Aerodynamics and Systems Guide

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Module 11
Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
1.
As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure

is unaffected
moves aft
moves forward
2.
Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

ailerons
rudder
elevators
3.
If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you

position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?
To the left
To the right
To the centre
4.
If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would

you move the left aileron trim tab to correct?
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
Up
Down
5.
When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot

in the wing for?
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To increase the lift

To re-energise the boundary layer
To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts
6.
With respect to differential aileron control, which of

the following is true?
The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the
down going aileron
The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than
the up going aileron
The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the
same angle
7.
The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and

will therefore provide a side-load
only when the rudder is moved
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or
rudder movement
only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
8.
An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer

control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be
moved up causing the left aileron to move down
moved up causing the left aileron to move up
moved down causing the left aileron to move down
9.
The purpose of a slot in a wing is to

provide housing for the slat
speed up the airflow and increase lift
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary
layer
10.
Large flap deployment
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper

surface
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower
surface
has no effect on spanwise flow
1)
2)
3)
4)
Answers for Questions 1 - 10

moves aft
Comment/Reference: Assuming that the aircraft is to remain
at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as
it speeds-up. This alone will move the C of P rearwards, in
accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory.
ailerons
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th
Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 1-12
To the left
Comment/Reference: Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th
Edition Page 43
Up
Comment/Reference: Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th
Edition Page 43
5)
To re-energise the boundary layer

Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd
Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 1-32
6)
The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than

the up going aileron
Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301.
AC65-15A pg 41 rh column
7)
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or

rudder movement
Comment/Reference: Rudder deflection or yaw
8)
moved up causing the left aileron to move down

Comment/Reference: Down aileron required - which requires up
trim
9)
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary

layer
Comment/Reference: A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate
the air and re-energise boundary layer

10)
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower

surface
Comment/Reference: Flaps increase the pressure differential
between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and
spanwise flow
Questions 11 20
11.
Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls

first?
Tip stalls first
Root stalls first
Both stall together
12.
During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The

aircraft would have a tendency to fly
right wing low
nose up
left wing low
13.
With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service

ceiling will
not be affected
rise
lower
14.
Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the

angle of attack of a wing?
Decrease the angle of attack
Increase the angle of attack
No effect on angle of attack
15.
To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges

are
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
16.
With reference to differential aileron control

drag decreases on the outer wing
drag increases on the inner wing
drag increases on the outer wing
17.
Dutch role is movement in

yaw and roll
yaw and pitch
pitch and roll
18.
If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
C of P moves back
aircraft becomes too sensitive
19.
Ailerons control the aircraft in the

longitudinal plane
directional plane
lateral plane
20.
An anti-balance tab is used

for trimming the aircraft
to give more feel to the controls
to relieve stick loads
Answers for Questions 11 20

1)
Tip stalls first

Comment/Reference: The tip of a swept wing stalls first
2)
right wing low

Comment/Reference: The leading wing (left wing) has
increased lift, causing it to rise
3)
rise
Comment/Reference: As ambient temperature drops, density
increases and aircraft performance increases
4)
Decrease the angle of attack

Comment/Reference:
5)
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root

Comment/Reference:
6)
drag increases on the inner wing

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett 4th
Edition Page 41
A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-11
7)
yaw and roll

Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291
8)
aircraft returns to trimmed attitude

Comment/Reference:
9)
lateral plane
Comment/Reference: Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN' the
lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis.
10)
to give more feel to the controls

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
1-29 & http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/servo_tab
Questions 21 30
21.
Slats
act as an air brake
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
22.
Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the

extension of flaps in flight
nose should be raised, increasing AoA
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same
AoA
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
23.
Flight spoilers
can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw
in a turn
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase
lift on that wing
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent
without reduction of airspeed
24.
If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would

you move the elevator trim tab?
Up to move elevator up
Down to move elevator up
Up to move elevator down
25.
Wing tip vortices are strongest when
flying high speed straight and level flight

flying into a headwind
flying slowly at high angles of attack
26.
An example of a secondary flight control is a

elevator
spoiler
flap
27.
A balance tab
effectively increases the area of the control surface
is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft
assists the pilot to move the controls
28.
Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?

Both wings
Both wings
aileron
Both wings
aileron
29.
have an equal increase in drag

increase drag but the wing with the down-going
increases more
increase drag but the wing with the up-going
increases more
Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

Slot
Split
Fowler
30.
An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of

attack is
high
low
high or lo

1)
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P technician airframe
textbook page 1-32
2)
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA Comment/Reference: The

main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot
can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better
view of the runway.
http://en.wikipedia.ort/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
3)
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent

without reduction of airspeed
4)
Down to move elevator up
5)
flying slowly at high angles of attack
6)
flap
Comment/Reference: A spoiler is sometimes a 'primary flight
control' when it is used for roll control in conjunction
with the ailerons. On the other hand, a flap is usually not
considered to be a flight control at-all, rather, a high
lift device. So take your pick!
7)
assists the pilot to move the controls

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 129
8)
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going
aileron increases more
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 1-26 & AC65-15A pg 41, top paras right side.
Fowler
Page 20 & AC65-15A pg 48
10)
high
Questions 31 40
31.
On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll

to the right is caused by
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted
left and right spoilers extending
left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted
32.
A split flap increases lift by increasing

the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
the surface area
the camber of the top surface
33.
When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
pitch nose up
sink
pitch nose down
34.
Dutch roll is
a type of slow roll
a combined yawing and rolling motion
primarily a pitching instability
35.
On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is

caused by
increasing tailplane incidence

decreasing tailplane incidence
up movement of the elevator trim tab
36.
A leading edge slat is a device for

decreasing wing drag
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
37.
A Krueger flap is
a leading edge slat which extends forward
a leading edge flap which hinges forward
a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower
38.
The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is

slower moving, in relation to the rest of the airflow, is
known as
boundary layer
none of the above are correct
camber layer
39.
When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an

aerofoil decreases, what takes place?
Pressure increases, lift increases
Pressure increases, lift decreases
Pressure decreases, lift increases
40.
What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin

friction?
Aspect ratio
Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
Fineness ratio

1)
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted
2)
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion

Textbook page 1-30 & AC65-15A pg 48
3)
pitch nose down

Comment/Reference: Due to the centre of pressure moving aft
4)
a combined yawing and rolling motion
5)
decreasing tailplane incidence
6)
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
7)
a leading edge flap which hinges forward

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician
Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64
8)
boundary layer
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 48
9)
Pressure increases, lift decreases
10) Fineness Ratio

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 32 under Shape of the Airfoil
third paragraph says Fineness ratio is the main controlling
factor.
Questions 41 50
41.
Changes in aircraft weight

will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon
speed
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the
associated lift change
42.
When an aircraft stalls

lift decreases and drag increases
lift and drag increase
lift increases and drag decreases
43.
The aircraft stalling speed will

only change if the MTWA were changed
increase with an increase in weight
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is
dependant upon the angle of attack
44.
In a bank and turn

extra lift is not required
extra lift is required
extra lift is not required if thrust is increased
45.
The angle of attack at which stall occurs

cannot be varied, it is always constant
can be varied by using flaps and slats
depends on the weight of the aircraft
46.
The primary function of a flap is

to alter the lift of an aerofoil
to trim the aircraft longitudinally
to alter the position of the centre of gravity
47.
The stalling speed of an aircraft

is increased when it is lighter
does not change
is increased when it is heavier
48.
A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one

wing in flight will lead to
a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the
elevators
a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of
the ailerons
a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of
the rudder
49.
With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the

stalling angle of a wing
decreases
increases
remains the same
50.
Downward displacement of an aileron

increases the angle at which its wing stalls
has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects
the stalling speed on that wing
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall

1)
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the

associated lift change
2)
lift decreases and drag increases
3)
increase with an increase in weight

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stall_(flight)
4)
extra lift is required

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wing_loading
5)
can be varied by using flaps and slats

Comment/Reference:
6)
to alter the lift of an aerofoil

Textbook page 1-30 & AC65-15A pg 47 High-Lift Devices
7)
is increased when it is heavier

Comment/Reference:
8)
a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by
of the ailerons
use
9)
decreases
10)
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall

Comment/Reference: An aileron displacement has a similar
effect on stall angle as the deployment of
flaps
Questions 51 60
51.
Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flapinduced downwash on the tailplane
will tend
may cause
initial
will tend
52.
to cause an aircraft nose down pitch

a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the
tailplane load
to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension

of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it would be
necessary to
keep the pitch attitude constant
raise the nose
lower the nose
53.
Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the
wing?
Flap and slat
Flap
Slat
54.
The tropopause exists at about

36,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
30,000 ft
55.
Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing

are such that there is
decrease in gradient with wing speed

no change in gradient with wing speed
an increase in gradient with wing speed
56.
If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim

tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
to the centre
to the right, moving the rudder left
to the left, moving the rudder right
57.
Instability giving roll and yaw

is dutch roll
is lateral stability
is longitudinal stability
58.
Vortex generators are fitted to

move transition point rearwards
move transition point forwards
advance the onset of flow separation
59.
Leading edge flaps

decrease stalling angle of the wing
do not change the stalling angle
increase stalling angle of the wing
60.
Krueger flaps are on

the trailing edge
the leading edge
either the leading or training edge

1)
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downwash
2)
lower the nose

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
3)
Slat
Comment/Reference: AC65
4)
36,000 ft.
5)
decrease in gradient with wing speed

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lift-to-drag_ratio
6)
to the left, moving the rudder right
7)
is Dutch roll
8)
move transition point forwards
9)
increase stalling angle of the wing

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slats
10)
the leading edge
Questions 61 70
61.
Sweepback will
decrease lateral stability
not affect lateral stability
increase lateral stability
62.
A plain flap
does not increase the wing area on deployment
forms part of lower trailing edge
is attached to the leading edge of the wing
63
A split flap, when deployed

increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from
intermediate to fully down
is used only on high speed aircraft
increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag
64.
Air above Mach 0.7 is

incompressible
compressible only when above the speed of sound
compressible
65.
Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase

pressure to increase, velocity to increase
pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
66.
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a

constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
not change
decrease
increase
67.
A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock

induced
tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
root stall on a delta wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
68.
A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with

an angle of attack of 0. A shock wave will form
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the
point of maximum camber
on the upper surface only and move aft
69.
At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer

is
subsonic
supersonic
stationary
70.
Before an aircraft reaches critical mach

the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward

1)
increase lateral stability

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
2)
does not increase the wing area on deployment
3)
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from

intermediate to fully down
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flap_(aircraft)
4)
compressible
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot, 2nd
Ed Page123. Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Ed Page 385
5)
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase

Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Ed
Page 340 & AC65-15A pg 59
6)
decrease
Comment/Reference: Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING
altitude, so mach number will decrease.
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_number
7)
root stall on a delta wing aircraft

Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Ed
Page 45 & http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
8)
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft

Comment/Reference: Shockwaves form on upper and lower
surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature, gradually
moving back.
9)
subsonic
Comment/Reference: The definition of the boundary layer is
'airflow ranges from zero to 99% of free flow speed'
However, by same definition, some flow in the boundary layer
is ALWAYS less than Mach 1

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boundary_layer
10)
the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear

Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight 10th Ed Barnard and
Philpott Pg 341
Questions 71 80
71.
On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound

be the greatest?
20,000 ft
10,000 ft
Sea level
72.
Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach

Number of an aerofoil?
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
73.
As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the

centre of pressure tends to
move rearward
move forward
turn into a shock wave
74.
Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will

decrease its speed and
increase temperature and decrease density
decrease temperature and increase density
increase temperature and increase density
75.
On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the
boundary layer is
stationary
supersonic
thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1
76.
At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and

below the wing
at the leading edge
at the trailing edge
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
77.
A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will

warn when coming to limits of upper envelope
warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded
warn when Mcrit is reached
78.
Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient

remains the same
increases
decreases
79.
At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals

such as aluminium, become brittle
will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
80.
Mach trim operates

along the longitudinal axis
to reduce Dutch roll
along the lateral axis
Answers for Questions 71 - 80

1)
Sea level
2)
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_Mach_number
3)
move rearward
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
4)
increase temperature and increase density

Comment/Reference: Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Ed
Page 326 fig 11.4 & AC65
5)
stationary
Comment/Reference: Boundary layer at supersonic speeds is
very thin and considered negligible. Part of it is
stationary. www.wikipedia.org
6)
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 59-60
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shock_wave
7)
warn when Mcrit is reached

Comment/Reference: Mach overspeed warning (aka 'henpecker' cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit (shown by the
barber pole on some ASIs)
8)
increases
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_drag
9)
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerodynamic_heating
10)
along the longitudinal axis

Comment/Reference:
www.aerospaceweb.org/question/dynamics/q0137.shml
Questions 81 90
81.
To increase critical mach number

the wings are swept
tailerons are fitted
elevons are fitted
82.
An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big

increase in drag in straight and level flight, what would be
the most probable cause?
Severe head winds
Atmospheric conditions
Aircraft reached its critical mach number
83.
A Mach Trimmer is a device which

switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic
speed range
prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic
region
84.
Critical Mach No. may be increased by

sweeping back the wing
using more powerful engines
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing
85.
Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is

sonic upstream and downstream
subsonic upstream, sonic downstream

sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
86.
Mach Number is defined as

speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound
IAS divided by the local speed of sound
TAS divided by local speed of sound
87.
The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed

aircraft is to
decrease boundary layer
decrease wave drag
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
88.
Critical Mach Number is defined as

that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the
airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic
the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go
supersonic
89.
The transonic region is a region of

mixed airflow
all subsonic
all supersonic
90.
Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always

supersonic
the same as upstream
subsonic

1)
the wings are swept

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
2)
Aircraft reached its critical mach number

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_Mach_number
3)
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic

region
Comment/Reference: Pallet, Auto Flt Control 4th Ed, pg 50 &
www.aerospace.org
4)
sweeping back the wing

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swept_wing
5)
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream

Comment/Reference: AC65-12A
6)
TAS divided by local speed of sound

Page 66 & AC65
7)
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
8)
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the

airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_mach
9)
mixed airflow
10)
supersonic
Questions 91 100
91.
Wave drag
increases in the supersonic region
increases in the transonic region
increases at the low speed stall
92.
For increased Mcrit

decrease sweepback
decrease true airspeed
decrease thickness/chord ratio
93.
Symptoms of shock stall are

buffet, loss of control, and instability
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of
pressure
compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
94.
Sweepback increases Mcrit by

decreasing the
the aerofoil
decreasing the
the aerofoil
increasing the
the aerofoil
95.
amount of airflow over the lowest point on

section
amount of airflow over the highest point on
section
amount of airflow over the highest point on
section
Mach number is
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea
level
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the
same atmospheric conditions
the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same
atmospheric conditions
96.
The critical Mach number is

the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of
sound at some point on the aircraft
97.
Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will

start to decrease
remain the same
start to increase
98.
A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No.

will be
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
99.
An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually

experience
a nose down pitch
a nose up pitch
an oscillation in pitch
100. Tuck-under can be counteracted by

aileron reversal
trim tabs
mach trim

1)
increases in the transonic region

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_drag
2)
decrease thickness/chord ratio

Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/HighSpeed/Page2e.html
3)
buffet, loss of control, and instability

http://aerodyn.org/HighSpeed/shock-stall.html
4)
decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on

the aerofoil section
Comment/Reference: see question 2 link
5)
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the

same atmospheric conditions
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight
Control, David Harris Page 19
http://en.wikipedip.ort/wiki/Mach_number
6)
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of
sound at some point on the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Critical_mach
7)
start to increase
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave-Drag
8)
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio

9)
a nose down pitch

Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/HighSpeed/Page6.html
10)
mach trim
Questions 101 110

101. What causes tuck-under?
Shock stall
Aileron reversal
Flap-back effect
102. When does a shock stall occur?
When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive
103. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the
temperature in the troposphere
increases
remains constant
decreases
104. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally
supersonic
sonic
subsoni
105. Downstream of a normal shock wave
pressure and temperature decrease
pressure decreases temperature increases
pressure and temperature increase
106. Speed of sound varies with

temperature
pressure
altitude
107. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always
the same as upstream
subsonic
supersonic
108. Increased sweepback
improves tip stall characteristics
decreases stability
raises Mcrit
109. Aerodynamic heating
increases as a function of airspeed
decreases with altitude
increases with skin friction
110. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the
transonic region
hydraulic powered elevators may be used
an all moving tailplane may be used
Frise ailerons may be used

1)
Shock stall
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck
2)
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane

Comment/Reference:
http://aerodyn.org/HighSpeed/shock-stall.html
3)
decreases
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Troposphere
4)
supersonic
5)
pressure and temperature increase

6)
temperature
7)
subsonic
8)
raises Mcrit
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamich1/HighSpeed/Page2e.html
9)
increases as a function of airspeed

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aerodynamic_heating
10)
an all moving tailplane may be used

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tailplane#Control
Questions 111 120

111. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a
constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
remain the same
decrease
increase
112. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an
aircraft flies through the transonic region, fuel is pumped
backwards
sideways
forwards
113. To make flying controls more effective at high speed
area rule is used
wing fences are used
vortex generators are used
114. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a
constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
remain the same
increase
decrease
115. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will
increase
decrease
remain constant
116. Mach number equals the ratio of

sonic speed to indicated airspeed
altitude to airspeed
true airspeed to local sonic speed
117. Tuck-under is caused by
root stall on a swept wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
118. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to
decrease drag
decrease Mcrit
increase Mcrit
119. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock
wave will appear initially
at the trailing edge
at the leading edge
near the point of maximum curvature
120.
In the transonic speed range

the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant
the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back
the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory

1)
decrease
Comment/Reference:
2)
backwards
Comment/reference: Pallet, Auto Flight Cont pg 51 &
3)
vortex generators are used

4)
remain the same

5)
decrease
Control Systems, David Harris Page 19 & see question 1 link
6)
true airspeed to local sonic speed

Control Systems, David Harris Page 19 & see question 1 link
7)
root stall on a swept wing aircraft

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mack_Tuck
8)
increase Mcrit
Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/HighSpeed/Page2e.html
9)
near the point of maximum curvature

Comment/Reference:
http://selair.selkirk.bc.ca/aerodynamics1/HighSpeed/Page2b.html
10)
the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory

Questions 121 130

121. Zone 320 under the ATA system is
horizontal stabiliser
central fuselage
vertical stabilizer
122. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between
component and earth is
1/50 ohms
50 milliohms
0.005ohms
123. The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from
lightning strike
ice build-up
accidental damage
124. Engine mounts provide for
lateral movement
torsional movement
longitudinal movement
125. Dyna engine mounts
prevent all vibration from engine to airframe
reduce vibration from engine to airframe
are constructed from plastic
126. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft

prevented during a lightning strike?
Special paint
Bonding Strip
Earthing Strap
127. Tension is the stress of
twisting
crush or compression
elongating or stretch
128. A Fuselage Station is a
longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
lateral point on aircraft fuse
lateral point on aircraft wing
129. Composite materials are bonded by
aluminium wire
special paint
copper wire
130. ATA Zone 100 is
upper fuselage
left-hand wing
lower fuselage

1)
vertical stabiliser
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Maintenance and Repair
Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22
2)
50 milliohms
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.8
3)
ice build-up
Comment/Reference: CS 29.859 (i) (2)
4)
longitudinal movement
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance Page 269
5)
reduce vibration from engine to airframe

Comment/Reference:
6)
Bonding Strip
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics 5th Ed
Eismin Page 343 & www.lightningdiversion.com/Strips.htm
7)
elongating or stretch
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2. Tension is the stress of
elongation or stretch.
8)
longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6. Fuselage Stations are
longitudinal measurements on the fuselage
9)
special paint
Comment/Reference:
CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4
10) lower fuselage

Comment/Reference: ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor)
ATA chapter 06-20 (A319)
Questions 131 140

131. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be
22 AWG
0.5 in wide
0.25 in wide and 22 AWG
132. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?
Tension
Bending
Shear
133. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
special conductive grease
conductive paint
bonding strips
134. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of
longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines
frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
135. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe
structure?
Spar
Longeron
Stringer
136. Damage tolerant design

is applied only to secondary structure
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired
between scheduled maintenance
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to
other structure
137. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will
have a designation of
600
800
400
138. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?
Control surfaces
Pressure cabin
Wings
139. Shear stress is described as
pulling forces
compressing forces
slip away under the action of forces
140. The ground cable must be
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area
single strand 18 AWG
copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area

1)
0.5 in wide
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. 3.3.1 a)i)
2)
Bending
Comment/Reference: An I beam is subject to Bending, although
different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom)
and shear (the web)
3)
conductive paint
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3.5
4)
frame stations, water lines and buttock lines

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6 & CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6
5)
Stringer
Comment/Reference:
duplicity.
Answer chosen due to a stringer's
6)
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired

between scheduled maintenance
7)
800
Comment/Reference: Checkout most modern aircraft
Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations
8)
Pressure cabin
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 2.7
9)
slip away under the action of forces

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2. The keyword is 'slip', but
it is a terrible definition of shear stress.
10)
single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.3.1 a (i)
Questions 141 150

141. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from
the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches
from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from
the tip of the right wing
142. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
Special paint
Diverter strips
Special grease on the hinges
143. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a
bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?
Zero
Centre scale
Full scale deflection
144. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a
material is caused, is known as
shear
strain
bending
145. Semi-monocoque construction
utilizes the safe-life design concept

offers good damage resistance
is used only for the fuselage
146. Most radio aerials are

bonded
not bonded
insulated from the fuselage
147. Secondary bonding is usually provided with
stranded copper 0.25 inch
18 AWG
single strand 0.25 inch
148. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a
horizontal line
wing line
vertical line
149. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at
the same potential by
static wicks
earthing
bonding
150. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be
not less than
22 SWG x 0.25
22 SWG x 0.5
18 SWG for a single wire

1)
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches
from the centreline of the right wing
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15
2)
Diverter strips
Comment/Reference: CAIPs RL/2-5 3.4.2
3)
Zero
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-1 para 3.10.2 b) &
CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.10.2 B
4)
strain
Comment/Reference: Strain is 'best' of the answers. Strain
is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent
deformation.
5)
offers good damage resistance

Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe
textbook page 1-3
6)
bonded
12-56
7)
18 AWG
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (a) (ii)
8)
vertical line
Comment/Reference: AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15
9)
bonding
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electrical_bonding
10)
18 SWG for a single wire
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii)
Questions 151 160

151. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?
Landings
Flying Hours
Pressure Cycles
152. The main forces on an aircraft structure are
tension, compression, torsion and strain
tension, compression, torsion and shear
tension, compression, twisting and shear
153. The life of the structure is counted by
flying hours
landings
pressurization cycle
154. What are buttock lines?
Horizontal measurement lines
Measurements from the centre line
Vertical measurement lines
155. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting
strikes, partially by
bonding
non-conductive paint
conductive pain
156. A member taking a compression load is called a

beam
cable
strut
157. Stringers are used in which of the following types of
aircraft fuselage construction?
Semi-monocoque
Monocoque
Truss type
158. Wing stations are measured
inboard from the wing upper surface
outboard from the fuselage centreline
outboard from the wing root
159. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?
Bending
Tensile
Torsion
160. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will
be
yellow
red
green

1)
Flying Hours
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_safety#Metal_fatigue
2)
tension, compression, torsion and shear

3)
pressurization cycle
Comment/Reference:
4)
Measurements from the centre line

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 6 & CAIPs AL/7.2 Page 17 Para
6.2
5)
conductive paint
Comment/Reference:
6)
strut
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strut
7)
Semi-monocoque
8)
outboard from the fuselage centreline

Comment/Reference:
www.aerospaceweb.org/question/design/q0289.shml
9)
Tensile
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tie_rod
10)
red
Comment/Reference:
Questions 161 170

161. Which of the following is primary structure?
Skin
Frame
Stringer
162. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the
aircraft in
feet and inches
inches
feet
163. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary
structures?
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if
damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of
life
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if
damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel
shields and minor component brackets etc.
164. Structure with built-in redundancy is called
safe life
failsafe
double safe
165. Stress
is the load per unit area acting on a material

is the deformation of a material caused by applied load
is the property of a material to resist fracture
166. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified

number of cycles, flying hours or years, regardless of its
physical condition is what type of item?
Condition monitored
Safe-life
Fail-safe
167. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification'
as either Primary or Secondary, what action should you
adopt?
Upgrade it to primary
Grade it as secondary
Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
168. Safe-life is
the
a
the
a
the
maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before

major structural failure occurs
minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before
major structural failure occurs
sharing of loads between adjacent members
169. Bending stresses are a combination of

torsional and compression stresses
tension and shear stresses
tension and compression stresses
170. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys
is
Notice 79
Notice 89
Notice 65

1)
Skin
Comment/Reference:
2)
inches
3)
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if

damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
Comment/Reference:
4)
failsafe
Comment/Reference:
5)
is the load per unit area acting on a material

Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 2.2
6)
Safe-life
Comment/Reference:
7)
Upgrade it to primary
Comment/Reference:
8)
the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before

a major structural failure occurs
Comment/Reference: Safe life maybe determined by using a
similar structure which is tested to establish the minimum
number of events which should elapse before a major
structural failure occurs
9)
tension and compression stresses

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 2 fig 1-1
10) Notice 89
Comment/Reference:
These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747
Questions 171 180

171. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the
operator
manufacturer
maintenance engineer
172. Where are wing stations measured from?
Zone Line (ZL)
Butt Line (BL)
Water Line (WL)
173. Where is Zone 323?
Between rear spar and trailing edge
Between front and rear spar
Tip of vertical stabilizer
174. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows
after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft,
electricity is discharged through
a sprayed coat of conductive paint
a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint
electrically connected primary conductors
175. A structural member intended to resist compression is a
tie
strut
web
176. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known

as a
fail-safe design
monocoque design
safe-life design
177. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage
indicates
shedding
sagging
hogging
178. If a redundant structure fails it becomes
fatigued
failsafe
safe-life
179. A redundant structure is
a failsafe structure
on-condition structure
a safe-life structure
180. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal
plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is
fuselage station
butt line
water line

1)
manufacturer
Comment/Reference: AWN 89
2)
Butt Line (BL)

Comment/Reference: Obscure, but the fuselage centreline is
'technically' a buttock line of sorts.
www.aerospaceweb.org
3)
Between front and rear spar

Comment/Reference: Airbus A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone
323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab.
Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical stab.
4)
electrically connected primary conductors

Comment/Reference:
5)
strut
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strut
6)
fail-safe design
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fail_safe
7)
sagging
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hogging_and_sagging
8)
safe-life
Comment/Reference: See Dan Air Boeing 707 (Zambia) crash
report Para 2.3.1
http://www.geocities.com/CapCanaveral/9575/770514-0.htm
9)
a failsafe structure
10)
water line
Questions 181 190

181. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an
aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
182. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would
be classified as
secondary
primary
tertiary
183. An example of primary stress is
shear
tension
bending
184. What is the water line?
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
A line below which redux bonding can not be used
The datum from which vertical locations refer
185. Lateral stations have station zero at the
nose
centre line
left wing tip
186. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

ANO 25
JAR 25
CS 25
187. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large
aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through a series of
crash tests. This is to
to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the
ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for
structural integrity.
to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into
contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure
the force applied to the head in line with a specific
Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
188. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides
high strength and high stiffness
high stiffness and high ductility
high strength and high ductility
189. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that
the fastener is accurately torqued
an interference fit hole is drilled
the shank is lubricated
190. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
Fire-proof grommets
Soft rubber
None is required
1)
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear

2)
primary
Comment/Reference:
3)
tension
Comment/Reference:
4)
The datum from which vertical locations refer

5)
centre line
Comment/Reference:
6)
CS 25
Comment/Reference: JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification
Specification CS 25
7)
to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into

contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure the
force applied to the head in line with a specific Head
Injury Criterion (HIC)
Comment/Reference: CS 25.562 (c) para 5
8)
high stiffness and high ductility

Comment/Reference:
9)
an interference fit hole is drilled

Comment/Reference: Hiloks are pre-lubricated. Hole is
drilled 0.0015 inch interference. Hi-lok/Hi-tique
installation guide can be downloaded from Tutorial Support
Section.
10)
Fire-proof grommets
Comment/Reference:
Questions 191 200

191. To remove a rivet you should
drill half way through
drill it all the way through
drill to the depth of the head
192. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are
spreading and setting
wetting and Setting
wetting and gripping
193. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
alkaline etch
acid etch
solvent etch
194. The purpose of a primer is to
provide shiny surface for the topcoat
provide flexible surface for the top coat
help bonding of the topcoat
195. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken
by
bulkheads
stringers
frames
196. Most large transport aircraft skins are

5056
7075
2024
197. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to
PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the
washers should be used once
PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are
used in critical bolted joints
PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by
lubrication
198. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
Bulkheads
Frames
Stringers
199. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the
majority of the loads?
Stringers
Skin
Longerons
200. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?
Zinc plating
Nickel plating
Cadmium plating

1)
drill to the depth of the head

Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1
2)
wetting and Setting

Comment/Reference: A module 7 questions. The two processes
in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'
3)
acid etch
Comment/Reference: Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash
4)
help bonding of the topcoat

Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra.2.1
5)
stringers
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.6 (last sentence)
6)
2024
2-8
7)
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the
washers should be used once
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4.5.4
CAAIPs Leaflet 6-7 para 4.5.3 & 4.5.4
8)
Stringers
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7.2 para 3.3
9)
Skin
Comment/Reference: A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28
10)
Cadmium plating
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/7-2
Questions 201 210

201. What material can be chromated as a protection against
corrosion?
Aluminium alloys
Ferrous alloys
Magnesium alloys
202. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what
method of measurement is normally used?
Longitudinal alignment method
Lateral alignment method
Steel tape and spring balance
203. Paint remover substances
are not damaging to any aircraft parts
are damaging to some aircraft parts
should only be used once
204. To remove a rivet
chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal
punch
drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the
rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the
shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet
shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank
with a metal punch
205. Battery trays are

absorbent to soak up electrolyte
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
metal for earthing purposes
206. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurized

aircraft is
to seal the cabin
to prevent corrosion
to provide external streamlining
207. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to
lubricate the collar
lubricate the shank and threads
simply fit the bolt as they are pre-lubricated
208. Sealant or leveling compound is installed during structure
repair:
according to SB instructions
according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as
BAC
according to AMM and SRM chapter 51
209. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin
strengthener, also acts as a
tear stopper
shear tie
jury strut
210. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?
Edges of repair metal
Material under repair
Middle of repair

1)
Magnesium alloys
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/7-3
2)
Steel tape and spring balance

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 6-5 para 3.3.5 a) &
CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3.5 i
3)
are damaging to some aircraft parts

Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 11.1
4)
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet
shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with
a metal punch
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill
equal in diameter than that of the rivet'.
5)
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed
Pallett Page 24
6)
to seal the cabin

Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/7-2 para. 3.7 & AC65-9A pg 169 &
www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.htm
7)
simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated

Comment/Reference:
8)
according to AMM and SRM chapter 51

Comment/Reference: Chapter 51 is General Practices
9)
tear stopper
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.4)
10)
Material under repair

Comment/Reference: Open to interpretation. We have gone for
'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together.
Questions 211 220

211. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for
high strength high toughness
low strength high toughness
high strength high stiffness
212. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are
15C to 25C and humidity below 75%
15C to 25C and humidity above 60%
213. What are the types of true bonded joints?
Cemented and specific
Mechanical and cemented
Mechanical and specific
214. Why is a joggle joint used?
To provide a smooth contour to surface
To provide a flush fit
To add strength
215. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily
reached, which type of fastener would you use?
Blind rivet
Pop rivet
Hi lock bolt
216. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids

they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external
surface of the aircraft
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
217. Skin panels may be strengthened by
struts
cleats
stringers
218. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?
Two webs separated by a boom
Two booms separated by a web
One boom mounted under a web
219. A crack stopper is fitted
before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation
after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
220. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking
an aircraft?
Install critical stress panels or plates
Remove all optional equipment
Determine the fuel tanks are empty

1)
high strength high stiffness

Comment/Reference:
2)

Comment/Reference: BL/6-20 5 CAAIPs Leaflet 2-7 para 5
3)
Mechanical and specific

Comment/Reference:
4)
To provide a flush fit

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 162, the joggle does not
provide the 'contour'.
5)
Blind rivet
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 155. Pop rivet is not a blind
fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved
6)
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure

Comment/Reference:
7)
stringers
Comment/Reference:
8)
Two booms separated by a web

Comment/Reference:
9)
before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation

Comment/Reference:
10)
Install critical stress panels or plates

Questions 221 230

221. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and
cellulose
asphalt
acrylics
222. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is
that it
shares the loads
is easier to manufacture
takes all the loads in the skin
223. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by
the
skin
longerons
frames
224. Intercostals are
vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a
biplane
compression ribs in cantilever wings
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to
adjacent frames
225. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks
are known as
failsafe joints
secondary joints
crack limiting joints
226. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery

compartment drain pipes will be
plastic
aluminium alloy
stainless steel
227. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has
an excessive fuel load on take-off
too much kinetic energy on landing
a missed placed centre of gravity on landing
228. Symmetry checks should be carried out
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
229. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to
provide a flexible surface for top-coat
provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat
help bonding for top-coat
230. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member
if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis
irrespective of the location
if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the
member
if they are located in the middle third of the length of the
member

1)
acrylics
Comment/Reference:
2)
shares the loads

3)
skin
4)
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to

adjacent frames
Comment/Reference: See a Picture in B737 SRM chap 53
5)
failsafe joints
Comment/Reference:
6)
stainless steel
Comment/Reference:
7)
too much kinetic energy on landing

Comment/Reference:
8)
in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks

Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2
9)
help bonding for top-coat

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. page 6-8
10)
if they are located in the middle third of the length of the

member
Comment/Reference: AC43
Questions 231 240

231. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate
toxic gases
temperature
humidity
232. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
1 in 400
1 in 600
1 in 200
233. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
longerons
bulkheads
stringers
234. Which loads do longerons resist?
Bending, compression and tensile
Bending, compression, tensile and torsion
Torsional only
235. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft
to
provide access for pressurising the aircraft
provide access for pressurising the aircraft
provide venting should a differential pressure build up across
the floor
236. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they

have
smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
slight shrinkage due to age
237. A cargo bay must have signs stating
no hazardous cargo
maximum dimensions
maximum loadings
238. Zone D Cargo compartment windows
must have blinds pulled down
are made from fire retardant Perspex
must be blanked off
239. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a
fire is
class B
class A
class E
240. Windscreen delamination is
bubbling of the glass due to overheat
windscreen peeling away from the airframe
separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer

1)
humidity
Comment/Reference:
2)
1 in 600
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13
3)
stringers
Comment/Reference:
4)
Bending, compression and tensile

5)
provide venting should a differential pressure build up

across the floor
Comment/Reference: Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo
compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused floor to
collapse. Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter
6)
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure

Comment/Reference: Acrylic has a thermal expansion
approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy
7)
maximum loadings
Comment/Reference: Usually, pallet size is fixed, but the
weight is critical.
8)
must be blanked off

Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems 9-3
9)
class B
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page
9-3 and CS 25.857 (b)
10)
separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer

Questions 241 250

241. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?
30C to 50C
50C to 70C
50F to 70F
242. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used
to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
40F
104F
125F
243. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the
fuselage structure?
By the pressure seal
By door stops
Through the latching mechanism
244. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a
seal between them. Under normal flight conditions which
pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?
Inner
Outer
Both
245. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?
By both front and back legs
By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti

rattle.
By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle
246. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is

aluminium
PTFE
soft rubber
247. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance
should be made for
expansion of the acrylic due to heat
galvanic corrosion of the metal
expansion of the metal due to heat
248. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?
Acetone
MEK
Kerosene
249. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential
pressure can be taken by
the inner pane only
both main panes
the scratch panel
250. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction
is
to improve on brittle behaviour
to enable inclusion of heater film
to increase static strength

1)
50F to 70F
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 1-8 para 3.21.3 a)
2)
104F
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6.1 says 40C, which is
104F
3)
By door stops
Comment/Reference:
4)
Outer
Comment/Reference: The inner panel has a small hole in it to
let the pressure through to the outer panel
5)
By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti

rattle
Comment/Reference: The back legs are secured as they have
the upward load during a sudden stop.
6)
soft rubber
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3.9
7)
expansion of the acrylic due to heat

Comment/Reference: AL/7-4 para 4
8)
Kerosene
9)
both main panes

Comment/Reference:
10)
to improve on brittle behaviour

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-10 3.1.1
Questions 251 260

251. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones;
the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits
there should be at least one exit per zone
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed
252. Class D cargo bay windows require
the blind down for flight
fire proof coatings
double acrylic panels
253. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from
monolithic Nomex
Kevlar
Fibreglass and resin
254. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on
the number of negative differential pressure applications
the total number of pressurizations
the number of explosive decompressions
255. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays
are unpressurised
are pressurized
may be pressurized or unpressurised
256. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called

frames
longerons
spars
257. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a
cleat
bulkhead
frame
258. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be
given to the
light microswitches
trim
catches
259. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings,
usually in
half inch increments
one inch increments
one foot increments
260. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to
rails
tracks
stanchions

1)
there should be at least one exit per zone

Comment/Reference: CS 25.783, but does not talk about Zonal
exits
2)
fire proof coatings

Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 (d)
3)
Fibreglass and resin

Comment/Reference: AWN 80 Para.2.3 and 4.1.1
4)
the total number of pressurizations

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23
5)
are unpressurised
Comment/Reference:
6)
longerons
7)
bulkhead
Comment/Reference:
8)
catches
Comment/Reference:
9)
one inch increments

Comment/Reference:
10)
stanchions
Comment/Reference:
Questions 261 270

261. Windshields are heated to
demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness
prevent misting and icing only
maintain strength and toughness only
262. The internal doors of an aircraft
carry pressure loads
never carry pressure loads
only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise
altitude
263. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door
is
not fully opened
not locked
locked
264. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator
fails, it may be operated
by alternate actuators
manually by winding
be electrical ground power
265. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective
paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may be removed by
use of soap and water and
Cellulose thinners
MEK
Methylated spirits
266. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft

windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will
increase
not change
decrease
267. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a
metal frame, provision must be made for the relative
movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of
the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel
when compared with the frame
the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing
the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel
268. Perspex is resistant to
Paraffin
Acetone
C.T.C.
269. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage
are open when the cabin is depressurised
are open when the cabin is pressurised
are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well
drained
270. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents
to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas
to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the
loss of a cargo compartment door

to provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of
fire

1)
demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness

Comment/Reference:
2)
never carry pressure loads

Comment/Reference:
3)
not locked
Comment/Reference:
4)
manually by winding
Comment/Reference:
5)
Methylated spirits
Comment/Reference:
6)
increase
Comment/Reference:
7)
the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel

Comment/Reference:
8)
Paraffin
Comment/Reference: CAIPS AL/7-4 2.3
9)
are open when the cabin is depressurised

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/7-2 3.6 and fig 9
10)
to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the

loss of a cargo compartment door
Comment/Reference:
Questions 271 280
271. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What

action is required?
Replace the defective window
Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects vision
No action is required with this defect
272. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have
three structural panes
two structural panes
one structural pane
273. A plug type window is fitted
from the inside
from either side
from the outside
274. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The
source of this air is usually
cabin pressurised air
from storage bottles
ambient pressurised air
275. Drain valves are normally closed by
spring pressure
rubber strips
cabin air pressure
276. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are

always open
always closed
either open or closed
277. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved
smoke or fire detector system to give warning and means to
shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a
Class 'C' compartment
Class 'B' compartment
Class 'E' compartment
278. Aircraft frames are constructed of
'I' section
'U' section
'Z' section
279. The life of a fuselage depends on
the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential
the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles
all pressurisation cycles
280. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the
longerons
stringers
frames

1)
Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects vision

Comment/Reference: AL/7-10 5.1.6
2)
two structural panes

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 56-21-00 pg 1 para A)
3)
from the inside

Comment/Reference:
4)
cabin pressurised air

Comment/Reference:
5)
cabin air pressure

6)
always open
7)
Class 'E' compartment

Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 & Transport Category Aircraft
Systems, Jeppesen, 9-3
8)
'Z' section
Comment/Reference:
9)
all pressurisation cycles

Comment/Reference:
10)
longerons
Comment/Reference:
Questions 281 290

281. A false rib is usually used to
support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge
allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing
lose a torsion box structure
282. A spar web will take loads in
bending
shear
tension
283. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
spar cap
main spar
skin
284. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean
span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.
span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.
285. A cantilever wing is a
top wing of a biplane
swept-back wing
usual airliner wing
286. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile

contour?
Milled stringers
Ribs
The position of the spars
287. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for
slats and
leading edge flaps
trailing edge flaps
slots
288. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to
support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount
provide redundant design
assist the main spar with operational loads
289. The main undercarriage is attached to the
rear main spar
front main spar
aircraft structure
290. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called
brush coat
fillet
interfay

1)
support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge

Comment/Reference:
2)
shear
Comment/Reference: The spar as a whole, takes bending and
shear. The bending is taken by the booms (as compression-top
and tension - bottom) and the web takes the shear.
(Sometimes called a 'shear' web).
3)
main spar
Comment/Reference: The main spar takes the wing bending and
shear loads
4)
span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.

