P R E V I E W

GATE NUMERICALS

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 GATE NUMERICALS

GATE NUMERICALS
by

GATE ARCHITECTURE

First Published 2016

ISBN 9789351968382

Copyright GATE ARCHITECTURE 2016

Copyright

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in or introduced into a retrieval system, or
transmitted, in any form, or by any means (electrical, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise) without
the prior written permission of the publisher. Any person who does any unauthorised act in relation to this
publication may be liable to legal and civil claims for damages.

First Edition

Printers:

The Print Media

Patna 800004

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Contents

1. Preface ............................................................................................................................page N3
2. Tips & Tricks .................................................................................................................page N4
3. GATE syllabus................................................................................................................page N10
4. Important Topics ..........................................................................................................Page N11
4.1 Acoustics
4.2 Illumination
4.3 Structure
4.4 Miscellaneous
5. GATE Numerical Question Papers (20 Years)...........................................................page N35
6. GUESS PAPER .............................................................................................................page N134
7. Answer & Notes ............................................................................................................page N142
8. References .....................................................................................................................page N148

1. Preface

If you have already prepared for the exam, this book would be fruitful to you. This book is meant for last stage of
preparation and add an edge to your preparation by reviewing sets of numerical questions asked in previous years. In
past few years, the pattern of numerical question has changed. There would be approx 7 numerical question of 1 or 2
marks of which no option would be given. You have to answer the question by using keypad displayed on the screen.
(Use of keyboard is prohibited. Touching any key would lock your monitor screen and you may not able to answer any
further question!)

So, for such question pattern, you need through practice. We are hopeful that this booklet would meet the requirement.
We have also added a Guess Paper in this booklet.

Well, when questions are asked from a prescribed syllabus and the cut-off is almost same every year, you could predict
the question pattern because the boundary is all set. We have analysed the trends & patterns of question papers of last 5
years and based on the analysis, we framed the specific topics to compose a set of questions.

The limitation of this guess paper is, 4 options are given for a particular question in the guess paper. The experts who
frame question paper for GATE has extensive experience. They provide 4 options in such a way that students may fall
in trap to commit a mistake in selecting the correct option. Here we have given simple 4 alternatives.

Answering an objective question has its own rule to follow when you have a doubt in choosing the right answer. For
so, we have also attached expert opinion for handling objective question well.

Last year trend (GATE 2016 AR)

No. of No. of No. of Highest Lowest Cut-off Average Standard

students students students marks mark Mark marks deviation
applied appeared qualified obtained obtained obtained
(Approx) (Approx)
6300 5900 1240 75.67 26.00 38.90 43.37 8.32

However we disclaim any liability occurred due to this product.

Hope this manual would turn out to be fruitful.

We wish you all the best for GATE 2017.

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2. Tips & Tricks

Followings are tips & tricks for handling multiple choice questions suggested by experts from open source online
resources. Please note that following insights are not only for Numerical Questions but also for all topics. Some of
following are for paper bound exam (not online). You should skip those.

Tips for solving numerical problems:

Drawing the picture of the problem is very important! The correct picture of a
numerical problem is more than 80 % of success.

Example(GATE 2013): 42 If the slope of a hipped roof is 60 degrees and height

of the roof is 3 m, span
of the room, in m, would be _____
Solution: Span of the room = 2 * (3/tan60) = 3.46 answer.

Having the same units for all variables in the problem. You must ensure that you solve the problem in the
same unit. For example, in a given question, force may be given 40 Newton (N) and length of the beam
would be l= 50 centimetre. For easy and correct solution, you should change the length in meter (l= 0.5m).
Tip: If the option is given as follows: (A) 50Pa (B) 5Pa (C) 10Pa (D) 100Pa. For this type of question, you
must recheck your solution before you choose an answer.

Checking the dimensionality of analytical expressions. To arrive at correct answer, you should always
write the numerical value with its unit.

Example: 63. Area of tense steel per meter width of a reinforced concrete slab is 335 sq mm. If 8 mm rods
are used as reinforcement, then centre to centre spacing of the reinforcement in mm is

Solution: Total area of steel is 335 sq mm. (which is spread in 1m of width)

Area of 8 mm rod = r2 = 3.14 x 4mm x 4mm = 50.24 sq mm { 8mm rod means it has diameter of 8mm
335sqmm
So, total no. of rods spread in 1m of width = = 335 /50.24 = 6.67 { When sqmm is divided
50.24sqmm
by sqmm, it becomes a dimensionless quantity. So, the result is a just number without any unit. Here, we
want to calculate no. of rods, which does not have any dimension. So, our calculation is in right
direction.

So, distance between two rods will be 1m/6.67 = 1000 mm/6.67 = 150 mm Answer { Here, please note
that we are dividing 1000mm /6.67 and not 1m/6.67. In the question per meter is mentioned. But for
correct answer we need to convert 1m to 1000mm.

Source:1
Taking Multiple Choice Exams

Studying for a multiple choice exam requires a special method of preparation distinctly different from an essay exam.
Multiple choice exams ask a student to recognize a correct answer among a set of options that include 3 wrong
answers (called distracters ), rather than asking the student to produce a correct answer entirely from his/her own mind.

For many reasons, students commonly consider multiple choice exams easier than essay exams. Perhaps the most
obvious reasons are that:

The correct answer is guaranteed to be among the possible responses. A student can score points with a lucky
guess.

Many multiple choice exams tend to emphasize basic definitions or simple comparisons, rather than asking
students to analyze new information or apply theories to new situations.

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Because multiple choice exams usually contain many more questions than essay exams, each question has a
lower point value and thus offers less risk.

Despite these factors, however, multiple choice exams can actually be very difficult and are in this course.
Consider that:

Because multiple choice exams contain many questions, they force students to be familiar with a much broader
range of material than essay exams do.

Multiple choice exams also usually expect students to have a greater familiarity with details such as specific
dates, names, or vocabulary than most essay exams do. Students cannot easily "bluff" on a multiple choice
exam.

Finally, because it is much more difficult for a teacher to write good multiple choice questions than to design
essay questions, students often face higher risks due to unintended ambiguity.

Answering Multiple Choice Questions

There are many strategies for maximizing your success on multiple choice exams. The best way to improve your
chances, of course, is to study carefully before the exam. There is no good substitute for knowing the right answer.
Even a well-prepared student can make silly mistakes on a multiple choice exam, however, or can fall prey to
distracters that look very similar to the correct answer.

Here are a few tips to help reduce these perils:

Always cover up the possible responses with a piece of paper or with your hand while you read the stem, or
body of the question.

Try to anticipate the correct response before you are distracted by seeing the options that your instructor has provided.
Then, uncover the responses.

If you see the response that you anticipated, circle it and then check to be sure that none of the other responses
is better.

If you do not see a response that you expected, then consider some of the following strategies to eliminate
responses that are probably wrong.

None of these strategies is infallible. A smart instructor will avoid writing questions for which these strategies work,
but you can always hope for a lapse of attention.

1. Responses that use absolute words, such as "always" or "never" are less likely to be correct than ones that use
conditional words like "usually" or "probably."

2. "Funny" responses are usually wrong.

3. "All of the above" is often a correct response. If you can verify that more than one of the other responses is
probably correct, then choose "all of the above."

4. "None of the above" is usually an incorrect response, but this is less reliable than the "all of the above" rule. Be
very careful not to be trapped by double negatives.

5. Look for grammatical clues. If the stem ends with the indefinite article "an," for example, then the correct
response probably begins with a vowel.

6. The longest response is often the correct one, because the instructor tends to load it with qualifying adjectives
or phrases.

7. Look for verbal associations. A response that repeats key words that are in the stem is likely to be correct.

8. If all else fails, choose response (b) or (c). Many instructors subconsciously feel that the correct answer is
"hidden" better if it is surrounded by distracters. Response (a) is usually least likely to be the correct one.
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Courtesy: Center for Teaching Excellence

Source 2

Taking the Test

Look Over the Test and Pace Yourself

When you first get the exam, don't just plunge into answering test items. Instead, thumb through the onscreen pages
and get the lay of the land. How many questions are there? How many different sections? Are some questions worth
more points than others? Once you've looked through the entire test, try to estimate what pace you should maintain in
order to finish approximately 10 minutes before the period is over. That way, you'll have a little time at the end to
check for mistakes like skipped questions or misread items.

Some of the worst problems occur when students enter a time warp and forget to check the clock, or when they spend
too much time on one or two difficult items. To prevent this from happening, one trick you can use is to scribble the
desired "finish time" time for each section right on the test booklet. That way, you'll be prompted to check the clock
after completing each part of the exam.

Take Short Breaks

Try taking a few breaks during the exam by stopping for a moment, shutting your eyes, and taking some deep breaths.
Periodically clearing your head in this way can help you stay fresh during the exam session. Remember, you get no
points for being the first person to finish the exam, so don't feel like you have to race through all the items -- even two
or three 30-second breaks can be very helpful.

Don't Skip Around

Skipping around the exam can waste valuable time, because at some point you will have to spend time searching for
the skipped questions and re-reading them. A better approach is to answer each question in order. If you are truly
baffled by a question, mark the answer you believe to be right, place a question mark next to the question, and come
back to it later if you have time. Try to keep these flagged questions to a bare minimum (e.g., fewer than 10% of all
items).

Don't Be Afraid to Change Your First Answer

Even though first answers are often correct, you shouldn't be afraid to change your original answer if, upon reflection,
it seems wrong to you. Dozens of studies over the past 70 years have found that students who change dubious answers
usually improve their test scores. For example, a study of 1,561 introductory exams found that when students changed
their answers, they went from wrong to right 51% of the time, right to wrong 25% of the time, and wrong to a different
wrong answer 23% of the time (Source: Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, Vol. 88, 725-735).

What To Do If More Than One Answer Seems Correct

If you're utterly stumped by a question, here are some strategies to help you narrow the field and select the correct
answer:

1. Ask yourself whether the answer you're considering completely addresses the question. If the test answer is
only partly true or is true only under certain narrow conditions, then it's probably not the right answer. If you
have to make a significant assumption in order for the answer to be true, ask yourself whether this assumption
is obvious enough that the instructor would expect everyone to make it. If not, dump the answer overboard.

2. If you think an item is a trick question, think again. Very few instructors would ever write a question intended
to be deceptive. If you suspect that a question is a trick item, make sure you're not reading too much into the
question, and try to avoid imagining detailed scenarios in which the answer could be true. In most cases, "trick
questions" are only tricky because they're not taken at face value.

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3. Syllabus 2017

Section 1: Architecture and Design Visual composition in 2D and 3D; Principles of Art and Architecture; Organization of
space; Architectural Graphics; Computer Graphics concepts of CAD, BIM, 3D modeling and Architectural rendition;
Programming languages and automation. Anthropometrics; Planning and design considerations for different building types;
Site planning; Circulation- horizontal and vertical; Barrier free design; Space Standards; Building Codes; National Building
Code. Elements, construction, architectural styles and examples of different periods of Indian and Western History of
Architecture; Oriental, Vernacular and Traditional architecture; Architectural developments since Industrial Revolution;
Influence of modern art on architecture; Art nouveau, Eclecticism, International styles, Post Modernism, Deconstruction in
architecture; Recent trends in Contemporary Architecture; Works of renowned national and international architects.

Section 2: Building Materials, Construction and Management Behavioral characteristics and applications of different
building materials viz. mud, timber, bamboo, brick, concrete, steel, glass, FRP, AAC, different polymers, composites.
Building construction techniques, methods and details; Building systems and prefabrication of building elements; Principles
of Modular Coordination; Estimation, specification, valuation, professional practice; Construction planning and equipments;
Project management techniques e.g. PERT, CPM etc.

Section 3: Building and Structures Principles of strength of materials; Design of structural elements in wood, steel and
RCC; Elastic and Limit State design; Structural systems in RCC and Steel; Form and Structure; Principles of Pre-stressing;
High Rise and Long Span structures, gravity and lateral load resisting systems; Principles and design of disaster resistant
structures.
Section 4: Environmental Planning and Design Ecosystem- natural and man-made ecosystem; Ecological principles;
Concepts of Environmental Impact Analysis; Environmental considerations in planning and design; Thermal comfort,
ventilation and air movement; Principles of lighting and illumination; Climate responsive design; Solar architecture;
Principles of architectural acoustics; Green Building- Concepts and Rating; ECBC; Building Performance Simulation and
Evaluation; Environmental pollution- types, causes, controls and abatement strategies.

Section 5: Urban Design Concepts and theories of urban design; Public Perception; Townscape; Public Realm; Urban
design interventions for sustainable development and transportation; Historical and modern examples of urban design; Public
spaces, character, spatial qualities and Sense of Place; Elements of urban built environment urban form, spaces, structure,
pattern, fabric, texture, grain etc; Principles, tools and techniques of urban design; Urban renewal and conservation; Site
planning; Landscape design; Development controls FAR, densities and building byelaws.

Section 6: Urban Planning and Housing Planning process; Types of plans - Master Plan, City Development Plan, Structure
Plan, Zonal Plan, Action Area Plan, Town Planning Scheme, Regional Plan; Salient concepts, theories and principles of
urban planning; Sustainable urban development; Emerging concepts of cities - Eco-City, Smart City, Transit Oriented
Development (TOD), SEZ, SRZ etc.
Housing; Concepts, principles and examples of neighbourhood; Housing typologies; Slums; Affordable Housing; Housing
for special areas and needs; Residential densities; Standards for housing and community facilities; National Housing
Policies, Programs and Schemes.

Section 7: Planning Techniques and Management Tools and techniques of Surveys Physical, Topographical, Landuse
and Socioeconomic Surveys; Methods of non-spatial and spatial data analysis; Graphic presentation of spatial data;
Application of G.I.S and Remote Sensing techniques in urban and regional planning; Decision support system and Land
Information System.
Urban Economics; Law of demand and supply of land and its use in planning; Social, Economical and environmental cost
benefit analysis; Techniques of financial appraisal; Management of Infrastructure Projects; Development guidelines such as
URDPFI; Planning Legislation and implementation Land Acquisition Act, PPP etc.; Local self-governance.

Section 8: Services, Infrastructure and Transportation Building Services: Water supply; Sewerage and drainage systems;
Sanitary fittings and fixtures; Plumbing systems; Principles of internal and external drainage system; Principles of
electrification of buildings; Intelligent Buildings; Elevators and Escalators - standards and uses; Air-Conditioning systems;
Firefighting Systems; Building Safety and Security systems.
Urban Infrastructure Transportation, Water Supply, Sewerage, Drainage, Solid Waste Management, Electricity and
Communications.
Process and Principles of Transportation Planning and Traffic Engineering; Road capacity; Traffic survey methods; Traffic
flow characteristics; Traffic analyses and design considerations; Travel demand forecasting; Land-use transportation -
urban form inter-relationships; Design of roads, intersections, grade separators and parking areas; Hierarchy of roads and
level of service; Traffic and transport management and control in urban areas,; Mass transportation planning; Paratransits
and other modes of transportation, Pedestrian and slow moving traffic planning; Intelligent Transportation Systems.
Principles of water supply and sanitation systems; water treatment; Water supply and distribution system; Water harvesting
systems; Principles, Planning and Design of storm water drainage system; Sewage disposal methods; Methods of solid waste
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management - collection, transportation and disposal; Recycling and Reuse of solid waste; Power Supply and
Communication Systems, network, design and guidelines.
4. Important Topics

4.1. Acoustics

Sound is such a common part of everyday life that we rarely appreciate all of its functions. It provides enjoyable
experiences such as listening to music or to the singing of birds.

Yet, too often in our modern society, sound annoys us. Many sounds are unpleasant or unwanted - these are called
noise. However, the level of annoyance depends not only on the quality of the sound, but also our attitude towards it.
For example the type of music enjoyed by some people could be regarded as noise by others, especially if it is loud.

The branch of science which deals with the planning of a building to provide the best quality audible sound to audience
is termed as architectural acoustics or acoustics of the building.

Intensity Level (dB)

Bel & Decibell:

Whenever the intensity of sound increases by a factor of 10, the increase in the intensity is said to be 1 bel (A unit
named after Alexander Graham Bell, the inventor of telephone)

Therefore dynamic range of audibility of the human ear is 12 bels or 120 dB. When the intensity increases by a factor
of 100.1, the increase in intensity is 0.1 bel or 1dB.

in decibel

10 log10 I
I
L =
0
I0: base intensity (10-16 W/cm2, hearing threshold)
I: intensity (W/cm2)

For the intensity level change = 1 dB

10 log10
I
1 =
0
I
I
= 1.26 (1.4)
I0
If I = I0,
L = 10 log 1 = 0

This represents the threshold of audibility.

It means that intensity level alters by 1dB when intensity of sound changes by 26%

Intensity levels of different sounds

Sr. No. Sound Intensity level (in db)

(1) Threshold of hearing 0

(2) Rustle of leaves 10

(3) Whisper 15 20

(4) Normal conversation 60 65

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4.4. Miscellaneous Topics:

For other topics such as CPM/PERT, Heat etc are briefly described along with the question asked in the exams.

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5. GATE QUESTION PAPERS

GATE 2016

Q1. It takes 10s and 15s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to completely pass a
telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is 150 m. The magnitude of the
difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________. (1 mark)
(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0

Solution: Speed of the first train = length/time = 120/10 = 12m/s

Speed of the second train = length/time = 150/15 = 10m/s
2.0 m/s is the difference in the train speed. Answer: (A)

Q2. The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________. (1 mark)
(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64

Answer: 97 is the odd number out. All other numbers are squares.

324 = 18*18
441 = 21*21
64 = 8*8 Answer: (C)

Q3. A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a slope of
0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit? (2 marks)

(A) 0.030 (B) 0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030

Solution: The equation of a line is

y = mx + c where m is the slope & c is the y-intercept
Now, In this question x is replaced with lnx
So, the equation of line becomes,
y = mlnx + c
or, y = -0.02lnx + c
We have given with abscissa which is essentially x-intercept. So, now we have to find 'c' the y-intercept.
for, y = 0, lnx = 0.1 (given in the question)
Putting the value,
0 = -0.02x0.1 + c
or, c = 0.002
So, the equation of line becomes,
y = -0.02lnx + 0.002
putting x = 5 (asked in the question)
y = -0.002ln5 + 0.002 = -0.002x1.6 + 0.002 = -0.03
(ln5 = 1.6) Answer: (A)

Q4. Find the area bounded by the lines 3x+2y=14, 2x-3y=5 in

the first quadrant. (2 marks)

(A) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35

Solution: Let orange line be, 3x+2y=14

and blue line be, 2x-3y=5

Solving both equation, we get, (x=4, y=1) the intersection points

of the lines. Figure: Intersection points.
To get the required area in the first quadrant, we have to deduct the area of the triangle formed by the orange line, blue
line & the x-axis from the area bounded by the orange line in the first quadrant.

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Area of the triangle = 1/2 x base x height = 1/2 x B x A = 1/2 x 13/6 x 1 = 13/12 .............(P)

Area bounded by orange line and X & Y axis

= (1/2) x (x-intercept) x (y-intercept) = 1/2x14/2x7 = 98/6 ................(Q)

So, required area = (Q) - (P) = 98/6 - 13/12 = 183/12 = 15.25 Answer: (C) 15.25

Q5. The velocity V of a vehicle along a straight line is measured in

m/s and plotted as shown with respect to time in seconds. At the
end of the 7 seconds, how much will the odometer reading increase
by (in m)? (2 marks)

(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Solution: The odometer will read 5. (The area shaded under the graph).
Odometer is an instrument for measuring the distance travelled by a
wheeled vehicle. So, you have to just count the no. of squares made by
triangles of the graph. Answer: (D) 5 Figure: Odometer graph.

Q6. The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is (1 mark)

(A) W/(m K) (B) W/(m2 K) (C) mK/W (D) m2K/W

Solution: W/(m K) (Watt per meter per degree Kelvin)

Possible Intent: To test the difference between conductivity & conductance.

K-value Thermal Conductivity

Thermal conductivity is the time rate of steady state heat flow through a unit area of a homogeneous material induced
by a unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to that unit area, W/mK.

k = q(L/T) Where,

L Thickness of the specimen (m)

T Temperature (K)
q Heat flow rate (W/m2)

C-value Thermal Conductance

Thermal conductance is the time rate of steady state heat flow through a unit area of a material or construction induced
by a unit temperature difference between the body surfaces, in W/m2K. C-value, hence, is the reciprocal of the R-
value and can be expressed as Equation.

Consequently, the value of the thermal conductance can be calculated by dividing the thermal conductivity with the
thickness of the specimen. Answer: (A )

Q7. In a residential neighbourhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the
population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighbourhood is ________ (1 mark)

Solution: Let, area of the plot be x.

Net density/ Gross density = (8000/0.5x)/(8000/x) = 2 Answer
Q8. A hemispherical earth mound of 3 meter diameter is proposed to be constructed in a childrens park. If the
proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:2, the estimated volume of soil in cubic meters is ________
(1 mark)

Solution: Volume of sphere is 4/3(r3)

Volume of hemisphere = x4/3 (22/7x3/2x3/2x3/2) = 99/14
So, volume of mud = 3/5x(99/14) = 4.24 CuM Answer

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Q9. One litre of acrylic paint can cover 16 sqm of wall area for the first coat and 24 sqm for the second coat. The
walls of a lecture hall measuring 12m 8m 4m (L B H) need to be painted with two coats of this paint. The
hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12 sqm. The number of 4 litre paint containers required will be
__________ (2 marks)

Answer: (The answer provided by the official GATE, is 4)

Q10. The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm 125 mm 75 mm) for laying one course of a 250 mm
thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be ___________ (2 marks)

Answer: 36

Q11. In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent
respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the decadal
population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the town in 2011 was
__________ (2 marks)

Solution: Working population in 2001 = 9000

In 2011, total population = 30,000 + 6% of 30,000 = 31,800
Now, 34% of 31,800 is the work force = 10812
So, increase in work force = 10812 9000 = 1812 Answer

Q12. In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope. Weight of
the lift car is 750 kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000 kg. Assuming a factor of safety of 20 for
the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75 kg, the passenger capacity of the lift is ____________

Solution: Usable strength of steel rope = 39000/20 = 1950 kg

Strength of steel rope considering liftcar weight = 1950 750 = 1200kg
Capacity of lift = 1200/75 = 16 person Answer

Q13. A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each duct is
0.35 sqm. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5 m/s. The temperature difference between the ambient air and supply
air is 10 C. Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250 J/m3 C. Assuming one Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5
kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be_____________ (2 marks)

Solution: Total area of the duct = 4 x 0.35 = 1.4 sqm

Total air volume in the room collected in 1 hr (3600 sec) = 1.4 x 0.5 x 3600 = 2520 cum
Total energy required = mst = 2520 x 1250 x 10 = 31500000 Joule
Load in TR = (31500000/3.5KW)/3600 = (31500000/3500)/3600 = 2.5 Answer

Q14. Find the reverberation time of room 4m x 3m x 3m (LBH) with the help of following data.

Wall Ceiling Floor

Percentage area 30 70 40 60 100
Absorption coefficient 0.4 0.1 0.6 0.1 0.1

Solution: t = 0.16* [(V/A)] = 0.16 [(4x3x3)/15.44] = 0.37 Sec

Calculation of 'A'
Wall area = perimeter of wall x height = [2(4+3)] x [4] = 56 sqm = P
Ceiling area = 4x3 = 12 sqm = Q
Floor area = 4x3 = 12 sqm R
So, A = P[(0.4 x 30%) + (0.1 x 70%)] + Q[(0.6 x 40%) + (0.1 x 60%)] + R (0.1 x 100%)
= P[(0.4 x 0.3) + (0.1 x 0.7)] + Q[(0.6 x 0.4) + (0.1 x 0.6)] + R (0.1 x 1)
= 56[(0.4 x 0.3) + (0.1 x 0.7)] + 12[(0.6 x 0.4) + (0.1 x 0.6)] + 12 (0.1 x 1)
= 56(0.12 + 0.07) + 12(0.24 + 0.06) + 12 x 0.1
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= 56 x 0.19 + 12 x 0.3 + 1.2
= 10.64 + 3.6 + 1.2
= 15.44 Answer: 0.37 (0.44 to 0.46 answer by official GATE)

Q15. A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR of 2.0.
If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full FAR in both cases will be
___________ (2 marks)

Solution: Let site area be 100 unit. FAR = 2 means built up area = 2x100 = 200 unit. As each floor has equal area, so
each floor area = 200/4 = 50 unit. So ground coverage = 50 sqm.
In the second case, site area = 100 unit. Built up area = 220 as FAR=2.2
Ground coverage = 220/4 = 55
So ground coverage is increased from 50 to 55. Therefore,
change in % = 10% Answer: 10

Q16. The difference in invert levels between two pits

separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter. An
intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance
of 18 meter from the pit at higher level. Maintaining the
same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and
the pit at lower level in mm will be _________ (2 marks) Figure: Solution diagram, Q.No. 37

Solution: 30/1= 12/x => x = 12/30 = 0.4 m = 400mm. Answer: 400

Q17. A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of installation
and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected to generate 600 kWh of
electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring the discount rate, the payback period
of the investment in years is____________ (2 marks)

Solution: Let the payback time be P year.

So, 240000 + 6000P = 600x5x12xP
or, 240000 +6000P = 36000P
or, 240000 = 30000P
or, P = 8 Years Answer: 8

Q18. In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of areas of
the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no profit no loss
situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge in percentage payable per
HIG unit will be ____________ (2 marks).

Solution: Let,

No. of LIG = 1
No. of MIG = 1
No. of HIG = 2

Total area of LIG = 1x3 = 3 unit

Total area of MIG = 1x5 = 5 unit
Total area of HIG = 2x8 = 16 unit
Also assume,
Cost of construction for all LIG = 3unit
Cost of construction for all MIG = 5unit
Cost of construction for all HIG = 16 unit

As 10% is on LIG, so 10% 3 unit = 0.3 would be burden on HIG

As 10% is on MIG, so 10% 5 unit = 0.5 would be burden on HIG

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 GATE NUMERICALS

Total 0.3 + 0.5 = 0.8 would be burden on HIG cost which totals 16 unit
So, % change in cost = (0.8/16) x100% = 5% Answer: 5

Q19. A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water tank
with the capacity of 10,000 litres. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to fill the tank
completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec2 and efficiency of the pump as 80 percent, the
power requirement of the pump in kW will be __________ (2 marks).

Solution: Power = Energy/ Time = Work Done/ Time = mgh/30min = 10000x10x18/1800 sec = 1000
As the pump is working at 80% efficiency, power = 10/8 (1000) =1250 Watt =1.25 Watt Answer: 1.25

Q20. A lamp source of 3200 candela is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the work-plane. It
subtends an angle of incidence of 60o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the centre of the
work plane in Lux is __________ (2 marks).

Answer: 200 (100 by GATE official)

We have to find x

Cos 60o = 2/x

or, 1/2 = 2/x
or, x = 4

Solution: E(lux)= I (candela)/distance square

= 3200/4x4 = 200 Figure: Solution diagram, Q.No. 49.

Q21. A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are
mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be _____________ (2 marks).

To complete the project (1) to (6), we have four paths to complete.

(1) > (2) > (5) > (6) and it takes 7 + 3 + 4 = 14 weeks
(1) > (3) > (4) > (6) and it takes 6 + 5 + 3 = 14 weeks
(1) > (3) > (5) > (6) and it takes 6 + 8 + 4 = 18 weeks
(1) > (3) > (4) > (5) > (6) and it takes 6 + 5 + 0 + 4 = 15 weeks

The longest duration time is 18 weeks during which all activity paths would be completed. So, the completion time for
the project would be 18 weeks.

Answer: 18

Q22. A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96 kN-m. The moment of inertia of the beam
section is 24,000 cm4. The bending stress at 100 mm above the neutral axis of the beam in MPa will be
____________ (2 marks).

Solution: Bending stress = 96x1000x0.1/24000x10-8 = 400 x 106 Pa = 400MPa

M = the internal bending moment about the sections neutral axis

y = the perpendicular distance from the neutral axis to a point on the section
I = the moment of inertia of the section area about the neutral axis

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 GATE NUMERICALS
Q23. A 250 mm 250 mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible compressive stress
of concrete and steel are 8 N/mm2 and 150 N/mm2 respectively. The axial load carrying capacity of the column in
kN is _____________ (2 marks).

Answer: 826 (585 - 595 by GATE official)

Solution:

Pu =0.4 fck Ac + 0.67 fy Asc

Pu = 0.4 x (8N/mm2) x 62500 mm2 (1-1/100) + 0.67 x 150N/mm2 x 62500 mm2 (1/100)
= 62500 [(0.4 x 8 x 0.99) + (0.67 x 150 x 0.1)]
= 62500 [3.168 + 10.050]
= 62500x13.218 = 826125N = 826 kN

where
Pu= factored axial load on the member,
fck= characteristic compressive strength of the concrete,
Ac= area of concrete,
fy= characteristic strength of the compression reinforcement, and
Asc= area of longitudinal reinforcement for columns.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER 2016

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GATE 2015

1. Solve the following:

(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 2

Solution: 666 = 66-6/66+6 = 60/74

666 = 66+6/66-6 = 74/60
Therefore, (666) (666) = ( 60/74)x(74/60) = 1 Answer : (C)

2. If logx (5/7) = -1/3, then the value of x is

(A) 343/125 (B) 125/343 (C) -25/49 (D) -49/25

Solution: Hope you remember,

log102 = 2 , log103 = 3 , log104 = 4 and so on. [Actually, log10 (102 ) = 2 ]
So, logx (5/7) = -1/3
x-1/3 = 5/7
x1/3 = 7/5
(x1/3)3 = (7/5)3
x = (7/5)3 = 343/125 Answer : (A)

3. Fill in the missing value:

Figure: Part of Q.No. 8 Figure: Solution of Q.No. 8

Answer : 3

5. A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number
of faces of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible.

(A) 1:4 (B) 1:3 (C) 1:2 (D) 2:3

Notes: Let us take an example of a Rubiks cube

assuming each side of 3 units. A Rubiks cube is
made up of 27 small cubes assuming each side of 1
unit.
A cube has 9 faces. So total no. of faces in 27
cubes are 27x6=162. Out of which 6x9=54 are
visible.
So NOT visible faces will be = 162-54= 108 Figure: Rubik's Cube [Support illustration for answer to
Therefore, required ratio = 54/108= =1:2 Q.No.9]
Answer : C

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 GATE NUMERICALS
5. The ratio between illumination at a working point indoor to total light available simultaneously outdoor is
known as

(A) Daylight Factor

(B) Sky Component
(C) Internally Reflected Component
(D) Externally Reflected Component

Answer : A

6. A rectangular beam section of size 300 mm (Width) X 500 mm (depth) is loaded with a shear force of 600 kN.
The maximum shear stress on the section in N/mm2 is_____________

Notes: Maximum shear stress in a beam section = 3/2(F/A) .

F = shear Force & A = cross-sectional Area

So, Maximum shear

= 3/2[(600x1000N)/(300mmx500mm)]
= 6N/mm2 Answer : 6
7. In a 50 meter section of a waste water pipe. if the gradient is 1 in 80, then the fall in millimeter is

Notes, 1:80 => for 80m , fall is 1m

So, for 1m, fall will be 1/80m

So, for 50m, fall will be 1/80x50 = 0.625m = 625mm

Answer : 625

8. A 15 meter long and 3 meter wide driveway needs to be paved with 300 mm X 300 mm square Tiles. If each
packet contains 30 numbers of tiles, then the number of packets to be procured to pave the whole area
is__________________

Notes: Area covered by each tile is 300mmx300mm = 0.3mx0.3m = 0.09sqm

As each packet contains 30 numbers of tiles, area covered by each packet = 0.09x30 = 2.7sqm

Total area o the roadways = 15mx3m = 45sqm

So, no. of required packets= 45sqm/2.7sqm = 16.67 = 17 packets Answer : 16.5 to 17.0
53. The housing stock of a town has total number of 9090 dwelling units. Present population of the town is
45,450. Assuming an average household size of 4.5, the housing shortage in percentage is________

Notes: Present Population = 45,450

Household size = 4.5
So, required no of dwelling units = 45,450/4.5 =10100
Current no of dwelling units = 9090
Shortage = 10100 9090 = 10 Answer
9. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m wide. If the sum of areas of the floor and ceiling is equal to the sum of the area of
its four walls, then the volume of the hall in cubic meter is________

Notes: Area of floor =15 x 12 = 180

Area of ceiling = 15 x 12 = 180
Let the height of the wall be H meter
According to question,
Area of Floor + Area of ceiling = Area of four walls
So, 180 + 180 = wall perimeter x height of wall
So, 360 = [2(15+12)] x H

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 GATE NUMERICALS
So, 360 = 54H
So, H = 20/3 meter
Therefore, volume of room = Length x Breadth x Height = 15 x12 x20/3 = 1200 cubic meter
Answer : 1200

10. The actual roof area of a building is 3,60,000 sqm, which on a site plan measures 25 sq cm. The scale of the
site plan is 1:____

Notes: Let the scale of the plan be 1:X

So, (1/X) 2 = (25 sq cm/ 360000 sqm)
= 25/360000 x10000 sq cm..(1 sqm = 100cm x 100 cm = 10000 sq cm)
= (1/12000x12000) = (1/12000)2
So, 1/X = 1/12000 Answer : 12000

11. If the annual net come from a commercial property is Rs 22,000/- and the interest rate is 8%, then the
capitalized value in rupees of the property in perpetuity is________________
Notes:
Let the value of the property is X
According to question, 8% of X is 22000
(X) x 8/100 = 22000
8X/100 = 22000
X = 275000 Answer Answer : 275000
12. A five storey building is constructed on a 100 m x 50 m plot having coverage of 60% (option 1).
Alternatively, a four storied building is constructed on the same plot with a 50% ground coverage (option2). The
ratio of FARs between options1 and 2 is ______________________

Notes: FAR = Total built up area/ Plot area

Total built up area in option 1 = (coverage area) X (no. of floors) = (100x50x0.6) X (5) = 15000
Total built up area in option 2 = (coverage area) X (no. of floors) = (100x50x0.5) X (4) = 10000
Plot area is common for both options = 100x50 = 5000 sqm
So, FAR 1/FAR 2 = [15000/5000]/[10000/5000] = 1.5 Answer
13. If a roof is treated with a layer of thermal insulation material, the internal heat gain is reduced by 60%. The
U-value of the roof (without thermal insulation) is 3 Wm2/degree centigrade. Assuming a constant temperature
difference between indoor and outdoor, the U-value of the thermal insulation layer in Wm2/degree centigrade
is_____

Notes: We will start from the beginning with

concept.

U-value = 1/ R-value
Following is the basic equation of heat flow,

(1)
Where,

is rate of heat flow

k = Thermal conductivity coefficient
A= surface area of the wall
L= wall thickness
Tf-Ti = temperature difference
Figure: Infrared mapping. Most household heat is lost through
the windows and roof as shown in the figure.
R-value is inversely related to the thermal

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 GATE NUMERICALS
conductivity constant and is also related to thickness, thus:

So, the equation (1) becomes ,

Let,
R-value of thermal insulation material = R1
R-value of the roof = R2 = 1/U-value = 1/3 (given)
R-value of combined set = R1+2
According to question,
Q/t = A (Tf-Ti)/R2(heat transfer rate when there is no insulation)
0.4 x (Q/t) = A (Tf-Ti)/R1+2..(heat transfer rate with insulation)

1/0.4 = R1+2/ R2
1/0.4 = R1+2/ (1/3)
1/ R1+2 = 1.2
Now as per addition of thermal resistance,

R1+2 = R1 + R2
1/1.2 = R1 + 1/3
R1 = 2 Answer

More about U-values:

U-values measure how effective a material is an insulator. The lower the U-value is, the better the material is as a heat
insulator. For example, here are some typical U-values for building materials:
a cavity wall has a U-value of 1.6 W/m
a solid brick wall has a U-value of 2.0 W/m
a double glazed window has a U-value of 2.8 W/m.
The cavity wall is the best insulator and the double glazed window is the worst insulator. Note that you do not need to
remember any U-values for the exam.

Most household heat is lost through the windows and roof as shown in the figure.

Relationship between K-value, R-value & U-value:

K-value (Thermal Conductivity)

Thermal conductivity (also known as Lambda) is the rate at which heat passes through a material, measured in watts
per square metre of surface area for a temperature gradient of one kelvin for every metre thickness.This is expressed as
W/mK. Thermal conductivity is not affected by the thickness of the product.
The lower the conductivity, the more thermally efficient a material is.
Example:
PIR Board: Lambda = 0.022 W/mK
Glass Fibre Roll: Lambda = 0.044 W/mK

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 GATE NUMERICALS
R-Value (Thermal Resistance)
Thermal resistance is the ability of a material to prevent the passage of heat. Its the thickness of the material (in
metres) divided by its conductivity. This is expressed as m2K/W.
If the material consists of several elements, the overall resistance is the total of the resistances of each element. The
higher the R-value, the more efficient the insulation.
Example:
PIR Board: 0.022 W/mK and 100mm thick; R-value = 0.1 metres 0.022 = 4.54 m2K/W
Glass Fibre Roll: 0.044 W/mk and 100mm thick; R-value = 0.1 metres 0.044 = 2.27 m2K/W
N.B. Surfaces and cavities also provide thermal resistance which must be taken into account when calculating U-
values. There are standard figures for the resistances of surfaces and cavities.

U-Value (Thermal Transmittance)

Thermal transmittance, commonly known as the U-value, is a measure of the rate of heat loss of a building component.
The U-value is the sum of the combined thermal resistances of all the elements in a construction, including surfaces, air
spaces, and the effects of any thermal bridges, air gaps and fixings.
The U-value is expressed in watts per square metre, per degree kelvin, or W/m2K.
Calculating U-Values:
Start by calculating the thermal resistances of each element (R-values).
The R-value is the thickness of the product in metres Lambda (thermal conductivity).
Add the R-values of all materials used in the application (including any air gaps) and calculate the reciprocal. The
reciprocal = 1 total of all R-values
Example:
PIR Board 0.022 W/mK100mm thick + Glass Fibre Roll 0.044 W/mK100mm thick
Total combined R-value = 4.54 + 2.27 = 6.81 m2K/W
U-value = 1 6.81 = 0.147 W/m2K Answer : 2

14. A simply supported beam having effective span of 5 meter is

carrying a centrally concentrated load of 16kN. The maximum
bending moment in the beam in kN-m is_________

Notes: Maximum bending moment will at center = PL/4 = 20 Ans.

15. A landscaped garden with irregular profile and minor

undulation, measuring35,000 sqm has a total surface area covered with 20% brick paving, 15% cement concrete
paving, and rest with grass. The peak intensity of rainfall in that region is 70 mm/hr. Tile coefficient of runoff
for brick paving, cement concrete paving and grass is 0.8, 0.9 and 0.5 respectively. The estimated quantity of
runoff in cubic meter/hr for the entire garden area is______________

Notes: Brick paving area = 20% of 35000 = 7000 sqm

Concrete paving area = 15 %of 35000 = 5250 sqm

Grass cover area = 65% of 35000 = 22750 sqm

Water runoff by brick paving = 0.8 x 7000 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 392.0 cum
Water runoff by concrete paving = 0.9 x 5250 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 330.75 cum
Water runoff by grass cover = 0.5 x 22750 sqm area x 0.07 m of rain fall = 796.25 cum
Answer : 1510 to 1530

16. The number of standard cement bags required to prepare 1400 kg of concrete in the ratio of 1:2:4 (mixed by
weight batching)

Notes: 1:2:4 1part cement : 2 part sand : 4 part aggregates

So, To make 7 kg of concrete, amount of cement required = 1 kg

So, To make 1 kg of concrete, amount of cement required = 1/7 kg
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 GATE NUMERICALS
So, To make 1400 kg of concrete, amount of cement required = (1/7)x 1400 = 200 kg
1 bag of cement contains 50 kg of cements
So, no of bags required = 200kg/50 kg = 4 bags Answer : 4
17. A class room measuring 10 m (L) x 8 m (B) x 2.7 m (H) require an Illumination level of 500 lux on the desk
level using 40 W fluorescent lamps with rated output of 5000 lumens each. Assuming utilization factor of 0.5 and
maintenance factor of 0.8, the number of lamps required is_____

Answer : 20
Notes: 500 lux = 500 lumen/meter square
Total lumen required = (500 lumen/meter square) x (Area of the room) = 500 x10x8
Lumen output of one lamp = 5000 lumen (given)
Actually the lumen output of the lamp will be less than 5000 lumen because of utilization factor and maintenance
factor.
So, net lumen output = 5000 x 0.5 x 0.8

Required no. of lamps = Total lumen required / lumen of on lamp = 500x10x8 /5000x0.5x0.8 = 20 Answer

18. Area of tense steel per meter width of a reinforced concrete slab is 335 sq mm. If 8 mm rods are used as
reinforcement, then centre to centre spacing of the reinforcement in mm is

Notes: Total area of steel is 335 sq mm. (which is spread in 1m of width)

Area of 8 mm rod = r2 = 3.14 x 4mmx 4mm = 50.24 sq mm

So, total no. of rods spread in 1m of width = 335/50.24 = 6.67

So, 7 rods are spread in 1 m of width.
So, distance between two rods will be 1m/6.67 = 150 mm Answer : 145 to 155

19. The population of a town as per Census 2011 was 22,730 and the population as per census 2001 was 15,770.
Considering arithmetic projection of growth, the projected population in 2016 will be

Notes: Arithmetic projection of growth Arithmetic progression, example 2, 4, 6, 8, 10

Geometric projection of growth Geometric progression, example 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

In 10 years, growth in population = 22,730 15,770 = 6960

So, in 1 year, population growth would be = 6960/10 = 696
So, in 5 years, population growth would be = 696x5 = 3480 (Arithmetic projection)

So, after 5 years that is in 2016, the population would be = 22730 + 3480 = 26210 (Answer : 26178 to 26210)

20. Two concrete mixers of capacity 200 liters each are used in a construction site to produce 20 cubic meter of
concrete. Ingredient charging, mixing and discharge times are 3 minutes, 7 minutes and 1 minutes respectably.
Assuming a tune loss of 5 minutes per hour of operation, the total time in hours for the mixers to produce the
required amount of concrete will be_________.

Notes: Capacity of the concrete mixers = 2x 200 liters = 2x (200/1000) cubic meter = 0.4 cubic meter
According to question, time taken to produce 0.4 cubic meter of concrete = 3+7+1 = 11 minutes
Time taken to produce 20 cubic meter of concrete = (20/0.4) x 11 minutes = 550 minutes.
As tune loss of 5 min is in an hour
So for 550 minutes, (550/55) x 5min = 50 minutes.
So total time required = 550 + 50 = 600 minutes = 10 hours. Answer : 10
END

GATE 2014

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