Module 5 Biochemistry of Tissues and Physiological

Mudule 5.
Biochemistry of tissues and physiological functions

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Test questions in text form

Burning foot syndrome has been described to the deficiency of:
A. * Pantothenic acid
B. Thiamin
C. Cobalamin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Ascorbic acid
A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
A. Beri-Beri
B. Scurvy
C. * Perniciuos anemia
D. Ricket
E. Pellagra
A molecule of CO2 is captured by biotin when it acts as coenzyme for carboxylation
reaction. The carboxyl group is covalently attached to
A. * A nitrogen (N1) of the biotin molecule
B. Sulphur of thiophene ring
C. Alfa-Amino group of lysine
D. Alfa-Amino group of protein
E. All of these
A provitamin D synthesized in human beings is
A. Ergosterol
B. * 7-Dehydrocholesterol
C. Cholecalciferol
D. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
E. All of these
A vitamin which can be synthesized by human beings is:
A. Thiamin
B. * Niacin
C. Folic acid
D. Cyanocobalamin
E. Both B and C
An important function of vitamin A is
A. To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes
B. To play an integral role in protein synthesis
C. To prevent hemorrhages
D. * To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue
E. A and C only
Anti-egg white injury factor is:
A. Pyridoxine
B. * Biotin
C. Thiamin
D. Liponic acid
E. All of these
Ascorbic acid can reduce
A. 2, 6-Dibromobenzene
B. 2, 6-Diiodoxypyridine
C. * 2, 6-Dichlorophenol indophenol
D. 2, 4-Dinitrobenzene
E. All of the above
9. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all of the following except:

A. Collagen
B. Bile acids
C. * Bile pigments
D. Epinephrine
E. Both B and C
10. Biotin is a coenzyme for:
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Propionyl CoA carboxylase
D. * All of these
E. None of these
11. Biotin is a coenzyme of the enzyme:
A. * Carboxylase
B. Hydroxylase
C. Decarboxylase
D. Deaminase
E. Dehydrogenase
12. Biotin is required as a coenzyme by:
A. Anaerobic dehydrogenases
B. Decarboxylases
C. Aerobic dehydrogenases
D. * Carboxylases
E. All of these
13. Chemically, lipoic acid is:
A. Saturated fatty acid
B. Unsaturated fatty acid
C. Amino acid
D. * Sulphur containing fatty acid
E. Keto acid
14. Coenzyme A contains a nitrogenous base which is:
A. * Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Choline
D. Ethanolamine
E. Tymine
15. Conversion of all-trans-retinal into all-trans-retinol requires:
A. NAD
B. NADH
C. NADP
D. * NADPH
E. FAD
16. Conversion of folate into tetrahydrofolate requires:
A. NADH
B. * NADPH
C. FMNH2
D. FADH2
E. TPP
17. Conversion of retinal into retinol requires the presence of:
A. PLP
B. * NADPH
C. FADH2
D. Lipoic acid
E. Both B and C
18. Daily requirement of niacin is
A. 5 mg
B. 10 mg
C. * 20 mg
D. 35 mg
E. 20 g
19. Daily requirement of vitamin C in adults is about:
A. 100 mg
B. 25 mg
C. * 70 mg
D. 100 mg
E. 70 g
20. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes
A. * Xeropthalmia
B. Hypoprothrombinemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Pernicious anemia
E. Beri-Beri
21. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of:
A. Decreased intake of vitamin B12
B. Atrophy of gastric mucosa
C. Intestinal malabsorption
D. * All of these
E. None of these
22. Deficiency of vitamin C causes:
A. Beriberi
B. Pellagra
C. Pernicious anaemia
D. * Scurvy
E. Both A and D
23. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
A. * Rickets and osteomalacia
B. Tuberculosis of bone
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Skin cancer
E. Cretinism
24. Ergosterol is found in
A. Animals
B. * Plants
C. Bacteria
D. All of these
E. Both A and B
25. FAD is a coenzyme for
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Sphingosine reductase
D. * All of these
E. None of these
26. Fat soluble vitamins are
A. Soluble in alcohol
B. one or more Propene units

C. Stored in liver
D. * Cause hypervitaminosis
E. All these
27. Folic acid contains:
A. Pteridine
B. p-Amino benzoic acid
C. Glutamic acid
D. * All of these
E. None of these
28. Function of Vitamin A:
A. Healing epithelial tissues
B. Protein synthesis regulation
C. Cell growth
D. * All of these
E. None of these
29. In the body 1 mg of niacin can be produced from:
A. 60 mg of pyridoxine
B. * 60 mg of tryptophan
C. 30 mg of tryptophan
D. 30 mg of pantothenic acid
E. 60 g of tryptophan
30. Intrinsic factor is chemically a:
A. Protein
B. * Glycoprotein
C. Mucopolysaccaride
D. Peptide
E. Amino acid
31. Lipoic acid is a conenzyme for:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Alfa-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C. * Both (A) and (B)
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
E. None of these
32. Methylcobalamin is required for formation of
A. Serin from glycine
B. Glycine from serine
C. * Methionine from homocysteine
D. All of these
E. Both (B) and (C)
33. NAD is required as a coenzyme for
A. * Malate dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. HMG CoA reductae
34. Niacin can be synthesised in human beings from
A. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
D. * Tryptophan
E. Both (A) and (C)
35. Niacin contains a
A. Sulphydryl group
B. * Carboxyl group
C. Amide group
D. All of these
E. None of these
36. Niacin deficiency can occur in
A. * Hartnup disease
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. None of these
E. Both (A) and (C)
37. Niacin deficiency is common in people whose staple food is
A. Wheat
B. Polished rice
C. * Maize and /or sorghum
D. None of these
E. Both (A) and (C)
38. Niacin is present in maize in the form of:
A. Niatin
B. Nicotin
C. * Niacytin
D. Nicyn
E. None of these
39. Niacin is synthesized in the body from:
A. * Tryptophan
B. Tyrosine
C. Glutamate
D. Aspartate
E. None of the above
40. Niacin or nicotinic acid is a monocarboxylic acid derivative of:
A. * Pyridine
B. Pyrimidine
C. Flavin
D. Adenine
E. A and B
41. On exposure to light rhodopsin forms
A. * All trans-retinal
B. Cis-retinal
C. Retinol
D. Retinoic acid
E. All of the above
42. One international unit (I.U) of vitamin D is defined as the biological activity of
A. * 0.025 g of cholecalciferol
B. 0.025 g of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol
C. 0.025 g of ergosterol
D. 0.025 g of ergocalciferol
43. Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid which is:
A. Aspartic acid
B. Glutamic acid
C. * Alanine
D. Alfa-Aminoisobutyric acid
E. None of these
44. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of:

A. Ascorbic acid
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Pyridoxine
D. * Niacin
E. C and D
45. Pellagra occurs in population dependent on:
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. * Maize
D. Milk
E. B and C
46. Pellagra preventing factor is
A. Thiamin
B. Riboflavin
C. * Niacin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Both (A) and (C)
47. Precursor of Vitamin A is:
A. ?-Carotene
B. ?-Carotene
C. ?-Carotene
D. * All of these
E. Both A and B
48. Preformed Vitamin A is supplied by Milk, fat and liver
A. * All yellow vegetables
B. All yellow fruits
C. Leafy green vegetables
D. All of the above
49. Provitamin D3 is
A. Cholecalciferol
B. Ergosterol
C. * 7-Dehydrocholesterol
D. Ergocaliferol
E. All of these
50. Provitamins A include
A. Retinal
B. Retionic acid
C. * Carotenes
D. Both B and C
E. All of these
51. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for
A. Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase
B. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase
C. Tyrosine transaminase
D. * All of these
E. None of these
52. Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a coenzyme in
A. Transamination
B. Transulphuration
C. Desulphydration
D. * All of these
E. Dehydrogenation
53. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring urinary excretion of
A. Pyruvic acid
B. Oxaloacetic acid
C. * Xanthurenic acid
D. None of these
E. All of these
54. Pyridoxine requirement depends upon the intake of
A. Carbohydrates
B. * Proteins
C. Fats
D. All of these
E. None of these
55. Retinoic acid participates in the synthesis of
A. Iodopsin
B. Rhodopsin
C. * Glycoprotein
D. Cardiolipin
56. Retinol and retinal are interconverted requiring dehydrogenase or reductase in the
presence of
A. * NAD or NADP
B. NADH + H+
C. NADPH
D. FAD
E. PLP
57. Retinol isomerase is present in:
A. Retina
B. * Liver
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Cornea
E. None of these
58. Rhodopsin contains opsin and:
A. * 11-cis-retinal
B. 11-trans-retinal
C. All-cis-retinal
D. All trans-retinal
E. All of these
59. Riboflavin deficiency can cause
A. Peripheral neuritis
B. Diarrhoea
C. * Angular stomatitis
D. None of these
E. Both (A) and (C)
60. Riboflavin deficiency symptoms are:
A. Glossitis
B. Stomatis
C. Vomitting
D. * Both (A) and (B)
E. Diarrea
61. Riboflavin is heat stable in
A. Acidic medium
B. Alkaline medium
C. Neutral medium
D. * Both (A) and (C)
E. Both (B) and (C)
62. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. * Vitamin C
E. B and D only
63. Sterilised milk lacks in
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. * Vitamin C
D. Thiamin
E. All of the above
64. Sulphydryl group of coenzyme a is contributed by:
A. Alanine
B. ?-Aminoisobutyric acid
C. Methionine
D. * Thioethanolamine
E. Both (A) and (D)
65. The central heavy metal cobalt of vitamin B12 is coordinately bound to
A. * Cyanide group
B. Amino group
C. Carboxyl group
D. Sulphide group
E. Hydroxyl group
66. The enzymes with which nicotinamide act as coenzyme are:
A. * Dehydrogenases
B. Transaminases
C. Decarboxylases
D. Carboxylases
E. A and B
67. The following is required for the formation of coenyzme A:
A. * ATP
B. GTP
C. CTP
D. None of these
E. AMP
68. The most important natural antioxidant is
A. Vitamin D
B. * Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin K
E. All of these
69. The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is
A. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
B. * 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
C. 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
D. 7-Dehydrocholesterol
E. All of these
70. The pellagra preventive factor is:
A. Riboflavin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. * Niacin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Ascorbic acid
71. The requirement of vitamin E is increased with greater intake of
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. * Polyunsaturated fat
D. Saturated fat
E. A and B
72. The vitamin having the highest daily requirement among the following is:
A. Thiamin
B. Ribovflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. * Ascorbic acid
E. Both A and D
73. Tocopherols prevent the oxidation of
A. * Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
E. A and B
74. Two molecules of vitamin A can be formed from 1 molecule of:
A. ?-Carotene
B. * ?-Carotene
C. ?-Carotene
D. Both A and B
E. All of these
75. Vitamin A is stored in the body in:
A. * Liver
B. Adipose tissue
C. Reticuloendothelial cells
D. Both A and B
E. All of these
76. Vitamin B12 is synthesized by:
A. * Bacteria only
B. Plants only
C. Animals only
D. Both (A) and (C)
E. All of the above
77. Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by:
A. Albumin
B. Transcortin
C. Transcobalamin I
D. * Transcobalamin II
E. All of these
78. Vitamin B12 is:
A. Not stored in the body
B. Stored in bone marrow
C. * Stored in liver
D. Stored in RE cells
E. All of these
79. Vitamin C activity is present in:
A. D-Ascorbic acid
B. D-Dehydroascorbic acid
C. * L-Ascorbic acid
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
80. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Iodine
C. * Iron
D. Calcium
E. None of these
81. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of:
A. * Bile acids from cholesterol
B. Bile salts from bile acids
C. Vitamin D from cholesterol
D. All of these
E. None of these
82. Vitamin E reduces the requirement of
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. * Selenium
D. Magnesium
E. Sodium
83. Vitamin required for the conversion of hydroxyphenylpyruvate to homogentisate is
A. Folacin
B. Cobalamin
C. Ascorbic acid
D. * Niacin
E. Cholecalciferol
84. Vitamin required in conversion of folic acid to folinic acid is
A. Biotin
B. Cobalamin
C. * Ascorbic acid
D. Niacin
E. Cholecalciferol
85. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol promotes absorption of:
A. P
B. Cu
C. Zn
D. Na
E. * Ca
86. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol promotes absorption of:
A. P
B. Cu
C. Zn
D. Na
E. * Ca
87. A cofactor required in oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate is
A. * Lipoate
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Biotin
D. Para aminobenzoic acid
E. PLP
88. A lot of biochemical functions of water soluble vitamins are related to their ability to
transform in cells in the proper coenzymes. Which from the below mentioned vitamins is
needed for formation of FMN and FAD?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B5
D. Vitamin B3
E. * Vitamin B2
89. A poor source of Vitamin D is
A. Egg
B. Butter
C. * Milk
D. Liver
E. All of these
90. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the presence of:
A. Pepsin
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Intrinsic factor
D. * Boh (B) and (C)
E. Rennin
91. Absorption of vitamins depends on some factors. Which compound does prevent
absorption of biotin?
A. * Avidine
B. Albumin
C. Globulin
D. Transferrin
E. Ferritin
92. Active coenzyme forms of vitamin B5:
A. FAD and FMN
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. * NAD and NADP
D. Pyridoxamine
E. Coenzyme A
93. Anaemia can occur due to the deficiency of all the following except:
A. * Thiamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Folic acid
D. Cyanocobalamin
E. Both A and B
94. Analog of vitamin K:
A. * Dicumarol
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Proconvertin
E. Hesperedin
95. Ascorbic acid is especially abundant in:
A. * Citrus fruits;
B. White bread;
C. Rice;
D. Yeast.
E. Plant oils
96. At the tissue respiration the primary acceptor of hydrogen is pyridine dependent
dehydrogenase. Which from the below mentioned vitamins is needed for the coenzyme
NAD+?
A. * Vitamin PP
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin B2
E. Vitamin B3
97. Below named are the main clinical symptoms of scurvy, except:
A. Gums bleeding
B. Pain in heart
C. Tachycardia
D. * Xeroftalmia
E. Petechias
98. Calcitriol synthesis involves
A. * Both liver and kidney
B. Intestine
C. Adipose tissue
D. Muscle
E. Liver
99. Chemically, Extrinsic Factor of Castle is a:
A. Mucoprotein
B. Glycoprotein
C. Mucopolysaccharide
D. * Cyanocobalamin
E. Peptide
100.
? Choose correct answer according to concept of vitamins:
A. Are inorganic substances that function in living cells in trace amounts and are
vital for many forms of life
B. * Are organic substances that function in living cells in trace amounts and are
vital for many forms of life
C. Are organic substances that function only in liver in trace amounts
D. Are inorganic substances that must acquire from endogenous sources
E. All answers correct
101.
Choose physiological name of vitamin B2:
A. Antianemic
B. Antineuritic
C. Antipellagric
D. Antiscurvy
E. * Growth factor
102.
Choose the active form of vitamin D, which has characteristics of hormone?
A. 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. * 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol
C. 25- hydroxycholecalciferol
D. Ergocalciferol
E. Cholecalciferol
103.
Choose the chemical nature of vitamin B5:
A. Amino acid
B. * Nicotinic acid
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Citric acid
104.
Clinical manifestation of riboflavin deficiency are all, except:
A. Growth inhibition
B. Loss of hair
C. Inflammatory processes of lips
D. * Defect of nervous system
E. Keratitis
105.
Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of
A. * Biotin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamin
E. Ascorbic acid
106.
Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin:
A. B1
B. * B2
C. B3
D. B6
E. D
107.
Day necessity of thiamin:
A. 10-15 mg
B. 1-2 g/l
C. * 2-3 mg
D. 16-25 mg
E. 10-15 g
108.
Day's necessity of vitamin D for children:
A. 2-3 mg
B. 2-3 g
C. . 70-100 mg
D. * 10-15 g
E. . 10-12 g
109.
Deficiency of vitamin B6 may occur in
A. Obese person
B. Thin person
C. * Alcoholics
D. Diabetics
E. All of these
110.
Differences of water-soluble vitamins from fat-soluble vitamins are all, except:
A. * Are included into coenzymes
B. Don't have provitamins
C. Are not included into the membranes
D. Hypervitaminoses are not peculiar for them
E. Usually have provitamins
111.
Early symptoms of vitamin A deficiency:
A. Muscle dystrophy
B. Lungs inflammation
C. Liver cancer
D. * Xerophthalmia ("dry eyes")
E. Petechias
112.
Epileptiform convulsion in human infants have been attributed to the deficiency of
the vitamin:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B1
B2
* B6
B12
D
113.
Flavoenzymes take part in the following biochemical processes, except:
A. Oxidative degradation of pyruvate
B. Oxidative degradation of fatty acids
C. Oxidative degradation of amino acids
D. * Serves as carrier of acyl groups
E. Take part in the process of electron transport.
114.
Folate as a coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
A. Amino group
B. Hydroxyl group
C. * Single carbon moiety
D. Amido group
E. All of these
115.
Folate deficiency causes
A. Microcytic anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. * Megaloblastic anemia
E. Scurvy
116.
Folic acid deficiency can be diagnosed by increased urinary excretion of
A. Methylmalonate
B. * Figlu
C. Cystathionine
D. Creatinine
117.
Folic acid or folate consists of the
A. Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and asparate
B. Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate
C. * Base pteridine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate
D. Base purine, p-hydroxy benzoic acid and glutamate
E. Base pyrimidine, p-amino benzoic acid and glutamate
118.
For absorption of which vitamin the Castles factor is need (glycoprotein which
produced by the cells of stomach)?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B5
E. * Vitamin B12
119.
For hypovitaminosis of vitamin are proper such symptoms:
A. Xerophtalmia, keratomalacia
B. Dermatitis, dementia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Diarrhea, polyneuritis
E. * Atrophy of muscles
120.
Hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in
A. Skin
B. * Liver
C. Kidneys
D. Intestinal mucosa
E. Pancreas
121.
Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may cause
A. Porphyria
B. * Jaundice
C. Pellagra
D. Prolonged bleeding
E. Scurvy
122.
In biochemical processes in the human organism all forms of vitamin A take part
except:
A. Retinol
B. Retinal
C. Retinoic acid
D. * Tocopherol
E. Esters forms of vitamin A
123.
In biotin-containing enzymes, the biotins bound to the enzyme by
A. An amide linkage to carboxyl group of glutamine
B. A covalent bond with CO2
C. * An amide linkage to an amino group of lysine
D. An amide linkage to carboxyl group of Protein
E. All of these
124.
In human body highest concentration of ascorbic acid is found in
A. Liver
B. * Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Spleen
E. Pancreas
125.
In the large intestine microorganisms synthesize vitamins which take part in the
biochemical processes of organism. Choose them:
A. * K, B12
B. D, C
C. E, H
D. B1, D
E. B6, E
126.
Increased glucose consumption increases the dietary requirement for
A. Pyridoxine
B. Niacin
C. Biotin
D. * Thiamin
E. Cholecalciferol
127.
Insufficiency of which vitamin does cause the inhibition of activity of
aminotransferases and decarboxylase?
A. B3
B. B2
C. * B6
D. B12
E. B15
128.
Lack of vitamin K causes:
A. Diarrhea
B. Kakheksiya
C. S. Growth retardation
D. * Hemorrhages
E. Steatoreya
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
137.
A.
B.
C.
Lipid soluble vitamins are:

Coenzymes
* Modulators of cell membranes
Regulators of secretion of digestive juices
Transport of substances
. Mediators of nervous system
Main function of bioflavonoids is:
Take part in metabolism of epinephrine
It necessary for hydroxylation of cholesterol
* Support the elasticity of capillaries
Reduce the disulfide bonds to sulphhydryl bonds
Participation in respiratory chain
Main function of coenzyme A is:
A carrier of methyl group
Removal of hydrogen atom from specific substrate
Catalyze reaction of carbohydrate metabolism
* A carrier of acyl groups
Participation in respiratory chain
Name biologicaly active form of vitamin D:
* Ergocalciferol
Cholecalciferol
7-dehydrocholesterol
25-hydroxycholecalciferol
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
Name provitamins of vitamin A:
Flavonoids
Cholecalciferol
* Carotenoids
Hesperedin
Dehydroascorbic acid
Name the active coenzyme form of vitamin B2:
A.TMP, TDP
NAD, NADP
* FMN, FAD
Coenzyme A
THFA
One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is
Painful joints
* Night blindness
Loss of hair
Thickening of long bones
All of these
Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in:
Decarboxylation
Dehydrogenation
* Acetylation
Oxidation
All of these
Pantothenic acid was identified as:
Coenzyme Q
Metalloenzyme
Flavoenzyme
D. * Coenzyme A
E. Pyridine coenzyme
138.
Pyridoxal phosphate is central to:
A. Deamination
B. Amidation
C. Carboxylation
D. * Transamination
E. Oxidation
139.
Pyridoxal phosphate is the active coenzyme form of vitamin:
A. B1.
B. B2.
C. B3.
D. * B6.
E. B12
140.
pyridoxamine phosphate
A. Deamination of serine
B. Deamination of threonine
C. Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate to
D. * Methylation of homocystein to methionine
E. Hydroxilation of proline
141.
Pyridoxine can biologically convert into such compounds:
A. Pyridine and thiamin
B. Propionil and pyridine
C. * Pyridoxal and pyridoxamine
D. Nicotine and nicotinamide
E. Pyridine coenzyme
142.
RDA of vitamin is:
A. * A.20-50 mg
B. B.20-50 g
C. .45-60 mg
D. D.50-100 g
E. .40-80 mg
143.
Retinal is a component of
A. Iodopsin
B. * Rhodopsin
C. Cardiolipin
D. Glycoproteins
E. Lipoproteins
144.
Retinal is reduced to retinol in intestinal mucosa by a specific retinaldehyde
reductase utilising
A. * NADPH + H+
B. FAD
C. NAD
D. NADH + H+
E. PLP
145.
Rhodopsin includes a protein:
A. Crioglobulin
B. * Opsin
C. Transpherin
D. Pepsin
E. Tyrosine
146.
Riboflavin deficiency causes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Cheilosis
Loss of weight
Mental deterioration
Dermatitis
Beriberi
147.
Riboflavin is a coenzyme in the reaction catalysed by the enzyme
A. Acyl CoA synthetase
B. * Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
C. ?-Hydroxy acyl CoA
D. Enoyl CoA dehydrogenase
E. All of these
148.
Richest source of Vitamin D is
A. * Fish liver oils
B. Margarine
C. Egg yolk
D. Butter
E. Meat
149.
Rod cells possess a trans-membrane protein which is
A. Adenylate cyclase
B. Transducin
C. * Rhodopsin
D. B as well as C
E. All of these
150.
Sequence of enzymatic reactions of visual cycle is catalyzed by two enzymes:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase and phosphatase
B. Alcohol dehydrogenase and lactate dehydrogenase
C. * Retinal-reductase and retinol-isomerase
D. Esterases and glycosidases
E. Retinal-reductase and retinol-transferase
151.
Subacute combined degeneration of cord is caused due to deficiency of
A. Niacin
B. * Cobalamin
C. Biotin
D. Thiamin
E. Ascorbic acid
152.
Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial synthesis of
A. Lipoate
B. Vitamin E
C. * Tetrahydrofolate
D. Ascorbic acid
E. All of these
153.
The active form of vitamin D (1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol) maintain in an
organism a constant level of:
A. Potassium and phosphorus
B. * Calcium and phosphorus
C. S. Iron and calcium
D. Iron and magnesium
E. Magnesium and manganese
154.
The analogue of vitamin K which takes part in the tissue respiration is:
A. Vikasol
B. * Ubiquinone
C. Naphtoquinon
D. Tocopherol
E. Cytochrome
155.
The antivitamin of vitamin K is:
A. Vikasol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. * Dikumarol
D. Thiamin
E. . Cholin
156.
The biochemical function of water soluble vitamins depends on their ability to
convert into coenzyme forms. In which coenzyme the vitamin B2(riboflavin) transforms:
A. * FMN (flavin mononucleotide)
B. NAD+ (nicotine amide dinucleotide)
C. TMP (tiaminmonofosphate)
D. TDP (thiamine diphosphate)
E. PALP (pirodoxal phosphate)
157.
The central structure of B12 referred to as corrin ring system consists of
A. * Cobalt
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Iron
E. Potassium
158.
The coenzyme required for conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is
A. FAD
B. NAD
C. TPP
D. * Biotin
E. PLP
159.
The cofactor or its derivative required for the conversion of acetyl CoA to
malonyl-CoA is
A. FAD
B. ACP
C. NAD+
D. * Biotin
E. TPP
160.
The component of rodopsin
A. Trans-retinol
B. * Cis-retinal
C. Yodopsin
D. Trans-retinal
E. Cis- retinol
161.
The daily requirement of riboflavin for adult in mg is
A. 01.0
B. * 1.21.7
C. 2.03.5
D. 4.08.0
E. 10.6-15.5
162.
The day requirement of vitamin C is:
A. 50-70 g.
B. * 50-70 mg.
C. 50-70 g.
D. 500-700 mg.
E. 5-7 g
163.
The deficiency of thiamin causes disease:

A. Acute pancreatitis
B. * Beri-beri
C. Pellagra
D. Liver cancer
E. Loss of hair
164.
The deficiency of tocopherol causes many other symptoms, except:
A. Infertility in male and female
B. Degeneration of the kidneys
C. Necrosis of the liver
D. * Mental retardation
E. Dystrophy of skeletal muscles
165.
The derivates of vitamins are included in composition of coenzymes of respiratory
chain. The coenzyme form of what vitamin is NAD+?
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. * PP
E. B3
166.
The derivates of vitamins carry out the role of coenzymes. The coenzyme form of
which vitamin is a thiamine pyrophosphate?
A. Vitamin B5
B. * Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B2
D. Vitamin B3
E. Vitamin B6
167.
The disease pellagra is developed in the lack of vitamin:
A. Thiamin.
B. Riboflavin.
C. * Nicotinic acid.
D. Pantothenic acid.
E. Ascorbic acid
168.
The earliest symptoms of thiamin deficiency cause disorders of some system,
except:
A. Nervous.
B. Cardio-vascular
C. Respiratory
D. Muscular
E. * Digestive
169.
The function of coenzyme A is to take part in the following enzymatic reactions,
except:
A. Fatty acid synthesis
B. Fatty acid oxidation
C. * Hydrolysis of proteins
D. Pyruvate oxidation
E. Biological acetylations
170.
The main enzymatic reaction requiring pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme is :
A. Decarboxilation
B. * Transamination
C. Deamination
D. Reamination
E. Oxidation
171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
179.
A.
B.
C.
The molecule of vitamin A contains:

Benzene ring
* ?-Ionone ring
?-Carotene ring
All of these
None of these
The most specific symptoms of pellagra are all, except:
Dermatitis
Diarrhea
Dementia
* Muscle dystrophy
Photosensibility
The precursor of CoA is:
Riboflavin
Pyridoxamine
Thiamin
* Pantothenate
None of the above
The proteins present in maize are deficient in:
Lysine
Threonine
* Tryptophan
Tyrosine
C and D
The Vitamin B1 deficiency causes
Ricket
Nyctalopia
* Beriberi
Pellagra
Scurvy
The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is
Niacin
Pantothenic acid
* Pyridoxal phosphate
Riboflavin
Ascorbic acid
The vitamin required for the formation of hydroxyproline (in collagen) is
* Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
The Vitamin which does not contain a ring in the structure is:
* Pantothenic acid
Vitamin D
Riboflavin
Thiamin
A and D
Thiamin deficiency includes
Mental depression
Fatigue
Beriberi
D. Miscle atrophy
E. * All of these
180.
Thiamin diphosphate is required for oxidative decarboxylation of
A. * ?-Keto acids
B. ?-Amino acids
C. Fatty acids
D. Glycerol
E. All of these
181.
Thiamin is heat stable in
A. * Acidic medium
B. Alkaline medium
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neutral medium
E. None of these
182.
Thiamin is oxidized to thiochrome in alkaline solution by
A. Potassium permanganate
B. * Potassium ferricyanide
C. Potassium chlorate
D. Potassium dichromate
E. All of these
183.
Thiamin occurs in cells mainly as its active coenzyme form:
A. NAD
B. FAD
C. NADP
D. * TPP
E. CoA
184.
Thiamin requirement is greater in
A. Non-vegetarians
B. Alcoholics
C. Pregnant women
D. * Both B and C
E. None of above
185.
To the group of fat soluble vitamins peculiar presence of provitamins. The
provitamin of vitamin D3 is:
A. Ergosterol
B. Cholesterol
C. * 7-dehydrocholesterol
D. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol
E. Ergocalciferol
186.
Tocopherols have such property:
A. * Antioxidant activity
B. Antidermatites activity
C. Antipellagric activity
D. Antixerophtalmic activity
E. Antianemic activity
187.
Two coenzymes NAD and NADP are also referred to as:
A. * Pyridine coenzymes
B. Flavoenzymes
C. Thiamin coenzyms
D. Transaminase
E. Ligases
188.
Vitamin A or retinal is a
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
189.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
191.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steroid
* Polyisoprenoid compound containing a cyclohexenyl ring
Benzoquinone derivative
6-Hydroxychromane
None of the above
Vitamin B12 deficiency can be diagnosed by urinary excretion of
Pyruvate
* Methylmalonate
Malate
Lactate
All of these
Vitamin B12 forms coenzymes known as:
* Cobamide
Transcobalamin I
Transcobalamin II
Both (B) and (C)
All of these
Vitamin B12 has a complex ring structure (corrin ring) consisting of four
Purine rings
Pyrimidine rings
* Pyrrole rings
Pteridine rings
Bensol ring
Vitamin B12 is also known as:
Folic acid
* Cyanocobalamin
Piridoxine
Orotic acid
Biotin
Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during therapy with
* Isoniazid
Terramycin
Sulpha drugs
Aspirin
All of these
Vitamin B6 includes:
Pyridoxal
Pyridoxamine
Pyridoxine
* All of these
Both A and B
Vitamin K is a cofactor for
* Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue
?-Oxidation of fatty acids
Formation of ?-amino butyrate
Synthesis of tryptophan
Synthesis of fatty acids
Vitamin K is found in
* Green leafy plants
Meat
Fish
Milk
E. All of these
197.
Vitamin K is required for normal:
A. * Blood-clotting time
B. Development of bones
C. Prevent blood clotting
D. Promotes absorption of Ca in intestine
E. Demineralisation
198.
Vitamin P - is the group of compounds, except:
A. Rutin
B. Hesperedin
C. Katechines
D. * Riboflavin
E. All of above
199.
Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the intestine is
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. * K
E. B1
200.
Vitamins are
A. * Accessory food factors
B. Generally synthesized in the body
C. Produced in endocrine glands
D. Proteins in nature
E. All of the above
201.
Vitamins are classified into two large groups:
A. Organic and inorganic
B. Simple and complex
C. * Water-soluble and fat-soluble
D. Protein-soluble and fat-soluble
E. All of above
202.
Vitamins at their simultaneous usage can strengthen action of each other. Which
of following vitamins assist in anti-hyaluronidase activity of vitamin P?
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B1
D. * Vitamin C
E. Vitamin A
203.
What disease is developed in the vitamin B12 deficiency?
A. * Pernicious anemia.
B. Pellagra.
C. Beri-beri.
D. Dermatitis.
E. Neuritis.
204.
What disease is developed in the vitamin C deficiency?
A. * Scurvy.
B. Pellagra.
C. Beri-beri.
D. Dermatitis.
E. Neuritis
205.
What forms of carotenes do you know?
A. A1, 2 2
B.
C.
D.
E.
206.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
209.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
210.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
211.
low.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
212.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
213.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a, b,
* C, ,, ,
A1, A2
E, ,
When light falls on rod cells:
All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
11-cis-retinal is converted into 11-trans-retinal
11-trans-retinal is converted into all-transretinal
* 11-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
None of these
?-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively cleaved by
* ?-Carotene dioxygenase
Oxygenase
Hydroxylase
Transferase
?-Carotene lyase
______ is a measurement of the relative amount of immunoglobulin in the serum
* Gamma globulin
Secretory antibody
Antibody titer
Blast formation
Fibrinogen
The two primary components of whole blood are plasma and
Serum
Platelets
* Formed elements
Dissolved proteins
Granular leukocytes
____ are agents that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies.
Alpha globulins
* Gamma globulins
Beta globulins
Antigens
Platelets
____ is a hormone produced by the ____ when tissue levels of oxygen levels are
Bilirubin stomach
* Bilirubin; bone marrow
Erythropoietin; kidneys
Erythropoietin; bone marrow
Hemoglobin; liver
_____ are to blood clotting as neutrophils are to phagocytosis.
Eosinophils
* Platelets
Blymphocytes
Monocytes
Basophils
A toxic gas that strongly binds to hemoglobin and deprives the body of oxygen is:
Hydrogen peroxide
* Carbon monoxide
Carbon dioxide
Sodium bicarbonate
E. Ctric acid
214.
Ability to link free haemoglobin and to transport her in the cells of RES at the
condition of physiological and pathological disintegration of erythtrosytes belongs:
A. Transferin
B. Crioglobulin
C. Ceruloplazmin
D. * Haptoglobin
E. Ferritin
215.
Acid-Base balance is important for:
A. Normal enzyme functions
B. Normal metabolite solubility
C. Normal membrane potentials
D. A and C
E. * All of the above
216.
Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Phosphorus
E. * Hydrogen
217.
Albumin-globulin coefficient of blood plasma of healthy people compose:
A. 3,0-4,0
B. 1,0-1,5
C. 5,0-6,5
D. 8,0-10,0
E. * 1,5-2,0
218.
All of the following are functions of blood except
A. Transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide
B. Regulation of body temperature
C. * Synthesis of vitamins
D. Defense against infection
E. Maintenance osmotic pressure
219.
All of the following are true of erythrocytes except
A. When mature, they have no nucleus or other organelles
B. Their plasma membrane contains many antigens (molecules projecting from the
surface)
C. They normally contain practically all of the hemoglobin that is present in blood
D. They transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
E. * They have a finite life span averaging about 60 days
220.
An excessive number of white blood cells is called:
A. Lymphoma
B. Leukopenia
C. * Leukocytosis
D. All of the above
221.
Anemia resulting from iron deficiency is called :
A. Pernicious anemia
B. * Hemoffhagic anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
E. Nutritional anemia
222.
Antibodies are plasma proteins that are classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Albumins
* Globulins
Fibrinogen
All of the above
Prealbumins
223.
Antibodies are produced as a reaction to the presence of :
A. Red blood cells
B. Haemoglobin
C. * Antigens
D. White blood cells
E. Platelets
224.
B cells function by promoting ____ .
A. * Phagocytosis
B. Antibody production
C. Release of histamine
D. Cell to cell killing of viral infected cells
E. The production of erythropoietin
225.
Blood fails to clot in the absence of :
A. Magnesium
B. * Calcium
C. Sulphur
D. Potassium
E. Cooper
226.
Blood is composed of :
A. Plasma and red blood cells
B. * Plasma and formed elements
C. Red and white blood cells
D. Red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets
E. Plasma and platelets
227.
Blood perform such functions:
A. Gas transport
B. Transport of nutritional substances
C. Regulative
D. Osmotic
228.
Blood platelets are:
A. * Cytoplasmic fragments
B. Free nuclei
C. A kind of red cell
D. Found only during clot formation
E. Mithochodrial fragment
229.
Blood transports dissolved gases, bringing oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
and carrying
A. * Carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs
B. Carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues
C. Carbon dioxide from the interstitial fluid to the cell
D. Carbon dioxide from one peripheral cell to another
230.
Cell-to-cell killing is to T cells as antibody production is to :
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Monocytes
D. * B cells
E. Eosinophils
231.
Ceruloplasmin is the protein of:
A. A-globulin fraction.
B. B1-globulin fraction.
C. * C2-globulin fraction.
D. D-globulin fraction.
E. prealbumin
232.
Chemical nature of immunoglobulins:
A. Lipoproteins
B. * Glykoproteins
C. Phosphoproteins
D. Chromoproteins
E. Nukleoproteins
233.
Choose the factor that is not a major metabolic source of hydrogen ions in the
body.
A. Anaerobic respiration of glucose
B. * Oxidation of amino acids that contain sulfur
C. Hydrolysis of phosphoproteins
D. Oxydation of fatty acid
E. Anaerobic respiration of glucose
234.
Choose the indexes of normal maintenance of hemoglobin in women:
A. 140-160 g/l
B. * 115-145 g/l
C. 125-160 g/l
D. 50-80 g/l
E. 70-100 g/l
235.
Choose the indexes of normal maintenance of hemoglobin in men:
A. 80-100 g/l
B. * 130-160 g/l
C. 115-145 g/l
D. 70-90 g/l
E. 100-120 g/l
236.
Circulating mature RBCs lack:
A. Ribosomes
B. * Mitochondria
C. Nuclei
D. All of the above
237.
Colloid-osmotic pressure of blood is supported by:
A. * Albumins
B. B1- globulins
C. C- globulins
D. D- globulins
E. E- globulins
238.
Combination of haemoglobin with oxygen named:
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Methemoglobin
C. Carbylaminhemoglobin
D. Carbhemoglobin
E. * Oxyhemoglobin
239.
Combination, that transported CO2 from tissues to lung named:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Methemoglobin
* Carbhemoglobin
Oxyhemoglobin
Carbylaminhemoglobin
Carboxyhemoglobin
240.
Connection of hemoglobin with CO is:
A. Oxyhemoglobin.
B. Carbhemoglobin.
C. * Carboxyhemoglobin.
D. Methemoglobin.
E. Cyancobalamine
241.
Contents of globulins in blood serum of healthy person:
A. 80-110 g/l
B. 50-60 g/l
C. 40-60 g/l
D. * 20-35 g/l
E. 100-120 g/l
242.
Crioglobulin the protein of C-globulin fraction, which absent in blood plasma of
healthy people, appears at:
A. Diabetus Mellitus
B. Wilson disease
C. * . Leykoses, mielom disease
D. Starvation
E. Lung emphysema
243.
Determination blood proteins fractions of patient is possible the method of
electrophoresis owing to following their property:
A. High optical activity
B. High dyspersity
C. S. High hydrophilicity
D. High viscidity
E. * Electric charge
244.
Detoxification function of blood is conditioned:
A. Gas transport (CO2 and O2)
B. Transport of nutritional substances
C. Exchange of heat between tissues and blood
D. * Detoxification toxic substanses by the enzymes of blood
E. Presents in blood of antibodies and by the phagocit function of leucocytes
245.
During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to:
A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. * Biliverdin
D. Urobilin
246.
Electrophoresis of blood proteins carry out at pH:
A. 5,5
B. 7,0
C. * 8,6
D. 4,7
E. 3,0
247.
Eosinophils are to granular white blood cells as ____ are to agranular white blood
cells.
A. Neutrophils
B.
C.
D.
E.
Basophils
* Monocytes
Stem cells
None of the above
248.
Erythropoietin
A. * Stimulates red blood cell synthesis
B. Stimulates white blood cell synthesis
C. Is released in response to a decrease in blood flow to the bone marrow
D. A and C
E. B and C
249.
Fibrinogen - is protein of blood which executes a function:
A. Transport
B. Strukture
C. * Protective
D. Regulation
E. Reduce
250.
Fibrinogen is a precussor of:
A. Protrombin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Fibronektin
D. * Fibrin
E. Fibroin
251.
For account of what fraction of proteins observe hypoproteinemia at the diseases
of liver:
A. A- globulins
B. Transferin
C. Gaptoglobin
D. Ceruloplazmin
E. * Albumins
252.
Formed elements in the blood are produced through the process of:
A. Diapedesis
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Hemolysis
D. * Hemopoiesis
253.
From where do most of the plasma proteins come?
A. * Liver
B. Spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Progenitor cells that enlarge then rupture
E. Old erythrocytes that rupture
254.
General antyproteinase activity of blood serum of healthy man is determined the
followings inhibitors, except:
A. A1 -antitripsyn
B. B2-macroglobulin
C. . Inter-I-ingibitor of trypsin
D. * Contrikal
E. Termoacidstability ingibitor
255.
Given that the liver synthesizes most of the plasma proteins, severe liver disorders
can be expected to cause
A. * Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood plasma
B. Less efficient transport of iron ions and lipids
C. Diminished clotting ability

