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CCEA GCE Environmental Technology

Specimen Assessment Material


For first teaching from September 2013
For first award of AS Level in Summer 2014
For first award of A Level in Summer 2015
Subject Code: 0340

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Foreword
CCEA has developed new applied specifications which comply with criteria for
GCE qualifications. The specimen assessment materials accompanying new
specifications are provided to give centres guidance on the structure and character of
the planned assessments in advance of the first assessment. It is intended that the
specimen assessment materials contained in this booklet will help teachers and students
to understand, as fully as possible, the markers expectations of candidates responses to
the types of tasks and questions set at GCE level. These specimen assessment materials
should be used in conjunction with CCEAs GCE Environmental Technology specification.

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GCE Environmental Technology


Specimen Assessment Materials
Contents
Specimen Papers

Unit AS 1: The Earths Capacity to Support Human Activity

Unit A2 1: Building and Managing a Sustainable Future

19

Mark Schemes

39

General Marking Instructions

41

Unit AS 1: The Earths Capacity to Support Human Activity

45

Unit A2 1: Building and Managing a Sustainable Future

53

Internal Assessment

67

Unit AS 2: Renewable Energy Technologies

69

Unit A2 2: Environmental Building Performance and Measurement

73

Subject Code
QAN AS Level
QAN A Level

0340
600/8369/4
600/8368/2

A CCEA Publication 2013

You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk

SPECIMEN PAPERS

Centre Number
71

Candidate Number

ADVANCED SUBSIDIARY (AS)


General Certificate of Education
2014

Environmental Technology
Unit AS 1
The Earths Capacity to Support
Human Activity
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
1 hour 30 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces
provided at the top of this page.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.
Answer all questions.

For Examiners
use only
Question
Number

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


The total mark for this paper is 75.
Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages
indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question.
Quality of Written Communication will be assessed in Q7.

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Total
Marks

Marks

Answer all questions

(a)

List four uses of fossil fuels in modern day life.


1 _______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________
3 _______________________________________________________
4 _______________________________________________________

(b)

[4]

State two pieces of evidence presented by the global scientific


community linking the combustion of fossil fuels with global warming
and climate change.
1 _______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________

(c)

[2]

Explain why global action on conservation of fossil fuels and climate


change is needed.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________ [3]

(a)

Identify two pollution problems associated with the use of plastics


derived from fossil fuels.
1 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________

(b)

[2]

State one application for photodegradable plastic and describe its


impact on crops or the environment.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(c)

[4]

Describe how bioderived polyethylene (BPE) is produced.


_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

[2]

(d)

Incorporating an additive into a polymer during the manufacturing


process can enhance the biodegradability of the plastic.

(i)

Complete the key in Fig 1 by identifying the additive which can


cause a plastic bag to be broken down at the end of its useful life.

Symphony Environmental Ltd http://degradable.net/what-is-d2w/what-is-d2w/

[1]

Fig 1

(ii)

Explain how the additive identified in the key above can cause a
plastic bag to be broken down at the end of its useful life.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

[3]

(iii)

Explain one other option, apart from the use of an additive,


that can be used in modern plastic manufacturing processes to
improve degradability.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

[2]

(a)

Study the graph in Fig 2 below and answer the questions which follow.

BBC GCSE Bitesize


http://www.bbc.co.uk/schools/gcsebitesize/geography/geographical_skills/graphs_rev1.shtml

Fig 2
(i)

Describe the trend in demand for renewable energy as shown in


Fig 2.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(ii)

[2]

Identify two factors that contribute to this trend.


1 __________________________________________________
2 __________________________________________________

[2]

(b)

Name one emerging economy and explain its role in the trends shown
in Fig 2.
Name of emerging economy __________________________________

[1]

Explanation _______________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

[3]

(a)

Define the Law of Conservation of Energy.


_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(b)

[2]

Using the information in Fig 3 below, explain how a smart grid


facilitates the incorporation of electricity generated from renewable
sources.

CCEA

Fig 3
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

10

[3]

(c)

Assess the validity of using nuclear energy as a viable alternative to


both fossil fuels and renewable energy sources.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

11

[5]

(a)

Fig 4 below, is a diagram of a hydropower scheme.


Complete Fig 4 by labelling X and Y.

Scottish Power

Fig 4

(b)

[2]

Identify the type of energy storage facility shown in Fig 4 above and
describe how the system operates.
Type of facility _____________________________________________

[1]

Description _______________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(c)

[3]

State one other method of energy storage.


_________________________________________________________

12

[1]

(a)

Microgeneration is defined as the small scale generation of heat and


power.
Identify two micro-electricity technologies.
1 _______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________

(b)

[2]

Fig 5 below, shows a domestic ground source heat pump.

South Thames Gas www.souththamesgas.co.uk

Fig 5

(i)

Complete the diagram by labelling parts A and B in Fig 5.

13

[2]

(ii)

Explain how heat pump technology raises the heat energy from
the ground to a level suitable for domestic heating purposes.
You should refer only to the evaporator and compressor.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(c)

(i)

[3]

A domestic heat pump has a Coefficient of Performance of 3.5.


Explain what is meant by Coefficient of Performance.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(ii)

[2]

If the heat pump uses up 3.6 MJ in one hour, what is the heat
output in this time?
You should show your working out in the space below.

Heat output ____________

14

[3]

Discuss the factors which must be taken into consideration when planning
and siting a commercial wind farm venture.
Your response should include reference to:

environmental,

social factors and

energy output issues.

