Electric Circuit Quiz

1. The S.I.
unit of power is
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and
offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is
called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its
thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 108 Q-m
(d) 1.8 x 108 Q-m
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are
connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage

across the
resistor is
(a) 33 V
(b) 66 v
(c) 80 V
(d) 132 V
Ans: b
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(a) length
(6) area of cross-section
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V.
The resistance of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is
12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the
resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and
the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25
Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective
resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel
of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms
respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans: b
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
(b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature coefficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q
resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Ans: b
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans: a
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a
parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Ans: d
24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon
(d) Brass
Ans: c
25. Ohms law is not applicable to
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits
(d) circuits with low current densities
Ans: a
26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: b
27. For which of the following ampere second could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
(b) Charge
(c) Power
(d) Energy
Ans: b
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) (amperes) ohm
(b) joules/sec.
(c) amperes x volts
(d) amperes/volt
Ans: d
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor

Ans: c
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature
co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans: a
31. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans: b
32. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the
load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans: b
33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans: d
34. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#)
zero
Ans: b
35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans: d
36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans: c
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 8 watts
Ans: c
38. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed
electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: a
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans: c
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its
resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans: a
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If
one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans: d
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a
battery across them, which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the
voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
(d) none of them
Ans: a
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive
6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the
terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40

W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans: b
46. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans: a
53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to

boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulbs filament is higher than its cold
54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is

(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans: c
(a) D.C. supply only

(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans: d
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric

current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans:
49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current
(b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factors
(d) none of above factors
Ans: c
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends
on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
(c) both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of
a series circuit ?
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans: c
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: c
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed

(e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its
temperature rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have
resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most
effective in reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
63. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the orbit
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current
will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the
total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same

Ans: b
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
68. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot
of bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage
increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is

because switching operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit
has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Ans: b
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three
times its length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire
becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Ans: c
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect
it after removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
77. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is
called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then
in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will
be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of
resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohms law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is
the resistance between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
93. Ohms law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional
area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor
having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the
resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2
2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will
be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/C
(b) mhos/ohmC
(e) ohms/ohmC
(d) mhos/C
Ans: c
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply
wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
99. The condition for the validity under Ohms law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the
temperature at negative end
Ans: a
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as
between that of a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having
average value of conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied
voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of
conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Ans: b
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper
conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical
resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than
most of the metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
105. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal
(b) silicon carbide
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
107. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840
(b) 1840
(c) 30
(d) 4
Ans: a
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom
is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates
20 W the total power supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
111. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively,
then according to Joules law heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro
ampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature
coefficient ?
(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
118. One newton meter is same as

(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
a.c circuits
1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is
_______ radian/second.
(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of
frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is increased to 100 Hz,
reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is
(a) the same as frequency
(6) time required to complete one cycle
(c) expressed in amperes
Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of
(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
Ans: b
116. Conductance : mho ::

(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds.

Its frequency is
(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
117. 1 angstrom is equal to

(a) 10-8 mm
(6) 106 cm
(c) 1010 m
(d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to

(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Ans: b
7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes

and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant is
(a) a sinusoid of the same frequency
(b) a sinusoid of half the original frequency
(c) a sinusoid of double the frequency
(d) not a sinusoid
Ans: a
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave will have
the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Ans: a
8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is

(a) 127.4 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 282.8 V
(d)200V
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the
least mean value ?
(a) half wave rectified sine wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) sine wave
(d) square wave
Ans: a
9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of

JT radians, then
(a) both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
(b) both will reach their maximum values at the same instant
(c) when one wave reaches its maximum value, the other will reach
its minimum value
Ans: c
10. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Ans: a
11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the
phase angle between them is
(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 90
(d) 0
Ans: b
12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the
phase difference between the current and
voltage is
(a) 180
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 0
Ans: b
13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Ans: c
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(a) 0.5 Imax
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.414 Lmax
Ans: b
17. Form Factor is the ratio of
(a) average value/r.m.s. value
(b) average value/peak value
(e) r.m.s. value/average value
(d) r.m.s. value/peak value
Ans: c
18. Form factor for a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the average
value is
(a) 0.636 Emax
(b) 0.707 Emax
(c) 0.434 EWc
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through
a circuit element is given as 30. The essential condition is that
(a) both waves must have same frequency
(b) both waves must have identical peak values

(c) both waves must have zero value at the same time
Ans: a
22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value
at an angle of______degrees.
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Ans: c
23. Capacitive reactance is more when
(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Ans: a
24. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
Ans: a
25. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to
(a) R/Z
(b) cosine of phase angle difference be-tween current and voltage
(c) kW/kVA
(d) ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I
(e) all above
Ans: e
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value
and reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Ans: d
30. Pure inductive circuit
(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then
returns back to it during other part of the cycle
Ans: c
31. Inductance affects the direct current flow
(a) only at the time of turning off
(b) only at the time of turning on
(c) at the time of turning on and off
(d) at all the time of operation
Ans: c
32. Inductance of a coil Varies
(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Ans: e
26. The best place to install a capacitor is

(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Ans: b
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit
containing
(a) capacitance only
(b) inductance only
(c) resistance only
(d) all above
Ans: c
27. Poor power factor

(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above
Ans: e
34. Time constant of an inductive circuit

(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of
resistance
(c) increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in

(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kV
35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by

connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)

Ans: a
36. In a highly capacitive circuit the
(a) apparent power is equal to the actual power
(b) reactive power is more than the apparent power
(c) reactive power is more than the actual power
(d) actual power is more than its reactive power
Ans: c
37. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
38. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
39. Power factor of the system is kept high
(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines
and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Ans: d
40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the
time during which voltage
(a) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
(b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(c) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
Ans: c
41. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non-oscillating
Ans: c
42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by steady (D.C.)
current which when flowing through a given circuit for a given time
produces
(a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the
same circuit
(b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the
same circuit
(c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the same
circuit
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between
r.m.s. value and average value.
(a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
Ans: a
44. The double energy transient occur in the
(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit
Ans: d
45. The transient currents are associated with the
(a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
(b) impedance of the circuit
(c) applied voltage to the circuit
(d) resistance of the circuit
Ans: a
46. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is
(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average
value must always be taken over
(a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form
(b) the quarter cycle
(c) the half cycle
(d) the whole cycle
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit
(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90
(b) current leads the voltage by 90
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Ans: d
49. In a pure inductive circuit
(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90
Ans: b
50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in

(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Ans: c
51. Inductance of coil
(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Ans: c
52. In any A.C. circuit always
(a) apparent power is more than actual power
(b) reactive power is more than apparent power
(c) actual power is more than reactive power
(d) reactive power is more than actual power
Ans: a
(d) 90% of the maximum value

Ans: c
58. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of
resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of
resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit
(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of
resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of
resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of
resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
Ans: d
53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in

the circuit voltage ?
60. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
(a) depends upon the magnitude of R

(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Ans: a
54. In a purely inductive circuit

(a) actual power is zero
(b) reactive power is zero
(c) apparent power is zero
(d) none of above is zero
Ans: a
61. In a R-L-C circuit

(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and
the supply line
(e) all above are correct
Ans: e
55. Power factor of electric bulb is

(a) zero
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line when
(a) applied voltage decreases but current increases
(b) applied voltage increases but current decreases
(c) both applied voltage and current increase
(d) both applied voltage and current decrease
Ans: a
57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the
application of voltage to each
(a) 25% of maximum value
(b) 50% of maximum value
(c) 63% of maximum value
62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance

frequency can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only
(b) L only
(c)C only
(d)LorC
(e) R,LorC
Ans: d
63. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the
(a) current is maximum
(b) current is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum
(d) voltage across C is minimum
Ans: a
64. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by

(a) R/C
(b) RC2
(c) RC
(d) R2C
Ans: c
65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L series circuit,
then time constant of this circuit will be
(a) 0.001 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 100 s
Ans: b
66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Ans: c
71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on

ordinary supply frequency is more than its true resistance because of
(a) iron loss in core
(b) skin effect
(c) increase in temperature
(d) capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns
Ans: a
72. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW
indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Ans: b
73. In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used in order to
(a) reduce eddy current loss
(b) increase heat radiation
(c) make assembly cheap and easier
(d) reduce circuit permeability
Ans: a
67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s.

current which of the following equation represents this wave ?
(a) 42.42 sin 3141
(b) 60 sin 25 t
(c) 30 sin 50 t
(d) 84.84 sin 25 t
Ans: a
74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor.

(a) demand
(b) load
(c) power
(d) form
Ans: c
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more
than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct
except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Ans: a
69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply

consumes 100 W.
This consumption can be attributed to
(a) the big size of the inductor
(b) the reactance of the inductor
(c) the current flowing in the inductor
(d) the statement given is false
Ans: d
76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and

active power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Ans: b
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is
40 kVA
The power drawn by the circuit is
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of
equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is
at zero value ?
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: b
79. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in
(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Ans: a
80. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied
voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Ans: b
81. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost
purely
(a) resistive
(b) inductive
(c) capacitive
Ans: c
82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at_____
frequencies.
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) high
Ans: d
83. At ______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely
resistive.
(a) low
(b) very low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: d
84. In a sine wave the slope is constant
(a) between 0 and 90
(b) between 90 and 180
(c) between 180 and 270
(d) no where
Ans: d
85. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of
(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Ans: a
86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuits ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuits ability to resist the flow of current
Ans: c
87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only ?
(a) can dissipate considerable amount of power
(6) can act as energy storage devices
(c) connecting them in parallel increases the total value
(d) oppose sudden changes in voltage
Ans: a
88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?
(a) The current through each element is same
(b) The voltage across element is in proportion to its resistance
value
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the source
current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an
alternating quantity
(b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating
quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of
a 3-phase supply
(d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3phase load
Ans: a
89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will
(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and
capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Ans: b
90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies
because they
(a) create more electrical noise
(b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
(c) consume more power
(d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
Ans: d
91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability
Ans: d
increase in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp
increase in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise
in line current
Ans: a
92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it

way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Ans: c
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180 out of
phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor
?
(a) Square wave
(b) Sine wave
(c) Half wave rectified sine wave
(d) Triangular wave
Ans: c
100. The frequency of an alternating current is

(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Ans: c
94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is
101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
W. This is due to
(a) the capacitive reactance in ohms
(b) the current flowing in capacitor
(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big
(d) the statement is incorrect
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The
r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is
(a) 0.5 of peak value
(b) 0.707 of peak value
(c) same as peak value
(d) zero
Ans: b
97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except
(a) inductive reactance
(b) capacitive reactance
(c) resistance
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in
current
(b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp
102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always

(a) less than unity
(b) unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle
between circuit voltage and current is
(a) true power
(b) reactive power
(c) volt-amperes
(d) instantaneous power
Ans: a
104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s. value of
60 A is
(a) 60 sin 25 t
(b) 60 sin 50 t
(c) 84.84 sin 3141
(d) 42.42 sin 314 t
Ans: c
105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5
ohms in parallel with a pure inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more

(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Ans: c
106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to
1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: b
118. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to
1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: a
119. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic
resistance the electrical power converted into heat is
(a) apparent power
(b) true power
(c) reactive power
Ans: b
120. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an
alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which
of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Ans: a
d.c generator
1. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness
of laminations of a D.C. machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature
conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Flemings right-hand rule for finding the direction of
induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced
e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
10. Flemings right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f.,

correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f.
induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of
conductor
Ans: b
(d) two north poles follow two south poles

