1.

The receptors also named Somatic receptors are

p;
2.

a) M1
b) M2
Natural vasodilator is

3.

A.nitric oxide
b) nitrous oxide
c) adrenaline
An Effective Antidote For Parathion Poisioning Is

4.

a) pralidoximes
b) naloxon
c) fruseomide
d) charcoal
The Gland Required To Be Targeted In Myasthenia Gravis Is
a) pineal
b) thyroid
c) thymus
An Anti-Cholinergic Agent Used In Parkinsonism Is

d) bone marrow

5.

a) trihexiphenidyl
b) atropine
The Drug Not Used In Peptic Ulcer Is-

d) homatropine

6.
7.

a) ranitidine
b) omeperazole c) propanthiline
d) dicylcomine
The Receptors Whose Agonist Can Result Hyperglycemia Are

8.

a) 2 & 1
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 2
The Drug Chiefly Causing Tachyphylaxis Is

9.

a) tyramine
b) amphetamine
c) isoprenaline
The Drug Not Used By Sportsman For Anabolic Effect Is

a) amphetamine
b) nandrolol
10. Ergot alkaloids are

c) NN

c) pergyline

c) stenazalol

d) NM
d) GABA

d) 1 & 1
d) ephedrine
d) labetolol

a) alpha, 5-HT partial agonist, beta blockers

b) alpha, 5-HT blockers, beta agonist
c) alpha, beta agonist, 5-HT blockers
d) alpha, 5-HT, beta agonists
11. The Receptor Whose Agonists Are Used By Sportsman For Anabolic Effect Is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 1
d) 2
12. The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is:
a. methacholine b. bethanechol c. benzoylcholine
13. Select Antagonist At M1 Receptor

d. butyrylcholine

a.oxotremorine
b.mcn-343a
c.pirenzepine
d.all of these
14. The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme:
a. neostigmine
b. physostigmine c. edrophonium
d. dyflos
15. Organophosphate Bind To Which Site Of Cholinestrase
a.anionic site
b.esteric site
c.both of these
16. Select The Lipid Insoluble Anticholinestrase

d.none

a.physostigmine
b.neostigmine
c.organophosphate
d.donepezil
17. Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is:
a. miotic eye drops

b. ocular alpha 2 adrenergic agonists

c. ocular prostaglandin analogues

d. ocular beta adrenergic blockers

18. Myasthenia Gravis Is A Auto Immune Disease

i.it occur due to development of antibody against nicotinic receptors(nm)
ii.treatment is usually started with neotigmine but half life is short
iii.pyridostigmine is an alternative which needs less frequent dosing due to long half life
iv.this disorder affect 1000 in 10000 people
correct statement
a.i,ii,iv
b.i,ii,iii
c.ii,iii,iv
d.i,ii,iii,iv
19. Edrophonium Is More Suitable For Differentiating Myasthenic Crisis From Cholinergic Crisis
Because Of Its:
a. shorter duration of action

b. longer duration of action

c. direct action on muscle end-plate

d. selective inhibition of true cholinesterase
20. In Belladonna Poisioning Which Specific Antidote Is Used
a.atropine sulphate i.v

b.physostigmine i.v

c.both of these
d.no specific antidote available
21. Which Statement Is Correct About Organophosphate
a.they are lipophilic

b.they are easily absorbed through skin

c.reversible cholinesterase
d.all of these
22. Which Anti Cholinesterase Drug Is Not Used For Alzheimer Disease
a.neostigmine
b.tacrine
c.rivastigmine
d.donepezil
23. which of the following anticholinestrase was ist time used in alzheimer disease
a.rivastigmine
b.tacrine
24. select the synthetic anticholinergic
a.homatropine

c.physostigmine

b.ipratropium bromide

d.neostigmine

c.cyclopentolate

d.all of these
25. which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action:
a. atropine
b. homatropine
c. tropicamide
d. cyclopentolate
26. the following mydriatic does not produce cycloplegia:
a. phenylephrine b. tropicamide
c. cyclopentolate
d. homatropine
27. which of the following is a noncatecholamine sympathomimetic:
a. adrenaline
b. ephedrine
c. dopamine
28. choose the correct statement about nicotine:

d. isoprenaline

a. it selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia

b. it has no clinical application
c. it is used as an aid during smoking cessation
d. it is used in alzheimer's disease
29. the following is a selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor antagonist:

a. prazosin

b. phentolamine

c. yohimbine

d. clonidine

30. the following sympathomimetic amine has agonistic action on a1 + a2 + b1 + b3 adrenoceptors,

but not on b2 receptors:
a. adrenaline
b. noradrenaline
c. isoprenaline
d. phenylephrine
31. sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking the following class of drugs:
a. a-adrenergic blockers
c. organic nitrates
32. what is true of sildenafil:

b. b-adrenergic blockers
d. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

a. it enhances sexual enjoyment in normal men

b. it delays ejaculation
c. it improves penile tumescence in men with erectile dysfunction
d. it blocks cavernosal a2 adrenoceptors
33. Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline:
a. bronchodilatation
b. lipolysis c. muscle tremor
34. The following disease is worsened by propranolol:
a. glaucoma

d. mydriasis

b. raynauds disease c. benign prostatic hypertrophy

d. parkinsonism
35. Select The Non Selective Beta Blocking Drug
a.propranolol
b.betaxolol
c.esmolol
d.all of these
36. Which Beta Blocker Drug Is Highly Lipid Soluble
a.propranolol
b. labetalol
c.acebutolol
d.sotalol
37. Propranolol
a. Proranolol is equipotent local anesthetic as lidocaine
b. Chronic use of propranolol decreases hepatic blood flow, so metabolism decreases and t1/2
increases
c. Use of propranolol cause increase in LDL, Triglyceride level
d. It decrease intraocular tension without affecting pupil size
e. all
38. Beta 1 blocker decrease rennin release except
a.pindolol

b.propranolol

c.sotalol

d. all

39. Which of the following is partial agonist

a. Pindolol

b. acebutolol

c. Both

d. none

40. Which of the following beta blocker have low lipid solubility
a.atenolol
b.sotalol
c.bosoprolol
d.all
41. Na+ K+ ATPase is the marker enzymes of
a) Nucleus
b) Plasma membrane
c) golgi bodies
d) cytosol
42. Glycosaminoglycans are
a) Disacharides
b) Homogylcans
c) Hetroglycans
d) None of all
43. Which of following phospholipid has antigenic activity
a) Lecithin
b) Cardiolipin
c) Sphingomyelin
d) Cephalin
44. Which of following is essential amino acid
a) Lysine
b) Glycine
c) Aspartic Acid
d) Glutamine
45. Glutelins is
a) Simple Protein
b) Conjugated Protein
c) Drieved Protein
d) Fatty acid
46. Glutathion is found in all mammalian cell except:a) RBC
b) Neurons
c) Skeleton Muscles
d) Argentaffin Cells

47. The Normal value of Serum albumin

a) 3.5--6gm%
b) 3--4 gm %
c) 5--8 gm %
d) 2--3.5 gm %
48. IgM present on the surface of B lymphocytes is
a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Pentamer
d) tetramer
49. Liver diagnostic enzyme is
a) Alkaline phosphatase
b) Acid phosphatase
c) Alanine Transaminase
d) Amylase
50. Earlier Marker of myocardial infraction is
a) CK-1
b) CK-2
c) CK-3
d) AST
51. Which type of inhibitor decrease Km and Vmax
a) Irreversible Reversible
b) Competitive Reversible
c) NonCompetitive
d) Reversible Uncompetitive
52. One of the following not a factor that may affect enzyme velocity reaction
a) Inhibitors
b) pH
c) Time
d) Water
53. Biotin is
a) Vitamin B2
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B7
d) Vitamin B1

54. Tocopherol is
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
55. Biological substance can act as uncouple
a) Bilirubin
b) Free fatty acids
c) Thyroxine
d) All
56. Which of the following act as ETC inhibitors at Complex IV stage
a) Rotenone/amobarbital
b) Antimycin A/BAL
c) H2S/CN
d) None
57. Von Gierkes diasese is due to dificience of one of following enzyme
a) Glucose-6- phosphate
b) Gylcogen Synthase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Pyruvate Kinase
58. Principal source of glucose after an overnight fast is
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycolysis
c) glycogenolysis
d) HMP pathway
59. Anareobic gylcolysis from glycogen generates
a) 2 moles of ATP
b) 3 moles of ATP
c) 8 moles of ATP
d) 6 moles of ATP
60. Zellweger syndrome is related to disturbance in metabolism of
a) Carbohydate
b) Protein
c) Fatty acids
d) Enzymes
61. The autonomic nervous system is also known as

(a) Visceral
(b) Vegetative
(c) Involuntary nervous system
(d) All of the above
62. The neurotransmitter agent that is normally released in the sinoatrial node of the heart in
response to a blood pressure increase is
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Dopamine
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Glutamate
(e) Norepinephrine
63. Rest and digest state can be described as
(a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent
(b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active
(c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active
64. The antibody that is first formed after infection is
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
65. Enzymes are chemically
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. None of these
66. Batch fermentation is also called
a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Fed-Batch system
d. Sub-merger system
67. The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicillin is
a. Penicillium chrysogenum
b. P-notatum
c. Streptomyces Aurecus
d. Saccharomyces sps

68. Aspergillus niger is used generally for the production of

a. Ethanol
b. Penicillin
c. Citric acid
d. Lactic acid
69. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
(a) Sympathetic system increases rate of SA node
(b) Sympathetic system causes constriction of coronary arteries
(c) Sympathetic system causes increased motility of GIT smooth muscles
(d) Sympathetic system causes constriction of sphincter in GIT
70. Following enzyme is involved in the synthesis of actylcholine
(a) Choline acetyl transferase
(b) Acetyl cholinesterase
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
71. Hybridoma technique is used for
a. Monoclonal antibodies
b. Polyclonal antibodies
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
72. In the industrial production of streptomycin, the secondary metabolite or byproducts is
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B6
d. Ethanol
73. The penicillin produced in large scale submerged fermentations are
a. Penicillin-A
b. Penicillin-D
c. Penicillin-G
d. None of these
74. First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced vaccine was against
a. AIDS
b. Small pox
c. Herpes simplex
d. Hepatitis B.
75. AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belongs to

a. Retro virus group

b. Rhabdo virus group
c. Hepatitis virus group
d. Adeno virus group
76. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are
a. Cellular vaccines
b. Sub-cellular vaccines
c. Attenuated vaccines
d. Heterologous vaccines
77. Methods used to get immobilized enzymes:
a. Adsorption
b. Encapsulation
c. Covalent bonding
d. All of these
78. Select the true one
Energy & Work: standard is erg (CGS unit).
1 erg 1 dyn-cm
1 erg = 1 x 107 J
d. All of these
79. The relation between the Celsius and the Fahrenheit scales is given by the exact equation
T0F = 32 + 9/5 0C
T0F = 32 + 18 0C
T0F = 23 + 5/9 0C
None of these
80. Select the true regarding material balances
The law of material balance states that matter cannot be either created or destroyed.
The materials entering any process must either accumulate or leave the process.
There can be no loss or gain during the process.
Material balances must hold over the entire process or apparatus or over any part of it.
They must apply to all the material that enters and leaves the process or to any one material that
passes through the process unchanged.
All of above
None of these
81.

Reynolds number,NRe =

Du

Regarding select the true one:

D = internal diameter of a pipe (ft)

u = velocity of the fluid within the pipe (ft/s)
= density of the fluid (lb/ft3)
= viscosity of the fluid (lb/ft-s)
All of above is true.
82.

dC
kC n ........................ If C is the concentration of drug A,
dt
Where k = rate constant and n = order of the reaction.
a) If n = 0 then the reaction is called a zero-order reaction,
b) if n = 1 then the reaction is called a first-order reaction.
c) if n = 2 then the reaction is called a second order reaction.
d) All of above

83. Immunoglobin which are found in asthma at elevated level:

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgD
84. Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgD
d. IgM
e. IgG
85. Match the following vaccines with their respective contents A to D:
1. Typhoid vaccine

A. Killed rickettsia

2. Typhus vaccine

B. Killed bacteria

3. Measles vaccine
4. Smallpox

C. Attenuated viruses
D. Killed viruses

1.b, 2.a, 3.d, 4.c

86. Mountax reaction is used for detection of
a. T.B.
b. Diphtheria

c. Cholera
d. None of these
87. DPT is
a) Triple vaccine
b) Double vaccine
c) Tetanus toxoid
d) d. All of these
88. Fight or flight state can be described as
a) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent
b) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active
c) (c) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active
89. The outstanding example of traditional microbial fermentation product is
a) Vinegar
b) Penicillin
c) Citric acid
d) d. Tetracyclin
90. Invert sugar is
a) Optically inactive
b) Racemic mixture
c) Dextrorotatory
91.

92.

93.

94.

d) Levorotatory
AN example of expanded role of the pharmacist is
a) Community leader
b) Preparation of compounded prescription
c) Maintain adequate inventory of orphan drugs
d) Triages of pharmacist
A pharmacist is presented a prescription for 250 mcg of levothyroxine.Which of the following
dosages would be equivalent to that amount?
a) 2.5 mg
b) 0.25 gm
c) 0.25 mg
d) 25 gm
Parental calcium is used as antidote for which of the following condition?
a) verapamil overdoses
b) hyperkalemia
c) cocaine intoxication
d) verapamil overdoses and hyperkalemia
Which of the following emission from the decay of radionuclide is most commonly used in
nuclear medicine diagnostic imagining?
a) x- ray
b)
c)

d) Gamma
e) Positron
95. Which of the following radionuclide is most commonly used in nuclear pharmacy practice?
a) gallium-67 ( 6 7Ga)
b) thallium-201 (2 0 1Tl )
c) technetium-99m ( 9 9mTc)
d) iodine-123 (1 2 3 I )
e) xenon-133 ( 1 3 3Xe)
96. Rx is Latin term whose meaning
a) Subscription
b) Inscription
c) Superscription
d) None of these
97. Subscription is related to
a) Requesting GOD for quick recovery of the patient
b) Direction to pharmacist for preparing prescription and no.of doses to be dispensed
c) Direction given to the patient regarding the dose administration
d) Give information regarding habit forming drugs
98. Dolore urgente is Latin term whose meaning
a) Before meals
b) Frequently
c) When the pain is severe
d) None of these
99. Mitte is Latin term whose meaning
a) To be applied
b) Send
c) As a dose
d) In the manner prescribe
100. Minimum space required to run a drug store
a) 150 sq.ft
b) 250 sq.ft
c) 300 sq.ft
d) 350 sq.ft