The quality of written communication is assessed in this question.


_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

15

_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

16

[15]

___________________________________________
THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
___________________________________________

17

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18

Centre Number
71

Candidate Number

ADVANCED
General Certificate of Education
2015

Environmental Technology
Unit A2 1
Building and Managing a Sustainable Future
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
TIME
2 hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces
provided at the top of this page.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.
Answer all questions.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The total mark for this paper is 100.
Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages
indicate the marks awarded to each question or part question.
Quality of Written Communication will be assessed in questions 4, 8
and 9.

For Examiners
use only
Question
Marks
Number
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Total
Marks

19

Answer all questions

Fig 1.1 below shows a diagram of The Waste Management Hierarchy.


It highlights the preferred options for dealing with waste.

Fig 1.1
CCEA

(a)

(i)

(ii)

State what options of managing waste can be found at the


Top (X) and bottom (Y) of the hierarchy.
X __________________________________________________

[1]

Y __________________________________________________

[1]

With reference to Fig 1.1 comment on how The Waste


Management Hierarchy affects the availability of material for
incineration.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

20

[2]

(b)

Fig 1.2 below shows data from two different communities that are
currently planning to invest in new arrangements to reduce the amount
of waste they are sending to Landfill.
Examine the data and recommend two possible solutions for each
community. Give reasons for your answer.
Community 1
%
16

Community 2
%
24

Plastics

12

17

Glass

17

24

Metals

Electrical goods

38

17

100

100

Paper and Card

Organic kitchen waste


Textiles
Total
Fig. 1.2
Community 1

1 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________

[2]

Community 2
1 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________
2 _______________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________

21

[2]

(a)

Explain the key differences between a bioreactor landfill and dry tomb
landfill.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(b)

(i)

[4]

The diversion of biodegradable waste to anaerobic digestion can


reduce greenhouse gas emissions from landfill.
For e.g. capturing the biogas from one tonne of food waste will
save between 0.5 and 1 tonne of CO2 equivalent.
Crown copyright Defra 2012

Explain how anaerobic digestion results in the production of


biogas.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

22

[4]

(ii)

Outline how anaerobic digestion can deliver both heat and power.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

23

[2]

(a)

Using the information in Fig 2.1 below, discuss the link between a
nations Ecological Footprint and its Carbon Footprint.

Fig 2.1
Thinkstock

_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

24

[4]

(b)

Fig 2.2 below lists the Ecological Footprint per person for 11 different
countries.
Country
USA
Australia
Canada
Singapore
Sweden
Nigeria
India
Pakistan
Ethiopia
Bangladesh
Northern Ireland

Ecological Footprint (hectares)


12.2
8.4
7.6
12.2
7.5
1.2
1.0
1.0
0.8
0.6
5.63

www.footprintnetwork.org and Northern Limits - a mass balance and ecological


footprint for NI. (NI data only)

Fig 2.2
(i)

With reference to the table in Fig 2.2 above, explain what is


meant by the concept of One Planet Living.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(ii)

[2]

The global ecological footprint for each person can be calculated


as 1.84 hectares.
Explain this calculation in relation to those living in the developed
world.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
25

[3]

(a)

Define what is meant by bioremediation and state two pollutants that


can be treated using this technology.
Definition:_________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

[1]

1________________________________________________________
2________________________________________________________

(b)

[2]

Alpine Pennygrass is a wild flower found in many parts of Europe, the


Middle East and North America. It has been shown to be very good at
absorbing heavy metals such as Cadmium and Zinc from soil. It is
therefore very suitable for use in phytoremediation.
Evaluate the use of Alpine Pennygrass in the decontamination of a
suitable brown field site.
The quality of written communication will be assessed in this question.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

26

[6]

(a)

Define what is meant by the U-value of a construction material.


_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(b)

[2]

Fig 3 below shows the U-values of some typical construction materials.


U-value/Wm-2 K-1
1.0
0.5
2.2
0.2
5.7
3.0

Material
External cavity wall
External cavity wall (filled)
Pitched roof (no insulation)
Pitched roof (150mm insulation)
Single-glazed window
Double-glazed window

Fig 3

(i)

Using the data provided in Fig 3 above, explain why installing


cavity wall insulation and double glazing improves the energy
efficiency of a building.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(ii)

[2]

Using the data provided in Fig 3 above, calculate the percentage


difference in energy efficiency which could be achieved through
installing roof insulation.
You should show your working out in the space below.

___________%

27

[2]

(iii)

A family home has a living room with an external wall of area


9.0 m2. The single-glazed window is 15% of this area.
Calculate the rate of heat flow through the window on a day when
the outside temperature is 12C less than the inside temperature.
You should show your working out in the space below.

Rate of heat flow ______________________________________

(c)

(i)

[3]

Explain how smart glass can be used to support environmental


management.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(ii)

[2]

Discuss the benefits of a smart waste system.


____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

28

[4]

(a)

With reference to Fig 4 below, explain the operating principles of a


PEM (Polymer Electrolyte Membrane) Hydrogen Fuel cell. Your
answer should include equations for the reactions occurring at the
anode and cathode.

Fig 4
Source: US Department of Energy

_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

29

[6]

(b)

Discuss two challenges of using Hydrogen as an energy source.


_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(c)

[4]

Hydrogen Fuel Cells require a source of Hydrogen as a fuel.


