2016

Time: 3Hours

AIPMT SAMPLE PAPER-2

CLASS:12th (PCB)
Maximum Marks: 720
Topics Covered:
Physics

: Full Syllabus

Chemistry

: Full Syllabus

Mathematics

: Full Syllabus

Important Instruction:
1. Attempting all the questions are compulsory.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point pen only.
3. There are three sections of equal weightage in the question paper A, B, C (Physics, Chemistry having 45 questions
each andBiology) Having 90 questions .
4. For marking scheme, +4 marks for each correct answer and -1 marks for each incorrect answer.
5. Use of calculator and other electronic devices is not allowed during the exam.
6. No extra sheets will be provided for any kind of work.

Na e of the tude t: .. Class:

Fathe s Na e: . ig atu e: .
B a h Na e: Co ta t No: .

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PART A
(PHYSICS)
4
1. The dimensions of b ( tefa s o sta t a d b Wie s o sta t a e:

(a) [

(b) [

2. If A B C D , then select the correct alternative:

(c) [

(d) [

(a) B is parallel to C D
(b) (b) A is perpendicular to C
(c) Component of C along A component of D along A
(d) Component of C along A component of D along A
3. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff with initial speeds v and 3v . The relative
position of the second stone with respect to first varies with time till both the stones strike the ground as:
(a) Linearly (b) first linearly then parabolically(c) Parabolically
(d) first parabolically the linearly
4. Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 2 kg are connected by a heavy string and placed on rough horizontal plane. The 2 kg
block is pulled with a constant force F to the right. The coefficient of friction between the blocks and the ground
is 0.4. What is the value of F so that tension in the string is constant throughout during the motion of the blocks:
g 10m s2 .
(a) 24 N

(b) 30 N

(c) 50 N

(d) 60 N

5. A block of mass 4 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is: g 9.8m s 2
(a) 19.6 N

(b) 0.7 9.8 3 N

(c) 9.8 3 N

(d) 0.7 9.8 N

6. A particle of mass m attached to a string of length l is describing circular motion on a smooth plane inclined at
an angle with the horizontal. For the particle to reach the highest point its velocity at the lowest point should
exceed :
(a)

5gl

(b)

5 gl cos 1

(c)

5 gl tan

(d)

5 gl sin

7. The square of angular speed of the electron in the nth o it of Boh s h d oge ato
(a) Directly proportional to n
(b) Inversely proportional to
(c) Inversely proportional to
(d) Inversely proportional to
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is:

2016
8. Two disc of same radius r and mass m are placed such that their centre is at a common point and their
planes are perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the
centre and perpendicular to plane of one of the discs is:
3
1
(a) mr 2
(b) mr 2
(c) mr 2
(d) 2 mr 2
4
2
9. A uniform thin bar of mass 6m and length 12L is bent to make a regular hexagon. Its moment of inertia about an
axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is :
12 2
(a) 20 mL2
(c)
(d) 30 mL2
(b) 6 mL2
mL
5
10. Two earth-satellites are revolving in the same circular orbit round the centre of the earth. They must have the
same :
(a) mass
(b) angular momentum
(c) linear momentum
(d) velocity
11. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the surface of earth to that at a depth h below the
surface of earth for h radius of earth :
(a) is constant
(b) increases linearly with h
(c) decreases linearly with h
(d) decrease

12. Displacement-time graph of a particle executing SHM is as shown.

The corresponding force-time graph of the particle can be:

13. An object suspended from a spring exhibits oscillations of period T . Now the spring is cut in two halves and the
same object is suspended with two halves connected parallel way. The new time period of oscillation will
become:
T
T
T
(a)
(b) 2T
(c)
(d)
2
2
2 2

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14. The wavelength of radiation emitted is 0 when an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from 3rd to 2nd orbit. If in
the hydrogen atom itself, the electron jumps from fifth orbit to second orbit, then the wavelength of emitted
radiation will be:
16
225
127
125
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
0
0
0
0
25
160
120
189
15. When heat is added to a system, which of the following is not possible?
(a) Internal energy of the system increases
(b) work is done by the system
(c)Neither internal energy increases nor work is done by the system
(d) Internal energy increases and also work is done by the system.
16. An electric charge 103 C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of X Y co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated

at 2 2, 2 2 and (4, 0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be
(a) 2 volt

(b) 4.5 volt

(c) 9 volt

(d) zero

17. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let E be the electric field and V and potential at the
center. If the charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C respectively, then

(a) E and V remain unchanged

(b) E changes, V remains unchanged

(c) E remains unchanged, V changes

(d) both E and V change

18. A soap bubble is given a positive charge, then its radius

(a)Decreases
(b) Increases (c) Remains unchanged (d) Information insufficient to predict
19. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are placed in series and connected to a constant voltage source of V0 volt.
If one of the capacitors is completely immersed in a liquid with dielectric constant K, the potential difference
between the plates of the other capacitor will change to:

K 1
V0
K

(a)

K
V0
K 1

(b)

K 1
V0
2K

(c)

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2K
V0
K 1

(d)

