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BITSAT 2008
MTP 6/QNS
BRILLIANTS
MOCK TEST 6 Test Booklet Code
FOR STUDENTS OF
F
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
TOWARDS
BITSAT, 2008
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 450
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on the Answer Book with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The candidate should write their Enrolment No. only in the space provided on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. For each correct response, the candidate will get 3 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
5. The test is of 3 hours duration.
6. The test consists of 150 questions.
7. The maximum marks are 450.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side 1
and Side 2 of the Answer Sheet.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited .
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ...........................................................................
Enrolment Number:
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 1

2
PART I: MATHEMATICS
1. If a = log3 log3 log9 729 + 3 log 3 , then Bn

4 1 Bn
3
(3) n B (4) n B 1B4
the value of a is 3 3
3 5. The digit at the unit place in the number

(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4)
2 271995 + 111995 171995 is
2. If , are the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0, then (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 3
the equation whose roots are 22, 13 is 6. If Pn represents the product of all the
coefficient in the expansion of (1 + 2x)n
(1) x2 + x + 1 = 0 (2) x2 x + 1 = 0
19 9
2 5
and 9 Pn + 1 = , then n =
(3) x2 + x 1 = 0 (4) x2 x 1 = 0 9
3. If a is the A.M. and b, c the two G.M.s (1) 19 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 11
between two positive numbers, then
7. Five digit numbers are formed with 0, 1,
b3 + c3 equals
3, 5, 7. The number of numbers in which
at least one digit is repeated is
(1) 4abc (2) 3abc
(1) 96 (2) 2400 (3) 2500 (4) 2404
(3) 2abc (4) abc
8. The number of ways of forming a com-
4. The sum of n terms of the series mittee out of 5 men and 7 women, so
3 15 63
A A + ... is that the committee consists of exactly
4 16 64
twice as many women as men as and
at least two men, is
1 Bn
n
(1) n A 1B4 (2) n 4
3 (1) 420 (2) 350 (3) 70 (4) 280
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3
9. In a football championship, 120 matches point whose position vector is

were played. Every two teams played 2 i A 3 j B 4k, is
one match with each other. Then the
number of participant teams are (1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) 18 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17 13. The complex number z satisfies the
equation |z + 4i| = 3. Then the least
10. If in a right-angled triangle ABC, the value of |z + 3| is
hypotenuse AB = c, then
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
AB AC A BCBA A CACB is
14. If |z2 1| = |z|2 + 1, then z lies on
2
(1) 2c2 (2) c (1) a circle (2) a straight line
2
(3) a parabola (4) an ellipse
(3) 3c2 (4) c2
15. For arbitrary values of and , the
11. a , b , c are non-zero vectors. Then straight line ( + ) x + ( ) y = 2 + 3
a b c = a b c , if passes through the fixed point is
5 1 1 5
(1) a b = bc = ca = 0 (1) , (2) ,
2 2 2 2
(2) a b = ac = 0
5 1
(3) ,B (4) (5, 1)
2 2
(3) b c = ca = 0
16. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the
(4) b c = a b = 0
parabola y2 = 4ax whose one vertex is
at the vertex of the parabola. Then the
12. The distance from the point B i A 2 j A 6k
length of its side is equal to
to the straight line parallel to
6 i A 3 j B 4k and passing through the (1) 8a 3 (2) a 3 (3) 2a 3 (4) 8a

4
17. PN is the perpendicular from a point P square inscribed in the circle is

on a rectangular hyperbola to its
2 2 2 2
asymptote. Then the locus of the mid- l l 2l 2l
(1) (2) (3) (4)
point of PN is 3 6 5 3
(1) a parabola (2) a circle 21. The domain of the function

B1
(3) an ellipse (4) a hyperbola f(x) = sec x is ([x] denotes the integer
xB x
sin 2x A 2 cos x
2 2
1 B sin 2x A 2 sin x
function)
18. 3 A 3 = 28
is satisfied, if (1) R
(1) x R (2) R+ (0, 1)
(2) cos x = 1 (3) R (( 1, 1) I) (the set of integers)
(3) either cos x = 0 or tan x = 1 (4) R+ N
(4) tan x = 1 22. The value of f(0) so that