D. All of the above
256.
Haemoglobin A of erythrocytes in the adult include:
A. 22 and 1 polypeptide chains
B. 11 and 2 polypeptide chains
C. 4 4 - polypeptide chains
D. 4 - polypeptide chains
E. * 2 and 2 - polypeptide chains
257.
Hemoglobin buffer system of blood consists:
A. * Oxihemoglobin and desoxyhemoglobin
B. Carbhemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin
D. Oxyhemoglobin and metHb
E. Methemoglobin and carbhemoglobin
258.
Hemoglobine of erythrocytes include:
A. * Hem and globin
B. Histones and hem
C. Protamines and hem
D. Globin and NAD
E. Iron, copper and protein
259.
How is it possible for the rate and depth of breathing to affect hydrogen ion
concentrations in body fluids?
A. During increased air exchange, more oxygen is exchanged with body cells,
binding hydrogen ions
B. * During increased air exchange, more carbon dioxide is given off, returning
hydrogen ion concentrations to normal
C. During increased respiration over the long term, more hemoglobin is produced,
thus increasing the buffering of the blood
D. The rate and depth of breathing does not alter hydrogen ion concentration in body
fluids
E. During decreased respiration over the long term, more oxyhemoglobin is
produced
260.
Immune status of organism is provided by:
A. * Leukocytes
B. Trombocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Hemoglobin
E. Bilirubin
261.
In addition to water and proteins, the plasma consists of:
A. Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
B. * Electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
C. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
D. All of the above
262.
In formation of blood clot take part:
A. Fibronectin
B. Fibroin
C. * Fibrin
D. Haptoglobin
E. Hemoglobin
263.
In what combination present (Fe3+):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Carboxyhemoglobin
Oxyhemoglobin
* Met hemoglobin
Carbhemoglobin
Mioglobin
264.
Increase related to O2 in the perinatal period of child has:
A. HbS
B. * HbF
C. HbA
D. HbE
E. HbC
265.
Indicate proteins that not belong to fractions of globulins:
A. Ceruloplazmin
B. B1-antitrypsin
C. Transferin
D. Haptoglobin
E. * Fibrinogen
266.
Indicate the credible index of albumin-globulin coefficient in the case of kidney
disease:
A. 2,8
B. * 0,8
C. 1,5
D. 2,5
E. 2,0
267.
Indicate the maintenance of albumins in blood serum of healthy person?
A. 60-85 g/l
B. 40-60 g/l
C. * 35-50 g/l
D. 80-110 g/l
E. 100-120 g/l
268.
Indicate types of haemoglobins, that be found in the erythrocytes of healthy
people:
A. A2, F,
B. M, A1, D
C. , M,
D. * A1, A2, F
E. A2, S
269.
Ions of iron (Fe3+), which are absorbed in an intestine, deposited in the different
organs of organism in composition of:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Transferin
C. Haptoglobin
D. * Feritin
E. Ceruloplasmin
270.
Kinins of blood execute the followings functions, except:
A. Relax smooth muscles of blood vessels
B. Promote permeability of vascular walls
C. Lowering blood pressure
D. Broade vessels in the areas of inflammation
E. * Contract smooth muscles of blood vessels
271.
Leukocytes are divided into two classes based on the presence or absence of
microscopically visible structures called
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nuclei
* Granules
C. Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi complexes
Maintenances of acid-base balance of blood have the followings buffer systems,
272.
except:
A. Bycarbonate
B. Phosphate
C. * Ammonia
D. Haemoglobin
E. Proteins
273.
Many animal contain an oxygen-carrying substance called:
A. * Hemoglobin
B. Chyme
C. Filtrate
D. Lymph
E. Gglobin
274.
Metabolic acidosis arise at all of the followings states, except:
B. Starvation
C. * Delay hydrocarbonates under the influence of mineralcorticoids
D. Muscle hypoxia
E. Loss secrets of pancreas and intestine at diarrhea
275.
Most of the circulating leukocytes are
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Leukocytes
D. Monocytes
E. * Neutrophils
276.
Name basic kinins which enters in the composition of the kallicrein-kinin system
of blood:
A. Macroglobulins, callydines
B. Callydin, protrombin
C. * Callydin, bradykinin
D. Antithrombins, bradykinin
E. Bradykinin, lipoproteins
277.
Name protein which appeared in a patient with leucosis in blood plasma:
A. Albumins
B. * Crioglobulin
C. Immunoglobulins
D. D1 - globulins
E. Fibrinogen
278.
Of the following, which are most active as phagocytes?
A. Erythrocytes
B. * Neutrophils
C. Platelets
D. Eosinophils
E. Monocites
279.
Of the following, which mechanisms are important in the death of erythrocytes in
human blood? Is it
A. Phagocytosis
B. Hemolysis
C. Mechanical damage
D. * All of the above
280.
Once the erythrocytes enter the blood in humans, i is estimated that they have an
average lifetime of how many days. Is it:
A. 10 days
B. * 120 days
C. 200 days
D. 360 days
E. 2 days
281.
One of the basic allocation of the kallikrein-kinin system of blood, it:
A. Supporting of blood oncotic pressure
B. * Regulation of vascular tone
C. Transport medical substances
D. Supportin acid - base balance
E. Blood clotting
282.
Osmoregulation is concerned with:
A. Excretion
B. Ionic regulation
C. * Control of the body's water content
D. Carbon dioxide regulation
E. Oxygen regulation
283.
Plasma contains all of the following EXCEPT
A. Glucose
B. Oxygen
C. * Hemoglobin
D. Electrolytes
E. Clotting factors
284.
Plasma is made up of water and _______________
A. Metabolites and wastes
B. Salts and ions
C. Proteins
285.
preferentially with red-staining dyes?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. * Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Monocytes
286.
Proteins of the plasma that function in fighting infections are :
A. Albumins
B. Fibrinogen
C. * Gamma globulins
D. Alpha and beta globulins
E. Prothrombin
287.
Prothrombin and the procoagulants are involved in blood clotting and require
vitamin :
A. B12
B. E
C. * K
D. A
E. H
288.
Protrombin is to thrombin as _____ is/are to fibrin.
A. Prothrombin activator
B. Blood clot
C. * Fibrinogen
D. Platelets
E. Erythropoietin
289.
Red blood cells are destroyed in the :
A. Lungs
B. * Liver
C. Heart
D. Spleen
E. Kidney
290.
Select the fluid tissue that among other things transports dissolved gases,
distribute nutrients, stabilizes body temperature and aids in the defense against pathogens
and toxins
A. Lymph
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Interstitial fluid
D. * Blood
E. Water
291.
Someone whose blood could not carry enough oxygen to the cells of the body
might have a deficiency of :
A. Estrogen
B. * Hemoglobin
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Lactose
E. Epinephryn
292.
Sources of protein in the diet are:
A. Fats, oils, butter, and margarine
B. Green pepper, cantaloupe, citrus fruits, and broccoli
C. Deep green and orange vegetables, and citrus fruits
D. * Meats, fish, legumes, nuts, dairy products, and eggs.
E. Onion, carrot, oils and apples
293.
Surplus red blood cells, needed to meet an emergency, are MAINLY stored in
what organ of the human body? Is it the:
A. Pancreas
B. * Spleen
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
E. Heard
294.
The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of
A. * Fibrinogen to fibrin
B. Fibrin to fibrinogen
C. Thrombin to prothrombin
D. Vitamin K to prothrombin
E. Fibrin to thrombin
295.
A. * Fibrinogen to fibrin
B. Fibrin to fibrinogen
C. Thrombin to prothrombin
D. Vitamin K to prothrombin
E. Rodopsyn to opsyn
296.
The basic function of erythrocytes in blood:
A. Promotes agregation of thrombocytes
B. * Transport of C2 and O2
C. Syntheses of proteins of the contraction system (actine, myosine)
D. Provide immune status of organism
E. Take part in formation of active forms of oxygen
297.
The blood component responsible for clotting in injury is:
A. White blood cells
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
E. Serum
298.
The class of plasma proteins that produces antibodies is
A. Albumins
B. Alpha globulins
C. Beta globulins
D. * Gamma globulins
E. Fibrinogen
299.
The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is:
A. * Platelets
B. Erythrocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
300.
The concentration of fibrinogen in blood of pregnancy women consist 3,8 g/l.
Indicate the normal concentration of fibrinogen:
A. 1-3 g/l
B. 2-7 g/l
C. 9-11 g/l
D. 5-7 g/l
E. * 2-4 g/l
301.
The condition in which there is a DECREASE in the number of white blood cells
in humans is known as:
A. Leukocytosis
B. * Leukopenia
C. Leukemia
D. Leukohyperia
E. Anemia
302.
The degree of oxigenation of haemoglobin (synthesis of HbO2) depends on such
factors:
A. Parcial pressure of oxygen
B. pH
C. Concentration of CO
D. Concentration of 2,3 - diphosphoglycerat
E. * From all factors, resulted higher
303.
The extracellular buffering system for blood and tissue fluids is base on
A. Potassium hydroxide
B. * Bicarbonate
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Phosphate
E. Albumin
304.
The final reaction in the formation of a blood clot is

A. The formation of prothrombin activator
B. * That thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
C. That prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin
D. Hageman factor activates prothrombin
E. Vitamin B12 ingibit formation of fibrinogen
305.
The fluid that does not form clots is :
A. Blood
B. Plasma
C. Lymph
D. * Serum
E. Spinal-cord
306.
The formed elements of the blood consist of:
A. * Red and white blood cells and platelets
B. Electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
C. Antibodies, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins
D. Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
307.
The function of antibodies, basic effectors of humoral immunity, execute proteins:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Albumins
C. * C-globulins
D. D1-globulins
E. E-globulins
308.
The function of the lymphatic system is to:
A. Drain the blood of nutrients
B. * Returning proteins and water to the blood stream
C. Prevent blood loss by clotting the blood
D. Store energy reserves for the body
E. Synthesis of vitamins
309.
The functions of providing a gas exhange surface and moving air to and from the
exchange surface is performed by the _______________ system.
A. Cardiovasular
B. * Respiratory
C. Digestive
D. Lymphatic
E. Excretion
310.
The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum.
A. * Gamma globulin
B. Albumin
C. Beta globulin
D. Alpha globulin
E. Prealbumin
311.
The highest antyproteas activity of blood ( >90%) belongs:
A. * A -1-antytripsin
B. B-2-macroglobulin
C. Inter-I-ingibitor of trypsin
D. Termoacidstability inhibitor
E. E-1-antychimotripsin
312.
The hydrocarbonate buffer system of blood most effectively functions at that
equal:
A. 8,1
B.
C.
D.
E.
* 7,4
6,8
7,9
7,0
313.
The increase permeability of vascular walls in the zone of inflammation and sense
of pain promote:
A. Contrikal
B. * Kinins
C. Renin
D. Angiotenzin
E. Gordox.
314.
The liquid matrix of blood as it exists in the body is called:
A. Lymph
B. Stroma
C. Serum
D. * D Plasma
E. All of the above
315.
The liquid portion of the blood is called :
A. Water
B. * Plasma
C. Serum
D. Sap
E. Cells
316.
The lymphatic system
A. Is an open circulatory system
B. Contains one-way valves
C. Returns fluids to the bloodstream
317.
The lymphatic system is important because it:
A. Collects liquid lost from the circulatory system
B. Returns proteins to circulation
C. Transports fats
D. Carries bacteria to the lymph nodes for destruction
E. * Does all of the above
318.
The lymphocyte that is responsible for cell-mediated immunity is the:
A. * T lymphocyte
B. NK cell
C. B lymphocyte
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
319.
The main cells present in lymph are :
A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. * Lymphocytes
D. Monocytes
E. Basophils
320.
The maintenance of total protein in blood serum of healthy person?
A. 50-60 g/l
B. 80-110 g/l
C. * 65-85 g/l
D. 100-120 g/l
321.
322.
the
E. 40-60 g/l
The major component of plasma is:
A. * Water
B. Nutrients
C. Protein
D. Electrolytes
E. Vitamins
The most important buffer system in the intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Phosphate buffer system

Protein buffer system
Bicarbonate buffer system
Sulfate buffer system
Chloride buffer system
323.
The most important buffer systems in body fluids include the bicarbonate buffer
system, the ______________ buffer system, and the protein buffer system.
A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Phosphate
D. * Hemoglobin
E. Chloride
324.
The most numerous white blood cell in normal blood is the:
A. * Neutrophil
B. Lymphoctye
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil
E. B lymphocyte
325.
The most powerful vesselsbroaden substance in an organism is:
A. Oxitocin
B. Histamin
C. Serotonin
D. Adrenalin
E. * Bradikinin
326.
The part of the hemoglobin molecule directly interacts with oxygen is:
A. The tertiary protein structure
B. The sodium ion
C. Globin
D. * The iron ion
327.
The primary function of a mature red blood cell is:
A. Defense against toxins and pathogens
B. Delivery of enzymes to target tissues
C. Transport of respiratory gases
328.
The process that halts bleeding is called:
A. Lymphopoiesis
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemangioma
D. * Hemostasis
329.
The protein that consists of four protein subunits that each contain heme is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
330.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
332.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
333.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
334.
by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Immunoglobulin
Myoglobin
* Hemoglobin
Myosin
Catalase
The several types of white blood cells are sometime collectively referred to as:
Erythrocytes
* Leukocytes
Erythroblasts
Thrombocytes
Monocytes
The shape of the red blood cell can best be described as a(n):
Ellipsoid
Sphere
* Biconcave disc
Donut
Circle
The sign deficit protein of blood plasma - haptoglobin is:
Hemolises
Lowering of plasma osmotic pressure
* Hemoglobinuria
Immunodeficit
Increase oncotic pressure
The smallest of the FORMED elements of the blood are the:
White cells
Red cells
* Platelets
Erythrocytes
Erythroblasts
The specific binding and transport of ions of copper in blood plasma is carried out
Interferon
Hemoglobin
Haptoglobin
Transferin
* Ceruloplasmin
335.
The strongest buffer system of blood, which compose 75% from all of the buffer
system of blood is:
A. Hydrocarbonate
B. * Hemoglobin
C. Phosphate
D. Proteins
E. Ammonium
336.
The sub-group of chromoproteins, which contain ironporphirine complex, take to:
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Transferrin
C. Hemocianin
D. * Catalase
E. Xantinoxidase
337.
The three primary types of plasma proteins are:
A. Antibodies, metallo-proteins, lipoproteins
B. Serum, fibrin, fibrinogen
C. * Albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

D. Heme, iron, globin
338.
The type of plasma protein that helps regulate osmotic pressure is:
A. * Albumin.
B. Globulin.
C. Fibrinogen.
D. Hemoglobin.
E. Oxyhemoglobin
339.
The ultimate source of all types of blood cells are the...
A. Thrombocytes
B. * Hemocytoblasts
C. Myeloid stem cells
D. Lymphoid stem cells
E. Granular leukocytes
340.
The white blood cell that is most like the mast cell is the:
A. * Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
E. Monocyte
341.
There is/are ____ heme group(s) in a molecule of hemoglobin.
A. Five
B. Four
C. Three
D. Two
E. One
342.
These cells have red granules when stained and two lobed nuclei.
A. Platelets
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. * Eosinophils
E. none of the above
343.
Thick muscular walls are present in:
A. * Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Venules
E. Aorta
344.
Thrombocytes is the other name of :
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. * Platelets
D. Lymphocytes
E. Monocytes
345.
Transport form of iron, which delivers the ions of iron (Fe3+), which enter in
blood after absorbtion in intestine to the places of depositing and using is:
A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. * Transferin
D. C-reactive protein
E. Ferritin
346.
Transport of drugs, fatty acids, pigments, ions of metals with blood to the different
organs and systems characteristic to albumins owing to their:
A. High dyspersity
B. Acid properties
C. High hydrophilic
D. * High adsorbtion
E. Small molecular mass
347.
Violation of acid-base balance of blood which is characterized the accumulation
of acid substances named:
A. Alcalosis
B. Anaciditas
C. Achilia
D. * Acidosis
E. Hyperaciditas
348.
Violation of acid-base balance of blood, which is characterized the accumulation
of base substances, named:
A. * Alkalosis
B. Achilia
C. Hyperaciditas
D. Acidosis
E. Anaciditas
349.
Vitamin K is needed for:
A. * Blood clotting
B. Prevention of sickle cell anemia
C. Hemoglobin synthesis
D. Prevention of hemolysis
350.
What are the two major factors that regulate the movement of water and
electrolytes from one fluid compartment to the next?
A. Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure
B. Sodium concentration and osmotic pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure and potassium concentration
D. * Concentration of all electrolytes combined and water pressure
E. Osmotic and hydrostatic pressure
351.
What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
A. * Thrombin
B. Thromboxane A2
C. Factor XIII
D. Tissue thrombopla
E. ADP
352.
What function of blood belong a concept oncotic pressure of blood?
A. Gas transport
B. Protective
C. Detoxification
D. Termoregulation
E. * Osmotic
353.
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
A. Plasma contains calcium; serum does not.
B. Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does.
C. * Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not.
D. Plasma contains albumin; serum does not.
E. Plasma contain zinc; serum does not.
354.
What is the most effective intracellular inorganic buffer?

A. Bicarbonate
B. * Phosphate
C. Hemoglobin
D. Lactate
E. Protein
355.
What is the organ that pumps blood all throughout the human body?
A. The lungs
B. * The heart
C. The kidneys
D. The blood vessels and capillaries
E. The spleen
356.
What kinds of polypeptide chains are there in hemoglobin F?
A. 2222.
B. 222?.
C. * 2222.
D. 332?.
E. 1133.
357.
What metabolyt, that is present in erythrocytes, lower the related of haemoglobin
to oxygen?
A. 1,3-diphosphoglycerate
B. Laktat
C. * 2,3- diphosphoglycerate
D. Pyruvat
E. 3-phosphoglycerate aldehyde
358.
What method is it possible to distribute on separate fractions the proteins of blood
plasma?
A. Biuret
B. * Electrophoresis
C. Heller reaction
D. Polarimetric
E. Roberts-Stolnikov
359.
What part of the blood carries minerals, vitamins, sugar, and other foods to the
body's cells?
A. * Plasma
B. Platelets
C. Red corpuscles
D. Macrophage
E. Eosinophil
360.
What protein, assigned for transport, does hemoglobin bind ti in the
reticuloendotelial system of the liver?
A. Haptoglobin
B. Albumin
C. Ferritin
D. Transferrin
E. Ceruloplasmin
361.
When oxygen is carried by the blood, it is bonded to
A. Platelets.
B. Antibodies.
C. Plasma.
D. * Hemoglobin.
E. Water
362.
Which body system collects the fluid that is lost by the blood and returns it to the
bodys transport system?
A. Red blood cells
B. * Eosynophils
C. Platelets
D. Monocites
E. Lymphocites
F. Circulatory
G. Lymphatic
H. Respiratory
I. Connection
J. Muscle
363.
Which cell count tends to be elevated when an individual has an allergy or
parasitic worms?
A. Red blood cells
B. Erythrocyte
C. * Esinophil
D. Platelet
E. Monocites
364.
Which element in the blood is round and colourless?
A. Plasma
B. Platelets
C. Red blood cells
D. * White blood cells
E. Globulins
365.
Which formed elements are most directly associated with the immune responses
that defend the body against pathogens?
A. Erythrocytes
B. * Leucocytes
C. Platelets
D. None of the above (the immune response is strictly a function of plasma)
E. All of the above
366.
?Which indexes be responsible for the normal volume of blood in adult?
A. 15 l
B. 25 l
C. * 5 l
D. 50 l
E. 2 l
367.
Which indexes of blood in men indicate hypohemoglobinemia?
A. * 100 g/l
B. 130 g/l
C. 145 g/l
D. 155 g/l
E. 160 g/l
368.
Which indexes of blood in women indicate hypohemoglobinemia?
A. 120 g/l
B. 130 g/l
C. 145 g/l
D. 115 g/l
E. * 80 g/l
369.
Which is the most common type of blood cell in a healthy human?
A. * Erythrocytes
B.
C.
D.
E.
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
370.
Which of the following does not occur as a result of a shift in the acid- base
balance of the body?
A. An alteration in the rate of enzyme-controlled metabolic reactions
B. An increase in metabolic efficiency within the cells
C. * A shift in the distribution of other ions
D. A modification in hormone actions
E. Hypovitaminosis
371.
Which of the following is a function of the vertebrate circulatory system?
A. Temperature regulation
B. Transport metabolic wastes
C. Provide immune defense
D. Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
372.
Which of the following is a type of leukocyte?
A. Macrophage
B. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte
373.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of red blood cells?
A. Biconcave disks
B. No nucleus
C. Some hormones
374.
Which of the following is NOT a component of blood plasma?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. * Hemoglobin
C. Oxygen
D. Ions
E. Hormones
375.
Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel?
A. Artery
B. Vein
C. * Lymphatic cell
D. Aorta
E. Venules
376.
Which of the following is NOT a type of granular white blood cell? ____
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. * Eosinophils
D. Basophils
E. None of the above; all are granular
377.
Which of the following is not found in blood?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Glucose
C. Urea
D. * Glycogen
E. Globulins
378.
Which of the following is NOT needed for blood clotting?
A. * Vitamin A
B. Vitamin K
C. Calcium
D. Thrombin
E. Prothrombin
379.
Which of the following is the major form of hemoglobin produced in red blood
cells during normal adult life?
A. * Alpha2/beta2
B. Alpha2/gamma2
C. Zeta2/epsilon2
D. Alpha2/delta2
E. Alpha2/epsilon2
380.
Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver?
A. * Gamma globulin
B. Albumin
C. Beta globulins
D. Fibrinogen
E. Ceruloplasmin
381.
Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true?
A. Hormones are transported in the blood.
B. All invertebrates have an open circulatory system.
C. Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do.
D. The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs.
E. * All of the above are true.
382.
Which of the following statements concerning platelets is INCORRECT. Platelets:
A. Contain DNA
B. Are roughly disk-shaped
C. Have little ability to synthesize proteins
D. Synthesis: actin, miosyn, troponin
E. * Take part in reactions: adgesion, agregation, secretion
383.
Which of the following would decrease blood pressure?
A. * An increase in the enzyme renin
B. An increase in blood volume
C. A decrease in Angiotensin II
D. An increase in hematocrit
E. A decrease of globulins
384.
Which of these is considered a secondary defense against changes in pH?
A. * Renal excretion of hydrogen ions
B. The bicarbonate buffer system
C. The phosphate buffer system
D. The protein buffer system
E. The hemoglobin buffer system
385.
Which one of the following has the greatest capacity to bind oxygen?
A. * Iron in heme portion of hemoglobin
B. Carbon in heme portion of hemoglobin
C. Hydrogen in heme portion of hemoglobin
D. Carbon in non-heme (protein) portion of hemoglobin
E. Nitrogen in non-heme (protein) portion of hemoglobin
386.
Which one of the following is not one of major classes of plasma protein?
A. Albumins
B.
C.
D.
E.
B-globulins
Fibrinogen
* Lipoproteins
E, ,-globulins
387.
Which plasma proteins help to regulate osmotic pressure and blood volume?
A. * Albumins
B. ? - globulins
C. Fibrinogens
D. ?- globulins
E. E - globulins
388.
Which plasma proteins help transport lipids in the bloodstream?
A. * Albumins
B. Alpha and beta globulins
C. Fibrinogen
D. Gamma globulins
E. Prealbumins
389.
Why is oxygen important to blood and to the cells?
A. Oxygen helps the blood to clot.
B. Oxygen brings food to the cells
C. * Oxygen is necessary for cell growth and energy.
D. Oxygen is not important - carbon dioxide is the most important substance to the
body.
E. Oxygen is not important oxygen free radical is the most important
390.
. 2-macroglobulin
A. C-reactive protein
B. Crioglobulin
C. Blood inhibitios of proteinas
D. Albumins
391.
At the electrophoretic research of patient blood plasma found interferon. In the
area of what fraction be found this protein?
A. Globulins
B. Albumins
C. C2 Globulins
D. * Globulins
E. E - Globulins
392.
Ceruloplasmin is the protein of:
A. A-globulin fraction.
B. B1-globulin fraction.
C. * C2-globulin fraction.
D. D-globulin fraction.
E. prealbumin
393.
Electrophoresis of blood proteins carry out at pH:
A. 5,5
B. 7,0
C. * 8,6
D. 4,7
E. 3,0
394.
Red blood cells are destroyed in the :
A. Lungs
B. * Liver
C. Heart
D. Spleen
E. Kidney
395.
The plasma concentration of IgA is
A. 15 mg/dl
B. 40200 mg/dl
C. * 60500 mg/dl
D. 7001,500 mg/dl
396.
The transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver takes place with
the help of such enzyme:
A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. * Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase
C. Cholesterol esterase
D. Lecithinase
E. Acetyl choline esterase
397.
____________ is hydrolytically cleaved to directly yield urea in the urea cycle.
A. ornithine
B. glutamate
C. * arginine
D. carbamoyl phosphate
398.
A deficiency in complement proteins or in their regulators can result in
A. blood in the urine from erythrocyte lysis.
B. decreased levels of certain complement proteins in the circulation.
C. immune complex disease.
D. increased numbers of infections.
E. * All of the above can result from complement deficiencies.
399.
A deficiency in complement proteins or in their regulators can result in
A. blood in the urine from erythrocyte lysis.
B. decreased levels of certain complement proteins in the circulation.
C. * immune complex disease.
D. increased numbers of infections.
E. All of the above can result from complement deficiencies.
400.
A Fab fragment:
A. * binds antigen.
B. is produced by pepsin digestion.
C. lacks light chains.
D. has no interchain disulfide bonds.
E. is all of the above.
401.
A reaction of cooperation of antibodies with an antigen is high-specific and takes
place due to the followings types of bonds, except:
A. Hydrogenic
B. Electrostatic
C. * Peptide
D. Vandervaal's
E. Hydrophobic
402.
Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
D. Phosphorus
E. * Hydrogen
403.
All of the following processes can be activated by complement except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
inflammation
* antibody production
cytolysis
opsonization
none of the above
404.
Allergic reactions are mediated by
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. * IgE
E. All of the above
405.
Among transport forms of lipids distinguish LDH (beta-lipoproteins). What from
the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and
phospholipids proper to the molecular form of beta lipoproteins?
A. * 21 : 14 : 58: 8
B. 35 : 50 : 12 : 3
C. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25
D. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35
E. 2 : 85 : 5 : 7
406.
An antigen after incorporation into an organism contacts with the receptors of
lymphocytes, causes the transition of cells to a mitotic cycle. Transfer of the signal from a
membrane is carried out with the help of mediators. Which from them does not
participate in this process?
A. Inositol triphosphate
B. Diacylglycerol
C. Ions of Ca++
D. * UTP
E. cGP
407.
An immunoglobulin found in exocrine secretions is
A. * IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. All of these
408.
An immunoglobulin which can cross the placental barrier is
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. * IgG
E. None of these
409.
Antibodies are powerful weapons in the body's defense against microorganisms.
However, there are limits to what an antibody can actually do. Which of the following is
NOT an action that an antibody can actually accomplish?
A. cause an agglutination of antibodies and antigens, forming an antibodyantigen
complex
B. attach to a bacterial cell antigen, preventing the bacterium from attaching to
anything else
C. start a complement protein cascade
D. * poke microscopic "holes" in a bacterial cell membrane, causing it to die
E. Both A and D are correct
410.
Antibodies are produced as a reaction to the presence of :
A. Red blood cells
B.
C.
D.
E.
Haemoglobin
* Antigens
White blood cells
Platelets
411.
Antigen presenting cells are important in that they:
A. allow B-cells to recognize a viral invader
B. * allow helper T-cells to recognize a viral invader
C. allow cytotoxic T-cells to be suppressed
D. allow helper T-cells to fight a viral invader
E. all of the above
412.
As a result of development of kidney insufficiency a patient has a necessity for the
transplantation of a kidney. Which analysis must be done to avoid tearing away of
transplanted organ?
A. To define the amount of gamma-globulins in blood
B. To define the amount of lymphocytes in blood
C. * To define the proteins of main complex of histocompatability in leucocytes
D. To discover state of the system of complement in blood of recipient
E. To define A/G coefficient.
413.
As complement is activated by complexes of antibody-coated bacteria, bystander
lysis of nearby host cells is prevented by
A. a long-lived thioester bond on active complement proteins.
B. covalent attachment of all active complement proteins to the pathogen surface.
C. plasma proteins that inactivate the anaphylatoxins.
D. * proteins on host cell membranes that inhibit MAC formation.
E. the slow catalytic rates of complement proteases.
414.
As result of incorporation of antigen in an organism takes place a complex of
biochemical processes, directed on it neutralization and deletion. Choose from the below
mentioned an incorrect immune responses of organism:
A. Binding of antigen to the proteins-receptors of lymphocytes
B. * Activating of gluconeogenesis
C. Activating, prolipheration, differentiation of T-cell
D. Modification of B-lymphocytes in plasmatic cells and synthesis of antibodies
E. Activating of the system of complement, endocytosis and lysis of the antigen by
tissue macrophages
415.
B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
416.
Chemical nature of immunoglobulins:
A. Lipoproteins
B. * Glykoproteins
C. Phosphoproteins
D. Chromoproteins
E. Nukleoproteins
417.
Chylomicrones are formed in the ____________________ and their main function
is the __________________________________.
A. wall of intestine; transport of cholesterol;
B. liver; transport of triacylglycerols synthesized in liver;
C. * wall of intestine; transport of dietary triacylglycerols;
D. blood; transport of cholesterol.
E. all of the above.

418.
Complement activity is restricted by all of the following EXCEPT
A. dissociation of C3 and C5 convertases.
B. Gram positive cell walls that are resistant to MAC polymerization.
C. host cell plasma proteins that inactivate C3a, C4a, and C5a activity.
D. * LPS in the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria that inactivates C3b.
E. proteolytic cleavage of complement proteins into smaller fragments.
419.
Complement factors C5b+C6+C7+C8 make up a membrane attack complex that
results in
A. enhanced phagocytosis
B. opsonization
C. * cytolysis
D. all of the above
420.
Complement is
A. activated by binding to specific complement receptors.
B. antigen-specific.
C. a potent promoter of virus entry into host cells.
D. a series of intracellular proteins which work with antibody to eliminate
endogenous antigen
E. * present in the circulation in an inactive form.
421.
Complement is
A. activated by binding to specific complement receptors.
B. antigen-specific.
C. a potent promoter of virus entry into host cells.
D. a series of intracellular proteins which work with antibody to eliminate
endogenous antigen.
E. * present in the circulation in an inactive form.
422.
Complement is involved in all of the following except
A. attraction of neutrophils to an infection site.
B. increased presence of serum proteins in the infected tissues.
C. lysis of bacteria in the absence of specific antibodies.
D. opsonization of microorganisms for phagocytosis.
E. * sensitization of T cells to antigen
423.
Complement is involved in all of the following except
A. attraction of neutrophils to an infection site.
B. increased presence of serum proteins in the infected tissues.
C. lysis of bacteria in the absence of specific antibodies.
D. opsonization of microorganisms for phagocytosis.
E. sensitization of T cells to antigen
424.
Complement receptors (CR)
A. activate complement on the surface of pathogens.
B. bind only activated complement proteins.
C. inhibit complement activation on the surface of host cells.
D. * on erythrocytes remove immune complexes from the circulation.
E. on macrophages signal host cells to make opsonins.
425.
Complement system can be activated by binding of antigen to
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. * IgM
E. IgC
426.
Complement:
A. is a group of active proteolytic enzymes found in serum.
B. is secreted by macrophages and hepatocytes in response to antigen binding.
C. participates in both innate and adaptive immune responses.
D. couses lysis of cells.
E. * All of the above statements about complement are true.
427.
Components of the Fab fragment include:
A. an entire light chain.
B. the J chain.
C. the VH and CH1 domains.
D. the carboxyl terminal portion of the heavy chain.
E. * a and c are correct
428.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is an example of which imbalance?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. * Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory chain
429.
Disulfide linkage between the heavy (H) and light (L) chains of most
immunoglobulins is between:
A. constant (C) L and CH1 segments.
B. variable (V) L and VH segments.
C. L chain joining (J) segments and H chain J segments.
D. CL and CH2 segments.
430.
Enzyme of capillary walls lipoprotein lipase named the factor of transparensy of
blood. What function does it execute?
A. Transformation of LDH into HDL
B. Hydrolysis of constitutional fats
C. * Mobilization of fat from chylomicrons
D. Mobilization of cholesterol from peripheral tissues
E. Mobilization of reserve fat
431.
Essence of immune reaction of organism is formation of antibodies against
foreign factors. Choose what from below mentioned functions are not specific for the
antibodies:
A. Fastening and activating of complement
B. * Ability to change membrane potential of the antigen
C. Binding to the receptors on the cells surface of macrophages
D. Binding to the receptors of mast cell
E. Ability to penetrate the placenta barrier
432.
From a liver neutral fats are transported as VLDL. What from the below
mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper
to the molecular form of VLDL?
A. 15 : 20 : 20 : 45
B. 45 : 8 : 38 : 10
C. 2 : 90 : 5 : 3
D. 21 : 14 : 58 : 8
E. * 8 : 60 : 20 : 15
433.
HDL carry out a transport of:
A. Free fatty acids to the liver
B. Cholesterol from a liver in extra hepatic tissues
C. Cholesterol from tissues to the liver
D. Triacylglycerols from an intestine

E. Glycerol from adipose tissue to the liver
434.
435.
436.
How is it a mother who is breast feeding positively affects her baby's immune
system?
A. she gives her baby permanent antibodies she has produced
B. she gives her baby antigens she has produced in her breast milk
C. * she gives her baby antibodies she has produced in her breast milk
D. she gives her baby immune cells to fight incoming invaders
E. Both C and B are correct.
437.
Hyperuricemia is the increase of uric acid level more than:
A. * 0,5 mmol/l
B. 0,1 mmol/l
C. 10 mmol/l
D. 1 mmol/l
E. 2 mmol/l
438.
Hyperuricemia is the increase of uric acid level more than:
A. * 0,5 mmol/l
B. 0,1 mmol/l
C. 10 mmol/l
D. 1 mmol/l
E. 2 mmol/l
439.
If a person is born without C2 and C4,
A. C5 can still be cleaved by the classical pathway.
B. C3b will not be able to bind to bacteri
C. C9 will polymerize inappropriately and lyse host cells.
D. the classical pathway will be changed into the alternative pathway.
E. * the amount of C3b produced during bacterial infections will be reduced.
440.
If a person is born without C2 and C4,
A. C5 can still be cleaved by the classical pathway.
B. C3b will not be able to bind to bacteria
C. C9 will polymerize inappropriately and lyse host cells.
D. * the classical pathway will be changed into the alternative pathway.
E. the amount of C3b produced during bacterial infections will be reduced.
441.
If all of your cells are covered in antigens (and they are), why doesn't your
immune system kill/attack all cells?
A. because your immune system is dedicated to finding invaders
B. * because your immune system is very sophisticated
C. because your healthy cells are not "tagged" in any way
D. because your cells are "tagged" healthy by cell membrane protiens.
E. all of the above
442.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
443.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
444.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
445.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
446.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
448.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
450.
A.
B.
C.
If an amino acid is glucogenic, it will not be degraded to ______.

pyruvate
oxaloacetate
fumarate
* acetoacetate
malate
IgD
is the predominant antibody in colostrum,
* is present on the surface of all mature B cells,
has a molecular weight of 150,000,
mediates precipitation reactions,
is none of these.
IgE
* increases in individuals with parasitic infections,
is the major agglutinating antibody,
is a and b,
is none of these
all of these.
IgG is not
the major antibody that confers passive immunity on the fetus,
divided into five subclasses,
made up of two antigen-binding sites,
* all of these,
none of these.
IgM is
not involved in agglutination (clumping) reactions,
found as a pentamer on the B lymphocytes surface,
the predominant antibody in the serum,
* a pentamer in the blood,
none of these.
IgM possesses
Two light chains and two heavy chains
Four light chains and four heavy chains
Six light chains and six heavy chains
* Ten light chains and ten heavy chains
None of these
Immune complexes consist of
antibody plus complement
basophil plus complement
* antigen plus antibody
antigen plus complement
antigen plus basophil
Immune status of organism is provided by:
* Leukocytes
Trombocytes
Erythrocytes
Hemoglobin
Bilirubin
Immunoglobulins are classified on the basis of
Type of light chains
* Type of heavy chains
Types of light and heavy chains
D. Molecular weight
E. All of these
451.
In blood of healthy man supported the constant concentration of hydrogen ions,
that put in arterial plasma:
A. 7,26 0,04
B. 7,16 0,04
C. 7,96 0,04
D. * 7,36 0,04
E. 7,46 0,04
452.
In the electrophoresis studies by Tiselius and Kabat, their conclusion was that
antibody molecules are:
A. alpha-globulins.
B. beta-globulins.
C. gamma-globulins.
D. albumins.
453.
In the membrane attack phase of the classical complement pathway, the role of
C5b is to
A. activate the C5 convertase activity.
B. attract neutrophils to lyse the pathogen.
C. * initiate formation of the MAC.
D. polymerize into a membrane-spanning channel.
E. All of these are activities of C5b.
454.
In the membrane attack phase of the classical complement pathway, the role of
C5b is to
A. activate the C5 convertase activity.
B. attract neutrophils to lyse the pathogen.
C. initiate formation of the MAC.
D. polymerize into a membrane-spanning channel.
E. * All of these are activities of C5b.
455.
In the presence of activated complement, neutrophils
A. are repelled
B. produce histamine
C. cause vasodilation
D. * degranulate and release enzymes that cause tissue damage
E. cause vasoconstriction
456.
Indicate proteins that dont belong to fractions of globulins:
A. Ceruloplazmin
B. B1-antitrypsin
C. Transferin
D. Haptoglobin
E. * Fibrinogen
457.
Intermediate size complexes
A. become basophils
B. * activate complement
C. are removed by phagocytosis
D. degranulate
E. all of the above
458.
Isotypes refer to variations in the
A. light chain variable region
B. light chain constant region
C. heavy chain variable region
D. * heavy chain constant region

