86. Cold working of materials.
A. Increases the fatigue strength
87. Which of the following are true regarding
creep?
I. It is caused by the diffusion of
vacancies to edge dislocations, permitting
dislocation climb.
II. It involves the plastic deformation of
materials at loads below the yield stress.
III. It may involve whole grain sliding.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
88. Steel balls for
manufactured by:
ball
bearings
A. Turning
B. Rolling
C. Casting
D. Cold heading
89. Under which type of loading does fatigue
occur?
A. static load
B. plane load
C. high load
D. repeated load
90. What does the Charpy impact test
measure?
I. The energy required to break a test
sample.
II. The strength of the test sample
III. The ductile to brittle transition point
of metals
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
91. Which of the following best describes the
0.2% offset of the yield stress?
A. It is the elastic limit after which a
measurable plastic strain has occurred.
B. It is the stress at which the material
plastically strains 0.2%.
C. It is the stress at which the material
elasticity strains 0.2%.
D. It is 0.2% below the fracture point of the
material.
A. creep
B. hardness
C. toughness
D. resilience
93. In order to realize the advantages of fluid
A. parallel oil film in bearing
B. converging oil film
C. no oil film
D. diverging oil film

A. rapid rate of crack propagation
B. Negligible deformation
C. Fragmentation into more than two places
D. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to
propagation of crack
85. For a circular shaft subjected to torque, the
are

B. rigid coupling
C. type of flange coupling
D. used for collinear shafts
95. The function of the governor is to:
A. store energy and give up whenever

needed
B. regulate speed during one cycle of a
prime mover
C. increase vibration of speed
D. adjust variation of speed by varying the
input to the engine
96. The constituent that has a
softening effect on cast iron
presence in cast iron reduces the
the iron to retain carbon in
combination is:
C. isotropy
D. scarcity
3.
A. 4 to 7
B. 7 to 9
C. 9 to 16
D. 5 to 8
powerful
and its
ability of
chemical
4.
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. carbon
D. sulphur
97. In resistance
released;
The best proportional spring have an index,

C, of:
What belt speeds requires dynamic

balancing?
A. more than 3000 fpm
B. more than 5000 fpm
C. more than 1800 fpm
D. more than 6000 fpm
welding,
the
pressure
is
5.
A. just at the time of passing the current

B. during heating period
C. after weld coats
D. after completion of currents
98. In general, what are the effects of cold
working a metal?
It is recommended for high speed

application that the minimum number of
teeth in small sprockets should be:
A. 26 to 30
B. 12 to 16
C. 26 to 28
D. 18 to 24
6.
A. increase strength and ductility

B. increase strength, decrease ductility
C. decrease strength and ductility
D. decrease strength, increase ductility
A general center distance of ________ chain

pitches is most desirable
A. 20 to 25
B. 30 to 50
C. 50 to 80
D. 60 to 90
99. If a material recovers its original dimension,

when the load is removed, is is called:
7.
A. Plastic
B. Elastic
C. Brittle
D. Annealed
Most popular soldering material.

A. 10/80
B. 45/55
C. 50/50
D. 60/40
100. In case of a knuckle joint the pin is most

likely to fall in:
8.
A. compression
B. shear
C. tension
D. double shear
For wire rope the factor of safety for

standing rope usually ranges from 3 to 4;
for operating rope, this is
A. 5 to 12
B. 10 to 15
C. 12 to 15
D. 8 to 12
9.
Roller chain lubrication is designated I, II, III,

IV which type does manual lubrication
belong?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
14. The use of flat belt pulley is limited to

A. 8500 fpm
B. 6000 fpm
C. 4500 fpm
D. 5200 fpm
15. In general, when cutting hard and tough
materials the relief angle should be
A. 6 to 8
B. 5 to 7
C. 8 to 12
D. 5 to 10
16. SAE 11XX is intended for
A. plain carbon steels
B. higher sulfur content and easy machining
C. stainless steels
D. high hardenability case
17. Reciprocal of the diametral pitch or ratio of
pitch diameter to number of teeth
A. lead
B. module
C. clearance
D. circular pitch
18. The angle subtended at the center of the
base circle from the origin of an involute to
the point of tangency of the generatrix to
any point on the same involute.
A. pitch angle
B. pressure angle
D. roll angle
19. A measure of the amount of light
transmitted through a given material
A. luminous transmittance
B. opacity
C. lubricity
D. isotropy
20. Roller chain sprockets have four different
designs Type D sprockets have
A. plain plate
B. hub or side only
C. hub or both side
D. detachable hub
21. The depth of engagement of two gears, that
is, sum of their addendums.
A. whole depth
B. backlash
C. clearance
D. working depth
10. Stresses that are independent of load:

A. endurance stress
B. operating stress
C. shear stress
D. residual stress
11. Foundation belts should be surrounded
by a pipe steam with an inside diameter of
at least 3 times the diameter of the anchor
bolt and a length of at least
A. 18 times the bolt diameter
B. 16 times the bolt diameter
C. 19 times the bolt diameter
D. 20 times the bolt diameter
MODULE 11
1.
Are machine elements used to join lengths

of shafting
A. key
B. coupling
C. clutch
D. hub
2.
That property of a material wherein its

content is continuously distributed through
its entire volume:
A. homogeneity
B. anisotropy
12. Cast iron wheels with solid rim has a

bursting speed of
A. 395 fps
B. 194 fps
C. 258 fps
D. 225 fps
13. Which of the following has the least
bursting speed
A. cast iron wheels solid rim
B. wheels with jointed rim
C. for link joints
D. wheel rim I-section
22. Which is not a type of classification of

spring services?
A. light
B. average
C. sever
D. heavy
23. Concave portion of the tooth profile where it
joins the bottom of the tooth space
A. circular pitch
B. flank
C. fillet radius
D. fillet
24. A form of the key that is used to connect
rods, etc that is subjected to either tension
or compression or both
A. parallel by
B. taper keys
C. woodruff
D. cotter
25. Which is not a kind of fit for square and
rectangular parallel keys and key ways
A. loose fit
B. force fit
C. normal fit
D. close fit
26. Which of the following could be used for
cutting wire ropes?
A. welding electrode
B. mechanical shears
C. abrasive wheel
D. acetylene touch
with a factor of safety of
A. 10 to 13
B. 5 to 8
C. 4 to 8
D. 3 to 8
28. The maximum safe rim speed for solid cast
iron pulley is
A. 4200fpm
B. 5000 fpm
C. 6500 fpm
D. 3800 fpm
29. It is a rigid piece of non-elastic substance
which serves to transmit force from one
piece to another or to cause or control
motion:
A. chain
B. belt drive
C. link
D. shaft
30. Machine tools used in the production of flat
surfaces on pieces to lay for a shaper
A. turret lathe
B. shaper
C. boring mill
D. milling machine
31. Ability of the material to withstand high-unit
stress together with great unit strain:
A. resilience
B. toughness
C. malleability
D. ductility
32. High speed tool sheets (HSS) are used for
the working of metals at high cutting speed.
AISI specification include
A. molybdenum types
B. high-carbon type
C. chromium type
D. carbon-tungsten type
33. Effective face width of a helical gear divided
by gear axial pitch.
A. face overlap
B. teeth overlap
C. land overlap
D. pitch overlap
34. Directly hardenable steels are considered in
five groups and the basis is approximate
carbon content. Heat treated parts
requiring moderate strength and great
toughness.
A. 0.40 0.42%
B. 0.30 0.37%
C. 0.45 0.50%
D. 1.02%
35. The best material for crane hoisting chain
A. wrought iron
B. cast iron
C. malleable iron
D. commercial steel
36. An ISO metric thread is designated M8
x1.25 -6g. The thread has a pitch of
A. 0.8 mm
B. 1.25 mm
C. 0.6 mm
D. 8 x 1.25 mm
37. The permissible variation in size of a
dimension
A. tolerance
B. clearance
C. interface
D. allowable
38. Center to center distance between
sprockets as a general rule shall not be less
than 1 times the diameter of the large
sprocket and not less than ______ times the
pitch nor more than _____ times the pitch.
A. 20, 40
B. 30, 50
C. 50, 80
D. 10, 30
39. For punching and shearing machinery a
speed variation of ____ may be allowed in
all flywheel design
A. 1 to 2%
B. 5 to 10%
C. 20%
D. 50%
40. For maximum rope life of 6 x 7 the
minimum sheave diameter, D in terms of
the rope diameter is
A. D = 72d
B. D = 45d
C. D = 30d
D. D = 27d
41. When baked, which alloy does not change
much
A. nickel alloys
B. phosphor bronze
C. brass
D. copper
with a factor of safety of:
A. 12 to 16
B. 9 to 10
C. 9 to 12
D. 10 to 13
43. It is recommended not to have direct drive
and rive sprockets fit eh ratio of their teeth
exceeds _____, use two or more step
combination.
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
44. Some experiment made at Cornell
University showed that experienced
mechanic could break a _____ bolt due to
tightening
A. 3/8
B. 5/8
C.
D. 7/16
45. Which of the following furnaces do not
belong to the group?
A. blast furnace
B. salt bath electrode
C. reactor furnace
D. over or reactor furnace
46. The factor of safety for operating rope is
A. 5 to 12
B. 3 to 4
C. greater than 12
D. 2 to 6
47. A nickel alloy which is age-hardenable with
good spring and low-sparking properties
and slightly magnetic after heat treatment:
A. monel
B. hastealloy
C. duranickel
D. inconel
51. Which of the following materials have