B1
19. If in a ABC, cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2, A x B cos x
2
then a, b, c are in f x =
B1
2x A tan x
(1) A.P. (2) G.P. is continuous at each point of its
domain is
(3) H.P. (4) none of these
2 1
(1) B 1 (2) 2 (3) (4)
20. In an equilateral triangle of side l, a 3 3 3
circle is inscribed. Then the area of the

5
23. The maximum value of 26. The area of the region bounded by y = x2,
2 y = [x + 1], x 1 and the y-axis is given
f(x) = 1 + 2 sin x + 3 cos2 x 0x is
3 by ([ ] denotes the greatest integer
function)
(1) 3 (2) 3 A 2
3 1 2 7
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
3 3 3
13 13
(3) (4)
2 3 27. Two coins are tossed 5 times. The proba-
bility that an odd number of heads are
obtained is
2
24. The value of ax 3

cos x A b sin x A c dx
(1)
1
2
(2)
3
5
(3)
9
10
(4)
11
20

B
2
ultimately depends upon 28. Number of values of x R, which satisfy
the equation cos x B 4 cos x = 1
(1) b (2) c is
(3) a (4) a and b (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
5 5 5 5
1 A 2 A 3 A ... A n 29. Let a1, a2, ..., a10 be in A.P., h1, h2, ..., h10
25. Lt equals
6
n n be in H.P. If a1 = h1 = 3, a10 = h10 = 6,
then a7 h4 is
1 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) (4)
5 6 5 18
(1) 18 (2) 5 (3) (4)
18 25

6
30. If p1p2 = 2(q1 + q2), then at least one 33. If (0, ) lies on or inside the triangle formed
2
of the equations x + p1 x + q1 = 0 and by the lines 3x + y + 2 = 0, 3y 2x 5 = 0
and 4y + x 14 = 0, then
x2 + p2 x + q2 = 0 has
5 7 5 7
(1) (2)
(1) real roots 2 3 3 2
(2) non-real roots 7 5

(3) (4) none of these
3 2
(3) purely imaginary roots
n
a
(4) none of these 34. Lt = 0 (n being an integer) for
a
a e
31. Tangents are drawn to the ellipse
2 2 (1) no value of n
x y
A = 1 at the ends of the latus
16 12 (2) all values of n
rectum. The area of the quadrilateral so
formed is (3) only negative values of n
(1) 16 sq. units (2) 32 sq. units (4) only positive values of n
sin x
(3) 128 sq. units (4) 64 sq. units
35. Let d F x = e , x > 0.
dx x
1 5
32. If sin x + cos x = and 0 x , then 4
tan x is equal to
5 If 4x e sin x
dx = F(k) F(1), then one of
1
the possible values of k is
4 3 4 3
(1) (2) B (3) B (4)
3 4 3 4 (1) 625 (2) 125 (3) 1024 (4) 256

7
36. Points (0, 0, 0) and (2, 5, 7) are on the 39. A student is allowed to select at most n
same side of a plane 2x + ay + 3z + 1 = 0, if books from a collection of 2n + 1 books.
If the total number of ways in which he
(1) a < 0 (2) a > 0 can select at least one book is 1023,
then the value of n is
B 26 B 26
(3) a < (4) a >
5 5 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
37. Consider the set A of all determinants (of 40. Number of values of which satisfy
square matrices) of order 3 with entries 2 sin4 4 sin2 1 = 0 is
0 or 1 only. Let B be the subset of A con-
sisting of the determinants with value 1. (1) 2
Let C be the subset of A consisting of all
determinants with value 1. Then (2) 4
(1) C is empty (3) infinite
(2) B has as many elements as C (4) equal to the number of values of

1
(3) A = B C satisfying 4 sec2 3 sec + =0
2
(4) B has twice as many elements as C 41. If r 0 and the equation

= A has equal roots,
38. If z1, z2, ..., z7 are the roots of (z + 1)7 + z7 = 0, 2x x Ar x Br
7
then one of the value of is
then the value of Re z k
is
k=1 (1) + (2)
7 7 2
(1) 7 (2) 7 (3) (4)
2 2 (3) A (4) ( )2