E. Any of the above
459.
LDL are formed in the ____________________ and it is the major carrier of
_____________________________________________________.
A. wall of intestine; dietary triacylglycerols;
B. liver; triacylglycerols synthesized in liver;
C. * blood and liver; cholesterol (transport cholesterol to peripheral tissues);
D. blood and liver; cholesterol (transport cholesterol to liver from peripheral tissues).
460.
Light chains of immunoglobulins are of following types:
A. Alpha and kappa
B. Alpha and gamma
C. Lambda and delta
D. * Kappa and lambda
E. All of these
461.
Lipids are transported in blood with proteins, formed lipoprotein complexes. They
are determined with a method:
A. Chromatography
B. Salting-out
C. Spectral analysis
D. * Electrophoresis
E. Rephractometria
462.
Lipids are transported in blood with proteins, formed lipoprotein complexes. They
are determined with a method:
A. Chromatography
B. Salting-out
C. Spectral analysis
D. * Electrophoresis
E. Rephractometria
463.
Lipoproteinlipase enzyme which is located ________________________ and
hydrolyses _____________________________________.
A. in the wall of intestine; triacylglycerols of chylomicrons;
B. * within capillaries of muscles and adipose tissue; triacylglycerols of
chylomicrons and VLDL;
C. within capillaries of muscles and adipose tissue; cholesterol esters of LDL;
D. in the blood; cholesterol esters of LDL.
464.
Lipoproteins have a micellar structure. The nucleus of lipoproteins is made with
hydrophobic compounds; the membrane is formed with hydrophilic radicals. Choose
compounds of nucleus:
A. Free cholesterol
B. Free fatty acids
C. Ethers of cholesterol, triacylglycerols
D. Phospholipids, glycolipids
E. Glycerol, monoacylglycerols
465.
Lipoproteins have a micellar structure. The nucleus of lipoproteins is made with
hydrophobic compounds; the membrane is formed with hydrophilic radicals. Choose
compounds of nucleus:
A. Free cholesterol
B. Free fatty acids
C. Ethers of cholesterol, triacylglycerols
D. Phospholipids, glycolipids
E. Glycerol, monoacylglycerols
466.
Low density lipoproteins transport ________________ from __________ to
_________________.
A. triacylglycerols; intestine; liver
B. * cholesterol; liver; peripheral tissues;
C. cholesterol; peripheral tissues; liver
D. triacylglycerols; liver; adipose tissue and muscles
E. triacylglycerols; liver; muscles
467.
Name glycogenic amino acids:
A. Valine, phenilalanine
B. Leucine, tryptophan
C. Glutamate, aspartate
D. Serine, isoleucine
E. * Methionine, valine
468.
469.
470.
Neutral fats in blood are transported as chylomicrons. What from the below
mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols, cholesterol and phospholipids proper
to the molecular form of chylomicrons?
A. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35
B. 21 : 14 : 58 : 8
C. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25
D. * 2 : 90 : 5 : 3
E. 35 : 50 : 12 : 3
471.
Nitric oxide is produced from which reaction?
A. * arginine to citrulline
B. glutamate to g-ketoglutarate
C. bicarbonate to carbamoyl phosphate
D. tryptophan to acetyl CoA
E. arginine to a-ketoglutarate
472.
Normal level of uric acid in blood is:
A. * 0,12-0,46 mmol/l
B. 1,7-2,05 mmol/l
C. 20-40 grammes/
D. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l
E. 3-8 mmol/l
473.
? On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which
recognize and specifically link antigens are placed. Which chemical nature of these
receptors?
A. Histons
B. Proteins
C. Krioglobulines
D. * Immunoglobulines
E. Globin
474.
Once vaccinated, you have had a primary exposure to specific antigens. If you
ever encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to:
A. cytotoxic T cells
B. antibodies
C. antigen presenting cells
D. * memory cells
E. all of the above
475.
One of the transport forms of lipoproteins o blood there is HDL (alphalipoproteins). What from the below mentioned correlations of proteins, triacylglycerols,
cholesterol and phospholipids proper to the molecular form of alpha-lipoproteins?
A. 10 : 5 : 60 : 25
B. * 45 : 8 : 38 : 10
C. 25: 15 : 58: 2
D. 2 : 90 : 3 : 5
E. 15 : 20 : 30 : 35
476.
Opsonization is
A. a membrane attack complex lysing a bacterium by making a hole in its membrane
B. when complement causes inflammation to occur
C. when the nine complement factors cascade in order
D. * coating of a bacterium with antibody to make it more susceptible to
phagocytosis
477.
Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edem Simultaneously in an
organism the enhanceable amount of histamine accompanies:
A. * Dilatation of blood vessels and increase their permeability
B. High blood pressure
C. Diminishing of the synthesis of immunoglobulins
D. Degradation of antibodies
E. Activation of a histidin decarboxylase
478.
Proteins of main complex of histocompatability are the main proteins of
immunological individuality of organism. All below mentioned functions inherent them
EXEPT:
A. Participating is in cooperation between lymphoid cells
B. They are proteins of transplantation
C. * Execute a catalytic function
D. Participating in cooperating with an antigen on the cells surface
E. Send cytotoxic T-effectors to the infected target.
479.
Recognition of antigen is the function of
A. Variable region of light chains
B. * Variable regions of light and heavy chains
C. Constant region of heavy chains
D. Constant regions of light and heavy chains
E. All of these
480.
Recognition of foreign factors (antigens) in an organism carries out lymphocytes
with the help of proteins-receptors. How many molecules of immunoglobulin are placed
on the surface of lymphoid cell:
A. * About 105
B. 10-20 molecules
C. Near 1000 molecules
D. 1010
E. None of above
481.
Reliability of implementation of protective function of organism is provided by
the numerous factors of the immune system. Immune function is inherent to all below
mentioned factors except:
A. Plenty of clones of B- lymphocytes
B. A high affinity of membranes immunoglobulins to the antigens
C. Cooperation of many clones of B- lymphocytes with antigen
D. Presence in the organism of activated B- lymphocytes as cells of memory to the
certain antigens
E. * Sufficient content of proteins in blood
482.
Secretory component is present in
A. * IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. All of these
E. None of these
483.
Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves
A. antigens
B. antibodies
C. the classical complement pathway.
D. * All of the above.
E. None of the above.
484.
System of complement is important factor of defense of organism from infections.
Activating of the system takes place with:
A. Oxidation
B. hydroxylation
C. Conjugation
D. * Partial proteolysis
E. Association of subunits
485.
Technogenic, ecological, social and other factors often result in the damage of the
immune system of organism, reduce resistance of human organism to the infections.
Immunological insufficiency can be result of such disorders except:
A. * Insufficient synthesis by the liver of gamma-globulins
B. Deficiency of stem cells of bony marrow
C. Disorders of activating of T-cells
D. Disorders of function B-lymphocytes and secretion of antibodies
E. Deficiency of the system of complement
486.
The allergic reaction of organism is related to activating of complement by a
partial hydrolysis. Among the below named functions of the low-molecular peptides
choose correct:
A. Diminish the amount of eosinophils and basophiles
B. Weaken construction of smooth muscles
C. * Increase permeability of walls of capillaries
D. Diminish permeability of walls of capillaries
E. Strengthen the chemo taxis of leucocytes.
487.
The alternative pathway of complement activation
A. causes tissue damage in the absence of C1INH.
B. occurs after the classic pathway is activated.
C. occurs only if the classical pathway is ineffective in pathogen clearance.
D. * requires C3
E. requires C4
488.
The alternative pathway of complement activation
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
489.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
490.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
491.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
492.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
493.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
494.
the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
495.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
496.
A.
B.
C.
causes tissue damage in the absence of C1INH

occurs after the classic pathway is activated
occurs only if the classical pathway is ineffective in pathogen clearance.
* requires C3
requires C4
The amount of cholesterol in blood plasma is in normal state:
* 3-7 mmol/l
10-15 mmol/l
20-25 mmol/l
1-3 mmol/l
5-7 mmol/l
The antigen-binding sites of an antibody molecule are located in the
C region of light chains,
V region of light chains,
C region of heavy chains,
V region of heavy chains,
* regions of both light and heavy chains,
* Fibrinogen to fibrin
Fibrin to fibrinogen
Thrombin to prothrombin
Vitamin K to prothrombin
Fibrin to thrombin
The basic structural units of an immunoglobulin molecule include:
* two identical heavy and two identical light chains.
one constant and three variable regions.
identical kappa and lambda light chains.
a total of five domains.
all of the above
The class-specific antigenic determinants of immunoglobulins are associated with:
chains.
light chains.
disulfide bonds.
* heavy chains
variable regions
The class-specific antigenic determinants of immunoglobulins are associated with
light chain,
* heavy chain,
J chain,
secretory component,
none of these.
The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is:
* Platelets
Erythrocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
None of the above
The concentration of urea in the blood of healthy adult is:
10-12 mM/l
12-20 mM/l
1-2 mM/l
D. * 3-8 mM/l
E. 15-18 mM/l
497.
The damage of the immune system reduces resisting of human organism to the
infections. Immune status of organism depends on the followings structures, except:
A. Bony marrow
B. Thymus
C. Tissue macrophages
D. Lymphatic nodes
E. * Hypophysis
498.
The decrease of urea in blood is observed in some conditions, except:
A. Kidney diseases
B. * Diabetes Mellitus
C. Long starvation
D. Excessive proteins in food
E. Toxic goter
499.
The decrease of urea in blood is observed in some conditions, except:
A. Kidney diseases
B. * Diabetes Mellitus
C. Long starvation
D. Excessive proteins in food
E. Toxic goter
500.
The disease AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). One of
the reasons why this disease has resisted a cure is because it attacks the body's immune
system, the very system that is designed to resist viral infections. Which of the immune
system cells does the AIDS virus specifically target for infection?
A. B cells
B. * Helper T cells
C. memory cells
D. natural killer cells
501.
The effector function of antibody is performed by
A. Variable region of light chains
B. Constant region of heavy chains
C. Variable regions of light and heavy chains
D. * Constant regions of light and heavy chains
E. Constant region of light chains
502.
The following acute phase protein increase dramatically in concentration during
inflammation :
A. ceruloplasmin
B. haptoglobulin
C. C-reactive protein
D. fibrinogen
E. C3
503.
The functions of HDL is a transport of:
A. Triacylglycerols from a liver
B. Cholesterol from an extra hepatic tissues to liver
C. Phospholipids from an intestine
D. Free fatty acids to the liver
E. * Cholesterol from a liver to extra hepatic tissues
504.
The half-life of IgG is
A. 23 days
B. 56 days
505.
506.
the:
C. 810 days
D. * 2025 days
E. 5-6 hours
The hinge region of an IgG heavy chain is located:
A. between VH and CH1.
B. * between CH1 and CH2.
C. between CH2 and CH3.
D. between CH3 and CH4.
E. within the CH1 intrachain loops.
The idiotype of an antibody molecule is determined by the amino acid sequence of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
variable region of the light chain.

* variable regions of the heavy and light chains.
constant region of the light chain.
constant region of the heavy chain.
constant regions of the heavy and light chains.
507.
The immunoglobulin having the longest half-life is
A. IgA
B. * IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD
508.
The immunological response of organism for foreign factors is closely related to
the functions of proteins of main complex of histocompatability that initiate the lysis of
cells. The mechanism of their action includes the row of processes, except:
A. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability send cytotoxic T-effectors to the
antigen
B. Lymphocyte throws out on a membrane of the target-cells (antigen) protein
perphorin
C. Perphorin forms pores in the cellular membrane of target -cells
D. * Electrochemical potential changes on the membrane of target -cells
E. Through pores in a membrane water and electrolytes flow and cause lysis of
target -cells
509.
The largest immunoglobulin is
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. * IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
510.
The largest lipoproteins are the __________.
A. * chylomicrons
B. VLDLs
C. LDLs
D. HDLs
E. none of the above.
511.
The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the
liver is:
A. * Alanine
B. Glutamine
C. Valine
D. Aspartate
E. Glutamate
512.
The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the
liver is:
A. * Alanine
B. Glutamine
C. Valine
D. Aspartate
E. Glutamate
513.
The maturation of T cells and the production of particular T cell receptors occurs
in the
A. thyroid gland
B. * thymus gland
C. tonsils
D. testes
E. all of the above
514.
The minimum number of polypeptide chains in an immunoglobulin is
A. Two
B. * Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. One
515.
The molecular weight of heavy chains is
A. 20,00025,000
B. 25,00050,000
C. * 50,00070,000
D. 70,0001,00,000
E. None of these
516.
The molecular weight of light chains is
A. 10,00015,000
B. * 20,00025,000
C. 25,00050,000
D. 50,00075,000
E. None of these
517.
The most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma is
A. IgA
B. * IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
518.
The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease contain elevated
levels of each of the following amino acid, except:
A. Valine
B. Leucine
C. * Lysine
D. Isoleucine
E. none of above
519.
The possible reason of the increase of uric acid content in blood:
A. Action of ionizing radiation
B. * Kidney insufficiency
C. Leucosis
D. Burns
E. Malignant tumor
520.
The protective functions of organism are closely related to the immunoglobulins.
What from below mentioned descriptions incorrect?
A. * Immunoglobulins are synthesed in a liver
B. Immunoglobulins belong to fraction of gamma-globulins
C. Antibodies neutralize bacterial toxins
D. Immune proteins take part in maturing and activating of lymphocytes
E. Immunoglobulins contact with bacteria and facilitate their absorption by
phagocytes
521.
The ratio of cholesterol in the form of LDL to that in the form of HDL in healthy
person is __________ and the ______________ of this ratio is the prognostic symptom
of atherosclerosis development.
A. 3.5; decrease;
B. 0.5; decrease;
C. * 3.5; increase;
D. 0.5; increase
E. 1; increase
522.
The surface of bacterial cells is covered with proteins that the human body can
recognize as belonging to a foreign, invading microorganism. These molecules are
collectively referred to as .
A. antibiotics
B. antiseptics
C. * antigens
D. antibodies
523.
The transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver takes place with
the help of such enzyme:
A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. * Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase
C. Cholesterol esterase
D. Lecithinase
E. Acetyl choline esterase
524.
The variable region of heavy chains has
A. One hypervariable region
B. Two hypervariable regions
C. Three hypervariable regions
D. * Four hypervariable regions
525.
The variable region of light chains has
A. One hypervariable region
B. Two hypervariable regions
C. * Three hypervariable regions
D. Four hypervariable regions
E. All of the above
526.
The variable region of light chains is the
A. N-terminal quarter
B. * N-terminal half
C. C-terminal quarter
D. C-terminal half
527.
The wide spectrum of immunological effects is related to the row of soluble
factors of protein nature, which produced by T-cell, mast cells, macrophages, fibroblasts.
All below named proteins belong to these factors, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Liberines and statins

Cytokines, monokines
Lymphokines, lymphotoxins
Interleukins
Interferon
528.
To the deficiency of which immune proteins AIDS related?
A. B1- antitrypsin
B. * ? - globulins
C. -reactive protein
D. Macroglobulin
E. Ceruloplazmin
529.
Transplantation of organs and cells between persons, which are not relatives,
frequently leads to tearing away of transplanted organ. What proteins are unique for each
organism and serve as the markers of immunological individuality of organism?
A. Immunoglobulins of B- lymphocytes
B. Proteins-receptors of T-cell
C. Proteins of the system of complement
D. * Proteins of I class of main complex of histocompatability
E. Proteins of II class of main complex of histocompatability
530.
Transport forms of blood lipids are different lipid-protein complexes. There are all
the followings compound in their composition, except:
A. * Free fatty acids
B. Proteins
C. Neutral fats
D. Phospholipids
E. Esters of cholesterol
531.
B. Proteins
C. Neutral fats
D. Phospholipids
532.
B. Proteins
C. Neutral fats
D. Phospholipids
533.
What are the two types of immunity?
A. adaptive, innate
B. * active, adaptive
C. inactive, innate
D. acquired, inactive
E. inactive, active
534.
What can be a cause of immunodeficiencies?
A. Genetic factors
B. Malnutrition
C. Both B and C
D. Drugs used to treat certain diseases
E. * All are correct
535.
What is an allergy, in physiological terms?

A. an overreaction to antibodies
B. an overreaction to a pathogen
C. * an overreaction to antigens
D. a pathogen driven result
536.
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
A. Plasma contains calcium; serum does not.
B. Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does.
C. * Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not.
D. Plasma contains albumin; serum does not.
E. Plasma contain zinc; serum does not.
537.
What is the source of control on the immune system?
A. cytotoxic T-cells
B. macrophages
C. B-cells
D. * suppressor T-cells
E. all of the above
538.
What kind of cells produce antibodies?
A. T cells
B. * B cells
C. NK cells
D. Neutrophils
E. Basophils
539.
Which amino acids are purely ketogenic?
A. arginine and lysine
B. leucine only
C. tryptophan only
D. * lysine and leucine
540.
Which class of antibody binds to poly-Ig receptor in order to cross into the lumen
of the gut?
A. * IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
541.
Which class of antibody crosses the placenta and provides the newborn with
passive immunity?
A. . IgA
B. * IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
542.
Which class of antibody is found in the highest concentration in the blood?
A. IgA
B. * IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
543.
Which class of antibody is secreted into breast milk where it is delivered to the
suckling neonate, and transported through the gut lumen into blood of the neonate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgE
544.
Which class of antibody is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen
challenge?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. * IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
545.
Which class of antibody that is secreted is most likely of low affinity?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. * IgE
546.
Which do you expect to have the highest protein content by percent?
A. VLDLs
B. ILDs
C. * HDLs
D. All of the lipids above have about the same protein content.
E. none of the above.
547.
Which does not provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. * Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. All of the above
548.
Which fraction of lipoproteins the less move during electrophoresis?
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Chylomicrons
D. Albumins
E. VLDL
549.
Which fraction of lipoproteins the less move during electrophoresis?
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. Chylomicrons
D. Albumins
E. VLDL
550.
Which is an example of an autoimmune disease?
A. AIDS
B. Hepatitis
C. * Lupus
D. Mumps
E. All of these
551.
Which is an example of an immunodeficiency disorder?
A. thyroiditis
B. rheumatic fever
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. * AIDS
E. All of the above
552.
Which of the following are least sensitive to complement-mediated lysis?
A. Enveloped viruses
B. Erythrocytes
C. Gram negative bacteria
D. * Gram positive bacteria
E. Leukocytes
553.
Which of the following is responsible for opening the calcium ion channel during
T-helper cell stimulation?
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. Tyrosine kinase
D. * Inositol trisphosphate
E. Protein kinase C
554.
Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver?
A. * Gamma globulin
B. Albumin
C. Beta globulins
D. Fibrinogen
E. Ceruloplasmin
555.
Which of these are the most abundant in circulation?
A. * neutrophils
B. mast cells
C. basophils
D. dendritic cells
E. no correct answer
556.
Which of these is a professional antigen presenting cell (APC)?
A. erythrocytes
B. * dendritic cells
C. mast cells
D. eosinophils
E. basophils
557.
Which of these is a secondary lymphoid organ?
A. * Spleen
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Brain
E. Liver
558.
Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
A. Rheumatoid Arthritis
B. Graves Disease
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
D. * All of these
E. Both A and C
559.
Which statement(s) apply to urea?
A. highly soluble in water
B. produced in the liver
C. compound used as a means of removing excess nitrogen
D. * all of the above
560.
Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
IgE
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
* IgM
561.
Why is it important to have lymph nodes - immunologically?
A. to house the fluid in your blood
B. to house the mature B-cells and macrophages
C. to house the mature T-cells and macrophages
D. * Both B and C are correct.
E. Both A and B are correct.
562.
Why is it important to have suppressor T-cells as part of your immune system?
A. to act as a feedback mechanism to gear up the immune system
B. * to act as a feedback mechanism to gear down the immune system
C. to lower the defences of the individual.
D. to lower the defences of the invaders.
E. to act as a global reactor cell to all invaders.
563.
An immunoglobulin is a
A. protein
B. carbohydrate
C. * glycoprotein
D. fatty acid
E. nucleic acid
564.
Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins
or receptors that can be measured in situ.
A. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always
low.
B. * Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease
C. Thousands of CDs have been characterized
D. All of the above are true
E. None of the above are true
565.
Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. * IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
566.
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting
for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. * IgG
E. IgM
567.
Show on the possible sources formation of glucose-6-phosphate in the liver:
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Galactose
D. Glycogen
E. * All title sources
568.
The following are synthesized in the liver:
A. Anti-thrombin III
B.
C.
D.
E.
* C-reactive protein
Angiotensinogen.
Apolipoprotein B
Cholecystokinin
569.
What is a result of conjugation of isoniazid via N-acetylation?
A. * Detoxification of liver
B. Detoxification of kidneys
C. Detoxification of blood
D. Detoxification of urine
E. Hepatotoxicity
570.
________ is/are produced in the liver by a complicated series of reactions
A. Amino acids
B. Nucleotides
C. Creatine phosphate
D. Ammonia
E. * Urea
571.
A blood test found out the increase maintenance of residual nitrogen, part of urea
in residual nitrogen is considerably lowering. For the disease of what organ is
characteristic such analysis?
A. * Liver
B. Stomach
C. Intestine
D. Kidney
E. Heart
572.
A child manifested yellowish skin and mucous membranes on the second day after
birth. The cause of such state is a temporal deficiency of:
A. Heme oxygenase
B. Sulfotransherase
C. Heme synthetase
D. * UDP-glucuronyltransferase
E. Biliverdin reductase
573.
A concentration of general bilirubin in blood of healthy man is:
A. * 8-20 mkM/l
B. 15-30 mkM/l
C. 2-20 mM/l
D. 1-10 mM/l
E. 1-2 /l
574.
A liver functioning improperly in an ill patient may cause the skin to become
A. yanotic and dry
B. * Jaundiced and warm
C. Blue and diaphorectic
E. Pellagra
575.
A liver provides other organs and tissues for all of substances, except:
A. Glucose
B. Proteins
C. Ketone bodies
D. Phospholipids
E. * Chylomicrons
576.
A main supplier NH3 to the liver for the synthesis of urea is:
A. Glutamic acid
B. * Glutamin
C. Karbamoilfosfat
D. ammonium sulfate to the
E. Free NH3
577.
A snakebite results of a hemolitic jaundice for a victim. Which index of blood
plasma for a victim does grow above all things?
A. * Indirect bilirubin (unconjugated)
B. Direct bilirubin (conjugated)
C. Uric acid
D. Urea
E. Cholesterol
578.
Acetyl-CoA in a liver experience the followings transformations, except:
A. Use on the synthesis of ketone bodies
B. On the synthesis of fatty acids
C. On the synthesis of cholesterol
D. * On the synthesis of amino acids
E. Oxidase to CO2 and H2O
579.
Activity of which enzyme in hepatocytes is most activated at the terms of
carbohydrate starvation?
A. Hexokinase
B. Glycogensintase
C. * Glycogenphosphorilase
D. Phosphofructomutase
E. Al'dolase
580.
Acute toxin induced liver necrosis can be due to
A. * Lipid peroxidation
B. Binding of toxin to cellular macromolecules
C. Mitochondrial damage
D. Disruption of cytoskeleton
E. All of the above
581.
After starvation which resulted in general exhaustion of patient, in a liver and
kidney increases proceses:
A. Synthesis of creatin
B. Synthesis of bilirubin
C. * Gluconeogenesis
D. Formation of gipuric acid
E. Formation of uric acid
582.
?All following functions are characteristic for liver, except:
A. Regulator-homoeostatic
B. Urea formation
C. Bile formation
D. Detoxification
E. * Urine formation
583.
Although small quantities of lipids are normally stored in the liver, most of the
synthesized triglycerides are bound to:
A. * Hepatocytes in the liver
B. Transport proteins
C. Adipocytes
D. Glucose molecules
584.
Ammonia is formed in the process desamination of connections in a liver utillized
on the synthesis of such connections, except:
A. Glutamate
B.
C.
D.
E.
Glutamin
Urea
Nitric bases
* Nitric acid
585.
An excrement contains sick plenty of the unsplit fat and has a white-grey color.
Name reason of this phenomenon:
A. * Obstruction of gall-bladder
B. Lack of pepsin and HCl
C. Hypovitaminoses
D. Inflammation of bowels
E. A lack of carbonhydratess in a meal
586.
Are such functions of bile acids in an organism, except:
A. Activating of lipase in an intestine
B. Activating of phospholipase
C. Emulsification of fats in an intestine
D. Participating in absorbtion of fatty acids in enterocytes
E. * Participating in resynthesis of fats
587.
At entering in organism big amount of toxic substances glucose-6-phosphate in a
liver including in:
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenogenesis
C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle
D. * Pentosophosphate cycle
E. Gluconeogenesis
588.
At research of blood plasma for a patient the decline level of proteins is set:
albumin, fibrinogen, protrombin, transferrin, ceruloplasmin. What does it testify?
A. * About decrease synthesis of proteins by a liver
B. About detoxification function of liver
C. About violation transformation of amino acids
D. About violation synthesis of urea and uric acid
E. About violation arrives of matters from liver into blood
589.
At the condition of the limited utilisation of carbohydrates and strengthening
metabolism of fatty acids an acetyl-CoA little gets in the Krebs cycle and utillized in
ketolises. Which from factors does not promote ketolises:
A. Starvation
B. Diabets Mellitus
C. Kidney glucosuria
D. Hard physical work, combined with the consumption of alcohol
E. * All of above
590.
At the sharp toxic defeats of liver the level of active forms of oxygen sharply
grows, that results in destruction of cellular membranes. For this prevention apply
antioxidants. The most strong natural antioxidant is:
A. * A-tocoferol
B. Uric acid
C. Creatinine
D. Transferrin
E. Bilirubin
591.
Being poisoning with mushrooms a patient manifested yellow skin and scleras
coloring. The urine become dark. What pigment colored the patients urine with hemolytic
jaundice?
A. Biliverdin
B. Direct bilirubin
C. Indirect bilirubin
D. * Stercobilin
E. Verdohemoglobin
592.
Bile facilitates digestion by causing the _____ of fats
A. Hydrolysis
B. Digestion
C. Catalysis
D. * Emulsification
E. Synthesize
593.
Bile is stored between meals in the:
A. Pyloris
B. * Gall bladder
C. Salivary glands
D. Jejunum
E. Stomac
594.
Bile salts are produced by the
A. Stomach
B. * Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
E. Duodenum
595.
Bile salts are produced by the
A. Stomach
B. * Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
E. Duodenum
596.
Bile salts combine with fatty acids to form complexes called _____ that facilitate
absorption.
A. Chylomicrons
B. * Micelles
C. Globules
D. Lipoproteins
E. Globulins
597.
Bilirubin is produced as the result of:
A. Digestion of salts
B. Digestion of carbohydrates
C. Digestion of phospholipid
D. * Digestion of hemoglobin
E. Absorbtion of carbohydrates
598.
Biosynthesis of glycogen in liver is stimulated all indicated factors, except:
A. Insulin
B. * Glucagon
C. Hyperglycemia
D. ATP
E. Glycogensynthase, glicosyl-4,6-transferase
599.
Blood test for a patient is discovered: the concentration of albumin makes 20 g/l,
increasing activity of lactatgehydrogenase (LDG5). The disease of what organ is
correspond to this index?
A. * Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Pancreas
E. Lung
600.
Brake oxidation of glucose and promote its converting into glycogen in a liver all
adopted components, except:
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. Fatty acids
D. Amino acids, citrate
E. * Adrenalin, glucagon
601.
By which ways pyruvat or lactat can transform on glucose-6-phosphate?
A. Glycolis
B. Crebs cycle
C. Condensation
D. Penthosophosphate cycle
E. * Gluconeogenesis
602.
Chilomicrons enter the
A. Kidney
B. * Lymphatic capillaries
C. Liver
D. Blood capillaries
E. All of the above
603.
Chilomicrons enter the
A. Kidney
B. * Lymphatic capillaries
C. Liver
D. Blood capillaries
E. All of the above
604.
Cholesterol formed in many tissues and organs, but most in a liver. What function
is not inherent him from transferred?
A. Serves as basis for formation of bile acids
B. Steroid hormones appear from the cholesterol
C. In a skin appears from him the vitamin of D3
D. It is the structural component of cellular membranes
E. * Serves as energy source
605.
Choose enzyme which carries out conjugation of toxic substances with glucuronic
acid:
A. Uridiltransferase
B. UDP-dehydrogenase
C. * UDP-glyucuroniltransferase
D. Acetyltransferase
E. Glucokinase
606.
Choose peptid which is often utillized in conjugation of xenobiotics:
A. * Glutation
B. Anserin
C. Carnosine
D. Bradykinin
E. Kalidin
607.
Cytochrome P450 induction (increased, amount of P450 enzyme protein) is often
associated with:
A. Increased enzyme synthesis rates
B. * Reduced enzyme degradation rates
C. Both
D. Neither
E. Only A and B
608.
Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase
II biotransformation?
A. Skin
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. * Liver
E. GI Tract
609.
Decomposition of livers glycogen.
A. * Glucose is generated
B. Electrons are passed along cytochromes
C. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms are released, and two molecules of ATP form
D. Oxaloacetic acid is regenerated from coenzyme A
E. Lipids are generated
610.
Detoxification of toxic substances takes a place in all of tissues and organs, but a
leading place belongs to the:
A. Kidney
B. Blood
C. Intestine
D. * Liver
E. Lung
611.
Detoxification of xenobiotics (pharmaceutical drugs, epoxides,arenoxydes,
aldehydes, nitro derivates etc.) as well as endogenous metabolites (estradiol,
prostaglandins and leukotrienes take place in the liver by means of their conjugation
with:
A. Phosphoadenosine
B. Aspartate
C. Glycine
D. S-adenosylmethionine
E. * Glutathion
612.
During glycogenolysis in liver - glycogen transforms into glucose-1-phosphate
under act of enzyme:
A. Glucokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. * Phosphorylase
E. Phosphokinase
613.
During the rest after hard physical work in a liver will be stimulated:
A. Glykolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. * Gluconeogenesis from lactat
D. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids
E. Biosynthesis of fatty acids
614.
Factors affecting hepatic drug clearance:
A. * Drug delivery to liver elimination sites
B. Extent of plasma protein-bound drug
C. Blood flow
D. Carrier saturation
E. Wally and filtered in the glomerulus
615.
Fats from liver are secreted to blood in composition of:
A. LDL
B.
C.
D.
E.
* VLDL
HDL
Chylomicronss
Triacylglicerol
616.
Fatty acids and glycerol are released when _____ are broken down by liver or
muscle cells.
A. Micelles
B. Acteals
C. * Chylomicrons
D. Lipoproteins
E. Vitamins
617.
Fatty acids in a liver are utillized in all directions, except:
A. On the synthesis of fats
B. On the synthesis of phospholipids
C. On formation of ethers of cholesterol
D. Oxidase to acetyl-CoA
E. * On the synthesis of amino acids
618.
Fatty acids in a liver experience such transformations, except:
A. Formation of fats
B. Formation of phospholipids
C. Formation of ethers of cholesterol
D. Formation of ketone bodies
E. * Formation of cholesterol
619.
Ferritin is a globular protein that transports and stores ______ in the liver and
blood
A. Glycogen
B. Lipids
C. Vitamin B12
D. * Iron
E. Cupper
620.
Finished products metabolism of nitrogencontaining matters in a liver is:
A. Bile acids
B. * Urea
C. Purine basis
D. Karnitin
E. Ammonia
621.
For a man the broken process synthesis of urea. To pathology of what organ does
it testify?
A. Urinary bladder
B. Kidney
C. * Liver
D. Muscles
E. Pancreas
622.
For a patient with permanent hypoglycemia after introduction of adrenalin
maintenance of glucose did not almost change. About the change of what function of
liver can there be a language?
A. * Glycogendeponilic
B. Cholesterolformation
C. Ketogenic
D. Glycolitic
E. Excretory
623.
For days with urine is selected in healthy people of urea in an amount:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2-3 g
10-15 g
* 20-30 g
80-100g
0,2-0,3 g
624.
For determination of antitoxic function of liver to a pacient was appointed the
benzoate of sodium which in a liver convert into hypuric acid. Name connection X in a
reaction: benzoate of Na + X X hypuric acid:
A. * Glycine
B. Cystein
C. Methionine
D. PAPS
E. UDP-glucuronic acid
625.
For microsomal oxidation as a donor of hydrogen atoms in main utillized
NADPH. Which metabolic way is the basic source of NADPH?
A. Glycolise
B. Crebs cycle
C. * Pentosophosphate cycle
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Glycogenolysis
626.
For the treatment of icterus, barbiturates that induce the synthesis of UDPglucuronyltransferase are prescribed. The curavite effect of barbiturates is conditioned by
the formation of:
A. * Direct (conjugation) bilirubin
B. Indirect (conjugation) bilirubin
C. Biliverdin
D. Protoporphyrin
E. Heme
627.
Formation in liver from the glycogen glucose-1-phosphate experience subsequent
transformation:
A. In to galactose-1-phosphate
B. In to fructose-1-phosphate
C. Remains without changes
D. * In to glucose-6-phosphate
E. In to GAF and DOAF
628.
From amino acids in a liver formed such substances, except:
A. Proteins
B. B-ketoacids
C. NH3, hem
D. Purine, pirimidine
E. * Fatty acids
629.
Genetic deseases which is predefined the lack of glycogensynthetase in a liver, is
named aglycogenose. Thus there is observe all, except:
A. Considerable decrease of glycogen
B. Hypoglycemia is expressed in intervals between the consumption of meal
C. A hyperglycaemia lasted after the reception of meal
D. Delay of mental development
E. * Increase size of liver
630.
Glucose in liver can experience such transformations, except:
A. Transformed into glucose-6-phosphate
B. Glicolytic oxidation
C. Oxidation in the penthosophosphate passways
D. Transformed into glycogen

E. * Transformed into the vitamin C
631.
Glucose, that arrive with blood from an intestine to the liver, is utillized for all
functions, except:
A. Formation of glycogen
B. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O with selection of energy
C. Convert into fats for stocking of energy
D. Carried by blood to the brain as source of energy
E. * Use for detoxification of ammonia
632.
Glycogenformation in a liver takes a place in a postabsorbtive period with
participation of enzymes, except:
A. Phosphoglucomutase
B. Glucose-1-phosphateurydiltransferase
C. Glycogensynthetase
D. Glycosil-4G6-transferase
E. * Glycogenphosphorilase
633.
Glycogenolysis in a liver increases in such factors, except:
A. Glukagon
B. Proteinkinase
C. * Hyperglycemia
D. ADP
E. Phosphorylases A
634.
Greater part of steroid hormones metabolised in liver by reduction to
tetrahydroderivatives (I stage). With wich matter do they contact (II stage), that results in
the loss of them biological action and excreted through kidney?
A. Amino acids
B. Glutation
C. * Glucuronic acid
D. Acetic acid
E. Acetyl-CoA
635.
Harmless of toxic substanses in a cytoplasmic net passes in two phases. Indacate
2-nd phase:
A. Hydroxylating
B. * Conjugation
C. Phosphorylation
D. Dehydration
E. Dehydratation
636.
Hepatic flow-dependent drug elimination refers to:
A. Changes in plasma protein concentration
B. Rate-limiting step is drug delivery to hepatic elimination sites
C. Number of functional hepatocytes
D. Carrier saturation
E. * Drug transfer rates across hepatic cell membrane
637.
In a liver a major role belongs among all of detoxification enzymes systems:
A. Hydrolized system of cytoplasm
B. Lysosomal
C. Peroxidase
D. Sinthetase system with formation of conjugats
E. Monooxigenase system of cytoplasmic reticulum
638.
In a liver between proteins, lipids and carbohydrates carried out interconversion.
In the following schemes indicate, which transformation is unreality:
A. Glucosesfats
B.
C.
D.
E.
Glucose Acetyl-CoA-cholesterol
Glucose Acetyl-CoA ketone bodies
Glucose pyruvatpCO2 and H2O
* Glucose nonsubstitution amino acidsnproteins
639.
In a liver fatty acids transform in such directions, except:
A. Fatty acids tfats
B. Fatty acids tacytoacetate
C. Fatty acids iketone bodies
D. Fatty acids tAcetyl-CoA
E. * Fatty acids tglucose
640.
In a liver xenobiotics enter in the reaction of conjugation (and detoxification) only
those which have certain functional groups or remains of molecules. Such groups are all,
except:
A. -
B. -COOH
C. -NH2
D. * -CH3
E. -SH
641.
In a patient which was in the area of radiation defeat, the concentration of malonic
dialdehyde, hydroperoxides was increased in blood. Reason of such changes could be:
A. * Increase in the organism of oxygen radicals and activating peroxidation of lipids
B. Increase of ketone bodies
C. Increase maintenance of lactic acid
D. Increase maintenance of cholesterol
E. Increase maintenance of proteins in blood
642.
In afteroperation period in a patient periodically complication bleeding comes
from a wound. With deficiency in blood of what substance, that is synthesized in a liver it
connected?
A. Haptoglobin
B. * Protrombin
C. Heparin
D. Creatin
E. Ceruloplasmin
643.
In blood of patient found the increasing activity of LDG4,5, AlAT and ornithine
carbamoyltransferase. In wich organ is possible development of pathological process?
A. In a cardiac muscle (heart attack)
B. * In a liver (hepatitis)
C. In skeletal muscles
D. In kidney
E. In connective tissue
644.
In blood plasma distinguish the stated below proteins. Which from them do not
appear in a liver?:
A. Albumins
B. B1-globulins
C. C2-globulins
D. D-globulins
E. * E-globulins
645.
In humans, the liver _________.
A. Removes carbon dioxide from the body
B. Stores creatine phosphate
C. * Converts ammonia to urea
D. Regulates the body temperature
E. All of the above are liver functions

646.
In the liver, when large amounts of acetyl-CoA are produced, some of the acetylCoA is used to form
A. Pyruvic acid
B. Citric acid
C. * Ketone bodies
D. Lactic acid
E. Urea
647.
In the membranes of endoplasmatic reticulum of liver there are monooxigenase
reactions in which one atom of oxygen is utillized on oxidation of substrate, and second
on formation of H2O. Reaction flows after such scheme: RH + O2 +reconstricte ROH +
H2O + oxidation reconstrict Choose what can not be a reconstrict (by the donor of
hydrogen) in these reactions:
A. NADPH
B. NADH
C. Cytochrom P-450
D. Cytochrom B5
E. * Vitamin H
648.
In transition from the mixed ration to carbohydrate the biosynthesis of fats is
activated in a liver. Promotes this activating some enzymes, except:
A. Cytratshyntase
B. Acetyl-C-carboxilase
C. Palmitilshyntetase
D. Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
E. * Triacylglicerinlipase
649.
In which of the following diseases will liver tissue be replaced by inactive fibrous
scar tissue?
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. * Viral hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Lactose intolerance
650.
Increased catabolism of nitrogencontain connections are accompanied
strengthening formation of urea and increase of its maintenance in blood and urine. All
belong to such matters, except :
A. Amino acids
B. Purins
C. Pirimidins
D. Biogenic mins
E. * Nitric and nitrous acids
651.
Indicate the basic functional differences of microsomal oxidation from
mithohondrial:
A. * Using of oxygen with plastic aims
B. Using of oxygen in bioenergetic processes
C. Using of energy in a appearance of ATP
D. Using of energy in a appearance of GTP
E. Using as substrates of FADH2 and FMNH2
652.
Indicate, which bile acid is promote dissolution of cholesterol and gall-stones:
A. Cholic
B. Desoxycholic
C. * Chenodesoxycholic
D. Taurocholic
E. Litocholic
653.
Investigation of blood serum rotined an increase activity of AlAT, LDG5 and
-globulin fractions of proteins. Name possible illness which stipulated these changes:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Heart attack of myocardium
C. * Sharp toxic hepatitis
D. Pancreatitis
E. Sharp damage of muscles
654.
Jaundice shows, when a concentration of bilirubin in blood is:
A. 20 30 mkM/l
B. * 35 mkM/l and higher
C. 10-15 mkM/l
D. 35-40 mM/l
E. 1-2 /l
655.
Level of which metabolite in hepatocytes does brake the Krebs cycle, but
stimulates ketogenesis?
A. ADP
B. ATP
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. * Oxaloacetate
E. Fatty acids
656.
Main appointmant formed in the liver glucose-1-phosphate to serve as an energy
source for a brain after transformation in to glucose-6-phosphate and separation from him
residual of phosphoric acid. This action is executed by enzymes:
A. Phosphoglucomutase, phosphorylase
B. * Phosphoglucomutase, phosphatase
C. Phosphokinase, phosphoglucoepimerase
D. Proteinkinase, glucophosphattranspherase
E. Phosphotranskriptase, phosphatase
657.
Mikrosomal oxidation system includes two short chains transport of electrons and
protons on oxygen: 1) monooxigenase, for which by the donor of protons and - is
mainly NADPH and 2) reductase by the donor of protons and - of NADH. Specify a
place, where can not be found this reductase system:
A. Microsoms membranes
B. Nuclear membrane
C. * Inner membrane of mithohondria
D. External membrane of mithohondria
E. Cellular membrane of erythrosites
658.
Most of the nitrogen amount is excreted from the body in the form of urea. The
decrease of acrivity of what liver enzyme result in inhibiting of urea synthesis and
accumulation of ammonia in blood and tissues?
A. * Carbomoyl phosphate synthase
B. Aspartate aminotransferase
C. Urease
D. Amylase
E. Pepsin
659.
Most proteins of blood plasma are synthesized in a liver. Wich from below
following proteins not synthesized in a liver?
A. Albumin
B. B-globulins
C. C-globulins
D. * D-globulins
E. Fibrinogen, protrombin
660.
Name 2 products the first reaction of penthosophosphate cycle which flows in a
liver:
A. Glucose and phosphatidic acid
B. NADH and pentose
C. Gluconic acid and ribulose
D. Glucose-1,6-diphosphate and NADPH
E. * 6-phosphogluconolactone and NADPH
661.
Name enzyme in the ornitine cycle which conduces to the formation of urea:
A. Argininosuccinate lyase
B. Argininosuccinate synthetase
C. Malatdehydrogenase
D. * Arginase
E. Fumarathidratase
662.
Name matters on which glucose-6-phosphate transforms in a liver:
A. Glucose
B. Piruvat
C. Pentosophosphate
D. Glicogen
E. * All substances together
663.
Name substance which takes part in reaction formation active form of glucuronic
acid:
A. ATP
B. * UTP
C. c-AMP
D. TTP
E. CTP
664.
Name the enzyme of urea cycle which results to formation of intermediate
metabolite argininosuccinate:
A. Argininosuccinate lyase
B. Succinatdehydrogenase
C. Succinatoxidase
D. Arginase
E. * Argininosuccinate synthetase
665.
Nonbiological foreign chemicals are termed:
A. Antibiotics
B. Probiotics
C. Prebiotics
D. * Xenobiotics
E. Neurobiotics
666.
Oxidation of ketone bodies takes place every where, except:
A. Myocardium
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Kidney
D. Brain
E. * Liver
667.
Pentoses which appear from glucose-6-phosphate in the pentosophosphate cycle
can be utillized in such aims:
A. On the biosynthesis of nucleotides
B. On the construction of nucleic acids
C. On the construction of coenzymes
D. Transformation in to fructose-6-phosphate
E. * All adopted processes are correct

668.
Pentosophosphate cycle oxidation of glucose provides reconstraction of NADPH
such processes:
A. Synthesis of fatty acids
B. Synthesis of cholesterol
C. Synthesis of bile acids from cholesterol
D. Inactivation of steroid hormones
E. * All adopted processes are correct
669.
Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in ____.
A. Hemolytic jaundice
C. Viral hepatitis
D. * Cirrhosis
670.
Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in ____.
A. * Hemolytic jaundice
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis
671.
Some matters are harmless by formation of complex ethers with sulphuric acid.
Name substanse which help carried out sulfate conjugation:
A. Glucuronilsulphate
B. * Phosphoadeninphosphosulfate
C. Dimetilsulfate
D. S-adenosylmethyonin
E. Sulphuric acid
672.
Strengthen oxidation glucose to pyruvat in a liver such regulators, except:
A. Insulin
B. ADP
C. AMP
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. * NADH
673.
The buildup of bile pigment in tissues that can be caused by gallstones is _____.
A. Hyperbilirubinemia
B. * Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatitis
D. Hepatocellular jaundice
674.
The contents of urea in blood of healthy:
A. 1-3 mM/l
B. 2-4 mM/l
C. * 3-7 mM/l
D. 10-12 mM/l
E. 20-30 mM/l
675.
The decreasing synthesis of bile acids in a liver results in such violations, except:
A. Digestion of fats in an intestine
B. * Digestion of carbohydrates
C. Absorbtion of fatty acids
D. Absorbtion of vitamins A and K
E. Activation of lipasas
676.
The digestive fluids that mix with chyme in the ____________ are secreted by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Stomach; the liver and pancreas