2016
20. Effective capacity between A and B is (in F)
(a) 8
(b) 2/3
(c) 4/3

(d) 3/2

21. The effective capacity between A and B is

(a) 14 C
(b) C/2
(c) 2C

(d) 8/C

22. The lengths and cross-sectional areas of four copper wires P, Q, R and S are respectively l
and l 2 , A 2 . The wire which has the maximum resistance is
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

2 ,2 A, 2l , A 2, 2l ,2 A

23. Two resistors of resistance 3 and 6 are in parallel and the combination is in series with a 4 resistor. A
potential difference of 90V is applied across the network. The potential difference across the 4 resistor and the
current in the 3 resistor are respectively,
(a) 30V : 5 A
(b) 30V : 10A
(c) 60V : 5 A
(d) 60V : 10A
24. There are three lumps of a given radioactive substance. Their activity is in the ratio of 1:2:3 now. What will be
the ratio of their activities at any further date?
(a) 1:2:3
(b) 2:1:3
(c) 3:2:1
(d) 2:3:1
25. A magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two equal parts. The two parts are placed perpendicular to each
other so that their north poles touch each other. The resultant magnetic moment is:
(a)

2M

(b)

M
2

(c)

3M

(d)

M
3

26. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of
the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is established in
the wire as shown in the figure the loop will
(a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(b) move away from the wire
(c) move towards the wire
(d) remain stationary
27. Which of the following particles will have same frequency of revolution when projected with same velocity
perpendicular to a magnetic field?

1. Li
2. He
3. proton
4. deuteron
(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3
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(d) 1 and 2

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28. In the case of convex lens made of flint glass the focal length
(a)is shorter for green colour than for yellow
(b) Is longer for blue than red
(c) Is the same for all colours
(d) Is same for yellow and blue colours only
29. A 10 henry inductor is carrying a current 2A. Rate at which the current be changed so that an e.m.f. of 100V is
induced is
(a) 5 As1
(b) 10As1
(c) 15As1
(d) 20As1
30. Two circuits have mutual inductance of 0.09 H. Average e.m.f. induced in the secondary by a change of current
from 0 to 20 A in 0.006 s in primary will be
(a) 120 V
(b) 200 V
(c) 180 V
(d) 300 V
31. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is
(a)

MLT 2 A1

(b)

ML2T 1A1

2 2 1

(c) ML T

32. Le z s la is a o se ue e of the la of o se atio of:

(a) charge
(b) mass
(c) momentum

(d)

ML2T 2 A

(d) energy

33. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
34. A real object placed between the pole and the principal focus of a convex mirror of radius 20 cm produces the
image which is:
(a) real, magnified and upright
(b) virtual, diminished and inverted
(c) virtual, diminished and upright
(d) real, diminished and inverted
35. What is the respective number of and particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?
200

(a) 6 and 8

X 90 168 Y80

(b) 6 and 6

(c) 8 and 8

(d) 8 and 6

36. I You g s dou le slit e pe i e t, the t o slits a t as ohe e t sou es of e ual a plitude a and of wavelength
. In another experiment with the same setup, the two slits are sources of equal amplitude a and wavelength
but are incoherent. The ratio of the intensity of light at the mid-point of the screen in the first case to that in the
second case is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 1: 2
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 3
37. Light of wavelength 5.0 107 m falls on a pair of narrow slits separated by a distance d . The interference
pattern on a screen placed 2.0 m away shows that there is first dark fringe at the positions exactly opposite to
each slit. The value of 2d is:
(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 2 mm
(d) 4 mm

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0

38. A polaroid is placed at 45 with horizontal before an incoming unpolarized light of intensity I 0 . Now the
intensity of light passing through the polaroid after polarization is
(a) I 0
(b) I 0 / 2
(c) I 0 / 4
(d) zero
39. The main difference in the phenomenon of interference and diffraction is that:
(a) Diffraction is due to interaction of light from the same wavefront whereas interference is the interaction of
waves from two isolated sources.
(b) Diffraction is due to interaction of light from same wavefront, whereas interference is the interaction of two
waves derived from the same source
(c) Diffraction is due to interaction of waves derived from the same source, whereas the interference is the
bending of light from the same wavefront
(d) Diffraction is caused by the reflected waves from a source whereas interference is caused due to refraction
of waves from a source
40.Consider Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern obtained with a single slit illuminated at normal incidence. At the
angular position of the second diffraction minimum, the phase difference (in radian) between the wavelets from
the opposite edge of the slit is:
(a)
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

41. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence of 60 and the reflected beam is completely
plane polarized. The refractive index of the glass is:
(a)1.5
(b)
(c)
(d) 3 2

42. A a of light is i ide t o the su fa e of a glass plate at a a gle of i ide e e ual to B e ste s a gle . If
represents the refractive index of glass with respect to air, the angle between the reflected and refracted rays is:
sin
(b) sin 1 cos
(c) 90
(d) sin 1
(a) 90

43. The ratio of the specific charge of a proton to that of an alpha particle is
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:1/4

(d) 1:1/2

44. When a surface is illuminated with light of wavelength , the stopping potential is V. When the same surface is
illuminated by light of wavelength 2, the stopping potential is V/3. Threshold wavelength for metallic surface
is:
(a) 4 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8 3
45. If 1 and 2 de ote the a ele gth of de B oglie a es fo ele t o s i Boh s fi st a d se o d o its i the
hydrogen atom, then 1 2 will be:
(a) 2

