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I recently received the following e-mail question It's fairly simple, but on further
analysis I find it most disturbing:
Is it possible to find out who changed IV and why and for how long?
Here's the background: Last week I posted a discussion based on a readers
question about an iron condor position that immediately lost money (it's worth
reading as background for today's post). Because he expected to collect theta
every day especially when the underlying asset did not undergo a large move.
Basically, he didn't understand how this loss could have happened. The question
above is the result of my telling him that the implied volatility of the options had
increased.
In other words, he was trading iron condors as if they were money in the bank.
An increase in IV took him by surprise, prompting today's questions: Who is
responsible for the higher IV? Why was it changed? How long will it last?
Every question deserves an answer, especially when an explanation may turn
into an 'aha moment' for the questioner. What truly disturbs me about this
innocent-looking question is that it demonstrates a complete lack of
understanding of how the markets work.
When playing a game or when practicing some trade ideas with play money, there
is no question that's out of line. There are two types of trader who use papermoney accounts:
The expert who is fine-tuning strategies, looking for any additional small
edge
The beginner is expected to be learning as he/she goes. Reading, taking
classes, attending webinars and asking questions. I'oveheard very
Supply and demand is often 'blamed' for IV changes. Look at it this way. If
option buyers and that means calls and/or puts far outnumber sellers, then
sellers must demand a higher price even when the stock has not moved. If
buying continues, prices move higher again. This is normal market behavior, no
matter what product is being traded
Market maker positions: When they sell options to the buyers, their
primary job is to reduce risk. They must buy other options, preferably on the
same underlying
It's true that most of today's traders use computers to generate orders to buy/sell
options in different underlying assets. However, after selling to public or
institutional buyers, the market makers preferable next move is to buy, rather
than sell more options. So they raise their bids and offers. To do that, they raise
the estimated future volatility estimate built into their trading algorithm. This is not
a conspiracy. Each trader independently raises or lowers bid according to his/her
need to own/sell vega, gamma, theta delta, etc.
Those algorithms tell their quote-generating computers to raise or lower the
trader's bid/ask quote
It's true that different market makers make different quotes, but when there is
more demand for the options, then prices move higher
buy puts or calls [Remember that puts are calls and calls are puts], the purchase
of any option can drive prices higher when there are enough buyers.
We have all seen SPX volatility (as measured by VIX) decline from over 80 to 15
over the past two years. And even traders who have not been in the market that
long have seen IV decline over recent times. They've seen it, but do they
understand why this has happened? Today's questioner apparently has not
given it a moment's thought. It happened because the markets have been dead.
Extreme low volatility begets option sellers. But, at some point, sellers become
buyers.
I don't know if the decline in IV is ended, or if the current increase is just a bump
in the road. I do know that someone traded an iron condor without any
understanding of what could happen to his position other he would collect time
decay.
The
probability of a stock price is proportionate to the height of the curve.
Stock
Prices
SSS
40
45
50
55
VVV
30
40
50
60
Now consider 2 hypothetical stocks, currently at $50 per share. Stock SSS is
relatively stable, and has ranged between $40 and $60 per share over the past
year, whereas stock VVV is more volatile, and has ranged from $30 to $70.
Further, assume that the chance is 1/5 that either stock will be at some specific
price within its historical range, listed in the table, at expiration. Obviously, a
call for VVV with a strike of $50 is going to command a higher premium than
the same call for stock SSS for the same expiration date, because there is a
20% chance that the VVV call premium will be worth $20 per share, and a 40%
chance that it will be worth at least $10 per share, the most that the call for
SSS will be worth. It is true that there is a chance that VVV will be at $30 per
share, and that SSS will be no less than $40 per share, but this doesn't matter,
because if the stock price is less than or equal to the strike price, then the
options will expire worthless, and the chance that they will expire worthless is
50% for both stocks. Thus, if the VVV call has a chance of paying $20 per
share, but the most that the SSS call will pay is $10 per share, and the chance
that they will expire worthless is the same, then it makes sense that the VVV
call is going command a higher premium, because it has a greater potential
payoff.
strike price
interest rates
any dividend
Therefore, volatility can be calculated with the BlackScholes equation or from another option-pricing model
by plugging in the known factors into the equation and
solving for the volatility that would be required to yield
the market price of the call premium. This is what is
known as implied volatility. Implied volatility does
not have to be calculated by the trader, since most
option trading platforms provide it for each option
listed.
Diagram showing the difference in the expected price distribution about the mean for a
volatile and a non-volatile stock.
Volatility Skew
Volatility skew is a result of different implied
volatilities for different strike prices and for whether
the option is a call or put. Volatility skew further
illustrates that implied volatility depends only on the
option premium, not on the volatility of the underlying
asset, since that does not change with either different
strike prices or option type.
How the volatility skew changes with different strike
prices depends on the type of skew, which is influenced
by the supply and demand for the different options.
A forward skew is exhibited by higher implied
volatilities for higher strike prices. A reverse skew is
one with lower implied volatilities for higher strike
prices. A smiling skew is exhibited by an implied
volatility distribution that increases for strike prices
that are either lower or higher than the price of the
underlying. A flat skew means that there is no skew:
implied volatility is the same for all strike prices. The
options of most underlying assets exhibit a reverse
skew, reflecting the fact that slightly out-of-the-money
options have a greater demand than those that are in
the money. Furthermore, out-of-the-money options
have a higher time value, so volatility will have a
greater effect for options that only have time value.
Thus, a call and a put at the same strike price will have
Implied Volatility - IV
Another important thing to note is that implied volatility does not predict the
direction in which the price change will go. For example, high volatility means a
large price swing, but the price could swing very high or very low or both. Low
volatility means that the price likely won't make broad, unpredictable changes.
Implied volatility is the opposite of historical volatility, also known as realized
volatility or statistical volatility, which measures past market changes and their
actual results. It is also helpful to consider historical volatility when dealing with
an option, as this can sometimes be a predictive factor in the option's future price
changes.
Implied volatility also affects pricing of non-option financial instruments, such as
an interest rate cap, which limits the amount by which an interest rate can be
raised.