8
42. The equation of the parabola with latus 1

A, B and C are respectively p, q and .
rectum joining the points (3, 6) and 2
(3, 2) is If the probability that the student is
1
successful is , then we can have
2 2
(1) (y + 2) = 8(x 5)
(1) p = q = 1
(2) (y 2)2 = 8(x 5)
1
(3) (y 2)2 = 8(x 1) (2) p = q =
2
(4) (y 2)2 = 8(x + 1) (3) p = 0, q = 1
43. If f(x) = [x sin (x)], then f(x) is not (4) infinitely many values of the pairs
(p, q)
(1) continuous at 0
45. If each observation of a raw data whose
(2) continuous in (0, 1) variance is 2, is multiplied by h, then
the variance of new set is
(3) derivable at 1
(1) 2 (2) h22

(4) none of these
(3) h2 (4) h + 2
44. A student appears for tests A, B and C.
He is successful if he passes either in
tests A and B or in tests A and C. The
probabilities of the student passing tests

9
PART II: PHYSICS
46. The antenna current of an AM R

(1) 2R (2)
broadcast transmitter, modulated to a 2
depth of 40% by an audio sine wave is
R
11 A. It increases to 12 A as a result of (3) R (4)
4
simultaneous modulation by another
audio sine wave. What is the 49. The temperature and the surface area
modulation index due to this second of the body are 227C and 0.15 m2
wave? respectively. If its transmitting power is
(1) 0.56 (2) 0.42 negligible and reflecting power is 0.5,
then calculate the thermal power of
(3) 0.64 (4) 0.75 the body.
47. The horizontal flow of fluid depends (Given: = 5.67 104J/m2/s/K)

upon
(1) 300 watt (2) 265.78 watt
(1) pressure difference
(3) 201 watt (4) 320.89 watt
(2) amount of fluid
50. Work done during raising a box on to a
(3) density of fluid platform
(4) all the above (1) depends upon how fast it is raised
48. If an artificial satellite is moving in a (2) does not depend upon how fast it is
circular orbit around the earth with a raised
speed equal to half the magnitude of (3) does not depend upon mass of the
the escape velocity from the earth, the
box
height of the satellite above the
surface of the earth is (4) both (1) and (2) are correct

10
51. In a steady incompressible flow of a the number of the beats per second
liquid becomes 6. The actual frequency of B is
(1) the speed does not change if the (1) 516 Hz (2) 508 Hz
area of cross-section changes (3) 512 Hz (4) none of these
(2) the speed increases if the area of 54. A man swims relative to water with a
cross-section increases velocity greater than river flow velocity.
Then,
(3) the speed decreases if the area of
(1) man may cross the river along
cross-section increases
shortest path
(4) bubbles are produced when the
(2) man cannot cross the river
area of the cross-section increases
(3) man cannot cross the river without
52. Water from a tap emerges vertically drifting
downward with an initial speed of 1m/s.
(4) none of these
The cross-sectional area of the tap is
104 m 2. Assume that the pressure is 55. If a particle is compelled to move
constant throughout the stream of on a given smooth plane curve under
water and that the flow is steady. The the action of given forces in the plane
cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15 m F = xi A yi. Then
below the tap is
(1) F cirdot1dr = xdx A ydy
4 2 5 2
(1) 5 10 m (2) 1 10 m
(2) F cirdot1 dr 12 mv 2
(3) 5.83 105 m2 (4) 2 105 m2

(3) F cirdot1 dr xdx ydy
53. A tuning fork A of frequency 512 Hz
1
produces 4 beats per second when
sounded with a tuning fork B. Due to
(4)
2
2
mv xdx A ydy
filing of the prongs of the tuning fork B,