List two methods of bulk Hydrogen production currently used.
Method 1 _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
Method 2 _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

30

[2]

(a)

Identify one new vehicle technology that has the potential to reduce
global dependency on oil as a transportation fuel and describe the
infrastructure changes that would be required to allow it to work
effectively.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

(b)

[3]

The word equation below illustrates the production of biodiesel from


vegetable oil using methanol and sodium hydroxide:
Soybean
Oil

(i)

Methanol

Sodium
Hydroxide

Biodiesel

Glycerine

What is the name given to the type of chemical reaction that


occurs between the vegetable oil and the methanol?
____________________________________________________

(ii)

What is the function of the Sodium Hydroxide in the process?


____________________________________________________

(iii)

[1]

[1]

Name one other type of vegetable oil that might be suitable for
conversion into biodiesel.
____________________________________________________

31

[1]

(iv)

Explain two advantages of using biodiesel as a substitute fuel for


private and commercial vehicles.
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________

(c)

[4]

Explain two reasons why the rising global production of biofuels is a


contentious issue.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________

32

[4]

Fig 5 shows the SeaGen tidal stream generator in Strangford Lough and
Pelamis wave energy converters off the coast of Portugal.

Marine Current Turbines, a Siemens Business

Ocean Power Delivery / Look At Sciences /


Science Photo Library

Fig 5
The production of energy from wave and tides is a priority concern for
Northern Ireland and a significant amount of investment is being made within
both of these areas.
Evaluate the constraints in the development of wave and tidal power in the
UK and Ireland.
The quality of written communication is assessed in this question.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

33

_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

34

[8]

The following statements represent some of the issues that need to be taken
into consideration when planning for towns and cities in the future:
Towns and cities will have to be more energy efficient and resilient
Measures will have to be taken to reduce the energy required to heat
and cool our buildings
Fundamentally we need to reduce the length and frequency of vehicle
journeys and there is a need for more integrated transport
Rainwater needs to be captured and utilised
Increasing tree cover by 10% can reduce surface temperature of a city
by between three and four degrees C
Urban green areas can be a significant source of sustainable food
Hallmarks of a sustainable city, Commission for Architecture and the Built Environment,
March 2009

With reference to the statements above, discuss the types of high and
low technology solutions that you might expect to see in cities of the future.
The quality of written communication is assessed in this question.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________

35

_____________________________________________________________
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36

[15]

___________________________________________
THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
__________________________________________

37

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38

MARK SCHEMES

39

40

ADVANCED SUBSIDIARY (AS)


ADVANCED
General Certificate of Education

Environmental Technology

GENERAL
MARKING
INSTRUCTIONS

41

GCE Environmental Technology


General Marking Instructions
Introduction
Mark schemes are intended to ensure that the GCE examinations are marked consistently
and fairly. The mark schemes provide markers with an indication of the nature and range
of candidates responses likely to be worthy of credit. They also set out the criteria which
they should apply in allocating marks to candidates responses.
Assessment objectives
Below are the assessment objectives for GCE Environmental Technology.
Candidates should be able to demonstrate:

Knowledge and understanding of environmental technology (A01).


The application of skills, knowledge and understanding through different contexts
associated with environmental technology (A02).
The ability to investigate, analyse, evaluate, make researched judgements and
communicate findings about issues in environmental technology (A03).

Quality of candidates responses


In marking the examination papers, examiners should be looking for a quality of response
reflecting the level of maturity which may reasonably be expected of a 17-year-old or
18 year old which is the age at which the majority of candidates sit their
GCE examinations.
Flexibility in marking
Mark schemes are not intended to be totally prescriptive. No mark scheme can cover all
the responses which candidates may produce. In the event of unanticipated answers,
examiners are expected to use their professional judgement to assess the validity of
answers. If an answer is particularly problematic, then examiners should seek the
guidance of the Supervising Examiner.
Positive marking
Examiners are encouraged to be positive in their marking, giving appropriate credit for
what candidates know, understand and can do rather than penalising candidates for errors
or omissions. Examiners should make use of the whole of the available mark range for
any particular question and be prepared to award full marks for a response which is as
good as might reasonably be expected of a 17-year-old or 18 year old GCE candidate.
Awarding zero marks
Marks should only be awarded for valid responses and no marks should be awarded for
an answer which is completely incorrect or inappropriate.
Marking Calculations
In marking answers involving calculations, examiners should apply the own figure rule
so that candidates are not penalized more than once for a computational error. To avoid a
candidate being penalised, marks can be awarded where correct conclusions or
inferences are made from their incorrect calculations.

42

Types of mark schemes


Mark schemes for tasks or questions which require candidates to respond in extended
written form are marked on the basis of levels of response which take account of the
quality of written communication.
Other questions which require only short answers are marked on a point for point basis
with marks awarded for each valid piece of information provided.
Levels of response
Tasks and questions requiring candidates to respond in extended writing are marked in
terms of levels of response. In deciding which level of response to award, examiners
should look for the best fit bearing in mind that weakness in one area may be
compensated for by strength in another. In deciding which mark within a particular level to
award to any response, examiners are expected to use their professional judgement.
The following guidance is provided to assist examiners.

Threshold performance: Response which just merits inclusion in the level and should
be awarded a mark at or near the bottom of the range.
Intermediate performance: Response which clearly merits inclusion in the level and
should be awarded a mark at or near the middle of the range.
High performance: Response which fully satisfies the level description and should be
awarded a mark at or near the top of the range.