(b) 1 2

(c) 4
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(d) 1 4

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PART B
(CHEMISTRY)
46. Among the following four structures I to IV

(a) only (I) and (II) are chiral compounds

(c) only (III) and (IV) are chiral compounds
47. The p odu t o tai ed f o
(a) CH3CH2 OH

(b) only (I) is a chiral compound

(d) all four are chiral compounds

the follo i g ea tio is CH CH

(b) CH3CHO

/HgS

H SO

(c) CH3COOH

(d) CH2 CH2

|
|
OH OH

48. When 32.25g of ethyl chloride is subjected to de-hydro halogenation reaction, the yield is 50%. The
mass of the product formed is (atomic mass of chlorine in 35.5)
(a) 7g
(b) 14g
(c) 28g
(d) 64.5g

49.

Column I
Column II
A) Free radical substitution P) CH CH = CH + HBr
3
2
2
+
B) Electrophilic addition
Q) C2H5OH C2H4 + H2O
C) Free radical addition
R) Halogenation of alkanes
D) Elimination
S) CH3CH = CH2 + HCl CH3 CH CH3
|
Cl

Correct Match is
(a) A R; B S; C P; D Q
(b) A Q; B R; C P; D S
(c) A S; B R; C Q; D P
(d) A P; B Q; C R; D S
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CH2CH2CH2Br

2016
50. Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide takes place as follows:
CaC2 + 2H2O Ca OH 2 + C2H2
C2H2 + H2 C2H4
nC2H4 CH2 CH2 )n
the amount of polyethylene obtained from 64 kg of CaC2 is
(a) 7 kg
(b) 14 kg
(c) 21 kg

(d) 28 kg

51. Anhydrous AlCl3 is used in Friedal crafts reaction because it is:

(a) Electron rich
(b) Soluble in water
(c) insoluble to chloride and aluminium
(d) electron deficient
52. Alkyl halide on heating with alc. NH3 in a sealed tube results - - - - (a) 1 amine
(b) 2 amine
(c) 3 amine
ri i

53. The reaction C2H5OH + SOCl2

(a) Kharasch effect
Willia so s s thesis

C2H5Cl + SO2 + HCl; is known as

Da ze s ea tio
(d) Hunsdiecker reaction

54. Which of the following applies in the reaction

CH3CHBrCH2CH3 + KOH al . i CH3CH = CHCH3 (major product)
(ii) CH2 = CHCH2CH3 (minor product)
a Ma ko iko s ule
sa tzeff s ule
(c) Kharasch effect
55. A + SOCl2 B + O2 + HCl
X + Na C + H2
B + C C2H5)2O + NaCl
Then A and X are respectively
(a) C2H5ONa and C2H5Cl
(b) C2H5CI and C2H5ONa
Z

.H

(d) all of these

d Hoff a

s ule

(c) C2H5OH and C2H5OH (d) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa

A
B
C In the above reaction, compound (A), (B) and (C) are
56. Phenol
conc. H SO NaOH
distillation
at 60
(a) Benzene, nitrobenzene and hydrazobenzene
(b) Benzene, nitrobenzene and aniline
(c) Benzene, dinitrobenzene and m-nitroaniline
(d) Toulene, m-nitrobenzene and m-toulidine
57. Ethers on hydrolysis yield
(a) Alcohol
(b) Aldehyde
58. Co pou ds sho i g a
(i) CH3CH2CHO
(a) i, ii, iii

(c) Acid

iza o s ea tio a e
(ii) CHCl2CHO
(b) iii, iv

(d) Ketone

(iii) (CH3)3 C CHO

(c) i, iii, iv

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(iv) C6H5CHO
(d) i, ii, iii, iv

2016
59. Order of decreasing acidity of
(I) HCOOH
(II) CH3COOH
(a) IV > III > II > I
(b) IV > III > I > II
60. For N

+ H

(a)92 Kcal

61. A molecule
is 5.2 g/
(a) 2

NH

(b) 70Kcal

(III) Cl2CHCOOH
(c) III > IV > II > I

(IV) CF3COOH is
(d) I >IV > II > III

kcal, Ea for the reaction is 70 kcal hence, the activation energy for
NH g N g + H g
(c) 48 Kcal
(d) 22 KCal

=
. Occupies triclinic lattice with a = 5
. The number of molecules present in one unit cell is
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

,b=8

and c = 4

. If the density of

62. In which of the following crystals, alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied?
(a) NaCl
(b) ZnS
(c)
(d)

63.The temperature of a bomb Calorimeter was found to rise by 1.617K. When a current of 3.20A was passed
for 27s from a 12V source. The Calorimeter Constant is
(a)645.6 KJ
(B) 641.1 KJ
(C) 649KJ
(D) 632 KJ
64. 5 mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly from a volume of 8dm3 to80dm3 at a temperature of 270c.
Calculate the change in entropy
(a) 70.26 J K-1
(B) 80.55 J K-1
(C) 95.73 J K-1
(D) 107.11 J K-1

65. Equivalent weight of

in acidic, neutral and basic media are in the ratio of
(a) 3: 5 : 15
(b) 5 : 3 : 1
(c) 5 : 1 : 13
(d) 3 : 15 : 5

66. What volume of 0.1M

is needed to oxidise 5 mg of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium (Mwt. Of
Ferrous oxalate = 144)
(a) 0.20 ml
(b) 0.1ml
(c) 0.4ml
(d) 2.08ml
67. What is the standard electrode potential for the electrode MnO-4/MnO2 in solution?
Given: E
/
+ =1.51v
E
(a) 1.2v

=1.23v

(b) 1.6v

68. Emf of a cell: Pt / H2(1atm) / H +

(a) 10-4M
(b) 10-6M

(c) 1.7v

H+

(d)1.85v

/ H2(1atm) / pt is 0.118V then find the value of x?

