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B. Accused
D. Government
11. When can confiscation of the proceeds or property or instruments of the crimes be ordered by the
court.
A. When it submitted in evidence
B. When it is not placed at the disposal of the court
C. When it is owned by the victim
D. When it is owned by the accused
12. Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in
case
of an __________
A. Revival of the case
C. Appeal
B. Acquittal
D. Refilling of the case
13. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in
the
commission of the felony.
A. Accessories
C. Principals
B. Accomplices
D. Co- accused
14. It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of age.
A. Reclusion Perpetua
C. Death penalty
B. Prison correctional
D. Arresto Mayor
15. A single out act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies is a ____________ crime.
A. Grave offense
C. Less grave offense
B. Complex crime
D. Continuing crime
16. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity
within the
fourth civil degree, such as _____________.
A. Brothers and sisters
C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece
D. Second cousin
17. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A. Self defense
C. Defense of stranger
B. Defense of relative
D. Fulfillment of duty
18. A person considered as _________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A. Insane
C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile
D. Epileptic
19. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A. Emotions
C. Intelligence
B. Anxiety
D. Depression
20. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A. Prosecution
C. Court
B. Defense
D. Prosecutor
21. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts but all arising from one criminal resolution.
A. Plural crime
C. Habitual crime
B. Continuing crime
D. Revolving crime
22. A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his release
or last
conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is
found guilty of
any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
C. Ex convict
B. Habitual delinquent
D. Pardonee
23. In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the
amount in each
case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more
particularly
to the ________ of the defendant.
A. Education
C. Health
B. Wealth and means
D. Age
24. Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to
the Board
of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the
release
of such prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
A. Medium
C. Minimum
B. Maximum
D. One half
25. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole
C. Probation
B. Recognition
D. Pardon
26. A person placed on probation.
A. Parolee
C. Pardonee
B. Probationer
D. Ex- convict
27. One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
A. Parole officer
C. Probation officer
B. Police officer
D. Administrative officer
28. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A. In terim
C. De Jure
B. Final
D. Temporary
29. When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution
of said
sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
A. Continued
C. Extinct
B. Suspended
D. Enforced
30. If the convict becomes insane or imbecile after the final sentence, the payment of his ________ shall
not be
suspended.
A. Criminal liability
C. Civil or pecuniary liabilities
B. Administrative liability
D. Personal liability
31. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or
less grave
felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead
of
pronouncing judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit
such minor
to the custody and care of a public or private charitable institution.
A. Proceed
C. Set aside
B. Suspend
D. Prolong
32. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his
confinement,
in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order
that the same
may order his final release.
A. DSWD
C. Court
B. Parents
D. Relatives / guardians
33. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which
he was
committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the
same may
_________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A. Render the judgment
C. Order extension of his commitment
B. Order his release
D. Order his rehabilitation
34. The expenses for the maintenance of the minor delinquent confined in the institution to which he has
been
committed, shall be borne totally or partially by _________ or those persons liable to support him,
if they are
able to do so in the discretion of the court.
A. DSWD
C. Institution
B. Parents or relatives
D. State
35. Under the new law, the age of majority is ___________.
A. 21 years old
C. 18 years old
B. 15 years old
D. 16 years old
36. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated
in the
sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A. Arresto Mayor
C. Destierro
B. Aresto Menor
D. Prision Mayor
37. The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
A. Not less than 25kms. But not more than 200 kms.
B. Not less than 20 kms. But not more than 225 kms.
C. Not less than 5 kms. But not more than 125 kms.
D. Not less than 25 kms. But not more than 250 kms.
38. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant
under the
surveillance of an officer of the law.
A. Arresto Mayor
C. Prision correccional
B. Arresto Menor
D. Prision Mayor
39. As the personal penalties, criminal liability of the accused is totally extinguished upon his _________.
A. Incarceration
C. Death
B. Conviction
D. Confinement
40. The pecuniary liabilities of the convict is extinguished only when the death of the offender occurs
_______.
A. After the final judgment
C. During the pendency of the case
51. The 0ffense of oral deformation and slander by deed shall prescribed in _____.
A. Six month
C. One year
B. One month
D. Five years
52. In computing the period of ______ the first day is to be excluded and the last day included.
A. Judgment
C. Conviction
B. Prescription
D. Confinement
53. The prescriptive period of offenses punishable under special laws and municipal and ordinances,
such as
offenses punished only by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than one month, or both prescribed
after ______.