Quality of written communication


Quality of written communication is taken into account in assessing candidates responses
to all tasks and questions that require them to respond in extended written form. These
tasks and questions are marked on the basis of levels of response. The description for
each level of response includes reference to the quality of written communication.
For conciseness, quality of written communication is distinguished within levels of
response as follows:
Level 1: Quality of written communication is basic.
Level 2: Quality of written communication is good.
Level 3: Quality of written communication is excellent.
In interpreting these level descriptions, examiners should refer to the more detailed
guidance provided below:
Level 1 (Basic): The candidate makes only a limited selection and use of an appropriate
form and style of writing. The organisation of material may lack clarity and coherence.
There is little use of specialist vocabulary. Presentation, spelling, punctuation and
grammar may be such that intended meaning is not clear.
Level 2 (Good): The candidate makes a reasonable selection and use of an appropriate
form and style of writing. Relevant material is organised with some clarity and coherence.
There is some use of appropriate specialist vocabulary. Presentation, spelling,
punctuation and grammar are sufficiently competent to make meaning clear.

43

Level 3 (Excellent): The candidate successfully selects and uses the most appropriate
form and style of writing. Relevant material is organised with a high degree of clarity and
coherence. There is widespread and accurate use of appropriate specialist vocabulary.
Presentation, spelling, punctuation and grammar are of a sufficiently high standard to
make meaning clear.

44

ADVANCED SUBSIDIARY (AS)


General Certificate of Education
2014

Environmental Technology
Unit AS 1
The Earths Capacity to Support
Human Activity
[CODE]
SPECIMEN

MARK
SCHEME

45

(a)

Any four from:

Power/electricity
Transport fuel
Plastics
Pharmaceutics
Fibres

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

Any two from:

Weather patterns; Floods; Increased storms; Famines


Sea temperature rises
Ecology changes
Polar ice caps melting
Rise in sea levels

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(c)

[4]

[2]

Conservation is triggered by realisation that the worlds non renewable


resources are diminishing and that countries are using fossil fuels at a
faster rate especially in emerging economies e.g. China, India [1].
Climate change has been linked to increasing use of fossil fuels [1].
Global action is needed because the impact of excessive resource use
affects the whole world [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[3]
[9]

(a)

Cannot be broken down by micro organisms [1].


Incineration produces toxic materials [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

Any application and appropriate description from:


plastic mulch [1] used as growth promoter for saplings [1] in forestry
of poor land [1] allows soil to be stabilised whilst the sapling takes
route in otherwise unstable soil [1].

46

[2]

coatings for slow release fertiliser/pesticide pellets [1] controlled


release of active agent [1] particularly where risk of leaching [1]
run-off is high [1].
germination enhancing in maize [1] where soil temperature is raised [1]
above the ambient seasonal temperatures [1] thereby speeding up
germination rate [1].

(c)

(d)

solarisation [1] where plastic over film [1] builds up heat [1] to
temperatures harmful to soil pathogens [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[4]

[2]

Ethanol from fermentation of crop biomass converted to ethylene [1].


Ethylene is then polymerised by addition polymerisation [1].

(i)

Oxygen

[1]

(ii)

Stage 1: additive is included in the basic polymer resin during the


manufacturing process.

[1]

Stage 2: breaks the molecular chains so that at the end of its


predetermined service life the plastic starts degrading in the
presence of oxygen by a process of oxidation, which is
accelerated by light, heat and stress.

[1]

Stage 3: bio-degradation is completed by micro-organisms.

[1]

(iii)

Any one from:


modification of the process to enhance thermal and
photodegration [1] addition of different chemical links into long
chain molecules of plastic which break up when hit by UV light [1].
production of bioplastics [1] addition of starch which is
digested by micro organisms breaks up plastics into smaller
pieces [1].
production of compostable plastics [1] made from e.g. corn
starch fully biodegradable and compostable [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[2]
[14]

47

(a)

(i)

(ii)

The demand for renewable energies increases as the global


demand increases [1]. As the supply of fossil fuels declines
demand for renewable sources continues to increase [1].
Any two from:

Increase in world population


Increase in the use of goods/materials
Increased travel
Decrease in fossil fuel sources

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

[2]

[2]

Any one named emerging economy [1].


The emerging economy demonstrates increased fuel demands for
transportation, industrial growth and increased standard of living, in this
way it contributes to the rising global demand [1]. The additional
demand also contributes to the decline in fossil fuel supplies as these
are used up more rapidly [1]. The high energy demand however also
contributes to the rising demand for renewable energy as the emerging
economy seeks to supplement and secure its energy supplies [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[4]
[8]

(a)

(b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed [1] but it can be transferred or


transformed from one form to another [1].
The energy produced from renewable sources varies over time [1].
A Smart Grid systems computer measures the amount of electricity
that is being produced at any point in time and then increases or
decreases the amount of non-renewable that needs to be generated to
meet the requirements [1]. In doing so the Smart Grid enables the
amount of pollutant/carbon dioxide produced to be minimised [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(c)

[2]

[3]

Reference should be made to the relative energy densities of a fossil


fuel [1], renewable source [1] and nuclear source [1].
Answers should provide details of how fossil fuels [1] and renewable
energy sources [1] compare to nuclear energy.
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[5]
[10]

48

(a)

(b)

X = lower reservoir
Y = dam

[2]

Pumped hydro storage [1]


Description of how it works to include:
It utilises renewable energy to pump water up to the high
dam/reservoir [1].
It uses the gravity fed water supply to turn turbines [1] whenever
there is a lull in renewable power [1].