Ans: b
11. While applying Flemings right-hand rule to And the direction of

induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the
direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the
lines of flux
Ans: d
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited

generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number
of armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the
higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function

of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature
is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the
velocity of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap
winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine
due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in

(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be
increased to maintain the voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments

is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in
contact with conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these
brushes in magnetic neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected
from them only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is

(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator
segments is equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will
be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch

(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series
with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal
to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt
generators
Ans: d
(a) Dummy coils

(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are
reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for
(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C.
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has

wave wound armature while generator B has lap wound armature.
generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be

(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
Ans: a
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be
expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local shortcircuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature
reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays
vital role for providing direct current of a D.C. generator ?
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now
while pole flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is
doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which
open circuited coil is connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound
generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus
bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer
connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or
negative side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without
any residual magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to

(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as
commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile
batteries is
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: c
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and
electrical degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional
to
(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the
geometrical neutral axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the

self-induced e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following
except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in
space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as
200 V. If the speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will
be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted
by
(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not
be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual
magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on
poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V.
The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200
A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance
of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator
are rockedm ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when
operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C.
machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors
and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is
increased, then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator

(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator
(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal
voltage while running on no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to
build up without any residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) almost zero
(b) less than no load terminal voltage
(c) more than no load terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage
is
(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load
because of all of the following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator
(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic ohmic
drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic ohmic
drop armature reaction

(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt
generator. The armature voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) will be of 5 xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any
excitation. The open circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the
armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced
e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing
pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading
pole tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be
opened as it would produce high inductive voltage which may be
dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans:
101. Wave winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an
equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal
currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both
machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant
voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are
required to be run in parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators
may run as motor for which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of
(a) Lenzs law
(b) Ohms law
(c) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical
value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load
current is 5 A. If the load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal
voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At
full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of
0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a
total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs. are
270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C.
generators is that they have
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage characteristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer
bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the
machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal
currents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is
preferred ?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C.
transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C.
generator having duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator
bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total
mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
(c) Differentially compound motor

(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation
because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of

flat and over compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications

requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to

build up on its first trial run, the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(c) increase the speed of primemover

(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
(d) Cumulative compound motor

Ans: d
D,c motors
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would
be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
8. According to Flemings left-hand rule, when the forefinger points

in the direction of the field or flux, the middle finger will point in the
direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is
running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while
starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce

Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage
of electrical energy is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the
resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed
can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors
(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes
suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back
e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power,
the current in the armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed
that a particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is
invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car

(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for
(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
(c) Air compressors

(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is
(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are
established, the efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by

50%, the torque of the motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(b) around 90%

(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
(c) 25% of the previous value

(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of

(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly

proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
31. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum
temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor

indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the

direction of rotation of D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenzs law
(b) Faradays law
(c) Coloumbs law
(d) Flemings left-hand rule
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more
than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for
intermittent light and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor

Ans: c
(c) Full-load current

Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field

circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to the motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature
due to excessive centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow
speed
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a
D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
43. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has
poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelycompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the
compensating winding is provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly
explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the
following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be

maximum when the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
I. REA
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred
over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor

Ans: d

Ans: c
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to

secondary
(a) through cooling coil
(b) through air
(c) by the flux
Ans: c
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed

variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
3. A transformer core is laminated to

(a) reduce hysteresis loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses
(c) reduce copper losses
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak
demand by the motor, compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations

of a transformer depends on
(a) tightness of clamping
(b) gauge of laminations
(c) size of laminations
(c) cumulatively compounded

(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c

Ans: d
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide
speed range control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field
suddenly opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as
series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the
same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the
same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per

cent of the full-load current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(c) 12 to 15 per cent
(d) 20 to 30 per cent
Ans: b
6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have
(a) high resistance
(b) high reluctance
(c) low resistance
(d) low reluctance
Ans: d
7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine
(a) copper loss
(b) magnetising current
(c) magnetising current and loss
(d) efficiency of the transformer
Ans: c
transformer
1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be

(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Ans: b
9. Sumpners test is conducted on trans-formers to determine

(a) temperature
(b) stray losses
(c) all-day efficiency
Ans: a
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented
steel is around
(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
11. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses
Ans: d
12. No-load current in a transformer
(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75
(b) leads the voltage by about 75
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15
(d) leads the voltage by about 15
Ans: a
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to
(a) provide support to windings
(b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) reduce eddy current losses
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Exciter
Ans: d
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the
following side is short circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side
(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more crosssectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding

(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
17. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply
because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since
the rate of change of flux is zero
Ans: c
19. Primary winding of a transformer
(a) is always a low voltage winding
(b) is always a high voltage winding
(c) could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
Ans: c
20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
Ans: b
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of
(a) 100 per cent
(b) 98 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which
remain constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
Ans: c
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied

voltage by an angle of about
(a) 180
(b) 120
(c) 90
(d) 75
Ans: d
25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon
(a) supply frequency
(b) load current
(c) power factor of load
Ans: d
26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to
(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to
heating
Ans: c
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to a rating of
(a) 3000 kVA
(b) 1000 kVA
(c) 500 kVA
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
(a) nearly full load
(b) 70% full load
(c) 50% full load
(d) no load
Ans: a
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is
(a) at no load
(b) at 50% full load
(c) at 80% full load
(d) at full load
Ans: b
30. Transformer breaths in when
(a) load on it increases
(b) load on it decreases
(c) load remains constant
Ans: b
31. No-load current of a transformer has
(a) has high magnitude and low power factor
(b) has high magnitude and high power factor
(c) has small magnitude and high power factor
(d) has small magnitude and low power factor

Ans: d
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils
(a) to provide free passage to the cooling oil
(b) to insulate the coils from each other
Ans: a
33. Greater the secondary leakage flux
(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Ans: a
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is
(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
(c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
(d) to provide all above features
Ans: c
35. The power transformer is a constant
(a) voltage device
(b) current device
(c) power device
(d) main flux device
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load
depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
Ans: b
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer
and K is the transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary
resistance referred to primary will be
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not
connected with regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from
the power factor of common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA
ratings

Ans: b
39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in
parallel are different, then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the transformers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at
which the two transformers operate will be different from the power
factor of the common load
Ans: d
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on
(a) primary side
(b) secondary side
(c) low voltage side
(d) high voltage side
Ans: c
41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
(a) reduces weight per kVA
(6) reduces iron losses
(c) reduces copper losses
(d) increases part load efficiency
Ans: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the
quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
43. The chemical used in breather is
(a) asbestos fiber
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride
(d) silica gel
Ans: d
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and
secondary inductances. The statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of
(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Ans: d
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by

magnetic forces, is termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c
47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum
flux density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually
(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) silicon steel
Ans: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually
(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Ans: a
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is
(a) to project againstinternal fault
(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil
due to variation of temperature of sur-roundings
Ans: d
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is
(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV
(c) 132 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: d
52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and
secondary is
(a) zero
(b) 1 ohm
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) infinite
Ans: d
53. A transformer oil must be free from
(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on
(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil
unless the oil temperature exceeds
(a) 50C
(b) 80C
(c) 100C
(d) 150C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer
could be
(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
(d) saturation of core
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum
efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in
the material for transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when
(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when
(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads

Ans: c
61. Buchholzs relay gives warning and protection against
(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself
(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
Ans: a
62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small
because it has
(a) small air gap
(b) large leakage flux
(c) laminated silicon steel core
(d) fewer rotating parts
Ans: a
63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary
transformer ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) Any of the above
Ans: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for
the material for transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon
(a) load current
(b) load current and voltage
(c) load current, voltage and frequency
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have
(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance
Ans: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a
(a) special test
(b) routine test
(c) type test
Ans: c
68. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ?

(a) Core insulation voltage test
(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at
(a) leading power factor
(b) lagging power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) zero power factor
Ans: a
70. Helical coils can be used on
(a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: a
71. Harmonics in transformer result in
(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
Ans: d
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually
(a) copper core
(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
(d) mild steel core
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. At halfload, the copper loss will be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a
transformer is
(a) average value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value
Ans: c
L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) eddy current losses
(c) copper losses

Ans: a
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?
(a) Primary winding
(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum
efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an autotransformer over a two winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers
do not have equal percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of
the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible
core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA
ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation
of atmospheric temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has
(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings

(c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced
frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux
density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
Ans: b
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically

constant from noload to fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type
(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type
Ans: b
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load

such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
Ans: a
(b) primary is supplied full-load current

(c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,the iron

loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Ans: c
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is
(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
Ans: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by
(a) low power factor wattmeter
(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter
Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its
iron core will be
92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage
93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: c
94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is
necessary that they should have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____
viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is
(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the
transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is
always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on
(a) frequency
(b) area of the core
(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up
to
(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has
(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero
(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power
supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are
obtained with transformer employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end
turns are heavily insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by
the shunting capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of
transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer
from damage
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the
applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not
occur in trans formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which
remain constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel singlephase transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V

(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
(a) short-circuit test

(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
Ans: b
111. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited

under operating conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
Ans: a
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the

highest temperature safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and

secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from

outside ?
(a) Bushings
(b) Core
(c) Primary winding
Ans: a
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as
(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least

(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
(c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
(d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
Ans: a
(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current,

maximum efficiency will occur at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor
Ans: d
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full

load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on

small distribution transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in

a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage

surges due to lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum

temperature rise will occur in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
Ans: b
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load

conditions can be determined by
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to

(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer

(c) magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations
Ans: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is
limited by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is
comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to
measure
(a) insulation resistance
(b) copper loss
(c) core loss
(d) total loss
(e) efficiency
(f) none of the above
Ans: c
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine
(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
(d) magnetising current
(e) magnetising current and loss
Ans: e
129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the
ratio of
(a) primary turns to secondary turns
(b) secondary current to primary current
(c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced e.m.f.
(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Ans: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from
overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
136. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated

voltage
(a) its power factor will deteriorate
(b) its power factor will increase
(c) its power factor will remain unaffected
(d) its power factor will be zero
Ans: a
137. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper
losses, when its transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
Ans: a
138. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of
the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
139. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load
current. This results in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A
(c) 15 A
Ans: a
140. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric
motors of the same power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
Ans: c
Single phase induction motor
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have
(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited
(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
(d) Split phase motor

Ans: a
3. In capacitor start single-phase motors

(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage
(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in
running winding
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of

(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running
winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and
carries only induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running
winding
Ans: b
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running

capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between
starting and running winding can be nearly
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 90
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor
(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a
centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is
(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting
torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power
factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is

produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect starting winding
when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting
torque, then which of the following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor
will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor
(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch
(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor

(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with
meggar is found to be ground. Most probable location of the ground
will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to
supply with its capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent
reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?
(a) Split motor
(b) Shaded-pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is determined by
(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to
(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by
reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(d) both (a) and (b)

Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in
(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is
(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is
replaced by a resistance
(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually
(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for
(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting
torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?

(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually
(a) universal motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
(d) 3-phase synchronous motor
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is
(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on
(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on
(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing
and control purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on
(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading
(d) unity power factor

Ans: a
39. In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running
purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oil filled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C.
supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to
(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is
generally used in time phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of

(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the
motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following
needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will
be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor
starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?
(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using
(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor
?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power
factor will be low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the
by reversing the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations therefore these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor
(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation

Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of
(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load
whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines
is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting
is
(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of
(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is at 45 electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90 electrical to the field axis
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of
synchronous speed of motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is
similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor
(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite
parallel to the shaft because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under
the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as
that of
(a) A.C. motor
(c) D.C. series motor
Ans: c
75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion

motor is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
Ans: b
(a) worn bearings

(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
77. The motor used for the compressors is

(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor

motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor
where frequent reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rushing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as
increases with speed ?