(c) 10-2M
(d) 10-1M

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2016
69. The ratio of slopes of maximum kinetic energy versus frequency and stopping potential (V0) versus
frequency, in photo electric effect gives
(a)Charge of electron
Pla k s o sta t
(c) Work function (d) Threshold frequency
70. The Number of Photons of light having wavelength 100nm which can provide 1J energy is nearly
(a) 107 Photons
(b) 51018 Photons
(c) 51017 Photons
(d)5107 Photons
71. Phenolphthalein does not act as an indicator for the titration between
(a) HCl and NH4OH
(b)Ca(OH)2 and HCl
(c)NaOH and H2SO4

(d)KOH and CH3COOH

72. The freezing point depression of 0.001m Kx[Fe(CN)6] is 7.1103 K. Dete i e the alue of
Kf = 1.86 K kg mole1 for water.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

. Gi e

73. 0.1M aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 300K is 4.92 atm. What will be the percentage ionization of the
salt?
(a) 49%
(b) 59%
(c) 79%
(d) 69%
74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
List-I
List-II
A.Mo d s p o ess
1. Purification of Ag containing Pb
B. Van Arkel method
2. Purification of Ge
C. Cupellation
3. Purification of Nickel
D. Zone refining
4. Purification of Titanium
(a) A-1 , B-2 ,C-3 ,D-4
(b)A-2 , B-3 ,C-4 ,D-1
(c)A-3 , B-4 ,C-1 ,D-2

(d)A-4 , B-1 ,C-2 ,D-3

75. Which of the following is incorrect statement about interstitial compounds ?

(a) They have high melting points , higher than those of pure metals.
(b) They are very hard .
(c) They retain metallic conductivity.
(d) They are chemically highly reactive than those of pure metals
76. During removal of hardness of water EDTA forms a complex ,[
The alue of
is
(a) +2
(b) +4
(c) 4
77. Which of the following does not contain P-O-P bond?
(a)
(b)
(c)
9

] with magnesium ion.

(d) 2

(d)

78. Which of the following on thermal decomposition liberate oxygen gas?

(I)
(II)
(III)

(IV) HgO
(a) I,II,III
(b) I,II,III,IV
(c) I,II
(d) I,II,IV
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2016
79. In the following reaction:
The total o
(a) 4

(b) 8

o ded ele t o s p ese t i the a io of ) is

(c) 6

(d) 5

80. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(a) C > > >
(b) O > > >
(c) O> > >
(d) F >

>

>

81. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence of :
(a) Sodium atoms
(b) sodium hydride
(c) sodium amide
(d) solvated electron
82. Which metal carbonate is decomposed on heating?
(a) MgCO
(b) Na CO
83. Which one has a planar structure ?
+
(a)
(b)

84. The I1, I2, I3, I4 alues of a ele e t M a e

Then the formula of its sulphate is
(a) MSO4
(b) M2(SO4)3

k.J/ ole.

(c)K CO

(d) BaCO

(d)

(d)

kJ/ ole,

(c) M2SO4

kJ/ ole a d

kJ/ ole.

(d) M3(SO4)2

85. What is the degree of hardness of a sample of water containing 24 mg of MgSO4 (molecular mass 120) per
kg of water?
(a) 10 ppm
(b) 15 ppm
(c) 20 ppm
(d) 25 ppm
86. An orange coloured solution acidified with
solution of CrO . The su sta e X is :
(a) H O
(b) dil HCI

and treated ith a su sta e X gives a blue coloured

(c) H O

(d) Conc. HCI

87. The coagulation of 100 ml of colloidal solution of gold is completely prevented by addition of 0.25 g of a
su sta e X to it efo e addi g
l of %NaCl solutio . The gold u e of X us
(a) 0.25
(b) 25
(c) 250
(d) 2.5
88. Which set of terms correctly identifies the carbohydrate shown?
1. Pentose
3.Aldose
5.Pyranose

2.Hexose
4.Ketose
6.Furanose

(a) 1,3 and 6

(c) 2,3 and 5
(E) 1,4 and 6

(b) 1,3 and 5

(D) 2,3 and 6

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89. Which of the following is an additional polymer?
(a) PVC
(b) Bakelite
(c) Melmac

(d) Urea-formaldehyde resin

90. Which of the following is a radical scavenger?

(a) Sodium metabisulphite
(b) BHA

(d) Both (B) and (C)

(c) BHT

PART C
(BIOLOGY)
91.Arrange the following in decreasing order based on the results in the F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross
(I)Total number of parental genotypes
(II)Total number of recombinant genotypes
(III)Total phenotypes
(IV)Total genotypes
(a)c,b,d,a