(c)

[4]

Compressed air energy storage (CAES).


All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[1]
[7]

(a)

(b)

Solar PV [1]
Wind [1]

(i)

(ii)

[2]

A = Condenser [1]
B = Expansion valve [1]

[2]

Heat energy is absorbed from the ground in a collector loop [1] in


the evaporator this heat causes a refrigerant to become gaseous
[1] the pressure of the gas is raised in the compressor, this
causes the temperature to be increased to a level which is
useable for domestic purposes [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

49

[3]

(c)

(i)

Coefficient of Performance is a measure of the efficiency of a


heat pump [1]. It is the ratio of the energy output from the pump
(energy out) to the amount of energy required to operate the
pump (energy in) [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(ii)

[2]

Coefficient of Performance = Heat produced by heat pump


(COP)
Energy consumed by heat pump [1]
3.5 = Heat produced
3.6 MJ [1]
Heat produced = 3.5 x 3.6 MJ
= 12.6 MJ [1]

[3]
[12]

Indicative content
Issues affecting power output:
wind speed faster more powerful winds generate more energy link to
wind survival speed
relationship between rotor swept area and output i.e. blade diameter
air density (temperature and altitude)
orientation of the wind turbine linked to yawing
turbine design-hub height, blade length, blade materials, number of
blades, mass of turbine
wind/temperature profile
Environmental and Social Issues:
existing infrastructure e.g. road access for assembling turbines and
maintenance work
environmental impact assessment, e.g. habitat (specifically bog land),
plants and wildlife (specifically, birds and bats)
social impact, noise, aesthetics, shadow flicker
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

50

Response
Level 3

Mark

The candidate discusses relevant factors in depth with


reference to at least three separate issues. The discussion is
clear and precise and demonstrates very good knowledge of
the issues to be considered when planning and siting a
commercial wind farm venture. Appropriate specialist terms
used throughout. The candidate uses good spelling,
punctuation and grammar, and the form and style are of an
excellent standard.

[1115]

Level 2
The candidate discusses relevant factors in satisfactory depth
with reference to at least three separate issues. The
discussion is reasonable and demonstrates an adequate
knowledge of the issues to be considered when planning and
siting a commercial wind farm venture. Some specialist terms
are used throughout. The candidate uses good spelling,
punctuation and grammar, and the form and style are of a
reasonable standard.

[610]

Level 1
The candidate discusses relevant factors in limited depth with
reference to at least three separate issues. The discussion is
limited and demonstrates a limited knowledge of the issues to
be considered when planning and siting a commercial wind
farm venture. Little use is made of specialist terms. The
candidate uses limited spelling, punctuation and grammar,
and the form and style are of a basic standard.
Response not worthy of credit

[15]

[0]

[15]

Total Marks [75]

51

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52

ADVANCED
General Certificate of Education
2015

Environmental Technology
Unit A2 1
Building and Managing a Sustainable Future
[CODE]
SPECIMEN

MARK
SCHEME

53

(a)

(i)

(ii)

X = Prevention

[1]

Y = Disposal

[1]

The waste management hierarchy indicates that prevention,


re-use and recycling is more desirable than incineration as a
disposal mechanism [1]. This may reduce the total volume of
waste requiring disposal [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

[2]

Community 1

Highest proportion is organic kitchen waste this suggests that


an anaerobic digestion/composting solution which is based on a
biodegradable process should be the top priority [1].

Collection service and Materials Recovery Facility for glass and card
should be next (16 and 17% respectively) [1].

Community 2

Paper and glass collection service should be the priority [1].

This will also require a Materials Recovery Facility (24% each) [1].

Award [1] for each recommendation and [1] for justification.


All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[4]
[8]

(a)

Bioreactor encourages the decomposition of the waste through the


re-injection of leachate and microbe-rich water [1].
Plus one from:

The waste is not compacted to facilitate the flow of air and water
thereby encouraging the chemical decomposition [1].

As a result of the decomposition additional waste can be added [1].

Gas and leachate are collected and treated [1].

54

Dry tomb discourages reactions taking place [1].


Plus one from:

Body of waste is sealed and there are high rates of compaction


along with minimum flow of rainwater and leachate through the
landfill [1].

Waste can subsequently be stored for material value in the future [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

(i)

[4]

Hydrolysis insoluble polymers broken down to soluble organic


compounds [1].
Acidogenesis soluble organic compounds fermented into
volatile fatty acids and alcohols [1].
Acetogenesis alcohols and fatty acids converted into acetic
acid and hydrogen [1].
Methanogenesis bacteria convert acetic acid and hydrogen into
methane and carbon dioxide/biogas [1].
(Names of each stage not required.)
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(ii)

[4]

Biogas from an AD plant can be burnt in a combined CHP plant,


this generates power (electricity) and heat [1].
Instead of losing the heat, as in traditional power plants, it is
diverted into a local heating system [1]. This is co-generation.
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[2]
[10]

55

(a)

A carbon footprint measures the total greenhouse gas emissions


caused by a person, group or nation, this being mainly as a result of the
combustion of carbon based fuels to meet their energy needs [1]. The
ecological footprint on the other hand considers the broader
environmental impact of all the population of a nation by quantifying the
amount of land that is required to support all the activities of that nation
[1], including food production, waste disposal etc. as well as energy
production [1]. Therefore the carbon footprint measures just one of the
many environmental impacts that are included within the calculation of
the ecological footprint [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

(i)

(ii)

Studies show that each person is entitled to 1.84 hectares, but


Fig 2.2 shows that those living in developed countries use
considerably more than they are entitled to, while those in the
less developed countries exist on much less [1]. The concept of
One Planet Living requires that everyone live within the
1.84 hectares that they are entitled to [1].