excellent abrasion and wear resistance at
elevated temperatures?
A. chromium
B. molybdenum
C. ugnadium
D. any of these
52. Alloy steels which is not capable of heat
treatment and known as chromium-nickel
austentic steels. These only undergoes
sever cold-working.
A. SAE 50100
B. SAE 4150
C. SAE 30301
D. SAE 1035
53. Materials from which screws and nuts
manufactured have tensile strength of not
less than _____ kg/mm2 for steels.
A. 42
B. 32
C. 52
D. 50
e=wear on each gear tooth, the ideal
design practice is to consider a _____.
gears
55. Which of the following materials is not used
for flat belt pulleys
A. wood
B. paper
C. cast iron
D. brass
56. Ability to resist deformation under stress
A. rigidity
B. stiffness
C. elasticity
D. malleability
57. Driving motors for machine shop
equipments are designated A, B, C, D, E, F.
Squirrel cage induction motor Is designated:
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. F
58. A measure of the ability of the environment
containing active carbon to alter or
maintain under prescribed conditions, the
carbon content of the steel exposed to it
A. carbon potential
B. carbon reservation
C. cemetation
D. cold treatment
59. The standard thickness adopted by the
National Industry Belting Association for a
single-ply belt is:
A. 13/64
B. 20/64
C. 30/64
D. 34/64
48. The velocity of an object divided by the

velocity of sound is called
A. microsisons number
B. plan
C. velocity factor
D. mach number
60. For stability, the total combined engine

equipment and foundation center of gravity
must be kept:
A. above the foundation
B. below the machine top
C. below the foundation top
D. outside the foundation
49. It is good practice to use belt pulley with

faces from
A. to 2
B. to 1
C. 2 to 5
D. 1 to 4
61. Large sprockets in roller chain should not

exceed
A. 80T
B. 120T
C. 60T
D. 150T
50. Heating to a low temperature in order to

remove entrained gases
A. baking
B. bluing
C. austempering
D. carburizing
62. Plus and minus of the tolerance is also

called
A. total tolerance
B. unilateral tolerance
C. bilateral tolerance
63. Dimensions from which variations are

permitted
A. basic dimension
B. nominal size
C. clearance
D. tolerance
64. Which gage is used to check the internal
threads
A. plug gauge
B. ring gauge
C. thread plug gauge
D. thread ring gauge
65. Splined shafts are generally used in
A. machine tools
B. aircraft
C. bicycles
D. automobile
66. Splines are used when
A. the power to be transmitted is low
B. the power to be transmitted is high
C. rpm are high
D. axial relative motion between shaft and
hub is necessary
67. In case of sunk key
A. the key is cur in both hub and shaft
B. the key way is cut in hub only
C. the key way is cut in shaft only
D. the key way is helical along the shaft
68. Hardened steel parts have
A. fine grains
B. coarse grains
C. medium grains
69. Difference between the basic dimensions of
the mating parts
A. tolerance
B. allowance
C. clearance
D. interference
70. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay
means wire and strands are arranged in the
following manner:
A. twisted in same direction
C. twisted in opposite direction
D. twisted in along direction
71. A babbit is
A. a eutectic of iron and phosphide
B. a gadget for measuring volume
C. a measure of magnetic induction
D. antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
72. Galvanized iron is term referring to iron
coated with:
A. aluminum
B. tin
C. zinc
D. manganese
73. All are functions of lubricating oil except:
A. adhesion
B. corrosion prevention
C. act as coolant
D. to lighten the load
A. silicon carbide
B. aluminum oxide
C. emery
D. corundum
75. Cold working of materials
A. increase the fatigue strength
B. decrease the fatigue strength
C. does not change fatigue strength
76. A plane perpendicular to the axial plane
and to the pitch plane. In gears with parallel
axis, the transverse plane and the plane of
rotation coincide.
A. transverse plane
B. principal reference plane
C. pitch plane
D. normal plane
77. What will be the effect in bushing gears
without backlash
A. jamming
B. overheating
C. overload
D. all of these
90. Is the permissible variation of the size of a

dimension:
A. tolerance
B. allowance
C. clearance
D. interference
78. In a planer the feed is provided:

A. at forward stroke
B. at return stroke
C. in between forward stroke
D. in between return stroke
91. When outside diameter of a job is turned in

relation to the internal hole. The job should
be held:
A. in three jaw chuck
B. on lathe mandrel
C. on the face plate
D. between centers
79. In flywheel design, the normal factor of

safety is:
A. 5 to 8
B. 6 t0 10
C. 10 to 13
D. 3 to 5
92. For the accurate measurement of bores, the

best instrument is:
A. vernier caliper
B. dial test indicator
C. plug gauge
D. inside micrometer
80. Not adaptable to welding due to strength

and poor ductility
A. copper parts
B. aluminum parts
C. cast iron parts
D. all of these
93. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist

drill increase, then cutting speed will:
A. increase
B. decrease
C. same
81. What type of bearing that totally encloses

the shaft?
A. offset bearing
B. central bearing
C. babbit bearing
D. full bearing
94. Color of pipe for communication:

A. white
B. blue
C. yellow
D. orange
82. The function of clutch in the machine tool

is:
A. lowering the drive speed
D. to ensure that two shafts at line up at
high speed
83. A metal which has high electrical
conductivity but should not be used for high
temperature of metal.
A. silicon
B. zinc
C. chrome alloy
D. carbide
84. Finding the resultant of two or more forces
is called:
A. coplanar forces
B. non-coplanar forces
C. couple
D. composition of forces
85. In hydrodynamic bearings
A. the oil film pressure is generated only by
B. the oil film is maintained by supplying oil
under pressure
C. do not need external supply of lubricant
D. grease is used for lubrication
86. Main alloying element in High Speed Steel
is:
A. chromium
B. vanadium
C. tungsten
D. nickel
87. Improves red hardness of steel
A. chromium
B. cobalt
C. boron
D. lead
thousand of an inch
A. micrometer
B. tachometer
C. caliper
D. pyrometer
89. Range of helix angle on helical gear.
A. less than 18
B. 15 25
C. 20 35
D. 35 40
95. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the

radial distance between pitch circle and top
land of the tooth:
A. top root
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting tooth
96. Which is the lightest metal?
A. lead
B. GI sheet
C. aluminum
D. cast iron
97. The single force which produces the same
effect upon a body as two or more forces
acting together is called:
A. resultant force
B. coplanar force
C. couple
D. non-coplanar force
98. What is the SAE specification number of
Molybdenum?
A. SAE 2XXX
B. SAE 3XXX
C. SAE 4XXX
D. SAE 5XXX
99. What do you call the distance between
adjacent rivets?
A. pitch
B. diagonal pitch
C. lead
100. Involute teeth, the pressure angle is often
defined as the angle between the line of
action and the line of tangent to the pitch
circle. It is also termed as:
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
D. arc of action
12. Refers to the surface of the gear between

the fillets of adjacent teeth:
MODULE 12
1.
18-8 stainless steel means:
A. 18% tungsten and 8% chromium

B. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
C. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
D. 18% chromium and 8% cobalt
2.
When an external gear is meshed with an

internal gear the gears will rotate in:
A. same direction
B. opposite direction
C. will not rotate
3.
A usual ratio of soluble oil and water used in

coolant is:
A. 1:10
B. 10:1
C. 1:20
D. 20:1
4.
While soldering the flux is used because:

A. It assist for quick melting and increasing
the fluidity of solder
B. It saves part from oxidation
C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces
D. all of the above
5.
Muntz metal contains

A. copper-nickel
B. copper-zinc
C. copper-tin
D. copper-aluminum
6.
Belt slip will take place because of:

A. loose load
B. heavy belt
C. driving pulley too small
D. all of the above
7.
Steel that has been deoxidized with

manganese:
A. capped steel
B. rimmed steel
C. killed steel
D. chrome manganese
8.
In which method a bore is finished to a very

close tolerance:
A. lapping
B. honing
C. grinding
D. turning
9.
The crest diameter of a screw thread is

same as
A. major diameter
B. pitch diameter
C. none of the above
D. minor diameter
10. The ability of a metal to resist being

crushed:
A. shearing strength
B. compressive strength
D. tensile strength
11. In making or dimensioning of parts the
symbol
2.5plus minus 0.003
means:
A. bilateral allowance
B. unilateral allowance
C. general allowance
D. specific allowance
A. top land
B. bottom land
C. pitch
D. fillet
13. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing:
A. full bearing
B. offset bearing
C. partial bearing
D. fitted bearing
14. The distance the helical gear of worm would
thread along its axis in one revolution if it
were free to move axially:
A. lead
B. thread
C. pitch
D. land
15. Which does not belong to the group?
A. SAE
B. AISI
C. SEA II
D. ASTM
16. What is the SAE specification number of
Molybdenum-chromium-nickel?
A. 48XX
B. 47XX
C. 46XX
D. 45XX
17. The over arm of a milling machine is used
to support:
A. spindle
B. arbor
C. column
D. table
18. The rated life of a bearing changes:
A. directly as load
B. inversely as fourth power of load
C. inversely as cube of load
D. inversely as square of load
19. In general, the design stress and factor of
safety are related as follows:
A. design stress = ultimate stress times
factor of safety
B. design stress = ultimate stress divided
by factor of safety
C. factor of safety = design stress divided
by ultimate stress
D. ultimate stress = factor of safety divided
by design stress
20. Curve formed by the pitch of a point of the
extension of a circle as it rolls along a curve
or line
A. trochoid
B. involute
C. spiral
D. cycloid
21. Product of mass and linear velocity is
known as:
A. impulse
B. linear momentum
C. angular momentum
D. impact
22. Which of the following is not an iron ore?
A. hematite
B. siderite
C. limonite
D. sulfurite
23. The blow of pressure of a safety valve is:
A. slightly more than atmospheric pressure
B. half of boiler working pressure
C. equal to boiler working pressure