Biliary apparatus; the liver and gallbladder
* Duodenum; hepatocytes and cells of the pancreatic lobules and ducts
Hepatopancreatic ampulla; hepatocytes and cells of the pancreatic islets
None of the above
677.
The fatty degeneration of liver and general obesity is prevented by lipotropic
factors. All belong to them, except:
A. Cholin, ethanolamine
B. Methionine, inositol
C. Serine
D. Vitamins B6, B10
E. * Alanin, leucine
678.
The fatty degeneration of liver at the conditions of Diabetes Mellitus and
starvation is possible, because in hepatocytes:
A. Decrease oxidation of fatty acids
B. Decrease synthesis of triacylglicerol
C. Lowering formation ketone bodies from fatty acids
D. Lowering formation of HDL
E. * Increase arrive of fatty acids from adipose tissues
679.
The first step in the utilization of proteins for energy is ________, which occurs in
the liver.
A. Beta oxidation
B. * Deamination
C. Hydrolysis
D. Amino acid synthesis
E. Decarboxilation
680.
The function of bile salts is to:
A. Bind with simple sugars
B. * Emulsify fats
C. Digest proteins
D. Absorb water
E. Regulate water-salt metabolism
681.
The functional state of liver, effectiveness of treatment and prognosis motion of
disease, estimate by such biochemical indexes of blood and urine, except:
A. AlAT
B. Gamma-glutamintranspeptidase
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Contents of albumins and globulins
E. * Diastase
682.
The functions of the gall bladder involve:
A. Contraction and synthesis
B. * Absorption and digestion
C. Contraction and absorption
D. Synthesis and absorption
683.
The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the _______________ to the
A. * Small intestines, liver
B. Small intestines, heart
C. Liver, heart
D. Stomach, heart
E. Small intestines, colon
684.
The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the _______________ to the
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Small intestines, liver

Small intestines, heart
Liver, heart
Stomach, heart
Small intestines, colon
685.
The hormone that promotes the flow of bile and of pancreatic juice containing
enzymes is:
A. * Secretin
B. Gastrin
C. Enterogastrone
D. All of the above
686.
The increase maintenance of indican in urine of patient with disbacterios of
intestine testifies about:
A. Kidney disease
B. * Normal harmless function of liver
C. Strengthening fermentation of carbohydratess in an intestine
D. Strengthening hydrolysis of fats
E. Violetion functions of liver
687.
The increase of total bilirubin content at the expense of indirect (free) fraction was
detected in the blood plasma of a patient suffering from icterus. There is also a high level
stercobilin in the feces and urine. The level of direct (linked) bilirubin in the blood
plasma is within the normal range. What type of icterus is observed in this case?
A. Machanical
B. Hepatic
C. * Hemolitic
D. Icterus of newborn
E. Gilbert disease
688.
The key intermediate product of carbohydrate metabolism glucose-6-phosphate
can transformed in a liver by such ways, except:
A. From glucose-6-phosphate glycogen is synthesed
B. Glucose-6-phosphate under influence of specific phosphates split to free glucose
C. Spliting by glycolisis to pyruvate
D. Spliting to CO2 and H2O with selection energy of ATP
E. * Transforms in uracyl
689.
The Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells found in the
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Intestine
D. * Liver
E. Kidney
690.
The liver contains special blood channels termed _____.
A. Sinusoids
B. Central vein
C. Hepatic cells
D. * Portal veins
691.
The liver is often the target organ for many chemicals with diverse structures
because
A. First pass uptake of xenobiotics readily occurs due to the thinness of the
sinusoidal endothelial cells.
B. The liver contains many transport mechanism that concentrate and store
substances, including xenobiotics, intracellularly.
C. The liver contains mechanisms for storage of heavy metals that can mediate the
formation of ROS.
D. * The liver contains the highest concentration of biotransforming enzymes
compared to other organs.
E. All of the above.
692.
The liver produces bile salts that aid in the digestion of:
A. * Fats
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Sugars
E. Vitamins
693.
The liver stores ______ for energy.
A. Nucleic acids
B. Glycogen
C. * Glucose
D. Vitamins
E. Simple proins
694.
The low level of what metabolite in hepatocytes does predetermine braking of
Krebs cycle and strengthens a ketogenesis?
A. ATP and CTP
B. ADP and AMP
C. Acetyl-KoA
D. * Oxaloacetate
E. Fatty acids
695.
The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is:
A. * Cytochrome P-450
B. Glutation S-transferase
C. NADH cytochrom P-450 resuctase
D. Glucuronil transferase
E. Pyruvatdehydrogenase
696.
The organ(s) of excretion is/are _______.
A. Skin
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
E. * EAll of the above
697.
The perenchimatose defeat of liver is accompanied decreases maintenance in
blood plasma of proteins, except:
A. Albumins
B. B-globulins
C. Glycoproteins
D. Fibrinogen
E. * E-globulins
698.
The primary function(s) of the liver is (are):
A. * Bile production
B. None of the above
C. Hematological regulation
D. All the above
E. Metabolic regulation
699.
The primary function(s) of the liver is (are):
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Bile production
Metabolic regulation
Hematological regulation
All of the above
None of the above
700.
The signs of jaundice appeared for a new-born child. Introduction small doses of
phenobarbital which induces the synthesis of UDP-glyukuroniltransferase resulted in the
improvement of the state of child. Which from the stated below processes is activated in a
liver under act of phenobarbital?
A. * Conugation
B. Microsomal oxidation
C. Respiratory chain
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Synthesis of glycogen
701.
There are different transformations of lipids in a liver, except:
A. Breaking up of complex lipids to the simple components
B. Synthesis of lipids, in particular - cholesterol
C. Oxidation of fatty acids
D. Synthesis of palmitic acid
E. * Synthesis of linolenic acid
702.
Through 24 ours of starvation, maintenance of glycogen in a liver falls till about a
zero. For providing of necessities of organism glucose the process of gluconeogenesis
intensifies in a liver. A gluconeogenesis is carried out from all of matters, except:
A. Amino acids
B. Glycerol
C. PVA
D. * Fructose
E. Lactat
703.
To the liver cholesterol come by such ways, after an exception:
A. With a meal
B. Synthesised in hepatocytes
C. Come from other tissues
D. From high density lipoproteins
E. * With chylomicrons
704.
Typical biochemical features of serum in obstructive jaundice include
A. * Raised bilirubin
B. Increased acid phosphatase
C. Increased alkaline phosphatase
D. Increased amylase
E. Hepatitis B surface antigen
705.
Ultrasound examination of a patient gave the possibility to establish an initial
diagnosis: cancer of the liver. What protein occurs in blood in this case?
A. A-globulin
B. Properdin
C. Paraproteins
D. C-reactive protein
E. * E-phetoprotein
706.
Under stress circumstances increases breaking up of glycogen of muscles, one of
intermediate metabolites is - glucose-6-phosphate. Why can not he serve as the source of
glucose, like it takes a place at breaking up of glycogen in a liver?
A. * In muscles there is not an enzyme of glucose-6-phosphate phosphatase and the
last does not convert into glucose
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the muscles glucose-1-phosphate convert into lactat

Glucose-6-phosphate does not test changes
Transformed into amino acids
Transformation of glucose is characteristic only for a liver
707.
Urea is synthesized in a liver from ammonia which appears in result of
desamination of such combinations, except:
A. Amino acids
B. Amins, mids
C. Purine bases
D. Pirimidine bases
E. * Choline
708.
Violation metabolism of copper is accompanied the deposit of it in a brain and
liver develops Vilson disease. The concentration of protein which is synthesized in a
liver decrease in blood:
A. Transferrin
B. * Ceruloplasmin
C. Feritin
D. Xantinoxidase
E. Carbanhydrase
709.
What coenzyme is needed for synthesis in the liver of cholesterol, higher fatty
acids, nucleic acids?
A. NADP
B. * NADPH
C. FMN
D. FAD
E. Tiamindiphosphate
710.
What enzyme transform glucose of meal in liver on glucose-6-phosphate?
A. Phosphoglucomutase
B. Phosphatase
C. * Hexokinase
D. Fructokinase
E. Glucosisomerase
711.
What is the goal of the P450 system (microsomes pinched off from endoplasmic
reticulum)?
A. Metabolism of substances
B. * Detoxification of substances
C. Increasing pH of compartments containing substances
D. Decreasing pH of compartments containing substances
E. A & B
712.
What protein, assigned for transport, does hemoglobin bind to in the
reticuloendotelial system of the liver?
A. * Haptoglobin
B. Albumin
C. Ferritin
D. Transferrin
E. Ceruloplasmin
713.
When liver glycogen levels are inadequate to supply glucose, especially to the
brain, amino acids and glycerol are used to produce ___________ in a process called
A. Glycogen; glycogenesis
B. * Glucose; gluconeogenesis
C. Lipids; lipogenesis
D. Glucose-6-phosphate; glycogenolysis

714.
Which amino acids does not take participating in the synthesis of urea in a liver?
A. * Alanin
B. Arginine
C. Aspartat
D. Ornitin
E. Citrulline
715.
Which bile acids in most promote formation of gall-stones?
A. Cholic
B. * Litocholic
C. Glycocholic
D. Taurocholic
E. Desoxycholic
716.
Which blood vessel will transport nutrient molecules that have been absorbed by
the small intestine to the liver?
A. Hepatic artery
B. Renal vein
C. Hepatic portal artery
D. * Hepatic portal vein
E. Inferior vena cava
717.
Which component in bile helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum?
A. Bilirubin
B. Biliverdin
C. * Bile salts
D. Cholesterol
E. Ketone bodies
718.
Which from the adopted substances are arrive gluconeogenesis in a liver?
A. Amino acids
B. Piruvat, lactat
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Glucocorticoids
E. * All taken together
719.
Which from the adopted substances that are synthesized in liver do not go to the
export, that not utillized other tissues?
A. Glucose
B. * Hormonoids
C. Fats
D. Ketone bodies
E. Proteins of blood plasma
720.
Which from the below matters is promotes in the supply of fatty acids to the liver?
A. Albumins
B. Tiroksin
C. Lipase of fatty tissues
D. Glucagon
E. * All adopted components
721.
Which from the stated below processes does a major role belong in
desintoxification of toxic substances in a liver?
A. Demetilation
B. Pereamination
C. Desamination
D. * Hydroxylating
E. Decarboxilation
722.
Which metabolic ways of carbohydrates are not stimulated during rest after hard
physical work?
A. Glycogenesis
B. Gluconeogenesis from lactat
C. * Glycolisis
D. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids
E. Transformation of carbohydrates on the fats
723.
Which metabolic ways transformation of glucose-6-phosphate will prevail in a
liver at the condition strengthening of biosynthetic processes?
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycolisis
C. Transformation of glucose-6-phosphate on free glucose and phosphate
E. Glycogenesis
724.
Which molecule represents the storage form of glucose in the liver?
A. * Glycogen
B. Glucagon
C. Disaccharide
D. Lactic acid
E. Pyruvate
725.
Which of the following are liver waste products?
A. * Bilirubin
B. Bile salts
C. Cholesterol
D. Electrolytes
E. A and C
726.
Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct?
A. * Constipation--hard and dry feces
B. Ulcer--open sore in the wall of the stomach
C. Peritonitis--inflammation of the cecum
D. Cirrhosis--liver first becomes fatty and then replaced by fibrous scar tissue
E. Jaundice--abnormally large amount of bilirubin in the skin and the whites of the
eyes
727.
Which of the following has the most affinity for oxygen?
A. Hemoglobin F
B. Blood substitute
C. * Hemoglobin A
D. Hemoglobin S
E. Bens-Jonce protein
728.
Which of the following is correct regarding hepatic failure?
A. The cardinal features are hepatic encephalopathy, coagulopathy, and jaundice.
B. Most cases following a sudden massive insult to a previous healthy liver.
C. * The activated partial thromoplastin time (APTT) serves as a good indicator of
the severity of hepatic failure.
D. Prognosis is generally good for recovery.
729.
Which of the following is correct regarding liver function tests?
A. An isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase level implies biliary disease
B. * Liver function tests are always deranged in patients with significant liver
disease
C. An isolated rise in A-glutamyltransferase (GGT) is often seen in alcoholics
D. Mild elevations of bilirubin, alanine aminotransferase, and aspartate

aminotransferase
E. All of the above
730.
Which of the following is not a function of the adult liver?
A. Glycogen storage
B. * Detoxification
C. Synthesis of clotting proteins
D. Erythropoiesis
E. All of the above
731.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A. Converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted
along with bile salts in bile
B. * Detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances
C. Produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids
D. Produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum
E. Makes plasma proteins from amino acids
732.
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
A. Convert glucose to glycogen
B. Convert glycogen to glucose
C. Detoxify poisonous substances
D. Produce blood plasma proteins
E. * All of the above are functions of the liver
733.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A. Converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted
along with bile salts in bile
B. Detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances
C. Produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids
D. * Produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum
E. Makes plasma proteins from amino acids
734.
Which of the following is NOT a phase II substrate?
A. Glucuronic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Amino acids
E. * Alcohol
735.
Which of the following is true about jaundice?
A. * Pale stools and dark urine are characteristic of the jaundice of haemalytic
anaemia
B. Bilirubin is used by the liver in the synthesis of red blood cells
C. Itching may be a sign of obstructive jaundice
D. Putting a danger of infection sticker on blood samples from an intravenous drug
user with jaundice is optional
736.
Which of the following organs functions to remove poisonous substances and
works to keep the contents of blood constant?
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Pancreas
E. * Liver
737.
Which of the following organs produces bile?
A. Gallbladder
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Liver
Duodenum
Stomach
Large intestine
738.
Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I?
A. Oxidations
B. Reductions
C. * Conjugations
D. Deaminations
E. Hydrolyses
739.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about fat digestion?
A. Bile salts are needed to emulsify fat into fat droplets.
B. Lipase digests the fat droplets into glycerol and fatty acid molecules while
removing water molecules
C. Glycerol and fatty acids enter the cells of the villi.
D. * Glycerol and fatty acids, after entering the cells of the villi, rejoin and are
packaged as lipoprotein droplets
E. Lipoprotein droplets, which are formed in the cells of the villi, enter the lacteals
740.
Which of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver?
A. * C
B. D
C. B12
D. A
E. E
741.
Which organ has the most metabolically active cells?
A. Pancreas
B. * Liver
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
E. Lung
742.
Which substanses activate a gluconeogenesis?
A. Glucagon
B. Oxaloacetate
C. PVA
D. Glucockortikoids
E. * All answers are correct
743.
Which transformation of glucose-6-phosphate will prevail in a liver at a reach in
the organism of toxic matters?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
E. Glykogenogenesis
744.
Which way is real from the adopted ways the using of cholesterol in a liver?
A. Formation of bile acids
B. Secretion in a bile and leadingout from organism
C. * All of ways are use
D. Reducing membranes of hepatocytes
E. Transport to other tissues
745.
Which way transformation galactose in a liver on glucose-6-phosphate?
A. By specific hecsoisomerase
B. Glicolitic to pyruvat, and farther by gluconeogenesis
746.
747.
748.
749.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
C. By glucomutase
D. By cytidiltransferase
E. * Galactose galactose-1-phosphatepglucose-1-phosphatepglucose-6-phosphate
ADH test is based on the measurement of
A. * Specific gravity of urine
B. Concentration of urea in urine
C. Concentration of urea in blood
D. Volume of urine in ml/minute
E. A and D
An early feature of renal disease is
A. * Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work
B. Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity
C. Decrease in filtration factor
D. Decrease in renal plasma flow
E. All of the above
Fixation of specific gravity of urine to 1.010 is found in
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Polydypsia
C. Cystinosis
D. * Chronic glomerulonephritis
Polyuria can occur in
A. * Diabetes mellitus
B. Diarrhoea
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. High fever
E. All of the above
Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. * Diabetes insipidus
C. Dehydration
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. A and D
____________ is hydrolytically cleaved to directly yield urea in the urea cycle.
A. ornithine
B. glutamate
C. * arginine
D. carbamoyl phosphate
A diuresis of a healthy adult is about:
A. * 1000 2000 ml daily
B. 500 1000 ml daily
C. 1000 3000 ml daily
D. 100 500 ml daily
E. 3000 5000 ml daily
A diuresis of a healthy adult is about:
A. * 1000 2000 ml daily
B. 500 1000 ml daily
C. 1000 3000 ml daily
D. 100 500 ml daily
E. 3000 5000 ml daily
A pH of urine in a norm is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
755.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
756.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
757.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
758.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
759.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
760.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
761.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
762.
A.
B.
C.
* 5,3 6,8
3,5 5
2,1 4,3
1,45 1,85
5,5 7,5
About the kidney insufficiency testify decrease of filtration to:
* 40 ml/min
50 ml/min
70 ml/min
60 ml/min
80 ml/min
About the kidney insufficiency testify decrease of filtration to:
* 40 ml/min
50 ml/min
70 ml/min
60 ml/min
80 ml/min
Acid-Base balance is important for:
Normal enzyme functions.
Normal metabolite solubility.
Normal membrane potentials.
A and C
* All of the above
Addis test is the measure of
* Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work
Secretory function of liver
Excretory function of liver
Activity of parenchymal cells of liver
All of the above
ADH test is based on the measurement of
* Specific gravity of urine
Concentration of urea in urine
Concentration of urea in blood
Volume of urine in ml/minute
Both a and B
Albumin-globulin coefficient of blood plasma of healthy adult is:
3,0-4,0
1,0-1,5
5,0-6,5
8,0-10,0
* 1,5-2,0
All the following are true about phenylketonuria except
Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase
Mental retardation
* Increased urinary excretion of hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid
Decrease serotonin formation
C and D
All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct except
Phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine
Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate is increased
It can be controlled by giving a low phenylalanine diet
D. * It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and

melanin
E. Both A and D
763.
Amount of uric acid which excreted daily is:
A. Not excreted
B. 10-12 g/day
C. 4-8 mg/day
D. * 270-600 mg/day
E. 2-5 g/day
764.
An early feature of renal disease is
A. * Impairment of the capacity of the tubule to perform osmotic work
B. Decrease in maximal tubular excretory capacity
C. Decrease in filtration factor
D. Decrease in renal plasma flow
E. Both A and D
765.
are correct except
A. It is completely non-toxic
B. It is completely filtered by glomeruli
C. It is not reabsorbed by tubular cells
D. * It is secreted by tubular cells
E. Both C and D
766.
At a biochemical inspection of a patient were found a hyperglycemia, glucosuria,
high urines density, in blood found - enhanceable amount of glucocorticoids. At the same
time in blood and urine found excess of 17 ketosteroids. What type of diabetes
developed:
A. * Steroid diabetes
B. Diabetes Mellitus, the I type
C. Diabetes Mellitus , the II type
D. Kidney diabetes
E. Hepatic diabetes
767.
At what disease colour of urine is darkly brown?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. * Hemolytic anemia
D. Acute nephritis
E. Diabetes insipidus
768.
At what disease colour of urine is darkly brown?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. * Hemolytic anemia
D. Acute nephritis
769.
At what disease glomerular filtration is always decreased?
A. Acute nephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Amyloidosis of kidneys
E. * Acute kidneys insufficiency
770.
At what disease the excretions of calcium diminish with urine?
A. Icenko Cushing disease
B. Osteomalacia
C. Addison disease
D. * Rickets
E. Aldosteronism
771.
At what disease the excretions of calcium increase with urine?
A. Rickets
B. * Osteomalacia
C. Addison disease
D. Icenko Cushing disease
E. Aldosteronism
772.
Average creatinine clearance in an adult man is about
A. 54 ml/min
B. 75 ml/min
C. * 110 ml/min
D. 130 ml/min
E. None of above
773.
Benedicts test is less likely to give weakly positive results with concentrated
urine due to the action of
A. Urea
B. * Uric acid
C. Ammonium salts
D. Phosphates
E. All of these
774.
Benzoic acid in the organism is transformed to hypuric acid (Quick's test). Name
the compound it connects with:
A. * glycine
B. glycocol
C. valine
D. alanine
E. threonine
775.
By what method is conducted quantitative determination of glucose in urine?
A. Felling
B. Roberts - Stolnikov
C. Gmelin and Rosenbakh
D. * Altgauzen
E. Salkovskiy
776.
By what test is conducted quantitative determination of proteins in urine?
A. Altgauzen
B. * Roberts Stolnikov
C. Gmelin and Rosenbakh
D. Felling
E. Salkovskiy
777.
Choose the normal level of relative density of urine.
A. * 1006 - 1020
B. 1015 - 1012
C. 1011 - 1013
D. 1004 - 1010
E. 1010 - 1016
778.
Choose the substance of protein nature which is produced in kidneys:
A. Melatonin
B. * Eritropoetin
C. Epinephrine
D. Progesterone
E. Aldosterone
779.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
780.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
781.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
782.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
783.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
784.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
785.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
786.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
787.
A.
B.
C.
Choose the substance of protein nature which is produced in kidneys:

Melatonin
* Erythropoietin
Epinephrine
Progesterone
Aldosterone
Chyluria can be detected by addition of the following to the urine:
Sulphosalicylic acid
Nitric acid
Acetic anhydride
* Chloroform
Ethanol
Creatinine coefficient for male is:
10-25
* 20-30
50-100
1-10
2-6
Cystinuria results from inability to
Metabolise cysteine
Convert cystine into cysteine
Incorporate cysteine into proteins
* Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules
Both C and D
Cystinuria results from inability to
Metabolise cysteine
Convert cystine into cysteine
Incorporate cysteine into proteins
* Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules
Only A and D
Daily excretion of creatinine with urine is:
3-5 g
4-6 g
8-10 g
7-9 g
* 1-2 g
Daily excretion of creatinine with urine is:
3-5 g
4-6 g
8-10 g
7-9 g
* 1-2 g
Daily excretion of urea with urine is:
20 35 g
20 35 g
20 35 g
* 20 35 g
20 35 g
Daily excretion of urea with urine is:
3-5 g
4-6 g
8-10 g
D. 7-9 g
E. * 1-2 g
788.
Daily excretion of uric acid with urine is:
A. * 0,6 1 g
B. 0,5 1,5 g
C. 2 3 g
D. 1,5 3,5 g
E. 0,1 0,5 g
789.
Determination of which products in urine is important for the estimation of
adrenal cortex function?
A. * 17-ketosteroids
B. Cholesterol
C. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantren
D. Ketone bodies
E. Lanosterol
790.
791.
For a patient was found the increase of maintenance of urea and creatinine in
blood and diminishing in urine. What are possible reasons of such state?
A. Main reason of such state it is disorder of detoxification, transport and excretion
of ammonia with urine
B. Main reason is a disease of liver
C. Such state appears at the disease of muscles
D. * Diseases which result in insufficiency of kidneys
E. Such state appears as a result of disorder of acid-base balance in an organism
792.
For diagnostic of acute inflammatory process in kidneys was conducted a specific
test - determination of such substance in urine:
A. Content of lactose
B. Activity of creatinkinase
C. Concentrations of creatin
D. Activity of pepsin
E. * Activity of alanine amino peptidase
793.
For what disease is the most proper urine with low density?
A. Itchenko - Cushing
B. Addison disease
C. * Diabetes insipidus
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Chronic pyelonephritis
794.
For what disease is the most proper urine with low density?
A. Itchenko - Cushing
B. Addison disease
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Chronic pyelonephritis
795.
Glomerular filtrate it is a:
A. Whole blood
B. Blood plasma with a proteins
C. * Blood plasma without any proteins
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
802.
803.
804.
D. Blood plasma without glucose

E. Blood plasma without glucose and proteins
Glomerular filtration mostly depends on
A. * Permeability of glomerular filter
B. Endothelia of capillaries
C. Level of filtration pressure
D. Hydrostatical pressure
E. Oncotic pressure
Glomerular filtration mostly depends on
A. * Permeability of glomerular filter
B. Endothelia of capillaries
C. Level of filtration pressure
D. Hydrostatical pressure
E. Oncotic pressure
Haematuria can occur in
A. Haemolytic anaemia
B. Mismatched blood transfusion
C. Yellow fever
D. * Stone in urinary tract
E. All of these
Haematuria can occur in all of the following except
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Cancer of urinary tract
C. Stone in urinary tract
D. * Mismatched blood transfusion
E. Both C and D
Hormone associated with diuresis:
A. Oxytocine
B. * Vasopressin
C. Both oxytocine and vasopresin
D. Neither oxytocine nor vasopressin
E. ACTH
hours and, then, measure
A. Serum urea
B. Serum creatinine
C. Urine output in one hour
D. * Specific gravity of urine
E. Both C and D
How is diminishing of day's diuresis named?
A. Anuria
B. Polyuria
C. * Oliguria
D. Nicturia
E. Polakiuriya
How is diminishing of day's diuresis named?
A. Anuria
B. Poliuria
C. * Oliguria
D. Nicturia
E. Polakiuriya
How is frequent urination named?
A. * Polakiuria
B.
C.
D.
E.
805.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
806.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
807.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
808.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
809.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
810.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
811.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
812.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Stranguria
Anuria
Nicturia
Polyuria
How is frequent urination named?
* Polakiuria
Stranguria
Anuria
Nicturia
Poliuria
How is the increase of acidity of urine named?
* Hyperaciduriya
Glucosuria
Ketonuria
Creatinuriya
Hyperacidity
How is the increase of acidity of urine named?
* Hyperaciduriya
Glucosuria
Ketonuria
Creatinuriya
Hyperacidity
How is the increase of day's diuresis named?
Anuria
Polakiuria
Oligouria
Ischuria
* Polyuria
How is the increase of day's diuresis named?
Anuria
Polakiuria
Oligouria
Ischuria
* Poliuria
How long do kidneys need for proceeding of imbalanced acid-base state?
30 sec. 1 minutes
1 3 minutes
* 10 - 20 hours
5 10 minutes
1 - 2 hours
How many ascorbic acid in normal condition is excreted per day with urine:
* 20-30 mg
113,5-170,5 mg
10-28 g
80-100 mg
18-33 g
How many ascorbic acid in normal condition is excreted per day with urine:
* 20-30 mg
113,5-170,5 mg
10-28 g
80-100 mg
18-33 g
813.
How many grammes of potassium are contained in daily urine of healthy adult?
A. * 2 5 g
B. 0,5 1,5 g
C. 2 3 g
D. 1,5 3,5 g
E. 0,1 0,5 g
814.
How many grammes of proteins can lose with urine patients with a
glomerulonephritis daily?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 60 -70
D. * 20 - 40
E. 120 - 150
815.
How many litters of blood do flow daily through kidneys?
A. 200 300
B. 50 150
C. * 700 900
D. 15 35
E. 100 500
816.
How much time do kidneys need for proceeding of imbalanced acid-base state?
A. 30 sec. 1 minutes
B. 1 3 minutes
C. * 10 - 20 hours
D. 5 10 minutes
E. 1 - 2 hours
817.
In a norm the clearance of endogenous creatinine is:
A. * 110 150 ml/min
B. 100 250 ml/min
C. 110 200 ml/min
D. 10 150 ml/min
E. 10 100 ml/min
818.
In humans the sulphur of methionine and cysteine is excreted mainly as
A. Ethereal sulphate
B. * Inorganic sulphate
C. Sulphites
D. Thioorganic compound
E. All of these
819.
In the urine of a patient with liver disease is absent urobilinogen. It is connected
with the affection of:
A. stercobilin formation
B. * direct bilirubin formation
C. kidneys function
D. transformation of bilirubin in the intestine
E. bile passage to the intestine
820.
In what part of nephron does take place filtration of urine?
A. * In a glomerulus
B. In the loop of Henle
C. In a proksimal canaliculi
D. In a distal canaliculi
E. In the collective tubes
821.
Is there what normal concentration of urea in blood?
A. 3 - 8 gramme/l
B.
C.
D.
E.
1 - 3 mmol/l
* 3 - 8 mmol/l
3 - 10 mmol/l
10 - 15 mmol/l
822.
Ketoacidosis refers to the metabolic acidosis caused by the overproduction of
ketoacids. The classic form of ketoacidosis is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. All of the
following would occur in a patient suffering from a diabetes-induced metabolic acidosis
(diabetic ketoacidosis) EXCEPT:
A. Deep, rapid breathing causes a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
(PaCO2) in the blood.
B. The removal of carbon dioxide through deep, rapid breathing results in a rise in
the blood pH
C. When endogenous acid production rises sharply, net acid excretion cannot keep
pace and the bicarbonate lost in buffering is not replaced causing plasma HCO3levels to fall
D. * Serum bicarbonate levels will decrease after the administration of an insulin
injection
E. The fall in insulin causes fat cells to liberate fatty acids, which flood the
hepatocytes
823.
Laboratory test of a patients urine with intestines dysbacteriosis established the
increase of indican. It testifies:
A. kidney disease
B. * normal neutralization liver function
C. increased fat hydrolysis
D. liver malfunction
E. vitamins F hypovitaminosis
824.
Maple syrup urine disease is the disorder of the:
A. tyrosine metabolism caused by the absence of homogentisate oxidase
B. phenylalanine metabolism caused by an absence or deficiency of phenylalanine
hydroxylase
C. * oxidative decarboxylation of o-ketoacids derived from valine, isoleucine, and
leucine caused by the defect of branched-chain dehydrogenase
D. glutamate metabolism caused by the defect of glutamate dehydrogenase
825.
Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of
A. Sulphur-containing amino acids
B. Aromatic amino acids
C. * Branched chain amino acids
D. Dicarboxylic amino acids
E. B and C
826.
Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of
A. Sulphur-containing amino acids
B. Aromatic amino acids
C. * Branched chain amino acids
D. Dicarboxylic amino acids
827.
Maximum urea clearance is
A. 54 ml/min
B. * 75 ml/min
C. 110 ml/min
D. 130 ml/min
E. Both C and D
828.
Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of

A. Sodium and calcium
B. Sodium and potassium
C. * Sodium and chloride
D. Potassium and chloride
E. Potassium and calcium
829.
Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular secretion of
A. Sodium
B. * Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate
E. Calcium
830.
Name the compound in the urine, which is a test of protein putrefaction processes
in the intestine:
A. A.Urates
B. B.Urea
C. Creatinine
D. * Indican
E. Lactic acid
831.
Name the end product of proteins metabolism, which is excreted with urine:
A. Uric acid
B. * Urea
C. Indican
D. Hyaluronic acid
E. Creatinine
832.
Name the incretory function of kidneys
A. Adjusting of acid-base balance
B. Excretory function
C. Adjusting of water salt exchange
D. * Adjusting of blood pressure, erythropoesis
E. Adjusting of electrolyte exchange
833.
Name the incretpory function of kidneys
A. Adjusting of acid-base balance
B. Excretory function
C. Adjusting of water salt exchange
D. * Adjusting of blood pressure, erythropoesis
E. Adjusting of electrolyte exchange
834.
Name the matter in the urine, which is a test of intensivity of protein putrefaction
processes in the intestine:
A. Urates
B. Urea
C. Creatinine
D. * Indican
E. Lactic acid
835.
pH of urine of healthy person is between:
A. 7-8
B. 8-10
C. 1.5-2.0
D. * 5.0-7.0
E. 4.0-5.0
836.
Physiological glycosuria is met with in
A. Renal glycosuria
B.
C.
D.
E.
837.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
838.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
839.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
840.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
841.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
842.
A.
B.
C.
* Alimentary glycosuria
Diabetes Mellitus
Alloxan diabetes
All of these
Poliuriya of patients with diabetes insipidus appears as a result:
* Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood
Insufficient level of insulin in blood
Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic
pressure of urine
Excessive intake of liquid
Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of
urine
Poliuriya of patients with diabetes mellitus appears as a result:
* Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic
pressure of urine
Insufficient level of glucagon in blood
Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood
urine
Principle of quantitative determination of proteins in urine method is based on:
* Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring
on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins
in urine 0,033g/l
Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an acetic acid appears a ring
on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins
in urine 0,033g/l
Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an sulphosalicilic acid appears
a ring on the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of
proteins in urine 0,033g/l
Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring on
the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in
urine 0,33g/l
Empiric fixed fact, that at stratification of urine on an nitric acid appears a ring on
the margin of both liquids between 2th and 3th minutes at content of proteins in
urine 0,0033g/l
Renal glycosuria occurs due to
Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli
Increased secretion of glucose by renal tubular cells
Decreased reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells
* Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose in tubular cells
Both C and D
Renal threshold for bilirubinglucuronids is:
60 ?mol/l
* 35 ?mol /l
20 ?mol /l
25 ?mol /l
30 ?mol /l
Renal threshold for glucose is:
8-10 ?mol l/l
35 ?mol /l
* 8-10 mmol/l
D. 10-12 mmol/l
E. 10-12 ?mol /l
843.
Small amount of urinary oxalates is contributed by the amino acid:
A. * Glycine
B. Tyrosine
C. Alanine
D. Serine
E. Both A and B
844.
Specific gravity of urine increases in
A. * Diabetes mellitus
C. Polydypsia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. All of the above
845.
Standard urea clearance is
A. * 54 ml/min
B. 75 ml/min
C. 110 ml/min
D. 130 ml/min
E. None of above
846.
Structural functional unit of kidneys is:
A. Glomerulus
B. Kidney papilla
C. Capsule of Bowmen
D. Neuron
E. * Nephron
847.
Syndrome of Lesch-Nyhan hard hyperuricemia is the genetic deficiency of such
enzyme:
A. Xantine oxidase
B. Adenosine deaminase
C. Hypoxanthine oxidase
D. Phosphorylase
E. * Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
848.
The active form of vitamin D (1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol) maintain in an
organism a constant level of:
A. Potassium and phosphorus
B. * Calcium and phosphorus
C. S. Iron and calcium
D. Iron and magnesium
E. Magnesium and manganese
849.
The amino acid which detoxicated benzoic acid to form hippuric acid is
A. * Glycine
B. Alanine
C. Serine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Tyrosine
850.
The amount of urea in patient's urine is normal. Which of the listed indexes are
true in this case?
A. 10-15 g
B. 20-40 g
C. 10-35 g
D. * 25-30 g
E. 50-60 g
851.
The concentration of what substance does increase in the blood at disorders of
excretory function of kidneys?
A. Uric acid and creatinine
B. * Creatinine and urea
C. Creatinine and creatin
D. Creatinine and indican
E. Uric acid and indican
852.
The concentration of which substance is increased at an alkaptonuria?
A. Leukotrienes
B. Phenyl-pyruvic acid
C. Melatonin
D. * Gomogentisic acid
E. Erythropoietin
853.
The constant increase of uric acid concentration in blood is named:
A. Uremia
B. Hyperazotemiya
C. Hyperacidaminemiya
D. Hyperlaktatemiya
E. Hyperuricemia
854.
The excretion of chlorides with urine decreases at all of the followings states,
except:
A. Vomiting
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Diarrhea
D. * Addison disease
E. Icenko Cushing disease
855.
The insufficient production of mineralocorticoids (Addison diseases, bronze
diseases) is accompanied with muscle weakness. This is explained by the excretion with
urine increased amount of ions of:
A. * Na+
B. K+
C. H+
D. Ca2+
E. Mg2+
856.
The kidney threshold of glucose is:
A. * 8 9 mmol/l
B. 5 10 mmol/l
C. 1 5 mmol/l
D. 1 2 mmol/l
E. 10 15 mmol/l
857.
The kidney threshold of glucose is:
A. * 8 10 mmol/l
B. 5 10 mmol/l
C. 1 5 mmol/l
D. 1 2 mmol/l
E. 10 15 mmol/l
858.
The level of phenyl-pyruvic acid in urine increases at:
A. Osteomalacia
B. * Phenylketonuria
C. Addison disease
D. Icenko Cushing disease
859.
860.
861.
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
867.
E. Aldosteronism
The main pigment of urine is:
A. Bilirubin
B. Uroeritrin
C. Uroporfirin
D. Urobilinoid
E. * Urochrome
The man's daily secretion of creatinine with urine is:
A. 3-5 g
B. 4-6 g
C. 8-10 g
D. 7-9 g
E. * 1-2 g
The most dangerous for life such effect of acute kidney insufficiency:
A. Overhydratation
B. Hypokaliemia
C. Hypermagniyemia
D. * Hyperkaliemia
E. Hyperkal'ciemia
The normal organic components of urine are all of the followings, except:
A. Urea
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. * Glucose
D. Uric acid
E. Creatinine
The pathological components of urine are all of the followings, except:
A. Ketone bodies
B. Blood
C. * Amino acid
D. Bile pigments
E. Glucose
The polysaccharide used in assessing the glomerular fittration rate (GFR) is
A. Glycogen
B. Agar
C. * Inulin
D. Hyaluronic acid
E. All of these
The possible reason of uric acid excretion decrease:
A. Action of ionizing an radiation
B. * Kidney insufficiency
C. Leucosis
D. Burns
E. Malignant tumor
The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from
A. 0.9000.999
B. * 1.0031.030
C. 1.0001.001
D. 1.1011.120
E. 1.999 2.111
The test of Reberg allows to define:
A. Transport of electrolytes
B. Concentration ability of kidneys
C. Plasma blood flow