11
56. For compressible fluid, continuity 59. 5 g of water at 30C and 5 g of ice at
equation is 20C are mixed together in a
calorimeter. The water equivalent of
(1) 1 A 1 v1 = 2 A 2 v2
calorimeter is negligible and specific
heat and latent heat of ice are
(2) 2 A 1 v1 = 1 A 2 v2
0.5 cal/gC and 80 cal/g respectively.
(3) A v = A v The final temperature of the mixture is
1 1 2 2
(1) 0C (2) 8C
A v
1 1 1
(4) = =
A v (3) 4C (4) 2C
2 2 2
60. Choose the correct relation, when the

57. The ratio of the radii of the planets P1
temperature of an isolated black body
and P2 is k. The ratio of acceleration falls from T1 to T2 in time t , and assume
due to gravity is r. The ratio of the c to be a constant.
escape velocities from them will be
(1) t = c 1 1
(1) kr (2) kr B
T T
2 1
k r
(3) (4) 1 1
r k (2) t = c B
2 2
T T
58. Bernoullis equation is applicable to 2 1
points
1 1
(3) t = c B
(1) in a steadily flowing liquid 3 3
T T
2 1
(2) in a stream line
1 1
(3) in a straight line perpendicular to a (4) t = c B
4 4
stream line T T
2 1
(4) in any non-viscous liquid

12
61. The magnetic moments are compared 64. The characteristic emission of artificial
in equal distance method by measuring radioactivity is ______.
(1) distances (1) alpha emission
(2) magnetic lengths (2) + emission
(3) gamma emission

(3) deflections
1
(4) n emission
(4) magnetic masses 0
62. The transfer characteristic graph 65. The magnetic length of a bar magnet
relates________. equals to
(1) half of the length of the magnet

(1) input voltage and output current
(2) twice the length of the magnet
(2) input current and output voltage
(3) nearly the length of the magnet
(3) input voltage and output voltage
(4) the radius of the magnetic field
(4) input current and output current
66. _______ is used to measure the
wavelength of X-ray.
63. ICs are generally from______.
(1) Bainbridge spectrometer
(1) germanium
(2) prism spectrometer
(2) silicon
(3) Bragg spectrometer
(3) carbon
(4) None of these
(4) none of these

13
67. Two small magnets A and B of dipole 69. Characteristic X - rays are due to
moments M0 and 2M0 respectively are
(1) emission of inner orbit electrons
fixed perpendicular to each other with
their north poles in contact. The
(2) re - emission of absorbed X - rays
combination is placed on a floating
body so as to move freely in earths (3) absorption of energy
magnetic field (Shown in Figure), the
value of is (4) excitation of outer orbit electrons
70. The magnetic moments of all atoms in

one domain is equal to
(1) sum of the moments of individual

atoms
1 (2) product of the moments

(1) tan1 (2) (2) sin1
2
(3) zero
B1 1
(3) cos (4) none of these (4) moment of next domain
2
68. The strength of reverse magnetic field 71. Which limits the energy of the
required to remove remanence is accelerating particle in a cyclotron?
called
(1) High voltage
(1) retentivity
(2) Size of cyclotron
(2) residual magnetism
(3) Magnetic field
(3) hysteresis loss
(4) coercivity (4) Phase instability

14
72. Calculate the earths potential. Assume 76. Radio - isotopes are not used to
earth has a surface charge density of
(1) study plant metabolism
1 electron/m2 (Given: the electronic
(2) diagnose diseases
charge = 1.6 1019 C, Earths radius
= 6.4 106 m, 0 = 8.9 1012 C2/Nm2) (3) track the energetic radiation
(4) non-destructive testing

(1) 0.115 V (2) 0.215 V
77. In the given Figure, two point charges q1
(3) 0.225 V (4) 0.185 V
and q2 are placed
73. The lifetime of atoms in its metastable
at distance a and
state is about
b from centre of a
8 6
(1) 10 s (2) 10 s metallic sphere
having charge Q.
(3) 104 s (4) 103 s
Find electric field
74. In an oscillator, the feedback can be due to the metallic
done by a sphere at the point P.
(1) transistor 2 2
(2) rectifier q q
1 1 2
(1) A
4 2 2
(3) step - up transformer 0 a b
(4) step - down transformer 1 Q

(2) 2
75. The wave number equals to the number 4 R
0
of waves
2
2
(1) per kg q q
1 Q 1 2
(3) A A
(2) per second 4 2 2 2
0 R a b
(3) per metre
(4) none of these
(4) crossing per unit area