D. 106% of the boiler working pressure
24. The amount by which the width of a tooth
space exceeds the thickness of the
engaging tooth on the pitch circle.
A. backlash
B. clearance
C. undercut
D. chordal thickness
25. Taps are resharpened by grinding:
A. flutes
B. threads
C. diameter
D. relief
26. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be
checked by:
A. vernier caliper
B. outside micrometer
C. dial test indicator
D. tube micrometer
27. Steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is
known as:
A. eutectoid
B. hypoeutectoid
C. hypereutectoid
D. carbide
28. Split pulleys have their maximum speed
limited to _____ of solid pulleys of:
A. 65% to 75%
B. 45% to 50%
C. 55% to 60%
D. 80% to 90%
29. What tool will be used in making wood
pattern in a foundry shop?
A. band saw
B. drill machine
C. saw and chisel
D. hammer
30. A type of welding process wherein a
mixture of aluminum powder and metal
oxide powder is ignited by a special powder
in a crubicle.
A. resistance welding
B. thermit welding
C. slug welding
D. plasma arc welding
31. The deflection of a beam is:
A. directly proportional to the modulus of
B. inversely proportional to the modulus of
elasticity and length of the beam cubed
C. inversely proportional to the modulus of
D. directly proportional to the load imposed
and inversely to the length squared
A. unit lateral deformation to the unit
longitudinal deformation
B. unit stress to unit strain
C. elastic limit to proportional limit
D. shear strain to compressive strain
33. The linear portion of a stress-strain diagram
of steel is known as the:
A. modulus of elasticity
B. plastic range
C. irreversible range
D. elastic range
34. Except for service stairs, the pitch stairways
should be between _____ from the horizontal
A. 30 to 30 deg
B. 30 to 40 deg
C. 20 to 45 deg
D. 10 to 40 deg
D. arc of recess
35. A combination of resistant bodies so
arranged that by their means the
mechanical forces of mixture can be
compelled to produce the same effect or
work accompanied with certain
determination motion:
A. turbine
B. resistors
C. machine
D. mechanism
36. A vertically loaded, fixed at one end and
simply supported at the other is
indeterminate to what degree?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
37. Roller chain subjected to standard
measuring load are allowed an over-length
of
A. 1/54 inch/foot
B. 1/84 inch/foot
C. 3/8 inch/foot
D. 1/60 inch/foot
38. What does the Charpy impact test
measure?
I. the energy required t break a test
sample
II. the strength of a test sample
III. the ductile to brittle transition
point of metals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
39. Poissons ratio is principally used in
A. the determination of capability of a
material for being shaped
B. the determination of capacity of a
material for plastic deformation without
fracture
C. stress-strain relationships where stress
are applied in more than one direction
D. the determination of the modulus of
toughness
40. The maximum stress induced in a material
when subjected to alternating or repeated
loading without causing failure:
A. elasticity
B. endurance stress
C. yield stress
D. ultimate stress
45. A thin homogenous metallic plate

surface expansion is linear, the area of the
hole will:
A. increase twice the rate as the area of the
metal increases
B. increase at the same rate as the area of
the metal increases
C. stay the same
D. decrease at the same rate as the area of
the metal increases
46. The stress concentration factor
A. is a ratio of the average stress on a
section to the allowable stress
B. cannot be evaluated for brittle materials
C. is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden
change of cross section
D. is the ratio of the maximum stress
produced in a cross section to the average
stress over the section
47. Subjecting a substance to a high
temperature below the fusion port, usually
to make it friable:
A. calcinations
B. fusion
C. boiling
D. forging
48. Modulus of Resilience is
A. the same as the modulus of elasticity
B. a measure of a materials ability to store
strain energy
C. the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
D. a measure of the strain induced in a
member due to a change in temperature
49. Youngs modulus of elasticity for a material
can be calculated indirectly from which of
the following properties of the material?
A. temperature coefficient of expansion and
dielectric current
B. temperature coefficient of expansion and
specific heat
C. density and velocity of sound in the
material
D. density and interatomic soaking in the
material
50. That property of a material that permits it
to be only slightly deformed without rupture
A. ductility
B. brittleness
C. toughness
D. resilience
41. Angle plate is made of :

A. closed grain cast iron
B. cast steel
C. tool steel
D. high speed steel
42. The linear portion of a stress-strain diagram
of steel is known as the:
A. modulus of elasticity
B. plastic range
C. irreversible range
D. elastic range
cutting edges
A. planning
B. reaming
C. boring
D. drilling
44. Arc of the pitch circle through when a tooth
travels from its contact relative mating
tooth at the pitch wherein contact ceases.
A. arc of action
B. arc of approach
C. arc of contact
51. Ability of a material to sustain large

permanent deformation in compression:
A. ductility
B. bucking
C. bearing
D. malleability
52. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the
cross section of a beam to the section
modulus is:
A. equal to the radius of gyration
B. equal to the area of the cross section
C. a measure of distance
D. multiplied by the bending moment to
determine the stress
53. When an air entrainment agent is
introduced into a concrete mix
A. the strength will increase
B. the strength will decrease
C. the strength will not be affected
D. the water/cement ratio must be reduced
from 10-15%
analyze
A. a continuous beam
B. a beam loaded at three points
C. a step tapered column
D. a three element composite beam
55. Which micrometer has no anvil?
A. outside micrometer
B. depth micrometer
C. screw thread micrometer
D. digit micrometer
56. A stud is which
A. have threads on one end
B. require a nut
C. inserted in a plane hole
57. A kind of chuck which has reversible jaws
which could be adjusted properly
A. universal chuck
B. chuck Connors
C. chuckle chuck
D. independent chuck
58. Principal stresses occur on those planes
A. where the shearing stress is zero
B. which are 45 apart
C. where the shearing stress is a maximum
D. which are subjected only to compression
59. According to the PSME Code, for safety
purposes, stairs, platforms, and landing
shall sustain not less than 500 kg and with
a factor of safety of:
A. 3
B. 10
C. 4
D. 5
60. Tool which when pressed into a finished
hole in a piece of work provide centers on
which the piece may be turned or otherwise
machined.
A. spindle
B. clock
C. mandrel
D. jaws
61. RC 50 chain is a chain of normal proportion
its pitch is
A. 5/8 deg
B. 7/8 deg
C. 5/16 deg
D. cannot be determined
62. Foundation depth may be taken as ___
times the engine stroke when engine have
a few cylinders and situated on less firm soil
A. 3.2
B. 4.2
C. 2.4
D. 2.3
which one of the following?
A. load on the beam
B. tensile strength of beam
C. bending moment of the beam
64. In which screw thread the side width of flat
= width of space = 0.5p:
A. knuckle
B. buttress
C. square
D. acme
65. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by
preventing:
A. fuel
B. heat
C. oxygen
D. any of the above
66. The softening of metal by heat-treatment

must commonly consist of heating the
metals up to near molten state and then
cooling them slowly:
A. annealing
B. quenching
C. cold working
D. pickling
67. A kind of bolt which has no head and
instead has thread on both ends:
A. carriage bolt
B. stub bolt
C. Philip screw
D. counter bolt
68. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of the
cut is verified by:
A. changing the convexity of the cutting
edge
B. changing its inclination
C. changing its weight
C. in a and b both
D. neither a nor b
78. In case of a limit plug gauge which size will
not enter into the hole:
A. GO size
B. a and b both
C. NOT GO size
70. When a metal is cold worked all of the

following generally occur except:
A. recrystallization temperature decreases
B. ductility decrease
C. grains become equi-axed
D. tensile strength increase
A. a function of the length and depth

B. defined as the unit shear stress divided
C. equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
by one plus Poissons ratio
D. defined s the length divided by the
moment of inertia
80. Short shaft
A. axis
B. spindle
C. snout
D. propeller shaft
81. The relationship between the extension of a
spring and the force required to produce the
extension is:
A. F = ma
B. F = (mv2)/R
C. F = me
D. F = kx
82. Defined as an undesirable sound
A. noise
B. chatter
C. music
D. crash
71. Which part of the file is not hardened?

A. tang
B. body
C. crest
D. point
72. Steels can be strengthened by all of the
following practices except:
A. annealing
B. quenching and tempering
C. work hardening
D. grain refinement
73. Minimum size of foundation bolts
A. 3 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 14 mm
74. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of:
A. left hand
B. right hand
C. straight
75. The new hacksaw blade should not be used
in old cut because:
A. the blade is very costly
B. the blade has very sharp teeth
C. the space is not sufficient to play the
new blade in the old cut
76. A structure which supports the moving
parts and regulates the path, or kind of
motion of some of the parts.
A. body
B. post
C. frame
D. foundation
77. The jaws of a leg vice are opened:
A. parallel to each other
B. in V form
89. Hardened steel parts have:

A. fine grains
B. coarse grains
C. medium grains
90. Which is the lightest metal?
79. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member

is:
69. For general work the cutting angle of a cold

flat chisel is ground at an angle of
A. 80 deg
B. 70 deg
C. 60 deg
D. 35 deg
C. 90 and 45 deg
D. 180 deg only
83. Soil bearing pressure as used in foundation

has an average safe load of
A. 12,225 kg/m2
B. 10,450 kg/m2
C. 15,222 kg/m2
D. 21,522 kg/m2
84. The process of producing a variety of
surfaces by using a circular type cutter with
multiple teeth.
A. grinding
B. turning
C. milling
D. welding
equal to the
A. change in shear between the two points
B. total shear beyond the two points
C. average moment between the two points
D. change in moment between the two
points
86. To prevent pulling out of the bolts when
nuts are tightened the length embedded in
concrete should be equal to at least:
A. 20 times bolt diameter
B. 30 times bolt diameter
C. 50 times bolt diameter
D. 80 times bolt diameter
87. For workrooms (maintenance shop and
machine room) shall at least have a height
from floor to ceiling of:
A. 1000 mm
B. 2000 mm
C. 3000 mm
D. 1500 mm
88. The square head of a combination set is
used for making or checking the angles:
A. 90 deg only
B. 45 deg only
A. lead
B. GI sheet
C. aluminum
D. cast iron
91. Which micrometer is available with
extension rods:
A. outside micrometer
B. inside micrometer
C. screw thread micrometer
D. combi micrometer
92. Which gauge is used to check the internal
threads:
A. plug gauge
B. ring gauge
C. thread plug gauge
D. thread ring gauge
93. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be
checked by:
A. vernier caliper
B. outside micrometer
C. dial test indicator
D. tube micrometer
94. Which of the following do not belong to the
group?
A. TIG
B. MIG
C. hardening
D. soldering
95. The slenderness ratio of a column is
generally defined as the ratio of its
A. length to its minimum width
B. unsupported length to its maximum
radius of gyration
C. length to its moment of inertia
D. unsupported length of its least radius of
gyration
96. The moment at a section of beam is
delivered from the
A. sum of the moments of all external forces
on side of the section
B. difference between the moments on one
side of the section and the opposite side
C. sum of the moments of all external
forces on both sides of the section
D. sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports
97. The effect of setting a lathe tool a small
amount below the center of the work is to
A. increase the rake angle
B. decrease the rake angle
C. cut with negative rake
D. leave the rake angle unaltered
98. A combination of resistant bodies so
arranged that the motion of one compels
the motion of the others.
A. gears
B. cams
C. mechanism
D. machine
99. Which of the following is not a method of
non-destructive testing of steel castings
and forgings?
A. radiography
B. magnetic particle
C. ultrasonic
D. chemical analysis
B. 48 65
C. 40 50
D. 30 60
100. A body rotating or oscillating about an axis

A. pendulum
B. cam
C. crank
D. shaft
10. Fast process of analyzing all elements and

chemical components of steel casting
A. pyrometer
B. carbon analyzer
C. wet analyzer
D. spectrometer
11. In small quantity this alloy is effective
for improving strength at high temperature.
MODULE 13
1.
The kind of center which is being attached

and meshed to the tailstock spindle is also
static while the work is rotating is
A. dead center
B. live center
C. focal center
D. work center
2.
The ratio of the stress on an elastic

unit volume
A. bulk modulus
B. Poissons ratio
C. volumetric ratio
D. modulus of resilience
3.
The minimum ultimate tensile strength of

No. 41 lightweight machinery chain is
A. 2000 lb
B. 1000 lb
C. 1800 lb
D. 2500 lb
4.
It is an elastic body or resilient member

whose primary function is to deflect or
distort under load:
A. beam
B. rubber
C. column
D. spring
5.
The stress in an elastic material is

A. inversely proportional to the materials
yield strength
B. inversely proportional to the force acting
C. proportional to the displacement of the
D. inversely proportional to the strain
6.
Structural steel elements subjected to

torsion develop
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shearing stress
D. moment
7.
The 3 most commonly used cam and

follower system are radial and offset
translating roller follower and ___ roller
follower.
A. reversing
B. pulsating
C. swinging
D. actuatuing
8.
Type of high carbon and alloy used in

production of precision work tools.
A. chrome-manganese
B. high speed
C. high speed
D. chrome-molybdenum
9.
Recommended hardness of pinion for

helical/herringbone gear tooth should be ___
BHN point header flees the gear
A. 50 59
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. selenium
D. molybdenum
mandrel?
A. expanded
B. extended
C. contraction
D. taper
13. The ratio of the arc of action to circular
pitch or length of action to base pitch
A. approach ratio
B. contact ratio
C. arc of ratio
D. arc of approach
14. A cutting tool angle between the side
cutting edge and the plane perpendicular to
direction of feed travel is ___ angle.
A. side relief
B. side cutting edge
C. lead
D. side rake
15. The surface between the pitch circle and
the bottom land
A. line of action
B. flank of tooth
C. bottom land
D. face of top land
16. A section in a machine shop operation.
A. core making
B. machining
C. fitting
D. pattern
17. Test showed that steel pulleys has less
slippage than that of cast iron pulleys in
range of:
A. 1.8 2.6
B. 1.8 2.8
C. 2.35 2.7
D. 2.0 2.8
18. The bottom surface joining two sides of
thread in screw.
A. pitch
B. crest
C. bottom land
D. root
19. Shear modulus is also:
A. shear elasticity
B. Poissons ratio
C. modulus of elasticity
D. modulus of rigidity
A. gaskets
B. seals
C. packings
D. felts
21. Top surface joining two sides of thread in
screw.
A. pitch
B. top flank
C. top land
D. crest
22. The frictional forces depends on coefficient
of friction and:
A. torque
B. weight of object
C. normal force
D. moment
23. The number of cycles required to cause
failure for given stress level.
A. endurance
B. fatigue
C. fatigue life
D. rupture
24. The tool blade made of tool blank consists
of face, nose, shank, and ___.
A. cutting edge
B. none of these
C. round nose
D. base
25. The cutting tool used in the shaper are
similar to turning tools of ___ machine
A. planer
B. broaching
C. boring
D. lathe
26. The blades of hacksaw have number of
teeth range of:
A. 15 38 tooth/in
B. 14 32 tooth/in
C. 12 30 tooth/in
D. 12 32 tooth/in
27. The safeguard in minimum of ___ mm in
height for the use as toe guard/toe board.
A. 165
B. 135
C. 150
D. 120
28. Not part of the headstock.
A. back gear
B. anvil
C. spindle
D. motor
29. A lathe carriage part that bridge across the
bed to carry the cross slide and tool rest.
A. automatic feed
B. compound rest
C. apron
D. saddle
30. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical
surface.
A. thread series
B. straight thread
C. thread shear area
D. taper thread
31. Vertex distance is a term used in ____
gearing.
A. spiral
B. bevel
C. worm
D. zerol
32. Two or more forces acting together could be
replaced by a single force with the same
effect in a mass
A. couple forces
B. resultant
C. resolution forces
D. concurrent forces
33. What is the recommended cutting speed

range for bronze in fpm?
A. 60/70
B. 80/60
C. 200/250
D. 100/110
34. Type of leather belt being applied with
waterproof cement.
A. combination of oak/mineral tanned
B. all of these
C. oak tanned
D. mineral tanned
35. For gear cutting which cutter is used:
A. end mill cutter
B. plain mill cutter
C. form relieve cutter
D. all of the above
36. A two or more drilling machine spindles that
are located/positioned vertically over a
table is called:
A. team drill
B. gang drill
C. turret drill
D. drills
37. Cam in general may be divided into two
classes: uniform motion cam and ___ motion
cam.
A. reverse
B. decelerated
C. gravity
D. accelerated
38. For ordinary turning, drilling and milling on
low strength steel the cutting fluid applied
have soluble oil with consistency of 1 part
oil to ____ parts water.
A. 10 to 30
B. 10
C. 5 to 30
D. 10 to 20
55. Type A sprocket has _____ hub.

44. It is recommended to apply whenever
possible to use of six (6) arms for gear up to
10 ft in diameter and for larger diameter
use:
A. 7 pairs or more
B. 14
C. 8 or more
D. 10 or more
45. The acceleration of the point of contact is:
A. rv2
B. rw2
C. V2/r
D. w2/V
46. For a single universal joint, shaft angle
should be ___ degrees maximum and much
less if on high rotational speed
A. 12
B. 16
C. 15
D. 14
A. left side
B. two sides
C. no
D. one side
56. An RC 40, roller chain has a pitch of:
A. in
B. in
C. 1/8 in
D. 7/8 in
57. Which of the following combustion that has
a property of resilience?
A. grease
B. graphite electrode
C. rubber
D. graphite powder
58. Nano is an exact opposite of:
A. 106
B. micro
C. giga
D. pico
47. The recommended lubricant for the chain

drive operation.
A. SAE 4140
B. Petroleum oil
C. moly slip
D. heavy grease
48. In the SAE identification code of steel
shafting, the 3rdand 4th digits represents the
contents of:
A. %manganese of steel
B. %alloy of alloy elements
C. % carbon content
D. %chromium of steel
49. The minimum recommended worm pitch
diameter is in and maximum is ___ in.
A. 1 in
B. 2 in
C. 3 in
D. 2 in
59. A micrometer measured by:

A. 108
B. root means square
C. millions of inch
D. thousands of an inch
60. Piping color for electrical?
A. blue
B. light-orange
C. white
D. red
61. The catwalk standard that is required for
cleaning an engine that can be found in any
power plant or power generating units:
A. 24 in
B. 22 in
C. 23 in
D. 25 in
39. A flanged coupling is:

B. used for collinear shafts
C. flexible
D. used only on small rotating at low speeds
40. Which of the following quick return
mechanism is most widely used in most of
the slotters?
A. whitworth mechanism
B. slotter disc mechanism
C. hydraulic mechanism
D. slotter ink and gear mechanism
41. To prevent engine vibration to affect the
surrounding area, it is a standard practice
to isolate the engine and its foundation by
at least ____ mm.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 25
D. 36
42. It is the drill backbone which run the entire
length of the drill between plates and sides
rigidity to the entire drill.
A. drill drift
B. shank
C. tang
D. web
43. Grout material use under the machine bed
and foundation surface should be:
A. 1 part cement and part screened sand
and part of gypsum
B. 1 part cement and 1 part screened sand
C. 1 part cement and 1 part screened sand
and gypsum
D. 1 part cement and part screened and
part stone
50. Drift is used by lathe operator to remove

the taper hole. It is also called ___.
A. tang
B. moss taper
C. chuck taper
D. tapered key
51. At a given section of an I beam the
maximum bending stress occurs at the ___.
A. maximum shear stress area
B. neutral axis
C. web joint near the flange
D. outermost fiber
52. The process of increasing the carbon
content to the surface of steel by exposing
it to hot carbonaceous material above
transformation temperature of 1650 to
1750F.
A. carbonitriding
B. casehardening
C. carburizing
D. induction hardening
53. Find the weight of the earth if the radius of
the earth is 6400 km.
A. 9 x 1020
B. 8 x 1019
C. 6 x 1024
D. 5 x 1018
54. Type D sprocket has _____ hub.
A. left side
B. two sides
C. no
D. one side
62. It is ideal for maximum quietness in

sprocket drive to choose ____ or more teeth.
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
63. Consider a maximum safe center distance
of sprockets should be ___ pitches. Very
long center distance cause catenary tension
in the chain.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
64. Extra flexible hosting rope application is
_____.
A. 6 x 17
B. 6x 9
C. 6 x 37
D. 6 x 21
65. Deals only with the motion of bodies
without reference to the forces that cause
them:
A. kinetics
B. kinematics
C. motion
D. acceleration
66. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design,
the clearance ratio/clearance should be:
A. 0.1001
B. 0.0101
C. 0.0110
D. 0.0010
67. A machine element to connect or

disconnect shafts at will is called ____.
A. clutch
B. bearing
C. brake shaft
D. lock shaft
68. Torsional deflection is significant
consideration in the design of shaft and the
limit should be in the range of ___ degree/ft
of length.
A. 0.004 to 0.006
B. 0.006 to 0.008
C. 0.08 to 1
D. 0.008 to 1
69. The property that characterizes a materials
ability to be drawn into a wire:
A. plasticity
B. elasticity
C. ductility
D. utility
70. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual
stress in the welding, it is normally stress
relieved of _____.
A. quenching
B. normalizing
C. tempering
D. drawing
71. The distance from a point on a screw thread
to a corresponding point to the next
measure along the axis.
A. radial
B. module
C. thickness
D. pitch
72. Designated pipe color used in
communication.
A. green
B. light blue
C. white
D. light orange
73. Stress relieving is also ___ for the purpose
of reducing the internal stress of steel
material/metal.
A. quenching
B. normalizing
C. tempering
D. drawing
74. Designated pipe color used in electricity.
A. light blue
B. light orange
C. green
D. white
75. To be responsible charge for the preparation
of plans, designs, investigations, valuation,
technical reports, specifications, project
studies or estimates, he must be a _____.
A. ME and CPM
B. PME
C. CPM
D. ME
76. A type of milling machine that are similar to
vertical milling machines and are equipped
with one or more heads for face-milling
operations.
A. Universal column-and knee milling
machines
B. Rotary-table milling machines
C. Plain milling machines
D. Bed-type milling machines
77. A type of milling machine have five axes of
movement.
A. Profile milling machines
B. Standard column-and knee milling
machines
C. Plain milling machines

D. Bed-type milling machines
78. The accessory that has been used most
commonly and is manually operated that
rotates the workpiece to specified angles
between individual machining steps.
A. Universal driving head
B. CNC
C. flexible head
D. cross-rail
79. A machining operation by which flat
surfaces are produced along the length of
the workpiece. The workpiece is mounted
on a table that travels back and forth along
a straight path.
A. broaching
B. milling
C. planning
D. sawing
80. A machining operation in which flat
surfaces are produced and the tool that
travels and not the workpiece.
A. planning
B. tapping
C. shaping
D. broaching
81. In shaping, the term for cutting is done
during the forward movement of the ram is:
A. push cut
B. crew cut
C. draw cut
D. under cut
82. In shaping, the term for cutting during the
return stroke of the ram is:
A. push cut
B. crew cut
C. draw cut
D. under cut
83. A type of machine used to machine
notches, keyways, and dies.
A. universal shaper
B. skippers
C. standard milling
D. slotters
84. Another term for slotters is:
A. horizontal shaper
B. broaching machine
C. vertical shaper
D. sawing
85. A machining operation similar to shaping
with a long multiple-tooth cutter and is used
to machine internal and external surfaces.
A. broaching
B. honing
C. sawing
D. tapping
86. An operation in which the cutting tool is
blade having series of small teeth.
A. cutting
B. striking
C. sawing
D. grinding
87. In sawing, another term for width-of-cut is:
A. cork
B. wave
C. raker
D. kerf
88. A type of saw having straight blades and
reciprocating motions.
A. cold saws
B. band saws
C. hacksaws
D. stuff saws
89. A type of saw having blade of usually 1.2 to

2.5 mm thick and up to 610 mm long.
A. band saws
B. power hacksaw
C. circular saws
D. contour saws
90. A type of saw in which the blade are thinner
and shorter than power hacksaw blades,
which have as many as 1.2 teeth per mm
for sawing sheet metal and thin tubing.
A. motor hacksaw
B. cold saws
C. hand hacksaw
D. hot saws
91. A type used for high-production-rate
sawing.
A. hot saws
B. circular saws
C. fast saws
D. jack saws
92. Another term for high-production-rate
sawing process is:
A. backing off
B. high rating
C. cutting off
93. A type of saw having continuous, long, and
flexible blades.
A. band saws
B. high-speed saws
C. circular saws
D. vertical saws
94. A sawing process in which a mild-steel
blade or disk rubs against the workpiece at
speeds of up to 7600 m/min
A. tack sawing
B. contour sawing
C. friction sawing
D. mild sawing
95. An operation of small-scale removal of
material from surface, corner, edge or hole
including the removal of burrs.
A. sawing
B. machining
C. filing
D. broaching
96. A method in making gear teeth in which the
cutting tool is similar to a form-milling
cutter made in the shape of the space
between the gear teeth and the gear-tooth
shape is reproduced by machining the gear
blank around its periphery.
A. gear generating
B. rack shaping
C. form cutting
D. gear hob
97. A method in making gear in which the
cutting tool used is pinion-shaped cutter:
A. form cutting
B. broaching
C. hob gear
D. gear generating
98. A cutting tool used in gear generating in
which is basically a gear-cutting worm, or
screw made by a series of longitudinal slots
or gashes machined into it to form the
cutting teeth.
A. pinion shaped cutter
B. rack shaper
C. hob
D. gear tooth
99. A cutting tool used in gear generating in
which the generating tool is a segment of a
rack which reciprocates parallel to the axis

of the gear blank.
A. rack shaper
B. milling
C. pinion cutter
D. gear hob
D. 12 32 teeth/in
9.
100. In gear making, a gear is produced by any

of the processes, the surface finish and the
dimensional accuracy of gear teeth may not
be sufficient for certain applications. What
do you call the process to improve the
surface quality of gears?
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)

Arc produced by two tungsten electrodes
into which a jet of hydrogen is directed.
A. Hydrogen loading
B. All of these
C. Electro-bema welding
D. Atomic hydrogen welding
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)

10. Clay, refractories bricks are materials used
in:
A. Machine shop
B. Turret lathe
C. Foundry shop
D. Lathe machine
A. shaving
B. burnishing
C. all of these
D. lapping
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)

11. The jaws of a leg vice are opened in:
A. V form
B. Double V
C. Square form
D. L form
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)
12. The process of working metals by the
application of sudden blows on by a steady
pressure.
MODULE 14
1.
(ME Bd. Oct 2006)

Cutting a tool by means of rotating tool or
the work may revolve and the tool remain
fixed as in the lathe.
A. Taping
B. Billing
C. Soldering
D. Boring
2.
(ME Bd. Oct 2006)

Recommended best cutting angle of drill for
work on steel or cast iron is ___ degrees.
A. 48
B. 63
C. 59
D. 50
3.
(ME Bd. Oct 2006)

A lathe with multiple cutting stations:
A. Turret lathe
B. Lathe machine
C. Milling machine
D. Grinding machine
4.
(ME Bd. Apr 2006)

A furnace in melting non-ferrous metals:
A. Cupola furnace
B. Crucible furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Tempering furnace
5.
(ME Bd. Apr 2006)

What is/are the common cutting fluids used
for cutting metals?
A. Water with soda or borax
B. Light mineral oil
C. Soluble oil
D. All of these
6.
(ME Bd. Apr 2006)

All associated with standard materials
specification, EXCEPT:
B. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
C. Society of Automotive Engineers
D. American Society for Testing Materials
7.
(ME Bd. Apr 2006)

Machine tool used for laying straight lines
is called:
A. Plain scriber
B. Divider
C. A trammel
D. Caliper
8.
(ME Bd. Apr 2006)