(b)a,c,d,b

(c)d,a,c,b

(d)d,b,c,a

92.In the absence of transpiration water moves into and up xylem because of.
(a)root pressure
(b)turgor pressure
(c)high soil mineral concentration

(d)guttation

93.Tall (T) is completely dominant over dwarf (t). Red flower colour (R) is incompletely dominant
over white (r), the heterozygote being pink. Plant having genotype of Tt Rr is self pollinated.
What would be the proportion of plants with both dwarf and pink characters in its progeny ?
(a)2 out of 16 plants
(b)one out of 16 plants
(c)9 out of 16 plants
(d)3 out of 16 plants
94. A cross between two tall garden pea plants produced all tall plants. The possible genotypes of the parents are
(I) TT, TT
(II) TT, Tt
(III) Tt, tt
(IV) Tt, Tt
The correct answer is
(a) III, IV
(b) I, IV
(c) I, II
(d) II, III

95.Carolus Linnaeus is credited with which of the following?

(a)A classification system that arranges organisms into groups based on morphology
(b)A classification system with a nested hierarchy made up of seven levels
(c)A naming system called binomial nomenclature
(d)All of the above
96.Which statement about the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication is correct?
(a)It is synthesized in a 3' --> 5' direction.
(b)It progresses (grows) toward the replication fork.
(c)It requires a short RNA primer to proceed.
(d)It is synthesized by DNA ligase.

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2016
.Whi h of the follo i g does t o u du i g post-transcriptional processing of RNA in eukaryotes?
(a) removal of introns
(b) addition of a poly-A at the 3' end
(c) binding of RNA polymerase to promoter
(d) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate cap at the 5' end
98. Which of the following concepts is not attributable to Mendel?
(a) one allele may be dominant to another allele at the same locus
(b) chromosomes are the carriers of the genes
(c) genetic traits are particulate in nature
(d) the pair of alleles at a locus separate from each other during gamete formation
99. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Hooke was first to observe living cells and introduce the word cell to describe them
(b) Schleiden and Schwann proposed cell theory.
(c) Remak was first to propose the tenet that 'all cells arise from other cells'.
(d) Leeuwenhoek was the first to observe unicellular organisms in pond water.
100. The percentage of energy transferred from one trophic level to another is called
(a)biotic potential
(b)primary productivity
(c)ecological efficiency

(d)carrying capacity

101.Which of the following statements is NOT correct about reproduction in flowering plants?
(a)The pollen grain, or male gametophyte, will contain two cells, the generative cell and the tube cell.
(b)The female gametophyte, or embryo sac, consists of eight haploid nuclei, one of which is the egg and two
polar nuclei.
(c)One sperm nucleus within the pollen tube will migrate to and fertilize the egg, forming a zygote.
(d)Another sperm nucleus within the pollen tube will migrate to and unite with the polar nuclei, producing a
diploid endosperm.
102. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the pressure-flow theory?
(a) At the leaf, sugar is actively transported into the phloem, and water follows by osmosis.
(b) Higher pressure is found in the sieve-tube cells at the leaf than at the root.
(c) Sugar concentration is higher in the sieve-tube cells of the leaf than in the root.
(d) Phloem sap flows from the leaves (sink) to the roots (source).
103. Respiratory roots are known as
(a) velamen
(b) pneumatophores

(c) hydathodes

(d) prop roots

104. To brighten her home in the winter a woman decides to force some iris to bloom. To achieve this she should:
(a) expose the plant to long periods of darkness.
(b) expose the plant to short periods of darkness.
(c) interrupt a long period of darkness with a flash of light.
(d) both b and c
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105.Which of the following plant hormones in incorrectly paired with its function?
(a)auxins -- responsible for apical dominance
(b)abscisic acid -- regulates the rate of transpiration
(c)ethylene -- promotes ripening
(d)gibberellins -- promotes bud and seed dormancy
106. Which element is incorrectly matched with its function in the plant?
(a)calcium -- formation of cell walls; maintenance of membrane integrity
(b)iron -- a cofactor for an enzyme in chlorophyll biosynthesis; constituent of the heme group of cytochromes
(c)magnesium -- component of chlorophyll
(d)molybdenum -- cofactor; principal divalent cation of cytosol; important in osmotic regulations
107.Which of the following is NOT characteristics of bacterial cells?
(a)Bacterial cells are prokaryotes.
(b)Bacterial cells do not have an organized nucleus.
(c)Bacterial cells have a cell wall.
(d)Bacterial cells do not have extra chromosomal DNA
108.Type O blood results from the inheritance of
(a) one O allele and one A or B allele because O is dominant
(b)one A and one B allele that cancel each other out to produce O type blood
(c)two A or B alleles since this produces an O complex
(d)two O alleles and they are recessive
109.Algae having oil as reserve food belongs to
(a)Xanthophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae

(c)chlorophyceae

(d)Phaeophyceae

110.The mature male gametophyte of pine is

(a) pollen grain
(b)the germinated pollen grain containing two sperms
(c)a tree bearing pollen
(d)the pollen producing cone
111.Which of the following does not have nutritionally independent gametophytes?
(a) mosses
(b)liverworts
(c)gnetophytes
112.Which mode of information transfer usually does not occur?
(a)DNA to DNA
(b)DNA to RNA
(c)DNA to protein

(d)hornworts

(d)all occur in a working cell

113.Which of the following statements about the TCA cycle is correct?