(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
compressor motor in small home air-conditioners

because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high
power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is 45 electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90 electrical to field axis
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the
motor at about ____ percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is
disconnected from the circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the
most likely defect is
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two

capacitors fails to open then
(a) motor will not come up to speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking
is
(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding
(d) high commutator mica
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in
the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower

Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either
(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to

commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start

motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to
shaded pole motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor

is incorrect ?
(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronousinduction motor
(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic
construction in order to vary reluctance path between stator and
rotor
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor

while it is running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to
supply with reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
97. A universal motor is one which

(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately
the same speed and output
(b) can be marketed internationally
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to

supply with reversed connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and
after motor comes to rest then connect auxiliary winding to the
supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and
immediately connect it to supply
Ans: a
(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load

Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that

it cannot maintain synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the
motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess
(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with

(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no
(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will
(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is
disconnected from supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start

induction motor is incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other
mechanical devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor
motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has
(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns
(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is
(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by
(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
116. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record
players and tape-recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of up to 1
W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in
amplitude and phase
Ans: d
117. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is
in incorrect ?
(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
118. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase
induction motoris correct ?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
119. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
120. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
Synchronous motors
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is shortcircuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a
(a) small induction motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a
4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque
(a) when under loaded
(b) while over-excited
(c) only at synchronous speed
(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by
(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
Ans: d
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have

(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings
Ans: c
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of

(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines
(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous

motor is likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because

(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous
speed in an instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous
speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency
currents
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous

motor suddenly gets disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a
synchronous motor varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum
when the load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor
when it is
(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal
excitation. Now if the load on the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes

more armature current because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take
more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor
current
Ans: b
16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Ans: a
17. An over-excited synchronous motor takes
(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to
(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
(d) turbine
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor
corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading

Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. &
depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6
electrical, its value in mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn
between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at
(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing
(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
Ans: d
27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

(a) maintaining constant excitation
(b) running the motor on leading power factors
(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
(d) oscillations cannot be damped
Ans: c
28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of
(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the
power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always
(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is
(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to
new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
33. A synchronous motor will always stop when
(a) supply voltage fluctuates
(b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) supply voltage frequency changes9885859805
Ans: c
34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place
(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded

Ans: b

Ans: a
35. When load on an over-excited or under excited

synchronous*motor is increased, rate of change of its armature
current as compared with that of power factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous

motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are met by

(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to

load increases essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs

at a coupling angle of
(a) 30
(b) 60
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to

that of an equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) 90
(d) 180
Ans: c
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant

(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that
the number of poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a
synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be

used as
(a) voltage booster
(b) phase advancer
(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic
field rotate at the same speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is
(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are
(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
46. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for
(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased,
which of the following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will
usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should
have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry
(a) direct current
(b) alternating current
(c) no current
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has
(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less
sensitive to load variations
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher
values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the
load is increased three times, its torque angle becomes
approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is
called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous
motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more
than the synchronous speed during hunting, the damper bars
develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound
round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the
stator, in polyphase multipolar synchronous motors running at full
load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when
(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes
(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action,

field winding is usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks ?
(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant

load is decreased from its normal value, ignoring effects of armature
reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is
lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
Engineering Interview Questions and Answers
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power

factor lagging load, the armature field affects the main field in the
following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
Ans: b
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing

current at lagging power factor from constant voltage supply, its
field excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
72. Stability of a synchronous machine

(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
1) SYNCHRONOUS
MOTORS
Electrical
(c) remain constant

Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation
operates with such an excitation that it takes power at lagging power
factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes
down, the power factor of the synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction
motor action and connecting field discharge resistance across field,
starting and accelerting torque is produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is
(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field
circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d

Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of
induction motor because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic
field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and
drawing current at a leading power factor from constant voltage
supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor
(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When
the load is increased, the armature current drawn by it increases
because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
Ans: d
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited,

motor
(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor
gets suddenly open-circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate
simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
79. The speed of a synchronous motor
(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase synchronous motor
is
(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by
conducting insulation resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft

Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails
to pull into synchronism after applying D.C. field current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
16.84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed
depends on all of the following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence
exists when the motor is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on
(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading
power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor
running with normal excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is equal to the
(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
Ans: d
90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a synchronous

motor is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinity
Ans: a
91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb
depends on
(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: b
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the
direction of its field current is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent relation between

(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency,
pole number and load torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at
constant full load, 100% excitation and unity power factor. On
changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor
(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between
(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to
(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a
synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
100. Which of the following motors is non-self starting ?

(a) D.C. series motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the
armature at noload is approximately equal to the applied voltage,
then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is generally used
to
(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power
factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends
on
(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can
develop without losing its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values
for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not
vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in
(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core
surface in a synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous
motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute

(c) one second
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous
motor will pull into synchronism at rated rotor supply voltage and
frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has
(a) lower stability limit
(6) high stability limit
(c) good speed regulation
(d) good voltage regulation
Ans: a
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles
(a) a series motor
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous
motor is open circuited, the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115. For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at
(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop
at rest for any angular position of the rotor, at rated stator supply
voltage and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are
(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines

(c) d.c. compound machines
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is
defined as the angle between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply
is running on no load and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
Ans: a
130. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is

(a) directly proportional to applied voltage
(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
Ans: a
Power system economics

1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor

(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
Ans: c
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually

(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor will

depend on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of
coupling angle (90)
Ans: d
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by

(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
Ans: c
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor

and does not drive a mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
Ans: c
129. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when load
angle is
(a) 45
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of

(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time

Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
Ans: b
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number
of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate
of interest
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand rate or
fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives

(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand
Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
(e) any of the above
Ans: e
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting
(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum ruiyiing
cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed
rated capacity will have utilisation factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope

(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semi-fixed charges
(c) running charges
Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(a) the greatest of all short time interval averaged demand during a
period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
(e) both (a) or (b)
Ans: a
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate of
interest increases with
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning
capacity of the plant vide
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given
installed capacity will be in a position to supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding
(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units

Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times,
(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance
(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing
electrical fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to
(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d
36. Ships are generally powered by
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible

through
(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear
power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding
(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary
consideration in
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?
(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) stand-by plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c
44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed
cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under
emergency conditions which is not kept in operation but in working
order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take
load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve

Ans: d
52. offers the highest electric load.
(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne
of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a
fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Insurance charges
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: b
56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to
the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem.
(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydro-electric power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for
installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(d) Hydro-electric power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers
are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydro-electric power plants
Ans: a
60. In whichof the following power plants the maintenance cost is
usually high ?
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydro-electric power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load
plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be
improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power
factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the
synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
Ans: a
(b) Cost of fuel

(c) Cost of lubricants
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole
system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for
maximum efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage

frequency.
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
Ans: c
(a) Electric clock

(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous

condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around

(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally

(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor
(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost
?
(a) Cost of wages
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of

interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and
sometimes running of thermal power plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a

Ans: b
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as

(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
Ans:
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the

following reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator
Ans: a
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be

around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due
to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating

depreciation charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known as

(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(c) Diminishing value method

(d) Halseys 5050 formula
Ans: d
(d) alternator
Ans: a
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is

around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable ?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is
confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for

power factor improvement ?
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff
Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as
(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base
load plant ?
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant,

needs maximum maintenance attention ?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide

protection against lightening over voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the
following engine will produce least power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it

will resort to which of the following ?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for
electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the

following power plants ?
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydro-electric power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the following ?

(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction
Ans: d
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of

the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the

following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as

compared to as compared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
107 A company can raise funds through

(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
Ans: d
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of

the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact
Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated

period ?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining
(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated
Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for

power factor improvement ?
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
Ans: d
Transmission and distribution

1. By which of the following systems electric power may be
transmitted ?
(a) Overhead system
(b) Underground system
Ans: c
2 are the conductors, which connect the consumers terminals to the
distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
Ans: b
3. The underground system cannot be operated above
(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans: d
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and
depreciation on the capital outlay is equal to the annual cost of
electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will
be minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most
economical. This statement is known as
(a) Kelvins law
(b) Ohms law
(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faradays law
Ans: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any
preservative compound have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and
distribution of electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as
(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
Ans: d
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are
(a) 4050 meters
(b) 60100 meters
(c) 80100 meters
(d) 300500 meters
Ans: c
10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following ?
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines
?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
Ans: d
12. 310 km line is considered as
(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
Ans: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the
open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect

Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt
admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a constant voltage
transmission system ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of
higher terminal reactants
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy
loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size
in case of long-distance heavy power transmission
Ans: a
16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e
17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is up to
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: d
18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is up to
(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is upto
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Ans: d
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of
underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the
cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be
operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from
higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will
lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of
dielectric losses with temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest
and lowest in first cost ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following
methods is employed for solution of network problems in
interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenins theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
Ans: e
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?
(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation

Ans:
27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is
(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration
(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth
(c) mechanical damage
Ans:
28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers
is
(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Ans: c
29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are
(a) underground
(b) overhead
Ans: b
30. The distributors for residential areas are
(a) single phase
(b) three-phase three wire
(c) three-phase four wire
Ans: c
31. The conductors of the overhead lines are
(a) solid
(b) stranded
(c) both solid and stranded
Ans:
32. High voltage transmission lines use
(a) suspension insulators
(b) pin insulators
Ans: a
33. Multicore cables generally use
(a) square conductors
(b) circular conductors
(c) rectangular conductors
(d) sector-shaped conductors
Ans: d
34. Distribution lines in India generally use

(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles
(c) steel towers
Ans: b
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables
is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
Ans: b
36. The loads on distributors systems are generally
(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
Ans: b
37. The power factor of industrial loads is generally
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: b
38. Overhead lines generally use
(a) copper conductors
(b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
(d) none of these
Ans: c
39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of
(a) copper
(b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
(d) steel
Ans: d
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. Transmission line insulators are made of
(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Ans:
(d) 100 percent

Ans: b
42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables

is
(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Ans: a
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with

equal voltages. As compared to a similar distributor fed at one end
only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
Ans: a
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is
about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is
approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at
(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are crossconnected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans:
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal
loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans:
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a
D.C. 2-wire feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor

with same maximum voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a
51. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 8.8 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Ans: b
52. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as
(a) 20-30 ohms
(b) 7080 ohms
(c) 100200 ohms
(d) 5001000 ohms
Ans: c
53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it
(a) reduces power factor
(b) corrodes the material
(c) gives odour
(d) transfer energy to the ground
Ans: b
54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to
(a) distributors
(b) generating stations
(c) service mains
Ans: a
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when
(a) corona losses are minimum
(b) reactance is high
(c) sending end voltage is more
(d) receiving end voltage is more

Ans: c
(d) All are equally reliable

Ans: c
56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on

(a) primary transmission
(b) secondary transmission
(c) primary distribution
(d) secondary distribution
Ans: d
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports

for transmission lines possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life
Ans: d
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead

transmission lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium
(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
Ans: d
64. Transmission voltage of ll kV is normally used for distances upto

(a) 2025 km
(b) 4050 km
(c) 6070 km
(d) 80100 km
Ans: a
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain

insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?