15
78. The hystersis loop is not used to find out 82. In electron microscope, _____ is used to
(1) coercivity focus the electrons.
(2) number of domains (1) glass convex lens
(3) energy loss per cycle (2) grating
(4) residual magnetism (3) glass prism
79. Which one has zero mass? (4) electrostatic lens
(1) alpha ray 83. The return of excited atoms to their

ground level by themselves is called
(2) beta ray
________ process.
(3) gamma ray
(1) stimulated
(4) neutron
(2) forced
80. The reciprocal of the slope of the
(3) pumped
output characteristic graph of a CE
circuit with Ic along y-axis, gives _____. (4) spontaneous
84. The photoelectric effect does not
(1) input impedance
depend on
(2) output impedance
(1) the frequency of incident light
(3) output admittance
(2) the intensity of accident light
(4) input admittance
(3) anode material
81. Tan-A position is one where the arms
(4) applied voltage
are
85. The pump used to produce vacuum is
(1) along north-south direction
called
(2) parallel to the geographical
(1) compression pump
meridian
(2) pressure pump
(3) along east-west direction
(3) cycle pump
(4) perpendicular to the magnetic
(4) exhaust pump
meridian.

16
PART III: CHEMISTRY
86. In the following reaction; (4) Bohrs theory explains the

spectrum of multielectron system.
K2Cr2O7(aq) + xH2SO4 + ySO2(g) K2SO4 +
Cr2(SO4)3 + zH2O 89. The electronegativity of the following
elements increases in the order
The coefficient of x, y, z are
(1) S < P < N < O (2) P < S < N < O
(1) 1, 3, 1 (2) 4, 1, 4
(3) N < O < P < S (4) N < P < S < O
(3) 3, 2, 3 (4) 2, 1, 2
90. The higher bond energy among the
87. 0.44 g of gas occupies 0.224 L at STP. following is
The gas may be
(1) C O (2) C F
(1) O2 (2) CO
(3) O F (4) N F
(3) CO2 (4) SO2
91. Which of the following combination of
88. Which of the following statement is atomic orbitals is correct?
correct? (1)
(1) The different energy level of
electrons are equally spaced. (2)
(2) The energy of the electron
decreases as the value of n (3)
increases.
(3) Energy of the electron in an atom

(4)
is positive.

17
92. In the hypothetical reaction A 2B, 95. The vant Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
proceeds through the following solution is 2.74. The degree of
sequence of steps dissociation is
A C ; H = q1 (1) 91.3 % (2) 87 %
C D ; H = q2 (3) 90 % (4) 74 %
1 96. Given the bond energies of N N,
D B ; H = q3
2
H H and N H are 945, 436 and 391
The heat of reaction of the process is kJ mol 1 respectively . The enthalpy of
(1) q1 q2 + q3 (2) q1 + q2 + 2q3 the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
is
(3) q1 + q2 2q3 (4) q1 + 2q2 2q3
(1) + 93 kJ mol1 (2) 102 kJ mol1
93. pH of an acid buffer is given by
salt (3) 90 kJ mol1 (4) 105 kJ mol1

(1) pH = pK a A log
acid 97. The equilibrium constant for the
reaction,
salt
(2) pH = pK a B log
acid H2O(l) + CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g) is
salt 0.44 at 1260 K.

(3) pH = K a A log acid The equilibrium constant for the
reaction,
1 1 1
(4) pH = pK A
w
pK A
b
log c
2 2 2 2H2(g) + 2CO2(g) 2H2O(l) + 2CO(g) at
94. A monoprotic acid of 0.1 M aqueous 1260 K is equal to
solution ionises to 0.001%. Its ionisation (1) 0.44 (2) 0.88
constant Ka is
(3) 5.16 (4) 12.16
(1) 1 103 (2) 1 106
(3) 1 108 (4) 1 1011

18
98. Which of the following is the weakest 101. The unimolecular reaction among the
base? following is
B10
(1) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
(1) C H NH ; K = 3.8 10
6 5 2 b
1
(2) N2O5(g) N2O4(g) + O
B5
2 2 g
(2) NH OH: K = 1.8 10
4 b (3) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)
(3) C H NH ; K = 5.6 10
B4 (4) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(s)
2 5 2 b
102. Which of the following is an example of
B10 homogenous catalysis?
(4) C3 H7 N; K
b
= 6.3 10
(1) Habers process is synthesis of
99. In the following chemical reaction, ammonia
(2) Catalytic hydrogenation of oils
Ag2O + H2O + 2e 2Ag + 2OH
(3) Acid hydrolysis of methylacetate
(1) water is oxidised (4) Catalytic conversion of water gas
to methanol
(2) silver is oxidised
103. Which of the following statement is
(3) silver is reduced false?
(4) it is not a redox reaction (1) Quartz is crystalline whereas glass is

amorphous.
100. The emf of Daniel cell is 1.10 volt. The
(2) Amorphous solids do not have any
changes in free energy in kJ is
short range or long range order.
(1 Faraday is 96500 Coulomb per mol)
(3) Amorphous solids do not have a
(1) 212.30 kJ (2) 212.30 kJ sharp melting point.
(3) 106.15 kJ (4) 106.15 kJ (4) Amorphous solids on heating can

become crystalline.

19
104. Among the following statements which 107. The dissociation of Al(OH)3 by aqueous
is/are correct? NaOH results in the formation of
(A) The radius of an anion is shorter
(1) [Al (H2O)4(OH)2]
than that of the parent atom.
(B) The ionisation energy generally (2) [Al (H2O)3(OH)3]

increases with increasing atomic
number in a period. (3) [Al (H2O)2(OH)4]
(C) The electronegativity of an
element is the ability of an atom to (4) [Al(H2O)6(OH)3]
attract an electron.
108. An ammoniacal solution of CuCl
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C absorbs
(3) B (4) D
(1) H2 (2) SO2 (3) H2SO4 (4) CO
105. Which of the following hydroxide is least
stable to heat and decomposes to its 109. NaH reacts with B2H6 in a solvent Y to
oxide? give a tetrahedral compound Z, which
is used as a reducing agent in organic
(1) KOH (2) NaOH
synthesis. The Y and Z in the above
(3) CsOH (4) LiOH reaction are
106. Beryllium with hot strong sodium (1) C2H6 , C2H5ONa

hydroxide liberate hydrogen gas and
getting converted to (2) C2H5OH, NaBH4
Be + 2NaOH X + H2(g); X is
(3) C2H5OC2H5 , NaBH4
(1) BeO (2) Be(OH)2
(4) CH3OH, CH3ONa
(3) Na2BeO2 (4) BeO3

20
110. Compounds A and B are treated with 112. Match List I with List II and select the
dil. H2SO4 separately, where the gases correct answer from the codes given
liberated are Y and Z respectively. Y below the list:
turns acidified K2Cr2O7 paper green List I List II
while Z turns lead acetate paper black. (A) Nitromethane (P) Conformation
The compounds A and B are isomerism
respectively (B) Methyl (Q) Optical
diethylamine isomerism
(1) Na2SO3, Na2S (C) Butane (R) Cis-trans
isomerism
(2) NaCl, Na2CO3 (D) 2, 3-dihydroxy-1, 4 (S) Tautomerism
butane-dioic acid
(3) Na2S, Na2S2O3 (T) Metamerism
A B C D
(4) Na2SO3, Na2SO4 (1) S P Q T
(2) S T P Q
111. Compounds formed when soluble (3) R S T P
gases get entrapped in the cavities of
(4) S R Q P
crystal lattice of certain organic and
113. Which statement is wrong?
inorganic compounds are called
(1) For SN2 reaction, order of reactivity of
(1) interstitial compounds alkyl halides is 1 > 2 > 3 .
(2) For SN1 reaction, order of reactivity of
(2) clathrates
alkyl halides is 1 < 2 < 3 .
(3) hydrates
(3) SN2 reaction takes place through
(4) picrates carbocation formation.
(4) SN1 reaction takes place through
carbocation formation.