D. * Glomerular filtration, reabsorption
E. Secretion
868.
The test of Reberg allows to define:
A. Transport of electrolytes
B. Concentration ability of kidneys
C. Plasma blood flow
D. * Glomerular filtration, reabsorption
E. Secretion
869.
Urine has a smell of rotten apples at presence in of:
A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. * Ketone bodies
D. Uric acid
E. Indican
870.
Urine of patient after staying with oxygen becomes red. Biochemical research of
urine set the enhanceable excretion of protoporphyrin IX that is the marker of disorders
of synthesis:
A. Bilirubin
B. Purine nucleotides
C. Amino acids
D. * Hem
E. Pyrimidine nucleotides
871.
What area of nephron does take part in the concentration of urine?
A. Glomerulus
B. * Henles loop
C. Distal canaliculi
D. Proksimal canaliculi
E. Collective tubes
872.
What area of nephron does take part in the concentration of urine?
A. Glomerulus
B. * Henles loop
C. Distal canaliculi
D. Proksimal canaliculi
E. Collective tubes
873.
What basic event in pathogenesis of chronic kidneys insufficiency?
A. * All below transferred
B. Decline of glomerular filtration
C. Hyperazotemia
D. Disorders of water electrolyte metabolism
E. Hyperkaliemia
874.
What changes in urine can be a hyperglycemia accompanied?
A. * Appearance of glucose
B. Appearance of proteins
C. Appearance of bilirubin
D. Appearance of urobilin
E. Appearance of indican
875.
What changes in urine can testify kidney insufficiency?
A. * Density less than 1,010
B. An acetone in urine
C. Absence of proteins in urine
D. Excess of urates
876.
877.
878.
879.
880.
881.
882.
883.
884.
E. Bacterias in urine
What changes in urine can testify kidney insufficiency?
A. * Density less than 1,010
B. An acetone in urine
C. Absence of proteins in urine
D. Excess of urates
E. Bacteria in urine
What color of urine appears after its oxidation at alkaptonuria?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Brown
E. * Black
What content of mineral components is in daily urine of healthy adult?
A. * 15 25 g
B. 5 15 g
C. 20 30 g
D. 15 35 g
E. 1 5 g
What does hematuria mean?
A. Appearance of glucose in urine
B. * Appearance of blood in urine
C. Appearance of acetone in urine
D. Appearance of bile pigments in urine
E. Appearance of porphyrin in urine
What does hematuria mean?
A. Appearance of glucose in urine
B. * Appearance of blood in urine
C. Appearance of acetone in urine
D. Appearance of bile pigments in urine
E. Appearance of porphyrin in urine
What does prevent hyperuricemia:
A. Disorders of urinary acid excretion
B. Disintegration of DNK
C. Radiation defeat of cell
D. Toxemia of pregnancy
E. Application of structural analogue of hypoxanthine
What index of blood does represent the nitrogen excretory function of kidneys ?
A. Urea
B. Residual nitrogen
C. Uric acid
D. * Creatinine
E. Electrolytes
What index of blood does represent the nitrogen excretory function of kidneys ?
A. Urea
B. Residual nitrogen
C. Uric acid
D. * Creatinine
E. Electrolytes
What is average index of urines pH of healthy people at the mixed feed?
A. About 4,0
B. About 5,0
885.
886.
887.
888.
889.
890.
891.
892.
893.
C. * About 6,0
D. About 3,0
E. About 2,0
What is average index of urines pH of healthy people at the mixed feed?
A. About 4,0
B. About 5,0
C. * About 6,0
D. About 3,0
E. About 2,0
What is the basic factor in pathogenesis of edema at an acute nephritis?
A. * Decline of glomerular filtration
B. Increase of permeability of capillaries
C. Decline of secretion of ADH
D. Decline of sodium excretion
E. Secondary hyperaldosteronism
What is the basic factor in pathogenesis of edema at an acute nephritis?
A. * Decline of glomerular filtration
B. Increase of permeability of capillaries
C. Decline of secretion of ADH
D. Decline of sodium excretion
E. Secondary hyperaldosteronism
What is the cause of primary enzymo-pathologies?
A. Liver diseases.
B. * Genetic disorders.
C. Trauma.
D. Ischemia.
E. All of these
What is the main reason of proteinuria?
A. * Increase of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney
B. Decline of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney
C. Increase of osmolality of primary urine
D. Increase of osmolality of the secondary urine
E. Decrease of osmolality of primary urine
What is the main reason of proteinuria?
A. * Increase of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney
B. Decline of permeability of filtration barrier of kidney
C. Increase of osmolality of primary urine
D. Increase of osmolality of the secondary urine
E. Decrease of osmolality of primary urine
What is the normal ratio between a day and night diuresis?
A. * 3 : 1
B. 1 : 1
C. 9 : 1
D. 6 : 1
E. 7 : 1
What is the simplest method for determination of urine pH:
A. * With the litmus paper
B. With biuret reaction
C. The Folls reaction
D. By the method of Altgauzen
E. With the ureometer
What is used for determination of urines density?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
894.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
895.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
896.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
897.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
898.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
899.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
900.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
901.
A.
B.
C.
D.
PhEC
Densitometer
* Urometer
Spectrophotometer
No any correct answer
What level of urines density at oliguriya?
Close to low
Low
Normal
* High
Close to normal
What level of urines density at oliguriya?
Close to low
Low
Normal
* High
Close to normal
What level of urines density at poliuriya?
Normal
High
* Low
Close to low
Close to normal
What level of urines density at polyuria?
Normal
High
* Low
Close to low
Close to normal
What method of research is characterized concentration property of kidneys?
Creatinine of blood
* Zimnitskiys test
Glomerular filtration
Electrolytes of blood
All of the above
?What pathology is developed in the absence of phenylalanine 4-monooxygenase?
* Phenylketonuria.
Alkaptonuria
Galactosemia.
Hyperglycemia.
Achilia
What substances are precursors of creatin?
Creatinine, glycine, arginine
Urinary acid, urea
Indican, organic acids
Hyaluronic acid, methionine
* Glycine, arginine, methionine
Which hormone increases sodium and water reabsorption by renal tubule cells:
A.Oxytocine
Aldosterone
Vasopressin
Prolactin
E. Cortisol
902.
Which hormone intensify reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules?
A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. foliculin
D. * aldosterone
E. vasopressin
903.
A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. foliculin
D. * aldosterone
E. vasopressin
904.
A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. foliculin
D. * aldosterone
E. vasopressin
905.
A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. foliculin
D. * aldosterone
E. vasopressin
906.
Which hormone regulates the excretion of chlorides with urine?
A. * Aldosterone
B. Insulin
C. Testosteron
D. Corticotropin
E. Cortisol
907.
Which hormones take part in formation of urine:
A. * Aldosterone and ADH
B. Insulin and STH
C. Aldosterone and TTH
D. Adrenalin and FSH
E. Oxytocin and ADH
908.
Which medicine is used to increase solubility of urates - salts of uric acid for
patients with gout:
A. Allopurinol
B. Chenodesoxycholic acid
C. Cholic acid and Allopyrinol
D. * Salts of lithium and anturan
E. Solutin of NaCl
909.
Which of the buffer systems supports constant urine pH?
A. citrate
B. hemoglobin
C. * hydrocarbonate
D. protein
E. oxyhemoglobin
910.
Which of the buffer systems majorily helps with the support of constant urine pH?
A. citrate
B.
C.
D.
E.
hemoglobin
* hydrocarbonate
protein
oxyhemoglobin
911.
Which of the buffer systems supports constant urine pH?
A. citrate
B. hemoglobin
C. * hydrocarbonate
D. protein
E. oxyhemoglobin
912.
Which of the following do you expect to see in a patient with metabolic acidosis
with no respiratory compensation?
A. Decrease of [H+] in blood
B. * Decrease of [HCO3-] in blood
C. Decrease of [H2CO3] in blood
D. Decrease of pCO2 in blood
E. Decrease of dissolved CO2 in blood
913.
Which of these is considered a secondary defense against changes in pH?
A. * Renal excretion of hydrogen ions
B. The bicarbonate buffer system
C. The phosphate buffer system
D. The protein buffer system
E. The hemoglobin buffer system
914.
Which statement(s) apply to urea?
A. highly soluble in water
B. produced in the liver
C. compound used as a means of removing excess nitrogen
D. * all of the above
915.
Which substance appears in urine by a secretion?
A. * Ammonia
B. Uric acid
C. Glucose
D. Ions of calcium
E. Proteins
916.
Which substance appears in urine by a secretion?
A. * Ammonia
B. Uric acid
C. Glucose
D. Ions of calcium
E. Proteins
917.
Which substance causes the decrease of level of uric acid in blood and urine:
A. Antimycin
B. minopterin
C. Barbiturates
D. * Allopurinol
E. AMP
918.
Which test is used for the detection of blood in urine?
A. * Benzidine test
B. Ninhidrin reaction
C. Biuret reaction
D. Method of Al'thauzen
E. All of the above are correct

919.
Which types of polyuria do you know?
A. Physiological and pathological
B. Real and unreal
C. * Renal and extra renal
D. Pancreatic and nonpancreatic
E. Primary and secondary
920.
With urine of a healthy adult is excreted the following product of bilirubin
disintegration:
A. urobilin
B. stercobilin
C. mesobilin
D. biliverdin
921.
verdoglobin 1. muscles is increased
A. After a resistance training session the rate of protein synthesis in the exercised
muscles is increased
B. After a resistance training session the rate of protein breakdown in the exercised
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. * Protein cannot be used as a fuel for exercise
E. Exercise increases the rate of secretion of growth hormone
922.
A continuous supply of __________ is necessary for muscle contraction.
A. * ATP
B. Proteins
C. Cells
D. Water
E. Vitamins
923.
A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it
A. * Consists of cells with much intercellular material between them
B. Has no blood supply to the tissue
C. Covers the outside of organs
D. Commonly is found lining body cavities
E. Consists of cells with smal extracellular material between them
924.
A muscle fibre relaxes when:
A. * The nerve stimulus is removed
B. The nerve stimulus is too forceful
C. The actin binding sites are uncovered
D. The actin binding sites are saturated
E. All the ATP is used up
925.
A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be
described as
A. Striated voluntary
B. * Striated involuntary
C. Nonstriated voluntary
D. Nonstriated involuntary
926.
A rheumaric arthritis is more frequent combined with disease?
A. Gald blader illness
B. Gout
C. * Rheumatism
D. Urolithiasis
E. Bronchial asthma
927.
A tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and chondrocytes is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adipose.
Blood.
Bone.
Cartilage.
* Dense connective tissue.
928.
Actin and myosin filaments are found in ____ tissue.
A. Epithelial
B. * Connective
C. Muscle
D. Nervous
E. Blood
929.
After calcium ions have been released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they:
A. Initiate an action potential
B. Cause sodium channels to open in the sarcolemmal membrane
C. * Bind to troponin
D. Bind to actin
E. Cause oxygen to be released from myoglobin
930.
After microscopic examination, an unknown tissue was found to have numerous
white and yellow fibers. What is your diagnosis as to this type of tissue?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. * Smooth muscle tissue
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Adipose tissue
E. Reticular fibers
931.
After wound's recovery on its place scar appeared. What matter is the main
component of scar's connective tissue?
A. Keratan sulfate
B. Elastin
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Chondroitin sulfate
E. * Collagene
932.
Aggregates of mucin detained water which provides his viscesity and protective
action of mucin. It is possible because to the structure of mucin entered:
A. * Glucuronic acid and N-acetylgalactosamin
B. Cholesterol
C. Phospholipids
D. Pentoses
E. Nucleic acid
933.
Aging affects connective tissues in which of the following ways?
A. * Loss of pliability and resiliency
B. Decreased efficiency in tissue repair and wound healing
C. Joint pains and brittle bones
D. All of the above
E. Increase pliability and resiliency
934.
Amino acid remnants, most often met in collagene are:
A. Tryptophane, oxilysine, cysteine, valine
B. Tryptophane, cysteine, glycine, methionine
C. Lysine, arginine, cysteine, tryptophane
D. * Oxiproline, oxilysine, glycine, proline
E. Aminosuccinamic, glutamine, lysine
935.
Ammonia is detoxificated in a liver by converting into urea. Transport of
ammonia from skeletal muscles into liver is carried out by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Alanine
Histidine
Glycine
Serine
Aspartat
936.
An action potential arriving at the motor endplate causes release of:
A. * Acetylcholine which traverses the neuromuscular junction
B. Sodium ions which binds to sodium receptors on the muscle membrane
C. Calcium ions which initiate an action potential along the muscle fibre
D. Noradrenaline which increases muscle metabolic activity
937.
are called:
A. * Actin and myosin
B. Progesterone and testosterone
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Albumins and globulins
E. Calmodulin and actin
938.
As individuals age, epithelia become
A. Heavier
B. Thicker
C. * Thinner
E. All of the above
939.
At intensive manual labour quickly diminish supplies of carbonhydratess which
are stymulator of gluconeogenesis in liver. Which from noted amino acids synthesized in
muscles from pyruvic acid, enters liver and here utillized for the synthesis of glucose?
A. Valine
B. Isoleucine
C. * Alanin
D. Leucin
E. Cystein
940.
At parodontose there is destruction of proteins and polysaccharides components of
connective tissue. Which from the resulted proteins does enter in the complement of
connective tissue?
A. Albumin
B. Transferrin
C. * Collagen
D. Ceruloplazmin
E. Antitrypsin
941.
At the hyperfunction of adrenal glan there is thinning of skin and blood vessels,
osteoporosis. Reason of it can be:
A. Increase synthesis of glycosaminoglycans
B. Oppression synthesis of glycolipids
C. * Oppression synthesis of proteoglycans and collogen
D. Decrease synthesis of glycogen
E. Oppression synthesis of nucleoproteins
942.
At the organ level, the term membrane generally refers to a thin lining or covering
composed of an epithelium that overlies a layer of ____.
A. * Smooth muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Nerve
D. Loose connective tissue
E. Fibrous connective tissue

943.
B Skull
A. * eart
B. Ribs
C. Bones
D. Lung
944.
By cadaveric rigidity muscle rigidity appears, caused by the lack of energy in the
ATP form. What stage of elementary tractions acts is blocked by cadaveric rigidity?
A. Separation of myosin head from actin
B. * Joining of myosin head to actin
C. Joining of calcium to troponin
D. ATP hydrolysis in the actin center of myosin
E. Separation of troponin from actin
945.
By myocardial ischemia the amount of ATP and creatine phosphate is rapidly
decreased as a result of oxidative phosphorylation affection. Among the first symptoms
of this state there is:
A. Membrane permeability affection
B. Contractible proteins synthesis
C. * Myoglobine synthesis
D. Ribosome malfunction
E. Fatty acids F-oxidation malfunction
946.
Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the
A. Stomach
B. Intestine
C. Urinary bladder
D. * Heart
E. Bone
947.
Cardiac muscle tissue:
A. Is under voluntary control
B. All of the above
C. * Does not require nerve activity to stimulate a contraction
D. Will not contract unless stimulated by nerves
948.
Cardiac muscle tissue:
A. Is under voluntary control
B. All of the above
C. * Does not require nerve activity to stimulate a contraction
D. Will not contract unless stimulated by nerves
949.
Cartilage and bone are examples of what classification of connective tissue?
A. Supporting connective tissue
B. Connective tissue proper
C. Fluid connect tissues
D. All of the above
950.
Cartilage and bone are examples of what classification of connective tissue?
A. Fluid connect tissues
B. * Specialized connective tissue
C. Connective tissue proper
D. All of the above
951.
Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cartilage cells cannot reproduce

They lack direct blood supplies
The intercellular material is missing
* Cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids
None of the above
952.
Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except:
________.
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. * Mast cells
D. Chondrocytes
E. Odontoblasts
953.
Cells in which tissue type are specialized to transmit electrical impulses from one
body region to another?
A. Muscle
B. * Nervous
C. Connective
D. Epithelial
E. Blood
954.
Changes concentration of which cytosol ion is biochemical regulator of including
of process of muscle reduction?
A. Mg+2
B. Ca+2
C. K+
D. Na+
E. Cl955.
Characteristic for heart and liver troubles is an increase activity of LDG. What
additional research does need to be conducted for definition localization of pathological
process?
A. Determination activity of amylase
B. Determination activity of alkaline phosphatase
C. Determination isoenzymes of creatinkinase
D. Determination isoenzymes of LDG
E. Determination activity of aminotranaferase
956.
Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers in connective tissues are formed by
A. Phospholipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Adipose tissue
D. * Proteins
E. Vitamins
957.
Connective tissue cells that produce the extracellular matrix are called
A. Blast cells.
B. Cyte cells.
C. Clast cells.
D. * Macrophages.
E. Mast cells.
958.
Dense irregular connective tissue that forms a supporting layer around cartilage is
called:
A. Perichondrium
B. * Periosteum
C. Dermis
D. apsule
E. Epidermis
959.
Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in
A. A nerve
B. The brain
C. A ligament
D. * Skull bone
E. Lung
960.
?Destruction of thin myofilaments is observed during the research of a striated
muscle fiber after the action of hydrolytic enzymes. Which structures have been
damaged?
A. * Actin myofilaments
B. Collagen
C. T-systems
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Myosin myofilaments
961.
Disorder in the secretory activity of odontoblasts took place during mantle dentin
formation in a milk tooth. Formation of what fibers will be changed?
A. Elastic
B. Reticular
C. * Radial collagen fibers
D. Tangential collagen fibers
E. Nerve
962.
During a race long-distance the skeletal musculature of the trained man utillizes
glucose with the purpose of receipt of energy ATP for muscular reduction. Specify the
basic process utilization of glucose in these conditions:
A. Glicogenesis
B. Anaerobic glicolysis
C. * Aerobic glicolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Glycogenolysis
963.
During the biosynthesis of collagen, in posttranslation modification of proteins
with formation of mature collagen, namely hydroxylating of proline and lysine take part
ascorbatdepending hydroxilase. For what ascorbic acid is needed?
A. * Regenerations of the reconstract form of iron
B. Oxidation of iron
C. Diminishing concentration reconstract form iron
D. Increase maintenance active forms of oxygen
E. Influences on apoenzyme of hydroxilase
964.
Embryonic connective tissues include
A. * Mesenchyme
B. Wharton's jelly
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
E. Basofills
965.
Endocrine and exocrine glands are formed from what type of tissue?
A. Connective
B. Blood
C. Muscle
D. Nerve
E. * Epithelial
966.
Endurance training increases the muscles capacity to:
A. Contract faster
B.
C.
D.
E.
Breakdown phosphocreatine
* Burn fat and carbohydrate
Generate energy anaerobically
Produce more blood cells
967.
Extracellular liquid matrix in blood is
A. Adipose
B. * Plasma
C. Fibroblast
D. Calcium salt
E. All of the above
968.
Extracellular matrix in bone is formed by
A. Mineral salts
B. * Reticular fibers
C. Collagen and elastin
D. Lipids
E. All of the above
969.
Fast-twitch fibres contain:
A. A relatively large number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity
B. A relatively small number of mitochondria and low ATPase activity
C. * A relatively small number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity
D. A relatively large number of mitochondria and high ATPase activity
E. No mitochondria and high ATPase activity
970.
Feeding must contain calcium, which is necessary for traction triggering by
connecting it to the:
A. * ATP-ase center of myosin
B. Molecules of globular actin
C. One of troponin subunits
D. Tropomyosin
E. Calmodulin
971.
Fetal skeleton in early stages is formed by
A. * Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Bone
D. Muscular tissue
E. Tendon
972.
For bottled fruit of blood apply various anticoagulants, in a that number
policacharides of natural origin, namely:
A. * Heparinum
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Chondroitin sulfates
E. Dextrane
973.
For maintenance of normal elasticity and regeneration of skin and its appendages
is needed the sufficient amount of vitamin:
A. * A
B. C
C. B12
D. K
E. B1
974.
For the function of muscles important significance has creatinphosphate which
appears from a creatin and ATP. Name amino acids which are needed for the synthesis of
creatin:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Glycine, proline, cystein

Methionine, leucine, phenilalanin
* Glycine, arginine, methionine
Arginine, tryptophane, lisyne
Valine, leucine, isoleucine
975.
For very high force muscle contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy
source is from:
A. glycolysis
B. Creatine phosphorylation
C. Phosphocreatine stores
D. * ATP stores
976.
For what rheumatic disease characteristic rentgenologic sign of osteoartroses?
A. * Gout
B. Rheumatic arthritis
C. Rheumatism
D. Disease of Shegrena
E. Pellagra
977.
From what albumins built filaments of muscles?
A. Albumins and globulins
B. * Actin and miosin
C. Albumins and histons
D. Tubulins and actin
E. Calmodulin and tropomiosine
978.
Hemopoietic tissue is found in
A. Adipose tissue
B. Cartilage
C. The dermis of the skin
D. * Red marrow
E. Yellow marrow
979.
Heparinum synthesized fat cells and enters to blood where he executes a main
function:
A. Procoagulant
B. Antitripsin
C. Oxidant
D. Antioxidant
E. * Anticoagulant
980.
Hipovitaminoses C is accompanied by violations of connective tissue, namely to
the synthesis of collogen. What role in here take part vitamin C?
A. * Activates prolinhydroxilase
B. Activates hyaluronidase
C. Activates creatinphosphokinase
D. Activates glutation
E. Activates amylase
981.
Hyaline cartilage is classified as ____ tissue.
A. Nervous
B. Muscle
C. * Connective
D. Epithelial
E. All of the abvove
982.
Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because ________.
A. It is more vascularized
B.
C.
D.
E.
It contains more nuclei

* It has more elastic fibers
Fibers are not normally visible
Fibers are normally visible
983.
Important function in the processes of bone mineralisation is executed by
glycosaminoglycans, except:
A. Chondroitin 4-sulfate
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Keratan Sulfates
E. * Heparin
984.
In the complement of connective tissue of saliva, teeth enter complex connections
of proteins and carbohydrates as glycosaminoglycans. Violation metabolism of these
substances is one of reasons development of caries. Specify on these connections:
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfates
C. * Proteoglikans
D. Heparin
E. Dermatan sulfate
985.
In the process of get olding there is diminishing of elasticity of skin, blood
vessels, resiliently elastic properties of cartilages are worsened, reparative ability of
connecting tissue goes down. Reason of it can be:
A. * Decline amount of proteoglycans
B. Maintenance of collogen fibres grows
C. Increase degree hydratation of proteoglycans
D. Diminishing maintenance of hepatin in muscles
E. Increase of amount of elastin
986.
In the process of get olding there is diminishing of elasticity of skin, blood
vessels, resiliently elastic properties of cartilages are worsened, reparative ability of
connecting tissue goes down. Reason of it can be:
A. * Decline amount of proteoglycans
B. Maintenance of collogen fibres grows
C. Increase degree hydratation of proteoglycans
D. Diminishing maintenance of hepatin in muscles
E. Increase of amount of elastin
987.
In the process of organism's ageing is decreased bonding of water by connective
tissue. This is tied with the decrease of concentration of:
A. Glycosaminoglycan
B. * Collagene
C. Phospholipids
D. Hyaluronic acid
E. Chondroitin sulphuric acid
988.
In tissues of organism during the update of proteoglycans there is their
disintegration in lysosomes by breaking up cathepsins and glycosidases. There is a
decline of activity of lysosomal glycosidases at mucopolysaccharidoses. Which products
disintegration of proteoglycans will appear in big amounts in urine?
A. Glucose-6-phosphate
B. Glucose
C. * Chondroitin sulfates
D. Fructose-6- phosphate
E. Glucosamine
989.
In tissues of organism during the update of proteoglycans there is their
disintegration in lysosomes by breaking up cathepsins and glycosidases. There is a
decline of activity of lysosomal glycosidases at mucopolysaccharidoses. Which products
disintegration of proteoglycans will appear in big amounts in urine?
A. Glucose-6-phosphate
B. Glucose
C. * Chondroitin sulfates
D. Fructose-6- phosphate
E. Glucosamine
990.
In what kinds of tissue would you find gap junctions?
A. * Heart and smooth muscle tissue
B. Cells lining the digestive tract
C. Layers of the skin
D. All of the above
991.
In which of the following ways does cardiac muscle tissue differ from skeletal
muscle tissue?
A. Cardiac muscle fibers are relatively short and branched or bifurcated
B. Neighboring cardiac muscle fibers are connected by intercalated discs
C. Each cardiac muscle cell has only one or two centrally located nuclei
E. Cardiac muscle, like other muscles, can contract, but it can also carry an action
potential
992.
In which of these locations is dense irregular collagenous connective tissue found?
A. Walls of large arteries
B. * Tendons
C. Nuchal ligament
D. Dermis of the skin
E. Reticular tissue
993.
It is known that a sinovial liquid diminishes the friction of arthral surfaces. At
rheumatism or arthritis its viscidity goes down as a result of depolamirisation of such
substance:
A. Glycogen
B. Collagen
C. Heparin
D. Albumin
E. * Hyaluronic acid
994.
Large arteries stretch during systole and return to the start state during diastole to
provide bloodstream stability. Which structural components of vessels wall explain this?
A. * Elastic fibers
B. Muscle fibers
C. Reticular fibers
D. Collsgen fibers
E. Numerous fibriblasts
995.
Ligaments connect
A. * Cartilage to bone.
B. Bone to muscle.
C. Muscle to muscle.
D. Bone to bone.
E. All of the above
996.
Lisocim provides death of bacterial cells, because have action on the cellular
membrane of bacteria, splitting:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lipids
* Carbohydrate components
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Cholesterol
997.
Lizocim is antybacterial factor, for mechanism of action there is muraminidase. To
which class of enzymes does he belong, if splits glycosidic bonds in to the polisacharide
chain of muramine?
A. * Hidrolyse
B. Transferase
C. Oxidoreductase
D. Lyases
E. Izomerase
998.
Loose connective tissue contains
A. Collagen and elastin fibers
B. Myosin and actin fibers
C. Plasma
E. Blood serum
999.
Major proteins of connecive tissue are:
A. Fibroin and keratin
B. Albumins and globulins
C. * Collagene and elastin
D. Myosin and actin
E. Protamines and histons
1000.
Microfilaments bunch together to form myofibrils in:
A. * Cardiac muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Smooth muscle
D. A and B
E. A and C
1001.
Mineralization of organic matrixe of bone tissue is related to the big energy
outlay, mainly due to the breaking up of:
A. Ketone bodies
B. Fatty acids
C. * Glycogen
D. Proteins
E. Amino acids
1002.
Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of
A. Cardiac muscle
B. * Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Undifferentiated muscle
E. Tendon
1003.
Mucin one of the basic components of saliva, for chemical nature is complex
protein, namely:
A. Metalloprotein
B. Nukleoprotein
C. Phosphoprotein
D. Lipoprotein
E. * Glycoprotein
1004.
Muscle fatigue can result from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Depletion of ATP
Depletion of Ca+
Depletion of acetylcholine
* Both (A) and (B)
A combination of both (A) & (C).
1005.
Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they
A. Are responsible for the production and secretion of enzymes
B. * Are specialized in contraction and relaxation
C. Help in the movement of involuntary organs only
D. All of the above statements are true.
1006.
Muscles are made of
A. Silica
B. Polyester threads
C. Calcium and phosphorous
D. * Groups of cells called fibres
E. All of the above
1007.
Muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limbs are organized into all of the
following groups except
A. * Muscles that move the pectoral girdle
B. Muscles that move the glenohumeral joint
C. Intrinsic muscles of the forearm
D. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
E. All of the folliwing
1008.
Muscular endurance is defined as:
A. * Peak ability of a muscle to generate force.
B. An ability you are born with and cannot train.
C. The ability of a muscle or muscle group to generate force repeatedly
D. he ability of the heart to provide oxygen rich blood to the muscles.
E. All of above
1009.
Muscular endurance is:
A. * A muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly without fatiguing
B. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance
C. A withering of muscle tissue that can result from injury or disease
D. The length of time a particular movement can be sustained by a muscle or muscle
group
E. All of the above
1010.
Muscular endurance is:
A. * A muscle's ability to exert force repeatedly without fatiguing
B. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance
C. A withering of muscle tissue that can result from injury or disease
D. The length of time a particular movement can be sustained by a muscle or muscle
group
E. All of the above
1011.
Myosin and actin make up
A. Osteoblasts
B. * Myofibrils
C. Collagen
D. Red marrow
E. Elastin
1012.
Myosin and actin make up:
A. Osteoblasts
B.
C.
D.
E.
Collagen
* Myofibrils
Red marrow
Desmosoms
1013.
Name enzyme determination of which in blood is most informing at first hour
after the origin of heart attack of myocardium:
A. Aspartataminotransferase
B. Alaninaminotransferase
C. Laktatdehidrogenase
D. * Creatinphosfokinase MB
E. Glutamatdehidrogenase
1014.
Nitric oxide mediates this effect on vascular smooth muscle:
A. * Smooth muscle relaxation
B. B. Smooth muscle contraction
C. No effect
D. Provide production of energy
E. Smooth muscle protection
1015.
One of the important differences between skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac
muscle tissue is that cardiac muscle tissue is
A. Multinucleated
B. * Striated involuntary muscle
C. Striated voluntary muscle
D. Comprised of unusually large cells
1016.
One of the important differences between skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac
muscle tissue is that cardiac muscle tissue is:
A. Multinucleated
B. * Striated involuntary muscle
C. Comprised of unusually large cells
D. Striated voluntary muscle
1017.
One of the rules of surgery is performing sections along the so-called lines of skin
tension. What tissue forms the reticular layer of derma?
A. Reticular connective tissue
B. * Dense irregulat connective tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Epithelial tissue
E. Dense regular connective tissue
1018.
One of the sources of formation of ATP in muscles is the reaction 2 ADP?
ATP+adenosine monophosphate. By what enzyme is it catalyzed?
A. Hexokinase
B. Aldolase
C. Adenylate kinase
D. * Adenylate cyclase
E. ATP-ase
1019.
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
A. Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic
B. Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus
C. * Its primary function is nutrient storage
D. It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix
E. All of the above
1020.
Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper

Connective tissue cells are nondividing
Connective tissue does not contain cells
"Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells
Connective tissue contain all type of cells
1021.
Skeletal muscle is
A. Striated and voluntary
B. Nonstriated and involuntary
C. * Striated and involuntary
D. Nonstriated and voluntary
E. All of above
1022.
Skeletal muscle is irritated with a series of electropulses in an experiment. Every
next impulse is in the period of the shortening of a single muscular contraction. What
type of muscular contraction will arise?
A. * Smooth tetanus
B. Skeletal tetanus
C. Asynchronous tetanus
D. A series of single contraction
E. Muscle contracture
1023.
Skeletal muscle is irritated with a series of electropulses in an experiment. Every
next impulse is in the period of the shortening of a single muscular contraction. What
type of muscular contraction will arise?
A. * Smooth tetanus
B. Skeletal tetanus
C. Asynchronous tetanus
D. A series of single contraction
E. Muscle contracture
1024.
Smooth muscles occur in
A. Uterus
B. Artery
C. Vein
D. * All the above
E. Bronchi
1025.
Striated muscle is also called
A. ardiac muscle
B. mooth muscle
C. * keletal muscle
D. nvoluntary muscle
1026.
Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
A. Adipose tissue
B. * Fibrous connective tissue
C. Muscle tissue
D. Loose connective tissue
E. Elastic connective tissue
1027.
Tendons and ligaments contain the protein
A. Keratin
B. Fibrin
C. Lignin
D. * Collagen
E. Elastin
1028.
The "all or nothing" law in muscle contraction refers to .
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The muscle action potential of the motor neuron

The contraction of the entire muscle
* Only the contraction of individual muscle fibers
The myoneural junction generator potential
The release of Ca+
1029.
The advantage of strength training is that it:
A. Helps reduce body weight.
B. Improves cardiovascular fitness
C. Gives the body a trim muscular appearance
D. All of the above
E. Produce force and cause motion
1030.
The affection of collagenic fibers structure by the lack of vitamin C in the
organism is caused by enzymes activity malfunction:
A. Glycosyltransferase
B. Lysine hydroxylase and lysine oxidase
C. * Lysine hydroxylase and proline hydroxylase
D. Procolagenpeptidase
E. Colagenase
1031.
The amount of sialic acids in patient's blood is 1060 mg/l. From the probable
diagnosis should be removed the following:
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Malignant growth
D. * Rheumatism
E. Cardiac infarction
1032.
The basic mechanism of action of glucocorticoids consists in the following:
A. Cooperate with receptors on the plasmatic membranes of cells
B. Provide disintegration of glycogen in liver
C. * Repress inflammatory reaction, related to the hypersensitiveness
D. Find out greater ability to retain sodium, than mineralkorticoids
E. Provide the mechanism activating of glucose
1033.
The cells that act to guard and protect the body are:
A. * Connective cells
B. Nervous cells
C. Endocrine cells
D. Epithelial cells
E. Muscle cells
1034.
The concentration of creatinine in patient's blood is normal. What figures
correspond this state?
A. 1-2 g/l
B. 50-70 mkmol/l
C. 20-35 g/l
D. 100-150 mlmol/l
E. * 70-100 mkmol/l
1035.
The connective tissue that forms "packing" around organs and attaches the skin to
underlying structures is
A. * Loose (areolar).
B. Dense regular collagenous.
C. Dense regular elastic.
D. Dense irregular collagenous.
E. Dense irregular elastic.
1036.
The dangerous skin cancer that has a dark pigmented spot is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Prostatic cancer
Ovarian cancer
1037.
The decrease of ATP synthesis by ischemia causes irreversible cells affections
mainly as a result of amount growth in the cell of:
A. * Lactate
B. Sodium ions
C. Adenosine monophosphate
D. Ketone bodies
E. Pyruvate
1038.
The end nitrogenated metabolism product of creatine is:
A. Ammonia
B. Indican
C. Hypuric acid
D. * Creatinine
E. Urea
1039.
The energy for all forms of muscle contraction is provided by:
A. * ATP
B. ADP
C. Phosphocreatine
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
E. Generated in the mitochondria of the cell
1040.
The enzyme of hyaluronidase decompose hyaluronic acid, in result increase the
intercellular penetrating. Which vitamin does repress activity of hyaluronidase and
promote strengthening walls of vessels?
A. * Vitamin P
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin B2
E. Vitamin D
1041.
The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and
A. * Proteoglycans
B. Collagen
C. Keratin
D. Reticular fibers
1042.
The general term for any pain that occurs below the knee and above the ankle is:
A. Muscle cramps
B. * Muscle strain
C. Shin splints
D. Tendonitis
E. Muscle dystrophy
1043.
The major functions of loose connective tissue include
A. * Occupying spaces between organs and supporting epithelia
B. Supporting and surrounding blood vessels and nerves
C. Cushioning organs, storing lipids, and facilitating diffusion
D. All of the above
E. None of the folloving
1044.
The major tissue types in the body are
A. * Epithelial, connective, muscle and neural
B.
C.
D.
E.
1045.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1046.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1047.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1048.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1049.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1050.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1051.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1052.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mesothelilum, endothelium, adiocytes and desmosomes

Stylohyoid, digastric, thyrohyoid and zygomatic
Squamous, simple cuboidal, columnar and stratified cuboidal
All of the above
The major types of muscles cells are:
* Skeletal, cardiac, smooth
Superficial, subserous, abtruse
Appositional, osseous, elastic
All of the above
None of the above
The man's daily secretion of creatinine with urine is:
3-5 g
4-6 g
8-10 g
7-9 g
* 1-2 g
The maximal ability of a muscle to generate force is:
* Muscular endurance
Optimal health.
Strength training.
Muscular strength.
All of the above
The menisci of the knee are made of
Fibrocartilage.
Hyaline cartilage.
* Dense connective tissue similar to ligaments and tendons
Elastic connective tissue.
all of the above
The most important function of the skin is
* Protection
Sweating
Storing fat
Insulation
Produced energy
The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is
Smooth
* Skeletal
Intercalated
Cardiac
All of the above
The only type of cell seen in a tendon is
Muscle fibers
Reticular cells
Collagenous cells
* Fibroblasts
Elastin
The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is
* Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Visceral muscle
All of the above
1053.
The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces:

A. * One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of ammonia
B. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of carbon dioxide
C. One molecule of pyruvic acid and another amino acid
D. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of water
E. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of urea
1054.
The patient has vessel penetration malfunction. Name the connective tissue
protein, which synthesis is affected:
A. Tropomyosin
B. Myoglobine
C. * Albumin
D. Collagene
E. Ceruloplasmin
1055.
The perichondrium is a layer of fibroconnective tissue surrounding
A. A bone
B. * Most cartilage
C. A blood vessel
D. The pericardial cavity
E. All of the above
1056.
The process of mineralisation is provided the structure of collagen which give
possibility to join:
A. N2O
B. N+
C. NH3+
D. Lipids
E. * Ca2+
1057.
The remnants of desmosine and isodesmosine in elastin are formed from
aminoacid radicals of the following amino acids:
A. * Lysine
B. Glycine
C. Proline
D. Ornithine
E. Hydrooxilysine
1058.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells acts as a:
A. Store of digestive enzymes
B. Store of sodium ions
C. Store of lipid
D. * Store of calcium ions
E. Buffer of hydrogen ions
1059.
The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework
called the
A. Serosa
B. * Stroma
C. Parenchyma
D. Trabecula
E. Plasma
1060.
The shape of a person's ear is due mainly to
A. Dense regular connective tissue
B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. * Elastic cartilage
D. Fibrocartilage
E. Adipose tissue
1061.
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

A. Adipose tissue
B. Fibrocartilage
C. * Elastic cartilage
D. Hyaline cartilage
1062.
The start of traction is connected with the usage as a donor of muscle energy rich
bonds energy:
A. Guanosine triphosphate
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. 1.3-diphosphoglycerate
D. Adenosine diphosphate
E. * Creatine phosphate
1063.
The three basic components of all connective tissues are:
A. * Specialized cells, extracellular protein fibers, ground substance
B. Fluid matrix, cartilage, osteocytes
C. Free exposed surface, exocrine secretions, endocrine secretions
D. All of the above
1064.
The three main components of connective tissue are ________.
A. Alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
B. Ground substance, fibers, and cells
C. * Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
D. Fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
E. Only B and D
1065.
The tissue found under the skin to insulate the body with cells that contain a lot of
fat is ___.
A. Loose connective tissue
B. * Adipose tissue
C. Fibrous connective tissue
E. Stratified squamous epithelium
1066.
The toxin of stupor causes tonic tension of skeletal muscles and vessels because
represses secretion from nervous completions of neurotransmitter:
A. * GABA
B. Noradrenalin
C. Acetylcholin
D. Glycine
E. Glutamate
1067.
The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is:
A. Potassium binding to myosin
B. Calcium binding to tropomyosin
C. ATP binding to the myosin cross bridges
D. * Calcium binding to troponin
E. ATP breakdown by actin
1068.
The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are:
A. Actin and troponin
B. * Actin and myosin
C. Troponin and tropomyosin
D. Myosin and tropomyosin
E. Actin and tropomyosin
1069.
The type of Connective Tissues are
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Connective tissue proper

Fluid connect tissues
Supporting connective tissue
All of the above
None of the above
1070.
The type of muscle found in the walls of blood vessels is
A. Cardiac
B. * Smooth
C. Striated
D. Voluntary
E. Sceletal
1071.
The type of muscle that makes up the walls of blood vessels is:
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Seletal muscle
C. * Smooth muscle
D. A and b
E. A and c
1072.
The type of tissue that has specialized cells, extracellular protein fibers and
ground substance are:
A. * Connective
B. Neural
C. Muscle
D. Epithelial
E. All of the above
1073.
The types of Connective Tissues are:
A. Fluid connect tissues
B. Connective tissue proper
C. Supporting connective tissue
1074.
The volume of oxygen consumed by muscles during exercise is:
A. * Aerobic capacity
B. Maximum oxygen capacity
C. Flexibility
D. Muscle endurance
E. Muscle strain
1075.
The volume of oxygen consumed by muscles during exercise is:
A. * Aerobic capacity
B. Flexibility
C. Muscle endurance
D. Maximum oxygen capacity
E. Anaerobic oxidation
1076.
These two proteins are called:
A. * Actin and myosin
B. Progesterone and testosterone
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Albumins and globulins
E. Collogen and ekastin
1077.
Triggering signal for the processse of tracion is the growth of concentration of
calcium ions in sarcoplasma. Which of the mentioned factors is necessary for muscles
weakening?
A. * ATP
B.
C.
D.
E.
1078.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1079.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1080.
by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Reducted NADP
Sodium ions
Creatine
Creatinine
Tropocolagene fibres in colagenic fibre are interconnected by:
Aldol bonds
Hydrophobic bonds
Disulfide bonds
Hydrogen bonds
* Peptide bonds
Type I muscle fibres have the following characteristics:
White, glycolytic, slow contracting
White, oxidative, slow contracting
Red, oxidative, fast contracting
Red, glycolytic, slow contracting
* Red, oxidative, slow contracting
Viscoelastic features of major matter of connective tissue are conditioned mainly
Glycosaminoglycans
* Elastin
ATP
Collagene
Keratin
1081.
Vitamin P used in treatment of diseases which have a place violation of
permeability of vascular walls. Medical effect is related to his participating in:
A. Processes of ripening of collagen
B. * Ingibition of hyaluronidase
C. Activation of hyaluronidase
D. Synthesis of elastin
E. Synthesis of proteoglycans
1082.
What are the three basic components of connective tissue?
A. Ground substance, cells, and basement membrane
B. Cartilage, intercellular matrix, and serum
C. Cells, protein fibers, and ground substance
D. * Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
E. Protein fibers, cells
1083.
What enzyme is needed for converting of procollagen into collagen by
hydroxylating of residues of proline to 4 hydroxyproline?
A. Mn2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase
B. Mg2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase
C. Cu2+-ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase
D. * Fe2+ -ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase
E. Ca2+ -ascorbatdepending prolinhydroxilase
1084.
What enzyme used for a sclerodermia?
A. Trypsin
B. Amylase
C. Catalase
D. * Hyaluronidase
E. Pepsin
1085.
What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick
filaments?
A. Muscle contracts.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Muscle relaxes.
* A muscle both contracts and relaxes.
A muscle neither contracts nor relaxes.
All of above
1086.
What happens when the thin filaments in a muscle fiber slide over the thick
filaments?
A. * Amuscle contracts.
B. A muscle relaxes.
C. A muscle both contracts and relaxes.
D. A muscle neither contracts nor relaxes.
E. All of the above
1087.
What hydrocarboxylic acid, intermediate product of tricarboxilic acids cycle, does
take part in regulation and transportation of blood calcium?
A. Isocitric acid (isocitrate)
B. Oxalo-acetic acid (oxaloacetate)
C. * Citric acid (citrate)
D. Succinate acid (succinate)
E. ?-ketoglutaric acid (?-ketoglutarate )
1088.
What indexes discover in the sharp phase of rheumatism?
A. Seromucoid
B. AsAT, AlAT
C. * C- reactive protein
D. Fibrinogen
E. Creatinine
1089.
What is the difference between cartilage and bone?
A. Bone is rubbery, and cartilage is firm.
B. * Cartilage is rubbery, and bone is firm.
C. Bone is a more primitive tissue than cartilage.
D. Bone is inside the body, and cartilage is outside
E. Only C
1090.
What is the function of a tendon?
A. To link bones to bones
B. To link muscles to bones
C. To link muscles to ligaments
D. * To bind the cells in compact bone closer together
1091.
What joins the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue?
A. Tight junction
B. Desmosome
C. * Gap junction
D. Microvilli
E. Basement membrane
1092.
What matter in composition of saliva is synthesized in salivary glands and pose by
them and gives saliva thick mucus character?
A. Phosphates
B. Sulfates
C. * Mucin
D. Amylase
E. Maltase
1093.
What neuromediators take part in a nerve-muscle transmission?
A. * Acetylcholin
B. Histamin
C. Adrenalin
D. -aminobutiric acid
E. Serotonin
1094.
What polysacharide (glycosaminoglycan) is the base of connective tissue
intercellular matter, vitreous humor, synovial fluid, umbilical cord?
A. Chondroitin sulphuric acid
B. * Hyaluronic acid
C. Keratan sulfate
D. Heparin
E. Heparan sulfate
1095.
What tough connective tissue joins skeletal muscles to bones?
A. Joints
B. Periosteum
C. * Ligaments
D. Tendons
E. Osteoblasts
1096.
When a muscle fiber contracts, what actually shortens?
A. Actin and myosin filaments
B. A bands and zones of overlap
C. * Sarcomeres, H bands, and I bands
D. Both b and c
E. All of the above
1097.
When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually
replaced by
A. Connective tissue cells
B. New smooth muscle cells
C. * New cardiac muscle cells
D. Epithelial cells
E. Extracellular matrix
1098.
Where is cardiac muscle tissue located in the body?
A. * Heart
B. Skull
C. Ribs
D. Bones
E. Cartilage
1099.
Which from amino acids does prevail in the molecule of collogen?
A. Tryptophane
B. Asparagin
C. Glycine
D. Alanin
E. * Hydroxyproline
1100.
Which age human skin undergoes changes, which may declare themselves by
reduction of skin elasticity. What structure of connective tissue provide skin elasticity
most of all?
A. Cells of epidermis
B. Ground substance
C. * Collagen and elastic fibers
D. Connective tissue cells
E. Reticular fibers
1101.
Which changes from the side of the isolated heart of frog is it possible to expect
after introduction to perfunic solution of surplus amount of calcium chloride?
A. Stop of heart
B.
C.
D.
E.
Increase frequency of reductions

