Pharmacology MCQs

PHARMACOLOGY
Time= 30 minutes.
Total Marks: 50
QUESTION 1. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Which of the following non-selective Beta-blockers undergoes elimination by Hepatic
glucuronidation?
A) Atenolol
B) Sotalol
C) Oxprenolol
D) Esmolol
E) Labetolol
correct.
Cardioselective 1-antagonists include:
A) Carvedilol
B) Celiprolol
C) Bisoprolol
D) Metoprolol
E) Propranolol
correct.
Drug whose elimination is associated with non-linear kinetics:
A) vincristine
B) alcohol
C) hydralazine
D) rapamycin
E) morphine
QUESTION 4. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
Which of the following causes spastic paralysis in worms?
A) Niclosamide
B) Pyrantel
C) Diethylcarbamazine
D) Piperazine
E) Mebendazole
The most effective treatment for Pseudomonas meningitis:
A) Ceftazidime + gentamicin
B) Ampicillin + gentamicin
C) Piperacillin + gentamicin
D) Ampicillin + probenecid
E) Imipenem + cilastatin
correct.
Drugs which act in the S phase of mitotic cell cycle:
A) Topotecan
B) Estramustine
C) Cytarabine
D) Paclitaxel
E) Methotrexate
Amphotericin B is derived from
A) Streptomyces nodosus
B) Streptomyces fradiae
C) Streptomyces noursei
D) Streptomyces mediterranei
E) Streptomyces peucetius
correct.
All of the following are ergot-derived dopamine agonists:
A) Cabergoline
B) Pramipexole
C) Ropinirole
D) Bromocriptine
E) Pergolide
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
All of the following drugs reduce lactation:

1. Cabergoline
2. Ropinirole
3. Pergolide
4. Ephedrine
The first i.v. anaesthetic thiopentone was introduced in the year
A) 1912
B) 1956
C) 1935
D) 1938
E) 1929
Antiarrhythmic drug which increases QT interval
A) Esmolol
B) Propafenone
C) Quinidine
D) Lidocaine
E) Diltiazem
Antibiotic which is derived from Streptomyces peucetius
A) Neomycin
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin B
D) Sisomicin
E) Doxorubicin
Which of the following is a selective inhibitor of type-II 5 alpha-reductase?
A) Imipenem
B) Ginkgolide B
C) Finasteride
D) Acetaminophen
E) Cilastatin
Synthesis of DNA occurs in
A) M phase
B) G2 phase
C) G0 phase
D) S phase
E) G1 phase
correct.
Disulfiram interacts with all of the following drugs:
A) Phenytoin
B) oxazepam
C) lorazepam
D) Diazepam
E) Metronidazole
An inhibitor of the enzyme dehydropeptidase I
A) Cisplatin
B) Cyclosporin
C) Methotrexate
D) Cilastatin
E) Imipenem
correct.
Polypeptide antibiotics
A) Teicoplanin
B) Bacitracin
C) Polymyxin-B
D) Tyrothricin
E) Vancomycin
correct.
All of the following hormones are major regulators of Calcium balance:
A) Calcitonin
B) Calmodulin
C) Parathormone
D) Calcineurin
E) Calcitriol
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Caudal anaesthesia produces anaesthesia of
1. lower abdomen
2. pelvis and hind limbs
3. perianal region
4. pelvic and perianal region
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Third generation Cephalosporins:
1. cefotetan
2. Cefadroxil
3. cefamandole
4. cefotaxime
correct.
Correct dosage for surgical prophylaxis for gut and biliary surgery (single dose):
A) Gentamicin 1 mg/kg i.v.
B) Metronidazole 30 mg/kg i.v.
C) Gentamicin 3 mg/kg i.v.
D) Metronidazole 10 mg/kg i.v.
E) Cefuroxime 30 mg/kg i.v
A parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor
A) Fondaparinux
B) Apixaban
C) Heparin
D) Urokinase
E) Bivalirudin
An antineoplastic agent that kills cells in S phase of the mitotic cycle:
A) Cisplatin
B) Dacarbazine
C) Methotrexate
D) Mercaptopurine
E) Etoposide
correct.
Which of the following agents can be used to induce remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?
A) Tretinoin
B) Methotrexate
C) L-Asparaginase
D) Glucocorticoids
E) Vincristine
A drug which is a 5-HT3 antagonist:
A) Dronabinol
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Domperidone
E) Aprepitant
All of the following drugs are effective in the management of Congestive cardiac failure (CCF)
except:
A) Metoprolol
B) Propranolol
C) Valsartan
D) Carvedilol
E) Digoxin
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Antibiotics that function by inhibiting cell wall synthesis:
1. Penicillin G
2. Amphotericin B
3. Bacitracin
4. Erythromycin
correct.
Second generation Cephalosporins:
A) cefoxitin
B) ceftriaxone
C) cefamandole
D) cefotaxime
E) cefuroxime
correct.
All of the following drugs are metabolized by CYP2D6
A) phenobarbitone
B) omeprazole
C) fluoxetine
D) propranolol
E) phenytoin
correct.
Which of the following antibiotics acts by specifically binding to 50S ribosomal subunit and
interferes with peptide synthesis?
A) Tetracyclines
B) Erythromycin
C) Linezolid
D) Gentamicin
E) Chloramphenicol
correct.
Fatty food enhances the absorption of
A) Omeprazole
B) Lumefantrine
C) Ampicillin
D) Atovaquone
E) Griseofulvin
All of the following increase plasma prolactin levels except:
A) haloperidol
B) cabergoline
C) metoclopramide
D) reserpine
E) chlorpromazine
correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Competitive antagonism (antagonists)?
A) Rightward shift of antagonist DRC
B) DiazepamBicuculline
C) MorphineNaloxone
D) Flattening of agonist DRC
E) Antagonist does not chemically resemble the agonist
Which of the following drugs takes the longest time for tissue distribution after an oral dose?
A) Gentamicin
B) Albendazole
C) Digoxin
D) Atropine
E) Lithium
correct.
Which of the following agents is a typical antipsychotic?
A) Lithium
B) Risperidone
C) Sulpiride
D) Sodium Valproate
E) Clozapine
Drug of choice for maintenance therapy for chronic lymphatic leukaemia
A) Melphalan
B) Cisplatin
C) Mechlorethamine
D) Chlorambucil
E) Busulfan
2-adrenoceptors are found in:
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) brown fat
D) brain
E) bronchioles
Which of the following Beta-blockers releases endothelium-derived nitric oxide?
A) Atenolol
B) Oxprenolol
C) Propranolol
D) labetolol
E) Nebivolol
correct.
Drugs that increase gastric motility (laxatives):
A) Tegaserod
B) Alvimopan
C) Loperamide
D) Lubiprostone
E) Alosetron
Phenytoin stimulates the metabolism of:
A) Ticlopidine
B) Triamterene
C) Amiodarone
D) Isoniazid
E) Mexiletine
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following pairs are therapeutically correct?
1. Refractory schizophrenia ---- Penfluridol
2. Acute schizophrenia ---- Pimozide
3. Chronic schizophrenia ---- Haloperidol
4. Withdrawn and apathetic schizophrenia ---- Aripiprazole
correct.
H1 antihistaminics used to prevent or suppress vomiting:
A) Dicyclomine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Meclozine
E) Cinnarizine
correct.
Drugs that enhance phenytoin metabolism:
A) Fluvoxamine
B) Rifampin
C) Carbamazepine
D) Chloramphenicol
E) Isoniazid
Drug which is not useful in the management of thyroid crisis:
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) glucocorticoids
D) Lugols iodine
E) Beta blockers
correct.
Drugs that function by causing leakage from cell membranes:
A) Amphotericin B
B) Clindamycin
C) Colistin
D) Erythromycin
E) Hamycin
correct.
Drugs with extensive first-pass extraction
A) ciclosporin
B) morphine
C) hydralazine
D) propranolol
E) diltiazem
A drug which is both a substrate and inhibitor of hepatic P450 CY3A4 isoenzyme
A) Mirtazapine
B) Amoxapine
C) Erythromycin
D) Amiodarone
E) Dronedarone
Antiarrhythmic drug that has profound sympatholytic action:
A) Lidocaine
B) Mexiletine
C) Diltiazem
D) Flecainide
E) Esmolol
correct.
Polyene antibiotics
A) Hamycin
B) Ethionamide
C) Nystatin
D) Colistin
E) Teicoplanin
A biological agent which is IL-2 receptor antagonist:
A) Infliximab
B) Adalimumab
C) Anakinra
D) Mycophenolate mofetil
E) Daclizumab
ANSWERS
(PHARMACOLOGY)
QUESTION 1. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 2. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 3. Correct answers: A= T, B = T, C = T, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 4. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 5. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 6. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 8. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 10. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 12. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 14. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 15. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 17. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 21. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 24. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = T.

QUESTION 29. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 30. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 31. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 33. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 35. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.

Pharmacology MCQs

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Pharmacology MCQs

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PHARMACOLOGY

All of the following drugs reduce lactation:

QUESTION 27. Correct answer = B

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