A. Four years
B. One years
C. Five years
D. Eight years
54. The term of prescription shall not run when the offender is _____.
A. Absent from the Phil. Archipelago. B. Under rehabilitation
C. Confined
D. Arrested
55. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the offender should
_____ the
service of this sentence.
A. Start serving
C. Commence
B. Evade
D. Interrupt
56. It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of the
penalty
inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
A. Reprieve
C. Suspension of sentence
B. Commutation of sentence
D. Enforcement of sentence
57. It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that the
sovereign power
will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
A. Amnesty
C. Conditional Pardon
B. Probation
D. Reprieve
58. Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incurr the obligation of _____ otherwise,
his non
compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
A. Strictly complying the condition
B. Ignoring the condition
C. Evading the condition
D. Questioning the condition
59. It is the prerogative of the Executive to extend this to the offender at any time after the imposition of
the final
judgment.
A. Parole
C. Probation
B. Amnesty
D. Conditional Pardon
60. It is an Executive clemency given to the convicted offender after the offender has served the minimum
penalty
through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A. Parole
C. Amnesty
B. Pardon
D. Probation
61. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also _____ liable.
A. Administratively
C. Personally
B. Civily
D. Socially
and served by him in lieu of the fine which he fails to pay on account of insolvency.
__B__72. One of the pecuniary penalties of the offender is reparation of the damaged caused. The
pecuniary
Liabilities applies only in case the property of the offender is sufficient for the payment of all
his pecuniary
liabilities.
___C__ 73. The subsidiary personal, liability of the offender is at the rate of one day for each ten pesos.
The convict
who served subsidiary penalty may still be required to pay the fine.
___D_ 74. When the court merely imposes a fine, the subsidiary liability shall not exceed one year. The
proceeds of
the crime as well as the tools and instruments shall be forfeited and confiscated in favor
of the victim.
__A_ 75. The confiscation of the proceeds or tools or instruments of the crime can be ordered only if they
are
submitted in evidence or placed at the disposal of the court. Articles which are forfeited,
when the
order of forfeiture is already final, cannot be returned even in case of acquittal.
___B__ 76. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the
principals in the
commission of such felony. According to Art. 47 of the RPC death penalty may be
imposed when
the guilty person be more than 70 years of age.
___C__ 77. A complex crime is not considered as one crime. One of the kinds of complex crime is when
an offense is
A necessary means for committing another crime.
__D___ 78. A continuing crime is not a single crime consisting of series of acts but all is not arising from
one criminal
resolution. In continuing offense, although there is a series of acts, there are several crimes
committed.
__A___ 79. Indeterminate Sentence Law is an act which provide for an indeterminate sentence and
parole for all
persons convicted of certain crimes by the courts of the Philippine Island. The act shall not
apply to
persons convicted of offenses punished with death penalty of life imprisonment.
___A__ 80. The court must, instead of single fixed penalty, determine two penalties, referred to in the
Indeterminate
Sentence Act as the Maximum and Minimum terms. Indeterminate Sentence Law does not
apply
to those who are habitual delinquents.
___A_ 81. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine
only. The
probation law does not apply to offenders sentenced to serve a maximum of more than six
years.
___A__ 82. If the convict is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one year, the period of
probation
shall not exceed two years. In all other cases, if he is sentenced to more than one year, said
probation
A. Affinity
C. Legislation
B. Consanguinity
D. Naturalization
96. A person considered as ___________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability
A. Insane
C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile
D. Epileptic
97. As a rule, ______________ is mitigating in the crimes against property.
A. Intoxication
C. Relationship
B. Education
D. Sex
98. It is a circumstances present in a crime where it may increase or decrease the criminal liability.
A. Exempting circumstances C. Alternative circumstances
B. Justifying circumstances
D. Mitigating circumstances
99. It is a kind of aggravating circumstance that changes the nature of the crime. Example treachery
qualifies the
killing of a person to murder.
A. Qualifying aggravating
C. Specific aggravating
B. Generic aggravating
D. Inherent aggravating
100. They are persons criminally liable due to their direct participation in the commission of the crime.
A. accessories
C. Principals
B. Accomplices
D. Co-accomplices
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