The blades for hacksaw have number of
teeth range of:
A. 15 38 teeth/in
B. 14 32 teeth/in
C. 12 30 teeth/in
A. Welding
B. Blacksmith
C. Brazing
D. Forging
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)
13. In straddle milling the number of cutters
used to cut:
A. One
B. Two
C. Three or more
D. Any of these
(ME Bd. Oct 2005)
14. Concentricity of an outside diameter of the
shaft can be checked by using:
A. Bench center and Dial test indicator
B. Bench bottom and Caliper
C. Bench vise and planer
D. Center post meter
(ME Bd. Apr 2005)
15. Almost always the soldering materials are a
combination of the following alloys:
A. All of these
B. Lead and tin
C. Tin and antimony
D. Lead and antimony
(ME Bd. Apr 2005)
16. Blanking is a process associated with
A. Shearing
B. Tension
C. Compression
D. Compression and tension
(ME Bd. Apr 2005)
is called:
A. Plain scriber
B. Divider
C. A trammel
D. Caliper
(ME Bd. Apr 2005)
18. The most popular of all soldering materials
in use has a composition of:
A. 45/55% tin and lead
B. 50/50% tin and lead
C. All of these
D. 60/40% tin and lead
(ME Bd. Apr 2005)
19. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
introduced to:
A. Improve the look of the parts
B. Reduce concentration of stress and
C. To avoid obstruction
D. Necessary to lessen casting weights
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
20. Lathe spindle has got:
A. No threads
B. External threads
C. Taper threads
D. Internal threads
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
21. A machine designer decided to use a
pneumatic cylinder to lift a metal part to
feed a conveyor. Which valve is used to
command the cylinder?
A. Non-return valve
B. Pilot-check valve
C. Two-way solenoid valve
D. Air piloted directional valve
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
22. Centrifugal method of casting is used to:
A. Ensure purity and density at extremities
of a casting
B. Use heavy cast iron mould to act as chill
C. Obtain high density and pure castings
D. Cast symmetrical objects
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
23. In permanent mould casting method
A. Molten metal is feed into the cavity in
metallic mould by gravity
B. Gravity is filled with precalculated
quantity of a metal and a core or plunger is
inserted to force the metal into cavity
C. Metal is poured into die cavity and at a
predetermined time the mould inverted to
permit a part of metal still in molten state
to flow out of cavity
D. Metal is forced into mould under high
prressure
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
24. _____ for ferrous materials, the helix angle
of drill is:
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 60 degrees
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
25. A double fillet welded joint with parallel
fillet weld of length L and leg B is subjected
to a tensile force P. Assuming uniform stress
distribution, the shear stress in the weld is
given by
A. P/2.B.L
B. 2 .P/B.L
C. P/2 .B.L
D. 2/B.L
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
26. _____ a standard ground drill has a point
angle of
A. 130 degrees
B. 100 degrees
C. 118 degrees
D. 90 degrees
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
27. A 5 degrees taper over 5 mm length is to be
made on a 100 mm diameter job. Which
method should be used?
A. Tail stock offset method
B. Taper turning attachment
C. From tool method
D. Compound rest method
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
28. A machining process is pneumatically
operated. Its drive is
A. Hydraulic cylinder
B. Hydraulic pump
C. Solenoid valve
D. Pneumatic cylinder
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
29. Pick up the incorrect statement about
advantages of disposable patterns
A. Finish is uniform and reasonably smooth
B. No complex wooden pattern will loose
piece is required
C. No cores are required
D. Patterns can be handled easily and
process is adaptable to mechanical
moulding equipment
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
30. The main purpose of boring operation, as
compared to drilling is to
A. Enlarge the existing hole
B. Finish the drilled hole
C. Correct the hole

D. Drill a hole
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
31. The correct cutting angle on a drill for
ordinary work is:
A. 59 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 65 degrees
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
32. Large jobs on shaper are held with the help
of
A. On floor directly
B. Clamps, bolts and squares
C. Magnetic vise
D. Vise
(ME Bd. Apr 2004)
33. In gang milling
A. One job is completed on several milling
machines located together
B. Two or more cutters are mounted on the
arbor and all of them remove the metal
simultaneously
C. Several jobs can be performed in one set
up
D. None of these
(ME Bd. OCT 2003)
34. Wood for pattern is considered dry when
moisture content is
A. Zero percent
B. 5%
C. Less than 25%
D. Less than 15%
(ME Bd. OCT 2003)
35. Core prints are used to
A. From seat to support and hold the one in
place
B. Strengthen core
C. None of these
D. Fabricate core
(ME Bd. OCT 2003)
36. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs
when
A. The alignment is improper
B. Gases have been absorbed by the liquid
metal
C. Sufficient superheat has not been
provided to the liquid metal
D. The pouring temperature is very high
B. Iron ore, quartz and charcoal

C. Steel scrap, alloys and charcoal foundry
coke
D. Scrap wood, alloys and limestone
42. The relative strength of a butt welding
could safely be assumed as _____ as %
efficiency.
A. 95
B. 98
C. 90
D. 92
43. Which of the following raw materials are
used in the foundry molding operation?
A. Silica sand, bentonite, flour/paste water
B. Silica sand and paste
C. Silica sand, paste, graphite electrode
D. Silica used, linseed oil, flour
44. The following are parts of a micrometer
caliper except for:
A. Thimble
B. Head screw
C. Spindle
D. Anvil
45. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual
stress in the welding it is normally stress
relieve of ______.
A. Normalizing
B. Tempering
C. Flame hardening
D. Annealing
46. Percentage of cut on the return stroke of
hacksaw blade is _____.
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 0%
47. The welded joints permit placing the added
metal exactly where needed and produce
an integral structure which can develop ____
% efficiency on any thickness section
specially for mild metal materials.
A. 95 %
B. 85 %
C. 100 %
D. 90 %
37. Drilling machine cannot do:

A. Reaming
B. Spot facing
C. Lapping
D. Broaching
38. Machine shop instrument for checking the
flatness of plane surfaces to 10ths of
thousands of a centimeter.
A. Blade type micrometer
B. Dial caliper
C. Planimeter
D. Micrometer
39. Tools usually used in wood pattern making
in a foundry shop.
A. Saw and chisels
B. Band saw
C. Knives and drills
D. Drill machine
40. _____ is a work supporting device which is
bolted to the saddle of the lathe machine. It
travels with the cutting tool. It is a
prevention of the springing away of the
workpiece from cutting tools.
A. Rubber-flex collets
B. Tool post
C. Follower rest
D. Carriage stop
41. Material changes in foundry melting
operation are composed of
A. Limestone, foundry coke and silica sand
48. The cutting up to 70 is best for drilling

extremely hard metals anf for soft materials
____ degrees may be applied.
A. 60
B. 45
C. 40
D. 48
49. Not part and in fact should not be used in
the steel melting process.
A. Coke
B. Silicon
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
50. The distance between rivet centers nearest
each other in adjacent row is called _____.
A. Pitch
B. Black pitch
C. Margin
D. Diagonal pitch
51. Method of finishing/shaping a machine part
of exceptionally high carbon or high
chromium steel parts (or very hard
material).
A. Using oxygen lancing
B. Machining using carbide insert
C. Using abrasive grinding
D. Machining with high speed tool steel
52. The material that can cut/wear hardest

substance subjected to:
A. Carbide
B. Abrasive
C. Tungsten
D. Vanadium
53. The welding made along the edges of two
parallel plates is called ______.
A. Groove joint
B. Fillet joint
C. Edge joint
D. Corner joint
54. Rule of thumb in calculating the equipment
foundation mass should be ____ times the
weight of the machinery it is supposed to
support.
A. 3 5
B. 3 6
C. 3 9
D. 2 4
55. Not adaptable to welding due to low tensile
strength and poor ductility, etc.
A. Copper parts
B. Cast iron materials
C. Aluminum parts
D. Bronze parts
56. For butt welding of two plates each of which
is 25 mm thick, the best process would be:
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
57. Treating the weld as a line, the movement
of inertia about center of gravity of a
circular weld of diameter d would be:
A. d2/36
B. d/6
C. d3/64
D. d3/4
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 5 mm
A. 6 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 3 mm
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted lap joint
D. All types of joints
riveting is:
A. Equal to the diameter of the rivet shank
B. Slightly smaller than the diameter of
rivet shank
the rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size
the rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size
62. Hot wire anemometers are generally for:
A. Measuring pressure of liquids
B. Measuring velocity of air stream
C. Measuring temperature of moving fluid
D. Measuring thermal conductivity of solids
63. Ornaments are cast by:
A. Die casting
B. Pressed casting
C. Gravity casting
D. Continuous casting
64. During MIG welding the metal is
transformed in the form of:
A. Continuous flow of molten metal
B. A fine spray of metal
C. Solution
D. Electron beam
65. A collimated light beam is for producing
heat in:
A. MIG welding
B. TIG welding
C. Plasma welding
D. Laser welding
66. Wipping is the process of:
A. Cleaning the welded surface after the
welding operation is over
B. Applying flux during welding process
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
D. Low temperature
67. In which of the following process hydraulic
fluid acts as transfer media?
A. Electron beam machining
B. Electro-discharge machining
C. Iron beam machining
D. Water jet machining
68. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts
having:
A. Rectangular shape
B. Uniform symmetrical shape
C. Complicated shape having intricate
details
69. Drossing
A. A method of cleaning the castings
B. An inspection method for castings
C. A method of deoxidation of molten metal
D. The formation of oxides on the molten
metal surface
70. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is:
A. 110
B. 120
C. 30
D. 60
71. A twist drill is specified by:
A. Its diameter and lip angle
B. Its shank and diameter
C. Shank, material and flute size
D. Shank, material and diameter
A. Control of pressure and current

B. Adjusting time duration of current
C. Adjusting initial gap
D. All of the above
76. In arc welding operations the current value
is decided by:
A. Thickness of plate
B. Voltage across the plate
C. Size of the electrode
D. Length of welded portion
77. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place
in:
A. Cast iron
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Stainless steel
78. Arc blow takes place in:
A. Gas welding
B. Arc welding when straight polarity is
used
C. Arc welding when reversed polarity is
used
D. Welding stainless steel
79. What for is a rammer used?
A. A tool used in welding for cleaning
purpose
B. A tool used in press work to lift the
pressure components
C. A tool used in foundry to pack the sand
in mould
D.A measuring tool
A. It is an automatic machine
B. It is a mass production machine
C. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
D. Operation is completed in one stroke
73. Choose the one that will have the highest
cutting speed.
A. Cast iron
B. Tool steel
C. Brass
D. Aluminum
74. Laser welding is widely used in:
A. Process industry
B. Structural work
C. Heavy duty
D. Electronic industry
75. Unlike materials or materials of different
thickness can butt welded by:
87. Weld pattern refers to:

A. Welding electrode
B. Filler metal
C. Shield
D. Welding defect
88. A sprue is:
A. A tool used in mould repairing
B. A process of cleaning castings
C. A chemical that is added to molten
materials for sound castings
D. A vertical passage through the cope
89. What is a gate?
A. A passage through which metal is poured
into the mould
B. A passage through which metal rises
when the mould is filled
C. A passage that finally lead molten metal
from the runner into the mould cavity
D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to
escape
90. What for are core prints provided?
A. To form trademark of company on
castings
B. To produce castings with specific surface
design
C. To form seat to support and hold the core
D. To direct the flow of molten material
during pouriing
91. The equipment that is used in pit for supply
of air is known as:
80. What for is a swab used?

