Cell Biology Practice 2

Question

Answer

What is the function of karyopherins?

They transport macromolecules into or out of

the nucleus.

Ribosomes contain one copy each of 5.8S, 18S,

and 28S rRNA. The major mechanism ensuring
that each is produced in equal molar amounts is

the grouping of the DNA sequences encoding

each rRNA into a single rRNA gene.

Altered gene expression is one possible

explanation for the phenotypic consequences of
nuclear lamina diseases. The other is

mechanical stress

Most snoRNAs function as

guide RNAs.

The directionality of nuclear protein import is

determined by

an unequal distribution of Ran/GTP

Which of the following are not subcompartments

of the nucleus?

Lipid droplets

An important step in the import of the

transcription factor NF-B into the nucleus is
regulated by a

protease

The nuclear basket protein complex is a

component of the nuclear pore complex found

inside the nucleus

Chromosomes are distributed in the nucleus

in distinct territories

Which of the following does not take place in the

nucleus?

Translation

Classical nuclear localization signals are

composed primarily of

basic amino acids

The location of Ran GAP in association with the

cytoplasmic filaments of the nuclear pore results
GDP
in the conversion of the nucleotide bound to Ran
in the nucleus to
Which of the following statements about
heterochromatin is false?

It is transcriptionally active

Initial steps in the functional assembly of snRNPs

cytoplasm
occur in the
mRNA molecules are exported from the nucleus
to the cytoplasm via

a recruited protein complex

The outer nuclear membrane is contiguous with

the

endoplasmic reticulum

The fibrous proteins underlying the inner nuclear

lamins
membrane are
What is the average number of replication forks
per DNA replication cluster in a mammalian cell
nucleus?

Approximately 20

snRNPs that are responsible for pre-mRNA

splicing are assembled and stored in

both Cajal bodies and speckles.

Which of the following is a possible intermediate

during pre-rRNA processing?

An RNA molecule containing 5.8S + 28S

rRNAs

The nucleolus is the site where

ribosomal RNA is transcribed and ribosomes

are partially assembled.

The most prominent nuclear body is the

nucleolus

Protein transport into the nucleus occurs by

selective transport through the nuclear pores

Which of the following factors contributes to the

comparative ease of determining how pre-rRNA
is processed?

- The abundance of rRNA genes - The

abundance of ribosomes (510 million) that
need to be synthesized per cell cycle - The
grouping of rRNA genes into discrete nuclear
subcompartments, the nucleoli

The nuclear pore complex of proteins is

estimated to have a mass

about 30 times that of a ribosome

by a process(es) that remain controversial

Cargo proteins are transported through the Golgi
and may include elements of both vesicular
apparatus
transport and cisternal maturation.
The trans-Golgi network is a hub for protein
sorting to many destinations. Mitoch and chlorop
are examples of organelles that are not part of
Their evolutionary origin through
the sec pathway. What is the most plausible
endosymbiosis
explanation for their absence from the secretory
pathway?
The lumen of the ER is equivalent topologically to
extracellular space
the
Which of the following would you expect to find
at high concentrations in lysosomes?

Degradative enzymes

As they emerge from the ribosome, signal

sequences are recognized and bound by a(n)

signal recognition particle (SRP)

For many yeast proteins, posttranslational

translocation of proteins targeting the ER is

a process affecting many newly synthesized

proteins.

The major site at which membrane lipids are

synthesized is the

cytosolic side of the ER membrane

Which of the following is not a destination for

vesicles leaving the Golgi apparatus?

Mitochondria

Proteins that span the membrane multiple times

have multiple _______ that alternate with multiple internal signal sequences
transmembrane stop-transfer sequences
Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in

the uptake of extracellular molecules by

endocytosis and the transport of molecules
from the trans-Golgi network to the
lysosomes.

Which of the following lipids is/are synthesized in

Glycolipids
the Golgi apparatus?
In some proteins the only transmembrane
sequence is located C-terminally in the protein.
These proteins are recognized by

TRC40 (GET3)

Which of the following is not a contiguous

membrane domain?

Secretory granules

The trans-Golgi network is

the exit part of the Golgi where sorting of

proteins to the lysosomes, plasma
membrane, and cell exterior occurs.

N-linked glycosylation at an Asn-X-Ser/Thr

consensus sequence adds _______ sugar(s) in a
single step to the protein.

14

Which of the following statements about

transmembrane proteins is true?