[4]

[2]

People living in highly developed western countries have a much


larger footprint and are effectively taking up more than their fair
share of earths resources [1]. To make the ecological footprint
more equal actions need to be taken within the developed world
to reduce individual impact and support given to the developing
world to develop in a more sustainable fashion [1].
These actions could include:

reduction in individual transport, or


less flying on aircraft, or
producing less waste, or
increasing home efficiency [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

[3]
[9]

(a)

Bioremediation the use of micro organisms in the treatment of


environmental pollution/waste [1].
Any two from:

oil spills
chlorinated pesticides
heavy metals
diesel oil
PCBs

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


56

[3]

(b)

Indicative content
Advantages:
The cost of the phytoremediation is lower than that of traditional
processes both on and off site.
This can prove to be cost effective as the initial cost of the
Alpine Pennygrass is low whilst the potential for recovery of sale of
contaminant metals is high.
The plants can accumulate and tolerate high levels of toxic metal ions.
Limitations:
Phytoremediation is limited to the surface area and depth occupied by
the roots.
The use of Alpine Pennygrass has low environmental impact although
plants cannot absorb all contaminants and will eventually be killed by
toxicity of the soil.
There is a potential threat to the food chain by contaminated Alpine
Pennygrass.

[6]

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


Response
Level 3

Mark

The candidate demonstrates sound understanding of the use of


Alpine Pennygrass in the decontamination of a suitable brown field
site. Good reference is made to the advantages and limitations of
the crop. The argument is clear and concise. Appropriate
specialist terms used throughout. The candidate uses good
spelling, punctuation and grammar and the form and style are of an
excellent standard.

[56]

Level 2
The candidate demonstrates a satisfactory understanding of the
use of Alpine Pennygrass in the decontamination of a suitable
brown field site. Adequate reference is made to the advantages
and limitations of the crop. The argument is satisfactory. Some
specialist terms are used throughout. The candidate uses good
spelling, punctuation and grammar and the form and style are of a
reasonable standard.

[34]

Level 1
The candidate demonstrates a limited understanding of the use of
Alpine Pennygrass in the decontamination of a suitable brown field
site. Limited reference is made to the advantages and limitations of
the crop. The argument is limited. Little use is made of specialist
terms. The candidate uses limited spelling, punctuation and
grammar and the form and style are of basic standard.
Response not worthy of credit

[12]

[0]

[6]
[9]

57

(a)

(b)

The U-value for a particular construction material is the rate at which


heat is conducted away through 1m2 of the material for each 1 degree
difference in temperature [1] between the outside and the inside of the
building [1].

(i)

(ii)

The higher the U value, the more heat is lost from the building
through the construction materials [1].
Reference to the table [1].

[2]

2.2 0.2 = 2.0 [1]

2 .0
91% [1]
2 .2
(iii)

[2]

[2]

Formula
Rate of heat flow = U value area temperature difference [1]
Area of window = 15% of 9.0 = 1.35m2 [1]
Rate of heat flow = 5.7 1.35 12
= 92.3/92 [1]

(c)

(i)

[3]

Smart glass changes light transmitting properties when voltage is


applied [1].
Allows individual to control the light and heat of any room, can
save costs relating to heating, air conditioning and lighting [1].
All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

58

[2]

(ii)

Answer should contain some reference to the following benefits


of a smart waste system:

identifies peak times of waste


can organise disposal when required
anticipate need
more cost effective
better planning of collection of schedules

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


Award up to [2] for identification of at least two benefits.
Award up to additional [2] for a discussion about the benefits.

[4]
[15]

59

(a)

Explanation should refer to:


Hydrogen is introduced which is then oxidised/chemically split into
H+ ions and electrons (at the anode) [1].
Protons migrate through the PEM [1].
Electrons follow a conductive path between electrodes/follow a
circuit/between electrodes either side of the PEM [1].
Protons and electrons then re-combine at cathode to form water
and heat [1].

[4]

[1] mark for each correct equation:


H2 2H + 2 e- at anode
4 H+ + 4 e- + O2 2H2O

(b)

[2]

Any two from:


production costs expensive to produce
transport issues lack of infrastructure
safe storage highly explosive

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(c)

[4]

Any two from:


steam reforming of fossil fuels
electrolysis of water using high pressure and high temperature
photocatalytic splitting of water

[2]
[12]

60

(a)

Any one from:

hydrogen fuelled vehicles


bio fuelled vehicles
electric vehicles [1]

Any one from:

Electric vehicles [1] need an extensive infrastructure planned


and developed that will allow drivers to plug in their vehicles [1].
Purely electric vehicles are totally reliant on their battery pack so
they will be confined to short commutes if the network of charging
stations isnt developed. Plug-in cities initiative [1].

Hydrogen fuelled vehicles [1] Hydrogen fuelled vehicles will


require extensive hydrogen pipeline transporting hydrogen to
specially equipped hydrogen filling stations [1]. Due to the physical
qualities of hydrogen, health and safety is an issue which must be
addressed [1].