(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
(d) Silica
Ans: d
Ans: d
59. There is a greater possibility of occurence of corona during

(a) dry weather
(b) winter
(c) summer heat
(d) humid weather
Ans: d
60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission
lines ?
(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mhos relay
(c) Reactance relay
Ans: b
61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually
(a) alloy steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel
Ans: c
62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Tree system
(c) Ring main system
66. Skin effect is proportional to

(a) (conductor diameter)
(b) (conductor diameter)
(c) (conductor diameter)
(d) (conductor diameter)
Ans: c
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and
steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Ans: d
69. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Ans: b
70. Owing to skin effect

(a) current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current
and core of the conductor carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and
core of the conductor carries more current
Ans: b
71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be
improved ?
(a) Using a guard ring
(b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
Ans: d
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to
(a) compensate for skin effect
(b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
(d) increase the tensile strength
Ans: d
73. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated ?
(a) Current only
(b) Current and voltage
(c) Current, voltage and frequency
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current
Ans: d
74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when
(a) line is energized
(b) there is no current in the line
(c) line is on full load
(d) circuit breaker is not open
Ans: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not
necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed
(a) exciters
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors
(d) voltatre transformers
Ans: a
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around
the conductor exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is
compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors
are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
Ans: c
80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) triangular
(d) square
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Ans: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the
transmission voltage should be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors

have higher values except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in
distribution feeder, will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Ans: d
86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on
(a) primary winding
(b) secondary winding
(c) high voltage winding
Ans: c
87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage
(a) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(b) short-circuit current of the system is increased
Ans: b
88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends ?
(a) Frequency of the current
(b) Size of the conductor
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material
Ans: d
89. The effect of corona can be detected by
(a) presence of ozone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour
Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the
transmission voltage should be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance
is neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines

(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Ans: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large
reactance
(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and
noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step because of large angular
displacement between the stations
Ans: c
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be
increased by
(a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
(c) adjusting the governor
(d) reducing the terminal voltage
Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the
bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations
is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
Ans: a
96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in
(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
Ans: b
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the
load VAR requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
Ans: b
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage

regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as
compared to core, it is due to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
Ans: c
100. The following system is not generally used
(a) 1-phase 3 wire
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
Ans: a

Ans: c
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in
cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
101. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

(a) resistivity of conductor material increases
(b) permeability of conductor material increases
(c) diameter increases
(d) frequency increases
Ans: a
110. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and
touches the earth which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
Ans: a
Cables
1. The insulating material for a cable should have
(a) low cost
(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical
injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
6. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian cloth
(b) jute
Ans: c
7. The insulating material for cables should
(a) be acid proof
(b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is provided.
(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in
A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
18. High tension cables are generally used up to

(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
11 cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
19. The surge resistance of cable is

(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect _____ cables.

(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
20. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) post varnish conductor
(c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor
Ans: a
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses
(b) make it flexible
Ans: a
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
16. Low tension cables are generally used up to
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing

(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______ dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
Ans: c
25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil filled
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a

Ans: a
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is

(a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10
(d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
33. The intersheaths in the cables are used to

(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV

because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence
of voids
Ans: d
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided

economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
(d) remains unchanged

Ans: c

Ans: c
29. In cables the charging current

(a) lags the voltage by 90
(b) leads the voltage by 90
(c) lags the voltage by 180
(d) leads the voltage by 180
Ans: b
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
Ans: a
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the

insulation is replaced by one of relative permittivity 2, the
capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
37. A cable carrying alternating current has

(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10

kV/mm, then the dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
38. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at

(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to
counter the effect of inductance
Ans: a
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing
vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
47. The insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Ans: d
48. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d
49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture
(a) mica insulated

(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
(b) working temperature

(c) time of application of the voltage
Ans: d
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation

would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
Ans: d
. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over

other methods of traction ?
(a) Faster acceleration
(b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action
Ans: a
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel

the minimum distance between the two, to avoid interference,
should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
Electric traction
2. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C.

system ?
(a) 22 V
(b) 440 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 15 kV
Ans: a
3. Long distance railways use which of the following ?
(a) 200 V D.C.
(b) 25 kV single phase A.C.
(c) 25 kV two phase A.C.
(d) 25 kV three phase A.C.
Ans: b
4. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by

(a) flywheel
(b) gear box
(c) applying brakes 11.
(d) regulating steam flow to engine
Ans:
12. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through

(a) overhead wire
(b) battery system
(c) small turbo-generator
(d) diesel engine generator
Ans: c
5. Main traction systems used in India are, those using

(a) electric locomotives
(b) diesel engine locomotives
(c) steam engine locomotives
(d) diesel electric locomotives
Ans: e
13. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where

explosive gas exists ?
(a) Steam engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Battery locomotive
Ans: c
6, in India diesel locomotives are manufactured at

(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
Ans: b
14. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by

(a) single cylinder double acting steam engine
(b) double cylinder, single acting steam engine
(c) double cylinder, double acting steam engine
(d) single stage steam turbine
Ans: c
7. For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is
15. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 3000 to 5000
Ans: c
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a
8. _______ locomotive has the highest operational availability.

(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam
Ans: a
16. In case of steam engines the steam pressure is

(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Ans: c
9. The horsepower of steam locomotives is

(a) up to 1500
(b) 1500 to 2000
(c) 2000 to 3000
(d) 3000 to 4000
Ans: a
10. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is around
(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 20 percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
Ans: a
11. In tramways which of the following motors is used ?
(c) A.C. three phase motor
(d) AC. single phase capacitor start motor
Ans: b
17.. The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is

(a) single acting condensing type
(b) single acting non-condensing type
(e) double acting condensing type
(d) double acting non-condensing type
Ans: b
18. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at
(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans: c
19. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly
tapered to
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) facilitate braking
(d) facilitate in taking turns

Ans: d
20. Automatic signalling is used for which of the following trains ?
(a) Mail and express trains
(b) Superfast trains
(c) Suburban and Urban electric trains
(d) All trains
Ans: b
21. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly
(a) 20 to 25 percent
(b) 30 to 40 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
(d) 60 to 70 percent
Ans: a
22. The speed of a superfast train is
(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) more than 100 kmph
Ans: d
23. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel
engine locomotive on broad gauge is usually restricted to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 17
Ans: b
24. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge
track ?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking ?
(a) It avoids wear of track
(b) Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
(c) It is instantaneous
(d) More heat is generated during braking
Ans: a
Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is
costly ?
(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(d) All braking systems are equally costly
Ans: a
27. Tractive effort is required to

(a) overcome the gravity component of train mass
(b) overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
(c) accelerate the train mass
(d) do all of the above
Ans: d
28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive
will be
(a) less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b) more than that of D.C. locomotive
(c) equal to that of D.C. locomotive
Ans: b
29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of
the following ?
(a) Sand on rails
(b) Dew on rails
(c) Oil on the rails
Ans: d
30. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves ?
(a) Rust on the rails
(b) Dust on the rails
(c) Sand on the rails
Ans: d
31. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following
services ?
(a) Main line service
(b) Urban service
(c) Sub-urban service
(d) Urban and sub-urban service
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction
over other systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the under-ground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(d) Interference with communication lines
(c) All of the above
Ans: c
33. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(c) equal in both AC. and D.C. traction
Ans: b
34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban
and suburban services on following account
(a) it has longer free running period
(b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
Ans: d
35. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban services is
restricted by the consideration of
(a) Engine power
(b) Track curves
(c) Passenger Discomfort
(d) Track size
Ans: c
36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of
the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered
Ans: d
37. The friction at the track is proportional to
(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
Ans: c
38. The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to
(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b
39. The normal value of adhesion friction is
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b
40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which
of the following?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(b) Hammer blow
(c) Pitching
Ans: a
41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam
locomotives ?
(a) Hydraulic system

(b) Pneumatic system
(c) Vacuum system
Ans: c
42. Vacuum is created by which of the following?
(a) Vacuum pump
(b) Ejector
(c) Any of the above
Ans: c
43. The resistance encountered by a train in motion is on account of
(a) resistance offered by air
(b) friction at the track
(c) friction at various parts of the rolling stock
Ans: d
44. Battery operated trucks are used in
(a) steel mills
(b) power stations
(c) narrow gauge traction
(d) factories for material transportation
Ans: d
45 method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.
(a) Plugging braking
(b) Rheostatic braking
(c) Regenerative braking
Ans: a
46. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
(a) greased
(b) wet
(c) sprayed with oil
(d) cleaned with sand
Ans: d
47. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a) 12 V
(b) 24 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 600 to 750 V
Ans: d
48. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the
least efficient method of speed control ?
(a) Cascade control
(b) Pole changing
(c) Rheostat control
(d) Combination of cascade and pole changing
Ans: c
49. Specific energy consumption becomes

(a) more on steeper gradient
(b) more with high train resistance
(c) less if distance between stops is more
Ans: d
50. In main line service as compared to urban and suburban service
(a) distance between the stops is more
(b) maximum speed reached is high
(c) acceleration and retardation rates are low
Ans: d
51. Locomotive having monomotor bogies
(a) has better coefficient of adhesion
(b) are suited both for passanger as well as freight service
(c) has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
(d) has all above qualities
Ans: d
52. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the
following account ?
(a) Less current drain on the heavy load torque
(b) Current surges after temporary switching off supply
(c) Self relieving property
(d) Commutating property at heavy load
Ans: b
53. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in adhesion occurs
resulting in sliding. Thus sliding is acute when
(a) wheel base of axles is more
(b) degree of curvature is more
Ans: c
54. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which
of the following?
(a) Work against the resistance to motion
(b) Work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
55. An ideal traction system should have
(a) easy speed control
(b) high starting tractive effort
(c) equipment capable of with standing large temporary loads
Ans: d
56 have maximum unbalanced forces
(a) Diesel shunters
(b) Steam locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives

(d) Diesel locomotives
Ans: b
57. Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following
factors ?
(a) Retardation and acceleration values
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance between stops
Ans: d
58. In case of ________ free running and coasting periods are
generally long.
(a) main-line service
(b) urban service
(c) sub-urban service
Ans: a
59. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum
height of
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
Ans: c
60. The return circuit for tramcars is through
(a) neutral wire
(b) rails
(c) cables
(d) common earthing
Ans: b
61. Specific energy consumption is least in _______ service.
(a) main line
(b) urban
(c) suburban
Ans: a
62. Locomotives with monometer bogies have
(a) uneven distribution of tractive effect
(b) suitability for passanger as well as freight service
(c) lot of skidding
(d) low co-efficient of adhesion
Ans: b
63 _______ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction.
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Ans: d
64 _______ frequency is not common in low frequency traction

system
(a) 40 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 16 Hz
Ans: a
65. For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz
(d) 16 Hz
Ans: b
66. Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long distance electric
train, is provided
(a) directly through overhead electric line
(b) through individual generator of bogie and batteries
(c) through rails
(d) through locomotive
Ans: b
67. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first
time in which of the following years ?
(a) 18201825
(b) 18801885
(c) 19251932
(d) 19471954
Ans: c
(b) Diesel locomotives

(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Equal in all of the above
Ans: b
72. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25
kV, 50 Hz single phase traction ?
(a) Reduced current method
(b) Tap changing control of transformer
(c) Series parallel operation of motors
Ans: b
73. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the
following could be the value for wet rails ?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.225
(d) 0.16
Ans: d
74 watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy
consumption for suburban services.
(a) 1520
(b) 5075
(c) 120150
(d) 160200
Ans: b
68. Suri transmission is

(a) electrical-pneumatic
(b) mechanical-electrical
(c) hydro-mechanical
(d) hydro-pneumatic
Ans: c
75. The braking retardation is usually in the range

(a) 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
(b) 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
(c) 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
Ans: d
69. In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is

nearly
(a) 150 to 175 kg
(b) 100 to 120 kg
(c) 60 to 80 kg
(d) 28 to 30 kg
Ans: d
79. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban service is in the

range
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
(b) 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
(c) 5 to 10 km phps
(d) 15 to 25 km phps
Ans: b
70. Which of the following happens in Kando system ?