Comment/Reference: Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord
5)
usual airliner wing

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 13 & CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2
6)
Ribs
Comment/Reference: AL/7-2 para 4.2
7)
leading edge flaps

Comment/Reference: Slots are fixed features - no linkages,
or are produced when the slats open.
8)
assist the main spar with operational loads

Comment/Reference:
9)
aircraft structure
Comment/Reference: The only wholly correct answer
10) brush coat

Comment/Reference: B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of
sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet,
injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat.
Questions 291 300

291. The principle load bearing members of the wing are
spars
struts
ribs
292. One purpose of a rib is to
support the bending loads on a fuselage
form the main lateral member in an aerofoil
maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering
293. What is a cantilever wing?
One that has no external supporting struts
One that folds for access to limited space
One that has external supporting struts
294. A spar is tapered from root to tip because
centre of lift occurs close to the root
bending moment is greatest at the root
shear forces are greatest at the root
295. A spar web is
an area between two spar caps
a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection
a rib/spar joint
296. A leading edge slat is attached to the

front spar
slat track
wing upper skin
297. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?
Bending
Tension
Shear
298. The term 'empennage' incorporates
elevators, stabiliser, rudder
rudder, ailerons, spoilers
elevators, stabiliser, ailerons
299. The four main structural items making up a horizontal
stabiliser are
spar, rib, longerons, skin panels
spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels
spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
300. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a
variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane
would be
decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge
decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge
increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge

1)
spars
2)
maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering

3)
One that has no external supporting struts

4)
bending moment is greatest at the root

5)
an area between two spar caps

Comment/Reference:
6)
slat track
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 27-81-00 page 4 fig 1 sheet 3
say each slat is atttached with 2 main and 2 aux tracks &
www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm
7)
Shear
Comment/Reference: A 'web' always takes shear loads
8)
elevators, stabiliser, rudder

Comment/Reference:
9)
spar, rib, stringers, skin panels

Comment/Reference:
10)
decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge

Comment/Reference:
Questions 301 310

301. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber
tailplane
will decrease tailplane download
may increase or decrease download depending upon the
aircraft C of G position
will increase tailplane download
302. Variable incidence tailplanes
always move slowly
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing
approach and slowly at all other times
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and
landing approach and slowly during cruise
303. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable
incidence tailplane is determined by
direction of rotation of the electric motor
solenoid operated clutches
a gearbox
304. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane,
the tailplane incidence changes
if the control column is moved back or forward
automatically if the elevator moves
if the trim wheel is turned back or forward
305. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance
installed on control surface assembly

is meant to trim CG of control surfaces
has same effect of the balance tab
serves as a 'servo' system of balance
306. The fin helps to give

longitudinal stability about the normal axis
directional stability about the longitudinal axis
directional stability about the normal axis
307. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?
Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs
Elevators, ailerons, rudder
Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
308. Aerodynamic balance
will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance
will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause
instability
will reduce aerodynamic loading
309. Flutter can be reduced by using
servo tabs
a horn balance
mass balancing
310. An elevator provides control about the
lateral axis
longitudinal axis
horizontal stabilizer

1)
will increase tailplane download

Comment/Reference:
2)
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and
landing approach and slowly during cruise
Comment/Reference: B737-400, AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para 1.c,
trim speed is depend on the flap position. Trim rate with
flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with flaps extended
3)
solenoid operated clutches

Comment/Reference:
4)
if the trim wheel is turned back or forward

Comment/Reference:
5)
has same effect of the balance tab

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook.
Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59, balance tab 1-23 -para 3
6)
directional stability about the normal axis

1-22
7)
Elevators, ailerons, rudder

Comment/Reference:
8)
will reduce aerodynamic loading

Comment/Reference:
9)
mass balancing
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 appx 27-1 para 2
10)
lateral axis
Comment/Reference:
Questions 311 320

311. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft
are isolated at low speeds
are isolated at high speeds
are isolated to improve sensitivity
312. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control
surface centre of pressure
rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
rearwards, resulting in too much assistance
313. A flying control mass balance weight
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing
edge as possible
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge
line
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus
relieving control column load
314. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?
Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
315. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to
attach weights forward of the hinge line
fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces

allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow
316. Control surface flutter may be caused by

excessive play in trim tab attachments
incorrect angular movement of trim tabs
high static friction in trim tab control tabs
317. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to
provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move
the control
ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack
equalize aileron drag in a turn
318. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved
by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge
line
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the
hinge line
by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface
319. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to
assist the pilot in moving the control
increase stability
decrease the drag when the control is deflected
320. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the
diagram), is provided to
make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered

when moving the control
prevent control surface flutter
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the
rudder

1)
are isolated at high speeds

Comment/Reference:
2)
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance

Comment/Reference:)
3)

line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1 para 2
4)
Rudder
Comment/Reference:
5)
attach weights forward of the hinge line

6)
excessive play in trim tab attachments

Comment/Reference:
7)
equalize aileron drag in a turn

Comment/Reference:
8)
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the

hinge line
Page 24 Para 7
9)
assist the pilot in moving the control

Page 24 Para 7
10)
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the

rudder
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
25 Para 7
Questions 321 330

321. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main
control surface
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the
controls
operated independently at which point in the length of cable
the tensiometer is applied
operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls
322. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by
placing a weight ahead of the hinge point
placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge
point
323. Aerodynamic balance is used to
reduce the control load to zero
make the flying controls easier to move
prevent flutter of the flying controls
324. A horn balance is
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward
of the hinge line
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which
the control cables are attached
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a
weight on the end
325. A control surface is mass balanced by
the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line

fitting a balance tab
the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line
326. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to

give more feel to the control column
relieve stick loads
trim the aircraft
327. A flying control mass balance weight
tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge
line
line
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge
as possible
328. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in
yaw
roll
pitch
329. Jet engines are usually mounted by
aluminium castings
welded steel tubing
forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure
330. A pylon structural member supports the
centre section
engine
empennage

1)
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the

controls
2)
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the

hinge point
3)
make the flying controls easier to move

Comment/Reference:
4)
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface

forward of the hinge line
Page 16
5)
the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line

6)
give more feel to the control column

Comment/Reference:
7)

line
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 11-22 appx 27-1
8)
pitch
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 44 Lateral Axis
9)
forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure

Comment/Reference:
10)
engine
Comment/Reference:
Questions 331 340

331. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks
provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on
landing
reduce tailplane download
provide wing bending relief
332. A spill valve opens
to control the air from the cabin to outside
to prevent an excessive pressure difference
to control the flow to the cabin
333. Which of the following can be used on the ground?
Turbo brake
Turbo compressor
Turbo fan
334. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?
10 lbs per minute per person
0.5 lbs per minute per person
1 lbs per minute per person
335. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at
all altitudes
control the airflow out of the cabin
ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded
336. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is

hottest from an engine compressor bleed
the same for both the above sources
hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box
337. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is
controlled by
spill valves
engine speed variations
automatic control devices
338. The function of spill valves is to control
air supply to the cabin
the rate of pressurisation
cabin pressure differential
339. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system
is
to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to
atmosphere
to give a heating effect
to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower
altitudes
340. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to
ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by
cabin altitude
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin
irrespective of aircraft altitude
ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded

1)
provide wing bending relief

Comment/Reference:
2)
to control the flow to the cabin

3)
Turbo fan
Comment/Reference: Used on air conditioning systems to
supply air on ground.
4)
0.5 lbs per minute per person

Comment/Reference: AMC CS 25.831 or the old BCAR Section D
5)
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin

at all altitudes
Comment/Reference:
6)
hottest from an engine compressor bleed

Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 2.3/2.5
7)
spill valves
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Fig. 3
8)

9)
to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower

altitudes
10)
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin

irrespective of aircraft altitude
Comment/Reference:
Questions 341 350

341. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply
is provided by
the compressor of the gas turbine engine
the engine exhaust heat
the gas turbine exhaust
342. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air
delivered to the cabin is
reasonably constant irrespective of altitude
variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate
of change selector
constant at any particular altitude but varies for different
altitudes
343. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to
allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude
ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at
all times
ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at
all altitudes
344. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?
10 cubic feet/minute
Whatever the captain sets
10 lbs/minute
345. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated
to
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive
duct pressure
ensure conditioned air is distributed
ensure positive duct pressure is maintained
346. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the

temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM compressor
will
rise
remain the same
fall
347. A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature
control
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch
involves modulating the pack valve
is selectable for each zone individually from the flight
station
348. What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of
carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft compartment?
0.02% (200 p.p.m)
0.0005% (50 p.p.m)
0.01% (100 p.p.m)
349. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
Air cycle machine
Vapour cycle
Pneumatic pump
350. A water separator is located
downstream of heat exchanger
downstream of turbine
upstream of the turbine

1)
the compressor of the gas turbine engine

Comment/Reference:
2)
reasonably constant irrespective of altitude

Comment/Reference:
3)
ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at

all times
Comment/Reference:
4)
10 cubic feet/minute
Comment/Reference: CS 25.831 (a)
5)
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive

duct pressure
Comment/Reference:
6)
remain the same

Comment/Reference: Pack outlet temperature is determined by
bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim air). The
ACM is unaffected.
7)
is selectable for each zone individually from the flight

station
Comment/Reference: AMM 767 21-61-00
8)
0.0005% (50 p.p.m)

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-3 para 1.2
9)
Vapour cycle
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 576 & Jeppesen A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 14-34
10) downstream of turbine

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 573 or Jeppesen A&P Technician
Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.3 fig 3
Questions 351 360

351. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should
not exceed
20 feet per second
40 feet per second
120 feet per second
352. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
353. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by
restricting compressor inlet
restricting compressor outlet
restricting duct outlets
354. Air conditioning systems
increase and decrease the temperature of air
decrease the temperature of air
increase the temperature of air
355. An air cycle machine turbine
drives compressor to decrease temperature
drives compressor to increase temperature
drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
356. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM

will have increased pressure and temperature
will have decreased pressure and temperature
no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal
compressor
357. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?
At the inlet of the compressor
At the outlet of the compressor
At the inlet of the turbine
358. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning
system?
At the inlet to the cabin
At the outlet of the blower
At the inlet of the blower
359. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the
most air?
At high altitudes
At low altitudes
It is not affected by altitude
360. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air
goes through the
TCV and mixer valve
TCV
flow control valve
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)

120 feet per second
Comment/Reference: BCAR Section D6
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 578 & A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 14-40
restricting compressor inlet
Comment/Reference: Heat is added by varying the amount of
compressor inlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger (Trim
Air).
decrease the temperature of air
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 558 & CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2.2.
The source of air is usually the engine bleed, which is
always far too hot to feed directly into the cabin, so the
air conditioning system always cools, even if the 'trim air'
bypasses a little more hot air around the ACM/refrigeration
unit, the end result is still cooler than the input.
drives compressor to increase temperature
Comment/Reference: The compressor is to INCREASE the
temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be
extracted.
will have increased pressure and temperature
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 571/2 mentions pre-cooled air
is compressed by action of compressor impeller and diffuser
assembly. Hence increase in pressure. Pressure laws says;
Temperature is proportional to Pressure.
At the inlet of the turbine
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 fig 14-32 or CAIPs shows
it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers).
B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the
turbine
At the outlet of the blower
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Figure 3
It is not affected by altitude
Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill
Valve)
10) TCV
Comment/Reference: b737-400 AMM ref
is located before distribution for
amount of hot air bypassing the Air
the same valve as
21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV

pack temperature control for
Cycle Machine. B737-300 name
mixer valve
Questions 361 370

361. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and
fresh air are supplied in the proportions
40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air
362. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to
reduce the air supply temperature
increase the air supply temperature
provide an emergency ram air supply
363. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by
varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger
regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system
controlling the water vapour in the supply
364. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly
achieved by
varying cabin pressure
adding heat to the pressurising air
extracting heat from the pressurising air
365. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine
compressor, an internal oil leak will
contaminate the air
not contaminate the air
not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented

overboard
366. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

driving the unit's compressor
reducing pressure
reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor
367. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from
driving the units compressor
only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies
air supply heated by the pressurising process
368. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be
lower than ambient air temperature despite compression
heating
a little more than ambient air temperature
same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating
369. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a
compressor
directing compressed air into a heat exchanger
370. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine
exhaust system and air is directed around inside the
muffler, this is an
combustion heater
thermal heater
exhaust heater

1)

Comment/Reference:
2)
reduce the air supply temperature

3)
regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3
4)
extracting heat from the pressurising air

Comment/Reference: CAIPS AL/3-24 4
5)
contaminate the air

Comment/Reference:
6)
reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 rh column 3rd para or
CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.2
7)
air supply heated by the pressurising process

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-24 4
8)
a little more than ambient air temperature

Comment/Reference:
9)
expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a

compressor
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 572 rh column 3rd para or
CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2
10)
exhaust heater
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 561 or
CAIPs AL/3-24 3.3
Questions 371 380

371. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling
air is
bled from cabin air supply duct
air bled directly from engine or through blower
ram air from ambient conditions
372. Conditioned air is
moisture removed
temperature and pressure adjusted
oxygen added
373. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air
conditioning pack?
Flap position switches
Undercarriage switches
Throttle switches
374. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use
ground trolley and clean air
a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system
375. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a
minimum humidity of
60 percent
30 percent
20 percent
376. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of

compressed air is from
ram air at the wing leading edge
gas turbine intake ram air
gas turbine compressor bleed air
377. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally
maintained at
18C to 24C
20C to 24C
12C to 18C
378. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and
passed through a heat exchanger
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across
an expansion turbine
passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to the
heat exchanger
379. The humidity within a passenger cabin should
be between 30% and 70%
not be less than 60%
not be greater than 40%
380. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle
system is
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
by compression of ambient air across a turbine
by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
1)
2)

ram air from ambient conditions
Comment/Reference: Cooling air for heat exchanger is taken
from the ambient ram air which is controled by varying
opening of the ram air exhaust louvers. Ref B737-400 AMM 2100-00 page 8
temperature and pressure adjusted
Comment/Reference:
3)
Throttle switches
Comment/Reference:
4)
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system
Comment/Reference: The ground pressure test is typically
known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain
cabin pressure in flight on single pack operation for boeing
term. The test involve both left and right engine. Ref AMM
21-00-05 page 201.
5)
30 percent
Comment/Reference:
6)
gas turbine compressor bleed air

Comment/Reference: B737 has the config where the airconditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system
which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the
gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 pg 8
7)
18C to 24C
Comment/Reference: B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the
selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29 deg C.
For alternate operation when all selectors to OFF, the Left
Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C.
8)
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across

an expansion turbine
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
9)
be between 30% and 70%

Comment/Reference:
10) conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig
16-34 & AC65-15A pg 565
Questions 381 390

381. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system
pre-heat the system to 100F
flush the system with a solvent
apply suction to remove air and moisture
382. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not
be less than
25 ft/min.
200 ft/min.
300 ft/min.
383. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in
order to
ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained
at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to
prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression
maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high
altitudes
ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less
than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the fatigue
life of the fuselage
384. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is
removed from the charge air by
reducing the pressure of a vapour
changing a liquid into a vapour
changing a vapour into a liquid
385. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger,
the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the

fan
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger
turbine
386. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by
engine bleed air or blower air
air bled from the main cabin supply duct
ambient ram air
387. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by
temperature only
temperature and humidity
temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load
388. When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle
system
the liquid sublimates
the vapour converts to a liquid
the liquid converts to a vapour
389. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are
rectangles
dots
triangles
390. A cabin humidifier is operated
at high altitudes
on the ground
at low altitudes
1)
apply suction to remove air and moisture

Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says, 'before
charging a newly installed system, or recharging a system
which has been partly disconnected, all air should be
evacuated IAW MM.'
2)
25 ft/min.
Comment/Reference: BCAR Section D
3)
maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high

altitudes
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 2.1 says 1) to maintain
a safe cabin altitude relative to aircraft altitude. 2) to
provide a comfortable environment when flying at higher
altitudes
4)
changing a liquid into a vapour

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 576 & AL/3-24 para 13.3.2
5)
fan
Comment/Reference: 'Fan' is sometimes used to describe the
compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
6)
ambient ram air

Comment/Reference:
7)
temperature and humidity

Comment/Reference:
8)
the vapour converts to a liquid

9)
dots
Comment/Reference:
10)
at high altitudes
Comment/Reference:
Questions 391 400

391. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
increase the pressure but decrease the temperature
not affect the charge air pressure
decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air
392. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by
flap microswitches
air/ground microswitches
throttle microswitches
393. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft),
the cabin altitude must
decrease
increase
stay the same
394. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve
is leaking. This will cause
it will not effect on cabin pressure
the cabin pressure to decrease
the cabin pressure to increase
395. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a
constant
inlet and vary the outlet
inlet and outlet
outlet and vary the inlet
396. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure

controller is to control
the rate of pressurisation
cabin differential pressure
cabin air flow
397. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure
and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential
capsule in the pressure controller will
let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a
drop in pressure
let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
have a constant mass flow
398. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is
500 ft. per min.
100 ft. per min.
300 ft. per min.
399. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,
set altimeter to QNH
check all pitot and static lines are fitted
turn on all instruments
400. On touch-down of aircraft
the cabin pressure will be zero
the outflow valve will be shut
the outflow valve will be fully open

1)
decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 571/2
2)
throttle microswitches
3)
decrease
Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23
4)
the cabin pressure to increase

Comment/Reference: The discharge valve is opened by vacuum
in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and
cabin pressure will increase. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 14-22
5)
inlet and vary the outlet

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook
Page 14-20.
6)

Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23
7)
let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.3.13
8)
500 ft. per min.

9)
check all pitot and static lines are fitted

10) the outflow valve will be fully open

Comment/Reference: B737 Pressurization system senses the air-
ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit control.

Before touch down, at GRD position, controller commands signal to
close the discharge valve to 200ft below landing field elevation.
Upon touch down, controller drives discharge fully open. Purpose
to prevent rapid pressure bump
Questions 401 410

401. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test
purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
removed
all open
all closed
402. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is
necessary to
disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
set QFE
reset/disable the pressure controller
403. In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there is a
gauge that shows
cabin pressure altitude
aircraft altitude
404. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference
between
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air
pressure
8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the
cabin
405. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.
cabin remains at sea level untill maximum differential

cabin will not pressurise
maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off
406. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if

the engines are shut-down
aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens
cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal
efficiency
outflow valve opens immediately
407. Cabin pressure is maintained by
controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin
controlling the output of the compressor
controlling the supply of air to the cabin
408. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
equally important in descent and ascent
most important in descent
most important in ascent
409. Cabin rate of climb is shown by
warning lights
a special instrument
a double scale on the aircraft
410. During normal pressurized climb following take-off
the differential pressure is constant
the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
1)
all open
2)
reset/disable the pressure controller

Comment/Reference: The pressurisation system must be
controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic
control of the valves.
3)
aircraft altitude
Page 14-23
4)
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air

pressure
Comment/Reference:
5)
cabin will not pressurise

Comment/Reference:
6)
cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal

efficiency
Comment/Reference:
7)
controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin

Comment/Reference:
8)
most important in descent

9)
a double scale on the aircraft

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3. Ascent scale and
decent scale
10)
the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.

Questions 411 420

411. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between
cabin pressure and ambient pressure
8,000 ft and sea level
I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude
412. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the
altitude for the aircraft
altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure
pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea
level I.S.A. conditions
413. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant
level (altitude) the system allows for
constant mass flow
all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop
in pressure
414. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to
atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination
pressure controller/discharge valve combination
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination
415. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on
a
cabin V.S.I.
cabin altimeter
cabin pressure gauge
416. Pressurisation control ensures that

at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000
ft
pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000
ft.
the cabin is always maintained at sea level
417. 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test
should be
disconnected
connected
cross connected
418. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin
pressure differential the
discharge valve should be adjusted
outward relief valve is inoperative
pressure controller should be adjusted
419. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure
differential the
discharge valve closes
mass flow ceases through the cabin
discharge valve opens
420. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin
pressure ground test?
Occasionally
No
Yes
1)
cabin pressure and ambient pressure

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 541/2 or
CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2
2)
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the

altitude for the aircraft
3)
constant mass flow

Comment/Reference:
4)
pressure controller/discharge valve combination

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 9
5)
cabin V.S.I.
6)
at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000

ft
7)
connected
8)
pressure controller should be adjusted

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10.2.2 iv
9)
discharge valve opens

Comment/Reference:
10)
Yes
Questions 421 430

421. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground
cabin pressure test?
Pressure regulator controller
Pressure relief valve
Pressure discharge valve
422. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is
most desirable because it increases the air-flow
most undesirable because of the drag created
not effective in any way
423. The principle of cabin pressurisation is
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to
a lower altitude
cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft
cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential
to that of aircraft altitude
424. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the
required value and the height is maintained
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin
pressure is reduced
425. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude
by
regulating the mass flow into the cabin

regulating the position of the outflow valve
regulating the position of the inward relief valve
426. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the
aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden,
then the outflow valve will normally
not operate
open
remain closed
427. The cabin altitude is
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric
pressure
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
428. The cabin differential pressure is
pressure
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
429. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by
the vent valves
the outflow valves
the dump control valves
430. When air is pressurized, the oxygen content
decreases
remains constant
increases

1)
Pressure discharge valve

2)
most undesirable because of the drag created

3)
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to

a lower altitude
Comment/Reference:
4)
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin

Comment/Reference:
5)
regulating the position of the outflow valve

Comment/Reference:
6)
remain closed
Comment/Reference:
7)

Comment/Reference:
8)

pressure
Comment/Reference:
9)
the outflow valves

Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 5.1
10) increases
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 539; Oxygen content increases as
mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage of the other gases
in air. Your interpretation of the
may differ.
Questions 431 440

431. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin
pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure
differential is not exceeded
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft
altitudes above 8000 feet
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all
aircraft altitudes from sea level
sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet
aircraft altitude
432. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change
indicator will show
a rate of descent
zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally
accepted limits
a rate of climb
433. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the
pressurization system 'ON'
the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
the pressurization system does not control pressure until
10,000 ft is reached
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the
cabin pressure
434. Rate of change of cabin pressure is
selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure
controller
selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve
automatic
435. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI
at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is 2.9 PSI,
the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be
5.6 PSI
8.5 PSI
11.4 PSI
436. Cabin differential is determined only by
the selected cabin height
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the
selected cabin height
the height at which the aircraft is flying
437. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst
taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the cabin
pressure would
decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
remain at ground level pressure
438. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce
engine noise coming through the ventilators
the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system
the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system
439. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should
be low, particularly
when cabin pressure is decreasing
during descent
during ascent
440. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization
ensures that
sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin

the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the
operational height is reached
the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than
10,000 ft.
1)
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft

altitudes above 8000 feet
Comment/Reference:
2)
a rate of descent
Comment/Reference:
3)
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the

cabin pressure
Comment/Reference: AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3
4)
selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure

controller
Comment/Reference:
5)
11.4 PSI
Comment/Reference:)
6)
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the

selected cabin height
Comment/Reference:)
7)
remain at ground level pressure

Comment/Reference: AL3/23 Fig 2
8)
the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system

Comment/Reference: AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2.5
9)
during descent
Comment/Reference:
10)
the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than

10,000 ft.
Comment/Reference:
Questions 441 450

441. The pressure controller activates
the spill valve
the blower or compressor
the cabin discharge valve
442. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight
altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500
ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent
safety valve operation
pressure controller hunting
inward relief valve operation
443. The cabin rate of climb is shown
as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a
gauge being used
by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb
indicator
on a specific indicator
444. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization
system to
extract surplus water from the charge air
extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to
atmosphere
collect any rain accompanying the ram air
445. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin
altitude by control of
cabin mass air flow
outflow valve position
inward relief valve position
446. Ditching control is used for

deploying life rafts
closing all valves and inlets
rapid aircraft depressurization
447. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude
of 13,000 ft. by
bellows in the outflow valve
cabin over pressure relief valve
altitude sensor
448. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum
an inward relief valve opens
compressor delivery is automatically boosted
a warning light comes on in the cockpit
449. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air
conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the heater
reset?
After cooling below 300C it auto resets
On ground only by engineer
After it cools the pilot resets
450. Ditching control is used to
maintain cabin pressure at sea level
close the outflow valves
achieve rapid depressurization

1)
the cabin discharge valve

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter
14-20 lh column last para.
2)
pressure controller hunting

Comment/Reference:
3)
on a specific indicator
Comment/Reference:
4)
extract surplus water from the charge air

5)
outflow valve position

Comment/Reference:
6)
closing all valves and inlets

Comment/Reference:
7)
altitude sensor
Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/3-23 para 7
8)
a warning light comes on in the cockpit

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.4.4
9)
On ground only by engineer

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under
Safety Features
10) close the outflow valves

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y, CAP 562 Leaflet 5-2
Questions 451 460

451. Inward vent valves are fitted to
increase ventilation
limit negative differentials
limit positive differentials
452. Inward vent valves will operate when
depressurising after descent
aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude
cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude
453. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative
differential pressure not exceeding
0.5 p.s.i.
1.2 p.s.i.
0.16 p.s.i.
454. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control
is allowed for by fitting
inwards relief valves
airport altitude selectors
safety relief valve
455. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?
Open
Closed
Both position
456. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized

aircraft
to achieve maximum pressure differential
to allow controlled pressure during descent
to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be
greater
457. A safety valve will normally relieve at
higher differential pressure than the discharge valve
negative differential pressure
lower differential pressure than the discharge valve
458. A negative differential pressure is prevented by
a blow off valve
an inward relief valve
a spill valve
459. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin
differential of
-0.5 PSI
+9.25 PSI
+0.5 PSI
460. An inward relief valve will operate
after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level
conditions is the cabin
when climbing with pressurization 'OFF'
when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure

1)
limit negative differentials

CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2
2)
cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude

CAIPs AL/3-23 6.2
3)
0.5 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference:
4)
safety relief valve

5)
Closed
Comment/Reference:
6)
to allow controlled pressure during descent

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5
7)
higher differential pressure than the discharge valve

Comment/Reference:
8)
an inward relief valve

Comment/Reference:)
9)
-0.5 PSI
Comment/Reference:
10)
when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure

Questions 461 470

461. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization
system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is
not subjected to
too high an internal pressure
a high negative differential pressure
forces which would cause the aircraft to explode
462. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control
is catered for by
cabin safety relief valves
inwards relief valve
spill valves
463. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to
compute its output?
VSI
ASI
Machmeter
464. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using
spring actuators
torque sensors
position pick-offs
465. A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They
are initially placed
45 degrees to each other

90 degrees to each other
parallel with each other
466. A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the

aircraft's
roll and pitch
yaw only
yaw and pitch
467. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires
ensuring the
checking the
reference
checking the
reference
target contacts the sensor

target clearance in the NEAR position against
figures
target clearance in the FAR position against
figures
468. How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static

system?
Isolate the component and perform a systematic check,
starting from the instrument
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection
method
Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure leak
test
469. A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates
failure of the compass system
compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised
magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment
470. An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a
case leak. The altimeter will
under read
not be affected
over read
1)
a high negative differential pressure

2)
cabin safety relief valves

Comment/Reference:
3)
VSI
Comment/Reference:
4)
position pick-offs
5)
parallel with each other

Comment/Reference:
6)
roll and pitch

Comment/Reference:
7)
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against

reference figures
Comment/Reference:
8)
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection

method
Comment/Reference:
9)
compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Pallett Page 197
10)
under read
Comment/Reference:
Questions 471 480

471. The earth's magnetic dip affects a standby compass
above its pivot only
below its pivot only
equally above and below its pivot
472. An electrical gyro has usually a speed of
10,000 RPM
20,000 RPM
5,000 RPM
473. A flux valve is used to
drive the HSI
align the standby compass with the earth's magnetic field
align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic field
474. The decision height light will illuminated when
the decision height is selected
the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height
the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height
475. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach
information is derived from
indicated air speed and total air temperature
indicated airspeed and altitude
pitot and static pressures
476. What instrument connects to pitot pressure?

Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator
The airspeed indicator
The vertical speed indicator
477. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of
an aircraft is produced in the
Indicated Airspeed Module
Mach Module
Altitude Module
478. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from
pitot air pressure
pitot air pressure and total air temperature
static air pressure
479. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed
(IAS) is produced from
pitot pressure only
pitot and static air pressure
static pressure only
480. The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees
shifted. The output is
zero
low
high

1)
below its pivot only

Comment/Reference:
2)
20,000 RPM
Systems, Pallett Page 113
3)
align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic field

Comment/Reference: B737-200 AMM 34-21-0 pg 1
4)
the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height

Comment/Reference: Decision Height comes on at Decision
Height and remains on as aircraft descends to landing.
5)
indicated airspeed and altitude

Comment/Reference:
6)

Comment/Reference:
7)
Altitude Module
Comment/Reference:
8)
static air pressure

Comment/Reference:
9)
pitot and static air pressure

Comment/Reference:
10)
zero
Comment/Reference:
Questions 481 490

481. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed
(TAS) is derived from the Mach information and
Total Air Temperature
Static Air Pressure
Pitot Air Pressure
482. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
10 000 ft radio alt.
2 500 ft radio alt.
1 000 ft radio alt.
483. When testing using a thermocouple test set
a 28 VDC supply is required
a serviceable battery is required
no power is required
484. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?
10,000 ft
500 ft
2,500 ft
485. A Compass swing would be required after replacing a
compass Amplifier
H.S.I.
compass sensing unit
486. Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?

Around the rotor
Inside the rotor
Underneath the rotor
487. What is the error in the lubber line called?
Index error
Coefficiant P
Coefficiant B
488. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:Aircraft in the air with both engines running
Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
489. Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?
Pitot pressure
Barometric pressure
Ambient pressure
490. The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not
be more than
3
5
1

1)
Total Air Temperature

Comment/Reference:
2)
2 500 ft radio alt.