A. A tool used in shaper
B. A tool used in foundry for moistening the
sand
C. The tool used in foundry for smoothening
the mould
D. A tool used in foundry for repairing the
mould
81. What for is a gagger used?
A. A tool used in clearing welds
B. A tool used in clearing material before
welding
C. A tool used in foundry for cleaning of
castings
D. A shaped metal accessory
82. What for are bellows used?
A. Used in foundry in moistening the mould
B. Used in foundry in cleaning of casting
C. Used in foundry for blowing of loose end
D. Used in foundry for smothering and
cleaning out depression in the mould
83. Permeability of a foundry sand is:
72. Broaching operation is generally used in

automobile industry as:
D. Stainless steel
A. Capacity to hold moisture

B. Porosity to allow escape of gases
C. Distribution of binder in sand
D. Fineness of sand
84. What for arc metal patterns used?
A. Precision casting
B. Small casting
C. Large casting
D. Large scale production of castings
85. An important factor to be considered while
designing a core print is:
A. Pattern material
B. Type of mould
C. Moulding sand characteristics
D. Pouring temperature
86. Which of the following metals can be
suitably welded by TIG welding?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. All of the above
A. Fan
B. Hand blower
C. Air cylinder
D. Centrifugal blower
92. Tumbling is done so as to:
A. Clean the surface of small parts
B. Stress relieve the components
C. Get surface finish
D. To plate the surface
93. The purpose of inoculation is:
A. To clean casting
B. To decrease the melting temperature
C. To change the chemical composition of a
cast metal
D. To modify the structure and properties of
a cast metal
94. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the
case of which of the following?
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. White cast iron
D. Aluminum
95. The draft allowance on metallic pattern as
compared to wooden ones is:
A. More
B. Same
C. Less
D. More or less depending on size
96. Select the one that is not an angle
measuring device.
A. Bevel protector
B. Sine bar
C. Combination square
D. Angle iron
97. Dilatometer is used to find out which
property of moulding sand.
A. Permeability
B. Hot strength
C. Fineness
D. Moisture content
98. The mould for casting ferrous materials in

continuous casting process is made of:
A. Low carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Copper
99. What for is rotameter used?
A. RPM of engines
B. Rotation of shafts
C. Twist due to torque applied on shafts
D. Flow of liquids and gases
100. A plug gauge is used to measure:
A. Taper bores
B. Cylindrical bores
C. Spherical holes
D. Screw threads
B. Pyramidal form
C. Cylindrical form
D. Needle form
9.
The process commonly for thermo-plastic

materials is:
A. Die casting
B. Injection moulding
C. Shell moulding
D. Cold forming
10. The most important element that controls

the physical properties of steel is:
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Tungsten
D. Carbon
C. Drill
D. Grinder
21. Welding operation in which a non-ferrous
filler metal melts at a temperature below
that of the metal joined but heated above
450C
A. Filled weld
B. Soldering
C. Brazing
D. TIG welding
22. The process of checking or producing
checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling
checkered depressions into the surface:
A. Indexing
B. Knurling
C. Quenching
D. Soldering
11. The imperfection in the crystal

structure of metal is known as:
A. Dislocation
B. Slip
C. Fracture
D. Impurity
12. Polyesters belong to the group of:
MODULE 15
1.
When large number of components are

turned and parted off from a bar, the chuck
generally used is:
A. Four jaw chuck
B. Two jaw chuck
C. Collect chuck
D. Magnetic
A. Thermoplastics
B. Phenolics
C. All of the above
D. Thermosetting plastics
13. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is:
A. To increase hardness
B. To impact free-machining properties
C. To improve hardness and strength
D. To increase strength and ductility
14. Grey cast iron is best welded by:
2.
Gear tooth vernier is used for measuring:

A. Gear tooth profile
B. Module
C. Pitch line thickness of gear tooth
D. Gear tooth thickness
A. MIG
B. Submerged arc
C. TIG
D. Oxy-acetylene
15. The impedence of piezo-electric crystal is:
3.
Undercutting is:
A. An operation of cutting extra deep
groove
B. An operation of cutting a groove next to
a shoulder on a piece of work
C. Cutting from the base of a work piece
D. An operation of cutting extra wide
threads
4.
Projection welding is:

A. Continuous spot welding process
B. Multi spot welding process
C. Used to form
D. Used to make mesh
5.
In resistance welding, the pressure

released:
A. Just at the time of passing the current
B. During heating period
C. After the weld cools
D. After completion of currents
6.
The phenomenon of weld decay is

associated with:
A. Brass
B. Manganese steel
C. Aluminum alloy
D. Stainless steel
7.
Which of the following timber is used for

sports goods?
A. Mulberry
B. Mahogany
C. Sal
D. Deodar
8.
A knoop indenter is a diamond ground to a:

A. Prismoidal form
A. Negligible
B. Low
C. High
D. Very high
16. Honing is used:
A. To remove only small amount of metal
B. To correct axial run-out of a bore
C. To correct out-of-roundness of a bore
D. On surfaces brought to high degree to
surface finish
17. Which of the following is not a method by
which a single lap joint usually falls?
A. The rivets shear
B. The plate fails in bearing
C. The plate fails in tension
D. The rivet fail in tension
18. A device for accurately measuring
diameter:
A. Feeler gage
B. Laser
C. Micrometer
D. Diametometer
19. A hand tool used to measure tension bolts:
A. Tensometer
B. Torque wrench
C. Indexer
D. Torsiometer
20. A machine tool in which metal is removed
by means of a revolving cutter with many
teeth, each tooth having a cutting edge
which removes its share of the stock.
A. Milling machine
B. Lathe
23. A group of thin steel strips for measuring

clearances:
A. Depth gage
B. Lien center gage
C. Feeler gage
D. Lay-out gage
24. A machine tool used principally to machine
flat or plane surfaces with a single pointed
cutting tool
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Hacksaw
D. Drill
25. The commonly used joint in cast iron pipe:
A. Bell and spigot joint
B. Compression joint
C. Expansion joint
26. When machining nickel alloys the best type
of cutting fluid is:
A. Sulfurized oil
B. Straight mineral
C. Soluble oil
D. All of these
27. A machine that can wear away a substance
softer than itself:
A. Tungsten
B. Abrasive
C. Corrosive
D. Carbon
by means, of a cutting tool having several
cutting edges:
A. Planning
B. Reaming
C. Boring
D. Drilling
29. Kind of chuck which has five reversible jaws
which could be adjusted properly:
A. Universal chuck
B. Live chuck
C. Chuck Connors
reciprocates and the feed is stationary is
called:
A. Planning
B. Shaping
C. Turning
D. Reaming
mandrel?
A. Expansion mandrel
B. Gang mandrel
C. Contraction mandrel
D. Taper mandrel
32. One of the following is not a tap used for

cutting threads in holes.
A. Tapping tap
B. Plug tap
C. Taper tap
D. Bottoming tap
EXCEPT:
A. Welding
B. Soldering
C. Casting
D. Brazing
34. In general, when cutting hard and tough
materials and the relief angle should be
A. 6 to 8
B. 8 to 12
C. 5 to 7
D. 5 to 10
35. Which of the following furnaces do not
belong to the group?
A. Blast furnace
B. Reactor furnace
C. Salt bath electrode
D. Over or reactor furnace
B. Caliper
C. Tachometer
D. Pyrometer
44. Not adaptable to welding due to strength
and poor ductility:
A. Copper parts
B. Cast iron parts
C. Aluminum parts
D. All of these
45. In a planer the feed is provided:
A. At forward stroke
B. At return stroke
C. In between forward stroke
D. In between return stroke
46. Taps are resharpened by grinding:
A. Flutes
B. Diameter
C. Threads
D. Relief
47. The over arm of a milling machine is used
to support:
A. Spindle
B. Column
C. Arbor
D. Table
C. Thermit welding
D. Plasma arc welding
55. Concentricity of an outside diameter can
checked by:
A. Vernier caliper
B. Outside micrometer
C. Dial test indicator
D. Tube micrometer
56. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of:
A. Left hand
B. Straight
C. Right hand
57. The new hacksaw blade should not be used
in old cut because:
A. The blade is very costly
B. The blade have very sharp teeth
C. The space is not sufficient to play the
new blade in the old cut
58. Which part of the file is not hardened?
A. Tang
B. Crest
C. Body
D. Point
36. Machining tools used in the production of

flat surfaces on pieces to lays for a shaper
A. Turret lathe
B. Boring mill
C. Shaper
D. Milling machine
A. Silicon carbide
B. Emery
C. Aluminum oxide
D. Corundum
38. Driving motors for machine shop
equipments are designated A, B, C, D, E, F.
Squirrel cage induction motor is designated:
A. A
B. E
C. C
D. F
39. When outside diameter of a job is turned in
relation to the internal hole. The job should
be held:
A. In three jaw chuck
B. On the face plate
C. On the lathe mandrel
D. Between centers
40. For the accurate measurement of bores, the
best instrument is:
A. Vernier caliper
B. Plug gauge
C. Dial test indicator
D. Inside micrometer
41. For a given rpm, If the diameter of a twist
drill increase, then cutting speed will:
A. Increase
B. Same
C. Decrease
42. What do you call the distance between
adjacent rivets?
A. Pitch
B. Lead
C. Diagonal pitch
thousand of an inch.
A. Micrometer
48. In which method a bore is finished to a very