(a) Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(b) Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(c) Single phase supply is converted into three phase system
Ans: c
80. The coasting retardation is around

(a) 0.16 km phps
(b) 1.6 km phps
(c) 16 km phps
(d) 40 km phps
Ans: a
71. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance

requirements are the least?
(a) Steam locomotives
Industrial drives
1. The selection of an electric motor for any application depends on

which of the following factors ?
(a) Electrical characteristics
(b) Mechanical characteristics
(c) Size and rating of motors
(d) Cost
Ans: e
2. For a particular application the type of electric-and control gear
are determined by which of the following considerations ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Conditions of environment
(c) Limitation on starting current
(d) Speed control range and its nature
Ans: e
3. Which ofthefollowingmotors is preferred for traction work ?
(a) Universal motor
(d) Three-phase induction motor
Ans:
4 Which of the following motors always starts on load ?
(a) Conveyor motor
(b) Floor mill motor
(c) Fan motor
Ans: d
5 is preferred for automatic drives.
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Synchronous motors
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors
Ans: c
6. When the load is above _____ a synchronous motor is found to
be more economical.
(a) 2 kW
(b) 20 kW
(c) 50 kW
(d) 100 kW
Ans: d
7. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be
(a) variable load
(b) continuous
(c) continuous but periodical
(d) intermittent and variable load
Ans: d
8. Light duty cranes are used in which of the following ?

(a) Power houses
(b) Pumping stations
(c) Automobile workshops
Ans: d
9. While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which electrical
characteristics will be of least significance ?
(a) Running characteristics
(b) Starting characteristics
(c) Efficiency
(d) Braking
Ans: d
10. Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for overhead
travelling cranes ?
(a) Slow speed motors
(b) Continuous duty motors
(c) Short time rated motors
Ans: c
11 is preferred for synthetic fibre mills.
(a) Synchronous motor
(c) Series motor
(d) Shunt motor
Ans: b
12. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used for
______ excavators.
(a) Light duty
(b) Medium duty
(c) Heavy duty
Ans: c
13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ?
(a) Induction motor
(c) Capacitor start single phase motor
Ans: a
14. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for
maintenance ?
(a) Frame
(b) Rearing
(c) Stator winding
(d) Rotor winding
Ans: b
15 need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors,
(a) Paper mills
(b) Grinding mills

(c) Air-conditioners
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: d
16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal pump,
will be of least significance ?
(a) Starting characteristics
(b) Operating speed
(c) Horse power
(d) Speed control
Ans: d
17. _______ motor is a constant speed motor.
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
18. The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is generally
(a) less than running torque
(b) same as running torque
(c) slightly more than running torque
(d) double the running torque
Ans: a
19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills ?
(a) Single phase motors
(b) Squirrel cage induction motors
(c) Slip ring induction motors
(d) D.C. motors
Ans: d
20 is not a part of ball bearing ?
(a) Inner race
(b) Outer race
(c) Cage
(d) Bush
Ans: d
21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of which of
the following?
(a) Flux
(b) Armature current
(c) Flux and armature current
(d) Speed
Ans: d
22. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on _______ bearings.
(a) ball or roller
(b) needle
(c) bush
(d) thrust
Ans: a
23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are still
preferred ?
(a) High efficiency operation
(b) Reversibility
(c) Variable speed drive
(d) High starting torque
Ans: c
24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
(a) synchronous motors are preferred
(b) A.C. motors are preferred
(c) individual drive is preferred
(d) group drive is preferred
Ans: c
25. A reluctance motor
(a) is provided with slip rings
(b) requires starting gear
(c) has high cost
(d) is compact
Ans: d
26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms of
(a) crowd motion
(b) angle of swing
(c) cubic metres
(d) travel in metres
Ans: c
27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ?
(a) D.C. series motor
(d) Wound rotor induction motor
Ans: b
28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for
(a) water pumps
(b) jaw crushers
(c) centrifugal blowers
Ans: b
29. Which of the following is essentially needed while selecting a
motor ?
(a) Pulley
(b) Starter
(c) Foundation pedal
(d) Bearings
Ans: b
30. Reluctance motor is a
(a) variable torque motor
(b) low torque variable speed motor
(c) self starting type synchronous motor
(d) low noise, slow speed motor

Ans: c
(d) D.C. shunt motor

Ans: d
31 method of starting a three phase induction motor needs six

terminals.
(a) Star-delta
(b) Resistance starting
(c) Auto-transformer
Ans: a
38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the following

methods of starting cannot be used ?
(a) Resistance in rotor circuit
(b) Resistance in stator circuit
(c) Auto-transformer starting
(d) Star-delta starting
Ans: a
32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction motors

the starting voltage is not reduced.
(a) auto-transformer
(b) star-delta
(c) slip ring
Ans: c
39. In which of the following applications the load on motor

changes in cyclic order ?
(a) Electric shovels
(b) Cranes
(c) Rolling mills
Ans: d
33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against ______

load.
(a) heavy
(b) medium
40. Flame proof motors are used in

(a) paper mills
(b) steel mills
(c) moist atmospheres
(c) normal
(d) low
Ans: a
(d) explosive atmospheres

Ans: d
34. For a motor-generator set which of the following motors will be

preferred ?
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Pole changing induction motor
(d) Squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: a
35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for kiln
drives ?
(a) Cascade controlled A.C. motor
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Three phase shunt wound com-mutator motor
Ans: d
36. Heat control switches are used in
(a) transformers
(b) cooling ranges
(c) three phase induction motors
(d) single phase
Ans: b
37 has relatively wider range of speed control.
(6) Ship ring induction motor
41. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation of load ?

(a) Printing machine
(b) Punching machine
(c) Planer
(d) Lathe
Ans: b
42. For derries and winches which of the following drives can be
used ?
(a) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
(b) D.C. motors with Ward-leonard con-trol
(c) A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance
Ans: d
43. Battery operated scooter for braking uses
(a) plugging
(b) mechanical braking
(c) regenerative braking
(d) rheostatic braking
Ans: b
44 has least range of speed control.
(a) Slip ring induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: b
45 has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio.
(d) Slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the
rotor circuit is possible,
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) slip ring induction motor
Ans: d
47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following
motors ?
(a) Squirel cage induction motor
(b) Schrage motor
Ans: c
(a) Lower cost

(b) Better efficiency
(c) High power factor
Ans: c
53. By the use of which of the followingm D.C. can be obtained
from AC. ?
(a) Silicon diodes
(b) Mercury arc rectifier
(c) Motor generator set
Ans: d
54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed
reversal is the main consideration ?
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Wound rotor induction motor
(e) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
Ans: d
55. Which ofthefollowing motors is preferred when smooth and
48. In ________ the speed can be varied by changing the

position of brushes.
(a) slip ring motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) induction motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: b
49. In which of the following applications variable speed operation
is preferred ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Ceiling fan
(c) Refrigerator
(d) Water pump
Ans: b
50. Heavy duty cranes are used in
(a) ore handling plants
(b) steel plants
(c) heavy engineering workshops
Ans: d
precise speed control over a wide range is desired ?

(a) D.C. motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
56. For crane travel which of the following motors is normally used
?
(b) D.C. differentially compound motor
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
(d) AC. slip ring motor
Ans: d
57. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms of
(a) type of drive
(b) span
(c) tonnes
Ans: c
51. The travelling speed of cranes varies from

(a) 20 to 30 m/s
(b) 10 to 15 m/s
(c) 5 to 10 m/s
(d) 1 to 2.5 m/s
Ans: d
58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are
which of the following ?
(a) Precise control
(b) Smooth movement
(c) Fast speed control
Ans: d
52. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses which

of the following advantages ?
59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom hoist of a

travelling crane ?
(a) Single phase motor

(c) A.C. slip ring motor
(d) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
Ans: c
60. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as compared to
squirrel cage induction motor, when major consideration is
(a) slop speed operation
(b) high starting torque
(c) low windage losses
Ans: b
61. Which of the following motors has series characteristics ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Repulsion motor
Ans: b
62. Which of the following happens when star-delta starter is
used ?
(a) Starting voltage is reduced
(b) Starting current is reduced
Ans: c
63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is incorrect 7
(a) Unsuitable for heavy duty starting
(b) Torque varies as armature current
(c) Torque-armature current is a straight line
(d) Torque is zero for zero armature current
Ans: a
(c) Noise
(d) Arrangement for power transmission
Ans: c
67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor depends
on which of the following ?
(a) r.p.m. only
(b) Horse power only
(c) Horse power and r.p.m.
(d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
Ans: c
68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ?
(a) A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor
(b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each
(c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each
(d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
Ans: a
69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as
(a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
(b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases
(c) horsepower rating and operating speed increases
(d) horsepower rating and operating speed decreases
Ans: a
70. In series motor which of the following methods can be used for
changing the flux per pole ?
(a) Tapped field control
(b) Diverter field control
(c) Series-parallel control
Ans: d
Switchgear and protection

64. For which of the following applications motor has to start with
high acceleration?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Floor mill
(c) Lifts and hoists
(d) Centrifugal pump
Ans: c
65. Which of the following types of motor enclosure is safest ?
(a) Totally enclosed
(b) Totally enclosed fan cooled
(c) Open type
(d) Semi closed
Ans: b
66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of the
following characteristics is of great importance ?
(a) Type of bearings
(b) Type of enclosure
1. The main function of a fuse is to

(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
Ans: d
2. On which of the following routine tests are conducted ?
(a) Oil circuit breakers
(b) Air blast circuit breakers
(c) Minimum oil circuit breakers
Ans: d
3. SF6 gas
(a) is yellow in colour
(b) is lighter than air
(c) is nontoxic
(d) has pungent small
Ans: c
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of
(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminium alloy
Ans: a
5. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc
in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Ans: c
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped
for remote operation ?
(a) Inverse time trip
(b) Time-delay trip
(c) Shunt trip
Ans: c
7. Fault diverters are basically
(a) fuses
(b) relays
(c) fast switches
(d) circuit breakers
Ans: c
8. A thermal protection switch can protect against
(a) short-circuit
(b) temperature
(c) overload
(d) over voltage
Ans: c
9. Arc in a circuit behaves as
(a) a capackive reactance
(b) an inductive reactance
(c) a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
(d) a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
Ans: d
10. Thermal circuit breaker has
(a) delayed trip action
(b) instantaneous trip action
(c) both of the above

Ans: a
11. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in
(a) resistance, reactance or impedance
(b) voltage and current
(c) light intensity
(d) temperature
(e) all above
Ans: e
12. Overload relays are of type.
(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above
Ans: e
13. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against
over current due to
(a) short-circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
Ans: b
14. Magnetic circuit breaker has ______ trip action.
(a) delayed
(b) instantaneous
(c) both of the above
Ans: b
15. D.C. shunt relays are made of
(a) few turns of thin wire
(b) few turns of thick wire
(c) many turns of thin wire
(d) many turns of thick wire
Ans: c
16. The relay operating speed depends upon
(a) the spring tension
(b) the rate of flux built up
(c) armature core air gap
Ans: d
17. In order that current should flow without causing excessive
heating or voltage drop, the relay contacts should
(a) have low contact resistance
(b) be clean and smooth
(c) be of sufficient size and proper shape
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
18. Circuit breakers usually operate under