They usually have one or more helices

spanning the membrane bilayer.

Proteins are translocated into the ER lumen

through an aqueous channel created by the

Sec61 protein.

The ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic

a sequence within the protein being
reticulum are targeted to the cytoplasmic side of
synthesized
the membrane via
Which of the following is not involved in the
specific targeting of proteins to lysosomes?

N-linked glycosylation in the ER

Calreticulin assists in folding glycoproteins that

contain one _______ residue

glucose

In cell fractionation experiments in which

subcellular organelles are separated on the basis
of their density, the smooth endoplasmic
lighter than
reticulum is _______ the rough endoplasmic
reticulum.
In the pulse-chase experiment, Palade studied
the pathway taken by secreted proteins in

Rough ER Golgi apparatus secretory

vesicles

pancreatic acinar cells by labeling them.Which of

the following represents the correct order in
which the proteins were identified?
The sequence Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu (KDEL) serves to
retain proteins in the ER by

binding to receptors within the membranes

of the ERGIC and Golgi, which retain them or
return them to the ER.

The process by which cells degrade their own

components by enclosing them in a cytosolic
membrane is

autophagy

The major model of vesicle fusion holds that

actual fusion of a vesicle with its target
SNAREs
membrane is driven by the interaction of pairs of
proteins called vesicle and target
Which of the following is not involved in protein
transport into mitochondria?

Vesicular transport

Where do phospholipids in mitochondrial

membranes such as phosphatidylcholine and
phosphatidylethanolamine originate?

In the ER

What is the major site of energy production in

the form of ATP in human cells?

The inner mitochondrial membrane

Which of the following plastids is a precursor to

all other plastids?

Proplastid

The amino terminal presequence on proteins

cleaved by mitochondrial matrix processing
imported into the mitochondrial inner membrane
peptidase (MPP).
is
What triggers lipid-containing etioplasts to
undergo complete development into
chloroplasts?

Light

_______ different translocon systems are used for

protein import from the chloroplast stroma into
the thylakoid lumen or membrane.

Three

In terms of its role in the generation of metabolic

energy, the inner membrane in mitochondria is
The thylakoid membrane
equivalent to which of the following in
chloroplasts?
Zellweger syndrome is caused by a defect in

protein import into peroxisomes.

The carotenoids, which give many plants their

yellow, orange, and red colors, are located in

chromoplasts.

Peroxisomes are involved in all of the following

reactions except

the biosynthesis of the enzyme catalase,

which breaks down hydrogen peroxide.

Assuming that human mitochondria contain

about 1,500 different proteins, approximately
what percentage of the mitochondrial proteome
is encoded by mitochondrial DNA?

1.00%

Mitochondria differ from other organelles such as

contain their own genomes.
lysosomes and the Golgi apparatus in that they
A deficiency in cardiolipin would lead to

increased proton flow across the inner

mitochondrial membrane.

The human mitochondrial genome encodes only

22 tRNAs. This limited array of tRNAs can read
the 64 possible triplet codons through extreme
nonuniversal mitochondrial
wobble in base pairing at the third codon position
and the use of a(n) _______ genetic code.
Chloroplast genomes contain approximately how
150
many genes?
If a drug blocked the activity of the mitochondrial
inner membrane proteins Tim9 and Tim10, which
-barrel proteins
of the following would most likely not be found in
the outer mitochondrial membrane?
Human diseases caused by mutations in
mitochondrial genomes

are inherited from the mother.

Which of the following is not a protein

translocon/translocase found in the
mitochondrial inner or outer membrane?

Toc75

Which statement correctly describes the

difference between the proton gradient across
the inner mitochondrial membrane and the
proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane
of chloroplasts?

The first creates an electrochemical gradient,

while the second is largely a chemical
gradient.

The major cation responsible for regulating actinCa2+

myosin contraction is
The approximate diameter of an actin filament is 7 nm.
Which of the following is not a function of actinbinding proteins?

Incorporation of microfilaments into the

extracellular matrix

Which of the following microtubules are attached

Kinetochore microtubules
to chromosomes?
In cell movement, branched actin filament
growth pushes against the cell membrane.
vinculin
Proteins involved in this process include all of the
following except

Which of the following cytosolic proteins in red

blood cells is the link between the plasma
membrane and the spectrin/actin network
beneath the cell surface?