* Increase frequency and force of reductions
Increase force of reductions
Decrease force of reductions
1102.
Which diagnostic test does represent the degree of muscular destruction at
inflammations?
A. Uric acid
B. Diastase
C. Transaminase
D. Indican
E. * Creatine phosphokinase
1103.
Which from amino acids does prevail in the molecule of collagen?
A. Triptofan
B. Asparagin
C. Glycine
D. Alanin
E. * Hydroxyproline
1104.
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?
A. Is a single-celled tissue
B. Cuboidal shape enhances function
C. Highly cellular and well vascularized
D. * Contains contractile units made of collagen
E. A force exerted by a muscle that is less than or equal to the resistance
1105.
Which of the following are elements of skeletal muscle contraction?
A. Cross-bridges binding
B. Myofibrils shortening
C. * Actin filaments sliding past myosin
D. All of the above
E. In the presence of ATP, the myosin head detaches from F-actin.
1106.
Which of the following characteristics is NOT correct about cardiac muscle?
A. Found only in the wall of the heart
B. Has striations
C. Single, centrally placed nucleus; cells branch
D. Cells bound end to end at intercalated disks
E. * Under voluntary control
1107.
Which of the following characteristics of skeletal cartilage limits its thickness?
A. It has a girdle of perichondrium that resists outward expansion when it is
compressed.
B. It is primarily composed of water.
C. It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium that
surrounds it
D. * It is resilient.
E. All of the above
1108.
Which of the following factors does not influence success in sport?
A. Ability to tolerate heavy training without succumbing to illness or injury
B. Tactics
C. The diet
D. Skill
E. * Ingestion of carnitine during exercise
1109.
Which of the following is NOT correctly paired?
A. Columnar epithelium--lining of intestine
B. Fibrous connective tissue--tendons
C. * Elastic cartilage--end of long bones

D. Smooth muscles--walls of intestine
E. Neuronsbrain
1110.
Which of the following is true?
A. Increasing the protein intake above 3 grams per kg body mass per day will
stimulate
B. * muscle growth and increase strength
C. Creatine supplements can increase muscle strength and power
D. Amino acid supplements can increase muscle strength and power
E. Muscle damage is induced by shortening contractions
F. There is an inverse relationship between dietary protein intake and total energy
intake
1111.
Which of the following organs protect underlying parts from physical trauma,
microbes, and water loss and help regulate body temperature?
A. Muscle
B. * Skin
C. Kidney
D. Small intestine
E. Lungs
1112.
Which of the following provides support for the body, attachment sites for
muscles, and protection for internal organs?
A. Skin
B. * Skeleton
C. Spinal cord
D. Joints
E. Blood
1113.
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage?
A. Cartilage forming cells divide and secrete new matrix on the external surface of
the cartilage
B. It grows from the outside.
C. Cells in the perichondrium differentiate into chondroblasts.
D. * Chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix from within the cartilage.
E. All of the above
1114.
Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?
A. Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers
B. Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures
C. * Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength
D. When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back
E. All of the above
1115.
Which of the following structures is made of elastic cartilage?
A. The epiglottis
B. The costal cartilage
C. The larynx
D. * Articular cartilage
1116.
Which of the following tissues is attached by tendons to bone and has cells with
multiple nuclei and striations?
A. Tendons
B. Ligaments
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Smooth muscle
E. * Skeletal muscle
1117.
Which of the following types of connective tissue is MISMATCHED with its
matrix?
A. * Areolarloosely packed matrix of protein fibers
B. Bonemineralized matrix
C. Cartilagehighly vascular matrix
D. Bloodliquid matrix
1118.
Which of these is NOT a connective tissue?
A. Blood
B. * Muscle
C. Cartilage
D. Areolar tissue
E. Skin
1119.
Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A. Blood
B. * Muscle
C. Cartilage
D. Adipose
E. Bone
1120.
Which of these is NOT found in connective tissue?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. * Basement membrane
C. Collagen fibers
D. Fluid
E. Reticular fibers
1121.
Which of these substances gives cartilage the ability to spring back after being
compressed?
A. Reticular fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. * Proteoglycan aggregates
E. Adipocytes
1122.
Which of these tissue types does NOT contain collagen fibers?
A. Areolar connective tissue
B. Dense regular connective tissue
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Cartilage
E. * Bone
1123.
Which of these tissues has cells located in lacunae?
A. Adipose
B. Blood
C. Bone
D. * Cartilage
E. Both C and D
1124.
Which one among the following statement about smooth muscle is TRUE?
A. * The smooth muscles are responsible for the movements of the internal organs.
B. The cells in the smooth muscles have actin, but no striations.
C. The muscular cells in the smooth muscles are shorter than the skeletal muscles.
D. All of the above statements are true about the smooth muscle.
E. All of the above statements are incorrect about the smooth muscle.
1125.
Which one of the following is not a type of storage or transport connective tissue?
A. * Lymphocytes
B.
C.
D.
E.
1126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adipose tissue
Erythrocytes
All of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue.
None of the above are types of storage or transport connective tissue.
Which one of the following is not a type of tissue?
Epithelial
Nervous
Connective
Muscle
* Endocrine
Which statement best describes connective tissue?
Usually lines a body cavity
Usually contains a large amount of matrix
Primarily concerned with secretion
* Always arranged in a single layer of cells
None of the above
Which term describes a band of dense regular connective tissue that attaches two
1128.
bones?
A. Aponeurosis
B. * Tendon
C. Ligament
D. Capsule
E. Vessels
1129.
Which two classes of cells are found in connective tissue proper?
A. Resident cells and wandering cells
B. * Mast cells and fibroblasts
C. Adipocytes and leukocytes
D. Macrophages and mesenchyme cells
E. Neitrofills and basofils
1130.
Which type of connective tissue has a matrix that has a white translucent (milk
glass) appearance and is found in the nose and at the ends of long bones?
A. Fibrocartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. * Hyaline cartilage
D. Spongy bone
E. Compact bone
1131.
Which type of connective tissue is found in tendons?
A. Loose connective tissue
B. * Fibrous connective tissue
C. Hyaline cartilage tissue
D. Elastic cartilage tissue
E. Compact bone tissue
1132.
Which type of tissue facilitates movement of the skeleton or organ walls?
A. Epithelial
B. * Muscular
C. Connective
D. Nervous
E. Blood
1133.
Which type of tissue has a rigid matrix of calcium salts deposited around protein
fibers, has lacunae containing osteocytes arranged in concentric circles, and is found
along the shaft of a long bone?
A. * Hyaline cartilage
B.
C.
D.
E.
Elastic cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Compact bone
Spongy bone
Which type of tissue will be found immediately below the skin and most epithelial
1134.
layers?
A. * Loose connective tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Fibrous connective tissue
E. Bone
1135.
Which types of junction will be found in heart and smooth muscle to ensure
synchronized contraction?
A. Tight junctions
B. Adhesion junctions (desmosomes)
C. * Gap junctions
D. Canaliculi
E. Basement membrane
1136.
With age of man in cartilaginous tissue goes down speed update of proteoglycans,
that results in diminishing degree hydratation of them and loss of resiliency in tissue.
Activity of which enzymes of lysosomes does rise here?
A. Deaminase, decarboxilase
B. Isomerase, dehydrogenase
C. Proteases, lipases
D. * Cathepsins, glicosydase
E. Oxidoreductase, phosphatases
1137.
Your heart is a muscle that is made up of highly specialized _______.
A. Cartilage
B. * Tissue
C. Ligaments
D. Red blood cells
E. Bone
1138.
Your skeletal muscles are also called
A. Smooth muscle
B. * Striated muscle
C. Better teeth
D. All of the above
Real life situation questions
1. Disorders of the nervous system which can be observed at hypovitaminosis of B6 is
related to insufficient formation of biogenic amine which is the inhibitor of CNS activity
of. Choose this biogenic amine:
A. Gamma-amino-butyric acid
B. Histamine
C. Serotonin
D. Dopamine
E. Thriptamine
2. For a patient megaloblastic anaemia ( Addison-birmer disease). The expedient setting of
treatment the vitamin of B12 is in combination with the following preparation:
A. Nicotinic acid
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
B. Lipoic acid
C. Ascorbic acid
D. * Folic acid
E. Pangamic acid
A doctor-dietitian advises to a patient with perinecious anaemia to use a half raw liver in
the diet. The presence of which vitamin in this product does stimulate the process of
hemopoesis?
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B1
C. * Vitamin. B12
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin H
A patient complains about a general weakness and bleeding of gums. Insufficiency of
which vitamin can be reason of such state?
A. * Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin H
E. Vitamin D
A patient complains about absence of appetite, nausea, pain of stomach, diarrhea, head
ache, disorders of memory. There is dermatitis in the area of the neck and face.
Insufficiency of which vitamin does cause such symptoms?
A. * Vitamin B5
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B2
E. Vitamin B6
A patient complains about loss of weight, general weakness, pain in the area of heart,
petehial hemorrhages, bleeding of gums, loss of teeth. The lack of which vitamin does
cause such symptoms?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin PP
C. * Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin B2
A patient was diagnosed with beri-beri disease. Activity of which enzyme is inhibited in
an organism of the patient?
A. Fumarase
B. Citrate synthase
C. Malate dehydrogenase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
E. * Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Activation of peroxide oxidation of lipids takes place due to lack of vitamin E. Vitamin of
is a powerful and main antioxidant. What from the mentioned function does not
confirm it?
A. Participating in the transport of electrons and protons in a respiratory chain
B. Stimulation of ubikhinon synthesis
C. Serves as a trap for free radicals
D. * Stimulates mobilization of Ca from bones
E. Prevents peroxide oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids in composition of cells
membranes
At bleeding the synthetic analogue of vitamin K was used. Choose it
A. Dikumarol
B. * Vikasol
C. Phylokhinon
D. Galascorbin
E. Ubikhinon
10. Biochemical research of patient with complaints about pain in a stomach, diminishing of
secretory function of stomach which accompanied anaemia was established. Choose
vitamin, which has an antianaemic action:
A. * Coballamin
B. Thiamine
C. Retinol
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Tocopherol
11. Biotin deficiency has been found in patient. He consumes large amounts of:
A. Meat
B. * Raw eggs.
C. Milk
D. Potato
E. Liver
12. Concentration of Ca in blood of a patient is increased. Tubular reabsorption of calcium is
increased by
A. Cholecalciferol
B. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
C. * Calcitriol
D. Both B and C
E. All of these
13. Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood of a patient with sympthoms of
beri beriis is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin:
A. * Thiamin
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pantothenic acid
E. Ascorbic acid
14. Determination of activity of alanine aminotransferases (ALT) and aspartate
aminotransferases (AST) widely used in medical practice with the purpose of diagnostics
of internal organs damages. The coenzyme form of what vitamin is a prostetic group of
these enzymes?
A. Vitamin B5
B. * Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin P
15. For the patient with decreased immunity and frequent cold diseases was recommend to
use ascorutin as more effective preparation than ascorbic acid. Which component in this
preparation does strengthen the action of vitamin of C?
A. * Vitamin P
B. Vitamin A
C. Glucose
D. Lactose
E. Vitamin D
16. For treatment of dermatitises, wounds and ulcers which heal badly are used coenzyme
preparations of flavin mononucleotide and flavinate. The active forms of which vitamin
are they?
A. B1
B. * B2
C. B5
D. B3
E. C
17. For treatment of heart diseases apply preparation cocarboxylase. The coenzyme form of
which vitamin is this preparation?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin P
18. Formation of collagen in the organism needs hydroxylating of proline which takes a place
with participation of proline hydroxylase. Which vitamin activates this process:
A. NAD
B. Biotin
C. * Ascorbic acid
D. FAD
E. Pyridoxine phosphate
19. Hyaluronidase splits hyaluronic acid, intercellular permeability rises as a result. Which
vitamin does inhibit activity of hyaluronidase, assist in strengthening of walls of vessels?
A. * Vitamin P
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin B2
E. Vitamin D
20. Insufficiency of ascorbic acid results in development of scurvy. Synthesis of which
protein is diminished?
A. * Collagen
B. Protrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Albumin
E. Ceruloplasmin
21. It was established disorders of hydroxylation of proline and lysine in composition a
collagen of a patient with scurvy. Inhibition of which biochemical process does result in
this disorders?
A. * Microsomal oxidation
B. Peroxidation of lipids
C. Tissue respiration
D. Peroxidase oxidation
E. Phosphorylation
22. It was established of POL. Activation of peroxide oxidation of lipids (POL) and
biopolymers is one of basic mechanisms of damage of structure and function of cellular
membranes. Reason of such effect is:
A. * Formation of free radicals of oxygen and suppression of anti-oxidant system
B. Hypovitaminosis B1
C. Hypervitaminosis B1
D. Hypovitaminosis B12
E. Hypervitaminosis B9
23. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency can be made by measuring the urinary
excretion of
A. Xanthurenic acid
B. Formiminoglutamic acid
C. * Methylmalonic acid
D. Homogentisic acid
E. Both A and C
24. Magenta tongue of a patient is found at the deficiency of the vitamin:
A. * Riboflavin
B. Thiamin
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Ascorbic acid
25. Maintenance of vitamin C in an patients organism is normal. How much ascorbic acid in
normal condition is excreted per day with urine:
A. * 20-30 mg
B. 113,5-170,5 mg
C. 10-28 g
D. 80-100 mg
E. 18-33 g
26. Patien with pancreatitis has hypovitaminisis of vitamin A. Vitamin A play a general role
in the folowing biochemical processes, except:
A. * The transport of Ca2+ across certain membranes
B. Processes of growth and cell differentiation
C. Inhibits the oxidation of hemoglobin
D. Processes of glycoproteins formation
E. Reduces the disulfide bonds to sulfhydril bonds
27. Patien with pancreatitis has hypovitaminisis of vitamin A. The deficiency of tocopherol
causes many other symptoms, except:
A. Infertility in male and female
B. Degeneration of the kidneys
C. Necrosis of the liver
D. * Mental retardation
E. Dystrophy of skeletal muscles
28. Patient complains for dry lips, cracks and crusts in the mouth corners, bright red
tongue, dermatitis of nasolabial folds, photophobia and conjunctivitis. To the lack of
which vitamin is it related?
A. * Riboflavin
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Pyridoxin
D. Coballamin
E. Ascorbic acid
29. Patient suffers from redness of oral mucous, crack of mouth corners, shelling of skin,
dryness of face, inflammation of conjunctiva, vascularisation of a cornea. Possible reason
of this pathology is lack of:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Antioxidants
D. Vitamin K
E. * Vitamin B2
30. Patient after resection of stomach. For absorption of which vitamin the Castles factor is
need (glycoprotein which produced by the cells of stomach)?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B5
E. * Vitamin B12
31. Patient has prolonged dark adaptation time. Prosthetic group in cone cell photoreceptors
is:
A. Iodine
B. Opsin
C. * 11-cis-retinal
D. all-trans-retinal
E. Both C and D
32. Patient has prolonged dark adaptation time. Which from the below mentioned enzymes
does take part in the vision?
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. * Alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Malonyl transferase
E. Alanine aminotransferase
33. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri (lack of B1). B1 formes coenzyme TPP which is
involved in:
A. * Oxidative decarboxylation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Transamination
D. Carboxylation
E. Oxidation
34. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri. Both Wernickes disease and beri beri can be reversed
by administrating:
A. Retinol
B. * Thiamin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Vitamin B12
E. Cholecalciferol
35. Patient has sympthoms of lack of vitamin A. An early effect of vitamin A deficiency is
A. Xerophthalmia
B. Keratomalacia
C. * Prolonged dark adaptation time
D. Follicular hyperkeratosis
E. All of these
36. Patient has sympthoms of pellagra. In pellagra, dermatitis usually affects:
A. * Exposed parts of body
B. Covered parts of body
C. Trunk only
D. All parts of the body
E. Both (A) and (C)
37. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism and hypovitaminosis. For normal
absorption of lipid soluble vitamins are needed:
A. Lipase
B. Phospholipase A2
C. * Bile acids and fats
D. Chylomicrones
E. Beta-lipoproteins
38. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism and hypovitaminosis. Vitamin F is
necessary for the normal vital functions of human organism. Which from the transferred
functions are not inherent him?
A. Necessary for normal growth and regeneration of a skin epithelium
B. Decrease of cholesterol level in blood
C. Necessary for the biosynthesis of prostoglandins
D. Participating in the synthesis of phopho- and glycolipids
E. * Takes part in hydroxylation of proline and lysine
39. Patient suffers from disoders of lipids metabolism. In the human organism vitamins are
transformed. Which vitamin does take part in formation of the coenzyme of acylation
(CoASH)?
A. Vitamin D3
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin A
E. * Vitamin B3
40. Patient suffers from disoders of proteins metabolism. Determination of activity of some
transaminases is widely used in medical practice with a purpose of diagnostics of internal
organs damages. The coenzyme of these enzymes is an active form of such vitamin:
A. * B6
B. B1
C. B12
D. B2
E. PP
41. Patient suffers from disoders of proteins metabolism. Avitaminosis of which vitamin can
decrease activity of transaminases of blood?
A. * B6 (pyridoxine)
B. B1 (Thiaminum)
C. B2 (riboflavin)
D. B5 (nicotine amide)
E. B10 (folic acid)
42. Patient suffers from hypovitaminosis and disoders of lipids metabolism. Lipid soluble
vitamins execute numerous functions in an organism except:
A. * They are components of enzymes
B. Modulators of cell membranes
C. Antioxidants
D. They have provitamins
E. Cause hypervitaminosis
43. Patient suffers from lack of vitamin K. All the following conditions cause a real or
functional deficiency of vitamin K except:
A. Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy
B. * Total lack of red meat in the diet
C. The total lack of green leafy vegetables inthe diet
D. Being a new born infant
E. A and D
44. Patient suffers from lack of vitamin K. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational
modification of the blood clotting factors by acting as cofactor for the enzyme:
A. * Carboxylase
B. Decarboxylase
C. Hydroxylase
D. Oxidase
E. Dehydrogenase
45. Patient suffers from scurvy. Below named are the main clinical symptoms of scurvy,
except:
A. Gums bleeding
B. Pain in heart
C. Tachycardia
D. * Xeroftalmia
E. Petechias
46. Patients wounds heal badly. For treatment of dermatitises, wounds and ulcers are used
coenzymes preparations of flavin mononucleotide and flavinate. The active forms of
what vitamin are they?
A. * B2
B. B1
C. B5
D. B3
E. C
47. People consuming polished rice as their staple food are prone to
A. * Beriberi
B. Pellagra
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Scurvy
E. None of these
48. ?Pernicious anemia was developed in patient suffering from atrophic gastritis. What
cause of this state?
A. Increasing of HCI in gastric juice
B. Increasing of amylase action in urine
C. Increasing of pepsin secretion
D. * The lack of a intrinsic factor in gastric juice
E. All of above
49. Proline and lysine was founded in composition of collagen fibres of a patient with the
frequent bleeding from internal organs and mucous membranes. Lack of which vitamin
does cause disorders of hydroxylation?
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin A
D. Thiamin
E. * Vitamin C
50. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring the urinary excretion of
xanthurenic acid following a test dose of
A. Glycine
B. Histidine
C. * Tryptophan
D. Pyridoxine
E. All of these
51. Sulfanilamides of bacteriostatic action repress the synthesis of nucleotides, nucleic acids
and proteins in microorganisms cells, however in pharmacological doses dont change the
synthesis of these compounds in the human organism because eukaryotic cells:
A. * Dont synthesize folic acid
B. Dont synthesize paraaminobenzoic acid
C. Dont synthesize nucleotides
D. Impermeable for Sulphanilamide
E. Very quickly nactivate Sulphanilamide
52. Sulphanilamide was prescribed to the patient with tonsillitis. The antimicrobial action of
this preparation is caused with disorders of folic acid synthesis. With which compound
does sulphanilamide compete for a active site of enzyme?
A. Glutamic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Succinate
D. Ubikhinon
E. * Para amino benzoic acid
53. The accumulation of pyruvate in blood, decrease of activity of red blood cells
transketolase takes place of a 36 years patient, which suffers with chronic alcoholism.
Insufficiency of coenzyme form of which vitamin causes such changes?
A. * Thiamine diphosphate
B. Carboxybiotin
C. Metylcobalamin
D. Phosphopyridoxal
E. Tetrahydrofolate
54. The lack of vitamin D in the organism of children causes a rickets. All below mentioned
are reasons of this disease except:
A. Disorders of Ca and metabolism
B. Disorders of mineralisation
C. * Lower activity of alkaline phosphatase
D. Lack of ultraviolet
55. The level of hemoglobin is substantially mionectic in blood of patient. A deficit of what
vitamin is more frequent all reason of origin of anaemia?
A. B2
B. A
C. E
D. * B12
E. PP
56. The vitamin which would most likely become deficient in an individual who develop a
completely carnivorous life style is
A. Thiamin
B. Niacin
C. * Vitamin C
D. Cobalamin
E. Cholecalciferol
57. To the patient with the heavy form of diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia was prescribed
vitamin PP. What is its role in metabolism?
A. * Participating in oxidation-reduction processes
B. Participating in the transport of oxygen
C. Participating in the hydrolysis of peptide bonds
D. Participating is in the reactions of isomerization
E. Participating is in formation of peptide bonds
58. Vitamins are the essential components of the human diet. What from below mentioned
vitamins is used for a prophylaxis and treatment of pellagra?
A. * Vitamin B5
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B1
E. Vitamin D
59. Woman which long time ingest the polished rice was diagnosed with polyneuritis (beriberi disease). Absence of which vitamin in a meal does result in development of this
disease?
A. Folic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Pyridoxal
D. * Thiamin
E. E Riboflavin
60. Appearance of what protein of fraction of A1-globulins in blood plasma, determined by
method of electrophoresis, is confirmation of diagnosis the Primary cancer of liver?
A. * A-fetoprotein
B. Transferin
C. Haptoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. Interferon
61. Appearance of what protein of fraction of A1-globulins in blood plasma, determined by
method of electrophoresis, is confirmation of diagnosis the Primary cancer of liver?
A. * A-fetoprotein
B. Transferin
C. Haptoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. Interferon
62. At the electrophoretic research of patient blood plasma found interferon. In the area of
what fraction be found this protein?
A. A - Globulins
B. Albumins
C. C2 Globulins
D. * D - Globulins
E. E - Globulins
63. Biochemical blood test of patient B. in 70 years indicate hyperproteinemia. Which
indexes be responsible such state?
A. 40-60 g/l
B. 20-40 g/l
C. * 100-120 g/l
D. 50-60 g/l
E. 60-85 g/l
64. Boy ., 16 years, from babyhood is sick by emphysema of lung which probably are result
of born insufficiency:
A. Fyibronektyin
B. Ceruloplazmin
C. Haptoglobin
D. * D1-antitrypsin
E. Transferin
65. Clinico-biochemical research of patient K., 52 years, found hypoproteinemia, on what
specifies such index?
A. * 40 g/l
B. 70 g/l
C. 100 g/l
D. 85 g/l
E. 120 g/l
66. Contents of C- globulins in blood plasma consist 30 gr/l. It can meet at all of the
followings states, except:
A. Chronic inflammatory processes

B. Infection diseases
C. Polyartrites
D. * Lung emfizema
E. Inflammatory of lung
67. Courtmedexamination for identification of haemoglobin and manifestation of poisoning
of CO or methemoglobinformations used method:
A. Photoelectrocolorimetryc
B. Polarimetryc
C. * Spektral analysis
D. Oxyidometryc
E. Rentgenstructure analysis
68. Exit of ions of copper from a vascular river-bed and his accumulation of proteoglicans of
connective tissue, which shows up pathological changes in a liver, brain (hepatocerebralic
degeneration), cornea, probably is the result of lowering of maintenance in blood plasma:
A. Feritin
B. * Ceruloplasmin
C. Transferin
D. Fibronektyn
E. Haptoglobin
69. For diagnostics of rheumatism in a patient was appointed analisis of blood on the reactiv-protein. In the zone of what fraction of proteins does this protein appear on the
electrophoregrame?
A. Albumins
B. B1-globulins
C. . 2- globulins
D. D- globulins
E. * E-globulins
70. Genetic deases which arise in result of violation formation G - and -polypeptide chains in
equal amounts in the molecule of haemoglobin named:
A. Adisson-Birmer oncotic anaemia
B. Beri-beri deases
C. Porphirinuria
D. Sickle cell anaemia
E. * Talasemia
71. In a pacient . 38 years is uncompensated form of Diabetus Mellitus. What type of
hemoglobin does appear in erythrocytes at these terms?
A. Fetal haemoglobin (HbF)
B. Mutant haemoglobin (HbS)
C. * Glycosilic haemoglobin (HbA1c)
D. Anomalic haemoglobin G
E. Metgemoglobin (MetHb)
72. In a patient during operation arise a stop of respiration. What consequences of this state
are observed in blood:
A. * Increase parcial pressure of CO2 and decline of blood
B. Lowering of parcial pressure of CO2 in blood
C. Increase of blood
D. Lowering of blood
E. Respiratory alkalosis
73. In a patient observe hypoalbuminemia, which can be accompanied:
A. Hyperglicemia
B. * Hypocalciemia
C. Hypochloremia
D. Hypercholesterolemia
E. Hyperketonemia
74. In a patient which appealed to the doctor, found out the method of electrophoresis the
increase of 1 globulin fraction of blood, which is possible mainly for an account:
A. Haptoglobin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. * C1-fetoprotein
D. Ferritin
E. Transferin
75. In biochemical laboratory by the method of electrophoreses is conduct fractionating of
hemolysate of new-born child. It is set that correlation of haemoglobin A the adult (HbA)
and haemoglobin F (HbF) new-born is within the limits of norm and makes:
A. HbA- 50% ; HbF- 50%
B. HbA- 40% ; HbF- 60%
C. * HbA- 80% ; HbF- 20%
D. HbA- 5% ; HbF- 95%
E. HbA- 20% ; HbF- 80%
76. In blood of healthy man supported the constant concentration of hydrogen ions, that put
in arterial plasma:
A. 7,26 0,04
B. 7,16 0,04
C. 7,96 0,04
D. * 7,36 0,04
E. 7,46 0,04
77. In hospital brought an ambulance a patient L., 28 years, with the signs of the sharp
poisoning. A biochemical investigation of blood indicate high maintenance in it
methemoglobin. Which from the substances can reduce to such state?
A. Lead solts
B. Alcaloids
C. Radionuklyds
D. * Cianids
E. Carbon monoxide CO
78. In man 30 years, that have kidney disease, which accompanied with proteinuria, appeared
the signs of violation of rolling up to blood. One of the credible causes is:
A. * Hypoalbuminemia and lowering maintenance of Ca
B. Lowering maintenance of globulins
C. Glucosuria
D. Lowering maintenance of transdoerine
E. Hypoproteinemia and increase maintenance of Ca
79. In sick B. 41 years, is diagnosed - myelomatosis. Except for clinical signs, characteristic
for this disease, pay aattention to hypoproteinemia (180 g/l), main causes of which is
increase maintenance of:
A. Albumins
B. B1- globulins
C. C2- globulins
D. * Bens-Jonson protein
E. Ceruloplazmin
80. In sick M. 30 years diagnosed hepatitis, main cause - violation transporting by blood:
A. Glucose
B. Renin
C. * Calcium
D. Amino acids
E. Silfur
81. In the patient - cirrhosis of liver. What changes on the electrophoregramme of proteins of
blood plasma can be here?
A. * Decrease fractions of albumins and D- globulins
B. Increases fractions of s- and - globulins
C. Increases fractions of albumins and lowering of I- and - globulins
D. Increase fractions of albumins and lowering of I- globulins
E. Changes are not observed
82. In the patient M., 30 years, that during a few years suffers chronic hepatitis, decline
decreases of oncotic pressure of blood plasma which characterized the rise of edemata.
What situations can corresponding to this case?
A. Increase concentrations of albumins
B. Elevation maintenance of E - globulins
C. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins
D. * Decrease concentrations of albumins
E. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins
83. Influence of toxic exogenous matters on the organism of man cause formation of
additional fraction of proteins in blood plasma, that discovered the method of
electrophoresis. It is:
A. Albumins
B. * Prealbumins
C. C1- globulins
D. D2-globulins
E. E-globulins
84. Influence of toxic exogenous matters on the organism of man cause formation of
additional fraction of proteins in blood plasma, that discovered the method of
electrophoresis. It is:
A. Albumins
B. * Prealbumins
C. C1- globulins
D. D2-globulins
E. E-globulins
85. Lowering of oncotic pressure of blood and, as result the exit of water from blood at
tissues which is accompanied edemata, comes at decreasing of albumins in blood plasma
below:
A. 60 g/l
B. 80 g/l
C. 50 g/l
D. * 30 g/l
E. 40 g/l
86. On sharpening of rheumatic process in the patients, specifies the increase of maintenance
of all the followings indexes of blood, except:
A. -reactive protein
B. B1 - antitrypsin
C. Sialic acids
D. Haptoglobin
E. * Albumins
87. Patient A., 58 years, that suffers a chronic pyelonephritis (kidney disease), found out
research proteins of blood plasma by method of electrophoresis additional fraction which
confirms this diagnosis:
A. * Prealbumin
B. B2-globulin
C. Albumin
D. D1- globulin
E. Bens-Jonson protein
88. Patient A., 58 years, that suffers a chronic pyelonephritis (kidney disease), found out
research proteins of blood plasma by method of electrophoresis additional fraction which
confirms this diagnosis:
A. * Prealbumin
B. B2-globulin
C. Albumin
D. D1- globulin
E. Bens-Jonson protein
89. Relative hyperproteinemia takes place at all of the below states, except:
A. Diarrhea
B. Burns
C. Violetion of hemodynamics
D. Vomiting
E. * Mielomnic disease
90. Sick women, 50 years, it is hospitalized concerning sharpening of rhematoid process. The
presence high maintenance of what protein of acute phase of inflammation in blood
plasma will probably confirm this diagnosis? :
A. Transferin
B. * C-reactive protein
C. Albumin
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. E-fetoprotein
91. Sick women, 50 years, it is hospitalized concerning sharpening of rhematoid process. The
presence high maintenance of what protein of acute phase of inflammation in blood
plasma will probably confirm this diagnosis? :
A. Transferin
B. * C-reactive protein
C. Albumin
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. E-fetoprotein
92. The degree of oxygenation of haemoglobin (formation of HbO2) depends from the
followings factors, except:
A. Parcial pressure of blood
B. Lowering
C. Concentration of carbon dioxide
D. * Concentration of 1,3-dyphosphoglicerate
E. Concentration of 2,3- dyphosphoglicerate
93. The most credible clinical-biochemical sign of sickle cell anaemia is:
A. Uremia
B. Hemoragy
C. Hyperglicemia
D. * Anemia
E. Glukosuria
94. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have replacement in position 6 of T-chain of
hemoglobin glutamic acid on:
A. Phenilalanin
B. Serin
C. Aspartat
D. * Valin
E. Methionin
95. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have replacement in position 6 of t-chain of
hemoglobin on a valine:
A. Methionine
B. * Glutamic acid
C. Serine
D. Cysteine
E. Tryptophan
96. The people-transmitters of gene of HbS have an origin and development of desease:
A. Talasemia
B. Hemoglobinose
C. * Sickle cell anaemia
D. Hemoglobinose F
E. Hemoglobinose D
97. To the doctor appealed a patient with complaints about a general weakness, enhanceable
fatigueability, mionectic capacity, turn attention on itself the blue color of scleroticas is
enhanceable. In anamnesis - disease of Konovalov-Vilson is diagnosed in family of
patient. What diagnostic test of blood plasma confirm or eliminate this disease for a
patient?
A. * Contents of ceruloplasmin
B. Aktivity of A-amilase
C. Aktivity of trypsin
D. Contents of properdin
E. Contents of macroglobulin
98. What fractions of proteins discover the method of electrophoresis in blood plasma of
healthy people:
A. Prealbumins, P1-, ,2- globulins
B. B1-, ,2-, , -, ,-globulins, protein of Bens-jonson
C. * Albumins, A1-, ,2-, ,-, ,-globulins
D. Prealbumins, P1-, ,2-, ,-, ,-globulins
E. Albumins, prealbumins, A1-, ,2-, ,- globulins
99. What protein of blood absent in blood plasma of healthy man?
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Transferin
C. Haptoglobin
D. D2-macroglobulin
E. * C-reactive protein
100.
A 3- month child has development asevere form of hypoxia manifested by
dyspnea and cyanosis. What way of hemoglobin formation is broken?
A. Replacement of hemoglobin F with hemoglobin M
B. Replacemenr of hemoglobin F woth hemoglobin S
C. Replacement of hemoglobin F with glycosylated hemoglobin
D. Replacement of hemoglobin F with methemoglobin
E. Replacement of hemoglobin F with hemoglobin A
101.
A 38-year-old women suffers from rheumatism in its active phase. The
determination of which of the following laboratory indexes is essential for diagnostics in
case of the pathology?
A. Urea
B. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
E. Transferrin
102.
A 70-year-old man has an intensified blood clotting, caused, first and foremost, by
the decrease of the level of . In the blood plasma
A. Vitamin D.
B. Albumin
C. Immunoglobulin A
D. Calcium
E. Antithrombin
103.
A considerable rise activities of MB-form of creatine kinase amf LDH1 is
revealed in the blood of a pscient. Name the most probable pathology.
A. Hepatitis
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Reumatism
D. Pancreatitis
E. Cholectstitis
104.
A disease of newborns caused by maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells is
A. Hemophilia
B. Erythryblastosis fetalis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Erythropoietin
E. Chronic leukemia
105.
A man in the state of rest purposely makes himself breathe frequently and deeply
for 3 or 4 minutes. How does this exercise influence the acid-baseic balance of the
organism?
A. Metabolic alkalosis appears
B. Respiratory acidosis appears
C. Respiratory alkalosis appears
D. Metabolic acidosis appears
E. Acid-base balance does not change
106.
A patient has sicle-cell anemia diagnosed. Replacement of which amino acid in
the hemoglobin polypeptide chains with valine result in this disease?
A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. Leucine
D. Arginine.
E. Threonine
107.
A patient shows rapid development of edemata. The decrease of which serum
blood proteins is responsible for edemata appearance?
A. A1-globulins
B. Albumins
C. C2-globulins
D. D-globulins
E. Fibrinogen
108.
A patient with alkalosis would experience
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. * Increased acid secretion at kidney
D. Higher blood pressures
E. Increased sodium retention
109.
A six month-old child has manifestations of frequent and axpressed hypodermic
hemorrhages.The administration of synthetic analogue of vitamin K (vikasol) proved to
have a favorable effect. In the reaction of i-carboxylation of glutamate of what blood

coagulation system proteins does this this vitamin take pert?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Hademan factor
D. Antihemophilic globulin A
E. Rosenthal factor
110.
After repairing a car ion a garage, a car driver was brought to a clinic with
symptoms of poisoning with exhaust fumes. The concentration of what type of
hemoglobin is ncreased in his blood?
B. Methemoglobin
C. Carbhemoglobin
D. Oxyhemoglobin
E. Glycosylated hemoglobin
111.
Among the types of haemoglobin, indicate type of Hb of healthy person:
A. HbE
B. HbD
C. . HbN
D. * HbA
E. . HbS
112.
An emergency doctor stated the sign of poisoning by carbon monoxide. What
compound became the reason for in?
B. Carbhemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
E. * Oxyhemoglobin
113.
As a result of poisoning with carbon monoxide a person has got a head-ache, short
breath, vertigo. The decline of the content of what compound in blood resulted in this?
A. * Oxyhemoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Carbhemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin
E. Deoxyhemoglobin
114.
?Basic amount of energy necessary for the transport systems through membranes
and for maintenance of integrity of cellular membrane, erythrocyte get for an account:
A. A-oxidation of higher fatty acids
B. Krebs cycle
C. * Anaerobic glycolysis
D. Aerobic glycolysis
E. Penthosophosphate pathways
115.
Currently, many states perform capital punishment (execution) using potassium
chloride injection. Why would this kind of an injection cause death?
A. Increased K+ results in disruption of the electric potential of cardiac tissue
B. Hypokalemia causes dehydration
C. Potassium chloride is an adrenergic receptor mimic
D. Hyperkalemia results in acidosis which is lethal
E. * Increased K+ causes hyperpolarization of membranes
116.
117.
Hemoglobin catabolism is accompanied by the release of iron which enters bone
marrow in composition with special transport protein and there after is repetedly used for
the synthesis of hemoglobin. The transport protein for iron is:
A. * Transferrin (siderifilin)
B. Transcobalamin
C. Haptoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. Albumin
118.
If a patient's pH is 7.3, PCO2 is 50 mmHg and bicarbonate level is higher than
normal, she is in
A. * Metabolic acidosis compensated
B. Respiratory acidosis compensated
C. Respiratory acidosis uncompensated
D. Metabolic alkalosis compensated
E. Metabolic acidosis uncompensated
119.
In the hospital of first-aid brought the patient M. which was poisoned carbon
monoxide (CO). The spectral analysis of blood of patient confirmed a presence in it:
A. * Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Methemoglobin
C. Carbhemoglobin
D. Oxyhemoglobin
E. Carbylaminhemoglobin
120.
Intoxicationcan occuer as a result of the increase of carbon monoxide
concentration in the air. Thus, transport of oxygen from the lungd to tissues realized by
hemoglobin breaks. What hemoglobin derivative appers in this case?
A. Methemoglobin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin
D. Carbhemoglobin
E. Hemochromogen
121.
lymphatic vessels are blocked because of injury or disease?
A. Hemophilia
B. * Stroke
C. Edema
D. Acidosis
E. Alcalosis
122.
many weeks for the body RESERVE of red corpuscles to be replaced? Is it:
A. 1 week
B. 3 weeks
C. * 7 weeks
D. 21 weeks
E. 12 days
123.
Normal arterial blood pH is
A. Highly acidic
B. 6.45
C. Neutral
D. Strongly alkaline
E. * Between 7.35 and 7.45
124.
Once CO2 enters the blood stream in the tissues it is transported to the lungs
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
As a dissolved gas in the blood plasma.