(a) transient state of short-circuit current
(b) sub-transient state of short-circuit current
(c) steady state of short-circuit current
(d) after D.C. component has ceased
Ans: a
19. Circuit breakers are essentially
(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes
(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
Ans: a
The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is
achieved by
(a) lengthening of the gap
(b) cooling and blast effect
(d) deionizing the oil with forced air
Ans: c
21. Air blast circuit breaker is used for
(a) over currents
(b) short duty
(c) intermittant duty
(d) repeated duty
Ans: d
22. An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should have
(a) good selectivity and reliability
(b) economy and simplicity
(c) high speed and selectivity
Ans: d
(c) two or more similar electrical quantities

Ans: c
26. A transmission line is protected by
(a) inrush protection
(b) distance protection
(c) time graded and current graded over current protection
Ans: d
27. Large internal faults are protected by
(a) merz price percentage differential protection
(b) mho and ohm relays
(c) horn gaps and temperature relays
(d) earth fault and positive sequence relays
Ans: a
28. When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates
on it is
(a) current wave only
(b) voltage wave only
(d) power factor wave only
Ans: c
29. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in
electrical circuits by measuring
(a) current during abnormal condition
(b) voltage during abnormal condition
(c) constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal
and abnormal conditions
Ans: c
23. Burden of a protective relay is the power

(a) required to operate the circuit breaker
(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay
(c) developed by the relay circuit
Ans: b
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the
circuit breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Ans: a
24. Directional relays are based on flow of

(a) power
(b) current
(c) voltage wave
Ans: a
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated by

(a) high temperature
(b) increase of mean free path
(c) increasing field strength
Ans: d
25. A differential relay measures the vector difference between

(a) two currents
(b) two voltages
32. In a circuit breaker the basic problem is to

(a) maintain the arc
(b) extinguish the arc
(c) transmit large power

(d) emit the ionizing electrons
Ans: c
33. Overheating of relay contacts or contact born out is due to
(a) slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts
(b) foreign matter on the contact surface
(c) too low contact pressure
Ans: d
34. Interruption of large currents by relay requires
(a) arc suppressing blow out coils
(b) wide separation of the opened contacts
(c) high speed opening of contacts
Ans: d
35. Shunt capacitance is neglected while considering
(a) short transmission line
(b) medium transmission line
(c) long transmission line
(d) medium and long transmission lines
Ans: a
36. The arc voltage produced in A.C. circuit breaker is always
(a) in phase with the arc current
(b) lagging the arc current by 90
(c) leading the arc current by 90
Ans: a
37. The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breakers is
(a) 0.003 sec
(b) 0.001 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.10 sec
Ans: a
38. Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more
than
(a) 1 mega ohms
(b) 10 mega ohms
(c) 100 mega ohms
(d) 500 mega ohms
Ans: c
39. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against
(a) overload
(b) reverse current
(c) open-circuits
(d) short-circuits
Ans: d
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Ans: d
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of ________ .
(a) motors
(b) power outlet circuits
(c) fluorescent lamps
(d) light circuits
Ans: a
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for
overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
Ans: a
43. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between
(a) 33kVto66kV
(b) HkVto33kV
(c) 3.3kVandllkV
Ans: c
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are
submerged in oil. The main purpose of the oil is to
(a) lubricate the contacts
(b) insulate the contacts from switch body
(c) extinguish the arc
Ans: c
45. In Railway applications ______ circuit breaker is used.
(a) SFe
(b) bulk oil
(c) minimum oil
(d) air break
Ans:
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power,
the types of relays used are
(a) thermocouple
(b) electronic and bimetallic
Ans: c
47. Wave trap is used to trap waves of

(a) power frequencies
(b) higher frequencies entering generator or transformer units
Ans: b
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended
because of system
(a) insulation being overstressed due to over voltages
(b) insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to
phase faults
(c) being inadequately protected against ground fault
Ans: d
49. The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of a
transmission line.
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) unity
Ans: c
50. For the protection of power station buildings against direct
strokes the requirements are
(a) interception
(b) interception and conduction
(c) interception, conduction and dissipation
(d) interception, conduction, dissipation and reflection
Ans: c
51. The line insulation is the insulation level of the station
equipment.
(a) less than
(b) same as
(c) more than
(d) proportional to
(e) not directly related with
Ans: e
52. The interaction between a transmission line and communication
line is minimized by
(a) transposing transmission as well as communication lines
(b) increasing the height of the trans-mission line tower
(c) increasing the distance between the two lines
Ans: d
53. When a wave propagates on a transmission line, it suffers
reflection several times at
(a) tapping
(b) load end
(c) sending end
(d) sending and other end

Ans: d
54. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Station batteries are used to operate relay only
(b) The lightning arresters are basically surge diverters
(c) An impedance relay has maximum fault current when fault
occurs near the relay
(d) A high speed relay has an operation of 1 to 2 cycles
Ans: a
55. Discrimination between main and back up protection is provided
by the use of relays which are
(a) fact
(b) sensitive
(c) slow
Ans: c
56. Induction cup relay is operated due to changes in
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: d
57. A.C. network analyser is used to solve problems of
(a) load flow
(b) load flow and short-circuit
(c) load flow and stability
(d) load flow, short-circuit and stability
Ans: d
58. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Lightning arrestors are used before the switchgear
(b) Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
(c) The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C. component
(d) The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit
equivalent fault reactance
Ans: a
59. Short-circuit currents are due to
(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these
Ans: e
60. To reduce short circuit fault currents are used.
(a) reactors
(b) resistors
(c) capacitors

Ans: a
61. Bus coupler is very essential in arrangement
(a) single bus
(b) double bus, double breaker
(c) main and transfer bus
Ans: c
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are installed for
voltages above
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 60kV
(d) 110kV
Ans: b
63. The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result
of
(a) mechanical vibration
(b) insulation failure
(c) loose connection
(d) impulse voltage
Ans: d
64 relays are used for phase faults on long line.
(a) Impedance
(b) Reactance
(c) Either of the above
Ans: a
65. For which of the following protection from negative sequence
currents is provided ?
(a) Generators
(b) Motors
(c) Transmission line
(d) Transformers
Ans: a
66 relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line.
(a) Induction type
(b) Reactance
(c) Impedance
Ans: b
67. Distance relays are generally
(a) split-phase relays
(b) reactance relays
(c) impedance relays
Ans: d
68. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential

protection is recommended ?
(a) above 30 kVA.
(b) equal to and above 5 MVA
(c) equal to and above 25 MVA
Ans: b
69. A _______ is used to measure the stator % winding
temperature of the generator.
(a) thermocouple
(b) pyrometer
(c) resistance thermometer
(d) thermometer
Ans: c
70. The under voltage relay can be used for
(a) generators
(b) busbars
(c) transformers
(d) motors
Ans: e
71. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within
(a) 1.5 sec
(b) 5 to 10 sec
(c) 5 to 20 sec
(d) 20 to 30 sec
Ans: b
72. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Ans: d
73. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first
travelling on the transmission line ?
(a) Lightning arresters
(b) Relays
(c) Step-down transformer
(d) Switchgear
Ans: a
74. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short
line ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Resistance
(d) Reactance
Ans: b
75. Series reactors should have

(a) low resistance
(b) high resistance
(c) low impedance
(d) high impedance
Ans: a
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed
to operate in
(a) 100 microsecond
(b) 50 millisecond
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 0.1 sec
Ans: b
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and
minimum maintenance ?
(a) Air blast circuit breakers
(b) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers
(d) Oil circuit breakers
Ans: b
83. Overfluxing protection is recommended for

(a) distribution transformer
(b) generator transformer of the power plant
(c) auto-transformer of the power plant
(d) station transformer of the power plant
Ans: b
77. Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at

(a) zero current
(b) maximum current
(c) minimum voltage
(d) maximum voltage
Ans: a
84. Series capacitors are used to

(a) compensate for line inductive reactance
(b) compensate for line capacitive reactance
(c) improve line voltage
Ans: a
78 transmission line has reflection coefficient as one.
85. Admittance relay is _______ relay.
(a) Open circuit

(b) Short-circuit
(e) Long
Ans: a
(a) impedance
(b) directional
(c) non-directional
Ans: b
79. What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave of load

connected to transmission line if surge impedance of the line is
equal to load ?
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
Ans: a
86. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and -low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance
Ans: a
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current
and earth fault protection of transformer against
(a) heavy loads
(b) internal short-circuits
(c) external short-circuits
Ans: b
81. Over voltage protection is recommended for
(a) hydro-electric generators
(b) steam turbine generators
(c) gas turbine generators
Ans: d
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the VII ratio will be
(a) constant for all distances
(b) lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(c) higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
Ans: b
88. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole
structure) is
(a) inversely proportional to the current
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) proportional to the current
(d) proportional to square of the current
Ans: b
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased
by
(a) connecting lines in parallel
(b) connecting lines in series
(e) using machines of high impedance

(d) reducing the excitation of machines
Ans: a
90. The inductive interference between power and communication
line can be minimized by
(a) transposition of the power line
(b) transposition of the communication line
(d) increasing the distance between the conductors
Ans: c
91. The power loss is an important factor for the design of
(a) transmission line
(b) motor
(c) generator
(d) feeder
Ans: a
92. A fuse is connected
(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Ans: a
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has
(a) no ageing effect
(b) high speed of operation
(c) high rupturing capacity
Ans: d
94. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) VAR
(d) kVA
Ans: a
95. The fuse blows off by
(a) burning
(b) arcing
(c) melting
Ans: c
96. On which of the following effects of electric current a fuse
operates ?
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Electrostatic effect
(c) Heating effect
(d) Magnetic effect
Ans: c
97. An isolator is installed

(a) to operate the relay of circuit breaker
(b) as a substitute for circuit breaker
(c) always independent of the position of circuit breaker
(d) generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
Ans: d
98. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against
(a) overload
(b) short-circuit and overload
(c) open circuit, short-circuit and overload
Ans: b
99. Protection by fuses is generally not used beyond
(a) 20 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 200 A
Ans: c
100. A fuse is never inserted in
(a) neutral wire
(b) negative of D.C. circuit
(c) positive of D.C. circuit
(d) phase dine
Ans: a
101. Oil switches are employed for
(a) low currents circuits
(b) low voltages circuits
(c) high voltages and large currents circuits
(d) all circuits
Ans: c
102. A switchgear is device used for
(a) interrupting an electrical circuit
(b) switching an electrical circuit 111.
(c) switching and controlling an electrical circuit
(d) switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and
equipment
Ans: d
103. The fuse wire, in D.C. circuits, is inserted in
(a) negative circuit only
(b) positive circuit only
Ans: c
104. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat
generated in a H.R.C. fuse is dissipated ?
(a) Radiation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction

Ans: c
105. A short-circuit is identified by
(a) no current flow
(b) heavy current flow
(c) voltage drop
(d) voltage rise
Ans: b
106. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is
provided by
(a) relay
(b) rewirable fuse
(c) H.R.C. only
Ans: a
107. To limit short-circuit current in a power system are used.
(a) earth wires
(b) isolators
(c) H.R.C. fuses
(d) reactors
Ans: d
109. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
(a) zero sequence currents only
(b) positive sequence currents only
(c) negative and zero sequence currents
(d) zero, negative and positive sequence currents
Ans: b
110. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down
when
(a) fault occurs on the bus itself
(b) fault occurs on neutral line
(c) two or more faults occur simultaneously
(d) fault occurs with respect to earthing
Ans: a
Measurement and instrument