Ankyrin

Which of the following is not true of the assembly

It requires ATP
of actin filaments?
Which of the following is not one of the functions
Protein translocation into the ER
of the cytoskeleton?
Which of the following statements about
intermediate filaments is true?

Rather than consisting of a single type of

protein, they can be made up of a number of
different proteins

Actin may be cross-linked into either parallel or

_______ bundles.

contractile

Which of the following statements about cilia is

false?

They are projections of the plasma

membrane supported by microfilaments.

The basis for muscle contraction is the

sliding of myosin and actin fibers past each

other.

The discovery that the intermediate filament

protein keratin is essential for mechanical
strength of epithelial cell layers was made in

transgenic mice.

Which of the following does not mediate the

association between actin filaments and the
plasma membrane?

Direct interaction between actin and plasma

membrane proteins

Like myosins, kinesins and dyneins are both

families of proteins. Which of the following
statements is true of all kinesins and dyneins?

They are microtubule-dependent motors

Kinesin and dynein are

microtubule motor proteins.

Whether a microtubule shrinks or grows is

determined by

the rate of GTP-bound tubulin addition

relative to the rate of tubulin GTP hydrolysis.

Which of the following statements about myosin I It links the actin bundles to the plasma
is true?
membrane in the microvilli of intestinal cells.
Myosin II is found in skeletal muscle and the
contractile ring. Other myosins do not form thick
filaments and are still capable of producing
movement To what do the tail(s) of myosin I and
myosin V bind?

Cargo such as membrane vesicles or

intermediate filaments

Cofilin plays a role in the

disassembly of actin filaments

A centrosome is

the major microtubule-organizing center in

animal cells.

Although Na+ is smaller than K+, its passage

through the K+ channel is blocked by the _______ selectivity
filter.
Which of the following statements about ABC
transporters is false?

Each member of the family is a Cl channel.

Membrane proteins are able to move

laterally within the plane of a membrane.

Transport of glucose into the intestinal

epithelium is driven by ion gradients established
by the

Na+-K+ pump

The resting plasma membrane potential as

described by the Nernst equation is the sum of
the movement of many ions. However, in
practice, the movement of _______, a single ion,
is the major component determining membrane
potential.

K+

The concentration of Na+ outside the cell is

Which of the following statements about the
about 30 times higher than inside the cell,
relative concentrations of Na+ and K+ inside and
and the concentration of K+ inside the cell is
outside of a typical mammalian cell is true?
10 to 30 times higher than outside the cell.
Which of the following will not solubilize a typical
Mildly hypertonic saline
peripheral membrane protein?
Mutations in the internalization signal of
adaptor proteins
endocytic receptors prevent their interaction with
LDL uptake by cells is one of the functions of

receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Which of the following are integral membrane

proteins that do not contain a transmembrane
helix?

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored
proteins

The ingestion of large particles by cells is a form

of endocytosis known as

phagocytosis.

Which of the following is not involved in receptorPseudopodia

mediated endocytosis?
Two examples of membrane lipids that are
present in small amounts are

glycolipids and phosphatidylinositol

Which of the following lipids are distinctly

enriched in lipid rafts?

Cholesterol and sphingolipids

What is the primary reason that mammalian red

blood cells are used in the study of the plasma
membrane?

They lack nuclei and membrane-bounded

organelles

The pH of endosomes and lysosomes is

acidic

A feature common to most transmembrane

proteins is

an -helical region of about 20 to 25

hydrophobic amino acids

Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion

in that

active transport involves the transport of

molecules up their concentration gradient

Which of the following statements about ion

channels is true?

They are opened either by the binding of

ligands or by changes in electric potential
across the membrane

Which of the following statements about the

glucose transporter is false?

Flow through it is unidirectional

The major function of adhesion proteins such as

fibronectin is to

link collagen, proteoglycans, and cells

containing integrins.

Homophilic interactions between cells involve

interactions

among adhesion molecules of the same

molecular class.

Adherens junctions and desmosomes may be

distinguished from each other on the basis of

the linkage of cadherins either to actin

filaments or to intermediate filaments,
respectively.

Cellulose, chitin, and hyaluronan are all

deposited extracellularly by

plasma membrane enzyme complexes

The cellcell interactions mediated by the

selectins, integrins, and most members of the Ig
superfamily are _______ interactions in which the
cytoskeletons of adjacent cells are not linked to
one another.

transient

A major function of tight junctions is to

seal the space between adjacent cells to

provide, for example, a barrier to sugar
diffusion across an epithelial cell layer.

