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1. Which
A.
B.
C.

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of the following is not a secondary control surface?

Spoiler.
Flap.
Aileron.

2. ________ are general aircraft structure members which are designed to

withstand the bending loads.
A. Ties
B. Beams
C. Struts
3. Formers are used to maintain the fuselage its uniform shape and these
formers divided into compartments called bulkhead to provide strength,
prevent bulging or buckling under severe stresses and also give the shape of
the aircraft. These statement refers to ;
A. monocoque construction.
B. semi-monocoque construction.
C. pressurized structure.
4. Aircraft clevis bolts are subjected to __________ stress on an aircraft when
the items they are holding together have _________ or ___________ loads
applied to them.
A. tension, shear, compression
B. shear, tension, compression.
C. bending, torsion, compression.
5. Metallic aircraft construction must be strong, lightweight and streamline to
the airflow. The concepts of stress and strain applied to the metallic material
due to its elastic-plastic properties. According to this material property, the
stress strain is ________ for its tensile loads and ___________ for
compressive loads.
A. positive, positive
B. positive, negative
C. negative, positive
6. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
A. by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being
driven.
B. by the manufacturer but require reheat treatment before being driven.
C. to a temperature of 910F to 930F and quenched in cooled water.
7. The rule of thumb for determining the rivet diameter to be used for repairing
aircraft sheet metal is
A. total grip length of the material thickness.
B. three times the rivet length.
C. three times the thickest sheet metal thickness being joined.
8. The distance between rows of staggered rivets should be _________ of the
distance between rivets in a given row.
A. 45 %
B. 65 %
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C. 75 %
9. Cherrymax and Olympic Lok rivets
A. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set and bucking bar for installation.
B. utilize a special pulling tool for installation.
C. may be installed using ordinary hand tools.
10. Type of fastener that is used to attach rubber deicer boots to aircraft wing
and tail surface?
A. Dzus fastener.
B. Airloc fastener.
C. Rivnut.
11. Alloy types that are mostly use is AD made of 2117 aluminum alloy contains
copper and magnesium. The rivet is identified by a :
A. small dimple on the rivet head.
B. raised dot on the rivet head.
C. two-raised dot on the rivet head.
12. Which
A.
B.
C.

of the following are known as an ice-box rivet?

2117 and 1100.
1100 and 2017.
2017 and 2024.

13. What is the first mechanical lock rivet that is used as structural replacements
for solid shank rivet?
A. Huck lok.
B. Olympic lok.
C. Chery lok.
14. The dimension of MS20430 AD 4-8 rivet are
A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long.
B. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long.
C. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.
15. Given is the two 3 inch strap of 0.0040 2024 T3 clad aluminium alloy
sheets. What is the rivet size?
A. MS20470 AD 2-4
B. MS20470 AD 4-4
C. MS20470 AD 6 -8
16. All sheet metal repairs must be done accordingly and the entire rivet used for
repair has to match the strength of the materials that are riveted. Therefore
the most important consideration in the sheet metal repair is to make sure
that
A. the shear strength and the bearing strength of the rivet and sheet
metal is the same.
B. the shear strength of the rivet and sheet metal is the same but the
bearing strength is slightly higher.
C. the shear strength of the rivet and sheet metal is slightly higher and
the bearing strength is the same.

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17. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the
A. head shape, shank size, material used, and specification adhered to
during manufacture.
B. degrees of dimensional and process control observe during
manufacture.
C. specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets.
18. When a sheet metal structure is build up, there are often locations where the
metal is stacked into multiple layers where the parts are joined together. In
order for the sheet metal to be flat against the skin and yet to have one on
top of the other at the joining intersection, a process is used and called as:
A. bumping
B. joggling
C. forming
19. Which
A.
B.
C.

method is providing more fit but, sharp edge in dimpling process?

Coin dimpling
Radius dimpling
Hot dimpling

20. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank
rivet?
A. Drill through the manufacturer head and shank with a shank size drill
and remove the rivet with a punch.
B. Drill through the manufacturer head and shank with a one size smaller
than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch.
C. Drill to the base of the manufacturer head with a drill one size smaller
than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch.
21. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by
which method?
A. Cold-working
B. Heat treatment
C. Aging

Figure 1: Sheet metal layout

22. (Refer to figure 1 and K-Chart in Appendix A). Given is the material thickness
is 0.0064 and bend radius of 0.250 with a closed angle of 45.The setback
is
A. 0.777
B. 0.785
C. 0.758
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23. The most important factors needed to make a flat pattern layout are
A. radius, thickness and mold line.
B. radius, thickness and degree of bend.
C. total flat sections.
24. The amount of material actually involved in the bend is known as the
A. bend tangent line.
B. bend allowance.
C. setback.
25. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to bent using a minimum radius for the
type and thickness of material
A. the piece should be bent slowly to eliminate cracking.
B. the layout should be made so that the bend will be 90 to the grain of
the metal.
C. the pressure should be applied less than normal with movable
clamping bar.
26. Graduate students of UniKL MIAT without approved certificate for welding are
expected to have sufficient knowledge to enable them to identify and evaluate
defective welds to determine the airworthiness of an aircraft. Therefore the
most important things to evaluate the welding are
i. Parts of the welding
ii. Proportions of the welding
iii. Formations of the welding
iv. The quantities the welding.
Ai, and ii only
B. i,ii, and iii only.
C. All of the above.
27. What type of flame normally used for oxyacetylene metal cutting?
A. Neutral flame.
B. Carburizing flame.
C. Oxidizing flame.
28. Why inert gas is important in welding process?
A. To remove impurity inside material being weld.
B. To support the flame during cutting and welding.
C. To protect from atmospheric gases such as nitrogen and oxygen which
cam caused fusion defects, porosity and weld metal embrittlement.
29. Welding over brazed or soldered joints is
A. not permitted.
B. permissible for mild steel.
C. permissible for most metals or alloys that are not heat treated.
30. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 psi is
A. dangerously unstable.
B. should be used when reducing flame is necessary.
C. usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8 thick.

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31. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means

A. the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
B. the penetration should be 75 to 85 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
C. the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base
metal.
32. The approved striker used in welding also known as
A. butane lighter.
B. butane flame.
C. torch lighter.
33. Three
A.
B.
C.

basic items required for electric resistant welding are

current, pressure and dwell time.
pressure, dwell time and penetration depth.
dwell time, current and penetration depth.

34. Which type of welding usually used to weld the fuel tank to provide continues
air tight?
A. Spot weld.
B. Seam weld.
C. Butt weld.
35. Which one of the statement below is not true related to Tungsten Inert Gas
(TIG) welding magnesium characteristics?
A. Used straight DC polarity.
B. Clean with stainless steel/MEK.
C. Filler rod as same as material.
36. Blue lens welding goggle usually used for welding
A. aluminum.
B. magnesium.
C. steel.
37. There
A.
B.
C.

are two types of Non-Destructive Testing commonly used known as

Visual Inspection and Electronic Inspection.
Composite Test and Visual Inspection.
Electronic Inspection and Composite Test.

38. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most
probable cause is that the part
A. was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
B. was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied.
C. was not demagnetized correctly.

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39. The correct procedures or steps for defect identification using magnetic
particle inspection are;
1. Surface Preparations
2. Pretest Demagnetization
3. Degreasing & Cleaning of Part
4. Magnetizing the Part
5. Application of Detection Method
6. Examine and Marking the Indications
7. Recording the Indication
8. Demagnetization
9. Cleaning of Part
10. Protection Against Corrosion
A. 2,3,4,1,5,7,6,8,9,10
B. 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
40. Eddy current inspection is one of the electronic inspection methods; it
requires little preparation and can detect surface and subsurface defects. The
eddy current methods that uses a double coil probe and indicates the
differences between the material under the reference probe and the test
probe known as
A. test method.
B. absolute method.
C. comparison method.
41. The only electronic method that can be used on plastic ceramic and most
metals is known as
A. Eddy current.
B. Ultrasonic.
C. Composite test.
42. One of the NDT method used to detect water trapped in honey comb core in
composite sandwich structures is
A. Radiography Inspection.
B. Eddy Current Inspection.
C. Magnetic Particle Inspection.
43. Magnetic particle inspection usually used for part made of iron or iron alloy
and using right hand rule;
A. finger directing the current flow and thumb directing the magnetic
field.
B. thumb directing the current flow and finger directing the magnetic
field.
C. thumb and finger directing the current flow.
44. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted
compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to
determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
A. Eddy current test.
B. Ultrasonic test.
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C. Coin tap test/metallic ring test.

45. The scuffing process to remove oil deposit on the surface prior to painting is
A. cleaned using sand paper.
B. cleaned using grit blasting.
C. wipe using MEK.
46. The main purpose of using primer as a part of aircraft painting is
A. to provide good bonding between the material used for topcoat and
surface being finishes.
B. to provide good surface finish and make the painting process becomes
faster.
C. to provide corrosion resistance and smooth surface finish between the
material used for topcoat and surfaces being finished.
47. Protective coating for ferrous metal used to form a wear resistant surface
usually on cylinder barrels and crankshaft journals is
A. soft chrome.
B. hard chrome.
C. chroming.
48. It is the most popular primer as it provides maximum corrosion protection
and can be sprayed over wash primer to give maximum protection. This
statement refers to
A. wash primer.
B. epoxy primer.
C. zinc chromate primer.
49. _________ is mostly used as an automotive finish although becoming popular
on General Aviation (GA) aircraft and as clear top coats.
A. Acrylic Urethanes
B. Acrylic Lacquer
C. Synthetic Enamel
50. Begin spraying a surface by painting the ____________ first and hold the gun
about _____________ away from the surface and use a steady stroke
___________ to the surface.
A. flat surface ,a hand span or 8 inch , parallel
B. edges or corners, a hand span or 8 inch, perpendicular
C. edges or corners, a hand span or 8 inch, parallel

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APPENDIX A

K- Factor Chart
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