(a) Oxygen is used to oxidise the acetyl group carbons of acetyl-CoA in the TCA cycle.
(b) Three molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle
(c) Oxygen is not used in the TCA cycle, so the cycle can occur in anaerobic conditions.
(d) The TCA cycle produces the water that is formed during the complete oxidation of glucose.
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114.Which of the following is correct?
(a) Chloroplasts, like mitochondria and nuclei, have surrounding outer membranes that are perforated by
porins.
(b) All chloroplasts contain grana.
(c) Chloroplast ribosomes can synthesize all chloroplast proteins.
(d) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase is concentrated in the stroma of chloroplasts.
115.Which of the following statements about C4 plants is incorrect?.
(a) C4 plants grow better under hot, dry conditions
(b) C4 plants minimize the oxygenase activity of rubisco by fixing CO2 into oxaloacetate.
(c)C4 plants show kranz anatomy.
(d) C4 plants are less efficient in photosynthesis than are C3 plants.
116.Which of the following statements about viruses is false?
(a) They cannot be observed using a light microscope.
(b) They cannot be separated from homogenates of host cells using simple filters.
(c) the genetic material of HIV is DNA
(d) Viruses are complexes of nucleic acid and proteins.
117.Which of the following is transported out of the nucleus across the nuclear pore?
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Ribosomal RNA
(c) Ribosomal proteins

(d) Histones.

118.The fungal components of lichens are mostly

(a)basidiomycetes
(b)Fungi Imperfecti

(d)zygomycetes

(c)ascomycetes

119.The cellular slime molds form a moving mass that eventually transforms itself into a _______________
containing spores.
(a)slag
(b)sorocarp
(c)macrocyst
(d)plasmodium
120.Mature sclerenchyma cells are
(a)suberized and contain no living protoplasts
(c)lignified and contain living protoplasts

(b)thin walled and often contain chloroplasts

(d)lignified and contain no living protoplast

121.Which of the following meristems is mismatched with the structure/tissue produced?

(a)cork cambium -- periderm
(b)ground meristem -- cortex and pith of a dicot stem
(c)procambium -- primary vascular tissue
(d)protoderm -- vascular tissue of a monocot stem
122.How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence? Walnut,
poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry.
(a)Two
(b)Three
(c)Four
(d)Five

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123.Identify the wrong pair of statements
(I) During plant succession, some species colonise an area and populations become more numerous,
whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear
(II) Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic conditions
(III) Secondary succession is a slow process when compared to primary succession
(IV) In the successive seral stages, there is no change in the diversity of species of organisms
(a)II, III

(b) I, II

(c) III, IV

(d) I, III

124.In which of the following plants leaf apex is modified into tendril?
(a)Gloriosa
(b)Eichhornia
(c)Nymphaea

(d)Parkinsonia

125.Which of the following characteristics of mitosis is NOT correct?

(a)Mitosis occurs in somatic cells.
(b)2N --> 2N
(c)2N --> N
(d)Mitosis is important for growth and repair
126.Study the following lists
List - IList II
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) G2 phase
D) G0 phase

I) Replication of DNA
II) Quiscent stage
III) Condensation of chromatin
IV) Protein synthesis
V) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

The correct match is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

A
III
V
V
V

B
V
IV
I
II

C
I
I
IV
III

D
II
III
II
IV

127.Identify the pair of wrong statements in the following

I) Intine of pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin
II) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
III) Enzymes can degrade the organic material of the exine of pollen grain
IV) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures, strong acids and alkali
(a)III, IV

(b) I, III

(c) I, II

(d) II, III

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128.Study the following lists
List - IList II
A) BOD
B) KVIC
C) LAB
D) STPS

I) Treatment of sewage
II) Measure of organic matter in water
III) Biological methods for controlling plant diseases
IV) Increases vitamin 12 B
V) Production of biogas

The correct match is

a)
b)
c)
d)

A
III
II
V
II

B
V
V
I
V

C
I
IV
IV
I

D
II
I
II
IV

129. Haploid plantlets can be produced by

(a)Embryo culture
(b)Pollen culture

(c)Cotyledon culture

130.Self-pollination can occur in which of the following

(a)dichogamous plants
(b)dioecious plants
(c)pistillate plants

(d)Meristem culture

(d)none of the above

131. Association between sea Anemone and Hermit crab in gastropod shell is that of
(a)Parasitism
(b)Commensalism
(c)Symbiosis
(d)Amensalism
132. In the breakdown of the ozone layer, ozone directly reacts with
(a)ultraviolet light
(b)chlorine atoms
(c)oxygen atoms

(d)CFC molecules

133. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion is, essentially,

(a)the more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
(b)competition for the same resources excludes species having different life styles
(c)no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely when resources are limited
(d)larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition as in the case of large trees controlling
underbrush
134. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?
(a)Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
135.Fruit in family Papilionaceae is:
(a)Siliqua
(b) Nut