Bio fuelled vehicles [1] greater production of biofuels required


which has implications for land use [1]. Adaptation required at filling
stations to ensure accessibility for motorists [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

(b)

[3]

(i)

Transesterification

[1]

(ii)

Catalyst

[1]

(iii)

Any one from:

palm oil
used vegetable oil
corn oil

[1]

61

(iv)

Any two from:

Doesnt require any radical changes to switch to the use of


biofuels [1] unlike the difficulties in switching to other
renewable energy sources such as solar and wind power [1].

Are cheaper than fossil fuels [1]. Many governments are now
offering tax incentives to buy greener cars that run on biofuels
(ethanol being one example) [1].

Are considered carbon neutral by some people. This is


because the carbon dioxide they release when burnt is equal
to the amount that the plants absorbed out of the atmosphere
[1]. Therefore, they dont contribute to global warming.
However, it does require some fuel to power the machinery on
the farms where biofuels are produced. Research suggests
that they reduce carbon emissions by 5060% [1].

Reduce dependence on foreign oils [1]. Oil fluctuates in price


rapidly, so changing to biofuels will help buffer against the
change [1].

Emit less particulate pollution than other fuels, [1] especially


diesel [1].

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.

62

[4]

(c)

Reference should be made to two of the following Biofuel issues:


Biofuels take a large expanse of area to grow. Land will have to be
cleared for more growth. Rainforests and other high biomass lands
are cleared on a mass scale for biofuel production (which may
happen in lower income countries) then the amount of green-house
gases emitted would be hugely significant. Multiple studies have
been found to draw the same conclusion.
Farmers in developing countries may move land away from food
crop production to biofuels cash crop reducing food supplies and
increasing the prices of staple foods.
Biofuels may raise the price of certain foods which are also used for
biofuels such as corn.
As other plants are replaced, soil erosion will grow.
A lot of water is used to water the plants, especially in dry climates.
Deforestation in South America and South Eastern Asia causes loss
of habitat for animals and for indigenous people living there.

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


For each reason award [1] for a brief explanation and [2] for a full
explanation.

63

[4]

[14]

Indicative content
Constraints
Significant amount of research and development to make systems which
are consistently commercially viable.
The UK/Ireland operate busy shipping lanes and therefore locating the
devices is difficult need to ensure that they do not impact on navigation.
Devices need to be robust and able to survive significant changes in sea
conditions; they are also required to withstand sea water corrosion.
Tidal systems require a sufficient difference in high and low tides to
ensure efficiency of the technology not all locations are suitable.

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


Response
Level 3

Mark

The candidate addresses all aspects of the question.


Constraints are clearly and precisely identified. The
evaluation demonstrates a good knowledge of the constraints
in the development of wave and tidal power in the UK and
Ireland. Appropriate specialist terms used throughout. The
candidate uses good spelling, punctuation and grammar, and
the form and style are of an excellent standard.

[78]

Level 2
The candidate provides an answer with satisfactory depth and
detail. Constraints not clearly identified. The evaluation
demonstrates a satisfactory knowledge of the constraints in
the development of wave and tidal power in the UK and
Ireland. Some specialist terms are used throughout. The
candidate uses good spelling, punctuation and grammar, and
the form and style are of a reasonable standard.

[46]

Level 1
The candidate provides an answer that is lacking in relevant
accurate detail. Basic understanding of constraints is
demonstrated. The evaluation demonstrates limited
knowledge of the constraints in the development of wave and
tidal power in the UK and Ireland. Little use is made of
specialist terms. The candidate uses limited spelling,
punctuation and grammar, and the form and style are of a
basic standard.
Response not worthy of credit

[13]

[0]

[8]
[8]

64

Indicative content
More energy efficient Smart Grid, reduction in energy usage change
behaviours, less waste more recycling, application of independent energy
solutions e.g. micro heat/power generation.
Reducing energy need to heat buildings zero carbon homes, building
performance.
Transportation encourage alternative methods of transportation,
e.g. cycling, walking, car share, integrated public transport timetables,
greater use of bus lanes, financial incentives, use of video conferencing.
Water collection use of water butts, reduction in domestic and
commercial water usage by financial penalties/incentives, metering,
behavioural change.
Increasing tree cover plant more trees, designated green spaces.
Urban green areas greater designation of green areas, allotments.

All relevant, valid responses will be given credit.


Response
Level 3

Mark

The candidate provides a detailed answer and makes


significant use of the resource. A range of technological
examples is included and the candidate demonstrates a full
understanding of the issues involved in the establishment of
sustainable urban community. A wide range of specialist
terms are used throughout. The candidate uses good
spelling, punctuation and grammar, and the form and style
are of an excellent standard.

[1115]

Level 2
The candidate provides an answer with satisfactory detail and
makes some use of the resource. Some specialist terms are
used throughout. The candidate uses good spelling,
punctuation and grammar, and the form and style are of a
reasonable standard.