Fibrous structural proteins of the extracellular

matrix are embedded in gels formed from
polysaccharides called

glycosaminoglycans (GAGs).

It forms a double helix, with two collagen

Which of the following statements about collagen
molecules wrapped around each other in a
is false?
ropelike structure.
What is the difference between Gram-positive
and Gram-negative bacteria?

Gram-positive bacteria are surrounded by a

single membrane, whereas Gram-negative
bacteria are surrounded by a double
membrane, with an outer membrane that is
porous to ions and small molecules.

During the biosynthesis and transport of collagen Type I procollagen cannot form the triple
from the endoplasmic reticulum through the
helical oligomers that are the core structure
Golgi apparatus to the cell surface, collagen
of any collagen oligomer.
fibrils form extracellularly. Which of the following

does not help to explain why this happens?

_______, although structurally different from gap
junctions in animal cell tissues, may be thought
Plasmodesmata
of as the functional equivalent of gap junctions in
plants.
The junctions between animal cells that allow the
free passage of molecules smaller than
gap junctions
approximately 1,000 daltons are called
The basic structural polysaccharide of fungal cell
chitin
walls, crab shells, and insect exoskeletons is
Animal cells are embedded in a(n)

extracellular matrix.

Specific recognition between cell types such as

leukocytes and endothelial cells of blood vessels
is mediated by cell-surface glycoproteins called

selectins

Which of the following is not one of the major

transmembrane proteins in tight junctions?

Thrombospondin

Primary plant cell walls are cross-linked by

pectin

A mutation in the bacterial gene encoding

crescentin would likely have an effect on which
type of bacteria?

Curved or spiral-shaped

Proteins of the _______ family link

transmembrane proteins of the tight junction to
actin.

zonula occludens

Integrins link extracellular matrix proteins either

directly or indirectly to all of the following
intracellular proteins except

laminin

Which of the following statements about

integrins is false?

Signals from the extracellular matrix activate

integrins to assume a head-group-extended
conformation.

Which of the following is not a therapeutic effect

of aspirin?

Stimulation of the growth of fibroblasts at the

site of a wound, thus aiding the healing
process

Which of the following signaling pathways allow

for direct cellcell signaling by transmembrane
proteins?

Notch

Which of the following is not a commonly

observed consequence of the binding of a
signaling molecule to its cell surface receptor?

Increased synthesis of the receptor

G protein-coupled receptors are important

molecules involved in signal transduction. Which

They generally contain seven membranespanning helices.

of the following statements about G proteincoupled receptors is true?

Which of the following steroid hormone(s) is/are
not secreted by the gonads?

Corticosteroids

An example of signaling by direct cellcell

interactions is

the Notch pathway

Most of the effects of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the

cell are mediated by

protein kinase A

Which of the following statements about protein

kinase A (PKA) is false?

PKA binds a total of four molecules of cAMP,

one on each of the four subunits.

Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases represent

critical molecules involved in growth and
differentiation. Which of the following is not a
common structural feature of all receptor
protein-tyrosine kinases?

A single polypeptide

In unstimulated cells, NF-B proteins are

maintained in an inactive state in the cytosol by
interactions with

Heterotrimeric G proteins are not the only

guanine nucleotide-binding proteins. Which of
the following also represents a family of GTPRas
binding proteins that act as monomers instead of
being a heterotrimeric compound?
Which of the following is an example of
endocrine signaling?

Insulin release by cells in the pancreas,

mediating an effect of glucose uptake by
muscle cells

The MEK kinase (MAP kinase/ERK kinase) is

unusual in that it

is a dual-specificity kinase, having the ability

to phosphorylate both threonines and
tyrosines

The signaling molecule nitric oxide (NO)

functions

by diffusing across the cell membrane and

changing the activities of intracellular
enzymes

SH2 domains are

protein domains that bind phosphotyrosinecontaining peptides.

Which of the following hormone(s) is/are not

synthesized from cholesterol?

Retinoic acid

Which of the following statements regarding

heterotrimeric G proteins in a resting state is
true?

GDP is bound to the subunit in a complex

with both the and subunits.

Integrins are transmembrane proteins that

the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton

connect
Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is synthesized from ATP by the
adenylyl cyclase
action of
The term paracrine signaling refers to

signaling between cells located close to each

other

Which of the following statements about G

protein signaling is false?