closed tolerance:
A. Lapping
B. Grinding
C. Honing
D. Turning
49. A usual ratio of soluble oil and water used in
coolant is:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 10:1
D. 20:1
50. While soldering the flux is used because:
A. It assist for quick melting and increasing
the fluidity of solder
B. It saves the part from oxidation
C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces
D. All of the above
cutting edges
A. Planning
B. Boring
C. Reaming
D. Drilling
52. A thin homogenous metallic plate
expansion is linear, the area of the hole will:
A. Increase at twice the rate area of the
metal increases
B. Increase at the same rate as the area of
the metal increases
C. Stay the same
D. Decrease at the same rate as the area
increases
53. What tool will be used in making wood
pattern in a foundry shop?
A. Band saw
B. Saw and chisel
C. Drill machine
D. Hammer
54. A type of welding process wherein a
mixture of aluminum powder and metal
oxide powder is ignited by a special powder
in a crucible.
A. Resistance welding
B. Slug welding
59. For general work the cutting angle of a cold

flat chisel is ground at an angle of
A. 80 deg
B. 60 deg
C. 70 deg
D. 35 deg
60. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut is
verified by:
A. Changing the convexity of the cutting
edge
B. Changing its inclination
C. Changing its weight
61. A kind of chuck which has reversible jaws
which could be adjusted properly
A. Universal chuck
B. Chuck Connors
C. Chuckle chuck
62. Which micrometer has no anvil?
A. Outside micrometer
B. Depth micrometer
C. Screw thread micrometer
D. Digit micrometer
63. Tool which when pressed into a finished
hole in a piece of work provide centers on
which the piece may be turned or otherwise
machined.
A. Spindle
B. Mandrel
C. Clock
D. Jaws
64. The effect of setting a lathe tool a small
amount below the center of the work is to
A. Increase the rake angle
B. Decrease the rake angle
C. Cut with negative rake
D. Leave the rake angle unaltered
65. Which micrometer is available with
extension rods:
A. Outside micrometer
B. Inside micrometer
C. Screw thread micrometer
D. Combi micrometer
66. Which gauge is used to check the internal
threads:
A. Plug gauge
B. Ring gauge
C. Thread plug gauge
D. Thread ring gauge
67. Which of the following do not belong to the
group?
A. TIG
B. Hardening
C. MIG
D. Soldering
68. For workrooms (maintenance shop and
machine room) shall at least have a height
from floor to ceiling of:
A. 1000 mm
B. 3000 mm
C. 2000 mm
D. 1500 mm
69. In case of a limit plug gauge which size will
not enter into the hole:
A. GO size
B. A and B both
C. NOT GO size
70. The process of producing a variety of
surfaces by using a circular type cutter with
multiple teeth.
A. Grinding
B. Milling
C. Turning
D. Welding
71. The square head of a combination set is
used for making or checking the angles:
A. 90 deg only
B. 90 and 45 deg
C. 45 deg only
D. 180 deg only
72. The tool blade made of tool blank consists
of face, nose, shank, and _____.
A. Cutting edge
B. Round nose
C. None of these
D. Base
73. The cutting tool used in the shaper are
similar to turning tools of _______ machine.
A. Planer
B. Boring
C. Broachiing
D. Lathe
74. The blades for hacksaw have number of
teeth range of:
A. 15 38 tooth/in
B. 12 30 tooth/in
C. 14 32 tooth/in
D. 12 32 tooth/in
75. The safeguard in minimum of _____ mm in
height for the used as toe guard/toe board.
A. 165
B. 150
C. 135
D. 120
76. A lathe carriage part that bridge across the
bed to carry the cross slide and tool rest.
A. Automatic feed
B. Compound rest
C. Apron
D. Saddle
77. A section in a machine shop operation.
A. Coremaking
B. Fitting
C. Machining
D. Pattern

mandrel?
A. Expanded
B. Contraction
C. Extended
D. Taper
79. A cutting tool angle between the side
cutting edge and the plane perpendicular to
direction of feed travel is _____ angle.
A. Side relief
B. Lead
C. Side cutting edge
D. Side rake
80. The kind of center which is being attached
and meshed to the tailstock spindle is also
static while the work is rotating is
A. Dead center
B. Focal center
C. Live center
D. Work center
81. Drift is used by lathe operator to remove
the taper hole. It is also called ____.
A. Tang
B. Chuck taper
C. Morse taper
D. Tapered key

thousand of an inch:
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
C. Caliper
D. Pyrometer
90. What is/ are the common cutting fluids used
for cutting metals?
A. All of these
B. Water with soda or borax
C. Light mineral oil
D. Soluble oil
is called:
A. Plain scriber
B. A trammel
C. Hermaphrodite
D. Divider
92. A lathe with multiple cutting stations:
A. Turret lathe
B. Lathe machine
C. Milling machine
D. Grinding machine
93. Which of the following is not used to
resemble the shape of tool bit?
82. It is the drill backbone which run the entire

length of the drill between plates and sides
rigidity to the entire drill.
A. Drill drift
B. Tang
C. Shank
D. Web
83. For ordinary turning, drilling and milling on
low strength steel the cutting fluid applied
have soluble oil with consistency of 1 part
oil to _____ parts water.
A. 10 to 30
B. 5 to 10
C. 10
D. 10 to 20
84. Which of the following quick return
mechanism is most widely used in most of
the slotters?
A. Whitworth mechanism
B. Slotter disc mechanism
C. Hydraulic mechanism
D. Slotter link and gear mechanism
85. A two or more drilling machine spindles that
are located/positioned vertically over a
table is called:
A. Team drill
B. Gang drill
C. Turret drill
D. Drills
86. What is the recommended cutting speed
range for bronze in fpm?
A. 60/70
B. 80/60
C. 200/250
D. 100/110
A. Round nose
B. Center cut
C. Square nose
D. Thread cutting
94. A lathe machine threading mechanism:
A. Reverse gear and lever
B. Spindle gear
C. All of these
D. Change stud gear
95. What is the common shop practice to
prevent solder from running away from its
surface to be joined?
A. All of these
B. Surround the work with clay
C. Introduce around the work rolled with
cloth
D. Put asbestos sheering around the work
96. What happens to a drill if operating speed is
too fast?
A. Drill will crack
B. Drill will become overheated and will
bend
C. Drill will become overheated and will be
drawn from the steel
D. Drill will become very dull and wear dust
97. The machinery operation whereby done
with the work accurately fastened has a
reciprocating (forward and backward)
motion and the tool head is stationary.
A. Shaping
B. Planing
C. Turning
D. Reaming
98. What is the difference between the a
shaper and a planer?

except:
A. Welding
B. Soldering
C. Casting
D. Brazing
88. The usual ratio of soluble oil used as cutting
liquid:
A. 50% water to 50% oil
B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 water to 1 oil
A. The tool of the shaper moves while the

planer is stationary
B. The shaper can perform slotting
operation while the planing cannot
C. The shaper handles large pieces while
the planer handles only small pieces
D. The tool of the shaper moves in
reciprocating motion while the tool in the
planer moves in rotary motion
from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a
particles are projected in a form of a spray
by means of compressed air or gas.
A. Electro-slug welding
B. Electro-beam welding
C. Plasma-arc welding
D. Metal spray welding

maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding
and foundry shop:
A. Safety goggle
B. Walkaway guide
C. Safety notices in markings
D. All of these

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ELEMENTS

The function of the clutch in the machine

The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or the

12. The changes in shape or geometry of the

19. Continous stretching under load even if the

D. bench vise and planner

47. All are associated with standard material

52. Separate forces which can be combined are

58. For moderate speed of mating gears, the

69. Permanent deformation of strain may occur

in repair works of some materials. It is

89. The three-moment equation may be used to

100. What type of gear is used for high speed

A type of coupling that allows slight amount

In a uniformly loaded beam, the maximum

Copper and most of its alloys can be

10. What happens to a drill if the operating

In a pair of gears, _______ is the plane

12. The section modulus of a rectangle if base

The phenomenon of continuous stretching

The machinery operation whereby done

Finding the resultant of two or more forces

The capacity of metal to withstand load

18. The reciprocal of diametral pitch equivalent

28. The hardness of helical gear and

is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness, for gear and

39. Galvanized steel plate is a plate coated

34. It has molybdenum alloy except:

A. the lube oil is supplied under pressure

61. To reduce cost in manufacturing of large

83. The ratio of stress to the corresponding

84. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the

99. The maximum stress which is reached

Gears used to transmit power between

An iron has physical properties closely

100. If gears cannot connect parallel shafts, they

An important accessories of milling

They are usually the steel or steel casting:

98. Welded-metal impact specimen shall be

The cheapest and the most abundant

A. a single welded lap joint

Milling machine accessories are used to

An iron in which most of the carbon is

10. A machine used in testing steel generally

The size of an equal-leg length fillet weld

14. Which of the following is not part of a lathe

The space between the adjacent teeth:

13. The machine which can flatten surface on a

20. Which of the following is not a kind of cast

32. One of the following is not common terms

37. One of the following metals which respond

48. The stress strain curve for a glass rod

41. Which of the following is not a kind of

59. Which one is the correct statement about

C. The tangent of the angle of the net

72. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a

78. Coulomb friction is:

82. One joule is the same as:

A. The direction of rotation of first and last

90. Select the one that is a higher pair:

11. The function of a governor is to:

A. Open the belt depends in sum pf the

100. A reverted gear train is one on which: