GLOBAL TECH INSTITUTE OF

MANAGEMENT
CENTRE FOR DISTANCE LEARNING
1798 A , 3RD FLOOR SOUTH- EX PART-1, NEW DELHI-110049

SUBJECT NAME: DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING

NOTES:
a
b

Write answers in your own words and avoid copying from the textbooks.
Only hand written assignments shall be accepted.

ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:

1. In a flash analog-to-digital converter,
the output of each comparator is
connected to an input of a ________.
A. decoder
B. priority encoder
C. multiplexer
D. demultiplexer
2. Which term applies to the maintaining
of a given signal level until the next
sampling?
A. Holding
B. Aliasing
C. Shannon frequency sampling
D. "Stair-stepping"
3. An op-amp has very ________.
A. high voltage gain
B. high input impedance
C. low output impedance
D. all of the above
4. For a 4-bit DAC, the least significant bit
(LSB) is ________.
A. 6.25% of full scale
B. 0.625% of full scale
C. 12% of full scale

D. 1.2% of full scale

5. The dual-slope analog-to-digital
converter finds extensive use in
________.
A. digital voltmeters
B. function generators
C. frequency counters
D. all of the above
6. The ADC0804 is an example of a
________.
A. single-slope analog-to-digital converter
B. dual-slope analog-to-digital converter
C. digital-ramp analog-to-digital converter
D. successive-approximation analog-to-digital
converter
7. In a digital representation of voltages
using an 8-bit binary code, how many
values can be defined?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
8. A 4-bit R/2R ladder digital-to-analog
converter uses ________.
A. one resistor value
B. two resistor values
C. three resistor values
D. four resistor values
9. A binary-weighted-input digital-to-analog
converter has a feedback resistor,
Rf, of 12 k. If 50 A of current is through
the resistor, voltage out of the circuit is
________.
A. 0.6 V
B. 0.6 V
C. 0.1 V
D. 0.1 V
10. The resolution of a 6-bit DAC is
________.
A. 63%
B. 64%
C. 15.9%
D. 1.59%
11. A binary-weighted-input digital-toanalog
converter has an input resistor of
100 k. If the resistor is connected to a 5 V
source, current through the resistor is
________.
A. 50 mA
B. 50 A

C. 0.05 mA
D. 500 A
12. In troubleshooting a DAC, we check its
performance characteristics, such as
________.
A. nonmonotonicity
B. differential nonlinearity
C. low and high gain
D. all of the above
13. In a digital reproduction of an analog
curve, accuracy can be increased by
________.
A. sampling the curve more often
B. sampling the curve less often
C. decreasing the number of bits used to
represent each sampled value
D. all of the above
14. In a 4-bit R/2R ladder digital-toanalog
converter, because of negative
feedback, the operational amplifier keeps
the inverting (minus) input near
________.
A. 5 volts
B. zero volts
C. a voltage determined by the binary
weighted input
D. none of the above
15. What is the result of taking more
samples during the quantization process?
A. More errors in the analog-to-digital
conversion
B. More bit requirements
C. More accurate signal representation
D. More bit requirements and more accurate
signal representation
16. Which A/D conversion method has a
fixed conversion time?
A. Single-slope analog-to-digital converter
B. Dual-slope analog-to-digital converter
C. Digital-ramp analog-to-digital converter
D. Successive-approximation analog-to-digital
converter
17. Which is a typical application of digital
signal processing?
A. Noise elimination
B. Music signal processing
C. Image processing
D. All of the above
18. If a DAC has a full-scale, or maximum,
output of 12 V and accuracy of 0.1%, then

the maximum error for any output voltage

is ________.
A. 12 V
B. 120 mV
C. 12 mV
D. 0 V
19. What do we call the manipulation of
an analog signal in a digital domain?
A. Analog-to-digital conversion
B. Digital-to-analog conversion
C. Digital signal processing
D. Signal filtering
20. How are unwanted frequencies
removed prior to digital conversion?
A. Pre-filters
B. Digital signal processing
C. Sample-and-hold circuits
D. All of the above
21. Which type of programming is
typically used for digital signal
processors?
A. Assembly language
B. Machine language
C. C
D. None of the above
22. Which of the following best defines
Nyquist frequency?
A. The frequency of resonance for the filtering
circuit
B. The second harmonic
C. The lower frequency limit of sampling
D. The highest frequency component of a given
analog signal
23. Which is not an A/D conversion error?
A. Differential nonlinearity
B. Missing code
C. Incorrect code
D. Offset
24. Settling time is normally defined as
the time it takes a DAC to settle within
________.
A. 1/8 LSB of its final value when a change
occurs in the input code
B. 1/4 LSB of its final value when a change
occurs in the input code

+
C. 1/2 LSB of its final value when a change

occurs in the input code

D. 1 LSB of its final value when a change

occurs in the input code
25. Calculate the cut-off frequency fc of
the following circuit.
A. 96.7 Hz.
B. 96.7 rad/s.
C. 15.4 Hz.
D. 15.4 rad/s.
26. Calculate the angular cut-off
frequency of the following circuit.
A. 357 Hz.
B. 515 Hz.
C. 515 rad/s.
D. 56.8 rad/s.
27. Calculate the resonant frequency of
the following arrangement.
A. 53 Hz.
B. 128 Hz.
C. 226 Hz.
D. 1421 Hz.
28. Which of the following forms of filter
is optimized for a linear phase response?
A. The Butterworth filter.
B. The Chebyshev filter.
C. The Bessel filter.
D. all of the above
29. What is meant by 'pink noise'?
A. Most of the noise power is concentrated at
low frequencies.
B. The noise has a frequency equal to that of
pink light.
C. The noise has a uniform spectrum.
D. Most of the noise power is concentrated at
high frequencies.
30. Which of the following is not an
appropriate design method for tackling
EMC related problems?
A. Routing noise sensitive signals around the
outside of a printed circuit board to keep them
away from other signals.
B. Minimise the area of any loops formed.
C. Use multiplayer boards to reduce coupling
between circuits.
D. Minimise track lengths.
31. For persons with a motor speech
disorder, which of the following is the
most likely to also be impaired?
A. chewing
B. seeing
C. language comprehension

D. hearing
32. Which is NOT one of the four major
subsystems involved with speech
production?
A. phonatory
B. resonatory
C. pulmonary
D. articulatory
33. How does the amount of exhalation in
normal breathing compare to exhalation
in speech production?
A. more in normal breathing
B. less in normal breathing
C. less in speech production
D. same amount in both
34. Which of the following systems
regulates the production of voice and the
prosodic or intonational aspects of
speech?
A. respiratory
B. phonatory
C. resonatory
D. articulatory
35. The state of the velo-pharyngeal port
determines which of the following?
A. voiced or unvoiced sounds
B. nasality
C. frequency
D. intonation
36. When producing speech, an individual
is producing linguistic units as well as
acoustic events, such as:
A. syllables
B. pitch
C. phonemes
D. phrases
37. Acquired motor speech disorders can
result from all of the following except:
A. stroke
B. brain tumors
C. cerebral palsy
D. Parkinson's disease
38. Which of the following is NOT an
individual difference that occurs for motor
speech disorders?
A. ability to compensate
B. prevalence of disorder among peers of
similar SES
C. general life response to a major medical
problem

D. ability to use unimpaired systems

39. Which subgroup of disorders includes
developmental dysarthria?
A. programming/planning
B. execution
C. motor units
D. learning
40. Childhood apraxia of speech is defined
as a __________ disorder.
A. semantic-processing
B. phonetic-motoric
C. morpho-syntactic
D. pragmatic-apraxic
41. Which is NOT one of the three most
important concepts for understanding
dysarthria?
A. aphasia
B. spasticity
C. dyskinesia
D. ataxia
42. Which type of dysarthria involves
weakness of the lower face or tongue on
one side?
A. flaccid
B. unilateral upper motor neuron
C. ataxic
D. hyperkinetic
43. Which of the following people would
be the LEAST likely to make a referral?
A. doctor
B. speech-language pathologist
C. teacher
D. parent
44. What is the last aspect of speech
production (aside from the four
subsystems) that should be evaluated
during the assessment process?
A. intonation
B. schema
C. muscle tone
D. prosody
45. Which of the following terms refers to
the number of patients with motor speech
disorders a clinician labels as unimpaired?
A. hit rate
B. miss rate
C. false positive rate
D. correct rejection rate
46. In Wallerian degeneration of a
peripheral nerve :

A. The axons regenerate at a rate of 1 cm /

day.
B. Occurs in the distal portion of the broken
axon leaving an empty tubule
C. Is a feature of neuropraxia
D. All the above
47. Surfactant is a substance that :
A. Is produced in the liver of new borns
B. Is important in the new borns but is of little
importance in adults
C. Is produced in the basement membrane of
lungs
D. Helps in prevention of collapse of the
alveoli
48. Calcium enters the cardiac cell during:
A. Rapid upstroke of the action potential
B. Down slope of the action potential
C. Plateau phase of the action potential
D. Slow diastolic depolarization {phase 4} of
the action potential .
49. The functional residual capacity of
lung is defined as:
A. Tidal volume & residual Volume
B. Tidal Volume & expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume & tidal volume
D. Residual volume & expiratory reserve
volume
50. The metabolic function of
parathormone includes all these except :
A. Mobilizes calcium from bone
B. Decreases renal tubular reabsorption of
calcium
C. Promotes renal production of 1,25 hydroxy
cholecalciferol
D. Lowers serum phosphate level
51. The need to vitamin B12 & folic acid in
the formation of RBC's is primarily to
effect on :
A. Synthesis & release of erythropoietin from
the kidneys
B. Absorption of Iron from GUT
C. DNA synthesis in the bone marrow
D. Hemoglobin formation in the RBC's.
52. Intra pulmonary shunting refers to:
A. anatomical dead space
B. alveolar dead space
C. Wasted ventilation.
D. Perfusion in excess of ventilation
53. During regeneration after
axonotmesis , the usual delay before the

start of growth of axons in the distal

direction is about :
A. 2 days
B. 10days
C. 3 weeks
D. 2 months
54. Absorption of H2O in PCT is
characteristic by all except:
A. Vasopressin dependent
B. 60% of water is absorbed
C. Depends on solutes
D. Vasopressin independent
55. Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by
all except:
A. Resting tremor
B. Dysdiadochokinesis
C. Ataxia
D. Hypotonia
56. Cranial Nerve V, the Trigeminal nerve,
the largest cranial nerve, has 3 branches
and enervates
A. tongue movement - intrinsic and extrinsic
muscles of tongue
B. feel sensation of anterior 2/3 of tongue,
face, mouth, jaw; motor muscles of the jaw
C. pharyngeal base of tongue; taste and touch
for posterior 1/3 of tongue
D. the soft palate and some velar muscles
57. Which is NOT true of the Vagus Nerve
(Cranial nerve 10)?
A. It makes up the Vagal Complex with cranial
nerves 9 and 11.
B. Damage to all its branches will produce
weakness of the soft palate, pharynx, and
larynx.
C. It enervates the cricothyroid, an intrinsic
muscle of the larynx.
D. This Vagus nerve has three major
branches.
58. The hypoglossal nerve, the 11th
cranial nerve, enervates all of the
following muscles except:
A. thyroarytenoid muscle
B. cricothyroid
C. palatoglossus
D. sternothyroid
59. This system is essential to the
planning, initiation and control of
voluntary movement, including speech.
A. Sensory System

B. Motor System
C. Visceral System
D. Vascular System
60. Which is NOT true of the UMN system?
A. contained entirely within the CNS
B. Predominately a direct activation pathway
C. includes the corticospinal and corticobulbar
tracts
D. includes the basal ganglia and cerebellar
control circuits
61. This cranial nerve enervates all
intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but
one extrinsic muscle, and is responsible
for taste and tactile information:
A. Accessory (11th)
B. Superior laryngeal branch of Vagus (10th)
C. Hypoglossal (12th)
D. Trigeminal (5)
62. Voice onset time is measured by:
A. perceptual analysis of speech,
B. acoustic analysis of speech,
C. kinematic analysis of speech, or
D. physiologic analysis of speech.
63. Flaccid dysarthria is caused by
damage to this location and typically
results in these speech characteristics.
A. Bilateral upper motor neuron; spasticity,
increased tone
B. Motor unit of the final common pathway;
weakness, hypotonia
C. Basal ganglia control circuit; rigidity,
reduced range of movement
D. Unilateral upper motor neuron; weakness,
incoordination of tongue and lower face
movements
64. According to the textbook what are
the primary characteristics of flaccid
paralysis?
A. atrophy and fasciculations
B. atrophy, fasciculations, and fibrillations
C. rapid weakening and recovery with rest
D. weakness, hypotonia, and diminished
reflexes
65. What is the most common motor
neuron disease that affects the bulbar,
limb, and respiratory muscles?
A. Progressive Bulbar Palsy
B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
D. Polymyositis

66. Lesions in the basal ganglia control

circuit can result in the following:
A. Hyperkinetic dysarthria
B. Hypokinetic dysarthria
C. Both of the above
D. Jennifer Cochran
67. The components of the basal ganglia,
the striatum and globus pallidus, are
important for all but which of the
following:
A. maintaining normal posture
B. mediating consciousness
C. regulating muscle tone
D. automatic activities, ie. chewing or walking
68. Which of the following is usually
associated with deficits at all of the
speech valves and for all components of
the speech system, frequently produces
pseudobulbar affect, and often results in
pathological oral reflexes?
A. flaccid dysarthria
B. ataxic dysarthria
C. spastic dysarthria
D. hypotonic dysarthria
69. Lesions affecting this nerve may cause
either unilateral or bilateral paralysis of
the vocal folds:
A. superior laryngeal nerve
B. recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. pharyngeal laryngeal nerve
D. trigeminal nerve
70. Bilateral tongue weakness may cause
all of the following except:
A. differences in resonance
B. hyperkinetic movement disorders
C. difficulty producing sounds requiring
elevation of tongue
restricted or exaggerated jaw movements