(c) etaerio

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PART D
(Zoology)
136.Which of the following are enzymes secreted by the small intestine
(a)peptidase and amylase
(b)maltase and amylase
(c)trypsin and peptidase
(d)peptidase and maltase
137.Which of the following terms is correctly defined?
(a)cryptorchidism: failure of testes to descend into scrotum
(b)semen: additive from prostate gland
(c)puberty: stage of development before the reproductive organs become functional
(d)primordial follicle: the first stage of meiosis for oogenesis
138.Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary that have a direct effect on the body, rather than trigger another
gland, are
(a)GH, prolactin, and MSH
(b)TSH, ACTH, and gonadotropic hormones
(c)testosterone and estrogen
(d)FSH, LH and progesterone
139.Which two hormones in your body are absolutely essential for survival?
(a)calcitonin and insulin
(b)parathyroid hormone and aldosterone
(c)estrogen and testosterone
(d)somatotropin and cortisol
140.Where is the highest amount of carbon dioxide found?
(a)in the air
(b)in the alveoli
(c)the arteries entering the lung

(d)the veins leaving the lung

141.Match the following

A
a)Sudden surge of LH
b)Shedding of endometrium
c)High levels of progesterone
d) Production of estradiol

B
1) menses(flow)
2) proliferative phase
3)secretory(luteal phase)
4) ovulation

(a)a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d 1
(b)a - 1, b - 3, c - 4, d - 2
(c)a - 2, b - 4, c - 3, d 1
(d)a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d 2
142.Hypothalamus is the part of
(a)rhombencepahalon

(b)mesencephalon

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143.Select the matching term from column B that best fits the descriptive phase in column A
Column AColumn B
a.cnidaria
1. acoelomates
b.flat worms
2. diploblastic
c.arthropoda and annelida but not chordata
3. True coelom
d.Echinodermata but not mollusca
4. protostomes
e.annelida but not nematoda
5. Deuterostomes
(a)a - 5, b - 4, c - 2, d 1,e-3
(c)a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d 5,e - 3

(b)a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d 3,e-5
(d)a - 1, b - 2, c - 5, d 4,e-3

144.Which teeth are produced only once in life time in humans

(a)Molars
(b)pre molars
(c) incisors

(d)canines

145.During skeletal muscle contraction

(a)the width of the H-zone decreases.
(b)the actin heads bind to the myosin chain.
(c)ATP hydrolysis requires Ca2+ as a cofactor.
(d)tropomyosin changes conformation when Ca2+ binds.
146.Match the following and choose the correct option.
Type Synovial Joint
a. Ball and socket
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Saddle

Bone Involved

1. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb

2. Atlas and axis
3. Frontal and parietal
4. Knee
5. Humerus and pectoral girdle

(a)a - 5, b - 4, c - 2, d 1
(c)a - 5, b - 4, c - 3, d 1

(b)a - 1, b - 3, c - 4, d - 5
(d)a - 1, b - 2, c - 5, d 4

147.Which of the following is not a unique feature of birds?

(a)four chambered heart
(c)constant direction of air flow through the lungs

(b)hollow bones
(d)feathers

148.Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the arthropods?

(a)jointed appendages
(b) chitinous exoskeleton
(c)haemocoel
(d)nephridia

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149.Match the following
Set ISet II
A)Natural active immunity
B) Natural passive immunity
C) Artificial active immunity
D) Artificial passive immunity
The correct match is
(a) A-IV,B- III,C- I,D- II

I) Develops due to vaccination

II) Anti-rabies serum
III) Acquired after smallpox infection
IV) Transferred from mother to child

(b)A- III.B- I,C-IV,D- II

150.Dense regular connective tissue is present in

(a) Ligament and tendons
(c) Periosteum and endosteum
151.Match the following
List I List II
(Part of nephron)
A)Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C Des e di g li
of He le s loop
D As e di g li
of He le s loop
The correct match is
A
B
C
D
a)
III
IV
II
I
b)
III
IV
I
II
c)
IV
III
I
II
d)
IV
II
I
III

(c) A-III,B- IV ,C- I,D -II

(d) A-III,B- IV,C- II ,D -I

(b) Joint capsule a d Wha to s jell

(d) Pericardium and heart valves

(Function)
I) Impermeable to sodium ions
II) Impermeable to water
III) Facultative reabsorption of water , Na+
IV) Reabsorption of nutrients and Na+

152. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?

(a)some substrates can make enzymes change shape slightly
(b)all enzymes have the same pH optimum
(c)the active sites of all enzymes have the same three-dimensional shape
(d)all of the above
153.Which of the following statements is incorrect?
.
(a)In mammals, color vision depends upon three types of cones that are maximally sensitive to three different
wavelengths of light.
(b)The space anterior to the lens is filled with the vitreous humor.
(c)Suffering from a Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness.
(d)Accommodation involves the ability to change the width of the lens by contracting or relaxing certain muscles.