The subunit becomes deactivated when

the hormone dissociates from the receptor

What is the difference between

neurotransmitters and neuropeptides?

Neurotransmitters are small hydrophilic

molecules and neuropeptides are small
proteins.

In the absence of growth factor, most animal

cells will stop the cell cycle at a restriction point
in what stage?

G1 phase

Which of the following statements about cyclin B It cycles between active and inactive states
is false?
in the cell cycle.
The G2 cell cycle checkpoint detects

unreplicated or damaged DNA

Which of the following are not phosphorylated by

Histone H3
the Cdk1/cyclin B complex during mitosis?
Which of the following is not involved in
metaphase II arrest during meiosis?

An increase in cytoplasmic calcium levels

At fertilization, the sperm binds to a receptor on

the surface of the egg and fuses with the plasma
The progression of metaphase II to anaphase
membrane, initiating the development of a new
is triggered by the activation of MPF.
diploid organism. Which of the following
statements about fertilization is false?
During what phase of meiosis does
recombination between maternal and paternal
chromosomes occur?

Prophase I

Most cells in an adult animal are

in G0, or quiescent, phase.

The phase of the cell cycle that corresponds to

the interval between mitosis and initiation of
DNA replication is referred to as the

G1 phase

Which of the following is not one of the phases of

S phase
mitosis?
The sequence of DNA on each chromosome
where the sister chromatids are held together is
called the

centromere

The spindle assembly checkpoint monitors the

Metaphase
alignment of chromosomes in the mitotic spindle

during mitosis. If the chromosomes do not align

properly, the spindle assembly checkpoint will
arrest cells in what phase of mitosis?
DNA content can be determined using a method
of flow cytometry that can determine 2n or 4n
states of cells based on cell counting and
G1 phase
fluorescent labeling of DNA. Which of the
following phases would be identified through flow
cytometry as 2n?
Cell cycle checkpoints ensure that complete
genomes are transmitted to daughter cells. DNA
damage checkpoints are found in all of the
following phases except

M phase.

Which of the following statements regarding

cyclin D is false?

It is always present and its activity is

regulated by fluctuating levels of Cdk4 and
Cdk6.

In which of the following cell types do G1 and G2

Early embryonic cells
not take place?
Interphase is defined as

the G1, G2, and S phases

The p21 and p15 proteins are examples of

Cdk inhibitors

You perform an experiment by incubating a

radiolabeled nucleotide into the medium of a
culture of cells. The cells that take up the
radiolabel would be expected to be in what
phase of the cell cycle?

S phase

The progression from metaphase to anaphase is

triggered by

ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis of key

proteins

In yeast, START triggers the progression from G1

to S. Which of the following are involved in
regulating START? a. Nutrients b. Mating factors
c. Cell size d. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following products would result from

caspase cleavage of a protein with the amino
AVEELCSTWYYD + LLCHMRTL
acid sequence AVEELCSTWYYDLLCHMRTL?
Which of the following is/are not considered a
viable of stem cells?

Tumors

The Bcl-2 family of proteins is divided into three

functional groups that contain and share as
many as four Bcl-2 homology domains (BH
domains). Which of the following is common to
all members of the Bcl-2 family?

BH3

Which of the following statements about cloning

by somatic cell nuclear transfer is false?

The cloned embryo is genetically identical to

the foster mother.

Inhibitors of apoptosis (IAPs) regulate caspases.

Which of the following statements about IAPs is
false?

IAPs are activated through the p53 pathway.

What is the best rationale for the use of

therapeutic cloning to replace defective cells or
tissues in a patient?

The transplanted cells are identical to those

of the recipient who donated the adult
nucleus, so complications of immune
rejection are avoided.

The PI 3-kinase pathway is important in

countering apoptosis in healthy cells and
promotes cell survival. Which of the following
statements about the PI 3-kinase pathway is
false?

Activated Akt phosphorylates and activates

Bad

In reference to stem cells, which of the following

statements is false?

Stem cells in organs can only differentiate

into the tissue in which they are located.

Which of the following stem cells have the

capacity to give rise to all the differentiated cell
types of adult organisms?

Embryonic stem cells

Bone marrow transplants are used to treat

patients with which of the following diseases?

Aplastic anemia, Hemoglobin disorders,

Immune deficiencies

Which of the following diseases would not be an

ideal target for therapeutic cloning?