[610]

Level 1
The candidate provides an answer that is lacking in detail and
has basic or no reference to the resource. Few or no
specialist terms are used throughout. The candidate uses
limited spelling, punctuation and grammar, and the form and
style are of a basic standard.
Response not worthy of credit

[15]

[0]

[15]
[15]

Total Marks [100]

65

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66

INTERNAL ASSESSMENT

67

68

ADVANCED SUBSIDIARY (AS)


General Certificate of Education
2014

GCE Environmental Technology


Unit AS 2
Assessing
Renewable Energy Technologies
[CODE]
SPECIMEN

Internal Assessment Task

69

Assessment Task
Unit AS 2 gives you an opportunity to apply your knowledge and understanding of
renewable energy technologies to a real life scenario. You will explore how different
technologies can be adapted to suit particular situations and will use your skills of research
and analysis to make decisions regarding the use of renewable energy on a commercially
viable basis.
Scenario
The environmental consultancy company that you work for, Green Living Ltd., has been
approached by a local housing developer who intends to build 10 holiday homes close to
the North coast of the Irish Sea. The 2 acre development site will consist of 7 single
storey 2 bedroom cottage type dwellings and 3 double storey houses. In addition the
developer has access to a further 100 acres adjacent to the site. This sites soil is wet and
fertile, suitable for growing energy crops. Building work takes 2 years to complete. The
homes are being marketed on the basis of a least 80% reliance on renewable energy
sources. With the details provided below carry out an assessment of the proposed
development with regards to the potential installation of wind, solar or biomass
technologies:

The site receives full solar coverage with no over-shading from any natural existing
land mass;

With the site being close to the sea it enjoys a high wind yield with wind speeds in
excess of 7m/sec;

The buildings are to be constructed using modern materials which have a heat loss
requirement for the single storey buildings which is 6Kw and for the two storey
buildings is 10Kw;

Each home has a maximum daily 3Kw hot water need; and

The available roof area for solar technologies is 4m2 on each of the homes.

Your task is to produce recommendations for the provision of the complete energy needs
of the properties.

70

To fulfil the assessment criteria for this unit you must produce a technical report which will
support the decisions that have been taken in regard to the recommendations made to the
developer.
The technical report will consist of three elements:
(i) Desktop research;
(ii) A practical investigation on two renewable technologies; and
(iii) Discussion and recommendations.
(i) Desktop Research
You should take into consideration the following:
Energy efficiency;
Cost effectiveness to include construction, maintenance and cost benefit analysis;
Environmental impact; and
Security and continuity of supply.
(ii) Practical Investigation
In the classroom setting, using your research and knowledge gained in Unit 1, explore two
relevant factors related to the use of two of the renewable technologies under
consideration.
For example you could:

Explore the significance of the cable lengths to the power performance of the turbine and
The effect wind speeds have on the performance output of the turbine.

(ii) Discussions and Recommendations


You will use your conclusions from the desktop research, along with your findings from
your practical investigations, to present recommendations with associated rationales to the
developer.
For the recommended technologies consideration should be given to the following:

Site details as provided in the scenario;


Cost benefit analysis;
Environmental impact;
Security and continuity of supply; and
Capacity of the chosen technologies to meet the target of 80% energy needs.

Additional guidance on the format and structure of the technical report can be found in
section 3.2 of the Environmental Technology specification.
Word Limit

The technical report must not exceed 4,000 words.


The introduction to the task should not exceed 500 words.
The desktop research should not exceed 1,000 words.
The practical investigation should be a maximum of 1,000 words.
Discussions and recommendations should be a maximum of 1,500 words.

71

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72

ADVANCED
General Certificate of Education
2015

GCE Environmental Technology


Unit A2 2
Assessing
Environmental Building Performance
and Measurement
[CODE]
SPECIMEN

Internal Assessment Task

73

Assessment Task
Scenario
In this task you are required to act in a consultancy capacity by carrying out an investigation
into a building of your choice using the Code for Sustainable Homes (CSH).
The Code for Sustainable Homes, as developed by the Building Research Establishment,
has been implemented to drive a change in UK house building practice. The code sets out a
clear environmental direction to achieve better living standards for residents of these modern
homes and to address the overall sustainability agenda. The Code covers nine categories of
sustainable design: Energy and CO2 Emissions, Water, Materials, Surface Water Run-off,
Waste, Pollution, Health and Well-being, Management and Ecology.

74

Using the Code for Sustainable Homes, as developed by the Building Research
Establishment, you are required to select a nearby building, such as a home, school or
leisure centre of your choice, on which to carry out a CSH type assessment. Emphasis must
be placed on Surface Water Runoff and Waste, two of the nine CSH categories.
You will produce a technical report that will:

Set the scene for the need for and types of sustainability measurement systems for
buildings, giving policy context and the role of Zero Carbon Homes;
Provide an overview of the Code for Sustainable Homes and identify the mandatory
categories;
Identify the equipment and processes necessary to assess the Surface Water Runoff and
Waste categories;
Carry out the physical measurements and present the results gained in an appropriate
range of formats;
Identify and source data for a building similar to that chosen for CSH categories from
published sources, excluding Surface Water Runoff and Waste;
Convert the source data and the measured data into the nine CSH categories for the
chosen building;
Derive an overall CSH rating (Bands 16 star) from the data gathered;
Investigate links across CSH categories for the chosen building and develop ideas and
recommendations regarding further development and building enhancement;
Provide a commentary on the overall building performance in light of the ideas and
recommendations being recommended;
Carry out an evaluation of the sustainability measurement processes used throughout the
assessment task;
Make reference to health and safety considerations; and
Identify all reference material.

Additional guidance on the format and structure of the technical report can be found in
Section 3.4 of the Environmental Technology specification.
Word Limit

The technical report must not exceed 4,000 words.


The introduction/setting the scene should not exceed 500 words.
Primary investigation should not exceed 1,500 words.
The recommendations, including the commentary on the overall building performance and
the evaluation of the sustainability measurement processes used throughout the task, and
the evaluation should be a maximum of 2,000 words.

75

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77

A CCEA Publication 2013

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