In red blood cell cytoplasm
Bound to hemoglobin.
* As HCO3 - ion in the blood plasma
As HCO3 - ion in the red blood cell cytoplasm
125.
Patient ., 24 years have anaemia during few years. Hospitalized concerning great
pains in the area of stomach and joints. Laboratory information: erythrocytes 3200000,
leucocytes 14000, thrombocytes 537000. During electrophoresis of hemolysate HbS
was found and 3,2% HbF. Most credible diagnose:
A. Hemoglobinose F
B. Hemoglobinose C
C. Talasemia
D. * Sickle cell anaemia
E. Hemoglobinose D
126.
The molecular analysis of hemoglobin of a patient suffering from anemia showed
replacement of 6Glu with 6Val in rWhat is the molecular mechanism of this pathology?
A. Gene mutation
B. Chromosome mutation
C. Genomic mutation
D. Amplification of genes
E. Transduction of genes
127.
The right side of the heart deals with :
A. Oxygenated blood
B. * Deoxygenated blood
C. Mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
D. Either a or b at a time
E. All above
128.
The threads formed during clotting are made up of :
A. Thrombin
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. * Fibrin
E. Fibronectin
129.
Under normal circumstances, _________ is probably the greatest source of H+.
A. arbon dioxide
B. Lactic acid
C. Oxidation of fatty acids
D. * Hydrolysis reactions
E. Salts
130.
Under the action of oxidants (hydrogen peroxide, nitrogen axides atc/),Fe2+containing hemoglobin is converted into the substance that includes Fe3+ and is not able
to transport oxygen. What substabce is it?
A. Carbhemoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Oxyhemoglobin
E. Glycosylated hemoglobin
131.
Water, nutrients,.wastes, and gases are to the plasma as ____ is/are to the red
blood cells.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. * Oxygen
C. Gamma globulins
D. Bicarbonate
E. Hemoglobin
132.
What compound of hemoglobin will have the inhabitans of the house, where the
flue was blocked untimely?
A. Deoxyhemoglobin
B. Carbhemoglobin
C. * Carboxyhemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin
E. Oxyhemoglobin
133.
Which of the following is a treatment for leukemia?
A. Radiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. Vitamin B12 shots
D. Both a and b
E. * A, B, and C
134.
Which of the following is not likely to cause acidosis?
A. * Lung cancer
B. Hipoxia
C. Ketonemia
D. Diarrhea
E. Diabets mellitus
135.
Which of the following is the cause of sickle cell anemia:
A. A deletion of the beta globin gene promoter
B. The increased production of the alpha globin gene due to a duplication.
C. The increased production of the beta globin gene due to a duplication
D. * A missense mutation in the coding region of the beta globin gene.
E. A nonsense mutation in the coding region of the beta globin gene
136.
Which of these is not a consequence of vomiting?
A. Dehydration
B. * Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
E. Deleytion of hydrocarbonates in organism
137.
-thalassemia of a patient is diagnosed. What disturbances concerning
hemoglobin synthesis are observed in case of this disease?
A. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis
B. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis
C. Inhibition of I-chains synthesis
D. Inhibition of I- and --chains synthesis
E. Inhibition of I- and --chains synthesis
138.
A patient was diagnosed with the hereditary deficiency of lipoprotein lipase.
Which biochemical changes in the blood serum of this patient are possible?
A. * An increase of chylomicrons and VLDL
B. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and free fatty acids
C. Increase of amount of LDH
D. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and LDH
E. Increase of amount of HDL
139.
The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease contain elevated
levels of each of the following amino acid, except :
A. Valine
B. Leucine
C. * Lysine
D. D.Isoleucine
E. none of above
140.
. In the patient M., 30 years, that during a few years suffers chronic hepatitis,
decline decreases of oncotic pressure of blood plasma which characterized the rise of
edema. What situations can corresponding to this case?
A. Increase concentrations of albumins
B. Elevation maintenance of E - globulins
C. Decrease maintenance of r - globulins
D. * Decrease concentrations of albumins
E. Decrease maintenance of D - globulins
141.
A 38-year-old women suffers from rheumatism in its active phase. The
determination of which of the following laboratory indexes is essential for diagnostics in
case of the pathology?
A. Urea
B. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
E. Transferrin
142.
A 45 years old women after long starvation has hyperketonemia. Where the
synthesis of ketone bodies takes place:
A. * mitochondria of hepatocytes
B. cytoplasm of hepatocytes
C. mitochindria of cardiomyocytes
D. nucleus of cardiomyocytes
E. cytoplasm of adipocytes
143.
A 5 years old child intestinal worms discovered. Which changes in a blood test do
testify the allergic state of organism of child?
A. Increase of amount of red blood cells
B. Worsening of blood clotting
C. * Increase of amount of eosinophils, basophiles
D. Diminishing of lymphocytes and thrombocytes
E. A blood test is in a norm
144.
A 5 years old child suffers from xanthomatos, increase of liver. Table of contents
of general lipids in blood 16 g/l, the cholesterol 9 mmol/l. After centrifugation of blood a
white layer appears. The increase of maintenance of what transport forms of lipids in
blood does take a place in this case and to the defect of what enzyme it is related?
A. Alpha-lipoproteins, LCHAT
B. Beta- lipoproteins, cholesterol estherase
C. Chylomicrons , lipoprotein lipase
D. VLDL, lipoprotein lipase
E. Chylomicrons, tissue lipase
145.
A 70-year-old man has an intensified blood clotting, caused, first and foremost, by
the decrease of the level of ________in the blood plasma
A. Vitamin D.
B. Albumin
C. Immunoglobulin A
D. Calcium
E. Antithrombin
146.
A patient has increased content of chylomicrons on an empty stomach, the
concentration of fats is extraordinarily enhanced in blood after meal, there are depositions
of fat in a skin (xanthoma). The possible reason of such state is:
A. Excess usage of animal fats
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hyperactivity of tissue lipase

Disorders of fats oxidation
* Insufficient activity of lipoprotein lipase in endothelium of vessels
The organism dont need energy of fats oxidation
147.
A patient has increased content of chylomicrons on an empty stomach, the
concentration of fats is extraordinarily enhanced in blood after meal, there are depositions
of fat in a skin (xanthoma). The possible reason of such state is:
A. Excess usage of animal fats
B. Hyperactivity of tissue lipase
C. Disorders of fats oxidation
D. * Insufficient activity of lipoprotein lipase in endothelium of vessels
E. The organism dont need energy of fats oxidation
148.
A patient is found to have a high concentration of cholesterol in the blood and
deposits of cholesterol under the skin. The patient is diagnosed with familial
hypercholesterolemia. What is the likely cause of this condition?
A. A deficiency in insulin production by the pancreas.
B. Insufficient chylomicron concentration in the blood.
C. Overproduction of lysosomal lipases.
D. * Lack of LDL receptors on the surfaces of nonhepatic cells.
149.
A patient suffers from obesity, atherosclerosis, in blood was established the
increase of atherogenic lipoproteins. What from the below mentioned is not reason of
such state?
A. Genetic inclination
B. Hormonal disorders
C. A lack of carbohydrates in a diet
D. Excess of carbohydrates in a diet
E. Hypodynamia
150.
A patient was diagnosed with the hereditary deficiency of lipoprotein lipase.
Which biochemical changes in the blood serum of this patient are possible?
A. * An increase of chylomicrons and VLDL
B. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and free fatty acids
C. Increase of amount of LDH
D. Increase of amount of chylomicrons and LDH
E. Increase of amount of HDL
151.
A. Hydrogenic
B. Electrostatic
C. * Peptide
D. Vandervaal's
E. Hydrophobic
152.
A. Hydrogenic
B. Electrostatic
C. * Peptide
D. Vandervaal's
E. Hydrophobic
153.
An antigen after incorporation into an organism contacts with the receptors of
lymphocytes, causes the transition of cells to a mitotic cycle. Transfer of the signal from a
membrane is carried out with the help of mediators. Which from them does not
participate in this process?
A. Inositol triphosphate
B. Diacylglycerol
C. Ions of Ca++
D. * UTP
E. cGP
154.
Antibodies are powerful weapons in the body's defense against microorganisms.
However, there are limits to what an antibody can actually do. Which of the following is
NOT an action that an antibody can actually accomplish?
A. cause an agglutination of antibodies and antigens, forming an antibodyantigen
complex
B. attach to a bacterial cell antigen, preventing the bacterium from attaching to
anything else
C. start a complement protein cascade
D. * poke microscopic "holes" in a bacterial cell membrane, causing it to die
E. Both A and D are correct.
155.
As a result of development of kidney insufficiency a patient has a necessity for the
transplantation of a kidney. Which analysis must be done to avoid tearing away of
transplanted organ?
A. To define the amount of gamma-globulins in blood
B. To define the amount of lymphocytes in blood
C. * To define the proteins of main complex of histocompatability in leucocytes
D. To discover state of the system of complement in blood of recipient
E. To define A/G coefficient.
156.
As result of incorporation of antigen in an organism takes place a complex of
biochemical processes, directed on it neutralization and deletion. Choose from the below
mentioned an incorrect immune responses of organism:
A. Binding of antigen to the proteins-receptors of lymphocytes
B. * Activating of gluconeogenesis
C. Activating, prolipheration, differentiation of T-cell
D. Modification of B-lymphocytes in plasmatic cells and synthesis of antibodies
E. Activating of the system of complement, endocytosis and lysis of the antigen by
tissue macrophages
157.
Crioglobulin the protein of C-globulin fraction, which absent in blood plasma of
healthy people, appears at:
B. Wilson disease
C. * Leykoses, mielom disease
D. Starvation
E. Lung emphysema
158.
During the complex inspection of 48-years-old patient was determined HDL/LDL
which used for diagnostic:
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Hypothyroidism
D. * Atherosclerosis
E. Myocardium infarction
159.
During the complex inspection of 65-years-old patient was determined HDL/LDL
which used for diagnostic of:
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Hypothyroidism
E. Myocardium infarction
160.
Essence of immune reaction of organism is formation of antibodies against
foreign factors. Choose what from below mentioned functions are not specific for the
antibodies:
A. Fastening and activating of complement
B. * Ability to change membrane potential of the antigen
C. Binding to the receptors on the cells surface of macrophages
D. Binding to the receptors of mast cell
E. Ability to penetrate the placenta barrier
161.
How is it a mother who is breast feeding positively affects her baby's immune
system?
A. she gives her baby permanent antibodies she has produced
B. she gives her baby antigens she has produced in her breast milk
C. * she gives her baby antibodies she has produced in her breast milk
D. she gives her baby immune cells to fight incoming invaders
E. Both C and B are correct.
162.
If all of your cells are covered in antigens (and they are), why doesn't your
immune system kill/attack all cells?
A. because your immune system is dedicated to finding invaders
B. * because your immune system is very sophisticated
C. because your healthy cells are not "tagged" in any way
D. because your cells are "tagged" healthy by cell membrane protiens.
E. all of the above
163.
In the patient - cirrhosis of liver. What changes on the electrophoregramme of
proteins of blood plasma can be here?
A. * Decrease fractions of albumins and D- globulins
B. Increases fractions of I- and - globulins
C. Increases fractions of albumins and lowering of I- and - globulins
D. Increase fractions of albumins and lowering of f- globulins
E. Changes are not observed
164.
Intoxication can occur as a result of the increase of carbon monoxide
concentration in the air. Thus, transport of oxygen from the lungd to tissues realized by
hemoglobin breaks. What hemoglobin derivative appers in this case?
A. Methemoglobin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin
D. Carbhemoglobin
E. Hemochromogen
165.
?On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which
receptors?
A. Histons
B. Proteins
C. Krioglobulines
D. * Immunoglobulines
E. Globin
166.
On the surface of lymphoid cells (B-lymphocytes) proteins -receptors which
receptors?
A. Histons
B.
C.
D.
E.
Proteins
Krioglobulines
* Immunoglobulines
Globin
167.
Once vaccinated, you have had a primary exposure to specific antigens. If you
ever encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to:
A. cytotoxic T cells
B. antibodies
C. antigen presenting cells
D. * memory cells
E. all of the above
168.
Patient has ketonemia and ketonuria, amount of glucose in blood 3,5 mM/l,
cholesterol 4,5 mM/l. What malfunctions could cause this?
A. * diabetes mellitus
B. carbohydrates deficit in nutrition
C. atherosclerosis
D. excessive usage of fats
E. liver disease
169.
Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edem Simultaneously in an
170.
Pollen often causes such allergic reactions as itch, edema. Simultaneously in an
171.
Proteins of main complex of histocompatability are the main proteins of
immunological individuality of organism. All below mentioned functions inherent them
EXEPT:
A. Participating is in cooperation between lymphoid cells
B. They are proteins of transplantation
C. * Execute a catalytic function
D. Participating in cooperating with an antigen on the cells surface
E. Send cytotoxic T-effectors to the infected target.
172.
A. * About 105
B. 10-20 molecules
C. Near 1000 molecules
D. 1010
E. None of above
173.
A. * About 105
B.
C.
D.
E.
10-20 molecules
Near 1000 molecules
1010
None of above
174.
Reliability of implementation of protective function of organism is provided by
the numerous factors of the immune system. Immune function is inherent to all below
mentioned factors except:
A. Plenty of clones of B- lymphocytes
B. A high affinity of membranes immunoglobulins to the antigens
C. Cooperation of many clones of B- lymphocytes with antigen
D. Presence in the organism of activated B- lymphocytes as cells of memory to the
certain antigens
E. * Sufficient content of proteins in blood
175.
Technogenic, ecological, social and other factors often result in the damage of the
immune system of organism, reduce resistance of human organism to the infections.
Immunological insufficiency can be result of such disorders except:
A. * Insufficient synthesis by the liver of gamma-globulins
B. Deficiency of stem cells of bony marrow
C. Disorders of activating of T-cells
D. Disorders of function B-lymphocytes and secretion of antibodies
E. Deficiency of the system of complement
176.
choose correct:
177.
choose correct:
178.
The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. Which
of the following is the possible reason for this:
A. liver disease
B. starvation
C. * kidney disease
D. acidosis
E. thyrotoxicosis
179.
The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. Which
of the following is the possible reason for this:
A. liver disease
B. starvation
C. * kidney disease
D. acidosis
E. thyrotoxicosis
180.
The concentration of urea in the blood of healthy adult is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10-12 mM/l
12-20 mM/l
1-2 mM/l
* 3-8 mM/l
15-18 mM/l
181.
A. Bony marrow
B. Thymus
D. Lymphatic nodes
E. * Hypophysis
182.
A. Bony marrow
B. Thymus
D. Lymphatic nodes
E. * Hypophysis
183.
The disease AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). One of
the reasons why this disease has resisted a cure is because it attacks the body's immune
system, the very system that is designed to resist viral infections. Which of the immune
system cells does the AIDS virus specifically target for infection?
A. B cells
B. * Helper T cells
C. memory cells
D. natural killer cells
184.
The following acute phase protein increase dramatically in concentration during
inflammation :
A. ceruloplasmin
B. haptoglobulin
D. fibrinogen
E. C3
185.
The immunological response of organism for foreign factors is closely related to
the functions of proteins of main complex of histocompatability that initiate the lysis of
cells. The mechanism of their action includes the row of processes, except:
A. Proteins of main complex of histocompatability send cytotoxic T-effectors to the
antigen
B. Lymphocyte throws out on a membrane of the target-cells (antigen) protein
perphorin
C. Perphorin forms pores in the cellular membrane of target -cells
D. * Electrochemical potential changes on the membrane of target -cells
E. Through pores in a membrane water and electrolytes flow and cause lysis of
target -cells
186.
The patient has symptoms of general adiposity and atherosclerotic changes. From
the list of possible reasons should be ixcluded:
A. * lack of carbohydrates in food
B. smoking
C. alcohol addiction
D. genetic factors
E. excess of carbohydrates and lipids in nutrition

187.
The patient possibly has atherosclerosis. What of the below helped to prove this?
A. increase of general lipids in blood
B. increase of ketone bodies in blood
C. increase of high density liporoteins
D. decrease of phospholipids in blood
E. * increase of low density liporoteins
188.
The surface of bacterial cells is covered with proteins that the human body can
recognize as belonging to a foreign, invading microorganism. These molecules are
collectively referred to as ...
A. antibiotics
B. antiseptics
C. * antigens
D. antibodies
189.
The wide spectrum of immunological effects is related to the row of soluble
factors of protein nature, which produced by T-cell, mast cells, macrophages, fibroblasts.
All below named proteins belong to these factors, except:
A. * Liberines and statins
B. Cytokines, monokines
C. Lymphokines, lymphotoxins
D. Interleukins
E. Interferon
190.
To the deficiency of which immune proteins AIDS related?
A. B1- antitrypsin
B. * ? - globulins
C. -reactive protein
D. Macroglobulin
E. Ceruloplazmin
191.
Transplantation of organs and cells between persons, which are not relatives,
frequently leads to tearing away of transplanted organ. What proteins are unique for each
organism and serve as the markers of immunological individuality of organism?
A. Immunoglobulins of B- lymphocytes
B. Proteins-receptors of T-cell
C. Proteins of the system of complement
D. * Proteins of I class of main complex of histocompatability
E. Proteins of II class of main complex of histocompatability
192.
Which class of antibody is secreted into breast milk where it is delivered to the
suckling neonate, and transported through the gut lumen into blood of the neonate?
A. * IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE
193.
A new-born child manifests symptoms of icterus. The introduction of low doses of
Phenobarbital (the inductor of the synthesis of UDP-glucuronyltransferase) promoted the
improvement of the clinical state. Which of the biochemical processes listed below is
activated by the Phenobarbital-induced enzyme?
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Microsomal oxidation
C. Tissue respiration
D. * Conjugation
E. Glycogen synthesis
194.
In a patient increased rotting of proteins in an intestine. How are the toxic
products of this process harmless?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Isomerisation
C. Solvatacion
D. Partial proteolisis
E. * Conugation with sulphuric and glucuronic acids
195.
50-years patient is disturbed by pains in right underrib after the reception of fatty
food. Esteblish yellow colour of sclerotic and skin, acholic excrement, urine, to the
color of beer. Presence of what matter in urine of patient did stipulate the dark coloure of
urine?
A. Bilirubinglucoronids
B. Ketone bodies
C. Urobilin
D. Sterkobilin
E. Urea
196.
A 16-year patient is diagnosedwith hereditary deficiency of UDPglucuronyltransferase. Laboratory investigation showed hyperbilirubinemia conditioned
mainly by the increase of concentration of.. in the blood.
A. Urobilinogen
B. Direct bilirubin
C. * Indirect bilirubin
D. Stercobilinogen
E. Biliverdin
197.
A 20-year-old patient is diagnised with inherited deficiency of UDPglucuronyltransferase. The increased concentration of what blood component confirms
the diagnosis?
A. Stercobilinogen
B. Direct (conjugative) bilirubin
C. Urobilin
D. * Indirect (conjugation) bilirubin
E. Indican
198.
A 26 years-old women complain the lowering concentration of urea in blood on
such conditions, except:
A. Defeat of liver by a pathological process
B. Insufficiency one of enzymes which form urea
C. Acidosis
D. Protein starvation
E. * Surplus using of proteins
199.
A 26 years-old women on 2-7 days of complete starvation maintenance of glucose
in blood of healthy man is supported within the limits of norm to due to:
A. Gluconeogenesis from lactat and pyruvat
B. Breaking up to glucose of glycogen of liver
C. * Gluconeogenesis from amino acids and glycerin
D. Breaking up to glucose of glycogen of muscles
E. Converting into glucose of fatty acids
200.
A 35-year-old developed immune hemolytic anemia. The level of what substance
increase in the serum of blood to the utmost?
A. Mesobilinogen
B. Direct bilirubin
C. Stercobilinogen
D. * Indirect bilirubin
E. Protoporphyrin
201.
A 46-year women, suffering from cholelithiasis developed icterus. The urine
become dark-yellow colour and the feces discolored. The concentration of what
substance in the blood serum woulde rise mostly?
A. Non-conjugation bilirubin
B. * Conjugation bilirubin
C. Biliverdin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. Urobilinogen
202.
A 54 years-old man at the short starvation after the consumption of carbohydrate
meal, hexosis in a liver transform into glucose-6-phosphate, which can feel farther
transformations, except:
A. * Gluconeogenesis
B. Pentosophosphate cycle
C. Synthesis of glycogen
D. Glycolysis
E. Synthesis of fatty acids
203.
A 57-year-old woman suffered an attack of hepatic colic followed by jaundice.
Ultrasound examination revealed an accluson of the general bile duct with a stone. The
rising level of what substance in blood is indicative of mechanical jaundice?
A. Verdohemoglobin
B. Biliverdin
C. * Direct bilirubin
D. Indirect bilirubin
E. Stercobilin
204.
A 68-year-old woman visits her physician complaining of labored breathing and
swelling in her lower extremities. Physical examination is consistent with a diagnosis of
congestive heart failure. An increase in which of the following is the most likely
explanation for the swelling in her legs?
A. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
B. Lymph flow
C. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure
D. * Right atrial pressure
E. Stroke volume
205.
A 70 years old man have fatty infiltration of liver, which often drive to fatty
degeneration, can cause all factors, except:
A. Exessive arrive of fats from fatty tissues
B. Lag of metabolisation of fat from arrive
C. Chronic protracted and infectious illnesses
D. Arrive to organism galogen derivatives of carbochydrates
E. * Predominance in a ration of proteins
206.
A new-born child shows signs of yellow coloring of skin and mucous membranes.
A possible cause of this state is the provisional deficiency of the enzyme:
A. * UDP-glucuronyltransferase
B. Uridine transferase
C. Heme synthetase
D. Heme oxygenase
207.
A newborn child is found to have physiological icterus. The level of free bilirubin
in the blood considerably exceeds the normal range. The deficiency of what enzyme is
status conditioned by?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Heme oxygenase
Transaminase
Xanthine oxidase
D.Adenosine deaminase
* UDP-glucuronyltransferase
208.
A newborn with hemolytic illness has developed encephalopathy. The increased
level of what substance in blood caused the lesion of the CNS?
A. * Bilirubin unrelated to albumin
B. Bilirubin-albumine complex
C. Bilirubin-glucuronide complex
D. Verdohemoglobin
E. Bile asids
209.
A pacient with concentration of cholesterol in blood - higher 7 mmol/l can result
in such changes, except:
A. Formation of cholesterol stones in a gall-bladder
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Strengthening selection through an intestine
D. Deposit in a skin and other tissues
E. * Oxidation to CO2 and H2O
210.
A patient appealed to the hospital with complaints about a general weakness,
aching stomach-aches, bad appetite, yellowing skin. In the blood serum of patient 77,3
mkM/l of general bilirubin and 70,7 mkM/l conjugated. Which most credible pathology
for a patient?
A. * Mechanical jaundice
B. Sharp hepatitis
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Hemolitic jaundice
E. Hepatic jaundice
211.
A patient has yellow coloring of the skin, dark urine and yellow colored feces.
The increase concentration of what substance will be observed in the blood serum?
A. Conjugation bilirubin
B. * Non-conjugation bilirubin
C. Mesobilirubin
D. Verdoglobin
E. Biliverdin
212.
A patient with complaints of general weakness, stomachache and bad appetite was
admitted to a clinic. A doctor suspected icterus. In the blood serum the total bilirubin
content is 77>3 mM/l, the direct bilirubin content is 70,76 mM/l. What type of icterus is
the most credible in this case?
A. * Mechanical icterus
B. Acute hepatitis
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Hepatic icterus
E. Hemolitic icterus
213.
A toxic waste product of protein metabolism that produced in the liver must be
excreted from the body is
A. * Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Urea
D. Uric acid
E. Only B and D
214.
A woman with chronic hepatitis complains of sensitivily to barbiturates which she
tolerated before without of the liver is damaged?
A. Excretory
B. * Disintoxification
C. Hemodinamic
D. Hemopoetic
E. Cytophagus
215.
After blood transfusion in a patient a skin and mucus shells yellow colour,
increase the level of general and nondirect bilirubin in blood, maintenance of urobiline in
urine increase, in feces appear level of stercobilin. Which type of jaundice does it
testify?
A. Inherited jaundice
B. * Hemolitic jaundice
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Hepatic jaundice
E. Jaundice of new-born
216.
After hard physical work during rest there are stimulation some metabolic ways of
carbohydrates, except:
A. Glycogenes
C. Gluconeogenesis from glycerin
D. * Glycolysis, Krebs cycle
E. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids
217.
At complete starvation during 12-24 ours maintenance of glucose level in blood of
healthy man in norm is supported within the limits mainly to:
A. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids
C. Breaking up of glycogen in muscles
D. * Breaking up of glycogen in a liver
E. Transformation of proteins on glucose
218.
At the inspection of blood of patient found out the considerable increase level
isoenzyme LDG5 and activity of AlAT. Do supposition about possible disease:
A. Heart attack of myocardium
B. * Hepatitis
C. Rheumatism
D. Pancreatitis
E. Gout
219.
At the inspection of patient found out stagnation of bile and stone in a gallbladder. Name the basic component of stones which appeared in this state:
A. Protein
B. * Cholesterol
C. Triglycerides
D. Direct bilirubin
E. Mineral salts
220.
Excess intake of iron may be pathological because it may accumulate in the liver
and cause cirrhosis. The term used to describe excess iron accumulation in the body is
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Erythrocythemia
D. * Hemochromatosis
E. Xeropthalmia
221.
For a child which borned 2 days ago, observe the yellowing colour of skin and
mucus shells. Reason of such state can be a lack of enzyme:
A. * UDP-glyucuroniltransferase
B. Sulphontransferase
C. Hemshyntetase
D. Hemoxigenase
E. Biliverdinreductase
222.
For a patient 27 years found out the pathological changes of liver and brain. In
blood plasma decrease, and in urine increases maintenance of copper. Diagnosed Vilson disease. Activity of what enzyme does need investigate in blood plasma for
conformation of diagnosis?
A. Xantinoxidase
B. Carboangidrase
C. * Ceruloplasmin
D. Leycinaminopeptidase
E. Alkogoldehydrogenase
223.
For a patient 45 years with the intoxication of liver during the leadthrough of test
with the bensoate of sodium (test of Kvik) on detoxification ability found out a low level
in urine:
A. * Hipuric acid
B. Oxiproline
C. Kreatinine
D. Urea
E. Amino acids
224.
For a patient edemata appeared with the cirrhosis of liver. What is possible reason
of their appearance?
A. * Diminishing maintenance of albumin in blood
B. Diminishing maintenance of haptoglobin
C. Increase in blood of ceruloplasmin
D. Diminishing in blood of Na+ ions
E. Lowering maintenance of glucose in blood
225.
For a patient increase in the blood plasma conjugated (direct) bilirubin is set at a
simultaneous increase unconjugated (undirect) and decrease in fecees and urine of
stercobilinogen. What type of jaundice does it testify?
A. * Obstractive
B. Hepatic
C. Hemolitic
D. Jilbert disease
E. Jaundice is absent
226.
For a patient which practises upon smoking, found out a tumour of lung. What is
condition the carcinogenic action of tobacco?
A. * Transformation of benzpiren into oxibenzpiren in a liver
B. Disintegration of benzpiren of tobacco to NH3 in tissues
C. Binding of benzpiren with glucuronic acid in a liver
D. Dissolution of benzpiren in blood plasma
E. Accumulation of benzpiren in tissues
227.
For a patient which use a dicoumarol, found the decreasing level of protrombin
from a 0,15 g/l to 0,05g/l, necessity for a hemopexis formation of blood clot. It took a
place as a result:
A. * Insufficiency of vitamin K
B. Insufficiency of vitamin B2
C. Insufficiency of vitamin C
D. Lowering concentration of calcium in blood

E. Lowering maintenance of globulins
228.
For a patient with surplus formation of ketone bodies in liver, which shows
hyperketonemia, ketonuria and smell of acetone is named - ketosis. He is in such cases,
except:
A. Starvation
B. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Surplus use of alcohol
E. In pregnant woman at protracted vomiting
229.
For youth 16 years diagnosed the deficit of UDP-glyucuroniltransferase.
Laboratory determined a hyperbilirubinemia, predefined mainly an increase in blood
concentration of:
A. Direct bilirubin
B. * Undirect bilirubin
C. Urobilin
D. Biliverdin
E. Transferrin
230.
For youth 18 years with sharp toxic hepatitis in the blood serum will be
enhanceable level:
A. * Alaninaminotransferase
B. Creatinkinase
C. Alkilane phosphatase
D. D-amilase
E. Laktatdehydrogenase-1 (LDG1)
231.
Harmless of xenobiotis (medications, epoxides, aldehydes, nitroderivatives and
others) and endogenous metabolits (estradiol, prostaglandins, leukotrienes) takes place in
a liver by them conjugation with:
A. * Glutation
B. Aspartat
C. Glycine
D. S-adenosilmetionin
E. Phosphoadenosine
232.
Hepatic detoxification of natural metabolites and xenobiotics in the patients liver
is broken. Name the cytochrome, the activity of which is presumably decreased:
A. Cytochrom c1
B. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Hemoglobin
D. Cytochrom b
E. * Cytochrom P450
233.
Hepatitis can cause the urine to be the color
A. * Yellow
B. Black
C. Amber
D. Greenish-brown
E. Blue
234.
Hepatitis, cirrhosis and tumours of liver, can take a place such violations of
protein metabolism, except:
A. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Hypoprothrombinemia
C. Gemoraggi
D. Asotemia
E. * Hyper-gamma-globulinemia
235.
In a patient cirrhosis of liver. Research of which from the adopted matters which
are exreted with urine can characterize the state of antitoxic function of liver?
A. Creatinine
B. Amino acids
C. Uric acid
D. Ammonia salts
E. * Hypuric acid
236.
In a patient with jaundice arose up: increase in blood plasma of general bilirubin
due to nondirect (free), in feces and urines high maintenance of stercobilin, level of
direct bilirubin (conjugative) in blood plasma within the limits of norm. About which
type of patology of liver is it possible?
A. * Hemolitic jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Mechanical jaundice
D. Cirrhosis
E. Hepatitis
237.
In blood of healthy adult man and nonpregnant women this protein does not
appear. But at primary liver cancer his level grows. Name him:
A. Transferrin
B. Feritin
C. * C-fetoprotein
D. Tiroxintranspoting protein
E. Crioglobulin
238.
In man 70 years predefined an enhanceable level of blood clotting, conditioned by
a decrease in blood plasma:
A. Albumin
B. Immunoglobulin A
C. * Heparin
D. Vitamin D
E. Calcium
239.
? In sick M. 24 years during starvation, glycogen in liver decompose to glucose-1phosphate. How does from him free glucose formed , which can act from a liver to the
brain in time of hypoglicemia?
A. Glucose-1-phosphate split on glucose and inorganic phosphate in a liver
B. Glucose-1-phosphate disintegrates on constituent component in blood
C. * Glucose-1-phosphate transforms at first on glucose-6-phosphate, on which act
specific phosphatase
D. Glucose-1-phosphate at first passes on fructose-6-phosphate
E. Glucose-1-phosphate experience changes from the side of phosphofructikinase
240.
In sick with complaints about feeling of heaving in right anderib, itch of skin,
crabbiness, fatigueability, it is discovered at a laboratory inspection: hyperbilirubinemia
with predominance of conjugative bilirubin, tymol test in a norm. What pathology testify
these changes?
A. Sharp hepatitis
B. * Mechanical jaundice
C. Gemolitic jaundice
D. Cirrhosis of liver
E. Pancreatitis
241.
In the girl of 23 years, exhausted starvation, more reliable in liver increases:
A. Synthesis of triacylglicerol
B. * Gluconeogenesis
C. Synthesis of cholesterol
D. Formation of uric acid
E. Formation of conjugative bilirubin
242.
Liver cirrhosis of a patient was diagnosed. Determination of which of the
compounds exreted with irine characterizes the state of antitoxic function of the licer?
A. * Hippuric acid
B. Ammonia salts
C. Creatinine
D. D.Uric acid
E. Amono acid
243.
The increase of conjugated (direct) bilirubin is revealed in the patients blood
plasma, and the simultaneous increase of non-conjugated (indirect) bilirubin level as well
as the dramatic decrease of stercobilinogen content in the feces and urine are discovered.
What type of icterus takes place?
A. Aminolevulinate synthase
B. UDP-glucuronyltransferase
C. Heme oxigenase
D. Heme synthetase
F. Hemolitic
G. Hepatic
H. Posthepatic
I. Jaundice of newborn
J. Gilbert disease
244.
The new-born have violation in binding of bilirubin reason of heavy forms of
jaundice in hepatocytes. What matter is used for formation of conjugate?
A. * Glucuronic acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Uric acid
D. Lactic acid
E. Piruvat
245.
To the patient which suffers on chronic hepatitis, for verification of detoxification
function of liver was conducted loading of sodium benzoate. Exreated of what matter
with urine will testify the detoxification function of liver?
A. Fenilacetic acid
B. Citric acid
C. * Hypuric acid
D. Oxalic acid
E. Mevalonic acid
246.
To the patient with suspicion pathology of liver with diagnostic purpose appoint
research of such biochemical indexes, except:
A. Proteins fractions of blood, AlAT/AsAT
B. Alkaline phosphatase, arginase
C. Laktatdegidrogenaze, urea
D. Protrombin, ceruloplasmin
E. * Cholesterol, triacylglicerol
247.
Vilson disease found (hepatocerebral dystrophy) in blood lowering maintenance
of ceruloplasmin. Violation of which processes it can cause?
A. * Complexformation of amino acids with copper
B. Disintegration of tissue proteins
C. Decarboxilation of amino acids
D. Intensification synthesis of urea
E. Intensification synthesis of uric acid

248.
Visual inspection of a patient revealed the presence of bilirubin and increased
pigmentation of skin that evolves after ultraviolet irradiation. The patients urine becones
red in the open air. Wich of the following urine constituent determination is required for
the vertification of Gunter disease.
A. Acetone
B. Hemoglobin
C. Bilirubin
D. Creatinine
E. * Uroporphyrinogen 1
249.
Which transformation of carbohydrates will prevail in a liver, if the concentration
of glucose in blood equal 3 mmol/l?
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. * Transformation of glycogen to free glucose
C. Pentosophosphate cycle
D. Glycolisis
E. Formation of UDP-glucuronic acid
250.
Worker of dry-cleaning had fatty dystrophy of liver. Violation synthesis of what
matter in a liver can result in such situation?
A. Tristearine
B. * Cholin phosphatidic
C. Urea
D. Phosphatidic acid
E. Cholic acid
251.
Yellowish skin and mucous membranes of a patient are observed after blood
transfusion. There also increased levels of total and indirect bilirubin in the blood,
urobilin in the urine and stercobilin in the feces. What type of icterus is observed in this
case?
A. Icterus of newborn
B. Inherited icterus
C. Posthepatic icterus
D. Hepatic icterus
E. * Hemolytic icterus
252.
You are presented with a patients liver specimen and you notice that the cells
seem to have an abnormally large amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum for liver
cells. You conclude that this sample is probably from a patient.
A. Who cannot break down fats
B. With a bacterial infection
C. Who is a habitual user of narcotics
D. * Who may be exposed to toxic chemicals i.e. in their workplace
E. A, c. and d are correct
253.
Patient has increased amount of urea and creatinine in blood and their decrease in
urine. Possible reason of this state are:
A. this state is observed at muscle disease
B. main reason liver disease
C. * diseases, which cause kidney failure
D. the main reason are affection of neutralization, transportation and excretion of
ammonia with urine
E. this state is observed as a result of acid-base equilibrium in the organism
254.

ammonia with urine
255.
Sportsman who was on a diet with great amount of protein has acidic reaction of
urine. Presence of which substances causes such change?
A. urates and sulphates
B. * chlorides and phosphates
C. chlorides and sulphates
D. phosphates and sulphates
E. urates and chlorides
256.
The of 56 years old patient complains for general weakness, nausea, bad appetite.
Is observed icteric discolor of skin, hyperbilirubinemia (direct bilirubin), urine is foamy,
acholic stool. Which state are these changes characterized?
A. * obturative jaundice
B. hepatocellular jaundice
C. hemolytic jaundice
D. Gilbert's syndrome
E. Johnson's syndrome
257.
? Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence
of what substance causes turbidity of alkaline urine?
A. * calcium phosphate
B. magnesium sulfate
C. ammonium acids
D. uric acid salts
E. chloride salts
258.
52-years old patient for few days suffered from pain in the right hypogastrium
after having of fatty meal. It was observed sclera and skin yellowing, acholic stool, darkcolored urine. Diagnosis is obstructive jaundice. Presence of which substanse in the urine
caused its dark colour?
A. bilirubinglucuronid
B. ketone bodies
C. urobilin
D. stercobilin
E. glucose
259.
A 2 years old child showed the symptoms of psychomotor development inhibition,
thin hair. Laboratory tests: increased amount of ammonia and arginino succinate in blood
and urine. What enzyme deficiensy in liver causes argininosuccinic acidemia?
A. * argininosuccinatliase
B. ornithyn carbamoil transferase
C. arginase
D. glutaminase
E. xanthine oxidase
260.
A 45 years old patient suffers from pain in lumbar department of the back and its
limited mobility. It is takes place darkening of urine with air. What inherited disease has
the patient?
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Galactosemia
C. * Alkaptonuria
D. Cystinosis
E. Syndrome of Fankoni
261.
A 6 years old child suffers from glomerulonephritis. Which of the below
mentioned indexes prove it?
A. * proteinuria
B. phosphaturia
C. glycosuria
D. ketonuria
E. creatinuria
262.
A. * proteinuria
B. phosphaturia
C. glycosuria
D. ketonuria
E. creatinuria
263.
A. proteinuria
B. phosphaturia
C. glycosuria
D. ketonuria
E. creatinuria
264.
A man after 1,5 litres blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased
secretion of what hormone caused such diuresis alteration?
A. Corticotropin
B. Natriuretic factor
C. Parathormone
D. Cortisol
E. * Vasopressin
265.
A patient complains about acute stomach-ache, nausea, vomit. Diastase activity is
800 grammes/l hour What diagnosis is the most possible?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. * Acute pancreatitis
C. Ulcer of stomach
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Enterocolitis
266.
A patient, which visited a doctor, has increased level of glucose in blood and
urine. Diabetes mellitus is suspecteds. What changes in lipid metabolism can cause this
disease?
A. hyperketonemia
B. hypercholesterolemia
C. * hypoketonemia, ketonuria
D. hyperphospholipidemia, hyperketonemia
E. hypophospholipidemia , hypoketonemia
267.
A specific test on the damage of kidneys tissues for the proof of diagnosis inflammatory process in kidneys of the patient was conducted. This test is determination
in urine:
A. Concentrations of creatin
B. Activity of creatin phosphokinase MB
C. Presence of lactose
D. * Activity of transamidinase
E. Activity of pepsin
268.
A two years old child was delivered to the hospital with symptoms of mental and
physical underdevelopment, which suffers from the frequent vomiting after meal. In urine
found out phenyl-pyruvic acid. Disorder of which substances metabolism is this
pathology?
A. Phosphorus-calcium metabolism
B. Water-salt metabolism
C. * Metabolism of amino acids
D. Carbohydrates metabolism
E. Lipids metabolism
269.
A woman of 58 years, ondition is hard. Consciousness is blear, skin is dry, and
eyes are sunken, cyanosis, the smell of rotting apples from the mouth. Laboratory test:
blood glucose 15,1 mmol/l, urine glucose 3,5%. What is the most real reason for such
condition?
A. uremic coma
B. hypovalemic coma
C. anaphylactic shock
D. * hyperglycemic coma
E. hypoglycemic coma
270.
An acute pancreatitis and parotitis are diagnosed. How will it influence on the
activity of amylase in urine?
A. * High activity of amylase is in urine.
B. Low activity of amylase is in urine.
C. No any of amylase in urine.
D. No any changes.
E. All answers are correct.
271.
At a biochemical inspection of a patient were found a hyperglycemia, glucosuria,
high urines density, in blood found - enhanceable amount of glucocorticoids. At the same
time in blood and urine found excess of 17 ketosteroids. What type of diabetes
developed:
A. * Steroid diabetes
B. Diabetes Mellitus, the I type
C. Diabetes Mellitus , the II type
D. Kidney diabetes
E. Hepatic diabetes
272.
At what disease glomerular filtration is always decreased?
A. Acute nephritis
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Amyloidosis of kidneys
E. * Acute kidneys insufficiency
273.
At what disease in urine appears the protein of Bens - Jones?
A. * Myeloma
B. Amyloidosis of kidneys
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Tuberculosis of kidneys
E. Pyelonephritis
274.
At what disease in urine appears the protein of Bens - Jones?
A. * Myeloma
B. Amyloidosis of kidneys
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Tuberculosis of kidneys
E. Pyelonephritis
275.
At what disease more frequent alkaline reaction of urine?

