Fundamentals of Neurobiology Final Examination

Name__________________________________

Version A

Dec 17, 2014

Student# __________________________

Multiple Choice Choose only the one best answer for each question.

(1 point each).

1. Neural crest progenitors are the source of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) motor neurons in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
B) cholinergic neurons of the peripheral parasympathetic nervous system
C) primary somatosensory afferents
D) adrenergic neurons of the peripheral sympathetic nervous system
2. Neurons undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death) unless they are:
A) active after birth and exposed to retinoic acid secreted by the notochord
B) capable of activating postsynaptic cells and capturing neurotrophins released by the target tissue.
C) capable of releasing neurotransmitter and attaching to laminin on postsynaptic cells in an appropriate target
site
D) spontaneously active during critical periods before birth and capture sufficient amounts of netrin
3. Widespread damage restricted to the right cerebral hemisphere of humans is likely to interfere with all of the
following cognitive functions EXCEPT:
A) face recognition
B) prosody (tonal and emotional aspects of speech)
C) spatial perception
D) paying attention to the right side of the body and outside world
4. Neural tube formation is induced by:
A) hox gene expression in the neural plate
B) retinoic acid secreted by the notochord
C) NGF secreted by floor plate neuroblasts
D) Sushi gene product secreted by the basal lamina
5. Stimulation of which of the following brain areas evokes all components of the stereotypical rage response in
cats:
A) intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus
B) cingulate gyrus of cerebral cortex
C) hypothalamus
D) hippocampus
6. A patient with brain trauma cannot remember events prior to the trauma. Which type of memory problem does
this symptom indicate?
A) Dissociated amnesia
B) Retrograde amnesia
C) Procedural amnesia
D) Anterograde amnesia
7. Long lasting uncontrollable stress may lead to depression or anxiety disorders as a result of the:
A) excessive release of endogenous opioids in the PAG
B) damaging effect of prolonged release of cortisol from the adrenal glands
C) degeneration of neurons in the globus pallidus
D) excessive stimulation of D2 receptors in the nucleus accumbens

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8. Circadian related sleep is at least partly induced by:

A) decreased release of adenosine by neurons of the TMN (tuberomammilary nucleus)
B) increase in activity of raphe serotonergic neurons
C) increase in orexin release in the reticular activating system
D) increase in pineal gland secretion of melatonin
9. Concerning stabilization and strengthening of synaptic connections, Hebb stated that:
A) Neurons that fire together wire together.
B) NMDA receptors are necessary for synapse stabilization and memory.
C) Synapses that win the competition for growth factors strengthen and synapses that lose the competition
weaken.
D) Give a dog a bone and pretty soon it wants sirloin steak.
10. Using sensory input to provide motor cortex with detailed instructions before movement initiation is a function
of the:
A) vestibulocerebellum
B) inferior olives
C) spinocerebellum
D) cerebrocerebellum
11. During motor activity, the ___________ provides excitatory input to the __________ for the purpose of
suppressing extraneous movements.
A) substantia nigra; globus pallidus external segment
B) globus pallidus internal segment; VA/VL nucleus of the thalamus
C) subthalamic nucleus; globus pallidus internal segment
D) globus pallidus external segment; subthalamic nucleus
E) striatum; globus pallidus internal segment
12. Inferior olive climbing fiber input to the cerebellum is strongly activated:
A) when stumbling or falling to provide vestibular labyrinth signals for control of balance and the
vestibulo-ocular reflex
B) when movement outcome does not match intention
C) to provide instructions from premotor cortex about choice of muscle groups in performance of previously
well-learned movements
D) before initiation of movement in order to provide proprioceptive information necessary for planning
movement
13. One cause of epilepsy is:
A) loss of hypothalamic neurons that release orexin in the reticular activating system
B) insufficient GABA synaptic transmission in thalamus and cortex
C) excessive release of norepinephrine in the intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus
D) degeneration of neurons in the globus pallidus internal segment
14. Binding of___________ is important for inducing maturation of synaptic connections
A) L1 to integrin
B) netrin to slit
C) neurexin to neuroligin
D) slit to robo

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15. Of the following statements, which is a CORRECT description of Hubel & Wiesel's observations of the
development of binocular responses in layers 2 & 3 of cat primary visual cortex
A) When one eye was 'patched' (closed) for several months during the critical period after birth then opened in
adult cats, only monocular responses to visual stimulation of the unpatched eye were observed
B) Binocular cells were absent in adult cats when both eyes were closed for several months during the critical
period after birth
C) Binocular responses were lost when one eye was closed for several months in adult cats
D) Binocular but not monocular cells were observed in cats with strabismus
E) All of the above are correct
16. Typically during an uninterrupted 8 hour night of sleep, slow wave sleep (SWS; stage IV non REM) occurs:
A) mostly in the first 3 to 4 hours of the night
B) mostly in the last hour of the night
C) evenly distributed throughout the night
D) mostly in the last four hours of sleep
17. During initiation of voluntary movement, activity of neurons in the basal ganglia direct pathway increases in all
of the following areas EXCEPT:
A) globus pallidus internal segment
B) motor cortex
C) VA/VL nucleus of the thalamus
D) putamen
18. Fatal familial insomnia is caused by:
A) excessive release of orexin in the reticular activating system
B) tumor or other lesion-induced damage to the SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus).
C) degeneration of the pineal gland
D) prion-induced degeneration of thalamic nuclei necessary for sleep
19. According to some neurological evidence Capgras Syndrome (denial that your mother is your mother), is caused
by lesions of the:
A) tract interconnecting the amygdala and the face recognition area in temporal lobe cortex
B) posterior parietal area of cerebral cortex
C) face recognition area in temporal lobe of cerebral cortex
D) prefrontal area of cerebral cortex
E) All of the above
20. CREB is a ___________ and activation of CREB is necessary for______________:
A) regulator of RNA translation; LTD lasting more than 1-2 hours
B) protein phosphatase; the early phase of LTD
C) protein kinase; the early phase of LTP
D) regulator of DNA transcription; LTP lasting more than 1-2 hours
21. Of the following, which is CORRECT in describing facial motor paresis
A) deficit in facial expression in emotional situations as a result of damage to the basal ganglia
B) difficulty in voluntary control of facial expressions as a result of damage to the pyramidal tract
C) deficit in facial expressions in emotional situations as a result of damage to the cerebellum
D) difficulty in voluntary control of facial expressions as a result of damage to the basal ganglia

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22. Of the following statements, which is a CORRECT description of neuroblasts:

A) produced by symmetric horizontal cleavage of progenitor cells with differential distribution of numb to the
neuroblast
B) produced by symmetric vertical cleavage of precursor cells with differential distribution of numb to the
neuroblast
C) neuroblasts are produced by combined action of sonic hedgehog and retinoic acid on floorplate epithelial
cells
D) produced by asymmetric horizontal cleavage of progenitor cells with differential distribution of notch to the
neuroblast
23. Of the following, which is a factor attached to the extracellular matrix that guides growth cone extension.
A) fasciculin
B) slit
C) netrin
D) laminin
24. The associative property of LTP reflects the requirement for simultaneous:
A) stimulation of a presynaptic input and increased protein synthesis in the postsynaptic neuron
B) increase in nitric oxide production in the presynaptic neuron and BDNF production in the postsynaptic
neuron
C) strong presynaptic depolarization and glutamate binding to AMPA receptors
D) strong postsynaptic depolarization and glutamate binding to NMDA receptors
25. Lesions of the arcuate fasciculus interfere:
A) with spatial perception
B) with face recognition
C) with the transmission of word meaning from Broca's area to Wernicke's area for language production
D) with the transmission of word meaning from Wernicke's area to Broca's area for language production
26. Of the following, which is a symptom of Huntington's Disease:
A) fine tremor when at rest
B) intention tremor
C) difficulty in initiating voluntary movement
D) excessive, inappropriate, jerky movements of the limbs
27. EEG recordings of brain rhythms is similar in which two behavioral states:
A) wakefulness and non REM sleep
B) stage 1 non REM sleep and REM sleep
C) Slow Wave Sleep (SWS) and REM sleep
D) wakefulness and REM sleep
28. The neurological term for a deficit in language comprehension or production is:
A) prosopagnosia
B) anosognosia
C) agnosia
D) aphasia
29. Stimulant drugs such as amphetamine elevate mood, suppress sleep and have behavioral reinforcing properties.
Of the following, increased release of which neurotransmitter is most directly involved in addiction to stimulant
drugs.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) norepinephrine
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30. Most normal human infants can distinguish _____________ compared to adults.
A) the same number of phonemes
B) more phonemes if the baby has parents who speak a different language and fewer phonemes if both parents
speak the same language
C) fewer phonemes
D) more phonemes
31. Match the following 'normal' emotions with their corresponding 'abnormal' psychiatric condition. 1) happy
2) sad 3) fear 4) bored
a. OCD b. mania c. depression d. ADHD
A) 1-a; 2-d; 3-b; 4-c
B) 1-b; 2-d; 3-c; 4-a
C) 1-b; 2-c; 3-d; 4-a
D) 1-b; 2-c; 3-a; 4-d
32. Evidence from humans who have suffered damage to the hippocampus suggests that it is necessary for:
A) long term memory of declarative facts such as names, faces and places
B) consolidation of non-declarative memories
C) long term memory of procedures such as riding a bike
D) consolidation of declarative memories
33. Of the following brain areas, which has neurons that make direct synaptic contact with motor neurons in the
spinal cord:
A) primary motor cortex
B) VA/VL nucleus of the thalamus
C) cerebellum
D) globus pallidus internal segment
E) none of the above
34. A conditioned stimulus:
A) never leads to a response
B) always leads to a response
C) only leads to a response after it is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus
D) only leads to a response after it is repeatedly paired with a neutral stimulus
35. Neurons with cell bodies in the______ release____________ in the _________ are involved in____________.
A) substantia nigra; norepinephrine; ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens); suppression of inappropriate
behaviors
B) VTA; dopamine; ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens); motivation of behaviors necessary for survival
C) substantia nigra; serotonin; striatum; motivation of behaviors necessary for survival
D) VTA; dopamine; thalamus; suppression of extraneous movements
36. Of the following statements, which is CORRECT concerning the Cannon-Bard theory of emotional experience:
A) you feel scared because you sense an increase in heart rate
B) lesions of the basal ganglia interfere with facial expressions evoked by emotional stimuli
C) facial muscles can be voluntarily controlled independently of emotions
D) emotions can be experienced independent of physiological changes
37. Of the following, which correctly describes the significance of synchronized 40 Hz rhythmic activity of neurons
in widespread areas of cerebral cortex:
A) this is a unique characteristic of EEG recordings from people who are depressed or in pain
B) this is a unique characteristic of EEG recordings from people who are schizophrenic
C) this may be a mechanism involved in 'binding' for conscious perception of stimuli
D) this is a characteristic of brain waves recorded during slow wave sleep

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38. Searching for your keys in an efficient way (never looking in the same room twice) depends on which type of
memory?
A) Procedural memory
B) Temporal memory
C) Working memory
D) Recognition memory
39. All of the following increase during REM sleep EXCEPT:
A) respiration
B) heart rate
C) genitalia engorgement with blood
D) rapid eye movements
E) skeletal muscle tone
40. LTP (long-term potentiation) and LTD (long-term depression) reflect the bidirectional regulation of which
process?
A) The number of presynaptic AMPA receptors
B) The number of postsynaptic NMDA receptors.
C) The number of presynaptic GABA receptors.
D) The number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors.
41. Thalamic growth cones are guided into the developing cerebral cortex by:
A) laminin affixed to the extracellular matrix
B) eph receptors that are complementary to ephrins on layer 4 neuroblasts
C) netrin secreted by cells on the midline of the neural tube
D) attractant substances produced by the cortical subplate
42. Low frequency high amplitude delta waves in the EEG are recorded during:
A) drowsiness and stage 1 non REM sleep
B) alert, waking behavior
C) REM sleep
D) Slow wave sleep (SWS)
43. Why do people who use PCP at high doses fail to remember what happened while they were under the influence
of this drug?
A) PCP stimulates protein phosphatases
B) PCP inhibits glutamate release from presynaptic terminals
C) PCP blocks calcium influx through NMDA receptors
D) PCP inhibits protein kinases
E) PCP damages hippocampal neurons
44. Huntington's Disease is caused by_____ .
A) excessive activation of D1 receptors on GABAergic neurons in the striatum that synapse in the globus
pallidus external segment
B) degeneration of GABAergic neurons in the striatum that inhibit activity of GABAergic neurons in the
globus pallidus external segment
C) degeneration of subthalamic neurons that excite neurons in the globus pallidus external segment
D) degeneration of GABAergic neurons in the globus pallidus external segment that inhibit activity of
excitatory neurons in the subthalamic nucleus

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45. Dilated pupils occurs during emotional expression of________ and is the result of _________________.
A) relaxation; norepinephrine released by the parasympathetic nervous system
B) relaxation; acetylcholine released by the parasympathetic nervous system
C) fear; norepinephrine released by the sympathetic nervous system
D) fear; acetylcholine released by the parasympathetic nervous system
46. Of the following statements, which is INCORRECT:
A) Less than 1% of all humans have bilateral capacity for fluent speech and these individuals are almost
always lefties
B) lateralization of language functions is an innate, genetically programmed feature of human brain
development
C) the planum temporale is larger on the left side of cortex in the majority of human infants
D) for the majority of left handed humans, the right hemisphere is specialized for language
47. On average, the critical period for humans to 'naturally' and easily acquire a new language ends:
A) About 10 years after birth
B)
about one to two years after birth
C) about three to five years after birth
D) none of the above: humans do not have a critical period for language acquisition
48. Dopamine binding to the D1 subtype of dopamine receptors in the striatum:
A) is involved in the symptoms of Tourettes Syndrome
B) inhibits GABAergic neurons that synapse in the globus pallidus external segment
C) enhances cerebral cortex excitatory input to striatal neurons that synapse in the globus pallidus internal
segment
D) enhances cerebral cortex excitatory input to striatal neurons that synapse in the globus pallidus external
segment
49. Lesions of which area of cerebral cortex would have the LEAST IMPACT on visual 'categorization' of cats,
lions and tigers as related animals.
A) frontal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) occipital lobe
50. Of the following, which suppresses pacemaker cell activity in the intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus during
REM sleep:
A) norepinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) All of the above
Section 2 Cumulative Questions
51. Rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors of the somatosensory system are important for detection of
A) cold surfaces
B) steady pressure
C) stimuli that damage tissue
D) vibrating stimuli

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52. An organizing principle for the integration of visual information is the division of the primary visual cortex into
a series of vertically oriented strips of neurons, each specialized to process information concerning an important
aspect of the visual stimulus. These include: the _______, the ________ and the ______.
A) ocular modules involved in 3-D vision; orientation blobs involved in motion detection; orientation columns
involved in location detection
B) ocular blobs involved in location detection; orientation blobs involved in color perception; orientation
modules involved in motion detection
C) ocular dominance columns involved in 3-D vision; orientation columns involved in shape detection; blobs
involved in color perception
D) ocular dominance columns involved in location detection; orientation columns involved in color
perception; blobs involved in motion detection
53. Because the cell membrane of unstimulated neurons is slightly permeable to Na+, resting membrane potential is:
A) slightly more positive than the Nernst equilibrium potential for Na+
B) slightly less negative than the Nernst equilibrium potential for K+
C) slightly more negative than the Nernst equilibrium potential for K+
D) slightly less negative than the Nernst equilibrium potential for Na+
54. Action potentials are normally is conducted in one direction from axon hillock to axon terminal because in the
region of the axon where the peak of an action potential has just passed:
A) Most Na+ channel activation gates are closed
B) Most Na+ channel inactivation gates remain open.
C) Most Na+ channel inactivation gates remain closed
D) Most voltage-gated K+ channels are inactivated
55. Assume that an anion (a negatively charged ion) is more concentrated on the inside of the cell than on the
outside. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A) The membrane potential will be negative at the equilibrium condition for this ion.
B) There is not enough information to answer the question.
C) The membrane potential will be positive at the equilibrium condition for this ion
D) The membrane potential will be 0 at the equilibrium condition for this ion.
56. Different regions of the cerebral cortex have specific roles in generating movement such as getting out of your
chair to fetch a glass of water (or beer if you are 21 or older). First, the decision to move is made in the
_______ cortex, then the required movements are planned in the _______ cortex and finally the movements are
initiated by the _______ cortex.
A) prefrontal; primary motor; premotor
B) primary motor; prefrontal; premotor
C) premotor; prefrontal; primary motor
D) prefrontal; premotor; primary motor
57. The rate of action potential discharge in a primary somatosensory neuron encodes information concerning
stimulus _______.
A) contrast
B) location
C) modality
D) intensity
58. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing properties of a single action potential?
A) large (>20 mM) increase in sodium concentration in intracellular fluid
B) rapid increase in membrane permeability to sodium
C) undiminished amplitude during propagation from axon hillock to axon terminal
D) rapid depolarization followed by rapid repolarization and hyperpolarization of membrane potential

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59. Nernst equilibrium potential for sodium is +62 mV. This means that when membrane potential equals +62 mV:
A) The chemical force favoring sodium influx is exactly balanced by the electrical force favoring sodium
efflux
B) The electrical force on sodium is 0
C) The chemical (concentration) force on sodium is 0
D) The influx of sodium is exactly balanced by the efflux of potassium
E) All of the above are true
60. Lesioning the spinothalamic tract as it passes through the right side of the brain stem will result primarily in the
loss of _______ from the _______ side of the body.
A) temperature & pain; right
B) fine touch & pressure; right
C) temperature & pain; left
D) fine touch & pressure; left
61. In a typical resting (unstimulated) neuron, the electrostatic force on K+ at the peak of an action potential is
______ and during the undershoot phase when Vm = EK, the electrostatic force on K+ is__________.
A) directed outward; zero
B) directed inward; directed outward
C) directed outward; directed inward
D) directed inward; zero
62. In response to light in the surround of its receptive field, the membrane potential of an off center ganglion cell
_______ because the cone in the center of its receptive field is _________.
A) hyperpolarizes; hyperpolarized
B) depolarizes; hyperpolarized
C) depolarizes; depolarized
D) hyperpolarizes; depolarized
63. GABA binding to GABAA receptors __________.
A) opens channels permeable to sodium and calcium
B) opens sodium selective ion channels
C) opens chloride selective ion channels
D) closes potassium selective ion channels
E) closes channels permeable to sodium and potassium
64. For Na+ channels towards the end of the relative refractory period, the activation gates are mostly _______ and
the inactivation gates are mostly ________.
A) closed; closed
B) closed; open
C) open; open
D) open; closed
65. At the highest levels of visual information processing in the cerebral cortex, information regarding stimulus
identification is processed in the _______ lobe, while that regarding stimulus location is processed in the
_______ lobe.
A) parietal; occipital
B) temporal; parietal
C) frontal; temporal
D) occipital; temporal
E) parietal; temporal

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66. Transduction of pressure waves in the cochlea is the result of:

A) A large concentration gradient favoring Na+ entry through voltage-gated channels in the tops of the
stereocillia
B) A large concentration gradient favoring K+ entry through mechanically-gated channels in the tops of the
stereocillia
C) A large concentration gradient favoring K+ entry through Ca++-activated K+ channels
D) A large voltage difference favoring K+ entry through mechanically-gated channels in the tops of the
stereocillia
67. How do action potentials differ from passively conducted signals in nerve cells?
A) Action potentials are signals of fixed size and duration; passively conducted signals are variable in size and
duration
B) Action potentials diminish over distance; passively conducted signals do not diminish over distance
C) Action potentials occur only in nerve cells; passively conducted signals occur only in muscle cells
D) Action potentials are transmitted over short distances; passively conducted signals are conducted over long
distances
68. -Motor neurons are activated:
A) together with -motor neurons and are involved in maintaining spindle receptor sensitivity during muscle
contraction
B) together with -motor neurons and are involved in maintaining Golgi tendon organ sensitivity during
muscle contraction
C) by excessive muscle tension and initiate the reverse myotatic reflex
D) during muscle stretch and initiate the myotatic reflex
69. Vesicle fusion to the presynaptic plasma membrane followed by exocytosis of neurotransmitter is triggered by:
A) calcium-induced activation of calmodulin dependent protein kinase
B) calcium influx through NMDA receptors
C) calcium binding to synaptotagmin
D) calcium influx through AMPA receptors
70. The basilar membrane is part of the_________ and __________:
A) organ of Corti; has a tonotopic organization with the base resonating in response to high frequency sounds
B) inner ear; separates the scala media from the scala vestibuli
C) middle ear; is important in amplification of low impedance sound waves
D) cochlea; has an ototopic organization with the base resonating in response to low frequency sounds
71. Which of the following tracts is most important in conscious, fine control of finger movements:
A) corticospinal
B) vestibulospinal
C) spinothalamic
D) tectospinal
E) reticulopinal
72. Which of the following statements about synapses is INCORRECT?
A) Opening of a channel that is equally permeable to both potassium and sodium can depolarize membrane
potential towards threshold
B) Closing of a channel that is selectively permeable to sodium ions can generate an EPSP
C) Closing of potassium leak channels would increase the excitability of a neuron
D) Opening of a channel selectively permeable to chloride ions can generate an IPSP

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73. The effect of acetylcholine:

A) depends on the type of acetylcholine receptor expressed by the postsynaptic target cell
B) is inhibitory at the synapse between motor neurons and skeletal muscle
C) is excitatory at the parasympathetic nervous system synapse with heart muscle
D) is inhibitory at the parasympathetic nervous system synapse with the intestine
74. Choose the correct sequence for activation of motor units during a muscle contraction of increasing force:
FF - fast fatigable; FFR = fast fatigable resistant; S = slow
A) FFR, S, FF
B) FFR, FF, S
C) S, FFR, FF
D) FF, FFR, S
E) S, FF, FFR
75. A motor unit is:
A) a motor neuron and all of the muscles that it innervates
B) a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates
C) a muscle fiber and all of the motor neurons that innervate it
D) a muscle and all of the motor neurons that innervate it
76. Light stimuli induce __________ of photoreceptors as a result of stimulation of____________.
A) depolarization; guanylate cyclase and thus more open cGMP-gated Na+ channels
B) depolarization; phosphodiesterase and thus fewer open cGMP-gated K+ channels
C) hyperpolarization; phosphodiesterase and thus an increase in the number of open cGMP-gated K+
channels
D) hyperpolarization; phosphodiesterase and thus a decrease in the number of open cGMP-gated Na+ channels
77. The center surround organization of receptive fields _______. This type of receptive field depends on
_________.
A) decreases sensitivity to wavelength contrast; laterally oriented excitatory neurons
B) enhances sensory acuity; second messenger cascades
C) enhances sensory acuity; laterally oriented inhibitory neurons
D) depresses the threshold for detection of weak stimuli; metabotropic glutamate receptors
78. When activated by acetylcholine, the nicotinic receptor:
A) is permeable to sodium and chloride
B) inhibits Gs
C) is permeable to potassium and sodium
D) is permeable to sodium only
E) is permeable to chloride only
79. The direction of a movement is controlled by:
A) the intensity of firing of a single neuron that controls the contraction of single motor units controlling
movement of a specific joint
B) the timing of the onset and offset of firing of the several neurons innervating all motor pools controlling
movement of a specific joint
C) the relative activity of numerous neurons simultaneously activated in primary motor cortex, each neuron
with a relatively broad but differing range of preference for movement direction
D) the activity of a single neuron in primary motor cortex that commands movement in one highly specific
direction.

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80. An important function of the somatosensory system is providing information concerning where the stimulus
contacts the body. Body regions containing _______ concentrations of receptors, each of which has a _______
receptive field, are specialized for providing high acuity information about location.
A) low; large
B) low; small
C) high; small
D) high; large

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Answer Key
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52.

A
B
D
B
C
B
B
D
A
D
C
B
B
C
A
A
A
D
A
D
B
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
A
D
D
D
A
C
B
D
C
C
E
D
D
D
C
B
C
D
A
C
C
B
D
C
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53.
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80.

B
C
C
D
D
A
A
C
C
C
C
B
B
D
A
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B
D
C
C
C
C

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