1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as
standardizing instruments.
(a)
absolute
(b)
indicating
(c)
recording
(d)
integrating
(e)
none of the above
Ans: a
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of
the electrical quantity being measured at the time at which it is being
measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
(d) Integrating instruments
Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of

electricity delivered in a particular time.
(a)
Absolute
(b)
Indicating
(c)
Recording
(d)
Integrating
Ans: d
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
(a)
Ammeters
(b)
Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
(d) Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
Ans: d
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of
(a)
wattmeters
(b)
voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
Ans: d
6 According to application, instruments are classified as
(a)
switch board
(b)
portable
(c)
both (a) and (b)
(d)
moving coil
(e)
moving iron
(f)
both (d) and (e)
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating
instrument ?
(a)
Deflecting device
(b)
Controlling device
(c) Damping device
Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and
enables the latter to reach its final position quickly
(a)
deflecting
(b)
controlling
(c)
damping
(d)
any of the above
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the
following property.
(a)
Should be non-magnetic
(b)
Most be of low temperature co-efficient
(c)
Should have low specific resistance
(d)
Should not be subjected to fatigue
(e)
All of the above
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?
(a) Must be a good insulator
(b) Should be non-evaporating
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
Ans: e
11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____
by using a low resistance shunt.
(a)
ammeter
(b)
voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Ans: a
Ans: e
12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as fluxmeter

(a)
by using a low resistance shunt
(b)
by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Ans: c
21 is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an

electric circuit relative to earth and one another,
(a)
Tangent galvanometer
(b)
Meggar
(c) Current transformer
Ans: b
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range
of instruments ?
(a)
Shunts
(b)
Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
Ans: e
22. The household energy meter is

(a)
an indicating instrument
(b)
a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
(d)
none of the above
Ans: c
14. An induction meter can handle current up to

(a)
10 A
(b)
30 A
(c) 60 A
(d)
100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in
conjunction with
(a)
potential transformers
(b)
current transformers
(c)
power transformers
(d) either of the above
Ans: b
16.
in
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Ans:
Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy

kW
Wh
kWh
VAR
None of the above
c
23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be

(a)
very light
(b)
very heavy
Ans: a
24. The chemical effect of current is used in
(a)
D.C. ammeter hour meter
(b)
D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
Ans: a
25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by
(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a)
secondary instrument
(b)
absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic
and industrial installations are
(a)
mercury motor meters
(b)
commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
Ans: c
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by

(a)
spring
(b)
gravity
(c)
eddy currents
(d)
all of the above
Ans: a
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
Ans: c
28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping should be of

(a) conducting and magnetic material
(b) non-conducting and magnetic material
(c) conducting and non-magnetic material
Ans: c
19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor meter ?

(a) An operating torque system
(b) A braking device
(c) Revolution registering device
Ans: d
29. The switch board instruments

(a)
should be mounted in vertical position
(6)
should be mounted in horizontal position
Ans: a
20. A potentiometer may be used for

(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to

(a) by pass the current
(b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
(c) increase the resistance of ammeter
Ans: a
31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

(a)
series
(b)
parallel
(c) series-parallel
Ans: a
32. A moving iron instrument can be used for
(a)
D.C. only
(b)
A.C. only
(c)
both D.C. and A.C.
Ans: c
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is
(a)
linear
(b)
non-linear
Ans: a
34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use
(a)
moving iron instrument
(b)
electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer
wattmeter should be
(a)
almost zero
(b)
low
(c) high
Ans: c
36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(b) D.C. only
(c)
A.C. only
(d)
any of the above
Ans: a
37. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a)
both D.C. and A.C.
(6)
D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply
side of the current coil when
(a)
load impedance is high
(b)
load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
Ans: a
39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected
(a)
to the supply side of the current coil
(b)
to the load side of the current coil
(c) in any of the two meters at connection
Ans: b
40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected
(a)
in series with current coil
(b)
in parallel with current coil
(c) in series with pressure coil
(d) in parallel with pressure coil
Ans: c
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both

the watt meters had identical readings. The
power factor of the load was
(a)
unity
(6)
0.8 lagging
(c)
0.8 leading
(d)
zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the
reading of one of the wattmeter was zero. The
power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is
done to provide
(a)
friction compensation
(b)
creep compensation
(c) braking torque
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the
pointer indicated a low resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity
position. This shows that capacitor is
(a)
short-circuited
(b)
all right
(c)
faulty
Ans: b
46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use
(a)
Kelvin's double bridge
(b)
Wheat stone bridge
(c) Meggar
Ans: c
47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by
(a)
battery
(b)
permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
Ans: b
48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by
(a)
spring
(b)
gravity
(c)
coil
(d)
eddy current
Ans: c
49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about
(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
50. Murray loop test can be used for location of
(a) ground fault on a cable
(b) short circuit fault on a cable
(c) both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault

Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate
measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The
best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
(d)
None of the above
Ans: c
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured
(a)
directly by a D.C. potentiometer
(b)
a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance
Ans: b
54. A direct current can be measured by
(a)
a D.C. potentiometer directly
(b)
a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(d)
none of the above
Ans: b
55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is
(a)
necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(b)
not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the
potentiometer
Ans: b
56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with
(a) D.C. potentiometer
(b) Drysdale potentiometer
(c) A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer
(d) Crompton potentiometer
Ans: b
57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for
(a)
comparing two voltages
(b)
measuring a current
(c) comparing two currents
(d) measuring a voltage
Ans: a
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with
an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
(a)
single-phase winding
(b)
two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and
quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a)
out of phase by 90
(6)
out of phase by 60
(c) out of phase by 30
(d) out of phase by 0
(e) out of phase by 180
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De
Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De
Santy's bridge for measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge
for measurement of capacitance
(d) Any of the above.
Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is
(a)
Wein bridge
(b)
Modified De Santy's bridge
(c)
Schering bridge
(d)
Any of the above
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms
of
(a)
known inductance and resistance
(b)
known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
(a)
electrostatic coupling
(b)
electromagnetic coupling
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
(a)
Anderson bridge
(b)
Maxwell's bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
Ans: c
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer

should be
(a)
as long as possible
(b)
as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use

(a)
Maxwell's bridge
(b)
Maxwell Wein bridge
(c)
Hay's bridge
(d)
Any of the above
Ans: c
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is

desirable that the supply for the potentiometer in taken
(a)
from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
(b)
from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle
of the capacitor is
(a)
10
(b)
80
(c)
120
(d)
170
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth

potential is
(a)
a few volts only
(6)
1 kV
(c)
5 kV
(d)
10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
(a)
magnetic screening
(b)
Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in
the remaining three arms
(a)
the bridge can always be balanced
(b)
the bridge cannot be balanced
(c)
the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific
values
Ans: b
72. A power factor meter has
(a)
one current circuit and two pressure circuits
(b)
one current circuit and one pressure circuit
(c) two current circuits and one pressure circuit
Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
(a)
the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b)
the same dimension but different number of turns
(c)
the same number of turns but different dimensions
(d)
none of the above
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between
the currents in the two pressure coils is
(a)
exactly 0
(b)
approximately 0
(c) exactly 90
(d) approximately 90
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two
moving coils are at
(a)
0
(b)
60
(c)
90
(d)
120
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two
adjacent reeds have a difference of
(a)
0.1 Hz
(b)
0.25 Hz
(c)
0.5 Hz
(d)
1.5 Hz
Ans: c
(b)
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
(a)
moving coil instrument
(b)
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across
(a)
bus-bars
(b)
incoming alternator
(c)
a lamp
(d)
none of the above
Ans: b
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across
(a)
bus-bars
(b)
incoming alternator
(c) fixed coils
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the
instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
(a)
accuracy and reproducibility
(b)
accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation
of the instrument is called
(a)
static sensitivity
(b)
dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are
(a)
instrumental errors
(b)
environmental errors
(c) observational errors
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from
(a)
platinum
(b)
maganin
(c)
silver
(d)
nichrome
Ans: b
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils
are
(a)
parallel
(b)
perpendicular
(c)
inclined at 60
(d)
inclined at 120
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is

(a)
spherical type
(b)
concentric cylindrical type
(c) electrostatic type
(d) multilayer parallel plate type
Ans: b
78. A Weston frequency meter is

(a)
moving coil instrument
88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are

(a)
deflecting and control
(b)
deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping
(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
(b)
permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are

(a)
induction
(b)
moving coil or iron
(c)
rectifier
(d)
electrostatic
Ans: a
99. Most sensitive galvanometer is

(a) elastic galvanometer
(b) vibration galvanometer
(c) Duddlb galvanometer
(d) spot ballistic galvanometer
Ans: d
90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to

(a)
get first deflection large
(b)
make the system oscillatory
(c) make the system critically damped
(d) get minimum overshoot
Ans: a
100. Instrument transformers are

(a)
potential transformers
(b)
current transformers
(d) power transformers
Ans: c
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
(a)
square law
(b)
logarithmic law
(c)
uniform law
(d)
none of the above
Ans: b
101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of

(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
Ans: a
92. Volt box is a component to

(a)
extend voltage range
(6)
measure voltage
(c) compare voltage in a box
Ans: a
102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of

(a)
electrostatic instrument
(b)
thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument
Ans: c
93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by

(a)
electrostatic voltmeter
(b)
hot wire voltmeter
(c) isothermal voltmeter
(d) electrodynamic voltmeter
Ans: a
103. In an energy meter braking torque is produced to

(a) safe guard it against creep
(b) brake the instrument
(c) bring energy meter to stand still
(d)
maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Ans: d
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current
is proportional to
(a)
balancing weight
(b)
deflection angle
(c)
sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include

(a)
light load or friction
(b)
lag and creep
(c) overload and voltage compensation
(d) temperature compensation
Ans: e
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a

(a)
small value of current
(b)
large value of current
(c) large value of power
(d) large value of voltage
Ans: a
96. A multirangq instrument has
(a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
(b) multicoii arrangement
(c) variable turns of coil
(d) multi range meters inside the measurement system
Ans: a
97. The rectifier instrument is not free from
(a)
temperature error
(b)
wave shape error
(c) frequency error
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by
(a)
induction ammeter
105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a

minimum of
(a) (n - 1) wattmeter elements
(b) n wattmeter elements
(c) (n + 1) wattmeter elements
(d) 2n wattmeter elements
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the opposite
sides of the spindle to
(a)
improve its ventilation
(b)
eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking torque
Ans: b
107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ?
(a)
Amplifier gain and phase shift
(b)
Filler transfer functions
(c) Complex insersion loss
Ans: d
108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is
(a) that it works on the principle of complex variation

(b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
(c) same as digital meter
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the
same time measures their phase difference
Ans: d
109. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency meter is
(a) Weston frequency meter
(b) reed vibrator frequency meter
(c) heterodoxy frequency meter
(d) electrical resonance frequency meter
Ans: c
Control system
control action
(b)
Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive

(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7.
In open loop system
(a) the control action depends on the size of the system

(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
1. In an open loop control system
8 has tendency to oscillate.
(a) Output is independent of control input
(a) Open loop system
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
Ans: b
2. For open control system which of the following statements is
9.
incorrect ?
(a)
good stability
(a)
Less expensive
(b)
slow response
(b)
Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of
(c) good accuracy
A good control system has all the following features except
the output
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
Ans: b
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances

Ans: b
10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the

following is the feedback element for the driver ?
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on
(a)
Clutch
the output is known as
(b)
Eyes
(a)
Closed loop system
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(b)
Semiclosed loop system
(d) Steering wheel
(c)
Open system
(d)
None of the above
Ans: c
Ans: a
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the
(a)
overall gain of the system will
(b)
Error response
(a) decrease
(c)
Dynamic response
(b)
increase
(d)
Either of the above
(c)
be unaffected
Ans: a
(d)
any of the above
Ans: a
Transient response
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(a)
computer control system
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(b)
digital data system
(a)
(c) stochastic control system
Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(d) adaptive control system
(c) Metadyne
Ans: c
(d)
Stroboscope
Ans: a
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

(a)
open
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open
(b)
closed
control system ?
(c) partially closed
(a)
Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the
Ans: a
21 increases the steady state accuracy.
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is
(a)
called a
(b)
Differentiator
(a)
feedback
(c)
Phase lead compensator
(b)
stimulus
(d)
Phase lag compensator
(c)
signal
Ans: a
(d)
gain control
Ans: b
22.
Integrator
A.C. servomotor resembles
(a) two phase induction motor

15.
A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by
(b) Three phase induction motor
which of the following ?
(c) direct current series motor
(a)
Servomechanism
(d) universal motor
(b)
Feedback
Ans: a
(c) Output pattern

(d) Input pattern
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following
Ans: b
will not decrease ?