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223 &
Electricity & Electronics 5th ed Eisman pg 323/4
3)
a serviceable battery is required

Comment/Reference: AC65-12A Page 494
Battery operation or 115V AC input
4)
2,500 ft
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics, 5th
Ed Eismin p323-324
5)
compass sensing unit

Comment/Reference:
6)
Inside the rotor

7)
Index error
Comment/Reference: The Lubber line is the vertical white
line painted on the front of the compass. If there is an
error in that, there is an error in the compass mounting
position. CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 para 3 a)
8)
Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on

Comment/Reference:
Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391
9)
Ambient pressure
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millibar
10)
3
Questions 491 500

491. Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically resurveyed every
2 years
5 years
1 year
492. The aircraft heading is 270. The magnetic compass deviation
is -1. The pilot should fly
269
271
270
493. Which instrument is most likely to damage if you have a
rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot-static
leak check?
Air speed indicator
vertical speed indicator
Altimeter
494. The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to
detect airflow direction relative to
the angle of attack of the aircraft
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
the pitch angle of the aircraft
495. The runway heading is
QDM
QFU
QDR
496. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of

cos of latitude
sin of latitude
tan of latitude
497. A machmeter works
always
above 10,000 ft
always except on the ground
498. Radio marker information is displayed on
EICAS
HSI
ADI
499. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall.
Rectification is to
move probe down
move probe up
move probe laterally
500. Where is alpha angle used?
IRS
Angle of attack
Accelerometer

1)
2 years
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-1 para 4 c) ii)
2)
271
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 table 1 pg 18
3)
Altimeter
Comment/Reference: Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid
pressure changes
4)
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

Comment/Reference:
5)
QFU
Comment/Referene:
www2.tky.3web.ne.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.html
6)
cos of latitude
Comment/Reference:
7)
always
Comment/Reference:
8)
ADI
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page
358
9)
move probe up
Comment/Reference:
Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point,
so it operates sooner
10)
Angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems - Pallett Page 73.
Questions 501 510

501. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?
Outer gimbal
Rotating vane
Inner gimbal
502. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same
position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was
removed from
carry out a check swing after fitment
align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error
is induced
503. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the
altimeter set to?
QNH
QFE
1013.25
504. Vibration monitoring signals are sent
via a signal conditioner to the gauge
via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge
direct to the gauge
505. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
from
zero and positive

zero and minus
ambient and minus
506. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in

the inlet. This is to
prevent FOD ingestion
dampen sudden pressure changes
allow for calibration
507. The hot junction of thermocouple is
aft of combustion chamber
in the instrument
in the combustion chamber
508. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the
display?
Rad. alt. goes out of view
Rad. alt. flag in view
Error warning in view
509. Pitot tubes are heated
by compressed bleed air
electrically
by kinetic heating
510. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
above ambient pressure
above zero pressure
below ambient pressure

1)
Inner gimbal
Comment/Reference: Look in B737-200 AMM 34-21-00 pg 1 para
3.B.
2)
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same
position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was
removed from
Comment/Reference:
3)
1013.25
Comment/Reference: 1013.25 mb or QNE. A & P Technician
Airframe Textbook Chap XIII page 592
4)
via a signal conditioner to the gauge

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and
Avionics Page 90
5)
ambient and minus

Comment/Reference: The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction'
from ambient.
6)
dampen sudden pressure changes

Comment/Reference: The restriction is to damp out surges in
pressure
7)
aft of combustion chamber

Comment/Reference:
The hot junction is the sensor, aft of the combustion
chamber
8)
Rad. alt. goes out of view

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195
9)
electrically
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3.2
10) below ambient pressure

Comment/Reference: The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from
ambient.
Questions 511 520

511. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
Yellow, cyan, magenta
Red, blue, green
Red, blue, yellow
512. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _______when close to
stall.
flap position
thrust levers
fast/slow switch
513. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft
equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect
connection is disturbed
a full test of the system should be carried out
the allowances for the system should be halved
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the
aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
514. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the
maximum tolerance for the system would be
+/- 500 feet for the system overall
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors
515. The HSI provides information on
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude

VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
516. The sensing element of the flux valve

aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it
has stabilised
remains in the same position attached to the aircraft
structure
aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns
517. In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
0 degrees
-2 degrees
+2 degrees
518. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum
allowable error is
5 degrees
1 degrees
3 degrees
519. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of
pitot head is carried out with
spirit level
micrometer
an inclinometer
520. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
Displacement
Tied down
Space

1)
Red, blue, green

2)
thrust levers
Comment/Reference:
3)
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the

aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
Comment/Reference: TGL No.6 Para 10.4 e
4)
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error

Comment/Reference:
Download TGL No. Para.8.3
5)
VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar

Comment/Reference: Attitude is on the EADI
6)
remains in the same position attached to the aircraft

structure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page
106-110 & also read B737-200 AMM 34-21-00 pg 5 para 9.C.
7)
0 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 table 1
(-2)-(-2)/2 = 0
8)
5 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 para 12 Note
9)
an inclinometer
Comment/Reference:
10)
Tied down
Comment/Reference: AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of
freedom. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page

129
Questions 521 530

521. A radio altimeter system can be self tested
both on the ground only and in the air
in the air only
on the ground only
522. The apparent wander for directional gyros is
maximum at the pole
compensated by applying a constant torque
dependant on longitude
523. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
toppling
drift
erection
524. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
gyro friction and unbalance
aircraft turning with an error in roll
error in roll when aircraft is turning
525. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the
most amount of influence
when 90 degrees apart
when parallel to each other
526. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge
reads just above 1.
This is normal
Gauge requires re-calibration
Transmitter is unserviceable
527. Coefficient A is adjusted
at 270 degrees
at 360 degrees
on any heading
528. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
both are adjusted on each heading
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected
compass card
master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only
529. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a
compass?
24 inches
So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
20 inches
530. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains
instruments?
Lower
Both
Upper
1)
on the ground only

Comment/Reference: B757 training notes
2)
compensated by applying a constant torque

Comment/Reference:
3)
drift
4)
gyro friction and unbalance

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett and
Coyle Page 104
5)

Comment/Reference: Angle between flinders bars determines
their correcting influence.
6)
Gauge requires re-calibration

Comment/Reference:
7)
on any heading
8)
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected

compass card
Comment/Reference: Al/10-5 9.2 Note.
9)
24 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 8-2 para 6.1.2
10)
Upper
Comment/Reference: http://www.b737.org.uk/probes.htm
Questions 531 540

531. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?
Cautionary info
Warning
Present status
532. Which instrument shows Decision Height?
ADI
HSI
ECAM
533. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
INS
Pitot static probes
EICAS
534. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
restricts inner gimbal
stops outer gimbal
restricts outer gimbal
535. On an EADI the command bars show the
required flight path compared with horizon
required flight path compared to planned flight path
required flight path compared with aircraft position
536. The airdata computer inputs to

altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter
mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
537. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
6
10
2.5
538. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be
described?
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and
the reception of its echo from the ground directly below
the aircraft
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency
depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated
capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric
altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
539. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of
the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?
A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft
540. An RMI has inputs from VOR and
a remote compass input
an azimuth gyro
no other sources

1)
Cautionary info
Comment/Reference:
2)
ADI
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 185
3)
INS
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 128
4)
restricts inner gimbal

Comment/Reference: Used for gimbal lock prevention.
Energised off.
5)
required flight path compared with aircraft position

Systems Pallett Page 212/213
6)
altimeter, FMC, secondary radar

Comment/Reference: FMC for nav. Secondary Radar is ATC
transponder encoder.
7)
10
Comment/Reference: www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/FltDirS.htm
VOR is 5 per dot. ILS is 2 1/2 per dot
8)
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and

the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the
aircraft
Comment/Reference:
9)
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips

10)
an azimuth gyro
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems

Pallett Page 194
Questions 541 550

541. In a modern HSI, the displays are
direction and attitude
course and direction
course and attitude
542. At what height does the rising runway appear?
200 ft.
500 ft.
300 ft
543. An H on the EHSI indicates
DME hold
ILS approach
VOR hold
544. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs
faster
slower
same speed
545. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
reservoir
compressor outlet
compressor inlet
546. What is apparent drift due to?

Errors when aircraft banking
Earths rotation
Gyro pivot friction
547. An aircraft airspeed indicator has
pitot to the capsule
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the
capsule
static to the capsule
548. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.
pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view
pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored
continues to indicate but with a warning flag
549. How does a machmeter work?
True airspeed and speed of sound
Indicated airspeed / temperature
True airspeed / indicated airspeed
550. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release
couplings
a leak check is always required
a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer
a leak check is not required

1)
course and direction

Systems Pallett page 303
2)
200 ft.
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199 &
www.artietheairplane.com/flat_panel/pfd_attitude_director_in
dicator.htm
3)
DME hold
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed
Eismin Page 358
4)
faster
Comment/Reference:
5)
reservoir
Comment/Reference:
External website...
6)
Earths rotation
7)
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the

capsule
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 figure 12-17
8)
pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view

Comment/Reference: Avionic Systems: Operation and
Maintenance Page 189
9)
True airspeed and speed of sound

Comment/Reference: Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition
p339, and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control,
Harris Page 20 & AC65-15A pg 480

10)
a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer

Comment/Reference: TGL 6 (RVSM) para 10.4 e
Questions 551 560

551. The flux detector element
gives heading with respect to magnetic north
changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed
changes heading with the heading of the aircraft
552. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit,
position indication will
be sluggish
oscillate
go hard over
553. The needle of a resolver is connected to
two coils and a permanent magnet
two coils only
two coils and an electromagnet
554. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude
this has no influence on compass readings
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
this is due to insufficient de-aeration
555. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the
following is correct?
The swing can be performed at a later date
A compass swing must be performed
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of
the old
556. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To

steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer
179 degrees
180 degrees
181 degrees
557. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the
cockpit?
Servomotor
A measuring device
Torque synchro
558. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?
Compensation is not required
Hair spring
Square-Law compensation
559. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro
rotor speed have?
No effect
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
560. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by
decreasing the mass of the rotor
increasing the rotor speed
decreasing the rotor speed

1)
gives heading with respect to magnetic north

Comment/Reference: B737-200 AMM 34-21-00
2)
oscillate
Comment/Reference:
3)
two coils only

Comment/Reference:)
4)
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying

Comment/Reference: The bubble can be caused by using the
compass at higher elevations and/or exposure to cold
temperatures. The bubble forms as the liquid in the vial
expands or contracts at a rate faster than the rigid plastic
vial, which forms a vacuum or a 'bubble'.
5)
A compass swing must be performed

Comment/Reference: AL/10-5 10 & CAP 562
6)
179 degrees
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 table 1
columns 7 and 8
7)
Torque synchro
Comment/Reference:
8)
Square-Law compensation
Systems - Pallett, page 45
9)

Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
10)
increasing the rotor speed

Questions 561 570

561. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession
is unaffected by changes in rotor speed
increases with a higher rotor speed
increases with a lower rotor speed
562. Random drift of a gyro is caused by
unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
aircraft turning with an error in roll
rotation of the earth
563. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro
horizon works on the principle of
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
increased reaction of the air from a bisected port
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port
564. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an
electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the
case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft
axis
case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships
axis
mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque
motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings
565. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the
artificial horizon is disconnected
for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'

when the fast erection button is pressed
during turns
566. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro
horizon to
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to
centrifugal effects during a turn
give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn
give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn
567. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must
not be used for a set period after switching on because
excessive hunting will take place
overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur
the normal erection switch contact will burn out
568. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to
unbalance of the gimbals
bearing friction
the effect of the earth's rotation
569. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has
a switch
inner
a switch
outer
a switch
inner
on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the

gimbal
on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the
gimbal
on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the
gimbal
570. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical

axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if
the
rotor speed decreases
spring tension was increased
angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases

1)
increases with a lower rotor speed

2)
unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro

Control Systems, David Harris Page 37 (Real Drift)
3)
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port

4)
case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis
Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for
'athwartship).
5)
during turns
Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 bottom
6)
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to

centrifugal effects during a turn
7)
excessive hunting will take place

Comment/Reference: AL/10-2 9.3.2 a)
8)
the effect of the earth's rotation

9)
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the

outer gimbal
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments & Automatic Flight

Control Systems, David Harris Page 46/7
10)
rotor speed decreases

Comment/Reference: Rigidity!
Questions 571 580

571. The Turn and Slip indicator employs
an azimuth gyro
a rate gyro
a vertical gyro
572. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the
rotor speed would be
it would have no effect
it would under read
it would over read
573. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal
taken off?
By a switch on the outer gimbal
By a flux take-off device
By a switch on the inner gimbal
574. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/85?
To prevent outer gimbal rotating
To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock
575. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is
approximately
4,200 rpm
22,500 rpm
2,400 rpm
576. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is

corrected to
15 cosine latitude
15 sine latitude
15 sine longitude
577. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon
change in inductance to operate
change in resistance to operate
change in voltage applied to operate
578. Precession of a gyro depends on
angular velocity of the rotor only
moment of inertia of the rotor only
moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor
579. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
moment of inertia of the rotor
angular velocity of the rotor
580. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally
rotate
slower
faster
the same speed

1)
a rate gyro
2)
it would over read

3)
By a flux take-off device

Control, David Harris Page 77/78
4)
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock

Comment/Reference:
5)
4,200 rpm
6)
15 sine latitude
7)
change in resistance to operate

Control, David Harris Page 50/51 & Automatic Flight Control
4th ed Pallett & Coyle
8)
moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor

9)
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor

10)
slower
Questions 581 590

581. Gyro rigidity is proportional to
mass and speed
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
582. Gyro precessional force is
inversely proportional to the applied force
directly proportional to applied force
proportional to the square of the applied force
583. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is
approximately
22,000 rpm
4,200 rpm
15,000 rpm
584. A V.S.I. is connected to
static pressure
pitot pressure
vacuum
585. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the
scale it indicates
100 ft/minute rate of climb
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
586. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated

gyro instrument it is recommended that, to allow the gyro
rotor to stop, before moving the instrument
three minutes should elapse
fifteen minutes should elapse
seven minutes should elapse
587. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are
inter-connected to
reduce compressibility error
minimize errors caused by leaks in the system
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft
yaws
588. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to
topple?
Running gyro at low speed
Running gyro at high speed
Inverting the gyro
589. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate
vertically up
vertically down
horizontal to left
590. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule
is the same as case pressure
lags the case pressure
leads the case pressure

1)
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis

2)
directly proportional to applied force

3)
15,000 rpm
4)
static pressure
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 Rate-of-Climb Indicator
& Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 22/23
5)
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478 & Flight Instruments and
Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 24
6)
fifteen minutes should elapse

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/10.2 8.1 c)
7)
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft

yaws
Comment/Reference:
8)
Running gyro at low speed

Comment/Reference:
9)
horizontal to left
10) leads the case pressure

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478/479 & Flight Instruments and
Questions 591 600

591. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a
pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause the
instrument to indicate
a rate of descent
zero
a rate of climb
592. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession
of the rotor will continue until
as long as the force is applied
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied
force
plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force
593. An artificial horizon has
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically
the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
594. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to
14.7 PSI
100 millibar
1 inch Hg
595. In the directional gyro
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally

the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally
596. The millibar is a unit of

barometric pressure
atmospheric temperature
pressure altitude
597. In the Turn and Slip indicator
the spin axis is longitudinal
the spin axis is vertical
the spin axis is lateral
598. In an altimeter, the
capsule is evacuated and sealed
inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure
capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke
599. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed
in
knots (kts)
miles per hour (mph)
hundreds of feet per minute
600. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained
from
a tapping from the induction manifold
a pitot head
a venture

1)
a rate of climb
2)
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied

force
3)
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally

4)
14.7 PSI
5)
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically

6)
barometric pressure
7)
the spin axis is lateral

8)
capsule is evacuated and sealed

9)
hundreds of feet per minute

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 478. (Light aircraft only large aircraft are 1000s ft/min)
10)
a venturi
Questions 601 610

601. A rate two turn is
180 degrees per minute
602. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator
(compared to a Turn and Slip) is
more accurate
more instantaneous
less accurate
603. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter
is provided by a
U-spring acting on the capsule
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
balance weight
604. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be
expanded when the aircraft is
climbing
in level flight
descending
605. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static
group, it is necessary to
calibrate the instrument concerned
mechanism
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)

blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply
606. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross

connected
at the instrument panel connection,
application of pressure
to the pitot head would cause
the
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to
indicate descent
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to
indicate climb
altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to
indicate descent
607. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a
vertical gyro would cause
a continual precession in roll
a pitch error and gyro topple
a roll error and gyro topple
608. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes'
a
refers to
rate 3 turn
rate 1 turn
rate 2 turn
609. A pitot or static leak check is carried out
only when an instrument is changed
whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed
only when a leak is suspected
610. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure
the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is
on
180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively

212 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively
1)

Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 54, Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
Page 131.
2)
more accurate
Comment/Reference: Flight Instruments and Automatic
Flight Control, David Harris Page 55
3)
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule

Flight Control, David Harris Page 8
4)
descending
Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22/23
5)
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)

6)
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed
to indicate descent
Comment/Reference:
indicator
7)
a continual precession in roll

Comment/Reference:
8)
rate 1 turn
Comment/Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ROT
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David
Harris Page 54
9)
whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed

10)
Comment/Reference:
Questions 611 620

611. A temperature of 59F is equivalent to
15C
14.69C
32C
612. Aircraft heading (HDG) is
the angle between True North and the desired track
the angle between True North and the actual track
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of
the aircraft
613. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured
in degrees from the aircraft's heading
in degrees from True North
in degrees from the desired track
614. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
limit the outer gimbal movement
reduce gimbal nutation
prevent gimbal lock
615. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an
director indicator is
by a torque synchro
by a differential synchro
by a control synchro
attitude
616. Agonic lines link places of

equal variation
different variation
zero variation
617. Position error is caused by
mechanical imperfections in an instrument
pitot head position
instrument location in the instrument panel
618. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin
use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32
add 273 degrees
add 112 degrees
619. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either
eddy current, variable spring or moving iron
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
viscous, eddy current or variable spring

1)
15C
2)
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis

of the aircraft
Flight Control, David
Harris Page 87
3)
in degrees from True North

Comment/Reference:
4)
prevent gimbal lock

Comment/Reference:
5)
by a control synchro
Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig
5-20
6)
zero variation
Comment/Reference:
https://ntc.cap.af.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magnetic
compass.cfm
7)
pitot head position

Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 17
8)
add 273 degrees

9)
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot

Comment/Reference:
Questions 621 630

621. Electrical driven gyros are
rotated slower than air driven gyros
rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros
rotated faster than air driven gyros
622. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there
break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give
is a
no scale deflection
full scale deflection
mid scale deflection
623. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque
applied to
the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro
will cause the
inner ring to move
outer ring to move
outer and inner ring to move
624. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the
altimeter case
will not affect the aneroid capsule
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
will cause the aneroid capsule to expand
625. The supply of Desynn indicating system
is alternating current at 400 c/s
is direct current
is alternating current at 50 c/s
626. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the

millibar
scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE)
indicates
indicates
and the
indicates
that the
that the
reading
that the
airfield is 100 ft. above sea level

aircraft is in a region of high pressure
must be corrected to I.S.A. standards
instrument is unserviceable
627. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in

the
aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by
removing the static connector from its static vent after
waiting for a period of three minutes
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test
set
removing the static connector from its static vent
628. An altimeter is operated
by the pitot system
by the vacuum system
by the static system
629. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the
altimeter?
Compensates for change in density
Corrects for capsule elasticity
Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring
630. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?
Both vertical and horizontal
Vertical
Horizontal

1)
rotated faster than air driven gyros

2)
full scale deflection

Comment/Reference: Think of it this way - resistance
increases with temperature, and that drives it toward
If the bulb circuit is broken, the resistance
will be
infinite
3)
outer ring to move

Comment/Reference:
4)
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract

5)
is direct current
6)
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable

7)
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the

test set
Comment/Reference:
8)
by the static system

9)
Corrects for capsule elasticity

fsd.
10)
Horizontal
Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 8, and page 41/42
Questions 631 640

631. The capsule in an altimeter responds to
absolute pressure
gauge pressure
differential pressure
632. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to
the
inner gimbal
instrument case
rotor
633. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of
airspeed and altitude
mach number and temperature
airspeed and temperature
634. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a
conventional one is
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a
conventional one
it does not require pitot/static pressure
it does not require warming up
635. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with
altitude, the T.A.S.
remains the same
decreases
increases
636. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a

rate gyro
vertical gyro
directional gyro
637. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments
is anti-freeze oil
is silica-gel
is sodium-bicarbonate
638. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of
gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
639. Bourdon Tubes have
oval cross section
circular cross section
toroidal cross section
640. In a Bourdon tube
one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere
both ends sealed
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
1)
absolute pressure
2)
instrument case
3)
mach number and temperature

Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett
Page
272
4):
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a

conventional one
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control
Systems,
David Harris Page 27
5)
increases
Comment/Reference:
Systems,
6)
directional gyro
Comment/Reference:
7)
is silica-gel
8)
9)
oval cross section

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 471 fig 12-3 &
David
Harris Page 182 Figure 7.1
Systems
10) one end is sealed and the other end open to the
pressure
source
Comment/Reference: AC 65-15A pg 471 Fig 12-3 &
Systems
Questions 641 650

641. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use
the
Charle's Law
Brahm's press principle
Boyle's Law
642. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is
kerosene
castor-oil
anti-freeze oil
643. The distance readout on an HSI is
dialed in by the pilot
from the aircraft ATC system
from the aircraft DME system
644. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to
the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either
electrically or by a spring, is
known as
a tied gyro
a rate gyro
an earth gyro
645. Pressure may be expressed in
force per unit area
force per unit volume
weight or mass
646. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon

pressure gauge?
tube
To return the pointer to zero

To reduce 'backlash'
To act a controlling force
647. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained
the aircraft's
directional gyros
attitude rate gyros
vertical gyros
648. One dot VOR deviation represents
2 miles
5
1
649. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures
cannot be of the Bourdon tube type
has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube
operated
650. An absolute pressure gauge measures
pressures extremely accurately
the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
from
1)
Brahm's press principle

Comment/Reference:
2)
castor-oil
Comment/Reference:
3)
from the aircraft DME system
4)
a rate gyro
Comment/Reference: www.tpub.com/neets/book15/63e.htm
Systems,
5)
force per unit area

6)
To reduce 'backlash'
Comment/Reference:
7)
vertical gyros
8)
9)
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube

operated
Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems
David Harris Page 182.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manometer#Bourdon
The Bourdon tube is a coil, as the gauge pressure increases
the tube will tend to uncoil, while a reduced gauge pressure
will cause the tube to coil more tightly.
10)
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum

Comment/Reference:
Questions 651 660

651. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading
Tube pressure gauge is equal to
Bourdon
atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure

absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
652. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of
direction he is tracking relative to
which
an ADF station
a VOR station
an ILS station
653. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure
gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute
pressure, this represents
1,014.7 p.s.i.
985.3 p.s.i.
1,000 p.s.i.
654. To fill a Dead Weight Tester
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
remove platform and fill cylinder
screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir
655. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the
millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will
read
the airfield height

zero
off scale
656. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight

inspection
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on
the millibar scale
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set
on the millibar scale
657. The HSI compass card is positioned by the
aircraft ADF system
heading select knob
compass system
658. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the
square root of the speed
square of the speed
cube root of the speed
659. The supply to an A.S.I.
are pitot and static pressure
is static pressure only
is pitot pressure only
660. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the
aircraft is
decelerating
accelerating
climbing

1)
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure

Comment/Reference:
2)
a VOR station
Comment/Reference:
3)
1,014.7 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference:
4)
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir

Comment/Reference:
5)
the airfield height

6)
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale

Comment/Reference: QFE is set and it should read airfield
height
7)
compass system
Comment/Reference:
8)
square of the speed

9)
are pitot and static pressure

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 476 Flight Instruments and
Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13
10) accelerating
Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13
661. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a

localiser approach is proportional to
the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations
the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations
the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers
662. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still
airspeed will be
air,
equal to the ground speed

less than the ground speed
greater than the ground speed
663. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots,
a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed
is
encounters
450 knots
350 knots
400 knots
664. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a
ranging bar and screws are fitted
10 to 1 gearing is used
bi-metal corrector is employed
665. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed
of
sound relative to the aircraft's altitude
the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed
the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground
level
666. The moving element of a ratiometer has

one coil
two coils
three coils
667. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an
you are checking for leaks in the
altimeter,
capsule stack
instrument case
pressure chamber
668. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the
barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the
altimeter
should read
zero feet
below zero feet (negative altitude)
positive altitude
669. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows
indications of 120 and 'TO'. After passing over the
station, on the same course, the indications will be
300 and FROM
120 and FROM
300 and TO
670. The command bars in a flight director system indicate
the actual path with respect to required path
true horizon
the required path with respect to actual path

1)
the difference between the amplitudes on the two

modulations
Comment/Reference:
2)
equal to the ground speed

Comment/Reference:
3)
350 knots
4)
ranging bar and screws are fitted

systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2.18 and text below
5)
the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed

Automatic light Control Systems, David Harris Page 19, and
aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett age 45
6)
two coils
Control systems Page 186 Fig 7.4 and para below
7)
instrument case
Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook
8)
below zero feet (negative altitude)

Comment/Reference: Assuming aircraft is on the ground
9)
120 and FROM

Comment/Reference:
10)
the required path with respect to actual path

Comment/Reference:
light
p11-9
Questions 671 680

671. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby
magnetic compass located in the vicinity
precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached
to the correct attachment bolt
precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment
bolts are of the specified type
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anticlockwise direction around the window
672. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass
and the radio pointer arrow is
datum
the relative bearing

the complimentary bearing
the magnetic bearing
673. A compass is made aperiodic by
locking
using fluid
tying it to the case
674. Isogonal lines link places of
different variation
equal variation
zero variation
675. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused
by
displacement of erection control device

bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
676. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent

speed?
Air
278 knots
550 knots
662 knots
677. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what
the Calibrated Airspeed?
296 knots
293 knots
304 knots
678. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
679. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of
an orifice
a capillary
both an orifice and capillary
680. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with
respect to the aircraft's
both lateral and longitudinal axis
longitudinal axis
lateral axis
is

1)
precautions must be taken to ensure that the
bolts are of the specified type
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 6-8 para 4.7
attachment
2)
the relative bearing
3)
using fluid
Comment/Reference:
4)
equal variation
5)

(acceleration error)
6)
278 knots
Comment/Reference: True airspeed is always higher than
EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level.
7)
304 knots
8)

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Systems. Pallett
pg 122
9)
both an orifice and a capillary

Comment/Reference:
10)
longitudinal axis

Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 64/65 & B737-200
AMM 34-21-00
Questions 681 690

681. The manual VOR input is for
the course deviation bar
the radio magnetic indicator
the ADI
682. After correction of the north-south heading reading on
a compass swing, the resultant correction is known as
magnetic heading
residual deviation
correct heading
683. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by
mercury switch on outer ring
an adjustment nut on inner ring
series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor
684. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system,
would
carry out a new compass swing
set it to zero datum
set it up the same as the one removed
685. In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
you
-2 degrees
0 degrees
+2 degrees
686. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of

approach to or deviation from selected altitude
selection of altitude
altitude information
687. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum
tolerance for the system is
+/- 500ft system tolerance
+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
688. Machmeters work on
pitot
pitot and static
static
689. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn
when Mcrit is reached
when envelope limit is reached
when Mach 1 is exceeded
690. An HSI provides what information?
VOR, map, attitude, ILS
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar

1)
the course deviation bar
2)
residual deviation
3)
an adjustment nut on inner ring

Flight Control Systems Page 45
4)
carry out a new compass swing

Comment/Reference:
5)
-2 degrees
Comment/Reference: This is not he same as a previous, & CAP
562 Leaflet 8-2 para 14.1 Table 1
6)
approach to or deviation from selected altitude

Comment/Reference:
www.domingoaereo.hpg.ig.com.br/boeing727/manual/warnings.htm
7)

Comment/Reference: TGL No.6 Para.8.3 www.ecacnav.com/RVSM
8)
pitot and static

9)
when Mcrit is reached

Comment/Reference:
10)
VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar

Comment/Reference:
Questions 691 700

691. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by
compression of air in the tube at high speed
misalignment of pitot head
blockage in the pitot tube
692. The earth's magnetic field is
horizontal across the earth
vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator
vertical across the earth
693. There is an air bubble in the compass:
It is due to high altitude
It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid
The fluid is not aerated properly
694. A flux detector output is a
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation
voltage
A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage
rectified D.C. voltage
695. Primary Radar is
reflected signal from aircraft's own radar
interrogation of aircraft's transponder
for ground use only
696. The general function of the ATC is to

reply with an identification signal after being interrogated
by a ground station
interrogate other aircraft which reply with an
identification signal
interrogate the ground station which replies with an
identification
697. ACARS is primarily used for communicating with
air traffic control
maintenance base
other aircraft
698. SELCAL is used to
alert ground stations
monitor ground signals
alert other aircraft
699. HF communication frequency is in the range
108 - 118 MHz
23 - 30 kHz
3-30 MHz
700. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,
the autoland can continue
the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot
the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft
1)

compression of air in the tube at high speed
Flight Control Systems - David Harris P17 ASI Errors
(3)
2)
vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic

equator
Comment/Reference:
3)
It is due to high altitude

Comment/Reference: The bubble can be caused by using the
compass at higher elevations and/or exposure to cold
temperatures. The bubble forms as the liquid in the vial
expands or contracts at a rate faster than the rigid plastic
vial, which forms a vacuum or a 'bubble'.
www.brunton.com/faq.php?id=53&faq_cat_selected=Compass
4)
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation

voltage
5)
reflected signal from aircraft's own radar

Comment/Reference: ATC is ground use, but the Wxr and
are also 'primary radar'
TCAS
6)
reply with an identification signal after being interrogated

by a ground station
Comment/Reference:
7)
maintenance base
Comment/Reference:
monitor ground signals
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 23-00-00 pg 1 para 2 D)
& Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 297
8)
9)
3-30 MHz
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High_Frequency
10)
the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft

Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control
211
pg
Questions 701 710

701. The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar
is
time taken to receive returns
percentage of emitted signal returned
frequency of returns
702. With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is
disturbed by the pilot, the course will be
corrected by the
flight director input
autopilot panel
normal flight control
703. An HF coupling is used to match the
receiver
aerial
boom-set (headphones and mic)
704. On an aircraft's navigation display, distance
equipment gives
measuring
slant range to beacon

ground range to beacon
height and range to beacon
705. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system,
radio deviation is shown on the
EHSI & EADI
EADI
EHSI
706. On a flight management system, the database is updated

every
1 Month
3 Months
2 Months
707. What is the purpose of the autopilot?
To enable the aircraft to land in bad weather
To relieve the flight crew of their duties during long haul
flights
To reduce the flight crew's workload
708. An ADF system includes
a loop antenna
a sense antenna
both a sense and loop antenna
709. Autopilot servo brake is energized
at the same time as the clutch
to actuate on
to actuate off
710. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?
Heavy passenger aircraft
Aerial work aircraft
Light aircraft

1)
time taken to receive returns

Comment/Reference:
2)
normal flight control

Comment/Reference:
3)
aerial
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 524 & Aircraft Radio Systems
Powell Page 30
4)
slant range to beacon

Textbook page 12-17 & Aircraft Electricity &
Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 310
5)
EHSI & EADI

Comment/Reference: Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The
deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI
and
EADI
6)
1 Month
Comment/Reference:
7)
To reduce the flight crew's workload

8)
both a sense and loop antenna

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 529 & Aircraft Electricity &
9)
to actuate off
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems
3rd Ed Page 142
10)
Light aircraft
Comment/Reference: ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article

47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft.
However, no direct reference to them being 'essential'
on light aircraft is found.
Questions 711 720

711. Emergency frequency is
121.5 MHz
123.5 MHz
125.5 MHz
712. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
VHF
ILS
VOR
713. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?
ILS
VHF
VOR
714. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
Polyurethane
Cellulose only
Not cellulose
715. IRS obtains basic position information by
integrating twice the accelerometer output
differentiating the accelerometer output
integrating the accelerometer output
716. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna

use cellulose paint
do not use cellulose paint
use any paint
717. To minimize cross cable interference
run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles
run cables as single bundle
place filter in power supply
718. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?
Four
Three
Two
719. What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?
Hijack
Emergency
Radio Failure
720. The number of VHF frequency channels is
760
360
720

1)
121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference: JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850. Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25 & AC15-15A pg 535
test equipment
2)
VHF
Comment/Reference: 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency.
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
AC65-15A pg 520
Jeppesen
3)
VOR
Comment/Reference: 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less
than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. Jeppesen A&P
Technician
4)
Not cellulose
5)
integrating twice the accelerometer output

Comment/Reference:
6)
do not use cellulose paint

7)
run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles

Comment/Reference:
8)
Three
Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd
Edition Page 81. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 12-36
9)
Emergency
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/7700#Emergency_codes
10)
720
Comment/Reference: 720 channels at 25kHz spacing, do a
search
Questions 721 730

721. The autopilot is instructed by the
FMC
Flight Director
GPS
722. ILS marker beacon lights are
blue, amber, white
green, blue, amber
blue, white, green
723. 111.1 MHz is
a HF frequency
a VOR frequency
an ILS frequency
724. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is
energised off
energised at the same time as the clutch
energised on
725. The aviation distress frequency is
121.5 kHZ
121.5 MHz
122.5 MHz
726. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to

2500 ft.
100 ft.
2000 ft.
727. 112.1 MHz is
an ILS frequency
an ADF frequency
a VOR frequency
728. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?
Very High Frequency
Low Frequency
High Frequency
729. Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?
Loran C
DME
VOR
730. A GPS satellite will come into view
10 above the horizon with respect to the viewer

1)
FMC
Comment/Reference:
2)
blue, amber, white

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics 5th
Ed Eismin Page 312. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
Page 12-24
3)
an ILS frequency
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems
Page
69 shows this as a localiser frequency. Jeppesen
A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24, Automatic
Flight
Control 4th ed pg 181 says band 108.0 112.1 as
Localiser
frequencys
4)
energised off
Comment/Reference:
Page 142.
Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett
5)
121.5 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 533 & JAR OPS 1.820 or 1.850
c. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25
6)
2500 ft.
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics.
Eismin Page 323 - 324
7)
a VOR frequency
Comment/Reference: 112 - 118 MHz are VOR frequencies.
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
8)
Low Frequency
Comment/Reference: Decca navigation is low frequency.
9)
Loran C
Comment/Reference: Loran C is a type of LF Navigation.

Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft Radio
Systems by James Powell Page 101
10)

Comment/Reference: 'Elevation mask' is 15 degrees
www.gpscontrol.com/php/support/tutorial/accuracy.php
Questions 731 740

731. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply
to
private aircraft
transport category aircraft only
aerial work and transport category aircraft
732. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
to allow the pilot to override
to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent
runaway
to limit the range of control movement
733. Track mode of an RA is operational
from 1.0 to 100 feet
from 0 to 2,500 feet
above 10,000 feet
734. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
1
3
2
735. Wavelength of X band radar is
3 cm
5 cm
10 m
736. Precipitation static is caused by

lightning strikes
skin to air particle collisions
HF radiation
737. HF aerials have weak points designed at
the front end
both ends
the back end
738. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft
transponder?
1000 MHz
1030 MHz
1090 MHz
739. CAT 2 RVR limit is
1200 ft
1000 ft
10,000 ft
740. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is
THS
Ailerons
Elevators
inhibited?

1)
transport category aircraft only

Comment/Reference: ANO Schedule 4 Scale N
2)
to allow the pilot to override

Pg
289
3)
from 0 to 2,500 feet

Comment/Reference: The radio altimeter is operational
0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page
223
4)
from
2
Comment/Reference: Avionic Systems: Operation and
Maintenance page 160
5)
3 cm
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Avionics Dale
Page 82 &
www.everythingweather.com/weather-radar/bands.shtml
Xband Radars operate on a wavelength of 2.5-4 cm and
frequency of 8-12 GHz
6)
skin to air particle collisions

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics - Eismin page 211& CAP 562 Leaflet 9-12
Cundy
a
para
3 a)
7)
the back end

Comment/Reference:
CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2.2.4
8)
1090 MHz
Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals page 211 &
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eisman pg 322
9)
1200 ft
Comment/Reference:
CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range
(RVR)
is 'not less than 1200ft'. Ref: Avionic

Fundamentals page
199 & Automatic Flight Control 4th
Ed Pallett pg 279 400m =
1312 ft
10)
THS
Comment/Reference:
12-35
A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
Pg
Questions 741 750

741. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will
angle of incidence remains the same
decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
increase the angle of incidence of the THS
742. In autopilot, the control column
does not move
moves in pitch and roll
moves in pitch
743. A hyperbolic system is
VOR
ILS
LORAN C
744. When is autothrottledisengaged?
On landing
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that
can be selected in case of emergency
On selection of thrust reverse
TO/GA
745. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a

command input will cause
column to move but trim system not to move
column to move and trim system to move
column will not move and trim system will move
pitch
746. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the

frequency?
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
Number of pulses per signal
Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
747. CAT 2 RVR limit is
800 m
200 m
400 m
748. How many programs can a FMC store?
Two. Both active
Two. One active and one standby
One current
749. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
take off
approach
cruise
750. How does an IRS calculate velocity?
Integration of accelerometers
Differentiation of laser gyro
Double integration of accelerometers
pulse

1)
decrease the angle of incidence of the

Comment/Reference:
THS
2)
moves in pitch and roll

Comment/Reference: A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
Pg
12-47 (Parallel system). This is assuming it is a
non-flyby-wire aircraft.
3)
LORAN C
Comment/Reference: Loran C is a type of Omega
Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153
4)
On selection of thrust reverse

Page
286
5)
column to move and trim system to move

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
- This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire
aircraft.
6)
12-47
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second

Comment/Reference:
7)
400 m
Comment/Reference: CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range
is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m Ref:
Avionic
Fundamentals page 199 & Automatic Flight
Control 4th ed
Pallett pg 279
RVR)
8)
Two. One active and one standby

Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00
page 201.
9)
take off
Comment/Reference:
Edition Page 286
10)
Pallett Automatic Flight Control
Integration of accelerometers
Edition Page 191
4th
4th
Questions 751 760

751. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?
Localizer
Glideslope
VOR
752. Glideslope controls autopilot in
roll
yaw
pitch
753. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference
dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere
at
by
low current levels

high voltage levels
all voltage levels
754. What is B-RNAV?
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
Indicates true airspeed
Ability to store 6 waypoints
755. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs
the following ground based transmitters
RA, ADF, ILS
DME, ILS, ADF
VOR, ILS
from
756. What is the wavelength of C band radar?