A. * Uremia
B. Acute nephritis
C. Festering pyelitis
D. Abscess of kidneys
276.
At what disease more frequent alkaline reaction of urine?
A. * Uremia
B. Acute nephritis
C. Festering pyelitis
D. Abscess of kidneys
277.
Decreased diuresis, hypernatremia, hypokaliemia were observed. Hypersecretion
of which hormone can cause such changes?
A. Parathormone
B. Epinephrine
C. Vasopressin
D. Natriuretic factor
E. * Aldosterone
278.
For a patient was found the increase of maintenance of urea and creatinine in
blood and diminishing in urine. What are possible reasons of such state?
A. Main reason of such state it is disorder of detoxification, transport and excretion
of ammonia with urine
B. Main reason is a disease of liver
C. Such state appears at the disease of muscles
D. * Diseases which result in insufficiency of kidneys
E. Such state appears as a result of disorder of acid-base balance in an organism
279.
For a patient which suffers from chronic kidney insufficiency, developed
osteoporosis. Disorder of what process is a principal reason of osteoporosis
development?
A. Hydroxylating of proline
B. Hydroxylating of lysine
C. Carboxylation of glutamate
D. * Formation of 1,25()2 D3
E. Hydroxylating of cortisol
280.
For diagnostic of acute inflammatory process in kidneys was conducted a specific
test - determination in urine of such substance:
A. Content of lactose
B. Activity of creatinkinase
C. Concentrations of creatin
D. Activity of pepsin
E. * Activity of alanine amino peptidase
281.
How many proteins do excrete daily with urine healthy adult?
A. * 30 mg
B. 50 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 100 mg
E. 120 mg
282.
How uric acid excretes from an organism?
A. With saliva
B. With feces
C. With sweat
D. * With urine
E. With hepato-enteral circulation
283.
Hyperuricemia is increase of uric acid level more than:
A. * 0,5 mmol/l
B. 0,1 mmol/l
C. 10 mmol/l
D. 1 mmol/l
E. 2 mmol/l
284.
Hyperuricuria is observed at all of diseases which are accompanied the increased
disintegration:
A. Glycoproteins
B. Phosphoproteins
C. * Nucleoproteins
D. Lipoproteins
E. Chromoproteins
285.
In a norm reabsorption of glucose is:
A. * 100%
B. 90%
C. 96%
D. 30%
E. 10%
286.
In a norm the clearance of endogenous creatinine is:
A. * 110 150 ml/min
B. 100 250 ml/min
C. 110 200 ml/min
D. 10 150 ml/min
E. 10 100 ml/min
287.
In blood and urine of a patient it was takes place increase value of pyruvic and ?ketoglutaric acids. The deficiency of which coenzyme causes these changes?
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. * Thiamin pyrophosphate
C. Flavin mononucleotide
D. Biotin
E. Ubiqinon
288.
In blood of patient hypercalciemia, hypophosphatemia were observed, in urine
hyperphosphaturia. The possible reason of such state is:
A. Depression of parathormone secretion
B. Increased secretion of calcitonine
C. Depression of calcitonine secretion
D. * Increased secretion of parathormone
E. Increased secretion of thyroxine
289.
In the normal state reabsorption of water is:
A. * 98%
B. 40%
C. 55%
D. 79%
E. 100%
290.
In the urine of a 42 years man, who was in stress for a long time, the amount of
17-ketosteroids is increased. This testifies about the increased secretion of:
A. * Cortisol
B. Estradiol
C. Epinephrine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Aldosterone
291.
In what part of nephron does take place filtration of urine?
A. * In a glomerulus
B. In the loop of Henle
C. In a proksimal canaliculi
D. In a distal canaliculi
E. In the collective tubes
292.
In which units the clearance of endogenous creatinine determined?
A. Mm/minute
B. Gramm/l
C. Mmol/l
D. Ml/hour
E. * Ml/minute
293.
Indicate the credible index of albumin-globulin coefficient in the case of kidney
disease:
A. 2,8
B. * 0,8
C. 1,5
D. 2,5
E. 2,0
294.
indicator of glomerular function is
A. Serum urea
B. Serum creatinine
C. Urea clearance
D. * Creatinine clearance
E. Both A and D
295.
Interpret the results of urine analysis - a color is dark, foamy, density - 1,022,
bilirubin - positive, urobilin negative:
A. * Mechanical jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. Normal condition
E. No any correct answer
296.
Interpret the results of urine analysis: a color is dark, foamy, density - 1,026,
bilirubin - positive, urobilins positive:
A. * Hepatic jaundice
B. Mechanical jaundice
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. Normal condition
297.
Interpret the results of urine analysis: color brown orange, density - 1,020,
bilirubin negative, urobilin positive:
A. * Hemolytic jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Mechanical jaundice
D. Normal condition
298.
Inulin clearance in an average adult man is about
A. 54 ml/min
B. 75 ml/min
C. 110 ml/min
D. * 130 ml/min
E. 250 ml/min
299.
It was determinate high activity of amylase in urine of a patient. How properly
interpret this analysis?
A. * It is possible acute pancreatitis, parotitis.
B. Pathology of liver.
C. This analysis testifies disorders of gastrointestinal tract.
D. It is possible at nephropathies
E. This analysis testifies disorders of carbohydrate metabolism in an organism.
300.
A. kidney disease
B. normal neutralization liver function
D. * liver malfunction
301.
A. kidney disease
B. normal neutralization liver function
D. * liver malfunction
302.
Mother with her 5 years old child visited a doctor. Child after beeing under
sunlight has the erythema of skin. Laboratory tests showed decrease of iron in blood
plasma, increase of uroporphyrinogen I excretion with urine. The most possible
pathology is:
A. erythropoietic porphyria
B. methemoglobinemia
C. hepatic porphyria
D. coproporphyria
E. hemolytic jaudice
303.
Name laboratory tests which should be conducted for the patients with suspicion
on a acute pancreatitis:
A. total blood test
B. Activity of LDH
C. Activity of AlAT
D. * Activity of amylase in urine and blood
E. A level of sugar in blood
304.
Name the pathological compounds of urine at diabetes mellitus:
A. bile pigments, acetone
B. * acetone, glucose
C. blood, bilirubin
D. protein, blood
E. bile pigments, indican
305.
C. blood, bilirubin
D. protein, blood
E. bile pigments, indicant
306.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bile pigments, acetone

* acetone, glucose
blood, bilirubin
protein, blood
bile pigments, indican
307.
C. blood, bilirubin
D. protein, blood
E. bile pigments, indican
308.
C. blood, bilirubin
D. protein, blood
E. bile pigments, indicant
309.
of which of the following hormones?
A. Cortisol
B. Insulin
C. * Vasopressin
D. Glucagon
E. Aldosterone
310.
Patient B. suffers from polyuria. Pathological components do not discovered in
urine. What possible reason of this state?
A. Deficiency of oxytocin
B. Excess of vasopressin
C. * Deficiency of vasopressin
D. Excess of oxytocin
E. Disorders of liver and kidneys functions
311.
ammonia with urine
312.
Phenylketonuria of newborn may be diagnosed after a reaction of urine with:
A. * FeCI3
B. CuSO4
C. NaCl
D. Fe+
E. Na3PO4
313.
Polyuria of patients with diabetes insipidus appears as a result:
A. * Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood
B. Insufficient level of insulin in blood
C. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic
pressure of urine
D. Excessive intake of liquid
E. Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of low osmolality of
urine
314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Polyuria of patients with diabetes mellitus appears as a result:

* Disorders of reabsorption of water in canaliculies as a result of high osmotic
pressure of urine
Insufficient level of glucagon in blood
Insufficient level of antidiuretic hormone in blood
urine
Possible reasons of hypoproteinemia at a nephrotic syndrome are all the following
315.
except:
A. * Convertion of proteins into fats
B. Diet with the deficiensy of proteins
C. Diarrea
D. Proteinuria
E. Increased catabolism
316.
Sportsman who was on a diet with great amount of protein has acidic reaction of
urine. Presence of which substances causes such change?
A. urates and sulphates
B. * chlorides and phosphates
C. chlorides and sulphates
D. phosphates and sulphates
E. urates and chlorides
317.
The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. The
possible reason for this is the following:
A. Liver disease
B. Starvation
C. * Kidney disease
D. Acidosis
E. Thyrotoxicosis
318.
The analysis demonstrated a 10 times increase of diastase activity. The danger of
autolysis of a patients pancreas caused with activating of enzyme:
A. Amylase
B. Pepsin
C. * Trypsin
D. Lipase
E. Nuclease
319.
The density of urine of a healthy adult is:
A. * 1,012 1,020
B. 1,020 1,050
C. 1,025 1,045
D. 1,005 1,010
E. 1,010 1,035
320.
The most dangerous for life such effect of acute kidney insufficiency:
A. Overhydratation
B. Hypokaliemia
C. Hypermagniyemia
D. * Hyperkaliemia
E. Hyperkal'ciemia
321.
The patient complains of polyuria. The pathological components in urine are not
detected. The deficiency of what hormone can result in such state?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. * Vasopressin
E. Cortisol
322.
The patient L., 46 years, complains for dry mouth, thirst, quickened urination,
general weakness. Biochemical blood investigation showed hyperglycemia,
hyperketonemia. In the urine glucose, ketone bodies were found. Electrocardiogram
showed diffuse myocardial changes. Possible diagnosis is:
A. * A.diabetes mellitus
B. alimentary hyperglycemia
C. acute pancreatitis
D. diabetes insipidus
E. ischemic heart disease
323.
The results of Zimnytskiy's test showed density of urine about 1.003-1.008. Name
this state?
A. hypersthenuria
B. * hyposthenuria and isosthenuria
C. hyposthenuria
D. oliguria
E. pyuria
324.
The results of Zimnytskiy's test showed density of urine about 1.003-1.008. Name
this state?
A. hypersthenuria
B. * hyposthenuria and isosthenuria
C. hyposthenuria
D. oliguria
E. pyuria
325.
Urine of patient after staying with oxygen becomes red. Biochemical research of
urine set the enhanceable excretion of protoporphyrin IX that is the marker of disorders
of synthesis:
A. Bilirubin
B. Purine nucleotides
C. Amino acids
D. * Hem
E. Pyrimidine nucleotides
326.
Urine transparency is one of the parameters, evaluated by the analysis. Presence
of what substance causes turbidity of acidic urine?
A. calcium phosphate
C. ammonium acids
D. * uric acid salts
E. chloride salts
327.
of what substance causes turbidity of alkaline urine?
A. * calcium phosphate
C. ammonium acids
D. uric acid salts
E. chloride salts
328.
of what substance causes turbidity of acidic urine?
A. calcium phosphate
C. ammonium acids
D. * uric acid salts
E. chloride salts
329.
What basic event in pathogenesis of chronic kidneys insufficiency?
A. * All below transferred
B. Decline of glomerular filtration
C. Hyperazotemia
D. Disorders of water electrolyte metabolism
E. Hyperkaliemia
330.
What method of research is characterized concentration property of kidneys?
A. Creatinine of blood
B. * Zimnitskiys test
C. Glomerular filtration
D. Electrolytes of blood
E. All of the above
331.
Which method is used for determination of acid-base state of organism?
A. Determination of creatinine of blood
B. Zimnitskiys test
C. Research of kidney blood flow
D. Test of Reberga
E. * Excretion of bicarbonates with urine
332.
With urine of a healthy adult is excreted the following product of bilirubin
disintegration:
A. urobilin
B. * stercobilin
C. mesobilin
D. biliverdin
E. verdoglobin
333.
With urine of newborn was done a reaction with FeCI3 and a positive reaction
(dark color) got. What disease is possible?
A. Galactosemia
B. Tirosinosis
C. * Phenylketonuria
D. Alkaptonuria
E. Aminoaciduria.
334.
You suspect that your 12 year old male patient has an inborn error in methionine
metabolism. His methionine levels are low and his homocysteine levels are high. A liver
biopsy indicates that his cystathionine synthase and cystathionase levels are normal. This
patient may have a deficiency:
A. Of vitamin B12
B. Of folic acid
C. A deficiency in the pathway that synthesizes methyl cobalamin
D. A deficiency in the pathway that synthesizes N5-methyl tetrahydrofolate
335.
43 years old man suffers from muscle spasms as a result of intensive physical
action. Muscle biopsy discovered increased concentration of glycogen. This state appears
as a result of transformation affection of:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate > glycogen
B. * Glycogen > glucose-6-phosphate
C. Creatine > creatinine
D. Myoglobine ? heme >?bilirubin
E. Lactate >?glucose
336.
A doctor with the purpose of conformation diagnosis sent a patient with the early
stage of muscular dystrophy in a biochemical laboratory for the leadthrough of blood test.
Growth activity of what enzyme can be observed in this patient?
A. * Creatinkinase
B. Alaninaminotransferase
C. Colagenase
D. Gialuronidase
E. Glutaminases
337.
A patient has a general tooth pain, bleeding of gums, depolamerisation of
proteoglycans and destruction of odontoblasts and ostepblasts, loosen of teeth. Reason of
such state is hypovitaminoses of:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin E
C. * Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B6
E. Vitamin D
338.
A patient has a making progress muscular weakness and low capacity, in skeletal
and to cardiac muscles, liver and plasma of blood, maintenance of carnitin goes down.
Which amino acids insufficient in food stuffs?
A. Alanine and proline
B. * Lysine and methionine
C. Arginine and valine
D. Aspartic and Glutamic acids
E. Histidine and serine
339.
A patient have the frequent bleeding from internalss, mucus shells. Analysis found
out insufficiency of hydroxyproline and hydroxilisine in composition of collogen tissue.
Deficiency of what vitamin broken the processes of hydroxylating of adopted amino
acids in the organism of patient?
A. Vitaminu H
B. * Vitaminu C
C. Vitaminu PP
D. Vitaminu A
E. Vitaminu K
340.
A patient is hospitalized in a hospital with a diagnosis is a syndrome of the
protracted squashing. Finiteness at a review filling out, wooden. Anurya. At taking by
a catheter urine of red color. The presence of what matter does influence on the color of
urine?
A. Haemoglobin
B. Bilirubin
C. * Myoglobin
D. Coproporphyrin III
E. Porfobilinogen
341.
A patient, which grumbles about pain in front breast area which is not taken off
nitroglycerine, weakness, enhanceable perspire, is hospitalized in a clinic. For him
cyanosys of lips, pallor of skin, is marked, bradicardia. 4 hours passed from the moment
of beginning of anginose attack. Determination activity of what enzyme will allow to
diagnose heart attack of myocardium?
A. * Creatinkinase (MB)
B. LDG1
C. LDG5
D. AsAT
E. AlAT
342.
A sportsmen leg has been injured during training. A traumatologist has diagnosed
tendon rupture. What type of connective tissue forms this organ?
A. Cartilaginous
B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Reticular
E. * Dense regular connective tissue
343.
A woman of 30 years has disease for about a year, when she first felt pain in the
joints region, intumescence, skin reddening. Probable diagnosis is pseudorheumatism.
One of the possible reasons of this disease is the change in the structure of connective
tissue protein:
A. Mucin
B. Ovoalbumin
C. Troponin
D. * Colagene
E. Myosin
344.
?After myocardial infarction pacients morphological heart wall integrity was
regenerated. Owing to what tissues did the regeneration take place?
A. A Nerve
B. B. Smooth muscle
C. C. Striated muscle
D. D. Epithelial
E. * E. Connective
345.
At a sprint the untrained people have a muscle pain as a result of piling up of
lactat. With strengthening of what biochemical process can it be constrained in organism?
A. * Glycogenolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Pentosophosphate cycle
D. Lipogeneses
E. Glycogeneses
346.
By myocardial ischemia are characteristic decrease of oxidative phosphorylation
and increase of aerobic metabolism. By this there is an increased activity of
phosphorylase A and phosphofructokinase. This is connected with the increase in
myocard of:
A. Catecholamine
B. * Glycogen
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Mineral corticoid
E. Glucose
347.
For a patient the weakness of muscles, osteoporosis, atrophy of skin, bad
cicatrization of wounds, is marked, laying of fat is increased in overhead part of body (on
face, neck). At a blood test found out the increase of sodium and chlorine, and
diminishing of potassium. What disease in this patient?
A. Addison disease
B. Reklingauzen disease
C. * Icenko-kushing disease
D. Bazedov disease
E. Syndrome of Konn
348.
For a patient which has scurvy, violate the processes formation of connective
tissue which resulted in dicking and fall of teeth. Violation activity of what enzyme does
cause these symptoms?
A. Glycosiltransferase
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lizyloxidase
* Lisynhydroxilase
Prokolagenpeptidase N- terminal peptide
Prokolagenpeptidase C - terminal peptide
349.
For a patient which suffers on chronic kidney insufficiency, developed
osteoporosis. Violation of what process is principal reason development of osteoporosis?
A. Hydroxylating of proline
B. Hydroxylating of lysine
C. Carboxylation of glutamate
D. * Formation of 1,25()2 D3
E. Hydroxylating of cortisol
350.
For a patient with systematic scleriasis increased the biosynthesis of collogen and
his disintegration. Concentration of what amino acid will be increased in urine of this
patient?
A. * Oxyproline
B. Lysine
C. 5-Oxitryptophan
D. Serine
E. Dioksiphenilalanine
351.
For patients with collagenose takes a place the process destruction of connective
tissue. It is confirmed an increase in blood:
A. Activity of isoenzymes of LDG
B. Activity of transaminase
C. Contents of urates
D. Contents of creatin and creatinine
E. * Contents of hydroxyproline and oxylisine
352.
For pregnant 28 years determine enzymes in the cells of amniotic liquid. Appeared
insufficiensy activity of glucuronidase. What pathological process is observed?
A. Aglicogenose
B. Collagenoses
C. * Mucopolysaccharidoses
D. Glycogenosis
E. Lipidosis
353.
For sportsmen after the physical loading the process of gluconeogenesis is
activated after some time. Specify, what substrate is used in this process:
A. * Lactat
B. Valine
C. Leucine
D. Isoleucine
E. Phenylalanine
354.
For the increase of results to sportsman recommended to accept preparation which
contains carnitin. Which process in a most measure activated by carnitin?
A. Synthesis of steroids hormones
B. Synthesis of ketone bodies
C. Synthesis of lipids
D. Tissue respiration
E. * Transport of fatty acids in mithohondria
355.
In a 23-years-old man diagnosed muscle dystrophy. Doctor for strengthening
synthesis of pirimidine nucleotides appointed him:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. * Potassium orotat
C. Lipoic acid
D. Cokarboxilase
E. Cyancobalamin
356.
In a clinic with the break of ribs got a patient with a hypercorticoidism.
Roentgenologic analisis found out the osteoporoses changes of skeleton. Name one of
reasons of such violations:
A. Excessive synthesis of glycosaminoglycans
B. * Ingibition of collagen synthesis
C. Ingibition of vitamin D synthesis
D. Excessive of calcium salts
E. Excessive of phosphates
357.
In a hospital put got patient which have previous diagnosis progressive muscular
dystrophy. The presence of what substance in urine can confirm this diagnosis?
A. * Creatin
B. Creatine phosphate
C. Creatinine
D. Protein
E. Hydroxyproline
358.
In blood of patient found out the increase activity of LDG1, LDG2, AsAT,
creatinkinase. In which organ of patient the most reliable development of pathological
process?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Skeletal muscles
D. * Heart
E. Pancreas
359.
In the organism of 7 years old girl was discovered lack of copper. The possibility
of break of flexible fibres, in which desmosine and isodesmosine are absent, grows. This
is caused by the decrease of activity of coppercontaining enzyme:
A. Lysyl oxidase
B. Proline hydrooxilase
C. * Cytochrome oxidase
D. Clastase
E. Peptidase
360.
In the organism of patient found out the decline of synthesis of collogen and
diminishing of calcium in bone tissues. Contents of hyaluronic acid is enhanceable, and
chondroitin silphate is mionectic. The deficit of what vitamin does cause these changes?
A. Vitamin C
B. * Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin P
E. Vitamin B1
361.
In the patient's blood plasma is discovered the increase of hyaluronidase activity.
What biochemical figure of blood plasma determination will allow to prove the
connective tissue pathology?
A. * Sialic acid
B. Bilirubin
C. Uric acid
D. Glucose
E. Galactose
362.
It is known that possibilities of sportsman run on short or long distances
determines by correlation of red and white muscular fibres, to what is related different
speed breaking up of ATP. Which component of muscles does carry out this process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Troponin
* Miosin
Creatin
Aktin
Carnosine
363.
Patient complains for pain in joints. By sight can be seen edemas and reddening in
the joints area. What enzyme activity to be investigated to draw out a diagnosis?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. * Creatine kinase
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Acidic phosphatase
E. Urease
364.
Patient has muscle atony. Name the muscle tissue enzyme, which activity can be
decreased by this state:
A. A-glutamine transferase
B. Amylase
C. Transketolase
D. * Creatine phosphokinase
E. Catalase
365.
Patient has progressive myodystrophy. Name the figure of urine nitrogen
metabolism, characteristic for this state.
A. Creatine
B. Ammonium salts
C. * Creatinine
D. Uric acid
E. Urea
366.
Patient of 18 years has the diagnosis of muscle dystrophy. What matter increase in
the blood plasma is the most possible by this pathology?
A. Myoglobine
B. * Creatine
C. Myosin
D. Lactate
E. Alanine
367.
Patient of 46 years for a long time suffers from childhood pseudohypertrophic
muscular (Duchenne's) dystrophy. What blood enzyme increase is the diagnostic test in
this case?
A. Adenylate kinase
B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
E. * Creatine phosphokinase
368.
Patient of 62 years has diabetes mellitus. Glomerulosclerosis has evolved. The
most possible reason for this complication is the affection in renal plexus of:
A. Calcium excretion
B. Formation of primary urine
C. Gluconeogenesis process
D. Glucose reabsorption
E. * Colagene structure
369.
Patient of 63 years has rheumatism. The concentration of oxiprolin in blood and
urine is increased. What is the main reason of hyperoxiprolinemia?
A. Hyaluroprotein degradation
B. Colagene degradation
C. Kidney malfunction
D. Cathepsin activation
E. * Prolyl hydroxylase activation
370.
Patient of 63 years has symptoms of pseudorheumatism. Which of the
belowmentioned blood figures level increase will be the most important for diagnosis
provement?
A. General cholesterol
B. Lipoprotein
C. Total glycoaminglycans
D. * Acid phosphatase
E. R-glycosidase
371.
The increase fragility of vessels, destruction of enamel and dentine of teeth, at
scurvy in majority is predefined a dyspoiesis stable triple spiral of collogen. What stage
of modification of procollagen is violated at this avitaminosis?
A. Formation of polipeptide chains
B. * Hydroxylating of proline
C. Glicolisation of hydroxilic tailings
D. Pinch off from procollagen of -final peptid
E. Pinch off of N- final peptid
372.
The patient has myopathy. There is observed acute decrease of myofibrillar
proteins in muscles. What urine component amount increase accompanies this disease?
A. * Creatine
B. Creatinine
C. Urobilin
D. Amylase
E. Ketone bodies
373.
To the clinic got the child of 1 year with the signs of defeat of muscles. After
inspection found out the deficit of carnitine in muscles. Violation of what process is
biochemical basis of this pathology?
A. Regulation level of Ca2+ in mitochondria
B. * Ttransport of fatty acids in mitochondria
C. Substrate phosphorylating
D. Utilization of lactic acid
E. Synthesis of actin and miosin
374.
To the cosmetologist a patient appealed with a request to deprive him tattoo on a
shoulder. What matter which is contained in connective tissue does limit distribution of
paint and does possible such type of painting?
A. * Elastin
B. Heparin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Hyaluronic acid
E. Gamma-globulin
375.
To the patient with ischemic heart trouble appointed riboxine (Inosinum), which is
an intermediate metabolite synthesis of:
A. Metalloproteins
B. Lipoproteins
C. * Purine nucleotides
D. Glycoproteins
E. Ketone bodies
376.
To the patient with the torn tendon muscle of foot a doctor in a holiatry appointed
ascorbic acid which will be instrumental in formation of mature collagen by
hydroxylating of some amino acids. Which amino acids do test such changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Proline, lysine
Phenilalanine, glycine
Valine, leucine
Tryptophane, treonine
Histidin, arginine
377.
To the traumatology was delivered a patient with muscle tissue crush. What figure
of blood plasma will be increased?
A. * Creatinine
B. Glucose
C. Mineral salts
D. Uric acid
E. Urea
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Test questions for figures

Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical reaction shown in figure
128?
A. B1
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
Which vitamin is required for the reaction shown in figure 119?
A. Riboflavine
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Thyamin
E. Retinol
52. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 126?
A. B2
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
Clinical symptom shown in figure 131 is caused by the:
A. Disorders of methylation reactions
B. Disorders of carboxylation reactions
C. * Disorders of prolin hydroxylation
D. Disorders of oxidation-reduction reactions
E. Disorders of pyruvate decarboxylation
Different types of muscle tissue is shown in figure 145. What type is indicated by letter
A.
A. * Skeletal muscle
B. Heart muscle
C. Smooth muscle
D. Intestinal muscle
E. Bronchi muscle
B.
A. Skeletal muscle
B. * Heart muscle
C. Smooth muscle
D. Intestinal muscle
E. Bronchi muscle
A.
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Heart muscle
C. * Smooth muscle
D. Diaphragm muscle
Good diet source for the compounds shown in figure 136 is:
A. Carrots
B. Apples
C. Lemons
D. * Oil
E. Bread
9. Lipoproteins shown in figure 139 contain about:
A. 95 % of TAG
B. 95 % of proteins
C. 50 % of proteins
D. 50 % of TAG
E. * 50 % of cholesterol
10. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 141. Which compound is
replaced with character 1 in this scheme?
A. * Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. Mesobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. * Biliverdin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. Mesobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
C. * Indirect bilirubin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. Mesobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. * Mesobilirubin
E. Mesobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. * Mesobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. Mesobilirubin
E. * Stercobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. * Stercobilin
E. Stercobilinogen
A. Verdoglobin
B. Biliverdin
D. * Stercobilin
E. Stercobilinogen
18. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 141. Which enzyme is replaced
with character 4 in this scheme?
A. * UDP-glucoronyltransferase
B. Glucoronidase
C. Bilirubinidase
D. Stercobilinidase
E. Mesobilinidase
19. Normal metabolism of bile pigments is shown in figure 141. Which enzyme is replaced
with character 10 in this scheme?
A. UDP-glucoronyltransferase
B. * Glucoronidase
C. Bilirubinidase
D. Stercobilinidase
E. Mesobilinidase
20. Petechiae shown in figure 131 are specific for the deficit of vitamin:
A. B5
B. B6
C. PP
D. * C
E. K
21. Scheme of monooxygenase system is shown in figure 142. Which components are
A. TPP and TMP
B. * FAD and FADH2
C. PLP and PMP
D. Cytochrome b5 and cytochrome c
E. Cytochrome P450 (Fe2+) and Cytochrome P450 (Fe3+)
A. TPP and TMP
B. FAD and FADH2
C. PLP and PMP
D. Cytochrome b5 and cytochrome c
E. * Cytochrome P450 (Fe2+) and Cytochrome P450 (Fe3+)
A. H2
B. * H2O
C. O2
D. H2O2
E. OH
24. Scheme of regulation of blood pressure by kidneys is shown in figure 144. Which
enzyme is replaced with character 3 in this scheme?
A. Dehydrogenase
B. Angiotensin I isomerase
C. Angiotensin I hydratase
D. Rhenin
E. * Angiotensin-converting enzyme
component is replaced with character 4 in this scheme?
A. Rhenin
B. Angiotensin I
C. Kallikrein
D. Kallikreinogen
E. * Aldosteron
A. * Rhenin
B. Angiotensin I
C. Kallikrein
D. Kallikreinogen
E. Aldosteron
A. Rhenin
B. * Angiotensin I
C. Kallikrein
D. Kallikreinogen
E. Aldosteron
28. The clinical symptom shown in figure 133 is caused by:
A. * Intensified conversion of cylindrical epithelium into horny due to the vitamin A
hypovitaminosis
B. Inhibition of prolin hydroxylation due to vitamin C hypovitaminosis
C. Inhibition of methylation reactions due to vitamin B10 hypovitaminosis
D. Inhibition of pyruvate decarboxylation due to vitamin B1 hypovitaminosis
E. Inhibition of alpha-ketoglutarate decarboxylation due to vitamin B5
hypovitaminosis
29. The clinical symptom shown in figure 133 is specific for the deficit of vitamin:
A. D
B. E
C. PP
D. * A
E. K
30. The clinical symptom shown in figure 135 is specific for the deficit of vitamin:
A. * D
B. E
C. PP
D. A
E. K
31. The clinical symptom shown in figure 140 appears in familial hypercholesterolemia and
is called:
A. * Xanthomas
B. Tophus
C. Paetechia
D. Edema
E. Dermatitis
32. The clinical symptom shown in figure 140 is called xanthomas and this is:
A. * Nodules of cholesterol
B. Nodules of urates
C. Nodules of adipose tissue
D. Nodules of oxalates
E. Nodules of connective tissue
33. The clinical symptom shown in figure 140 is specific for:
A. Scurvy
B. * Familial hypercholesterolemia
C. Gout
D. Rickets
E. Pellagra
34. The complex of compounds shown in figure 136 is considered as vitamin. What vitamin
is it?
A. D
B. E
C. * F
D. A
E. K
35. The compound shown in figure 132 is the precursor of vitamin:
A. * A
B. D
C. E
D. K
E. F
36. The compound shown in figure 132 is the precursor of vitamin:
A. * Retinol
B. Cholecalcipherol
C. Tocopherol
D. Quinone
E. Ergocalcipherol
37. The deficit of compounds shown in figure 136 results in:
A. Rickets
B. Hemorrhage
C. Polyneuritis
E. Osteoporosis
38. The disease shown in figure 121 used to was usually found in:
A. North American countries
B. European countries
C. African countries
D. * Asian countries
E. Australia
39. The disease, symptoms of which are shown in figure 121, is caused by the:
A. chronic hypovitaminosis P
B. chronic hypovitaminosis B12
C. chronic hypovitaminosis D
D. chronic hypovitaminosis K
E. * chronic hypovitaminosis B1
40. The disease, symptoms of which are shown in figure 130, is caused by the:
A. chronic hypovitaminosis P
B. chronic hypovitaminosis B12
C. chronic hypovitaminosis D
D. chronic hypovitaminosis K
E. * chronic hypovitaminosis B5
41. The good diet source for the compound shown in figure 132 is:
A. Liver
B. Milk
C. Eggs
D. * Carrot
E. Fish oil
42. The main function of lipoproteins shown in figure 139 is:
A. Transport of diet TAG
B. Transport of endogenic TAG
C. * Transport of cholesterol from liver to tissues
D. Transport of cholesterol from tissues to liver
E. Transport of phospholipids
43. The main protein of the blood cells shown in figure 137 is:
A. Albumin
B. Histone
C. Protamine
D. * Hemoglobin
E. Globulin
44. The muscle structure is shown in figure 149. What component is indicated by character
1?
A. * Myofibril
B. Plasma membrane
C. Transverse tubule
D. Cisterna of sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum
2?
A. Myofibril
B. * Plasma membrane
3?
A. Myofibril
B. Plasma membrane
C. * Transverse tubule
4?
A. Myofibril
B. Plasma membrane
D. * Cisterna of sarcoplasmic reticulum
5?
A. Myofibril
B. Plasma membrane
E. * Tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum
6?
A. * I band
B. A band
C. H zone
D. Z disk
E. Sarcomere
7?
A. I band
B. * A band
C. H zone
D. Z disk
E. Sarcomere
8?
A. * I band
B. A band
C. H zone
D. Z disk
E. Sarcomere
9?
A. I band
B. A band
C. * H zone
D. Z disk
E. Sarcomere
10?
A. I band
B. A band
C. H zone
D. * Z disk
E. Sarcomere
54. The only source of energy for the blood cells shown in figure 137 is:
A. * Glycolisis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Both glycolisis and oxidative phosphorylation
D. Pentose phosphate pathway
E. Gluconeogenesis
55. The structure of myofibril is shown in figure 146. What is indicated by character 1?
A. * Sarcomere
B. Sarcoplasm
C. A band
D. I band
E. Sarcolemma
A. Sarcomere
B. * Myosin filament
C. A band
D. I band
E. Actin filament
A. Sarcomere
B. Myosin filament
C. A band
D. I band
E. * Actin filament
58. The structure of myofibril is shown in figure 146. What is indicated by characters 4?
A. I disk
B. * Z disk
C. A disk
D. Sarcomere
E. Actin filament
59. The structure of thin filament is shown in figure 148. What component is indicated by
character 1?
A. Actomyosin
B. Troponin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
E. * Tropomiosin
character 2?
A. Actomyosin
B. * Troponin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
E. Tropomiosin
character 3?
A. Actomyosin
B. Troponin
C. * Actin
D. Myosin
E. Tropomiosin
62. The structure shown in figure 138 is called:
A. Liposome
B. Vesicle
C. * Lipoprotein
D. Globule
E. Fibrin
63. The symptoms of which disease is shown in figure 131?
A. * Scurvy
B. Pellagra
C. Berry-Berry
D. Rickets
E. Pernicious anemia
A. Scurvy
B. Pellagra
C. Berry-Berry
D. * Rickets
A. Scurvy
B. * Pellagra
C. Berry-Berry
D. Rickets
66. What is indicated by character 1 in figure 147?
A. Light chains of myosin molecule
B. Heads of myosin molecule
C. Actin
D. * Heavy chains of myosin molecule
E. Tropomiosin
67. What structure is indicated by character 2 in figure 147?
A. * Light chains of myosin molecule
B. Troponin molecules
C. Actin
D. Heavy chains of myosin molecule
E. Tropomiosin
68. What structure is shown in figure 147?
A. Actin filament
B. * Myosin filament
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin
E. Thin filament
69. What structure is shown in figure 148?
A. * Thin filament of myofibril
B. Thick filament of myofibril
C. Myofibril
D. Myosin molecule
E. Light chain of myofibril molecule
70. What type of lipoprotein is shown in figure 139?
A. Chylomicrones
B. VLDL
C. IDL
D. * LDL
E. HDL
71. Which coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 119?
A. * TPP
B. NAD
C. FAD
D. PLP
E. TGFA
72. Which compound is replaced with character 1 in scheme shown in figure 134?
A. * 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
D. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
E. Ergocalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. * 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
D. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
E. Ergocalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
D. * 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
E. Ergocalciferol
75. Which compounds are indicated by character 1 in figure 138?
A. Phospholipids
B. Apolipoproteins
C. * Triacylglycerols, esters of cholesterol
D. Monoacylglycerols, free fatty acids
E. Free cholesterol, free fatty acids
A. * Phospholipids
B. Apolipoproteins
C. Triacylglycerols, esters of cholesterol
A. Phospholipids
B. * Apolipoproteins
C. Triacylglycerols, esters of cholesterol
78. Which diet can cause the disease shown in figure 130?
A. Black bread
B. Meat
C. Rice
D. Eggs
E. * Corn
79. Which diet can cause the disease shown in figure 121?
A. Black bread
B. Meat
C. * Polish rice
D. Eggs
E. Liver
80. Which disease can be developed in the disorders of the biochemical pathway shown in
figure 134?
A. Scurvy
B. Pellagra
C. Berry-Berry
D. * Rickets
81. Which disease is shown in figure 121?

A. Scurvy
B. Pellagra
C. * Berry-Berry
D. Rickets
82. Which hormone stimulates the formation of the compound 3 (see figure 134)?
A. Thyroxin
B. Triiodthyronin
C. * Parathormone
D. Insulin
E. Glucagon
83. Which of the below coenzymes is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure
120?
A. * TPP
B. TGFA
C. Methycobalamin
D. PLP
E. PMP
84. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway III shown in figure
126?
A. C
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
126?
A. C
B. * B1
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
126?
A. C
B. * B2
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
126?
A. C
B. * B3
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
88. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure
127?
A. C
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
89. Which of the below vitamins is required for the biochemical reaction shown in figure
128?
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Pyridoxin
E. * Nicotinamide
129?
A. B1
B. B5
C. * B6
D. B10
E. B12
129?
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. * Pyridoxin
E. Nicotinamide
92. Which of the following biochemical symptoms are specific for the disease shown in
figure 121?
A. * The increase of ketoacids concentration in blood
B. The decrease of ketoacids concentration in blood
C. The increase of fatty acids concentration in blood
D. The decrease of fatty acids concentration in blood
E. The decrease of glucose concentration in blood
93. Which of the following symptoms are specific for the disease shown in figure 130?
A. * Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia
B. Dermatitis, xerophthalmia, keratomalacia
C. Dermatitis, hemorrhage, loss of teeth
D. Dermatitis, sterility, muscle atrophy
E. Dermatitis, pernicious anemia, growth retardation
94. Which of the mechanisms of urine formation takes place in the structure shown in figure
143?
A. * Filtration
B. Reabsorption
C. Secretion
D. Filtration and reabsorption
E. Reabsorption and secretion
95. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway shown in figure 123?
A. B1
B. B12
C. * B2
D. B6
E. B15
A. B1
B. B12
C. * B5
D. B6
E. B15
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. * Riboflavin
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. * Niacin
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
99. Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway I shown in figure 126?
A. B1
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
100.
Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway I shown in figure 126?
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. * Nicotinamide
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
101.
Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway II shown in figure 126?
A. * B1
B. B3
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
102.
A. * Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. Ribiflavin
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
103.
A. * Niacin
B. Folic acid
C. Ribiflavin
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
104.
Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway IV shown in figure 126?
A. B2
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
105.
Which vitamin is required for the biochemical pathway IV shown in figure 126?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thiamin
Folic acid
Ribiflavin
Retinol
* Nicotinamide
106.
Which vitamin is required for the nonoxidative phase of biochemical pathway
shown in figure 125?
A. * Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
107.
Which vitamin is required for the nonoxidative phase of biochemical pathway
A. * B 5
B. B1
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
108.
Which vitamin is required for the oxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown
in figure 125?
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. * Nicotinic acid
D. Retinol
E. Tocopherol
109.
Which vitamin is required for the oxidative phase of biochemical pathway shown
in figure 125?
A. B2
B. * B5
C. B6
D. B10
E. B12
110.
Which vitamin is required for the reaction 2 in biochemical pathway shown in
figure 122?
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Niacin
E. Thiamin
111.
figure 122?
A. B10
B. B12
C. * B5
D. B6
E. C
112.
figure 122?
A. B10
B. B12
C. * B1
D. B6
E. C
113.
figure 122?
A. B10
B. B12
C. * B2
D. B6
E. C
114.
figure 122?
A. B10
B. B12
C. * B3
D. B6
E. C
115.
figure 122?
A. B1
B. * B2
C. B5
D. B6
E. B10
116.
figure 122?
A. B1
B. B2
C. * B5
D. B6
E. B10
117.
Which vitamin is required for the reaction shown in figure 119?
A. * B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B5
E. B6
118.
Which vitamin is required for the reactions indicated by arrows in figure 120?
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Thyamin
E. Retinol
119.
A. * B1
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
120.
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Riboflavin
E. Retinol
121.
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Pantothenic acid
E. Retinol
122.
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Folic acid
D. * Niacin
E. Retinol
123.
Which vitamin is required for the reactions shown in figure 124?
A. Thiamin
B. Folic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Retinol
E. * Niacin
124.
Which vitamin is required for the reactions shown in figure 124?
A. B1
B. * B2
C. B3
D. B5
E. B6
125.
Which vitamin is the constituent of all compounds participating in biochemical
pathway shown in figure 123?
A. B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. * B3
126.
Which vitamin is the constituent of the compound indicated by question mark in
figure 122?
A. B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. * B3
127.
Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction
A. * B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B5
E. B6
128.
Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reactions
indicated by arrows in figure 120?
A. * B1
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
129.
A. * B2
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
130.
A. * B3
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
131.
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
132.
Which vitamin is the precursor for coenzyme that is required for the reaction 2 in
biochemical pathway shown in figure 122?
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
133.
A. * B2
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
134.
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
135.
A. * B1
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
136.
A. * B2
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
137.
A. * B3
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
138.
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
139.
A. * B2
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
140.
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
141.
A. * B2
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. C
142.
A. * B5
B. B6
C. B10
D. B12
E. B1
143.
A. B5
B.
C.
D.
E.
* B6
B10
B12
B1

Module 5 Biochemistry of Tissues and Physiological

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Module 5 Biochemistry of Tissues and Physiological

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Mudule 5.

Biochemistry of tissues and physiological functions

Test questions in text form

9. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all of the following except:

B. one or more Propene units

44. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of:

Lipid soluble vitamins are:

The deficiency of thiamin causes disease:

The molecule of vitamin A contains:

C. Diminished clotting ability

The final reaction in the formation of a blood clot is

* Phosphate buffer system

C. * Albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

What is the most effective intracellular inorganic buffer?

E. all of the above.

D. Triacylglycerols from an intestine

If an amino acid is glucogenic, it will not be degraded to ______.

D. * heavy chain constant region

causes tissue damage in the absence of C1INH

variable region of the light chain.

* Liberines and statins

What is an allergy, in physiological terms?

D. Transformed into glycogen

E. All of the above are liver functions

E. * All adopted processes are correct

Stomach; the liver and pancreas

* Small intestines, liver

In the muscles glucose-1-phosphate convert into lactat

E. None of the above

D. Mild elevations of bilirubin, alanine aminotransferase, and aspartate

D. * It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and

Choose the substance of protein nature which is produced in kidneys:

D. Blood plasma without glucose

Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of

C. Plasma blood flow

E. All of the above are correct

E. Fibrous connective tissue

Cartilage cells cannot reproduce

Glycine, proline, cystein

It contains more nuclei

* Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper

The muscle action potential of the motor neuron

Mesothelilum, endothelium, adiocytes and desmosomes

The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces:

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

* Connective tissue proper

Increase frequency of reductions

C. * Elastic cartilage--end of long bones

A. Chronic inflammatory processes

have a favorable effect. In the reaction of i-carboxylation of glutamate of what blood

As a dissolved gas in the blood plasma.

Hyperactivity of tissue lipase

E. excess of carbohydrates and lipids in nutrition

D. Lowering concentration of calcium in blood

E. Intensification synthesis of uric acid

B. main reason liver disease

At what disease more frequent alkaline reaction of urine?

bile pigments, acetone

Polyuria of patients with diabetes mellitus appears as a result:

Test questions for figures

81. Which disease is shown in figure 121?

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