(a)
Band width
16 is a part of the human temperature control system.
(b)
Overall gain
(a) Digestive system
(c)
Distortion
(b) Perspiration system
(d)
Instability
(c) Ear
Ans: a
(d)
Leg movement
Ans: b
17.
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
By which of the following the control action is determined when a
(a)
oscillations
(b)
step input
man walks along a path ?
(c) negative sign
(a)
Brain
(d)
(b)
Hands
Ans: d
(c)
Legs
(d)
Eyes
Ans: d
positive sign
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
18 is a closed loop system.
(e) input and feedback signal
(a)
Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(d) output and feedback signal
(6)
Direct current generator
Ans: a
(c) Car starter

(d) Electric switch
26 is an open loop control system.
Ans: a
(a) Ward Leonard control

(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors
(c) Stroboscope
in instruments ?
(d) Metadyne
(a)
Vernistats
Ans: b
(b)
Microsyns
(c)
Resolvers
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from
(d)
Any of the above
(a) saturation in amplifying stages
Ans: d
(b) loss of gain

(c) vibrations
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system
(d)
stable ?
Ans: a
(a)
The gain of the system should be decreased
(b)
The gain of the system should be increased
oscillations
28. Zero initial condition for a system means
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(a) input reference signal is zero
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
(b) zero stored energy
Ans: b
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
Ans: c
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control
following ?
systems should be avoided ?
(a) The order of the system
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) The time constant
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) The output for any given input
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) remains unaffected
(a)
Underdamping
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(b)
Overdamping
(c)
increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d)
decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: c
Ans: d
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not
system to gain changes and
used ?
load disturbances depend ?
(a)
(a) Frequency
(b)
Final control element
(b) Loop gain
(c)
Sensor
(c) Forward gain
(d)
Oscillator
Ans: d
Error detector
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
32. The transient response, with feedback system,
(a)
(a) rises slowly
(b)
final control element

amplifier
(b) rises quickly
(c)
comparator
(c) decays slowly
(d)
sensor
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
Ans: a
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
40. A controller, essentially, is a
(a) The time constant of the system
(a)
(b) Damping of the system
(b)
clipper
(c) The gain of the system
(c)
comparator
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
(d)
amplifier
Ans: c
sensor
Ans: d
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop
(a) Servo signal
system ?
(b) Desired variable value
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(c) Error signal
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(d) Sensed signal
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans:

Ans: c
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.

(a)
digital
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain
(b)
linear
margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
(c)
non-linear
(a) The system is relatively stable
(d)
discontinuous
(b) The system is highly stable
Ans:
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

(a)
momentum
50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
(b)
velocity
(a) charge
(c)
displacement
(b) current
(d)
mass
(c) inductance
Ans: d
(d) resistance
Ans: c
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is

considered analogous to
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
(a)
voltage
(a) inertia forces
(b)
current
(b) internal forces
(c)
capacitance
(c) stored energy
(d)
charge
(d) friction
Ans: c
Ans: a
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered
are equal.
analogous to
(a) Input
(a)
velocity
(b) Actuating
(b)
pressure
(c) Feedback
(c)
air flow
(d) Reference
(d)
air flow rate
Ans: b
Ans: d
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered
of controlled variable is known
analogous to
as
(a)
head
(a) disturbance
(b)
liquid flow
(b) command
(c) liquid flow rate
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous
54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?
to
(a) Linear and time-in variant systems
(a)
charge
(b) Linear and time-variant systems
(b)
resistance
(c) Linear systems
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) Non-linear systems
(d) reciprocal of conductance
Ans: a
Ans: b
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a)
(a)
current
(b)
Signal flow graph

Analogous table
(b)
charge
(c)
Output-input ratio
(c)
inductance
(d) Standard block system
(d)
capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: a
49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to
56 is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
(a) heat flow
(a) Manipulated variable
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(b) Zero sequence
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(c) Actuating signal
(d) temperature
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
Ans: d
57. The term backlash is associated with

(a)
servomotors
(b)
induction relays
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
(c) gear trains
(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
Ans:
(c) constant damping ratio

58. With feedback _____ increases.

(a)
system stability
(b)
sensitivity
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of
(c) gain
closed loop systems for
(d) effects of disturbing signals
specified ________ input signal.
Ans: a
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(c) position
(a)
Ramp input signal
(b)
Sinusoidal input signal
Ans: d
(c) Unit impulse input signal

(d) Exponentially decaying signal
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
Ans: c
(a) low frequencies

(b)
reduced values of open loop gain
60. In a system zero initial condition means that
(c) increased values of open loop gain
(a)
The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its
components
(b)
The system is working with zero stored energy
(c)
The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates
(c) simple pole
(a) reduced velocity lag error
(d) two poles
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
Ans: a
(d) reduced time constant of the system

Ans: a

(a) no pole
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of
(b) net pole
(a) amplidyneset
(c) simple pole
(b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
(d) two poles
(c) motor-generator set
Ans: c

Ans:

(a) no net pole
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to
(b) net pole
(a) capacitance
(c) simple pole
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(d) two poles
(c) current
Ans: d
(d) resistance
Ans: b
71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are

(a) constant, constant
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the
(b) constant, infinity
following?
(c) zero, constant
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(d) zero, zero
(b) Laplace Transform
Ans: c
(c) Fourier Integral

(d) Either (b) or (c)
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the
system is unit _______ function.
(b)
Phase-lag
(a) parabolic
(c)
Both (a) and (b)
(b) ramp
(d)
Either (a) and (b)
(c) impulse
(e)
None of the above
(d) step
Ans: a
Ans: b
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
(a)
(a) unity
(b)
is independent of frequency
is inverseh'proportional to frequency
(b) infinity
(c)
increases linearly with frequency
(c) zero
(d)
decreases linearly with frequency
(d) 10
Ans: c
Ans: b
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output
remains below a certain level for all the time, the system is
(a)
(a) not necessarily stable
(b)
High-level oscillations
(b) stable
(c)
Conditional stability
(c) unstable
(d)
Overdamping
(d) always unstable
Ans:
Low-level oscillations

Ans: a
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a

tachogenerator ?
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability
(a)
Acceleration
and transient response ?
(b)
Speed
(a) Root locus
(c) Speed and acceleration
(b) Bode plot
(d) Displacement
(c) Nyquist plot
Ans: b
Ans: a
83 is not a final control element.
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
(a)
Control valve
(a) Frequency response
(b)
Potentiometer
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Electropneumatic converter
(c) Relative stability
(d) Servomotor
(d) Time response
Ans: b
Ans: c
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
controller ?
(a)
Lead-compensation
(a)
(b)
Lag-compensation
maximum to minimum
(c)
Lead-lag compensation
(b)
(d)
None of the above
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output
Ans: b
The range of air output as measured variable varies from

The range of measured variables from set value
changes from maximum to minimum

78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?
(a)
Nyquist Criterion
Ans: c
(b)
Quasi linearization
(c)
Functional analysis
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control
(d)
Phase-plane representation
element converts
Ans: a
(a) pressure signal to electric signal

(b) pressure signal to position change
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
which of following compensators may be used ?
(d) position change to pressure signal
(a)
Phase-lead
Ans: b
(b) working normally with reference input

(c) working normally with zero reference input
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?
(d) at rest but stores energy
(a)
Differential bellows and straingauge
Ans: d
(b)
Selsyn
(c)
Strain gauge
94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?
(d)
Strain gauge and potentiometer
(a)
Induction relay
(b)
Thermocouple
Ans: a
(c) LVDT
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
(a)
Microsyn
(b)
Selsyn
Ans: c
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it
Ans: c
(a) reduces damping

(b) reduces the gain margin
88.
The effect of error damping is to
(c) increases input noise
(a) provide larger settling lime
(d) increases error
(b) delay the response
Ans: c
(c) reduce steady state error

96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a)
Ans: c
(b)
critically damped
(c)
overdamped
oscillatory
89 technique gives quick transient and stability response
(d)
underdamped
(a)
Root locus
(e)
none of the above
(b)
Bode
Ans: d
(c)
Nyquist
(d)
Nichols
Ans: a
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady

state error
(a)
increases
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
(b)
minimizes
(a)
lag at all frequencies
(c)
does not have any effect on
(b)
lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(d)
any of the above
(c)
lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
Ans: b
(d)
none of the above
Ans: c
98. With feed back _____ reduces.

(a)
system stability
91.
Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?
(6)
system gain
(a)
Static friction
(c)
system stability and gain
(b)
Backlash
(d)
none of the above
(c)
Saturation
Ans: b
(d)
None of the above
Ans: c
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?

(a)
Constant current
92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?
(b)
Constant voltage
(a)
Bode-Nyquist stability methods
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(b)
Transfer functions
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
(c) Root locus design
(e)
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
None of the above
Ans: d
100.
Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it
(a)
Displacement
implies that the system is
(b)
Velocity
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(c)
Acceleration
(d)
Any of the above
Ans: d
(e)
None of the above
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a
(a)
Thermocouple
(a) universal motor
(b)
Potentiometer
(b) single phase induction motor
(c)
Gear train
(c) two phase induction motor
(d)
LVDT
(d) three phase induction motor
(e)
None of the above
Ans: c
Ans: a
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
102.
The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under
(a)
small bandwidth
which of the following
(b)
negative time constant
conditions ?
(c) large negative transfer function pole
(a)
Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(d)
(b)
Systems having stability problems
Ans: c
none of the above
(c) Systems having multiple input disturbances

106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?
Ans: d
(a)
The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b)
The bandwidth of the system
103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(a)
Alternating current
(d) The frequency response of a system
(b)
Direct current
(c)
A.C. voltage
Ans: a
(d)
D.C. voltage

Electric Circuit Quiz

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Electric Circuit Quiz

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1. The S.I.

14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage

8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(d) variable resistor

37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40

46. A closed switch has a resistance of

53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to

54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is

(a) D.C. supply only

48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric

55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

(d) kWh consumed

(d) none of the above

73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is

103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

118. One newton meter is same as

116. Conductance : mho ::

5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds.

117. 1 angstrom is equal to

6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to

7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes

8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is

9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of

(b) both waves must have identical peak values

26. The best place to install a capacitor is

27. Poor power factor

34. Time constant of an inductive circuit

28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in

35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by

(d) none of the above

50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in

(d) 90% of the maximum value

53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in

60. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit

(a) depends upon the magnitude of R

54. In a purely inductive circuit

61. In a R-L-C circuit

55. Power factor of electric bulb is

62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance

64. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by

71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on

67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s.

74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor.

69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply

76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and

78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify

91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it

100. The frequency of an alternating current is

94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is

101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50

102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always

(a) the current through the resistance is more

1. Laminations of core are generally made of

10. Flemings right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f.,

(d) two north poles follow two south poles

11. While applying Flemings right-hand rule to And the direction of

18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited

17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function