HIV

Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, occurs in

all of the following cases except

in cells damaged by injury.

Which of the following events is not associated

with apoptosis?

Cell cycle reentry

Some differentiated cells retain the ability to

proliferate as needed to repair damaged tissue
throughout the life of the organism. Which of the Neurons
following cell types do not retain this unique
ability?
Murine embryonic stem cells are grown in the
presence of a growth factor. What growth factor
is generally used for this?

LIF (leukemia inhibitory factor)

The following is a signal transduction cascade

ending with activation of apoptosis by the BH3only proteins PUMA and Noxa: Double-stranded
DNA damage; Chk2; _______; PUMA/Noxa;
apoptosis. Which protein belongs in the blank
space?

p53

TNF and related cytokines can directly induce

apoptosis. Which of the following statements
about TNF-mediated induction of apoptosis is
true?

TNF binds a trimeric receptor complex on the

surface of the membrane, Upon receptor
binding, caspase-8 is activated through an
adaptor protein, Caspase-8 activates Bid,
which in turn activates Bax and Bak and then
feeds into the mitochondrial pathway.

Which of the following statements about

caspases is false?

They predominantly break up Golgi

membranes, which in turn release other
caspases to cleave nuclear lamins and
cytoskeleton proteins.

Which of the following cells cannot develop from

hematopoietic stem cells?

Satellite cells

Which of the following statements is true in

reference to Bax and Bak, two members of the
Bcl-2 family?

When activated, Bax and Bak form oligomers

in the outer membrane of mitochondria,
leading to the release of cytochrome c.

Which of the following is not one of the ways in

which oncogenes incorporated into viral
genomes can differ from their normal cellular
counterparts (proto-oncogenes)?

They can be present in many tandem copies,

as opposed to the single copy present in the
cell.

The oncogenic mutation occurs in the

extracellular amino terminal end of
The PDGF receptor is a proto-oncogene (a normal
receptors., The oncogenic mutation
cellular gene that, when mutated, becomes
constitutively activates the intracellular
oncogenic). Which of the following statements
kinase activity , The oncogenic mutation
about the PDGF receptor is true?
generates a receptor that is no longer
dependent on ligands
Which of the following tumor suppressor genes
has been associated with colon cancer?

APC, p53, Smad2 or Smad4

The most lethal type of cancer in the United

States is cancer of the

lung

Pioneering work by Judah Folkman led to a class

of anticancer drugs, such as sunitinib and
sorafenib. These drugs function by

inhibiting the formation of new blood vessels

in the vicinity of the tumor.

Which of the following statements concerning

the difference between cancer cells and normal
cells is false?

Cancer cells undergo normal differentiation,

but excessive proliferation

Which of the following statements about the

tumor suppressor gene p53 is false?

It is the cause of the rare childhood cancer of

the eye, retinoblastoma

Oncogenic conversion of the two dimerizing

proto-oncogene components of the AP-1
transcription factor can lead to abnormal cell
proliferation. Which of the following two gene

Fos and Jun

products form the active AP-1 transcription factor

complex?
Which of the following statements about
papillomaviruses is false?

They have been shown to cause both benign

and malignant breast cancer.

Which of the following statements about cancers Lymphomas are malignancies from colon
is false?
tissue.
Infection with which of the following viruses is
associated with development of liver cancer in
humans?

Hepatitis B viruses

PTEN is a tumor suppressor gene in the Akt

signaling pathway. Which of the following
statements about PTEN/Akt is false?

PIP2 can be oncogenically mutated to induce

cell survival.

What is the difference between a benign tumor

and a malignant tumor?

A malignant tumor has the ability to spread

to other tissues and to initiate tumors at
secondary sites, whereas a benign tumor
does not spread.

Which of the following has not been found to

cause cancer?

Bacteria

The more than 40 oncogenic retroviruses that

have been identified share expression of all of
the following genes except

src.

Which of the following genes is expressed by

SV40 (simian virus 40) and induces
transformation?

The gene encoding large T antigen

Angiogenesis contributes to cancer development providing nutrients and oxygen to tumors

by
and by facilitating metastasis
Burkitt's lymphoma is caused almost exclusively
by

translocation of the c-myc proto-oncogene.

The majority of oncogene proteins are

components of signaling pathways that

regulate cell proliferation.

People infected with HIV are more susceptible to

acquiring certain types of cancer because

these individuals are immunosuppressed