3 cm
17 m
7 cm
757. What is primary radar?
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
Radar that gives height and position
Land based
758. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?
75 MHz
50 MHz
100 MHz
759. TCAS is selected
automatically
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
not available in cruise
760. The manual VOR input is for
course deviation bar
glideslope
RMI

1)
Glideslope
Edition Page 187
2)
pitch
Edition Page 187
3)
low current levels

Comment/Reference: Reference found in an older
version of
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700
(Not in latest
edition). Quote 'If the aircraft is
equipped with static
dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current and
more frequently'.
4)
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active

Comment/Reference:
waypoint
5)
VOR, ILS
Comment/Reference: An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is
not
ground based) Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman
pg 364
6)
7 cm
Comment/Reference: C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft
systems use about 5.6cm. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-27 &
www.everythingweather.com/weather-radar/bands.shtml
7)
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected

Comment/Reference: www.bbc.co.uk/dna/h2g2/A588684
8)
75 MHz
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Automatic Flight
Control. Pallett, 4th Edition Page 183/4
pulse
9)
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel

Comment/Reference:
10)
course deviation bar

Comment/Reference:
B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02
Questions 761 770

761. The mach trim is initiated by
an electric motor
the autopilot motor
a PCU
762. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?
White
Blue
Amber
763. A GPS system is formed from
receiver, processing unit, interactive console
satellites, processing unit, display unit
space, control, user
764. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is
available, it
must be connected to the left side
can be connected to either side
must be connected to the right side
765. Laser gyros are
aligned to the magnetic north
aligned to the aircraft structure
aligned to the true north
766. Laser gyros

have rotational parts
do not have rotational parts
have movable parts
767. A radio coupled approach is
glideslope first, followed by localiser
localiser first, followed by glideslope
in any order
768. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel
for yaw damping compensation
for turn command back-up
for turn coordination
769. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS
changes with radio altitude
does not change
changes with barometric altitude
770. What frequency are VOR and ILS?
UHF
VHF
HF

1)
the autopilot motor

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett,
Page 231
2)
Amber
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 527 & Jeppesen - Avionics
Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2 & Aircraft Electricity &
3)
space, control, user

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Ed Eisman pg 319
must be connected to the left side
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics
Ed Eismin Chap 13 page 271
5th
4)
5)
aligned to the aircraft structure

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals
5th
Page
99
6)
do not have rotational parts

Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_laser_gyroscope & Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 99
7)
localiser first, followed by glideslope

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett
184-185
8)
for turn coordination

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control. Pallett.
4th Ed Page 121/122
9)
changes with radio altitude
Page
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00 pg 18

Avionic Fundamentals page 263
10) VHF
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 525 & Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems Page 426
Questions 771 780

771. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for
marker beacons
HF communications
weather radar
772. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust
reversers are deployed. What happens to autothrottle?
Advances throttles
Automatically switches off
Stays armed for go around in an emergency
773. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned
on right side of control wheel
on side of control wheel furthest from throttles
on left side of control wheel
774. ILS and VOR operate in which range
VHF
UHF
HF
775. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected
by calendar date monthly
in the air by the pilot
on the ground by the pilot
776. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground

will give
amber warning
red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps,
throttle'
red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'
777. The components of an ILS are
a localizer and a glide slope
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
a localizer and the marker beacons
778. In ILS, the glideslope provides
vertical steering
lateral steering
distance checks
779. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver
predominates, the deviation indicator will show
fly right
fly left
the flag
780. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
750 ft.
1000 ft.
500 ft.

1)
HF communications
Comment/Reference: Jepessen A & P Technician Textbook p12-3
fig 12-2 shows HF COMM as 2-30 MHz
2)
Automatically switches off

Coyle Page 286
3)
on side of control wheel furthest from throttles

Comment/Reference: JAR 25.1329 (d)
4)
VHF
Airframe Textbook 12-1
5)
in the air by the pilot

Comment/Reference: FMC has a primary (active) and a
secondary (alternative) stored flight plan.
6)
red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00
7)
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 525 & Aircraft Radio Systems
by James Powell page 69
8)
vertical steering
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell
page 69 & Automatic Flight Control 4th ed Pallett pg 181
9)
fly right
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed Pallett
pg 182 & Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73
10)
500 ft.
Comment/Reference:
Questions 781 790

781. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
glideslope
ADF
VOR
782. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that
can be selected in
approach
take off
cruise
783. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for
aircraft type
magnetic orientation
location
784. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?
BITE
FMC via CDU
Dataplate on the FMC
785. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
Pressure altimeter
Air speed indicator
Radio altimeter
786. INS has mercury switches on

outer gimbal
inner gimbal
all gimbals
787. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS
approach, the aircraft must fly
down
nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach
up
788. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an
ILS?
90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway
centreline
150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway
centerline
789. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding
(ADF) system operate?
190 - 1759 KHz
108.00 - 117.95 MHz
1025 - 1150 KHz
790. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring
Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs
of the interrogation signal
By using an alternate frequency

By modulation of an audio tone

1)
glideslope
Comment/Reference:
2)
take off
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed page 286
3)
location
Comment/Reference: Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are
carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose
being to tell the installed unit which position it is
serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The
unit is universal for all
4)
FMC via CDU

Comment/Reference:
5)
Radio altimeter
Comment/Reference: Of the three, GPWS has only connection
to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.
6)
all gimbals
7)
down
Comment/Reference:
8)
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway

centreline
pg 182 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70
9)
190 - 1759 KHz

Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 303 & Jeppesen A&P Technician
10)
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs

of the interrogation signal
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eisman 5th
Ed pg 310 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106
Questions 791 800

791. From where is bearing information received for display on
the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?
From ADF only
From VOR and ADF systems
From VOR only
792. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio
communication?
HF
VHF
VHF and UHF
793. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF)
communication system?
To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF
band
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum
matching of impedance
To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical
length
794. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial
reference system being connected to a weather radar?
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance
for the display
To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft
on ground
795. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a

Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Rudder/ailerons
Autothrottle
Flaps/undercarriage
796. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to

ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it operate?
It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher
frequencies
It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies
than ILS
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam
which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN
797. The FMS navigation database is updated
daily
after a B or C check has been completed
every 28 days
798. In an IRS system you would expect to find
three strap down accelerometers
an azimuth gyro system
ring laser gyros
799. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
a mass suspended in free air
suspended between two springs in a tube
a remotely mounted mass on the airframe
800. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
as part of the passenger telephone system
communications between the aircraft and base
reporting defects on the aircraft automatically

1)
From VOR and ADF systems

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated
2)
VHF and UHF

Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/avaition/14014/css/14014_166.htm
3)
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum

matching of impedance
Comment/Reference:
4)
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna

Comment/Reference: www.artietheairplane.com/radar.htm
5)
Flaps/undercarriage
6)
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam

which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN
Eisman pg 313 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224
7)
every 28 days
Comment/Reference:
8)
ring laser gyros

Comment/Reference:
Assuming they mean a strapdown system.
9)
suspended between two springs in a tube

Systems Pallett Page 256. (Note: the mass is suspended in
fluid, and is not remote)
10)
communications between the aircraft and base
Comment/Reference:
Questions 801 810

801. What are the main areas of the autopilot?
Error, correction, follow up, demand
Error, correction, follow up, command
Error, correction , demand, resolved
802. VHF frequency is
108 - 136 MHz
108 - 112 MHz
108 - 118 MHz
803. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal
of a
hi tone chime
horn
two tone chime
804. Channel 3 on a CVR records
captain
flightdeck
first officer
805. DME works on the frequency of
UHF
HF
VHF
806. A radial is referenced

on a compass
to a VOR
from a beacon
807. ADF works by using
both loop and sense aerial
sense aerial
loop aerial
808. How is the next database on the FMC activated?
Automatically by due date
Manually, on the ground
Manually in the air
809. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?
Mode 2
Mode 6
Mode 3
810. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system
would be
Mode S
Mode A
Mode C

1)
Error, correction, follow up, command

Comment/Reference:
2)
108 - 136 MHz

Electronics Eismin Page 295
3)
hi tone chime
Comment/Reference: B737
4)
flightdeck
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1457 para c) (3)
5)
UHF
Electronics Eismin Page 310 & 278
6)
from a beacon
Comment/Reference: radial is FROM a VOR beacon
7)
both loop and sense aerial

8)
Manually, on the ground

Comment/Reference:
9)
Mode 2
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 34-42-00 pg 10 & Transport
Category Aircraft Systems Page 9.19 &
www.boeing-727.com/Data/systems/infogpws.html
10) Mode S
Comment/Reference: Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department
of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance) & Aircraft
Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 321
Questions 811 820

811. GPS
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
812. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by
placing mercury switches
on both gimbal rings
on outer gimbal ring
on inner gimbal ring
813. The IRS laser gyro is a
displacement gyro
rate gyro
displaced gyro
814. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
either RA or TA
RA
TA
815. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
816. The laser ring gyro

has a stabilized platform
does not have gimbal and rotating parts
does not have gimbal
817. 3 autopilot computers are considered
Fail Operable
Fail resistant
Fail Passive
818. In autopilot with THS in motion, the
Auto Trim is inhibited
Mach trim is inhibited
elevator is inhibited
819. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?
It is not possible
By deselecting auto-throttle first
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
820. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?
Within reach of the Captain
Within reach of both pilots
Within reach of the First Officer

1)

Comment/Reference:
2)
on inner gimbal ring

Comment/Reference:
3)
rate gyro
Comment/Reference: Rate integrated gyro. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Eismin Page 373
4)
RA
Comment/Reference: B737-2/4/500 AMM 34-45-00 pg 1 para 1 c)
& Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport
FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
5)
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-45-00 pg 9 fig 3 &
Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport
FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
6)
does not have gimbal and rotating parts

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th
Ed. Eismin Page 373
7)
Fail Operable
8)
Auto Trim is inhibited
9)
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers

Comment/Reference:
10)
Within reach of both pilots

Comment/Reference:
Questions 821 830

821. Decca navigation uses
VHF
LF
HF
822. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS
fails during flight
the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot
switches over to standby
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by
mode, now it is active.
the failed FMS has a blank screen
823. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?
Stall warning
Resolution Advisories
Gear position warning
824. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of
50 MHz
100 MHz
75 MHz
825. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
the CDI offset bar
the ILS system
the RMI
826. A flat plate antenna is a

a Doppler antenna
parabolic antenna
a series of slots and wave guides
827. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in
line of sight of
3 satellites
4 satellites
6 satellites
828. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is
performed of the rad. alt. system?
TCAS
GPWS
altitude alert
829. The GPS satellite system consists of
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
830. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:
Altitude and interrogation
Interrogation
Altitude
Answers for Questions 821 -830

1)
LF
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decca_Navigator_System
2)
the failed FMS has a blank screen

3)
Stall warning
4)
75 MHz
Control 4th ed Pallet pg 183 & Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics Eismin page 311
5)
the CDI offset bar
6)
a series of slots and wave guides

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin
page 342
7)
4 satellites
Pages 319. 4 satellites are required to provide height
information as well as position.
8)
GPWS
9)

Pages 318 & 319
10) Altitude
Eisman pg 321 & Avionics Fundamentals Page 211
Questions 831 840

831. The autothrottle system at touchdown will
go to idle
apply reverse thrust
go to idle and disconnect
832. When will the decision height aural warning sound?
At decision height
After decision height
Before decision height
833. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed
under CAA Rules
for the database of aircraft landing altitudes
to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft
834. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the
pilot must
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
set the altitude to be fed into the INS
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into
the INS
835. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has
accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the
airframe
accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable
platform
accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe
836. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has

the acceleration force balanced by a
linear force
constant force
non-linear force
837. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect
accelerations down to
10-6 g
10-2 g
10-3 g
838. A laser gyro output is
directly proportional to frequency addition
directly proportional to angular turning rate
inversely proportional to angular turning rate
839. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of
the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform
gyro wander
platform misalignment
840. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from
acceleration by
a single integration
two successive integrations
a differential followed by an integration

1)
go to idle and disconnect

Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286
2)
At decision height
3)
to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft
4)
Insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
5)
accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe

6)
linear force
7)
10-6 g
8)
directly proportional to angular turning rate

Eisman pg 374
9)
the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform

pg 58 & Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control,
10)
two successive integrations

Questions 841 850

841. Coriolis effect is corrected for by
adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs
re-aligning the stable platform
torquing the gyros
842. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear
because of a
linear spring
force balance system
pendulous suspension
843. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted
orthogonally
120 degrees apart
parallel to each other
844. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
stop the gyros from toppling
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
provide attitude reference
845. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a
rate gyro
rate integrating gyro
displacement gyro
846. Earth rate is approximately

5 degrees per hour
84 degrees per hour
15 degrees per hour
847. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the
azimuth gimbal
roll gimbal
pitch gimbal
848. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal
to use
four gimbals
three gimbals
a pitch gimbal
849. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a
Schuler pendulum
the platform remains fixed with respect to the local
vertical
the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft
the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical
850. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
8.4 minutes
84.4 seconds
84.4 minutes

1)
adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs

Control, David Harris Page
2)
force balance system

3)
orthogonally
4)
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers

5)
rate integrating gyro

6)
15 degrees per hour

7)
azimuth gimbal
8)
four gimbals
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gimbal_lock
9)
the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical

10)
84.4 minutes
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schuler_tuning &
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris
Page 86
Questions 851 860

851. An IN system requires data from the
air data computer
satellites
Doppler system
852. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN
system will flash
thirty seconds before a track change is required
two minutes before the next waypoint
when an error is detected
853. XTK (cross track) is the
perpendicular distance from the desired track
angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right
desired track
actual track across the earth's surface
854. The output of an INS can be fed to
vertical speed indicators
altimeters
attitude indicators
855. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are
mounted
90 to each other
parallel to each other
of
120 apart
856. A basic I.N.S. platform has

3 axis accelerometer
3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll)
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
857. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies
great circle arc
course directed by ground station
rhumb line
858. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the
moves?
aircraft
Waypoints
E.T.A.
Present position
859. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT
is made
to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers
displays
when navigation information is lost
when attitude information is lost
REF
ADI
860. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides

both when airborne and on the ground
standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches
in the undercarriage
standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment
phase

1)
air data computer

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-28-00 pg 1 para 1 D)
2)
two minutes before the next waypoint

3)
perpendicular distance from the desired track

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed Pallett &
Coyle pg 193 & Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight
4)
attitude indicators
5)
90 to each other
6)
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros

Control, David Harris Page 78. 1 accelerometer referenced
north and the other to east, see AC65-15A pg 531
7)
great circle arc

8)
Present position
9)
when navigation information is lost

10)
both when airborne and on the ground

Questions 861 870

861. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays
distance perpendicular from the selected track
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the
right or left of the desired track
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise
direction from the desired track
862. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from
the earth's rotational rate (15/hour) times the sine of the
longitude
the earth's rotational rate (15/hour) times the cosine of
the latitude
latitude
863. INS wind speed is calculated from
the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS
the vectorial addition of IAS and GS
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
864. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to
cancel the centripetal error
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along
its insensitive axis
865. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by

an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output
depending on heading
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal
866. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)

an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds
867. An IRS alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any
time during the alignment
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present
position is used for the alignment
takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before
alignment
868. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance
Test' the
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude
computed by IRU
entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the
latitude and longitude at the last power down
the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and
longitude present position entered
869. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that
that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different
frequencies
the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating
beams to lock together
870. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes
from the
flight director computer
VHF nav system
VHF comm system

1)
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the

right or left of the desired track
Coyle pg 193 & Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight
2)

latitude
3)
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
4)
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to

cancel the centripetal error
5)
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal
6)
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds

Comment/Reference:
Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems,
7)
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any

time during the alignment
8)
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude

computed by IRU
9)
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating

beams to lock together
10)
VHF nav system
Questions 871 880

871. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode
is the difference between the desired course and the actual
course
comes direct from the compass system
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual
heading
872. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is
displayed by the
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading
selected course counter
873. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the
DME system
VLF nav system
VHF nav set
874. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation
is
150 Hz
90 Hz
90 KHZ
875. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser
centre line, as seen from the localiser transmitter, is
90 KHz
90 Hz
150 Hz
876. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading

180, when the aircraft heading is 150 is
turn left
turn right
straight ahead
877. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of
the runway it is in the
equi-signal sector
150 Hz modulation sector
90 Hz modulation sector
878. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway
in terms of
the horizontal plane
distance to touch down
the vertical plane
879. The glideslope transmitter is located
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway
at the approach end of the runway
880. The glideslope and localiser frequencies
have to be selected separately
are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency
selection is not necessary
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both

1)
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual

heading
2)
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
3)
VHF nav set
4)
90 Hz
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, pg
182, Fig.6.6 & Aircraft Radio Systems Powell, pg 72, top of
L/H column
5)
150 Hz
Coyle pg 182. It says 'as seen from the localiser
transmitter'
6)
turn right
7)
equi-signal sector
8)
9)
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett pg 182
& Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 72, Fig. 5.5
10)
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 71
and Avionics Fundamentals, Jeppesen, page 206.
Each airport has a separate ILS freq.
Questions 881 - 890

881. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in
terms of
the vertical plane
distance to touchdown
882. The glideslope equipment operates in the
UHF band
VHF band
HF band
883. The localiser equipment operates in the
HF band
VHF band
UHF band
884. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a
ground station by comparing
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz
modulation
the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations
885. The number of different radials provided by a ground
station is
360
180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360

infinite
886. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?

127.2 MHz
114.3 MHz
103.9 MHz
887. Aerial masts may be damaged by
killfrost anti-icing fluid
water
Skydrol hydraulic fluids
888. Most radio aerial masts are
bonded
not bonded
insulated from the fuselage
889. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a
VOR station the reference and variable signals will be
in phase
180 out of phase
270 out of phase
890. The middle marker modulation is keyed with
alternate dots and dashes
dashes
dots

1)
the vertical plane

Comment/Reference:
182
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page
2)
UHF band
Control Pallett Page 181
3)
VHF band
Comment/Reference:
181
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page
4)
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59
and 60 and Radio Aids, R.B.Underdown and David Cockburn Page
72
5)
infinite
pg 188
6)
114.3 MHz
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58.
All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power
VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz
(Terminal VORs)
7)
Skydrol hydraulic fluids
8)
bonded
9)
180 out of phase

pg 188. Aircraft is due South of the station
10)
alternate dots and dashes

Questions 891 900

891. The modulation of the outer marker is
3000 Hz
1300 Hz
400 Hz
892. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the
runway threshold is
3500 ft.
3 miles
7 miles
893. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot
aurally
visually
both visually and aurally
894. An over station sensor (OSS) detects
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a
localiser transmitter
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR
transmitter
895. Incompatible Flight Director modes are
altitude hold and ILS
VOR and glidepath
VRU and compass
896. The VOR system comprises

reference phase signal
variable and reference phase signals
variable phase signal
897. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is
VOR
they both have the same sensitivity
ILS
898. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR
station, the TO/FROM indicator would show
to
from
no indication
899. How does the flight director computer differentiate between
VOR and ILS frequencies?
Trigger pulse from ground station
Frequency discriminator in receiver
Discriminator on control panel
900. The glideslope transmitter operates on
the VHF band
the UHF band
frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ
Answers for
891 900
1)
400 Hz
Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312
2)
3500 ft.
3)
both visually and aurally

4)
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of

confusion
5)
altitude hold and ILS
6)
variable and reference phase signals

Eismin Pages 306 and 307
7)
ILS
8)
from
9)
Frequency discriminator in receiver
10)
the UHF band

Electronics 5th Ed Eismin Page 308
Questions 901 910

901. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
side of the controls away from the throttles
right of the control column
left of the control column
902. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland
mode, the audible warning
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
switches off after a time interval
can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot
903. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic
landing equipment will have
a decision height of 50ft
a decision height depending on RVR
no decision height
904. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an
autothrottle system is
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
a matter of choice for the operator
mandatory
905. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust
will
drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position
disconnect the autothrottle

drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position
906. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts

to
supply altitude readout
mute coms transmission during transponder operation
mute the DME operation during transmit phase
907. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver
#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
#1 HF system can transmit but not receive
both systems can be operated simultaneously
908. L band DME transmits on a frequency of
2210 MHz
4133 MHz
1090 MHz
909. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with
reference to aircraft and beacon is;
None of above
the first provides
latter provides
the first provides
latter provides
distance between aircraft and

bearing line from aircraft to
bearing line from aircraft to
distance between aircraft and
910. Which two frequencies are paired?

Localizer and DME
DME and Glideslope
Glideslope and localizer
beacon and
beacon
beacon and
beacon

1)
side of the controls away from the throttles

2)
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button

Comment/Reference: JAR AWO Para 153
3)
no decision height
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279
4)
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds

Comment/Reference: CS-AWO Para 306 b
5)
disconnect the autothrottle
6)
mute the DME operation during transmit phase
7)
#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
8)
1090 MHz
9)
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and

latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon
10) Glideslope and localizer

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook
page 12-24
Questions 911 920

911. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of
beam are apart at the runway threshold by
7 ft
700 ft
70 ft
912. What happens if frequency decreases without altering
physical length of aerial?
the
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive

The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
913. What happens if frequency increases without altering
physical length of aerial?
the

The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
914. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular
when its load is purely
resistive
capacitive
inductive
915. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is
to allow it to be overridden at a certain force
frequency,
to give control surface feel

to stop the motor overheating
916. Most aerials are

bonded
made from non-conductive material
not bonded
917. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?
Amber
White
Blue
918. Laser gyros have
no rotating parts
a spinning rotor
moving parts
919. Laser gyros are aligned to
true north
magnetic north
aircraft structure
920. Triplex autopilot is
fail soft
fail passive
fail operational

1)
700 ft
Comment/Reference:
Avionics Fundamentals Page 200
2)
3)
4)
resistive
5)
to allow it to be overridden at a certain force
6)
bonded
7)
Amber
8)
moving parts
Comment/Reference: A laser gyro has moving parts (dither
motor vibrates).
9)
aircraft structure
10) fail operational

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th Ed Pallett Page
282
Questions 921 930

921. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
ILS, VOR, ADF
VOR, ADF, DME
ILS, DME, ADC,
922. ACARS is
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight
a navigation system
a satellite communication system
923. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?
The ATC control panel
The altimeter
924. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?
2
1
3 (one is used for redundancy)
925. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
926. What is secondary radar?

Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft
A backup radar on an airfield
Signal returned from a transponder
927. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?
Approach
Cruise
Take-off
928. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?
Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate
Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off
929. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we
use
HF
VHF
VLF
930. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are
used?
4
2
3

1)
ILS, DME, ADC,

Comment/Reference: FMCS does not normally utilise ADF
2)
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight

Eismin Page 250
3)
The ATC control panel

Comment:/Reference: AC65-15A pg 530
4)
5)
Pitch
6)
Signal returned from a transponder
7)
Take-off
Comment/Reference: E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd
paragraph. OF WHAT BOOK?
8)
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 34-42-00 pg 1 para 1.A.
(1) & (2) & Flight Instruments & AFCS, 6th Ed David Harris.
P158/159
9)
HF
10)
3
Questions 931 940

931. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged
the
when
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period

cells begin to gas freely
SG reaches 1.180
932. A diode across a contactor
reduces contact arcing
reduces contact bounce
enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC circuit
933. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad
battery is constant
voltage
current
power
934. A battery in situ on an aircraft
may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage
is low
charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage
remains constant
may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low
935. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or
more other generators, phase A must be
in-phase with other generators and CBA only

in-phase with other generators and ABC
90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC
936. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current

system, the phase of the second generator to be brought on
line
must be in-phase prior to paralleling
is unimportant
is important if the first generator fails
937. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown,
output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the voltage
across the shunt winding?
206V
200V
212V
938. In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which
engages with the engine gearbox would have
2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section
an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined
portion
2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section
designed to shear should the pump seize
939
On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters

limit generator field excitation
limit current to field circuit
prevent overheating by limiting current to load
940. On a direct current circuit, current limiters

allow excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the load circuit
prevent excessive current to the field circuit

1)
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period

Comment/Reference: EEL/1-1 4.4.8 and Pallett Aircraft
Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Page 23
2)
reduces contact arcing

Comment/Reference:
www.homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/SolenoidsBody.html
Para 7.1
3)
current
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 Appx 1 para 4.5.1 &
CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4.1
4)
may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage

is low
Comment/Reference: Read AC65-9A pgs 307-315
5)
in-phase with other generators and ABC

Comment/Reference: AC generators are paralleled for phase,
voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.
6)
is unimportant
Comment/Reference: The Question says it is unparalleled
7)
200V
Comment/Reference: The 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04
ohm are the field windings. The generator output is split
between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load,
but only by 0.06/100
x 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06
ohm). So the voltage across
the shunt winding is
closer to 200V than the other two
answers
8)
2 male spline portions seperated by a wasted section

designed to shear should the pump seize
9)
prevent overheating by limiting current to load

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett pg 112
10) prevent excessive current to the load circuit

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg
112
Questions 941 950

941. When a current transformer is disconnected from its load
a resistor should be placed across the terminals
the terminals should be shorted together
the terminals should be left disconnected
942. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling
relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is
above bus voltage
below bus voltage
the same as bus voltage
943. Where is a commutator found?
A DC generator
A DC alternator
An AC generator
944. IDG oil is used for
internal hydraulic functions only
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
cooling and lubrication only
945. A silver oxide cell has a voltage of
1.8 V
1.2 V
1.55 V
946. Lithium cells

are very efficient
are not rechargeable
have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity
947. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are
always open in flight
always closed in flight
only closed in an emergency
948. Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are
closed in flight and open on ground
closed on ground and open in flight
949. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be
done?
Resistor placed across terminals
Left open circuit
Terminals shorted
950. What does the differential sensing coil sense?
Volts
Current
Power

1)
the terminals should be shorted together

Pallett pg 61 (to of rh side)
2)
above bus voltage
3)
DC generator
4)
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
5)
1.55 V
6)
are not rechargeable

Comment/reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/lithium_batery
7)
only closed in an emergency
8)
9)
Terminals shorted
Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd
Edition Page 61
10)
Current
Questions 951 -960

951. Where does the GCU gets its power?
RAT
PMG
Battery
952. Galley loads are wired in
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
series
either series or parallel depending on the design
953. In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if,
when a fault occurs, only one relay contactor opens,
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open
circuit
then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short
circuit
954. A fuse-type current limiter
limits current flow to a load
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been
exceeded
can be used as a radio suppressor
955. When a load is shed from a busbar, the
current consumption from the bar decreases
busbar voltage decreases

busbar voltage increases
956. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase

rotation of one generator in relation to the others
is unimportant
must be BCA
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
957. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more
than its reactive power share is protected by
over-current and under-current protection circuits
over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits
958. In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the
generator output voltage is increased by
decreasing the mark to space ratio
increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator
increasing the mark to space ratio
959. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is
controlled by
equalising circuits which control the speed of the
generators
equalising circuits which control the field excitation of
the generators
automatic load shedding
960. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
rotating field diode failure
brushes positioned on MNA
weak spring tension
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

PMG
Page 7-24. PMG is main supply for GCU, battery is back up
power for GCU
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
Comment/Reference: All loads on an aircraft are wired in
parallel
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
Pallett pg 122&www.transformerworld.co.uk/diffprot.htm
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been
exceeded
Ed Pg 112, or, Aircraft Electricity & Electronics, Eismin
Page 99. However, another type of current limiter holds the
current but does and open the circuit. Aircraft Electricity
& Electronics Eismin Page 202.
current consumption from the bar decreases
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin, Page 241. Load shedding reduces current consumption
6)
is unimportant
Comment/Reference: Phase relationship is unimportant in an
unparalleled system
7)
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits

Ed Page 49
8)
increasing the mark to space ratio

Comment/Reference:
9)
equalising circuits which control the field excitation of

the generators
Comment/Reference: Changing the speed would also change the
frequency and thus the phase relationship. Generators are
always controlled by adjusting the field strength

10
weak spring tension
Comment/Reference: Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause
excessive sparking
Questions 961 970

961. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an
aircraft
allow to stabilise for one hour
take the temperature of the electrolyte
carry out a capacity test
962. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is
controlled by pins
E and F
A and B
C and D
963. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
after a fixed time delay
before the over voltage limit is exceeded
964. A diode connected across a coil will
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing
965. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?
Over-frequency and under-frequency
Under-frequency and under-volts
Over-frequency and over-volts
966. Differential protection in a generating system

uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
detects voltage difference between source and load
detects current difference between source and load
967. Open phase sensing on a current transformer
is detected using any phase
is detected on generator neutral circuit
is detected using all phases
968. If the battery is switched off in flight, the
captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus
battery is disconnected from bus
generator voltage falls to zero
969. To flash a generator field the
generator rotates but is not on line
generator must be stationary
generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the
flashing voltage
970. Voltage is controlled by
the swashplate
the constant speed drive
the voltage regulator
Answers for Questions 961 -970

1)
take the temperature of the electrolyte

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-1
2)
E and F
Ed Page 72
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage

Ed Page 119
4)
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching

Comment/Reference:
http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBo
dy.html Para 7.1
5)
Over-frequency and under-frequency

Comment/Reference: under and over voltage will both trip
the relay. On some aircraft, under frequency will NOT trip
the relay, so c is the 'least incorrect'
6)
detects current difference between source and load

Ed Page 121
7)
is detected on generator neutral circuit

Ed Page 121, & B737 Manual
8)
battery is disconnected from bus

Ed Page 4
9)
generator must be stationary

Ed Page 4
10)
the voltage regulator

Comment/Reference: The voltage is controlled by the voltage
regulator.
Questions 971 980

971. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
when fully charged
only in the battery workshop
at any time
972. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
low electrolyte temperature
excessive charging current
not enough charging current
973. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is
initiated by
underfrequency
overcurrent
undervoltage
974. What would you use to neutralise ni-cad battery spillage?
Distilled water
Boric acid
Bicarbonate of soda
975. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages
should be matched to prevent
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
large circulating currents developing
voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage
circuits
976. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar

in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
977. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of
a generator is for
negative sequence protection
differential current protection
overload protection
978. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems
compares
ambient pressure to cabin pressure
generator voltage to busbar voltage
generator current to busbar current
979. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation
must be out of phase prior to paralleling
is of no consequence after paralleling
980. Diodes are placed across a contactor to
ensure smooth contactor operation
prevent contact bounce
speed up operation by reducing back EMF

1)
only in the battery workshop

Comment/Reference: CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4
2)
excessive charging current

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 731, 7-32
3)
undervoltage
Ed Page 120
4)
Boric acid
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-2 para 5.2.1 & 5.4.2 &
AC65-9A pg 314
5)
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines

Ed Page 52.
6)
in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced

Comment/Reference: All loads are connected in parallel with
each other
differential current protection

Ed Page 121
8)
generator current to busbar current

Ed Page 121
9)

Ed Page 48
10)
speed up operation by reducing back EMF

Comment/Reference:
http://homepages.which.net/~paul.hills/SolenoidsBody.html
Questions 981 990

981. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
disconnect all power to the main busbar
shut down the APU
isolate the battery from the main busbar
982. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency
generators, it is important to maintain generator outputs at
the same voltage
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude
developing between two or more generators
to prevent a circulating current developing between two or
more TRUs
to prevent CSD shock loading
983. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator
field
uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
984. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate
high oil pressure, low oil temperature
low oil pressure, low oil temperature
low oil pressure, high oil temperature
985. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby
generator is controlled by
an IDG
a CSD
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
986. An AC generator used with a CSD

needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with
increasing load
does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept
constant
does not need a voltage controller because current is kept
constant
987. Power to a GCU is supplied
by the generator output only
initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output
by the battery bus or rectified generator output
988. Trip signals for a GCR are
overfrequency and undervoltage
underfrequency and overcurrent
differential protection and undervoltage
989. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by
observing indications of
High oil temperature / low oil quantity
high oil temperature / low oil pressure
low oil quantity / low oil temperature
990. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
Teflon
Nomex
PVC

1)
isolate the battery from the main busbar

Comment/Reference: The Battery master switch simply connects
the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged
from the generator(s).
2)
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude

developing between two or more generators
Comment/Reference:
3)
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics,
Eismin page 199-200
4)
low oil pressure, high oil temperature

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook, page 7-50
5)
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
6)
needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with

increasing load
initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output

Page 7-24. PMG is main supply for GCU, battery is back up
power for GCU
8)
differential protection and undervoltage

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.b. pg 7
9)
high oil temperature / low oil pressure

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
, page 7-50 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 21-11-00 pg 1 para 1.B.
10)
Teflon
Comment/Reference: This is probably referring to the Teflon tape

referred to in Aircraft Electricity Electronics by Eismin 5th Ed
Page 69. Also AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont
trade name for PTFE)
Questions 991 1000

991. A heat gun should be operated at
100C below the specified
the specified temperature
100C above the specified
992. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be
prevented because
it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other
generators
it will trip the GCR
it will damage the drive shaft
993. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken
to trip the GCU depends on
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
time delay circuit
amplitude of voltage
994. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
swashplate
CSD unit
ID unit
995. A permanent magnet should have
low retentivity, high coercivity
high retentivity, low coercivity
low retentivity, low coercivity
996. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes

overheated?
The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted
997. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the
SG will
decrease
increase
remain the same
998. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting,
where would you adjust it?
In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
On the GCU
By means of a remote trimmer
999. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical
generator frequency is
by angle of swash plate
by CSU
by IDG
1000.When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
the electrolyte level stays the same
the electrolyte level is lower than normal

1)
the specified temperature

Comment/Reference: A heat gun should be operated at the
specified temperature, or 100C (approx) above the
heatshrink temperature.
2)
it will trip the GCR
3)
amplitude of voltage
Comment/Reference: Inverse time delay - c could also be
considered correct. Aircraft Electricity & Electronics,
Eismin, page 203
4)
swashplate
Comment/Reference: Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
swashplate
5)
high retentivity, low coercivity

Comment/Reference: A permanent magnet should have a low
coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity
(so it is difficult to demagnetise)
6)
The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted

Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 24-31-00 para 4.D. 2) on pg 3. &
Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Figure 1.32 for
charger disconnect system & pg 29
7)
decrease
Comment/Reference: Since volume increases, but mass remains
constant, with temperature, density decreases.
8)
On the GCU
9)
by angle of swash plate

Comment/Reference: Control of an HPG is via a swashplate
10)
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal

Airframe Textbook 7-32
Questions 1001 1010

1001.Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by
a GCU
an IRS
a BPCU
1002.A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its
primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What
is the current drawn from the source?
3 A
1.2 A
0.3 A
1003.After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot
observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial high
current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
no cause for concern
there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must
shut-down the engines
the battery is faulty
1004.Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
is only allowed in the shop
is permitted
is not allowed
1005.In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell
has low reading.
It is defective
It must be replaced
It needs topping up
1006.A short range passenger aircraft has complete

electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be
expected to power essential equipment?
30 minutes
60 minutes
Forever
1007.An external power plug has two short pins. These are
used for
the interlock circuit
ground handling bus
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket
1008.The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is
to monitor total current load
to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
1009.To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery
subject the battery to load and check the voltage
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check
the SG of each cell
measure the discharge time
1010.Circulating currents are associated with
AC generators in parallel
AC and DC generators in parallel
DC generators in parallel

1)
a BPCU
Comment/Reference: B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares
status information with the GCU's. The BPCU controls all
electrical buses and controls load shedding.'
2)
1.2 A
Comment/Reference: Find current in secondary I = V/R =
480/1600 = 3/10A. Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 =
12/10 = 1.2A
3)
no cause for concern

Comment/Reference: This is normal
4)
is not allowed
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6.4.
5)
It must be replaced
6)
30 minutes
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR no 4 para 2.3
7)
the interlock circuit

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-41-00 para 1.B. (2) &
Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page
290
8)
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page
51 and 52
9)
measure the discharge time

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 and 4.7
10)
AC generators in parallel
Questions 1011 1020

1011.Generator brush bedding
should not be done on the aircraft
should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the
length is already being done
can be done on the aircraft
1012.What is the amperage at point 'X' to the nearest amp?
102 Amps
101 Amps
100 Amps
1013.Pitot tubes are heated by
DC
AC or DC
AC
1014.Paralleling is used for
DC electrical generators only
AC and DC electrical generators
AC electrical generators only
1015.Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

Chapter 24 Section 21
1016.In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is

in series with the field and changes resistance with
changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface
area contact
in parallel with the field and changes resistance with
changing length
1017.Maximum battery temperature on charging before
protection circuit starts is
144 degrees C
144 degrees F
71 degrees F
1018.If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is
charged by
constant voltage
constant current until a predetermined limit when it
automatically switches to constant voltage
constant current
1019.The output of a carbon pile regulator with no
variation of loading is
fluctuating
pulse width modulating
stationary
1020.In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output
is controlled by
transformers and transistors

diodes and transformers
zeners and transistors

1)
should not be done on the aircraft

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-4 4.3.6 (Does not say that it
cannot be done on the aircraft - but would be difficult)
2)
101 Amps
Comment/Reference: 100 volts across far right load,
therefore 100 volts also across 100ohm load
(parallel circuit theory)
I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load.
(Ohms Law)
Total current at 'X' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. (Kirkchoff's
Law)
3)
AC or DC
Systems, Pallett 3rd Ed Page 32.
4)
AC and DC electrical generators

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallet
pg 16 for DC & 47 for AC
5)
6)
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface

area contact
pg 12 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1
7)
144F
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-31-00 para 4.E. (4)
on pg 5
8)
constant voltage
9)
stationary
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett

pg 12 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.1
10) zeners and transistors
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg
14 & CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1
Questions 1021 1030

1021.A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and
connected by
voltage coil
voltage and current coil
current coil
1022.Increasing the real load primarily
decreases output voltage
decreases frequency
increases output voltage and increases frequency
1023.Inductive reactive load causes
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
increase in torque only
increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
1024.The power factor of an AC generator identifies the
proportion of
reactive power from the generator that does work
real power from the generator that does work
apparent power from the generator that does work
1025.Differential protection in an AC system protects
against
short circuits
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
a reverse current flowing from the battery
1026.When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine

should be
stationary
rotating at idle
rotating at Nsync
1027.One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
prevent engine overload
maintain constant load on the generator
enable generators to be paralleled
1028.In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system,
the most likely consequence is
activation of the time delay circuit
deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
energise the bus tie relay
1029.If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero
in flight, it would be an indication that the
phase sequence detection circuit has operated
CSD driveshaft had sheared
bus tie interlock is inoperative
1030.Assuming all systems are operating normally, as
aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage
will
decrease and amperage output increases
increases and amperage output increases
remain constant and amperage output increases

1)
voltage and current coil

Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page
16, 17, 18
2)
decreases frequency
3)
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
4)
real power from the generator that does work
5)
short circuits
Pallett Page 121
6)
stationary
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-11-00 Para 8.B on
page 10
7)
enable generators to be paralleled

Ed Page 37
8)
activation of the time delay circuit
9)
CSD driveshaft had sheared

10)
remain constant and amperage output increases
Questions 1030 1040

1031.When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they
are connected in
series
parallel
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
1032.What is the small pin on the DC ground power
connector?
Ground or earth
Positive to battery relay
Positive to external power relay
1033.How is RAT driven?
Airstream
Compressor
Fan
1034.How is an aircraft battery rated?
Ampere hours
Watts
Joules
1035.A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor
driving a constant load will result in
increased torque and reduced speed
reduced torque and increased speed
increased torque and speed
1036.What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?

To help plug location/fit
Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
1037.A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a
shunt winding and a
current regulation coil in series
voltage regulating coil in parallel
voltage regulating coil in series
1038.What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
To speed up the operation
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
1039.Eddy currents are
caused by resistance of the coil
caused by heating effect of the coil
circulating currents
1040.The small pins in the power connector plug are
negative
neutral
positive

1)
either parallel or series and switched between as an option

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page
23/26/27
2)
Positive to external power relay

Pallett Page 70
3)
Airstream
Comment/Reference: Ram Air Turbine
4)
Ampere hours
Comment/Reference: Aircrfat Electrical Systems 3rd Ed
Pallett Page 21
5)
increased torque and speed

Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF)
6)
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection

Comment/Reference: The short prongs are for DC only.
Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett pg 72
7)
current regulation coil in series

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page
11
8)
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil

Comment/Reference: The diode is to prevent the high current
flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off
9)
circulating currents
Comment/Reference:
10)
positive
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pallett

Page 70
Questions 1041 1050

1041.When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system,
the tripping circuit
trips at a set level
trips after a time delay
trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt
amplitude
1042.In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the
synchronising bus-bar is to
supply essential services
provide a means of monitoring the load
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
1043.Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is
in series with the field windings
in parallel with the field windings
across the generator output
1044.A current transformer connected across the neutral of
a 3 phase generator is for
differential protection
phase sequence monitoring
load monitoring
1045.Zener diodes are for
voltage regulation
voltage stabilisation
rectification
1046.AC generator output indications are measured in

KW
KVA & KW
KW & KVAR
1047.Load shedding allows
more current to the busbar
more voltage to the busbar
less current to the busbar
1048.How may the output of a transistorised voltage
regulator be described?
Slightly variable DC
Variable AC
Pulse width modulated DC
1049.In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC
split bus-bar generation system, how is power maintained to
the essential AC bus-bar?
By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
By power fed from static inverter only
1050.Which components within a generator control unit
connects the output of the field power supply to the
generator exciter?
Generator line contactor
Generator control relay
Generator power pilot relay
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt
amplitude
119/120
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
81
in parallel with the field windings
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 Page 5, Aircraft Electrical
Systems Page 11.
differential protection
121
voltage regulation
Comment/Reference: Although Zener diodes can be used (backto-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage
stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with
voltage regulation.
6)
KVA & KW
Comment/Reference: An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW
(or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be calculated).
However, flightdeck indications are KVAR and KW.
7)
less current to the busbar

Comment/Reference: Load shedding is carried out to reduce
current (voltage is constant).
8)
Pulse width modulated DC

Comment/Reference: A voltage regulator has two outputs, one
to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a
transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant
voltage but variable current depending on load). The answer
here depends upon which output they are referring.
9)
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter

Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. 5.2

10)
Generator control relay

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.A. pg 5.
The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the
GCU.
Questions 1051 1060
1051.In what units are static inverters rated?

kW
kVAR
kVA
1052.In a generator system, a stability winding is used
in series with the field to prevent oscillations
to prevent voltage overshoot
to control output current
1053.On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
Under-current
Under-volt
Under-frequency
1054.How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an
AC parallel generator system?
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive
load by adjustment of generator fields
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by
adjustment of the constant speed drives
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed
drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment

of generator fields
1055.Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft
battery or its charging system, when is the charger switched
off automatically?
When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar
system
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge
currents such as in starting
When the alternators are fully loaded
1056.The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator

is
in parallel with the generator volts coil
in series with the generator field
in series with the generator volts coil
1057.When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it
can be reset
on the ground only
after the fault has been cleared
by cycling the generator switch
1058.In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must
be in synchronization and
CBA must equal CBA
CBA must equal ABC
phase rotation does not matter
1059.When loads are shed from a busbar automatically
bus bar current rises
bus bar voltage rises
bus bar current decreases
1060.What controls output from the generator?
BPCU
ELCU
GCU

1)
kVA
Comment/Reference: VA or KVA, just like an AC generator
2)
to prevent voltage overshoot

Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 3.4.5 (d)
3)
Under-frequency
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page
120
4)
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive

load by adjustment of generator fields
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page
48 and 49
5)
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge

currents such as in starting
6)
in series with the generator volts coil

Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 Fig 1
7)
after the fault has been cleared

Comment/Reference: Boeing opps manual states that you are
allowed to attempt to reset the field after checking all
parameters are now normal, as it may have been a transient
fault B747 classic 10.20.02
8)
CBA must equal CBA

Comment/Reference:
9)
bus bar current decreases
10) GCU
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed,
Eismin, has full descriptions of all 3 units. B737-3/4/500 AMM
24-21-00 para 6. pg 8
Questions 1060 1070

1061.Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an
indication of
electrolyte level
electrolyte temperature
charge
1062.During normal engine shut-down, the generator
control relay is tripped only
breaker is tripped only
breaker and control relay are both tripped
1063.The generator warning light will come on when
voltage is below battery voltage
voltage is too high
voltage is above battery voltage
1064.When replacing a current transformer
it can be fitted any way round
it can only be fitted one way round
voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting
1065.The economy coil on a relay
reduces current required to hold closed
reduces current required to close
makes it cheaper to make
1066.What is the function of the generator control relay?

Control output voltage
Bring the generator on-line
Connect the generator to the busbar
1067.The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
remain constant
decrease as the engine speed increases
increase as the engine speed increases
1068.A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is
citric acid
borax powder
sodium bicarbonate
1069.In a split bus power distribution system
power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC
generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system
in normal operation
1070.Flashing a generator field
increases resistance
restores magnetism
decreases resistance

1)
charge
2)
breaker is tripped only

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 11.H.pg 21
3)
voltage is below battery voltage
4)
it can only be fitted one way round

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett 3rd
Ed page 61
5)
reduces current required to hold closed

Comment/Reference:
6)
Bring the generator on-line

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-21-00 para 5.A. on pg
5
7)
decrease as the engine speed increases

Comment/Reference: Decreases due to the back EMF as engine
speed increases
8)
sodium bicarbonate
Textbook p 7-30 refers
9)
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system

in normal operation
Comment/Reference:
10) restores magnetism

Eisman pg 206
Questions 1071 1080

1071.When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery,
what should be taken into account?
Electrolyte temperature
Battery charge
Ambient temperature
1072.How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?
By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal
By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
1073.The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC
generator system
modifies generator field excitation voltage
modifies generator field excitation current
modifies generator drive speed
1074.A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil
in parallel with the generator output
in series with the generator output
in series with the current coil
1075.The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to
prevent contact pitting and burning
reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts
1076.A vibrating contact voltage regulator has

a volts coil in parallel with the points
a resister in parallel with the points
a resistor in series with the points
1077.Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried
out
during flight
when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded
in, on the bench
only off the aircraft
1078.What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in
a ni-cad battery?
Evaporation
Over charging current
Undercharging current
1079.An AC generator connected to a CSD requires
a separate voltage regulator
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the
voltage
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator
frequency
1080.If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in
the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed?
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are
followed by a water rinse
Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water

Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a
water rinse

1)
Electrolyte temperature
Comment/Reference:
EEL/1-1 4.3.4
2)
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load

Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23
3)
modifies generator field excitation current

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page
49
4)
in parallel with the generator output

Pallett pg 13 Fig 1.14 & EEL/1-2 3.2.1
5)
reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
6)
a resister in parallel with the points

Pallett pg 13 Fig 1.14 & EEL/1-2 Figure 3
7)
only off the aircraft
8)
Over charging current

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1.3 Page 3 Para 3.4.1
9)
a separate voltage regulator
10)
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are

followed by a water rinse
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-2 para 5.2.1 & 5.4.1 & AC659A pg 311 btm rh side.
Questions 1081 1090

1081.Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a
lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature
correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60F
A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the
hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is
above 20C
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the
capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte
temperature
1082.An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause
the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in
the voltage regulator:The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus
decreasing the field excitation
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the
current in the generator field
The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the
resistance of the carbon pile
1083.The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will
have current passing through them from the higher loaded
generator to the lower
be connected to each other when the generators are
paralleled
have current passing through them only when the generators
are not paralleled
1084.A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze
until extremely low temperatures are reached because
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific
gravity of the solution
most of the acid is in the solution

increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to
prevent freezing
1085.What determines the amount of current which will flow

through a battery while it is being charged by a constant
voltage source?
The total plate area of the battery
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery
The state-of-charge of the battery
1086.The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium
battery utilizes
constant current and constant voltage
constant voltage and varying current
constant current and varying voltage
1087.The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate
deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that
have been in service for time is an indication of
normal operation
excessive plate sulphation
excessive gassing
1088.The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and leadacid batteries together in the same service area is likely
to result in
contamination of both types of batteries
increased explosion and/or fire hazard
normal battery service life
1089.If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin
generator DC system is less than that drawn from No.2
generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil
will flow
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage
coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator

coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage
1090.On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the

Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and
it will automatically reset itself when the fault is
rectified
it can only be reset when all loads are switched off
resetting can only be carried out on the ground

1)
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature

correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60F
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311 & CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.3.4
(American Text such as Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80F as the standard, but CAIPs
specifies 60F as standard)
2)
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus

decreasing the field excitation
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-2 3.1.1 & AC65-9A pg 398
3)
be connected to each other when the generators are

paralleled
5th Ed page 200 & Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Pages
15 and 16
4)
most of the acid is in the solution

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.6.2
5)
The state-of-charge of the battery

Comment/Reference:
6)
constant voltage and varying current

Page 52. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.1
7)
excessive gassing
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eismin Page 50 & AC65-9A
pg 314 para 3 & CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h)
8)
contamination of both types of batteries

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11
9)

Pallett pg 18
10) resetting can only be carried out on the ground

p7-25 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 24-11-00 para 8.B. pg 10
Questions 1090 1100

1091.In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing
is achieved by regulating the
generator speed
generator drive torque
voltage regulator
1092.A constant speed drive unit has a warning light
indication
for when it is disconnected from the generator
for low oil pressure
for low speed
1093.The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the
lowest when the battery is
under load condition
being charged
in a discharged condition
1094.Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long
period of time will show a low fluid level because the
fluid evaporates through vents
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
fluid level was not periodically replenished
1095.The purpose of 'field flashing' is to
change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding
test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a

1000V supply
measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after
the field supply is removed
1096.The purpose of an inverter is to convert

AC to a higher frequency AC
AC to DC
DC to AC
1097.How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium
battery be determined?
By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
By measuring discharge
By the level of the electrolyte
1098.What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium
battery when it is not fully charged?
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
No adverse results since water may be added anytime
The cell temperature will run too low for proper output
1099.In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell
temperature
causes a decrease in internal resistance

increases cell voltage
causes an increase in internal resistance
1100.When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium
battery, the cells emit gas only
when the electrolyte level is low
toward the end of the charging cycle
if they are defective

1)
generator drive speed

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett 3rd
Ed Page 48-49
2)
for low oil pressure
3)
in a discharged condition
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 314 & EEL/1-3 3.4.2
4)
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33.
5)
change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett 3rd
Ed Page 4 & Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eisman
pg 206
6)
DC to AC
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 435 & Aircraft Electrical
Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg 66
7)
By measuring discharge
Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 &
HTTP://web.telia.com/~u85920178/begin/batt-00.htm
8)
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.3
9)
causes a decrease in internal resistance

Comment/Reference: 0CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.8 (a)
10)
toward the end of the charging cycle

Questions 1101 1110

1101.The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator
is connected in series with the carbon pile
becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
1102.In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load
sharing is achieved by regulating the
generator drive torque
generator speed
voltage regulator
1103.Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause
overspeeding of AC motors
overvoltage of capacitive devices
overheating of inductive devices
1104.The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains
sulphuric acid
nitric acid
hydrochloric acid
1105.In the procedure to be followed after spillage of
battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
by washing with distilled water
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
by applying a coating of petroleum jelly
1106.Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

revolution
second
minute
1107.The three voltages of a three phase generator are
180 degrees apart
90 degrees apart
120 degrees apart
1108.To restore the level of electrolyte which has been
lost due to normal gassing during battery charging
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained
in the battery must be added
sulphuric acid must be added
distilled water must be added
1109.A 12 volt lead-acid battery
has 6 cells
has 12 cells
has 24 cells
1110.The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and
the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will be
5 amps
7 amps
3.4 amps

1)
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil

2)
voltage regulator
48
3)
overheating of inductive devices

Comment/Reference: Inductive devices will pass more current
if it is lower frequency
4)
sulphuric acid
Ed Page 22, Table 1.
5)
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate

Comment/Reference:
6)
second
Eisman pg 84 & Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed pg 32
7)
120 degrees apart

Electronics 5th Ed Eisman pg 84 & Aircraft Electrical
Systems 3rd Ed pg 34
8)
distilled water must be added

Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 314 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para
4.3.1
9)
has 6 cells
10)
5 amps
Comment/Reference: Total current is the vector sum of active

(real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case
Questions 1111 1120

1111.In a delta connected generator
phase volts equals 1.73 line volts
line volts equals phase volts
line volts equals 1.73 phase volts
1112.The only practical method of maintaining a constant
voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying
conditions of speed and load is to vary the
speed at which the armature rotates
strength of the magnetic field
number of conductors in the armature
1113.As the generator load is increased (within its rated
capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will increase
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
decrease and the amperage output will increase
1114.When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte
in a battery
each cell should be checked as the readings may differ
one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the
same
only the end cells need be checked as they contain the
terminals
1115.A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged
when the
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period

cells begin to gas freely
S.G. reaches 1.180
1116.Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use

frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump
Windscreen heating
Standby compass
1117.To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid
battery
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
copper connectors are used
the connectors may be painted
1118.Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery
recently removed from an aircraft
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour
the electrolyte temperature must be noted
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to
stabilize
1119.The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying
the
armature current
field current
engine speed
1120.A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a
maximum continuous power output of
24 kW
30 kW
37.5 kW

1)
line volts equals phase volts

pg 35
2)
strength of the magnetic field

Comment/Reference:
3)
decrease and the amperage output will increase

Comment/Reference: Assuming no voltage regulator is
considered.
4)
each cell should be checked as the readings may differ

Comment/Reference:
5)
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period

Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 310 & CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.7
6)
Windscreen heating
Pallett pg 36. Any heating or lighting circuit can be
frequency wild
7)
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections

Comment/Reference: Do a search in CAP 562. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.2
(vi)
8)
the electrolyte temperature must be noted

9)
field current
10)
24 kW
Comment/Reference:
PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24
Questions 1121 1130

1121.The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid
battery
remains substantially constant regardless of the state of
charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of
charge
remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is
a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the
electrolyte
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure
of the state of charge
1122.A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to
have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will
deliver
60 amps for 10 hours
6 amps for 10 hours
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon
the rate of demand
1123.Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will
produce
12V with 50 ampere hour capacity
1124.As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the
aircraft generator
the battery contactor isolates the battery from the
generator
the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily
decreasing current
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging
current decreases
1125.On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator,

if the load increases the generator output voltage will
remain constant
increase
decrease
1126.For battery charging, the electrical supply connected

to the battery must be
DC
AC at 50 c.p.s.
AC at 400 c.p.s.
1127.When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V
D.C. for battery charging
an A.C. inverter would be required
a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
1128.Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will
produce
12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
1129.If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of
the generator is not connected to the bus bar
thermal runaway
the generator voltage regulator setting is too low
1130.When checking a nicad battery in situ for
serviceability
the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing
shorting strips
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading
noted
a hydrometer must be used

1)
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure

of the state of charge
2)
6 amps for 10 hours

Electronics 5th ed Eisman pg 44
3)

Comment/Reference:
4)
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging

current decreases
Comment/Reference:
5)
decrease
Comment/Reference:
6)
DC
Comment/Reference: Its a Battery
7)
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required

Comment/Reference: Your going AC to DC
8)

Comment/Reference:
9)
thermal runaway
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 9-7 para 4.5.8
10)
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading

noted
Questions 1131 1140

1131.The output from an AC generator is taken from
connections on the stator
slip rings via commutator
slip rings
1132.Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by
the load differences causing torque signals to vary the
engine speed
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage
trimming
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine
speed varies
1133.If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required
for immediate service, it should be stored
in a totally dry condition
in the fully discharged condition
in the fully charged condition
1134.The correct way to determine the state of charge of a
nickel-cadmium battery is
by checking the specific gravity of each cell
by checking the voltage of each cell under load
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
1135.A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after
the RCCO contacts close due to
increasing generator voltage

increasing battery voltage
a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than
generator
1136.Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by

indicating paper that turns red
litmus paper that turns black
indicating paper that turns blue
1137.To restore electrolyte after spillage
add distilled water only
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in
the battery
add acid only
1138.When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the
following indications:
An audio bell and red PFWL
Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
1139.The purpose of an inverter is to convert
AC to DC
DC to AC
AC to a higher frequency AC
1140.With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the
adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by
adjustment of voltage coil resistance
alteration of the field resistance
alteration of contact spring tension

1)
connections on the stator

Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/doe/h1011v3/css/h1011v3_102.htm
2)
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage

trimming
3)
in the fully discharged condition

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para 8 & CAIPs EEL/13 8
4)
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para para 4.5.6 &
para 4.7 & CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6
5)
increasing generator voltage

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems
Pallett pg 201
6)
indicating paper that turns red

Comment/Reference: Acid turns litmus paper red
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PH#Measurement
7)
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in

the battery
Comment/Reference: Jeppson A & P Airframe Technician pg 728. But AC65-9A pg 311 & 314 for both types of batteries it
says distilled water only.
8)
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
9)
DC to AC
Systems Pallett 3rd Ed Page 66
10) alteration of contact spring tension

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, 3rd Ed Pallett
Page 12, & Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Ed Eismin Page
199
Questions 1141 1150

1141.Battery SG is measured using a
hygrometer
hydrometer
hypsometer
1142.A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of
90%
50%
80%
1143.When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to
connect is the
positive earth
negative
positive
1144.Polarization in a cell is
the establishing of a potential across the cell
the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate
the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's
potential approaches that of the +ve plate's
1145.Battery capacity is checked by
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by
varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time
to be discharged
discharging at a constant current and checking the time

taken to reach the discharged state
measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by
the current drawn
1146.The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the

field strength and the speed of the generator
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
number of conductors and the field strength
1147.To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator,
whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to
alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit
alter the driving speed
alter the field current
1148.In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is
for
reactive load only
real and reactive load
real load only
1149.Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be
connected between
any phase and earth or between any two phases
the phase and earth only
phases A and B only
1150.A frequency wild supply would be suitable for
instruments and navigation systems
3-phase torque motors
deicing loads

1)
hydrometer
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 311 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-2 para
8.2 a) & http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrometer
2)
80%
3)
negative
Comment/Reference:
Ed Eismin Page 43
Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th
4)
the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate

Comment/Reference:
5)
discharging at a constant current and checking the time

taken to reach the discharged state
21 & CAP 562 Leaflet 9-13 para 5 d)
6)
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor

Comment/Reference:
7)
alter the field current

46
8)
real and reactive load

Comment/Reference:
9)
any phase and earth or between any two phases

Comment/Reference:
10) deicing loads

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd ed Pallett pg
36
Questions 1151 1160

1151.Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give
36V 40Ah
36V 120Ah
12V 120Ah
1152.Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give
36V 120Ah
12V 40Ah
12V 120Ah
1153.An inverter can be an AC generator driven by
either an AC or DC motor
an AC motor
a DC motor
1154.When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries
add acid to water
the method of mixing is unimportant
add water to acid
1155.The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is
6000
4000
8000
1156.The ratio between apparent power and true power is the

power factor
power rating
efficiency
1157.Apparent power is measured in
Kilovolts
Volt Amps
Watts
1158.A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What
will be the nominal battery output?
22V
20V
24V
1159.The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad
battery is constant
speed
current
voltage
1160.When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the
phase of each
must be synchronized
must be in opposition to one another
is unimportant

1)
36V 40Ah
2)
12V 120Ah
3)
a DC motor
Pallett pg 66
4)
add acid to water
5)
8000
Systems 3rd Ed Pallett pg 32. 400/3 x 60
6)
power factor
Pallett pg 3
7)
Volt Amps
Pallett pg 35
8)
22V
Comment/Reference: 19 X 1.2 = 22
9)
current
10)
is unimportant
Comment/Reference: It says 'UNparalleled'
Questions 1161 1170

1161.When the GPU is connected to the aircraft
it is paralleled with the aircraft generator
it supplies essential services
it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
1162.A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series
(no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes
to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of
the battery in this instance is
2.52 ohms
5.0 ohms
0.52 ohms
1163.The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF
lagging.
The maximum load permitted is 32KW
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
1164.An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)
does not require a CSDU
incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit
has separate CSDU
1165.A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built
in generator which
0.8
only rotates during starting

only rotates after starting
provides initial excitation
1166.To parallel an alternator with another alternator the

alternators must have the same
frequency, RPM and phase relationship
frequency, voltage and phase relationship
frequency, RPM and speed
1167.Speed of an alternator may be controlled by
keeping engine rpm constant
varying the field current
CSDU (constant speed drive unit)
1168.'Frequency wild' alternators supply
resistive circuits
capacitive circuits
inductive circuits
1169.The real load of an alternator is directly related to
output shaft torque
output shaft rpm
output voltage
1170.How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless
generating system, before full output is available from the
voltage regulator?
A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation
form the dc busbar to bring generator on line
Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided
during the start sequence
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles

1)
it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator

Comment/Reference:
2)
0.52 ohms
Comment/Reference: OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20.
Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 =
0.52
3)
The maximum load permitted is 32KW

Comment/Reference: PF = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0.8 = 32
KW
4)
incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit

Pallett pg 43
5)
provides initial excitation

Comment/Reference:
6)
frequency, voltage and phase relationship

Comment/Reference:
7)
CSDU (constant speed drive unit)

Comment/Reference:
8)
resistive circuits
Pallett pg 36
9)
output shaft torque

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Pallett
pg 48
10)
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field

poles
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1171 1180

1171.Insulation resistance of electrical machines is
not affected by change of temperature of machine
normally higher when the machine is hot
normally lower when the machine is hot
1172.The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC
generator is to
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying
temperatures
compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator
windings
keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at
varying temperatures
1173.The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming
alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship
is
the same
not the same
the outputs are constant
1174.One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of
two alternators. They will be synchronised when
the lamp is maximum brightness
the lamp is extinguished
the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished
1175.Automatic synchronising means that the incoming
alternator's voltage and frequency
cannot be checked
can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the
system's panel
an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the
relevant alternator
1176.The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of

disconnection of the other alternators
ground power disconnection
crash engagement
1177.What is monitored in a constant speed drive?
Low oil press and CSD speed
Low oil temperature and low oil press
Hi oil temperature and low oil press
1178.The CSD or IDG speed governor setting
is adjusted with the engine running
is adjusted with the engine stationary
is not allowed to be adjusted
1179.An external ground power supply can be used for
only the ground handling busbar services
all normal services required by flight and ground crew
only the emergency busbar services
1180.The APU generator can normally be
connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators
used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft
supply fails
connected in parallel with the ground power supply

1)
normally higher when the machine is hot

Comment/Reference:
2)
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying

temperatures
Pallett pg 45 and diagram.
3)
not the same

Comment/Reference:
4)
the lamp is extinguished

Comment/Reference:
5)
can be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting

the relevant alternator
Comment/Reference:
6)
crash engagement
Comment/Reference:
7)
Hi oil temperature and low oil press

Comment/Reference:
8)
is adjusted with the engine stationary

Comment/Reference:
9)
all normal services required by flight and ground crew

Comment/Reference:
10)
used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft

supply fails
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1181 1190

1181.The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is
proportional to the length of cable
inversely proportional to the length of cable
not affected by length of cable
1182.Galley loads are supplied from the
battery bus bar
main bus bar
ground service bus
1183.A ni-cad battery is stored in the
fully discharged condition
fully charged condition
dry condition
1184.A 6-diode Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) changes
single phase AC to direct current
direct current to AC
three phase AC to direct current
1185.A frequency wild AC generator is used for
fluorescent lights
deicing loads
instruments
1186.What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be

low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
Replace the defective cell
Top-up the individual cell with distilled water
Cell is defective, replace the battery
1187.What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?
Prevent bounce
To prevent current going the wrong way
Prevent spikes
1188.Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is
completely confined come under
Class B
Class D
Class C
1189.Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually
pressurised with
helium
oxygen
CO2
1190.Vertical projected separation between seat rows must
be
3 inches
5 inches
4 inches

1)
not affected by length of cable

Comment/Reference:
www.epanorama.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance.html
2)
main bus bar

Comment/Reference:
3)
fully discharged condition

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 9-7 para 8
4)
three phase AC to direct current

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Pages
65-67
5)
deicing loads
Pallett pg 36
6)
Top-up the individual cell with distilled

waterComment/Reference:
7)
Prevent spikes
Comment/Reference: It is known as a 'flywheel diode'
8)
Class D
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 or the old JAR 25.857
9)
CO2
Comment/Reference:
inflated with CO2
10)
All inflatable emergency equipment are
3 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR No.2 para 4.3
Questions 1191 1200

1191.Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of
Nitrogen
CO2
Air
1192.The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with
a seating capacity of 20 or more is
dependant upon aircraft type
24 inches
15 inches
1193.When testing emergency slide bottles
any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the
cartridge body
one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time
1194.Where would you find information regarding galley
equipment?
BCARs
ANO
AWN 99
1195.How often are life jackets inspected?
In accordance with the manufacturers specification
In accordance with the AMM
Every 12 months
1196.Toilets must have a smoke detection

light in the cockpit
connected to a pump to pump the smoke out
aural and visual warning in the main cabin
1197.Where would you find information on life-raft
deployment?
JARs
Cabin safety on-board card
Cabin operations manual
1198.How do you clean seat belts?
With warm water with low alkalinity soap
With white spirit
With MEK
1199.After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment
will
be briefed by the cabin crew
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed
instructions adjacent to the liferafts
have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket
1200.Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried
is specified in which document?
CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7
Airworthiness Notice 79
Schedule 4 of the ANO

1)
CO2
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-12. 4 b All inflatable safety
equipment use CO2
2)
15 inches
Comment/Reference: CS 25.815
3)
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the

cartridge body
Comment/Reference: Testing of the cartridges is the same
procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. CAIPs EEL/1-7
3.6.3 on.
4)
AWN 99
Comment/Reference: Now its in CAP 747 GR No. 22
5)
In accordance with the manufacturers specification

6)
light in the cockpit

7)
Cabin operations manual

Comment/Reference:
8)
With warm water with low alkalinity soap

Comment/Reference:
9)
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed

instructions adjacent to the liferafts
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1561 d)
10)
Schedule 4 of the ANO

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1201 1210

1201.Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds
149 but less than 200 then:
2 megaphones are required
1 megaphone is required
1202.Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an
inertia force of
15g
9g
12g
1203.The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using
CO2
nitrogen
compressed air
1204.Information on Galley equipment can be found in
CAAIPS
BCAR Section L
1205.Where is information regarding flame resistant
furnishing materials?
CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness
CAAIPs
AWN 58
1206.What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation

between a seat and another seat or structure?
10 inches
7 inches
There is no EASA guideline
1207.What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion
and the seat in-front of it?
10 inches
5 inches
7 inches
1208.What is the minimum separation between a seat back
cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
28 inches
26 inches
24 inches
1209.Cargo nets are manufactured from
hessian
polypropylene
nylon
1210.A galley trolley will be designed to
not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour
not exceed the floor loading limits
does not matter as the trolleys move

1)

Comment/Reference: JAR Ops 1.810
2)
9g
Comment/Reference: CS 25.561 & CS 25.1421
3)
CO2
Comment/Reference: AL/3-12 2
4)
Comment/Reference: Now in CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 22
5)
CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness

Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 13
6)
7 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 Tabel 1 and Appx 1 GR No.2
para 4.2
7)
7 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 2 para 4.2
8)
26 inches
9)
nylon
Comment/Reference: Cargo nets are made from nylon or
polyester (not polypropylene).
10)
not exceed the floor loading limits

Questions 1211 1220

1211.When loading a cargo aircraft
the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under
careful monitored circumstances
the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under
careful monitored circumstances
1212.Galley equipment which does not need electrical power
is called
uncontrolled equipment
controlled equipment
minimum equipment
1213.Galley trolleys must have placards indicating
Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
maximum weight, position, flight number
location, position, flight number
1214.PTV type entertainment equipment
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing
techniques
is not the part of maintenance schedule
has no capacity for digital information processing and
transmitting
1215.Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed
container lids at temperatures above
55C
45C
65C
1216.With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat

installation
you can fit seats facing forward or rearward
you can only fit seats facing forward
you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design
and Performance (DPP)
1217.Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the
passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light
a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated
the button is pushed again
the button is pulled out
1218.On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down
by
rope
side cart guides and fore and aft latches
netting
1219.A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as
an uncontrolled item
a controlled item
neither, as it is removable
1220.The minimum vertical projected separation between seat
rows is
5 inches
3 inches
7 inches

1)
the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
2)
uncontrolled equipment
3)
Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence

4)
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing

techniques
Comment/Reference: PTV = Personal Television
5)
45C
6)
you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of

Design and Performance (DPP)
7)
the button is pushed again
8)
side cart guides and fore and aft latches
9)
a controlled item
10)
3 inches
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR No.2 Appx 1 para 4.3
Questions 1221 1230

1221.On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning
goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and
generator goes off
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line
stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off
line
1222.After a fire detection system test, the red light
remains ON. This indicates
a short circuit
high resistance
a fire
1223.First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon
extinguishers represents the number of
fluorine atoms
chlorine atoms
carbon atoms
1224.What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high
rate of discharge extinguishing system?
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
Carbon dioxide
1225.Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have
smoke detectors fitted?
Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks

Main wheel bays and engine bays
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
1226.Engine wing firebottles should be charged with

nitrogen at 15C to
1250 psi
600 psi
1500 psi
1227.A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo
bay is in a
class B compartment
class A compartment
class D compartment
1228.In a capacitive fire detection system, if
there is a break, the system will not work
there is a break, the system will work but not test
satisfactory
there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test
satisfactory
1229.A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another
fire zone when
the system and the extinguishing system are the same
the system is different but the extinguishant is the same
the system is the same but the extinguishant is different
1230.When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector
system is carried out
a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to
produce the warning
it checks the integrity of the contacts

the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer
to give warning

1)
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line
Comment/Reference: B757 AMM
2)
a short circuit
3)
carbon atoms
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter 16
Page 16
4)
Nitrogen
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter 16
page 20
5)
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays

Comment/Reference: CS 25 search smoke detectors
6)
600 psi
9-7. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Page 166 &
B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-22-11 pg 601
7)
class B compartment
Comment/Reference: CS 25.857 & Transport Category Aircraft
Systems Page 9-3
8)
there is a break, the system will work but not test

satisfactory
9)
the system and the extinguishing system are the same

Comment/Reference: CS 25.1203 (f)(2)
10) it checks the integrity of the contacts

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page
11-6 b describes a systron-donner system. This is the same system
the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para

2.2.4 in para d
Questions 1231 1240

1231.When inspecting lavatory installations
the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper
holder
'No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only
the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material
1232.Lavatories must have, in the disposal container
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when
discharged
water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings
indicating when discharged
Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when
discharged
1233.A fire detection loop must be capable of
using master warning visual signals only
using master warning visual and aural signals
detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and
extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is
no longer present
1234.A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses
helium gas
nitrogen gas
oxygen gas
1235.A toilet is fitted with thermal protection
to protect against continuous flushing

to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the
event of an overheat
to protect against freezing at altitude
1236.What external warning is there for an APU fire?

Red light
Aural
Both aural and a red light
1237.Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by
DC
AC
AC or DC
1238.Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be
carried out
only when equipment items fail random tests
every five years
every two years
1239.A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
continuity check
calibration check
function check
1240.When the fire handle is operated it cuts off
field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire
extinguishers
operates fire extinguisher only
cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to
provide electrical power

1)
the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper

holder
2)
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when

discharged
Comment/Reference: The temperature sensitive strip changes
color from white to black at the indicated temp. B737 MM 2624-00 pg1. CS 25.854 a, b
3)
using master warning visual and aural signals

Pallett Page 163
4)
helium gas
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems.
Jeppesen Page 9-22
5)
to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the

event of an overheat
Comment/Reference: AWN 57 Para.2.3 (This AWN has been
deleted on 23OCT03) see CAP 455
6)
Both aural and a red light

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-15-00 pg 1 para 1.E.
7)
DC
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 pg 1 para 1.C.
8)
only when equipment items fail random tests
9)
continuity check
Comment/Reference: B737-400 AMM 26-11-00 pg 3 para 4.C.
10)
cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates

fire extinguishers
Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 para 4.A. on pg

5 & www.b737.org.uk/fireprotection.htm#Engines
Questions 1241 1250

1241.What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron
Donner fire detection system?
Dirty contacts
Volts drop
Integrity comparator
1242.Fireproofing of cabin material should be done
every 2 years
every 5 years
when a sample fails
1243.What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a
squib?
Bottles are fired
A continuity check
Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
1244.In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire
caption to come on when heat is applied?
Pressure
Continuity
Capacitance increase
1245.Toilet fire detection issues can be found in
AWN 80
AWN 83
CAAIPs
1246.The outside casing of a firewire has

28VDC potential above ground
115VDC potential above ground
same potential as ground
1247.A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself
and ventilate is a class
D
C
A
1248.Smoke detectors consist of a
lamp detecting 2% smoke
photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke
1249.In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the
indication?
Audible warning in the cabin
Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin
Light in the cabin
1250.What do you check when carrying out an insulation
check on a continuous firewire loop?
The outside of the firewire to earth
The firewire
The firewire, sensor & controller

1)
Dirty contacts
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-7 2.2.4 (d)
2)
when a sample fails

Comment/Reference:
3)
A continuity check
Comment/Reference: A continuity check is carried out - with
a safety ohmmeter. But a safety ohmmeter does not check
voltage. B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-21-00 pg 1 para 3.D. (1)
4)
Pressure
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook
Page 16-8 Lindberg System
5)
AWN 83
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 20 or the old
AWN 83
6)
same potential as ground

Comment/Reference:
7)
D
8)

9.2
9)
Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin

10) The firewire

Comment/Reference: Pallett Aircraft Electrical System 3rd Ed pg
163 fig 10.17
Questions 1251 1260

1251.When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is
cut off
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel
stays on
1252.An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire
extinguisher. What does it indicate?
Bottle is empty
Bottle is full
The bottle is still pressurized
1253.What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin
with 201-300 people?
4 Methyl Bromide
3 BCF
4 Fire Extinguishers
1254.How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be
weighed?
Every 5 years
Bi-annually
Annually
1255.The weight of an extinguisher is stamped
on head fitting
on base of body
on bracket
1256.How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?

Check the tell-tale wire
Weighed
Check the pressure
1257.Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger
breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by
the handle
one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty
1258.How many fire extinguishers are required on an
aircraft with 501 passengers?
7
5
6
1259.How many fire extinguishers are required on an
aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
6
5
8
1260.CO2 fire extinguishers are used on
all fires in fuselage
baggage holds only
engines only

1)
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is

cut off
Comment/Reference: B737 MM. Warning light is an indication
of fire. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished
2)
Bottle is empty
3)
4 Fire Extinguishers
4)
Annually
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6.3 and 7.1
5)
on head fitting
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-10, para 6.3
6)
Weighed
7)
breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by

the handle
Comment/Reference:
8)
7
501-600 passengers
9)
6
10) all fires in fuselage

Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 501-502 & AC65-15A pg 415 &
10 3.3
AL/3-
Questions 1261 1270

1261.In an aircraft flying control system employing servotabs, the installation of external ground locks to the main
control surface
would also prevent movement of the control column
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and
therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the
wind
would not prevent movement of the control column
1262.If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the
effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?
It is not effected
It moves back
It moves forward
1263.A control system in the parallel mode,
the control pedals moves only in the approach
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position
1264.A full time yaw damper system detects
band pass frequencies
all frequencies
only low frequencies
1265.A static friction check is carried out during control
surface rigging using
a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are correct
a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel

when the controls are moved
a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'
1266.If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they

drive to the up position and lock
stop moving and stay in the same position
drive to the down position and lock
1267.A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft
is approaching a stall
is approaching the 'critical mach number'
goes supersonic
1268.With respect to flight spoilers, they
can operate both on the ground and in flight
only operate in flight
only operate on the ground
1269.Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left
wing down turn, the
rudder moves left
rudder remains in the centre
rudder moves right
1270.Dutch roll is eliminated by
the Dutch Roll damper
the yaw damper
differential ailerons

1)
would not prevent movement of the control column

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot,
Second Edition Page 253 (first line)
2)
It moves forward
3)
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
4)
band pass frequencies

Comment/Reference: Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Page 222 on.
5)
a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'

Comment/Reference:
6)
stop moving and stay in the same position

Comment/Reference:
7)
is approaching a stall
Comment/Reference:
8)
can operate both on the ground and in flight

Comment/Reference: Flight spoilers are used in flight and on
the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the
ground. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 56. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 51
9)
rudder moves left

Comment/Reference:
10) the yaw damper

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed Pallett pg 222
1271.The bearing used in a fibre pulley is

a plain bearing
a ball bearing
a roller bearing
1272.When the primary stops fitted to a control run have
been contacted
the secondary stops will just be in contact
the secondary stops have been over-ridden
a clearance exists at the secondary stops
1273.Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable
pulley groove is evidence of
pulley misalignment
excessive cable tension
cable misalignment
1274.A universal protractor used to measure degrees of
aileron travel should be zeroed
with the aileron in the neutral position
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
with the aileron in the down position
1275.A flying control static friction check
will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to
operate non-powered controls.
can only be carried out during flight
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system
inertia and move the controls
1276.What is an aileron balance cable for?

To allow the cable to be tensioned
To allow aircraft to fly hands off
To correct for wing heaviness
1277.With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft (nose
up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted
for 'up' travel movement
neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make
no difference to the movement
for 'down' travel movement
1278.On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
30
60
15
1279.A horn balance on a control will
increase degree of movement at high speed
decrease degree of movement at low speed
decrease degree of movement at high speed
1280.In normal flight, if the control column is pulled
back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
move up
remain in line with the elevator
move down

1)
a ball bearing
Comment/Reference: Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys
2)
a clearance exists at the secondary stops

Comment/Reference: The clearance is on the secondary stops
3)
pulley misalignment
Page 1-45
4)
with the aileron in the neutral position

Page 1-40
5)
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system

inertia and move the controls
Comment/Reference:
6)
To allow the cable to be tensioned

Page 1-27
7)
for 'up' travel movement

Comment/Reference: Use of trim reduces the associated
control movement direction range
8)
60
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems
Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15
degrees with ailerons.
9)
increase degree of movement at high speed

Comment/Reference: For a given pilot effort, the horn
balance increases movement.
10)
move down
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1281 1290

1281.In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the
left, then the aileron on the right wing will
increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant
1282.On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight,
if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
both move up
both move down
remain stationary
1283. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the
aircraft will be fitted with
integrated fuel monitoring system
symmetrical flight control trim
automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder
movements
1284.A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
increased sensitivity for increased speed
decreases sensitivity for increased speed
decreases sensitivity for decreased speed
1285.In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the
installation of external ground locks between the control
surface and the balance tabs
would prevent the movement of the control column

would not prevent the movement of the control column
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible
1286.The two switches for pitch trim are located

on the
the
on the
on the
control column with the captain having priority over

First Officer.
control column acting like an 'AND' switch
control column acting like an 'OR' switch
1287.If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final

approach, the possible cause may be
flap motor internal leakage
flap tracks out of rigging
bearing seized
1288.In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending
moments are reduced by
operation of the elevator
symmetrical application of ailerons
transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
1289.Yaw damping rate changes with
altitude
airspeed
flap position
1290.What is the main purpose of a friese aileron?
Decrease drag on the up going wing
Increase drag on the up going wing
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads

1)
increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing

Comment/Reference: The downgoing aileron (the right one) has
an increase in AoA locally, which makes the wing lift, thus
reducing the AoA of the wing as a whole. Choose your
interpretation.
2)
both move down
3)
symmetrical flight control trim

Comment/Reference: Probably referring to Load Alleviation
Function. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page
5-29.
4)
increased sensitivity for increased speed

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page
223
5)
would prevent the movement of the control column

Comment/Reference: A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 129
6)
on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch

Comment/Reference: The 'split' trim switch has one half
closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to
engage the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the
power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to
operate the trim.
7)
flap motor internal leakage

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft
Systems Page 5-19 & B737-3/4/500 AMM 27-51-00 pg 109 slow
flap operation
8)
symmetrical application of ailerons

Comment/Reference: CAIPs EEL/1-2
9)
airspeed
Comment/Reference: Avionic Fundamentals page 292
10) Decrease drag on the up going wing

Comment/Reference: The Friese aileron increases drag on the upgoing aileron, which is on the down going wing. And Vise versa on
the other aileron
Questions 1291 1300

1291.What happens to a hydraulically operated flight
control surface when pressure is removed?
Go to neutral
Remain in last position
Droop
1292.Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are
prevented by
feedback from the servo motor
feedback from control surface
fitting a tachogenerator
1293.Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the
stalling speed by
7%
10.321%
4%
1294.A wing mounted stall warning vane
gives a visual indication of impending stall
moves down at impending stall
moves up at impending stall
1295.During an autopilot controlled turn
ailerons and rudder will move
ailerons, rudder and THS will move
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
1296.On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack

servomotor is controlled by the
flight augmentation computer
flight management and guidance computer
flight control computer
1297.In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll
spoilers?
Flight management computer
Flight control computer
Flight augmentation computer
1298.Mass balance weights are used to
balance the tabs
counteract flutter on control surfaces
balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces
1299.Active load control involves
varying lift force to control vertical movement of the
aircraft
limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed
intervention & monitoring the human pilot
1300.Active load control uses
aileron and spoiler
elevator and aileron
elevator and stab

1)
Droop
Comment/Reference: The drop in pressure releases a valve
which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator
piston to the other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and
permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually
controlled surfaces.
2)
fitting a tachogenerator
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Ed
pg 158 (feedback)
3)
7%
Eismin 5th Edition Page-370
4)
Moves up at impending stall

Comment/Reference:
5)
Ailerons, rudder and elevators will move

Comment/Reference:
6)

5-26
7)

5-26
8)
counteract flutter on control surfaces

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1 pg 39
9)
varying lift force to control vertical movement of the

aircraft
and Coyle Page 292

10) aileron and spoiler
Comment/Reference: Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load
Alleviation Function)
Questions 1301 1310

1301.The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque
setting is to
prevent control surface runaway
protect the servo motor
damp the system oscillation
1302.In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are
deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and
weight on ground switch is activated
thrust reversers are deployed
brakes are deployed
1303.In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled
by the
Flight Guidance and Management Computer
electric flight control unit
Flight Augmentation Computers
1304.Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to
prevent adverse yaw in a turn
prevent nose pitching down
prevent nose pitching up
1305.Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
C of G movement
continued pitch input
pitch of aircraft in cruise
1306.Differential aileron control will

cause a nose up moment
cause a nose down moment
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
1307.On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer
trim?
ELAC
ELAC and SEC
SEC
1308.In an automatic flight control system, when may the
yaw damper be applied?
During manual control only
During automatic control only
During either manual or automatic control
1309.Flutter can be prevented by
balance panels
trim tabs
mass balance
1310.In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses
all electrical power
servos move to neutral and lock
servos remain stationary and provide damping
servos lock at last position

1)
prevent control surface runaway

Coyle
2)
thrust reversers are deployed

Comment/Reference: A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram also,
www.b737.org.uk/flightcontorls.htm
3)
Flight Augmentation Computers

5-26
4)
prevent adverse yaw in a turn
5)
continued pitch input

Comment/Reference: If the elevator is deflected over a long
time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate
the elevator deflection load
6)
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input

Comment/Reference:
7)
ELAC and SEC

8)
During either manual or automatic control

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222
- 226
9)
mass balance
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 11-22 Appx 27-1 pg 39
10) servos remain stationary and provide damping

Comment/Reference: A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual
Questions 1311 1320

1311.In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
autopilot need not be engaged
operation of the trim controls is required
autopilot must be engaged
1312.In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle
is reached
the ailerons are faired
both ailerons are down
one is up one is down
1313.How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?
Reduce flap deployment
Autothrottle applying more power
Fast/Slow indication
1314.A single failure of fly by wire
has no effect on the aircraft's operation
will limit the flight profile
will reduce the operational height and speed
1315.Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent
weather conditions will result in
spoiler moving symmetrically upward
ailerons moving symmetrically upward
ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
1316.Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when

landing gear up and locked
flaps are retracted
flaps are extended
1317.How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in
normal manual operation?
Pitch Trim
Electric Trim
Mach/Speed Trim
1318.Spoiler position feedback is provided by a
a microswitch
an R.V.D.T.
a S.C.M.
1319.Rudder 'Q' limiting
increases feel as airspeed increases
restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed
increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed
1320.Elevons combine the functions of both
rudder and elevator
rudder and aileron

1)
autopilot need not be engaged

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page
213 - 218
2)
the ailerons are faired

Comment/Reference: Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral
stability, the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the
aircraft will hold the turn
3)
Autothrottle applying more power

Comment/Reference:
4)
has no effect on the aircraft's operation

Comment/Reference:
5)
ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward

Comment/Reference: However, Automatic Flight Control 4th ed
Pallett pg 292 under Gust Load Alleviation it says just
ailerons (the answer came from the original)
6)
flaps are retracted

Comment/Reference:
7)
Mach/Speed Trim
Comment/Reference:
8)
an R.V.D.T.
Comment/Reference:
9)
restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed

pg 33 (control gearing)
10)

Comment/Reference:
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36 &
AC65-15A pg 18 5th para lh side
Questions 1321 1330

1321.A differential aileron system is designed to
prevent adverse yaw
minimise flutter
compensate for aileron reversal
1322.An artificial feel system is required
for power assisted control systems
for proportional control systems
for power operated control systems
1323.A tandem P.F.C.U.
has the actuator rams co-axial
has the actuator rams parallel
has two control surfaces under its control
1324.What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?
Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn
To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn
1325.Active load control uses
elevator and stab
ailerons and spoilers
elevator and ailerons
1326.An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered

flying control system to
prevent overloading of the power control units
increasing the sensitivity of the control system
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces
1327.In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control
system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it
must be
operated by the standby hydraulic system
possible, but not recommended
automatic and instantaneous
1328.The purpose of control cable regulators is to
maintain preset cable tensions during flight
compensate for low temperature only
compensate for high temperature only
1329.Range of movements of power operated flying control
surfaces are limited by
travel of the jack body
mechanical stops in the control system
travel of the jack ram
1330.The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by
the
ailerons
elevator
rudder

1)
prevent adverse yaw

Comment/Reference:
2)
for power operated control systems

Comment/Reference:
3)

Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.htm
4)
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn

Comment/Reference:
5)
ailerons and spoilers

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed pg 292.
gust alleviation says spoilers only.
6)
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces

Comment/Reference:
7)
automatic and instantaneous

Comment/Reference:
8)
maintain preset cable tensions during flight

Comment/Reference:
9)
mechanical stops in the control system

Comment/Reference:
10)
elevator
Questions 1331 1340

1331.The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by
the
rudder
elevator
ailerons
1332.The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated
control is
to provide pressure to operate the control
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the
pilot's control in cockpit
to revert the system to manual operation
1333.A stick shaker is a device which
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off
vibrates the control column near stalling speed
helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground
1334.The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis
by the
rudder
elevator
ailerons
1335.Ruddervators when moved, will move
either opposite each other or together, depending on the
selection
together only
opposite to each other only
1336.As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft

limit
the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to
the high longitudinal stability
the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due
to the low stability
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very
high
1337.An anti-balance tab is moved
hydraulically
when the C.G. changes
via a fixed linkage
1338.A servo tab is operated
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the
main control surfaces when moved
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move
the main control surfaces
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main
control surfaces
1339.When checking full range of control surface movement,
they must be positioned by
moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops
moving them by hand directly until against the secondary
stops
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system
is against the primary stops
1340.The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn
causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this may be
compensated for by
use of the rudder control

increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators
operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct
angle of bank has been reached

1)
Rudder
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 44.
vertical axis = normal axis
2)
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the

pilot's control in cockpit
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page
12-38
3)
vibrates the control column near stalling speed

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th ed
Eisman pg 370 (Stall Warning)
4)
ailerons
5)
either opposite each other or together, depending on the

selection
Page 16 & AC65-15A pg 45
6)
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very
high
Comment/Reference:
7)
via a fixed linkage

Comment/Reference:
8)
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move

the main control surfaces
Page 23
9)
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system

is against the primary stops
Comment/Reference:
10)
use of the rudder control

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1341 1350

1341.The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered
is called a
Fowler flap
split flap
plain flap
1342.Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an
increase in wing area?
Split flap
Slotted flap
Fowler flap
1343.Which of the following is not a primary flying
control?
Tailplane
Rudder
Elevator
1344.A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control
by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the
control surface is called a
geared balance tab
servo tab
trim tab
1345.What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to
reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence, or
speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?

Lift dumpers
Air brakes
Wheel brakes
1346.When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine

with
ailerons
rudder
elevators
1347.What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft
to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?
Trim tabs
Balance tabs
Spring tabs
1348.With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the
pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control surfaces
stay at neutral
remain in the position they were when power was removed
droop
1349.Powered flying control actuators
provide feedback to the pilot
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
are operated by the autopilot only
1350.A stick shaker operates
at the onset of the stall
just before the stall
after the stall

1)
Fowler flap
2)
Fowler flap
3)
Tailplane
4)
geared balance tab

5)
Air brakes
6)
ailerons
Comment/Reference:
7)
Trim tabs
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A 46
8)
droop
Comment/Reference:
9)
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces

Comment/Reference:
10)
just before the stall

Control Systems Page 168
Questions 1351 1360

1351.In a power assisted flight control system, the feel
required is normally supplied by
'Q' feel
stretching springs
air loads on the control surfaces
1352.Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is
provided by
nulling of the servo valve
air loads on the control surface
the jack ram being attached to structure
1353.'Q' feel units use
pitot pressure only
static pressure only
1354.Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed
pitch trim is not affected
roll will not occur
no yaw takes place
1355.Powered flight control systems are used on transport
aircraft
because the pilot has too many tasks to perform
because at low level air density is high
due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
1356.A differential aileron control system results in

aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn
aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements
aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn
1357.Spoiler panels are controlled by
a speed brake lever only
the aileron control wheel only
the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever
1358.A lift transducer is normally fitted
on the elevator control system
to the nose area of the aircraft
on the leading edge of the wing
1359.If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire
spoiler system, the spoiler panels
remain where they are
go to full up
go to down if any are not already down
1360.In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up
transducer is fitted to
the hydraulic actuator
the control system computer
the pilot's input

1)
air loads on the control surfaces

Comment/Reference: AL/3-7 8.1 and 8.2.1 Power 'assisted'
controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power 'operated'
controls use a Q feel system
2)
nulling of the servo valve

Comment/Reference: Nulling the servo valve produces a
hydraulic lock.
3)

Comment/Reference: Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31
4)
pitch trim is not affected

Comment/Reference:
5)
due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft

Comment/Reference:
6)
aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn

Comment/Reference:
7)
the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever

Comment/Reference:
8)
on the leading edge of the wing

Comment/Reference: Lift transducer, also known as a stall
sensor
9)
go to down if any are not already down

Comment/Reference:
10)
the hydraulic actuator

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1361 1370

1361.The down position of the speed brake lever is detented
to
allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown
lock the speed brakes down during flight
prevent inadvertent operation
1362.Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a
minimum the tendency of
yawing
pitch changes
rolling
1363.High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust
of opposite engine reads
greater than 50%
greater than 90%
greater than 75%
1364.A differential aileron control is one which gives
a larger aileron up travel than down
the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one
equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for
stick movement
1365.When the control column is moved back and the handwheel turned to the left
the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up

the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down
the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down
1366.A series type yaw damper

moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll
moves the rudder pedals and the rudder
moves the rudder only
1367.A stick shaker
vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and
mounted on the control column
is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control
column
1368.If the control column is moved forward and to the left
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down
left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up
left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down
1369.On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral
control, roll to the right is caused by
left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted
both spoilers extending
right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted
1370.When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved
to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron
trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the
right aileron will remain neutral
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the
right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the
right aileron to move up

1)
prevent inadvertent operation

Comment/Reference:
2)
rolling
Comment/Reference:
3)
greater than 75%

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 27-32-00 pg 6 para 4.F.
(3)
4)
a larger aileron up travel than down

Comment/Reference:
5)
the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up

Comment/Reference:
6)
moves the rudder only

Comment/Reference:
7)
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and

mounted on the control column
Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 page 22 para 13.3.2 and Transport
Category Aircraft Systems Page 211
8)
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down

Comment/Reference:
9)
right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted

Comment/Reference:
10)
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down
and the right aileron to move up
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1371 1380

1371.You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for
nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the trim
tab?
The elevator trim tab has moved up
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
The elevator trim tab has moved down
1372.Pulleys in a flight control system are made from
stainless steel
brass
Tufnol or aluminium alloy
1373.A tension regulator in the flight control cable system
of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
decrease cable tension in cold weather
retain a set tension
increase cable tension in cold weather
1374.An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control
locking mechanism
locks the ailerons and elevators
restricts movement of the throttles
dampens the rudder movement
1375.The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to
control in response to the aircraft's
roll frequency
dutch roll frequency
pitch Frequency
1376.The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when

the aircraft is close to stall
flap position
throttle lever
fast/slow switch
1377.Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
aircraft tends to go nose down
aircraft tends to roll to the right
aircraft tends to go nose up
1378.Ground spoilers are used to
increase wing loading on take-off
prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and
taxiing
decrease wing loading on landing
1379.The outboard ailerons on some aircraft
are isolated at slow speeds
are isolated to improve sensitivity
are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
1380.The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be
increased by
increasing the altitude of the aircraft
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the
aircraft's centre of gravity
decreasing the velocity of the aircraft

1)
The elevator trim tab has moved down

Comment/Reference:
2)
Tufnol or aluminium alloy

Comment/Reference:
3)
retain a set tension

Comment/Reference:
4)
restricts movement of the throttles

Comment/Reference:
5)
Dutch roll frequency

Comment/Reference:
6)
throttle lever
Comment/Reference:
7)
aircraft tends to go nose up

Comment/Reference:
8)
decrease wing loading on landing

Comment/Reference:
9)
are isolated to prevent aileron reversal

Comment/Reference:
10)
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the

aircraft's centre of gravity
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1381 1390

1381.A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by
DC
Battery
AC
1382.A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in
the open position
the closed position
its last position
1383.Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
air or vapour systems
low pressure systems
high pressure systems
1384.When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe,
what is the Maximum voltage to use
30 V
250 V
500 V
1385.A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
by the fuel
by internal cooling
by air
1386.Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the

115 V AC
battery
28 V DC bus
1387.Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
air spaces interconnected
separate venting for each tank
no airspace
1388.As fuel level increases, system capacitance
decreases
no change
increases
1389.When refueling
it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when
the tank is full
it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
1390.When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
it is applied dry and left
it is applied wet and flushed out
it is added to the fuel and burnt

1)
DC
Comment/Reference: 737 AMM Chapter 28-22-00 (Download from
the Tutorial Support section)
2)
the closed position

Comment/Reference: Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for
flight
3)
air or vapour systems

4)
250 V
Comment/Reference: The fuel probe excitation is 115V AC. As
a rule of thumb, use an insulation tester 2x the normal
operating voltage.
5)
by the fuel
Comment/Reference:
6)
28 V DC bus
Comment/Reference: 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1, A320 FCOM 28.30
pg1
7)
air spaces interconnected

8)
increases
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 486 & The dielectric constant
of kerosene is more than that of air. B757 MM Chapter 28-4100
9)
it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank

Page 15-18
10) it is added to the fuel and burnt

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3
Questions 1391 1400

1391.Microbial growth is
brown black slime
green sludge
red dots
1392.Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by
contact adhesive
press type rivets
bolts
1393.A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system
is carried out with
tanks completely full
tanks completely empty
tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
1394.After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test
should be carried out at
tank shut-off valve point
tank outlet
engine inlet
1395.In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes
place
the top of the tank
the bottom 2 inches of the tank
below the fungal colonies
1396.If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight,

provision must be made to
shut off fuel before structural damage
stop engine from using tank during transfer
provide overflow facility to dump fuel
1397.In a fuel system with interconnected vents
the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
an expansion space is not required
1398.Fuel tanks interconnected must have
protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
vents to allow overfueling
tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
1399.When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to
hard reversion
mechanical reversion
soft reversion
1400.Pressure refuelling is carried out at
40 PSI
15 PSI
20 PSI

1)
brown black slime

2)
press type rivets

Comment/Reference: AL/3-15 4.1.3 says press studs or cords
3)
tanks empty apart from unusable fuel

Comment/Reference: AL/10-3 11.14.1.e
4)
engine inlet
Comment/Reference:
5)
below the fungal colonies

6)
shut off fuel before structural damage

Comment/Reference: JAR 25.957
7)

8)
protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system

9)
soft reversion
Comment/Reference: TTS FADEC Booklet Page 13
10)
40 PSI
Comment/Reference: AL/3-17 5.4 says 'up to 50 psi'
Questions 1401 1410

1401.Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from
left tank to right tank
any tank to any engine
tank to tank
1402.What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent
vaporisation?
A nozzle
A corona device
An anti-corona device
1403.What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents
gauge as fuel is used?
Decreases
Depends on altitude
Increases
1404.When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long
periods, the fuel tanks should
be full
have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from
deteriorating/drying out
be empty
1405.Integral fuel booster pumps
require ram air cooling
lets the fuel do cooling

require no cooling
1406.The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system

is
to ensure that all available fuel can be used
to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks
efficiently
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed
thus reducing microbiological contamination
1407.In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light
indicates
ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail
the tank does not pressurise
pump failure
1408.How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?
By a fuel boost pump
By suction from the engine driven fuel pump
By a gravity feed pump
1409.A fuel tank suction valve will open when
both the engine driven and booster pump fail
the booster pump fails
the engine driven pump fails
1410.To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank
the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible
the tank should be filled as full as possible
the filler cap should be left open

1)
any tank to any engine

Comment/Reference: B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1
2)
An anti-corona device
Comment/Reference:
3)
Decreases
4)
have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from

deteriorating/drying out
5)
lets the fuel do cooling

Comment/Reference:
6)
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed

thus reducing microbiological contamination
6.17
7)
ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail

Comment/Reference:
8)
By a fuel boost pump

Comment/Reference:
9)
the booster pump fails

Comment/Reference:
10)
the tank should be filled as full as possible

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1411 1420

1411.At the lowest point of each vent line you would
normally find a
float valve
NACA duct
self draining non-return valve
1412.To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour
build up
a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted
cabin air is bled around the tank
ram air is circulated around the tank
1413.When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic
indicator would show
amber and cross line
amber and in line
green and in line
1414.When considering the basic categories of fuel tank
construction, which of the following is most prone to leaks?
Rigid
Integral
Flexible
1415.On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is
observed running out of the boost pump canister, this could
be caused by
fuel leaking past the inlet screens

fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed
the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated
1416.Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with

two 28V DC motors
two single phase AC motors
two three-phase AC motors
1417.To replace a water drain valve seal
the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must
be replaced
the tank must be de-fuelled
the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the
tanks
1418.A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be
found on
the APU fuel feed
fuel tank vent pipes
fuel jettison system
1419.To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the
purpose of engine removal you would
close the HP fuel lock
pull the fire handle
close the cross bleed valve
1420.A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel
dripping from the tank is classified as a
stain
run
seep

1)
self draining non-return valve

Comment/Reference:
2)
ram air is circulated around the tank

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 28-13-00 pg 1
3)
amber and cross line

Comment/Reference:
4)
Integral
Comment/Reference:
5)
the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated

Comment/Reference:
6)
two 28V DC motors

Comment/Reference:
7)
the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the

tanks
Comment/Reference:
8)
fuel tank vent pipes

Comment/Reference:
9)
pull the fire handle

Comment/Reference: After first pulling the firebottle CBs
10)
run
Comment/Reference: AC65-9A pg 97 &
AL/3-15 page 8 para 5.4.1
Questions 1421 1430

1421.Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral
tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted
with
Methylated Spirit
Kerosene
Water
1422.A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to
prevent the centre from being defuelled
automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a
period of time
prevent the dumping of the outer tanks
1423.The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum
volume of fuel
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to
maintain
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount
of weight
1424.On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each
engine using
the same system for each engine
a parallel system
a separate system for each engine
1425.A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of

services is complete and the accumulator charged with
fluid
is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture
is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several
selected positions
1426.Hydraulic pressure can be restored by

the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
compressing the air charge in an accumulator
compressing the fluid in a reservoir
1427.An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen
pressure. What will be the indications?
Zero pressure indicated
The cut-out valve chatters
Full pressure indicated
1428.What type of valve prevents pressure from building up
until a demand is placed in an open-center hydraulic system?
A selector valve
A bypass valve
An unloading valve
1429.In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is
provided
only when the selector valve is set to ON
only when the selector valve is set to OFF
continuously
1430.In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves
are positioned
either in series or in parallel depending on the system
design
in series
in parallel

1)
Water
Comment/Reference:
2)
prevent the dumping of the outer tanks

Comment/Reference:
3)
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount
of weight
Comment/Reference:
4)
a separate system for each engine

5)
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of

services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid
6)
compressing the air charge in an accumulator

7)
The cut-out valve chatters

Comment/Reference:
8)
A selector valve
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Airframe Textbook Chapter 8 page
15
9)
only when the selector valve is set to ON

Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance 1-17 &
Jeppesen A+P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-15
10) in series
Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance 1-17 &
Jeppesen A+P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-15
Questions 1431 1440

1431.What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?
Green
White
Yellow
1432.A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will
maintain a high pressure to all systems
allow continued press to essential systems during times of
reduced supply
dampen pressure inputs
1433.Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a
hydraulic pump?
In the case drain
In the pressure line
In the suction line
1434.What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic
leak?
Increase in fluid pressure
Fluid loss
Increase in fluid temperature
1435.What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
Increase acidity
Increase viscosity
Increase alkalinity
1436.How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid

actuated?
Energised Closed for fail-safe
Energised Open
Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit
selection
1437.How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
By pressurising
Vent Reservoir to atmosphere
Pass over a tray
1438.Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
are only ever used in an emergency
provide additional fluid if leaks occur
store fluid under pressure
1439.A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
natural rubber
butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
synthetic rubber
1440.Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is
high in
viscosity
acidity
alkalinity

1)
Green
2)
allow continued press to essential systems during times of

reduced supply
Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5.3
3)
In the case drain

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft
Systems 7-10 and 7-8
4)
Increase in fluid temperature

Comment/Reference: Increase in temperature is an indication
of internal leaks
5)
Increase acidity
Comment/Reference: Hi acidity is a common problem revealed
after an oil system analysis
6)
Energised Closed for fail-safe

Comment/Reference: The depressurising valve (sometimes
called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed, to failsafe open
7)
By pressurising
8-16
8)
store fluid under pressure

9)
butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon

10)
acidity
Comment/Reference: Overheating causes acidity
Questions 1441 1450

1441.A normal hydraulic system will
show pressure and source of hydraulics
show fluid temperature and quantity
illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready
1442.A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to
relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?
ACOV (Automatic Cut Out Valve)
Pressure relief valve
Return line back to pump
1443.The control of hydraulically powered emergency
electrical generator frequency is by
angle of swashplate
restriction valve
IDG
1444.Hydraulic systems normally operate at
300 PSI
1800 PSI
3000 PSI
1445.When flushing hydraulic systems
flush with any hydraulic oil
flush with methylated spirit
flush with same hydraulic oil
1446.When replenishing a hydraulic system

use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
use any hydraulic fluid
use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer
1447.When replacing a flexible pipe
tighten only hand tight
do a bonding check
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
1448.How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
Pass through a restriction
Vent to atmosphere
Pass over a tray
1449.A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is
energised to the run position
used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic
pressure
de-energised to start the pump
1450.A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
servo pressure
regulators
gears

1)
show pressure and source of hydraulics

Comment/Reference: Some systems show temperature, but they
are not 'normal'.
2)
ACOV
3)
angle of swashplate
Comment/Reference:
4)
3000 PSI
Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7
5)
flush with same hydraulic oil

Comment/Reference:
6)
use the same/correct hydraulic fluid

Jeppesen Page 7-2
7)
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting

8)
Pass over a tray

Comment/Reference:
9)
energised to the run position

Comment/Reference:
10)
regulators
Comment/Reference: Constant delivery is constant flow rate.
Questions 1451 1460

1451.A variable angled pump starts at
half way position
minimum stroke
maximum stroke
1452.A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents
reverse flow
overpressure
pump cavitation
1453.A duplex seal consist of
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square
section inner ring
a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon
rings
a square section rubber ring within a steel washer
1454.When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?
When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available
When selected on
When selected off
1455.A fixed volume axial pump contains the following
rotating parts:
Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate & Cylinder Block
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate & Valve Block
variable Swash Plate & Valve Block
1456.An hydraulic closed system is one where

pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times
most of the major components of the system are included in a
self contained unit
there is no pressure at the selector valves when no
functions are required
1457.What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?
Hydraulic oil accumulator
Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
Variable swashplate pump
1458.If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be
pump cavitation
rapid fluctuations of instruments
rapid depressurisation of system
1459.A marker number on a pipe indicates
the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run
the thickness of the wall on the pipe
the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe
1460.One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic
system is to
relieve excess pressure
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
absorb pressure surges

1)
maximum stroke
2)
reverse flow
Comment/Reference:
3)
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square

section inner ring
Comment/Reference:
4)
When selected off

5)
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate & Valve Block

Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Figure 2
6)
pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times

Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 12.1 - 12.3
7)
Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter

Comment/Reference: Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe P8-15
8)
rapid fluctuations of instruments

Comment/Reference:
9)
the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run

Comment/Reference:
10)
absorb pressure surges

Comment/Reference: AC65-15Apg 324
Questions 1461 1470

1461.A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
to
prevent a leak back of pressure
prevent excess temperature
1462.A component in a hydraulic system which ensures
instantaneous action when a service is selected is
selector
engine driven pump
accumulator
1463.A shuttle valve is used for
change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of
failure
maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails
preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
1464.Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to
limit the maximum pressure
restrict the rate of pressure build up
control the rate of system operation
1465.The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to
ensure the operation of
brake anti-skid units
landing gear and doors

safety switches
1466.The purpose of a non-return valve is to

restrict the movement of components
isolate one component from another
direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator
1467.The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to
allow a full flow from the valve
facilitate bleeding of the system
prevent incorrect installation
1468.A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air
pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system pressure of
3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure is
3000 PSI
1000 PSI
4000 PSI
1469.Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by
moisture in the fluid
low accumulator pressure
relief valve set too high
1470.Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting
because of the
piston ram displacement
relief valve
two NRVS fitted

1)

Comment/Reference: Thermal relief valves relieve the
pressure build-up due to excessive temperature
2)
accumulator
Comment/Reference:
3)
change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of

failure
4)
control the rate of system operation

5)
landing gear and doors

Comment/Reference:
6)
direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator

Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Page 10
7)
prevent incorrect installation

Comment/Reference: AL/3-21 Page 10
8)
3000 PSI
Comment/Reference:
9)
low accumulator pressure

Comment/Reference:
10)
two NRVS fitted

CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6
Questions 1471 1480

1471.During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system
pressure
must be at maximum
is not important
must be minimum working
1472.Constant delivery hydraulic pumps
are self idling
require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the
system
require an automatic cut-out valve in the system
1473.Mechanical sequence valves are operated by
the operation of a NRV
the pilot
a striker pin
1474.Pressure relay valves are fitted
before a pressure sequence valve
before a pressure relief valve
before a pressure gauge
1475.Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic
accumulator
the reservoir must be checked for correct level
all air must be bled from the system
the fluid pressure must be released
1476.Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to

maintain a constant fluid level
provide a reserve of stored energy
1477.In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to
use
any hydraulic fluid available
only the specified fluid
any fluid of the same specific gravity
1478.The essential components of a hydraulic system of the
constant delivery type are an
accumulator and relay valve
accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
accumulator and shuttle valve
1479.An automatic cut-out valve will
limit pump wear
raise fluid boiling point
prevent the hydraulic lock forming
1480.A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the
event of system failure
to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
relieve excessive pressure to return

1)
must be at maximum
Comment/Reference:
2)
require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the

system
Comment/Reference:
3)
a striker pin
Comment/Reference:
4)
before a pressure gauge

5)
the fluid pressure must be released

Comment/Reference:
6)

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7
7)
only the specified fluid

Comment/Reference:
8)
accumulator and automatic cut-out valve

Comment/Reference:
9)
10)
prevent the hydraulic lock forming

Comment/Reference:
to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the
event of system failure
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1481 1490

1481.A thermal relief valve
senses fluid temperature change
provides cooling for the fluid
senses fluid pressure
1482.Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with
the same type of fluid as used in the system
methylated spirits
any clean hydraulic fluid
1483.Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of
seals?
Synthetic Rubber
Natural Rubber
Butyl Rubber
1484.A RAT hydraulic pump is for
flying controls if hydraulic power lost
landing gear and auto-brake systems
nose wheel steering
1485.Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from
a stack pipe higher than the normal level
the bottom of the reservoir
a tap into a convenient return line
1486.Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally

double acting
single acting
low pressure
1487.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components
requiring different pressures
a pressure reducing valve is used
a pressure relief valve is used
a pressure regulating valve is used
1488.The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to
area x volume
area x pressure
pressure x stroke
1489.A tandem PFCU
has the rams parallel
has two control surfaces under its control
1490.The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose
during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure
contracts in length and diameter
expands in length and diameter
contracts in length and expands in diameter

1)
senses fluid pressure

Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14
2)
the same type of fluid as used in the system

Comment/Reference:
3)
Butyl Rubber
4)
flying controls if hydraulic power lost

Comment/Reference:
5)
the bottom of the reservoir

Comment/Reference: AL3-21 8.1
6)
double acting
Comment/Reference: Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23.
7)
a pressure reducing valve is used

Comment/Reference:
8)
area x pressure
Comment/Reference:)
9)

Comment/Reference:
www.tpub.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.htm
10) contracts in length and expands in diameter

Comment/Reference: A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115 & CAP
562 Leaflet 5-5 para 6
Questions 1491 1500

1491.An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic
system with
a fixed volume pump
a variable volume pump
pressures above 3000 PSI
1492.A pressure operated ice detector would
be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to
sound on the flight deck
have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to
illuminate a flight deck annunciator
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a
warning light to illuminate on the flight deck
1493.Ice formed on the object or surface will change its
shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable to a
large object
small object
fast moving object
1494.In which ice detection method, the activation of
warning system is through accumulation of ice on a probe
projected into the airstream?
Impingement method
Inferential method
Ice accretion method
1495.The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of

synthetic rubber
rubberised fabric
natural rubber
1496.When testing windshield wipers, you should

operate them on a dry windshield
lift the wipers away from the windshield
use a continuous flow of water on the windshield
1497.What is the correct way of measuring the windshield
wiper force prior to adjustment?
By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep
With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure
With a spring tension scale
1498.How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?
By a motor load test
Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement
Screwdriver torque test
1499.Windshield heating provides
increases strength to resist cabin pressure
impact resistance enhancement
thermal expansion for a tighter fit
1500.At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid
applied?
70F at 10 PSI
7F at 100 PSI
70C at 100 PSI

1)
a fixed volume pump

Comment/Reference:
2)
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a

warning light to illuminate on the flight deck
Comment/Reference:
3)
small object
Comment/Reference: AL/11-6 page 1
4)
Ice accretion method

Comment/Reference: CAIP AL/11-6 page 1
5)
rubberised fabric
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 287 & AL/11-1 page 4
6)
use a continuous flow of water on the windshield

Comment/Reference:
7)
With a spring tension scale

Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 30-42-11
8)
Screwdriver torque test

Comment/Reference: 'Retard rotation [of the detector] with
slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.' Ref:
CAIPs AL/11-6
9)
impact resistance enhancement

Page 13-6 (last paragraph)
10)
70C at 100 PSI

Questions 1501 1510

1501.The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
more efficient
aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
less of a fire hazard
1502.On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is
one system for both sides but with the same power source
independent on each side but with the same power source
independent on each side with different power sources
1503.Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you
must
remove all paint
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
paint the surface
1504.On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on
when selected by the crew
when in the air
all the time
1505.Ice formation on wings is due to
suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and
instantly re-freezing
ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing
1506.When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the

warning lamp on the flight deck
goes out after one more cycle
goes out immediately
goes out after a set period of time
1507.De-misting of passenger windows is provided by
sealed window
air from the cabin
an electrical heating element
1508.A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge
to
provide more efficient deicer cycles
prevent electrical static build up
provide smoother airflow over leading edge
1509.In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer
supplies AC Power for heating
supplies DC power for heating
steps up output for severe weather conditions
1510.Windshield rain repellent is applied
when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured
before rain and spread on window surface by wipers

1)
aerodynamic shape is not disturbed

Comment/Reference: The advantage of leading edge fluid deicing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
2)
independent on each side with different power sources

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett,
Page 178
3)
remove all paint

4)
when selected by the crew

5)
supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing

Comment/Reference: AL/11-6 2
6)
goes out after a set period of time

7)
air from the cabin

8)
prevent electrical static build up

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4 (unless they mean
'bonded' as in cemented. In which case the answer is b)
9)
steps up output for severe weather conditions

62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply' power)
10)
when rain is on windows and spread by wipers

Comment/Reference: www.b737.org.uk/iceandrain.htm
Jeppesen, A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-1
Questions 1511 1520

1511.Pneumatic rain removal systems
use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water
droplets from windscreen
are not permitted on large transport aircraft
1512.Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at
the shaft end
centre point of the blade
blade attachment end
1513.Windscreen autotransformers
are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions
step up voltage
step down voltage
1514.An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the
airframe before freezing, and which is dense, tough and
sticks closely to the surface is called
hoar Frost
glaze Ice
rime Ice
1515.When testing pitot head heaters
they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of
the probe
they must only be switched on for the minimum time required

to check serviceability
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise
before taking ammeter readings
1516.A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of

ice by
decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit
ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge
and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit
increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the
cockpit
1517.Windscreen heating is supplied from
frequency wild generator, via a rectifier
DC generator, via a transformer
frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen
1518.A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated
permanently in flight deck without selection being made. The
most probable cause would be
normal
a short circuit
an open circuit
1519.Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from
a combustion heater
engine compressors
air conditioning ducting
1520.The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice
system
stainless steel
nylon
Monel

1)
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water

droplets from windscreen
Textbook page 13-18
2)
the shaft end

Comment/Reference:
3)
step up voltage
4)
glaze Ice
Comment/Reference: www.tpub.com/weather2/5-8.htm
FAA AC 20-147 & AC65-15A pg 285
5)
they must only be switched on for the minimum time required

to check serviceability
Comment/Reference:
6)
increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the

cockpit
page 174
7)
frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen

page173, fig.10-29
8)
a short circuit
Comment/Reference:
9)
engine compressors
Comment/Reference:
10)
nylon
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1521 1530

1521.When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make
sure to
place soft cloth between blade and window
use slow wiper only
use water as lubricant when operating
1522.What is run-back ice?
Glime ice
Rime ice
Glaze ice
1523.Spongy brakes are usually a result of
air in the system
internal leakage
external leakage
1524.Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
wheel hub
wheel flange
brake drum
1525.A tyre valve cap is used to
prevent a leak
secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel
secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base
1526.How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?

Three quarters of full pressure
Inflated to 20-30 PSI
With full pressure
1527.The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel
steering system of large aircraft normally comes from
the landing gear down line
an independent hydraulic system
the landing gear up line
1528.When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake,
the wheel brake should be
set OFF (released)
disconnected first
set ON (applied)
1529.Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel
to assist in
deflecting water away from rear mounted engines
preventing aquaplaning
preventing nose wheel shimmy
1530.A brake debooster valve is provided for
decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes
quickly

1)
use water as lubricant when operating

Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5.1.2
2)
Glaze ice
Comment/Reference: FAA AC20-147
3)
air in the system

Comment/Reference: CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician
4)
wheel flange
Page 1-32
5)
prevent a leak
Comment/Reference:
6)
Inflated to 20-30 PSI

7)
the landing gear down line

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 32-51-00 Figure 2 (Sheet
1) pg 4 & pg 11 para 6.A. & AL/3-6 page 15
8)
set ON (applied)
9)
preventing nose wheel shimmy

Comment/Reference: AL/3-18 page 3
10)
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes

quickly
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1531 1540

1531.Anti-skid systems become deactivated at
15-20 mph
10-15 mph
5-10 mph
1532.The landing gear is in the down and locked position
but the red light is still on. The most probable fault is
the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting
there is a short circuit in the microswitch
the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting
1533.Tubeless tyres are stored
vertically
horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter
tyre on top
at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
1534.On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the
bottom of the wheels are closer together
front of the wheels are closer together
top of the wheels are closer together
1535.A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
produce a loss of fluid
be serviceable, and provide better grip
wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
1536.How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?

15% by volume
5% by pressure
5% by volume
1537.A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the
10.75 refer to?
Section Width
Bead diameter
Overall diameter
1538.When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air
valve when the leg is depressurised?
The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
Separator plate stuck open
Leaking air/oil seals
1539.The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon
type of fluid most readily available
the type of seal material
heat generated in operation of the system
1540.A restrictor valve
restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
speed up the flow in one direction

1)
15-20 mph
Comment/Reference: Avotek Aircraft System Maintenance 3-69
2)
the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting

Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page
176 & B737 AMM 32-45-00 Page 9 and Figure 6
3)
vertically
Page 9-47 & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 15.2.1
4)
bottom of the wheels are closer together

Page 9-13
5)
wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced

Comment/Reference: Badly corroded brakes should be replaced
6)
5% by volume
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 Appx 1 GR No. 16 para 3.1 & CS
25.733
7)
Section Width
8)
The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed

9)
heat generated in operation of the system

Comment/Reference: The type of fluid in an oleo strut will
depend upon heat generated in operation of the system
10)
may be used to slow down undercarriage extension

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8
Questions 1541 1550

1541.The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
damp the rebound
absorb the landing shock
ensure the separator does not bottom
1542.The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber
is to
permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction
of oil during extension
separate the oil from the air
restrict the compression of the air
1543.Made up wheels should be stored
horizontal no more than 4 high
vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
vertical at working pressure
1544.After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is
illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are
shorted sensor
wiring problem
out of adjustment sensor
1545.When checking for alignment of a MLG, check
symmetry, twist, tracking
symmetry, tracking, camber
symmetry, splay, tracking
1546.These markings are found on a tyre

32 x 10.45 R 14.
What does the number 32 mean?
Inner diameter
Outer diameter
Width
1547.A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing
represents
military reference
breather points
the light part of the tyre
1548.In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is
secured by
a lock ring
bolts
a retainer plate
1549.Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are
for overpressure protection
to deflate the tyre before removal
for over temperature protection
1550.A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
to provide a wear indication
to indicate the position for tyre levers
to provide strength

1)
damp the rebound

Page 9-5
2)
permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction

of oil during extension
Comment/Reference:
3)
vertical at 20/30 PSI charge

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 paras 15.2.1 & 15.4
4)
out of adjustment sensor

176
5)

Comment/Reference: A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 913
6)
Outer diameter
7)
breather points
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2.4
8)
a lock ring
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 4.8.1 & AC65-15A
pg 375
9)
for overtemperature protection

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 32-45-00 para 2.B.(6) pg
2 & AL/3-19 3.1.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion
due to overpressure, albeit the overpressure as a result of
temperature rise
10)
to provide strength
Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Questions 1551 1560

1551.If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging,
this is
normal
caused by a leaky seal
due to excessive charging pressure
1552.A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means
military reference
breather points
1553.On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins
to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
a faulty selector valve
gear lowered at too high an airspeed
1554.When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned
on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging
valve
adjacent to the charging valve
opposite the charging valve
1555.Composite brake units
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high
temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at
high temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased
efficiency at high temperatures
1556.A restrictor valve can be used

to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction
to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
1557.When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep
back up. The fault could be
a leaky selector valve
a stuck relief valve
the emergency system
1558.Vents holes are found on
tubeless tyres
tubed tyres
tubed and tubeless tyres
1559.At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?
250C
150C
200C
1560.The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is
to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction
part of the shimmy damper
for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage
extension

1)
caused by a leaky seal

Comment/Reference: AL/3-6 3.3.3 iii
2)

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3.7
3)
a faulty selector valve

Comment/Reference:
4)
adjacent to the charging valve

Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrfttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para
3.2.1.10
5)
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased
efficiency at high temperatures
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 920 'Carbon Brakes'
6)
to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension

7)
a leaky selector valve

Comment/Reference:
8)
tubed and tubeless tyres

Comment/Reference: AL/3-18 2.4. A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless. & Dunlop
General Servicing Instructions
9)
200C
Comment/Reference: Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel,
Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 - Yellow
Plug Temperature 390F

10)
to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1561 1570

1561.What is tyre creep related to?
Tyre moving around the wheel
Horizontal movement of the tyre
Vertical movement of the tyre
1562.'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by
an anti-skid device
lowering slats
increased flaring
1563.Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel
steering system?
To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection
To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection
To reduce vibration and shimmy
1564.What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage
leg?
The material of the leg
Neither, any oil can be used
The types of seals the leg uses
1565.In an anti-skid system
brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking
brakes release on rising torque
brakes release on falling torque
1566.If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection,

the likely cause is
oil level too high
air pressure too high
loss of pressure/leakage
1567.A Maxaret is used in what system?
Self centring landing gear
Tyre inflation
Skid control
1568.The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight
deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most likely
reason for this warning is
the airspeed is too high
the landing gear is not locked down
the rate of descent is too high
1569.A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction
and lowering system is positioned in the
landing gear down line
return line from the landing gear selector
landing gear up line
1570.Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake
systems
to ensure the aircraft is still rolling
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight
time lapse before spoiler deployment
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly

stopped

1)
Tyre moving around the wheel

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 Para 9
2)
an anti-skid device
Comment/Reference:
3)
To reduce vibration and shimmy

Comment/Reference:
4)
The types of seals the leg uses

Comment/Reference:
5)
brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking

Page 10-37
6)
air pressure too high

Comment/Reference:
7)
Skid control
Comment/Reference:
8)
the landing gear is not locked down

Textbook page 10-12
9)
landing gear up line

Comment/Reference: The restrictor is placed in the
retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the
jack on extension, to slow the rate of extension. CAIPs
AL/3-6 fig 4 shows them in the down line - this is a well
known error in CAIPs
10)
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight

time lapse before spoiler deployment
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1571 1580

1571.A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents
tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive
braking
over inflation of tyres during servicing
brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together
under excessive temperatures
1572.If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position
normal braking will not be available
neither system will be available
emergency braking will not be available
1573.The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted
between the bead and the casing piles
between the tread rubber and the casing piles
between the apex strip and the casing piles
1574.Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by
a separate pilot operated control
the control column
rudder pedals
1575.The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel
will
eliminate the need to check air pressure
facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly
melt at a specified elevated temperature
1576.Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft

tyre is an indication of
excessive toe-in
under-inflation
over-inflation
1577.Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to
the base of the tie bar
the top of the tie bar
1 mm from the rib base
1578.On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used
to
prevent skidding
absorb increased landing shock
spread the weight over a large area
1579.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for
retraction and landing, a
castoring damper is used
snubber is used
hop damper is used
1580.On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are
normally inflated with
nitrogen
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air
an argon and CO2 mixture

1)
tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive

braking
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3 and A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6
2)
emergency braking will not be available

Comment/Reference:
3)
between the tread rubber and the casing piles

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 378 fig 9-49 &
CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1
4)
a separate pilot operated control

Comment/Reference:
5)
melt at a specified elevated temperature

6)
under-inflation
Comment/Reference:
7)
the top of the tie bar

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-7 para 10.4.5 b)
8)
spread the weight over a large area

Comment/Reference:
9)
hop damper is used

Comment/Reference:
10)
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air

Comment/Reference: CS 25.733 (e)
Questions 1581 1590

1581.Brake deboosters
assist the operation of the anti-skid unit
increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
1582.A modulator is fitted in conjunction with
anti-skid units
non-return valve
brake control valves
1583.In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel
bay
is subject to cabin pressure
is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than
cabin pressure
is not pressurized
1584.An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly
onto the shock absorber is of which type
Articulated
Direct Acting
Hydro Mechanical
1585.The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is
8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar
8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
1586.Tubed tyres are stored

horizontally, up
distortion of
horizontally, up
horizontally, up
tubes so each
to 4 in
beads
to 4 in
to 4 in
tyre is
total staggering them to prevent

total with the smallest at the top
total in a rack with supporting
supported at 2 points
1587.On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?

Top of wheels closer to fuselage
Front of wheels closer to fuselage
Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage
1588.When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit
indicator shows
no indication
red light
green light
1589.When checking the alignment of a main landing gear,
check
symmetry, tracking, twist
symmetry, tracking, splay
1590.Tyre creep could be caused by
overpressure
excessive wear
under pressure

1)
reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes

Comment/Reference:
2)
anti-skid units
3)
is not pressurized
Comment/Reference:
4)
Direct Acting
Comment/Reference:
5)

Comment/Reference:
6)
horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top

Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15.2.1 and 15.2.2
7)
Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage

Comment/Reference:
8)
no indication
Textbook page 10-12
9)

Comment/Reference:
10)
under pressure
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1591 1600

1591.When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve
stem
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem
1592.A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by
fitting tyres which have
a plain tread
twin contact
water dispersing treads
1593.Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored
in the manufactures boxes
horizontally
vertically
1594.With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the
torque links will
allow the wheel to shimmy
assist the wheel to castor
keep the wheel in track
1595.When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre
should be in line with
opposite side to the valve assembly
maker's serial number

the valve assembly
1596.A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate

light spot
heavy spot
balance indicator
1597.On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake
wear is checked by
application of the brakes and checking indicator pin
protrusion
using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the
cylinder and the thrust plate
measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the
brakes released
1598.With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red
Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
1599.Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
1600.A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal
plane, will be at least
20 candela
240 candela
50 candela

1)
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation

Comment/Reference:
2)
water dispersing treads

Comment/Reference:
3)
vertically
4)
keep the wheel in track

textbook page 9-12
5)
the valve assembly

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 386 & Jeppesen A & P Airframe
Technician Textbook page 9-49 &
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/DM1172.pdf
6)
heavy spot
Comment/Reference:
www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
Installation and removal of tyres para 2. B.
7)
application of the brakes and checking indicator pin

protrusion
Comment/Reference: Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch.
32-42-98
8)
Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 459-460 & Pallett Aircraft
Electrical Systems 3rd Ed Pg 145
9)
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base

Comment/Reference: Can fly without passengers in accordance
with the MEL. CAP 562 Leaflet 5-11 para 3.3
10)
20 candela
Comment/Reference: CS 25.1391 Table
Questions 1601 1610

1601.A fluorescent tube contains
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
iodine coatings and rare gases
1602.A white steady light is required
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110
degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110
1603.How many floor path lights can you fly with
unserviceable?
15%
25%
20%
1604.What is the arc of a landing light?
This is not covered in European legilsation
20
15
1605.The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
11
110
140
1606.Wing navigation lights must be visible through which

angle?
125
110
180
1607.Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the
battery bus and ground services bus
battery bus
ground services bus
1608.Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured
red
white
green
1609.Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
AC handling bus
DC handling bus
the battery bus
1610.What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is
switched to the on position?
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
All lights will illuminate
Dome lights will illuminate

1)
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour

Comment/Reference:
2)

Comment/Reference: CS 25.1391 & CAP 393 Rules of the Air
Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii)
3)
25%
25 Percent rule
4)
This is not covered in the current European legislation

5)
140
Ed Page 146, & CS 25.1387
6)
110
146 & CS 25.1387 para (b)(c)
7)
battery bus and ground services bus

Eismin 5th Ed page 256
8)
red
Jeppesen Page 7-2 & CS 25.1401
9)
AC handling bus
Comment/Reference: BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar)
although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC ground bus
10)
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1611 1620

1611.Escape route lighting must not have more than
20% obscured
15% obscured
10% obscured
1612.How many emergency lights are allowed to be
inoperative?
None
25%
10%
1613.The angle of a runway turnoff light is
60
40
50
1614.Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
28 V AC
115 V AC
28 V DC
1615.How are passenger reading lights normally tested?
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant
panel
Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel
1616.In what position should the selector switch be for a

standby and emergency lighting system during flight?
Armed
ON
OFF
1617.The emergency lighting system must be designed so that
after any single transverse vertical separation of the
fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of
emergency lighting that fails is
25%
10%
15%
1618.A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of
50 candelas
100 candelas
20 candelas
1619.Service lights include
avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage
compartment lights
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling
lights
refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights
1620.If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates,
how is it reset?
The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the
aircraft is on the ground.

It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high
stress loads experienced
Select full 'RETRACT'

1)
20% obscured
Comment/Reference:
2)
25%
Comment/Reference: CS 25.812 (l) (1), & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-11
para 2.11.1
3)
50
146
4)
115 V AC
Page 7-76 (figure 7-115)
5)
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant

panel
Comment/Reference:
6)
Armed
& CS 25.812 para (f)(3)
7)
25%
CS 25.812
8)
20 candelas
Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para.
49 5 (d) (ii) & CS 25-1401 (f)
9)
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling

lights
Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 3.5
10)
Select full 'RETRACT'

Comment/Reference: EEL/1-10 3.3.1
Questions 1621 1630

1621.Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head,
a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or
burning. That time period is at least
5 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes
1622.The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in
addition, must show through an inclusive angle of
140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum
1623.Self-illuminating signs
require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to
operate
are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark
adapted
1624.When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the
resistor is in
series with the light and the transistor is conducting
parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting
series with the light and the transistor is not conducting
1625.Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are
switched on
to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight
because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units

and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed
1626.Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be

dimmed
individually
together
First Officer's only in emergency mode
1627.In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured
amber
red
green
1628.On a CWS, which has the highest priority?
Hydraulic pump failure
Duct overheat
Fire warning
1629.What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?
Xenon
Freon
Halon
1630.Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement
and each light should be spaced
at 60 inch intervals

1)
2 minutes
2)
140 and be 3 candelas minimum

Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2
a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3.1 c)
3)
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark
adapted
4)
series with the light and the transistor is conducting

Comment/Reference: The transistor is conducting all the time
the light is switched on. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical
Systems. Page 153
5)
to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight

Comment/Reference:
6)
together
Comment/Reference:
B737 AMM 33-11-00 Page 5
7)
amber
8)
Fire warning
Comment/Reference:
9)
Xenon
Comment/Reference:
10)
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 para 2.7.1
Questions 1631 1640

1631.Tritium Gas is used in a
self illuminating lights
strobe light
landing Light
1632.A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of
glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is
what?
Helium gas and white
Xenon Gas and blue-white
Neon gas and blue
1633.The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency
lighting system
ground the aircraft
continue with reduced passenger load
ferry flight to main base for rectification
1634.Navigation lights are supplied by the following
circuit:
Individual circuits
Dual circuit
Single circuit
1635.Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate
when landing gear is down
below 10,000ft and descending

unless switched off by the pilot
1636.To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen

system, you must
completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3
times
completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least
3 times
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3
times
1637.When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to
zero. Where is the likely fault?
In the temperature compensator
In the pressure gauge
In the mask
1638.Anoxia is due to
lack of oxygen
release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
low air pressure on the body
1639.The dilutor demand regulator functions
all the time
only when the supply valve is opened by the user
when the user breathes in
1640.To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
litmus paper
a hygrometer using the dew point method
a glass plate

1)
self illuminating lights

2)
Xenon Gas and blue-white

3)
continue with reduced passenger load

Comment/Reference: A club66 user who got this, queried it
with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA assessor) that this is
the answer. However, no reference has been found.
4)
Single circuit
Eismin Page 250
5)
unless switched off by the pilot

Comment/Reference: 737 AMM 33-24-00
6)
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3

times
7)
In the mask
Comment/Reference:
8)
lack of oxygen
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 Para 2.1
9)
when the user breathes in

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 & Jeppesen
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-10
10) a hygrometer using the dew point method

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 6.4.1 or CAIPs AL/325 Para 6.4
Questions 1641 1650

1641.Oxygen cylinder test dates
are variable depending on discharge
may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder
are painted in white on the cylinder
1642.O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging.
What is the most probable cause?
Supernumerator regular
Temperature compensator
Breathing regulator
1643.If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely
find the cause?
Thermal Relief Valve
Loose connection
Breathing mask
1644.As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate
the system from the cockpit
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the
system from the emergency panel
the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended
1645.Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with
temperature gauge
pressure and quantity gauges

oxygen purity gauge
1646.A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens

all the time
when breathing
when 100% selected
1647.Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with
a demand regulator
an overpressure indicator
an over temperature indicator
1648.American made crew oxygen cylinders are
black in colour with a RH thread
green in colour with a RH thread
green in colour with a LH thread
1649.Which connector has a left hand thread?
O2
N2
Freon
1650.What is the principle of an O2 generator?
Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator
producing O2 when mixed with air
Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator

1)
are painted in white on the cylinder

CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4.2.2.
2)
Breathing regulator
Comment/Reference:
3)
Breathing mask
Comment/Reference: Breathing masks are the most common cause
of leaks. O2 systems being turned on during pilot pre flight
checks. Refer to any fim/tsm
4)
the O2 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended

Comment/Reference:
5)
pressure and quantity gauges

6)
when breathing
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 & AC65-15A
pg 594 & A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9
7)
a demand regulator
Comment/Reference:
8)
green in colour with a RH thread

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3 states
green for cylinders for American origin. (l/h threads are
for charging points)
9)
O2
Comment/Reference: CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e)
10) Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.2 & AC65-15A pg
589
Questions 1651 1660

1651.What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised
to?
3000 PSI
300 PSI
1800 PSI
1652.Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be
turned on and safety wire-locked
turned off
turned on by crew
1653.A thermal compensator is used in
a fuel system
an oxygen system
an hydraulic system
1654.When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen,
the oxygen is
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at
approximately ambient
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the
temperature down
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect
temperature
1655.Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen
system?
Charging connection
Shut-off valve
Line valve
1656.Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when

100% is selected
the user breathes in
less than 500 psi is in bottle
1657.A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for
extra supply in case of emergency
additional flightcrew
changes in altitude
1658.If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14,000 ft
passenger must get mask from overhead stowage
attendant must drop masks
masks drop automatically
1659.How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure
Green rupturing disc
Red rupturing disc
Audible warning
1660.The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is
4 years
2 years
10 years

1)
1800 PSI
Comment/Reference: AL/3-25 4.2, & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 3.3.1
and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8
2)
turned on and safety wire-locked

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 h) &
AC65-15A pg 593
3)
an oxygen system
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.12 or CAIPs
AL/3-25 4.12
4)
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 f) & A&P
Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598
5)
Charging connection
Comment/Reference: CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e)
6)
the user breathes in

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 594 & A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook 14-9
7)
additional flightcrew
Comment/Reference:
8)
masks drop automatically

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.2 &
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8
9)
Green rupturing disc

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.13 or CAIPs
AL/3-25 4.13
10) 4 years
page 14-8 or CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.9 or CAIPs AL/3-25 5.9.
By 'life' they must mean 'time between overhaul'
Questions 1661 1670

1661.A discharged chemical generator is indicated by
a broken tell-tale wire
a change in colour
a protruding pin
1662.A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of
at least
5 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
1663.The oxygen line service valve must be
wire locked open
only be wire locked with telltale wire
wire locked closed
1664.Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable
of flying above
4,000 ft
8,000ft
10,000ft
1665.The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is
approximately
4,000 ft
38,000 ft
25,000 ft
1666.If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight

conditions, the cabin altitude must be
at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
below 10,000 ft.
at or below 8,000 ft.
1667.Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes
below 40,000 ft.
above 30,000 ft.
above 40,000 ft.
1668.In a diluter demand oxygen system
each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
each member of the crew has a regulator
1669.In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied
only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
when the mask is plugged into the socket
on passenger inhaling into the mask
1670.In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of
emergency on this regulator will result in
100% oxygen at positive pressure
100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
100% oxygen supply as the user inhales

1)
a change in colour
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 3.6.4 & CAIPs
AL/3-25
2)
15 minutes
Comment/Reference: A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
14-8 & CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 is not in the SEP07 version
CS 25.1439 (b)(5)
3)
wire locked open

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 h) & CAIPs
AL/3-25
4)
10,000ft
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.2 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 3.1
5)
25,000 ft
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 pg 2 table 1 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 Table 1
6)
at or below 8,000 ft.

AL/3-23
7)
above 40,000 ft.

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 pg 2 table 1 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 table 1
8)
each member of the crew has a regulator

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.5 & fig 3 &
CAIPs AL/3-25 fig 3
9)
when the mask is plugged into the socket

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.4 & AC65-15A
pg 587
10)
100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.7(c)
Questions 1670 1680

1671.The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of
alloy steel
aluminium
stainless steel
1672.Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to
2,000 p.s.i.
1,800 p.s.i.
1,200 p.s.i.
1673.Rate of flow of oxygen is given in
litres/minute
pounds/minute
litres/pounds
1674.Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested
every 3 years
every 6 years
every 4 years
1675.Oxygen bottle capacity varies between
100 - 3200 litres
80 - 2250 litres
200 - 2250 litres
1676.Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found

stamped on a metal label
stamped on the neck ring
stencilled on the bottle
1677.After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is
left in the 'on' position
left in the 'off' position until required
wire locked in the 'on'
1678.Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders
is relieved by under pressurising the bottle
is relieved by a thermostat
is relieved by a bursting disc
1679.To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder
cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
1680.What determines the material used for oxygen pipe
lines?
The whims of the aircraft designer
The length of the pipe runs
The pressure used in the system

1)
alloy steel
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 is obsolete AC65-15A
pg 587 & CAIPs AL/3-25 3.6
2)
1,800 p.s.i.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.7.1 & AC65-15A
pg 587-588 & CAIPs AL/3-25 3.6
3)
litres/minute
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 3.7.2 & AC65-15A
pg 588
4)
every 4 years
AL/3-25 5.8
5)
80 - 2250 litres
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.1 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 4.2
6)
stamped on the neck ring

AL/3-25 4.2.2
7)
wire locked in the 'on'

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2(h) & AC6515A pg 589
8)
is relieved by a bursting disc

AL/3-25 4.13
9)

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 b) & CAIPs
AL/3-25 5.5.1 ii)
10) The pressure used in the system

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.3 & CAIPs AL/3-25
4.3
Questions 1681 1690

1681.The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is
indicated
by colour coding
by an arrow
by visual inspection
1682.Oxygen filters are made of
sintered bronze
carbon fibres
steel wool
1683.Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is
indicated by
lack of Anoxia
flow indicators
pressure indicators
1684.If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen
system
no lubricant may be used whatsoever
Teflon tape may be used
distilled water may be used sparingly
1685.The international marking for a breathing oxygen
pipeline is a series of
diamonds
rectangles
dots
1686.Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are

painted
black with a white collar
white with a black collar
black
1687.A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen
systems is
grease free medical soap
soapy water
leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B
1688.When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen,
the oxygen is
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the
temperature down
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect
temperature
passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at
1689.In areas closely associated with oxygen systems,
particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
acrylic based plastic materials
traces of oils or greases
magnesium particles
1690.When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system
no electrical power must be used
oil must not come into contact with the system

the area must be well ventilated

1)
by an arrow
AL/3-25 Page 8
2)
sintered bronze
AL/3-25 Page 8
3)
flow indicators
4)
Teflon tape may be used

AL/3-25, 5.6
5)
rectangles
Comment/Reference:
6)
black with a white collar

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 4.2.3 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 4.2.2
7)
leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.8.2 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 5.7.1, AL/3-21 3.
8)
passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 f) &
AC65-15A pg 598 & CAIPs AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi)
9)
traces of oils or greases

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.5.1 f)
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd
para. & AC65-15A pg 598 rh side.
10)
oil must not come into contact with the system

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 para 5.5.1 f)
Questions 1691 1700

1691.A chemical oxygen generator operates at
45C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45F at 10 psi for 15 minutes
45K at 10 psi for 15 minutes
1692.When charging an oxygen bottle in situ
charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph
slacken off the retaining straps first
charge slowly through a water trap
1693.The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates
temperature
purity
pressure
1694.The application of thread lubrication tape in an
oxygen system should be
applied
than
applied
wrap
applied
than
to all except the first two threads and not more

one complete wrap of tape
to all the threads and not more than one complete
of tape
to all except the first two threads and not more
3 complete wraps of tape.
1695.High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of

titanium
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
1696.Lubricate oxygen connector threads using

WD40
Teflon tape
Hellerene
1697.How is an expended chemical oxygen generator
indicated?
A pressure seal would be broken
The indicator pin would be protruding
By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint
1698.Oxygen purging is a process of
measuring the flow rate from the regulator
pressure testing the system
removing moisture from the system
1699.To check an oxygen system for moisture
a sniff test is used
a hygrometer is used
pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass
1700.When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic
system, it dumps
just the moisture trap
the system between compressor and regulator valve
the whole system

1)
45C at 10 psi for 15 minutes

2)
charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3f) & CAIPs
AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi) (a)
3)
pressure
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 5-9 all through it. &
CAIPs AL/3-25 4.2
4)
applied to all except the first two threads and not more
than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 Para 5.7 & CAIPs
AL/3-25 para 5.6
5)
stainless steel
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.3.1
6)
Teflon tape
Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.7 & CAIPs AL
3-25 para 5.6
7)
By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint

8)
removing moisture from the system

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3 g)
9)
a hygrometer is used
10) just the moisture trap

Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
8-54. CAIPs AL/3-22
Questions 1701 1710

1701.The pneumatic system pump is a
piston type
rotor vane type
centrifugal type
1702.In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be
fitted in supply lines to
essential equipment
all equipment
non-essential equipment
1703.High pressure pneumatic source is a
butterfly pump
centrifugal Compressor
reciprocating pump
1704.High pressure pneumatic pump is a
butterfly pump
spur gear
reciprocating pump
1705.If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a
long time it will drain
just the moisture trap
all the system
between the compressor and the PRV
1706.On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug

for oil and water is left open for long periods of time, the
system would
lose all pressure
lose pressure from the compressor side only
lose pneumatic pressure partially
1707.Two compressors driven by separate engines use
PRVs
NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
Interconnected to share loads
1708.What is important about the air entering a dry air
pump?
It must be filtered
It must be temperature controlled
It must be pressure controlled
1709.What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?
Positive displacement type
Spur gear type
Rotary vane type
1710.Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
water cooling
thermal protection
cooling fan on timer switch

1)
piston type
Airframe Textbook Page 8-56, Although smaller systems may
have a vane type.
2)
non-essential equipment
Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-22. Maintainer valves work in
same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the
reference). Although they protect the flow to the essential
systems, they do so by being situated in the non-essential
lines, and closing off if the pressure drops.
3)
reciprocating pump
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 331 & CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1
4)
reciprocating pump
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 331 & CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1
5)
between the compressor and the PRV

Comment/Reference: CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1
6)
lose pressure from the compressor side only

Comment/Reference: AL/3-22 figure 1
7)
NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other

Comment/Reference:
8)
It must be filtered
Comment/Reference:
9)
Positive displacement type

Comment/Reference:
10)
thermal protection
Comment/Reference: AWN 57 (deleted 2003)
Questions 1711 1720

1711.What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric
toilet motor?
Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become
unserviceable
Prevent toilet freezing
Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
1712.Waste water drain masts
are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground
only
are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground
are not heated
1713.Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by
wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons
installation of neoprene foam insulation
placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping
1714.Toilets are the subject of
AWN 79
AWN 80
AWN 83
1715.Toilet waste valves are
spring loaded closed
not spring loaded
spring loaded open
1716.The heater used on a drain mast would be a

ribbon heater
hot air blower
induction heater
1717.A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.
It can be overcome by thermal compensating device
You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet
Close toilet until landing
1718.The real time on a CMC is when
existing faults page is selected on the CDU
ground test page is selected on the CDU
fault history page is selected on the CDU
1719.One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The
data will be stored in
erased only after end of sector
volatile memory
non-volatile memory
1720.In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
only Primary Faults are recorded

1)
Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard

Comment/Reference: AWN 57 Para.2.3 (deleted 2003)
2)
are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground

only
Comment/Reference: 737-3/4/500 AMM 30-71-00 para 1.B. pg 1,
28VAC on ground and 115VAC in air. &
AC65-15A pg 303
3)
wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons

4)
AWN 83
Comment/Reference: All the AWNs listed have now been
removed. Toilets are now covered by CAP 747 GR No. 20
5)
spring loaded closed

Comment/Reference:
6)
ribbon heater
Comment/Reference:
7)
Close toilet until

Comment/Reference:
associate lavatory
closed and placard
recirc fan is part
8)
existing faults page is selected on the CDU

Eismin Page 271
9)
non-volatile memory
landing
IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2, the
system may be inop. with lav door secured
'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT ENTER'. Toilet
of the lav system.
Comment/Reference:
Aircraft Electricity and Avionics 5th ed Eismin Page 273
10) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Avionics 5th ed Eismin
Page 271
Questions 1721 1730

1721.In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time'
fault?
In Fault History
In Fault
In Test
1722.A modern aircraft CMC uses
a CRT screen
an LED display
a magnetic fault indicator
1723.A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
the helicopter's engines are started
the helicopter takes off
when power is applied to the helicopter
1724.In a CMC, warning signals are generated by
Warning computer
FMC
CMC
1725.An aircraft condition monitoring system
sends information to the central maintenance cell
detects the source of a fault
stores information for long term error analysis
1726.With a ACMS quick access recorder

the tape must not have been used before
the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk
erased
you must use digital tape
1727.When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?
When windscreen is wet
When windscreen is dry
When windscreen is either wet or dry
1728.Component P affects
coefficient C
coefficient A
coefficient B
1729.The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop
precipitation static
lightning strike
moisture ingress and corrosion
1730.On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference
is most prominent
across the whole frequency spectrum
during transmissions only
at specific frequencies

1)
In Fault
Eismin, page 270-273. 'Real time' means reporting of a fault
as it occurs, not in Fault History or Test.
2)
a CRT screen
Comment/Reference:
3)
the helicopter's engines are started

Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section 1 part 5 para 62 (3) JAR
Ops-3
4)
Warning computer
Comment/Reference:
Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-5
5)
stores information for long term error analysis

Comment/Reference:
6)
the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk

erased
Comment/Reference:
7)
When windscreen is wet

Comment/Reference: If applied when windscreen is dry, it
smears, dries, and causes optical illusions.
www.b737.org.uk/iceandrain.htm
8)
coefficient B
Comment/Reference: Read about Components P, Q and R, then
read about Coefficients A, B and C.
9)
moisture ingress and corrosion

Comment/Reference:
10) at specific frequencies

Comment/Reference: Whilst HIRF affects the aircraft across the
whole frequency spectrum, individual systems are susceptible to
certain frequencies only
Questions 1731 1740

1731.What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?
Red
Green
White
1732.Two fundamental properties of a gyro are
wander and rigidity
precession and wander
rigidity and precession
1733.Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad
battery with 15 cells
18 V
30 V
15 V
1734.What are passenger windows normally made from?
Acrylic
Acrylic/glass laminate
Glass
1735.What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure
into linear motion?
A hydraulic pump
An actuating cylinder
An accumulator
1736.A plain flap

when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the
trailing edge of the wing down
when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing
when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap
1737.What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure
into rotary motion?
A hydraulic motor
A hydraulic pump
1738.An IRS cannot calculate
local longitude
local latitude or longitude
local latitude
1739.Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one
direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
Metering piston
Shutoff valve
Check valve
1740.How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?
It is green
It is white with green wording
It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black)

1)
White
Comment/Reference: says STROBE light. RTFQ
2)
rigidity and precession

Comment/Reference:
3)
18 V
Comment/Reference: 15 x 1.2V = 18V
4)
Acrylic
Comment/Reference:
5)
Comment/Reference:
6)
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the

trailing edge of the wing down
7)
A hydraulic motor
Comment/Reference:
8)
local longitude
Comment/Reference:
9)
Check valve
10)
It is green
Questions 1741 1750

1741.The fuel surge tank
acts as a separate fuel supply tank
acts as a vent in the main tank
reduces wing bending moment
1742.The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to
absorb
braking and take-off acceleration loads
cross-wind loads on landing
turning loads while taxiing
1743.After passing the Zone of Confusion of a VOR
the phase difference is 90 degrees out
the phase difference reverses
the phase difference stays the same
1744.A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will
give a heading
decrease on all headings
increase on East/West headings
increase on all headings
1745.A fire detection system should be
designed to detect fires only
positioned in a location determined by the manufacture
during the design
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained

during normal operation
1746.Fuel surge is prevented by

having separate compartments within the tank
having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside
to resist fuel surge
incorporation of an additional surge tank
1747.Slats are used to
ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the wing
surface too soon
change the wing camber
decrease the stalling angle
1748.A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square
feet. Its mean chord would be
7.5 feet
4 feet
10 feet
1749.What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?
Two colour-coded pedals
A brake on one wheel only
A single pedal bar
1750.Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as
true altitude?
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92
At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)
Never

1)
acts as a vent in the main tank

Comment/Reference:
2)
braking and take-off acceleration loads

Comment/Reference:
3)
the phase difference reverses

Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control 4th ed Pallett
pg 188 fig 6.9
4)
increase on all headings

Comment/Reference: CAP 562 leaflet 8-2 & CAIPs AL/10-5 9.2.7
5)
positioned in a location determined by the manufacture

during the design
Comment/Reference:
6)
having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside

to resist fuel surge
Comment/Reference:
7)
change the wing camber

Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 49 half way down left column.
8)
4 feet
Comment/Reference:
9)
Two colour-coded pedals

Comment/Reference:
10)
At sea level in standard conditions (ISA)

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1751 1760

1751.How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?
Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system
Remote container
Self pressurised container
1752.A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would
just change the one with the blown plug
change the damaged one and the adjacent one
change all tyres on that truck
1753.Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is
the likely cause?
Faulty wheel speed transducer
Anti-skid system is unserviceable
There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed
1754.When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode
will not be available?
Heading Hold
ALT Hold
VOR
1755.What could cause fluctuations in instruments?
Pitot blocked
Static blocked
Water in static line
1756.Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning

system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
TCAS, GPWS, windshear
GPWS, windshear, TCAS
TCAS, windshear, GPWS
1757.If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the
replacement stitches placed?
Diagonally
Alongside the original
Over the originals
1758.Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid
should be avoided because
it makes the titanium brittle
it makes the titanium soft
there is no effect
1759.The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting
aircraft is
between 60F and 77F with less than 75% relative humidity
between 65C and 75C with more than 75% relative humidity
1760.TCAS antenna is a
directional antenna
omnidirectional blade type L-band
phased-array L-band

1)
Self pressurised container

2)
change the damaged one and the adjacent one

Comment/Reference:
3)
There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed

Comment/Reference:
4)
ALT Hold
Comment/Reference:
5)
Water in static line

Comment/Reference:
6)
TCAS, GPWS, windshear

Comment/Reference: See Aural Warning Priority Logic table @
www.b737.org.uk/warningsystems.htm#Aural_Warnings_
7)
Over the originals

Comment/Reference:
8)
it makes the titanium brittle

Comment/Reference:
9)
Comment/Reference: CAIPs BL/6-20 para 5
Leaflet 2-7 para 5
10)
directional antenna
Comment/Reference: B737 AMM 34-45-00 pg 1 para 1 b) &
Avionics Training, Systems Installation and Troubleshooting
pg 151
737 AMM 34-45-00 pg 7
Questions 1761 1770

1761.MLS frequency is
6000-6100 MHz
5000-6000 MHz
5050-6050 MHz
1762.Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations
are actuated with two speeds of operation. Operation at high
speed is used during
mach trim
flaps down
aircraft at altitude and straight and level
1763.The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper
switch is activated by the change of the
point of lowest pressure
stagnation point
centre of pressure
1764.What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger
flaps?
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats
do not
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps
do not
1765.On a swept back wing, in which of the following
locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?

The trailing edge
Outboard leading edge
Inboard leading edge
1766.An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal

flight at the same angle of attack at two different
altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant,
assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
the TAS at both altitudes is the same
1767.Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle
of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will yaw
the aircraft will climb
the aircraft will sink suddenly
1768.What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler
flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high mounted (Ttail) tailplane?
An aircraft nose up pitching moment
An aircraft nose down pitching moment
The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose
down pitching moment
1769.An increase in aspect ratio will
cause VMD to be increased
cause induced drag to increase
cause VMD to be reduced
1770.Geometric washout means that
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root
there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean

1)
5000-6000 MHz
Comment/Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microwave_Landing_System#Range_
guidance
2)
flaps down
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 219
3)
stagnation point
Comment/Reference:
4)
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not

Comment/Reference:
5)
Inboard leading edge

Comment/Reference:
6)
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher

Comment/Reference:
7)
the aircraft will climb

Comment/Reference:
8)
An aircraft nose down pitching moment

Comment/Reference: the downwash off the flaps does not
effect the tail. And the flaps act like elevators
9)
cause VMD to be reduced

Comment/Reference: Vmd = minimum drag
10)
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
Comment/Reference: www.auf.asn.au/groundschool/umodule4.html
Questions 1771 1780

1771.How do vortex generators work?
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the
boundary layer
Re-direct slantwise flow
Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
1772.Winglets
decrease the induced drag
create an elliptical lift distribution
decrease the static lateral stability
1773.A function of vortex generators in the transonic
regime is to
reduce wing root compression effects
prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls
reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form
1774.Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of
wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and
interference drag
profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag
1775.During acceleration in level flight
the transition point on the wing moves forward
the lift coefficient reduces
the wing stagnation point moves aft
1776.As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at

which an aeroplane stalls in a particular configuration will
remain equal to the calibrated airspeed
decrease as the true airspeed decreases
remain the same regardless of altitude
1777.When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is
1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift
as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would
be
59%
77%
130%
1778.To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is
increased the speed must be
increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases
reduced
increased
1779.Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level
flight will increase the
lift and the drag
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
lift coefficient and the drag
1780.In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the
angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
increases; decreases; decreases
decreases; increases; remains constant

increases; increases; decreases

1)
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the

boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
2)
decrease the induced drag

Comment/Reference:
3)
reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form

Comment/Reference:
4)
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and
interference drag
Comment/Reference:
5)
the lift coefficient reduces

Comment/Reference:
6)
remain the same regardless of altitude

Comment/Reference:
7)
59%
Comment/Reference:
8)
increased
Comment/Reference:
9)
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag

Comment/Reference:
10)
decreases; increases; remains constant

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1781 1790

1781. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed
while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level
flight?
Decrease
Remain constant
Increase
1782.If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a
45 bank turn VS will be
119 kts
100 kts
140 kts
1783.What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to
35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?
Decrease
Remain the same
Increase then remain constant
1784.If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors
should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level
flight?
0.25
4.0
0.5
1785.Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at
VS
1.05 VS
1.2 VS
1786.When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will be the

wing stalling angle be affected?
The stalling angle will increase with increasing altitude
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of
altitude
The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude
1787.The centre of pressure is in its most forward position
when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of
attack
when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle
of attack
when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle of
attack
1788.The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls
increases with an increase in gross weight
remains constant regardless of gross weight
varies with gross weight and density altitude
1789.The following factors increase stall speed:
a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward
c .g. shift
an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease
in thrust
a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap
setting
1790.Stall speed in a turn is proportional to
the square root of the load factor

weight
lift

1)
Decrease
Comment/Reference:
2)
119 kts
Comment/Reference:
3)
Decrease
Comment/Reference:
4)
0.25
Comment/Reference:
5)
1.05 VS
Comment/Reference:
6)
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of

altitude
Comment/Reference:
7)
when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of

attack
Comment/Reference:
8)
remains constant regardless of gross weight

Comment/Reference:
9)
an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease

in thrust
Comment/Reference:
10)
the square root of the load factor
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1791 1800

1791.An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a
steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level
turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
122 kt
141 kt
82 kt
1792.A wing stalling angle is
unaffected by a turn
decreased in a turn
increased in a turn
1793.What is a high speed stall?
Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a
manoeuvre
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at
high speed during a manoeuvre
1794.What effect does an increased load have on an
aircraft?
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw
The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure
1795.Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
High speed stall (shock stall)

Low speed stall
Deep stall
1796.A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant

altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can
occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Accelerated stall
Low speed stall
Shock stall
1797.On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch
up phenomenon
never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up
is caused by wingtip stall
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation
devices
1798.Which of the following statements about stall speed is
correct?
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the
stall speed
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the
stall speed
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
1799.How are the wing stalling angle and the lift
coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS is held
constant?
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain
constant
The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling
angle will reduce
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both
decrease
1800.The stall speed

increases with an increased weight
does not depend on weight
decreases with an increased weight

1)
122 kt
Comment/Reference:
2)
unaffected by a turn
Comment/Reference:
3)
Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation

Comment/Reference:
4)
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed

Comment/Reference:
5)
Deep stall
Comment/Reference:
6)
Accelerated stall
Comment/Reference: An aeroplane that stalls during a
maneuver, will stall at a higher speed than if it stalled in
level flight. This is called an accelerated stall.
An additional factor by which it stalls is vn
n=load factor
Straight and level flight n = 1,
but in a 60 turn, n = 2, and v2 = 1.41.
7)
is caused by wingtip stall

Comment/Reference:
8)
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the

stall speed
Comment/Reference:
9)
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain
constant
Comment/Reference:
10)
increases with an increased weight

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1801 1810

1801.Increase of wing loading will
increase the stall speed
decrease the minimum gliding angle
decrease take off speeds
1802.The most common stall sensing devices are normally
located
at or near the wing leading edge
on the upper surface of the wing
on the lower surface of the wing
1803.If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical
angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the stagnation
point moves...
increases; rearward
decreases; rearward
decreases; forward
1804.In a turn, the wing stalling angle
decreases
increases
remains unchanged
1805.As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the
centre of pressure will reach its most forward position on
the wing
after stall recovery

just before the wing stalls
when the aircraft is stalling
1806.Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change

in velocity close to the surface?
Turbulent boundary layer
Laminar boundary layer
No difference
1807.One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is
stalling characteristics. At the stall
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling
moment
tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down
moment
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment
1808.Which of the following aircraft designs would be most
prone to super stall?
Swept forward wing
Swept back wing
T-tail
1809.The stall speed in a 60 banked turn increases by the
following factor
1
1.41
2.00
1810.The speed range between high and low speed buffet
increases during a descent at a constant IAS
increases during climb
decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number

1)
increase the stall speed

Comment/Reference:
2)
at or near the wing leading edge

Comment/Reference:
3)
decreases; rearward
Comment/Reference:
4)
remains unchanged
Comment/Reference:
5)
just before the wing stalls

Comment/Reference:
6)
Turbulent boundary layer

Comment/Reference:
7)
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment

Comment/Reference:
8)
T-tail
Systems. Pallett pg 76
9)
1.41
Comment/Reference:
10)
increases during a descent at a constant IAS

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1811 1820

1811.The boundary layer of a wing is caused by
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower
than the free stream velocity, due to friction
suction at the upper wing side
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing
1812.The most important problem of ice accretion on an
aeroplane during flight is
increase in drag
increase in weight
reduction in CLmax
1813.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors?
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will
increase during icing conditions and will increase when
the c.g. moves forward
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and
increased bank angle in a turn
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will
increase when the c.g. moves aft.
1814.The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in
a stall is due to the
wing tip stalling first
wing root stalling first
forward movement of the centre of gravity
1815.When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level

flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal
axis is
nearly vertical
horizontal from side to side
vertical
1816.An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross

weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight
is 5.000 lbs?
91 KCAS
78 KCAS
67 KCAS
1817.What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the
stall
Separated airflow at the root
Rearward movement of the CP
Spanwise flow
1818.Load factors has the following meaning
the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft,
the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
the ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft,
the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
the ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft
the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and
inertia forces
1819.When all other factors of importance are constant, the
stall speed increases when
weight decreases
spoilers are retracted
pulling out of a dive
1820.Which of the following is the correct order of
configuration to give an increasing critical angle of
attack?
Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended
Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats extended

Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended

1)
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower

than the free stream velocity, due to friction
Comment/Reference:
2)
reduction in CLmax
Comment/Reference:
3)
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will

increase during icing conditions and will increase when the
c.g. moves forward
Comment/Reference:
4)
wing tip stalling first

Comment/Reference:
5)
nearly vertical
Comment/Reference:
6)
67 KCAS
Comment/Reference:
7)
Spanwise flow
Comment/Reference:
8)
the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft,

the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces,
inertia forces and ground reactions
Comment/Reference:
9)
pulling out of a dive

Comment/Reference:
10)
Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1821 1830

1821.What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45
bank turn
10%
19%
45%
1822.When an aircraft wing stalls
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will
move forward
a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and
the CP will move forwards
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will
move aft
1823.At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit
VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged
VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged
VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater
1824.Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when
the aircraft has no yaw damper installed
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by
normal category
the aircraft is directional unstable
1825.Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal
steady turns. Further data is:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 130 kt

B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 200 kt
Which of the following statements is correct?
The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
The load factor A is larger than the load factor B
1826.Which of the following situations leads to a

decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Increasing load factor
Increasing air density
Decreasing weight
1827.The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of
a wing at the root is to
prevent the wing from stalling at the root
reduce the landing distance required
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
1828.In a level turn with 60 lateral bank, the load factor
is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by
10 %
40 %
50 %
1829.The critical angle of attack
changes with an increase in gross weight
increases if the CG is moved forward
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
1830.An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the
centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre of
gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot
might experience with this aeroplane would be
a longer takeoff run
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed

1)
19%
Comment/Reference:
2)
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will
move forward
Comment/Reference:
3)
VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged

Comment/Reference:
4)
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by

normal category
Comment/Reference:
5)
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B

Comment/Reference:
6)
Decreasing weight
Comment/Reference:
7)
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
Comment/Reference:
8)
40%
Comment/Reference:
9)
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight

Comment/Reference:
10)
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1831 1840

1831.Vso is defined as the
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified
configuration
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing
configuration
1832.The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors
decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due
to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located
forward of the wing
increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g.
location
increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an
aft c.g. location
1833.With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the
stalling speed would be
lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
1834.The following take place at the transition point on a
wing
the airflow separates completely from the wing surface
the total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill
the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to
the turbulent boundary layer
1835.A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)
increases stalling speed
decreases stalling speed and landing speed
increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed
1836.Stalling speed in a 15 bank level turn is 60kt. The

stalling speed in a 45 bank level turn will be
50 kts
70 kts
60 kts
1837.Which of the following is the speed in level flight
that would activate the stall warning?
1.2VS1G
1.05VS1G
VS1G + 15kts
1838.How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
It remains constant
It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at
higher altitudes due to compressibility effects
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density
decreases
1839.As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a
stall becomes progressively
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of
gravity moves aft.
gravity moves forward
is unaffected by centre of gravity position
1840.Which of the following statements about boundary
layers is correct?
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar

boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than
the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the
laminar boundary layer

1)
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing

configuration
Comment/Reference: V speeds at Wikipedia.
2)
increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g.

location
Comment/Reference:
3)
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit

Comment/Reference:
4)
the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to

the turbulent boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
5)
decreases stalling speed and landing speed

Comment/Reference:
6)
70 kts
Comment/Reference:
7)
1.05VS1G
Comment/Reference: Vs1g = one g stall.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/V_speeds
8)
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density

decreases
Comment/Reference:
9)

gravity moves aft.
Comment/Reference:
10)
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than

the laminar boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1841 1850

1841.The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position
1842.Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a
straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will
not move (2) move forward
move aft, (2) move forward
move aft, (2) not move
1843.Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be
triggered is
greater than VS
VS
less than VS
1844.A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will
improve the low speed characteristics
increase the critical Mach Number
improve the high speed characteristics
1845.If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what
will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
81 kts
122 kts
150 kts
1846.The function of the stick pusher is

to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker
to vibrate the controls
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a
certain value of angle of attack
1847.How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
It decreases inversely with the square root of the load
factor
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load
factor
It decreases inversely with the load factor
1848.When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will
(i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft
(i) not move, (ii) not move
(i) move aft, (ii) not move
1849.After the transition point between the laminar and
turbulent boundary layer
the mean speed and friction drag increases
the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
1850.The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low
subsonic speeds as long as
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the
stall occurs
the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed

there is a nose-down attitude

1)
remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position

Comment/Reference:
2)
(1) move aft, (2) move forward

Comment/Reference:)
3)
greater than VS
Comment/Reference:
4)
improve the low speed characteristics

Comment/Reference:
5)
122 kts
Comment/Reference:
6)
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a

certain value of angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
7)
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load

factor
Comment/Reference:)
8)
(i) not move, (ii) not move

Comment/Reference:
9)
the mean speed and friction drag increases

Comment/Reference:
10)
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the

stall occurs
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1851 1860

1851.The load factor is
the ratio of thrust to weight
the ratio of lift to drag
the ratio of lift to weight
1852.The input to a stick shaker comes from
the angle of attack only
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle
of attack
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed
1853.Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with
dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall
characteristics include:
pitch down and increase in speed
pitch down and minor wing drop
excessive wing drop and deep stall
1854.The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated
change in the location of the
by a
transition region
stagnation point
centre of lift
1855.Which type of stall has the largest associated angle

attack?
of
Deep stall
Shock stall
Low speed stall
1856.Which statement is correct about the laminar and

boundary layer?
turbulent
Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer

Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
1857.A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by
increasing
boundary
increasing
increasing
the camber of the aerofoil and improving the

layer
only the camber of the aerofoil
the critical angle of attack
1858.When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully

the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is
increased
unaffected
decreased
1859.Which statement is correct?
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the
minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum
descent angle
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall
speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing
the
minimum rate of descent to decrease
1860.When the angle of attack of an aircraft is
progressively
increased, the wing centre of pressure

forward position
will reach its most
when the aircraft has stalled

at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)
at the optimum angle of attack of the wing

1)
the ratio of lift to weight

Comment/Reference:
2)
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in
of attack
Comment/Reference:
3)
excessive wing drop and deep stall

Comment/Reference:
4)
stagnation point
Comment/Reference:
5)
Deep stall
Comment/Reference:
6)
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer

Comment/Reference:
7)
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving
boundary layer
Comment/Reference:
8)

decreased
Comment/Reference:
9)
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall

speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Comment/Reference:
10)
at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)

Comment/Reference:
angle
the
Questions 1861 1870

1861.What is the most effective flap system?
Fowler flap
Single slotted flap
Split flap
1862.An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with
slats
and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
efficient way
to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices
Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps
1863.Which of the following statements about the difference
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack,
deploying a Krueger flap does not
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap
does not
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of
attack, deploying a slat does not
1864.Vortex generators
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary
layer
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary
layer
reduce the span wise flow on swept wing
1865.When vortex generators are fitted they will normally
be found
towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer
towards the wing trailing edge
near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces
1866.During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle
of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors of
importance being constant)
sink suddenly.
bank
climb
1867.Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will
just move aft
move aft, then turn down
turn down, then move aft
1868.An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0, 15,
30 and 45. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above
selections will produce the greatest negative influence on
the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 15 to 30
Flaps from 0 to 15
Flaps from 30 to 45
1869.The effect of Winglets is
elliptical pressure distribution increases
decrease in stall speed
reduction in induced drag
1870.When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight

at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually
remain the same
decrease
increase

1)
Fowler flap
Comment/Reference:
2)
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats

Comment/Reference:
3)
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger
does not
Comment/Reference:
flap
4)
transfer energy from the free airflow into the
layer
Comment/Reference: Stall (flight) at wikipedia
boundary
5)
surfaces
bottom of
near the wing leading edge in front of control

Comment/Reference: Stall (flight)at wikipedia at
page
6)
climb
Comment/Reference:
7)
move aft, then turn down

Comment/Reference:
8)
Flaps from 30 to 45
Comment/Reference:
9)
reduction in induced drag

Comment/Reference:
10)
remain the same

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1871 1880

1871.When spoilers are used as speed brakes
they do not affect wheel braking action during landing
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is
decreased
at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
1872.When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight
from
take-off position to fully down position, one
will experience
a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag
a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag
a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag
1873.What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off
Ensures that the slats are always extended when the
ground/flight system is in the ground position
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack
is exceeded
1874.Which of the following series of configurations has an
increasing critical angle of attack?
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended
slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing
1875.Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow
separation normally start at high angles of attack?
upper side trailing edge
upper side leading edge
lower side leading edge
1876.If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept

constant, to maintain level flight
the nose must be pitched down
the altitude must be held constant
the nose must be pitched up
1877.The effects of leading edge slats
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat
and increase CLmax angle of attack
increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing,
increase effective angle of attack and move CLmax to
higher angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on
main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of attack
1878.Flaps are used in order to
increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of
attack
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack
thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at
stalling speed
increase max L/D
1879.Deflection of leading edge flaps will
decrease CLmax
increase critical angle of attack
decrease drag
1880.During flap down selection in a continuous straight
level flight at constant IAS and weight
and
the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase

the stall speed increases
the centre of pressure moves aft

1)
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is

decreased
Comment/Reference:
2)
a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag

Comment/Reference:
3)
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of

attack is exceeded
Comment/Reference:
4)
flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended

Comment/Reference:
5)
upper side trailing edge

Comment/Reference:
6)
the nose must be pitched down

Comment/Reference:
7)
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on
main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of
attack
Comment/Reference:
8)
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack

thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and
at
stalling speed
Comment/Reference:
9)
increase critical angle of attack

Comment/Reference:
10)
the centre of pressure moves aft

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1881 1890

1881.CLmax may be increased by the used of
flaps
slats
both flaps and slats
1882.Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum
of attack for the flaps down configuration is
angle
smaller
larger
unchanged
1883.Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum
of attack for the flaps up configuration is
angle
larger
smaller
unchanged
1884.How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are
in straight and level flight?
deployed
Depends on wing position

Pitch up
Pitch down
1885.What is the effect of lowering leading edge and
edge flaps in flight?
trailing
Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling angle of
attack increases.
Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack
increases
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack
reduces
1886.Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of

Pressure
to move forward
to move inboard towards the wing root
to move outboard towards the wing tips
1887.Slats
re-energise
stalling
re-energise
stalling
de-energise
stalling
the boundary layer thereby decreasing the

angle of attack
the boundary layer thereby increasing the
angle of attack
the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the
angle of attack
1888.When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack

decreases
remains the same
increases
1889.Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface
will
increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps

decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential
velocity of the swept wing
decrease the shock wave induced separation
1890.Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface
will
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential

velocity of the swept wing
increase the shock wave induced separation
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps

1)
both flaps and slats

Comment/Reference:
2)
smaller
Comment/Reference:
3)
larger
Comment/Reference:
4)
Depends on wing position

Comment/Reference:
5)
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of

attack reduces
Comment/Reference:
6)
to move inboard towards the wing root

Comment/Reference:
7)
re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the

stalling angle of attack
Comment/Reference:
8)
increases
Comment/Reference:
9)
decrease the shock wave induced separation

Comment/Reference:
10)
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge

Comment/Reference:
flaps
Questions 1891 1900

1891.It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over
wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by
swept
wing fences
trailing edge vortex generators
increased anhedral
1892.After take-off the slats (when installed) are always
retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the
cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed
with relatively less drag
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed
with relatively less drag
1893.In order to maintain straight and level flight at a
constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being
retracted,
the angle of attack will
remain constant
increase
decrease
1894.If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level
flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will
eventually: (flap
span less than wing span)
decrease
remain the same
increase
1895.The trailing edge flaps, when extended

worsen the best angle of glide
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
improve the best angle of glide
1896.One of the main purposes of using flaps during

approach and landing is to
decrease the angle of descent without increasing the
airspeed
increase the angle of descent without increasing the
airspeed
shift the centre of gravity aft
1897.The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing
enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because
it changes the camber of the wing
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
1898.What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?
Not affect the critical angle of attack
Increase the critical angle of attack
Decrease the critical angle of attack
1899.The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of
attack
is constant and not affected by high lift devices
is increased by the use of high lift devices
is dependent on the surface area of the wing
1900.The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is
about..., and the actual angle of attack will be close to
this optimum angle during...
16, a stall
4, cruise
4, a stall

1)
wing fences
Comment/Reference:
2)
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall

speed with relatively less drag
Comment/Reference:
3)
increase
Comment/Reference:
4)
decrease
Comment/Reference:
5)
worsen the best angle of glide

Comment/Reference:
6)
increase the angle of descent without increasing the

airspeed
Comment/Reference:
7)
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

Comment/Reference:
8)
Increase the critical angle of attack

Comment/Reference:
9)
is increased by the use of high lift devices

Comment/Reference:
10)
4, cruise
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1901 1910

1901.Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing
only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
CD is increased and CL is decreased
CL is increased, while CD remains unaffected
1902.If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum

lift-to-drag ratio will
not be affected
increase
decrease
1903.Speed brakes are a device used on large transport
category aircraft
to prevent aquaplaning
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of
descent
for speed reduction after landing
1904.Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft
straight wings?
To delay boundary layer separation
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on
extrados
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on
intrados
1905.The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is
with
the
the
a layer of
changing
a layer of
a thin layer of
air over the surface where the airspeed is

from free stream velocity to zero velocity
air which is moving at free stream speed
air over the surface where the air is stationary
1906.The transition point located on the wing is the point
where
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to

turbulent
flow
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
airflow starts separating from the wing
1907.The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent
between the transition and separation points
just in front of the transition point
just aft of the separation point
1908.The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a
laminar boundary layer is
decreases energy
less tendency to separate
thinner
1909.A laminar boundary layer is... and has... drag than a
turbulent layer.
thicker; more
thinner; less
thicker; less
1910.When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of
attack
decreases
remains the same
increases

1)
CD is increased and CL is decreased

Comment/Reference:
2)
not be affected
Comment/Reference:
3)
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper
gradient
of descent
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A pg 40 bottom rh para.
4)
To delay boundary layer separation

Comment/Reference:
5)
a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is

changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity
Comment/Reference:
6)
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to
flow
Comment/Reference:
7)
between the transition and separation points

Comment/Reference:
8)
less tendency to separate

Comment/Reference:
9)
thinner; less
Comment/Reference:
10)
increases
Comment/Reference:
turbulent
Questions 1911 1920

1911.In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic
effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most
critical?
During climb with all engines operating
All phases of the take-off are equally critical
The last part of the rotation
1912.Which tabs movement is directly from the control
column?
Anti-Balance tab
Balance tab
Servo tab
1913.A pilot's safety harness buckle and adjustment strap
Is
not allowed to slip under any forces
allowed to slip if side loads exceed 2.5 G
allowed to slip if vertical acceleration exceeds 5G
1914.A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. is this pressure
above ambient pressure
above zero pressure
1915.Wing skin on a large transport aircraft is made from
7118
7075
2024
1916.Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by

cools the material on fire below ignition point
releases oxygen to extinguish the fire
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering
it inert
1917.Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500
psi pressure because
it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require
maintenance
the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia
it can cause corrosion within the bottle
1918.A fire test is carried out and the test button is
released, but the light remains on. This is because
there is a fire
of a high resistance fire wire
of a broken fire wire
1919.Mach trim operation is enabled by
an electric Motor
a mach trim actuator
an autopilot trim motor
1920.The CO2 in a life raft is released
Electrically
on contact with water
manually
Answers for 1911 1920

1)
The last part of the rotation

Comment/Reference:
2)
Servo Tab
Comment/Reference: AC65-15A Chap 2 pg 46
3)
not allowed to slip under any forces
4)

Comment/Reference:
5)
7075
Comment/Reference:
6)
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering

it inert
Comment/Reference:
7)
it can cause corrosion within the bottle

Comment/Reference:
8)
of a broken fire wire

Comment/Reference: B737-3/4/500 AMM 26-11-00 pg 6 para 5.b.
9)
an autopilot trim motor

Comment/Reference:
10)
electrically
Comment/Reference:
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1921 1930

1921.A fire detection system can pass through one zone to
another providing
the system is duplicated
it is separated by steel
the system is protected
1922.Deploying a secondary flight control surface will
not affect the angle of attack
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil
1923.To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing
The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge
to give an exact leg extension
The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg
pressure and extension should be checked against a chart
in the AMM
The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension
regardless of aircraft load
1924.The 'fasten seatbelt' light switch should be in reach
of the
captain
first officer
both the captain and the first officer
1925.A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a
sudden decrease of
temperature
velocity
pressure
1926.For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical

mach number will be
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio
1927.Sweepback on the wing will
reduce tendency to tip stall
increase tendency to tip stall
cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack
1928.High speed buffet is caused by
airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the
tail
high speed airflow striking the leading edge
the shock wave striking the tail
1929.A structure which if it failed would cause aircraft to
crash is
essential
integral
primary
1930.The method used on a work card to indicate the
approximate location of a component is
datum
stations
zones
Answers for questions 1921 1930

1)
the system is protected

Comment/Reference:
2)
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil

Comment/Reference:
3)
The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg
pressure and extension should be checked against a chart in
the AMM
Comment/Reference:
4)
both the captain and the first officer

Comment/Reference:
5)
velocity
Comment/Reference:
6)
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio

Comment/Reference:
7)
increase tendency to tip stall

Comment/Reference:
8)
airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the

tail
Comment/Reference:
9)
primary
Comment/Reference:
10)
zones
Comment/Reference:
Questions 1931 1940

1931.A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is
known as
metal fatigue
age hardening
fail safe
1932.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components
with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used
pressure regulating valve is used
pressure relief valve is used
1933.Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to
restrict the rate of pressure build-up
limit the maximum pressure
control rate of system operation
1934.Fly by wire systems rely on inputs from
the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals
electrical signals
air-data and 'Q' feel
1935.What placard must be visible above a waste paper bin
in a toilet?
No Cigarettes
No Naked Flame
No Smoking
1936.ATA zone 500 is the

Right wing
Left wing
Engine
1937.ATA zone 330 is the
Right horizontal stabilizer
Vertical stabilizer
Left horizontal stabilizer
1938.When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use
for extra strength?
Thicker material
A tripler plate
A waffle plate
1939.Stringers
run the full length on all aircraft
are attached to the frame
do not pass through bulkheads
1940.Kevlar should be stored
vertically
in moisture proof bags
horizontally

1)
metal fatigue
Comment/Reference:
2)
pressure reducing valve is used

Comment/Reference:
3)
control rate of system operation

Comment/Reference:
4)
the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals

Comment/Reference:
5)
No Smoking
Comment/Reference: CAP 747 GR.20 4.2.3
6)
Left wing
Comment/Reference: ATA Chapter 06
7)
left horizontal stabiliser

Comment/Reference: ATA chapter 06-20 (A319)
8)
A waffle plate
Comment/Reference:
9)
do not pass through bulkheads

Comment/Reference:
10)
in moisture proof bags

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1941 1950

1941.A firewall bulkhead is usually made from
steel
tungsten
titanium
1942.Aileron reversal is caused by a structure that has a
low stiffness in
shear
torsion
bending
1943.The first component that the charged air enters from
the IP compressor is
the check valve
the bleed valve
the pre-cooler
1944.On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action
by
ram air
gas expansion
fan inducement
1945.The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from
the venturi metering duct
the pressure controller
the latching solenoid
1946.A standby ADI uses

a vertical gyro
a space gyro
an earth gyro
1947.An artificial horizon uses
a directional gyro
a rate gyro
a vertical gyro
1948.Following replacement of a separately mounted compass
corrector box, a compass calibration swing will be required
only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees
only if the correctors are not matched to the ones being
removed
without exception
1949.During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be
equal to the pressure in the case
greater than the pressure in the case
lower than the pressure in the case
1950.Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for
square law
square law error and temperature
square law and temperature
Answers for 1941 1950

1)
I did not get the answer or the ref
2)
torsion
Comment/Reference:
3)
I did not get the answer or the ref
4)
fan inducement
Comment/Reference:
5)
the venturi metering duct

Comment/Reference:
6)
vertical gyro
7)
a vertical gyro
Comment/Reference:
8)
without exception
Comment/Reference:
9)
lower than the pressure in the case

Comment/Reference:
10)
square law error and temperature

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1951 1960

1951.Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in
pitch to prevent
gimbal lock
pitch overshoot
gyro topple
1952.The magnets in a compass corrector micro-adjuster are
adjusted for coefficient A
adjusted to obtain the neutral position
always set to the neutral position
1953.The term HIRF means
High Intensity Radiated Fields
High Interference Radiated Fields
High Intensity Radio Fields
1954.The power supply for aircraft is
28VDC, 220VAC, 400Hz
1955.Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by
adjustment of the regulator output
varying the frequency circuit
adjustment of generator speed
1956.Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out

To
0.5g
4.5g
9g
1957.Fuel tanks are numbered
right to left
fwd to aft
aft to fwd
1958.The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined
by speed of pump
by flow control valve
by flow control tubes
1959.The ice protection system that is manufactured on the
aircraft skin is
heater mat
overshoe
spraymat
1960.A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced
when half pink and half blue
when all pink
when all blue

1)
gimbal lock
Systems. EHJ Pallett Page
2)
adjusted to obtain the neutral position

Comment/Reference:
3)
High Intensity Radiated Fields

Comment/Reference: CAP 756 appx 2 abbreviations
4)

Comment/Reference:
5)
adjustment of the regulator output

Pallett Page 50/51
6)
9g
7)
fwd to aft
Comment/Reference:
8)
by flow control tubes

Comment/Reference:
9)
spraymat
Comment/Reference:
10)
when all pink

Comment/Reference:
Questions 1961 1970

1961.A MCDU is
to store fault data
to transmit data to ground
to dialog with the central maintenance computer
1)
to dialog with the central maintenance computer

Comment/Reference:

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As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure

Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you

If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would

When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot

To increase the lift

With respect to differential aileron control, which of

The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and

An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer

The purpose of a slot in a wing is to

Large flap deployment

causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper

Answers for Questions 1 - 10

To re-energise the boundary layer

The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than

if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or

moved up causing the left aileron to move down

act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary

the air and re-energise boundary layer

causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower

Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls

During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The

With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service

Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the

To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip

With reference to differential aileron control

Dutch role is movement in

If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

Ailerons control the aircraft in the

An anti-balance tab is used

Answers for Questions 11 20

Tip stalls first

right wing low

Decrease the angle of attack

installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root

drag increases on the inner wing

yaw and roll

aircraft returns to trimmed attitude

to give more feel to the controls

Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the

If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would

Wing tip vortices are strongest when

flying high speed straight and level flight

An example of a secondary flight control is a

Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?

have an equal increase in drag

Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of

Answers for Questions 21 30

keep the boundary layer from separating for longer

nose should be lowered, reducing AoA Comment/Reference: The

can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent

Down to move elevator up

flying slowly at high angles of attack

assists the pilot to move the controls

On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll

A split flap increases lift by increasing

On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is

increasing tailplane incidence

A leading edge slat is a device for