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154.Which sequence describes the systemic circulation?
(a Left e t i le ao ta a te ies ei s apilla ies
( Left e t i le ao ta a te ies apilla ies ei s
( ight e t i le pul o a t u k a te ies apilla ies ei s
(d ight e t i le pul o a t u k a te ies ei s apilla ies
155.In an electrocardiogram, the _____________ is produced by ventricular repolarization.
(a)P wave
(b)QRS complex
(c)S-T segment
(d)T wave
156.Where does ADH have its greatest effect?
(a)loop of Henle
(b)proximal convoluted tubule
157.Ootheca in Periplaneta americana is secreted by(a) Collateral glands
(b) Conglobate glands

(c)distal convoluted tubule

(c) Mushroom glands

(d)glomerulus

(d) Genital pouch of female

158.Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to outside the body.
(a)ductus deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis
(b)epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis
(c)ejaculatory duct - ductus deferens - epididymis - penis
(d)penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - ductus deferens
159.Arrange these steps of oogenesis in order
A)secondary oocyte divides to form a polar body and an egg cell.
B)primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
C)follicle is converted to a corpus luteum.
D)corpus luteum is converted to a corpus albicans.
(a)A B C D
(b)D C B A
(c)B A C D
(d)B A D C
160.Estrous cycles differ from menstrual cycles in that in estrous cycles:
(a)there is no menstruation.
(b)ovulation occurs while the animal is in estrous.
(c)female animals engage in sexual activity only in the estrous phase of the cycle.
(d)all of these.
161.Given below are four methods (A - D) and their modes of action (a - d) in achieving contraception. Select their
correct matching from the four options that follow:
Method
Mode of Action
A,The pill
a.prevents sperms reaching cervix
B.Condom
b.Prevents implantation
C.Vasectomy
c.Prevents ovulation
D.copper T
d.semen contains no sperms
(a)A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d)
(b)A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b)
(c)A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c)
(d)A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
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162.Which extraembryonic membrane gives rise to the fetal umbilical arteries and vein?
(a)allantois
(b)chorion
(c)yolk sac
(d)amnion
163.A population of oaks produces large, medium and small seeds. If birds eat mostly the small and large seeds, then
over time trees producing medium seeds will be more successful. This example illustrates ___.
(a)directional selection
(b) diversifying selection
(c) stabilizing selection
(d) neither direction, diversifying nor stabilizing selection
164.What is the frequency of the recessive allele in a population of 100 individuals with the following genotypes:
30 BB, 60 Bb, 10 bb?
(a)0.2
(b)0.4
(c)0.6
(d)0.8
165.Biotechnology medical products include
(a)insulin
(b)growth hormone

(c)tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

(d)all of these

166. The chemical released by the motor neuron at the neuromuscular synapse that initiates a muscle contraction
(a)acetylcholine.
(b)adrenaline
(c)dopamine
(d)noradrenaline
167. All of the connective tissue types listed below are in the category of special connective tissue except
(a)blood
(b)bone
(c)dense connective tissue
(d)cartilage
168. Match the following
List - IList II
A) RNA i
B) ELISA
C) cryIAc
D) cry I Ab
(a)A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I

I) Cotton bollworms
II) Meloidogyne resistance
III) Antigen antibody interaction
IV) Corn borer
(b)A-IV,B-III,C-II,D- I

(c)A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV

169. Carcinomas are tumors arising from

(a)epithelial tissue (b)bone
(c)muscle

(d)A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV.

(d)connective tissue

170.RNA intereference is a mechanism for silencing gene expression at the

(a)level of replication.
(b)level of transcription.
(c)post-transcriptional but pre-translational level (d)level of translation.
171. The inflammatory response includes all of the following except
(a)vessel constriction
(b)temperature increase
(c) increased blood flow
172. The immunoglobulin found in a mother's milk is
(a)IgM
(b)IgA (c)IgE
(d)IgG
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173. Erythroblastosis fetalis can result if
(a)the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is Rh(b)the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is Rh(c)the Rh- mother is sensitized to the Rh+ antigen and the baby is Rh+
(d)the Rh+ mother is sensitized to the Rh- antigen and the baby is Rh+
174. Opioids act in the brain via receptors for:
(a)acetylcholine.
(b)GABA

(c)endorphins (d)serotonin.

175. The globular shape of a protein is called the

(a)primary structure
(b)secondary structure (c)tertiary structure

(d)quaternary structure

176. Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true?

(a)Hormones are transported in the blood.
(b)All invertebrates have an open circulatory system.
(c)Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do.
(d)The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs.
177. Which species is incorrectly described?
(a)Australopithecus robustus -- Lucy; bipedal hominids; ancestral to the genus Homo
(b)Proconsul - may prove to be the first hominoid ancestor
(c)Homo erectus -- first hominid to use fire; Old Stone Age culture
(d)Homo habilis -- first hominid known to use tools
178. Which of the following represents the form of Plasmodium that is released from the erythrocyte by lysis?
(a)Trophozoite
(b)Schizont
(c)Merozoite
(d)Macrogametocyte
179. With combination birth control pills:
(a)relatively high levels of estrogen prevent ovulation by inhibiting FSH production.
(b)progestin keeps the cervical mucus thick so that it is difficult for sperm to penetrate.
(c)progestin changes the lining of the uterus so that implantation of a fertilized egg is unlikely.
(d)all of these.
180. Genetic drift
(a)reduces genetic variation in a population
(b)increases genetic variation in a population.
(c)has no effect on the genetic variation in a population
(d)causes extinction in a population.

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