21
114. 116. The products of the following reaction A

and B are respectively.
(1) 2, 3-dibromobutane,
2, 3-dibromobutane (both cases)
The correct answer for the above
reactions is (2) d-2, 3-dibromobutane,
l-2, 3-dibromobutane
(1) only I is correct
(2) only II is correct (3) Racemic mixture of

2, 3-dibromobutane
(3) both are correct
(4) Racemic mixture of
(4) both are wrong 2, 3-dibromobutane,
meso 2, 3-dibromobutane
115. Which of the following statement is
true?
117. Select the wrong statement.
(1) An activating group is electron
(1) CCl4 is inflammable.
withdrawing group.
(2) An activating group activates all (2) CH3I is used as an antiseptic for
position in the benzene ring. dressing wound.
(3) The effect of any group whether (3) CH3CH2I is more reactive than
activating or deactivating is the CH3CH2Cl towards KCNI.
strongest at ortho and para
position of the benzene ring. (4) Passing chloroform vapours over
(4) Methyl group in toluene activates hot silver, ethylne is produced.
all position in toluene.

22
118. (2) All carbohydrates can be

represented by the general
formula Cx(H2O)y .
The product Y is
(3) All enzymes are globular protein.
(1) lactic acid (2) ethylamine
(3) propylamine (4) alanine (4) Insulin secreted by pancreas is

responsible for carbohydrate
119. A new C - C bond formation is possible metabolism.
in
122. Which is not true about polymer?
(1) Cannizzaros reaction
(1) Polymers do not carry any charge.
(2) Halform reaction
(2) Polymers have high viscosity.
(3) Clemmensen reduction
(3) Polymers are insoluble in water
(4) Reimer-Tiemanns reaction and inert.
120. Non-proteinous substance which contain

(4) Polymers are poisonous to health.
enzymes require for the activity is called
123. Lanthanide contraction is due to
(1) catalyst (2) inhibitors
(1) atomic radii
(3) co-enzymes (4) biocatalyst
121. Which statement is wrong? (2) atomic as well as M+2 ion radii
(1) Pyranose ring structure contains (3) multivalence electrons

five carbon and one oxygen
atom. (4) different oxidation states

23
124. The products A, B and C of the following reactions are respectively
A B C
(1) CH3CH2Cl CHI3 CH3CH2Cl
(2) CH3OCH3 CH3CH2I CH3COOC2H5
(3) CH3CH2Cl CH3CH3 CH3COOC2H5
(4) CH3CH2Cl CH3CH2I CH3COOC2H5
125. The products A, B and C of the following reactions are respectively
A B C
(1) CH3CH2OH CH4 CH2BrCOOH
(2) CH3CH2OH CH3COONa CHBr3
(3) CH3CH2Cl CH3COONa CH2BrCOOH
(4) CH3CH2OH CH3COCH3 CH3COBr

24
PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING
(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY 129. CREDULOUS
Directions for questions 126 to 128: In each of (1) easily deceived (2) unbelievable
the following questions a capitalised word is
followed by four words numbered 1 to 4. (3) suspicious (4) trusts
Choose the word that is most opposite to the
130. ACUITY
meaning of the capitalised word and mark
your answer in the appropriate place in your (1) bitterness (2) sharpness
answer sheet.
(3) active (4) accept
126. PRODIGIOUS
131. ENAMORED
(1) portentous (2) astounding
(1) wearing armour
(3) usual (4) monstrous
127. GALLANT (2) charmed
(1) brave (2) intrepid (3) modest
(3) valiant (4) cowardly (4) conceited
128. BEWITCH 132. RECUMBENT

(1) charm (2) disillusionize (1) leaning (2) twisted
(3) confound (4) embarrass
(3) elected (4) bent
Directions for questions 129 to 133: Each question
133. DISCURSIVE
below has a word capitalised followed by four
words or phrases numbered 1 to 4. Choose (1) discuss (2) curse
the word that has nearly the same meaning
as the capitalised word. (3) credence (4) digressive

25
Directions for questions 134 to 136: Each of the 137. The teacher __________ the dozing
following sentence has a mistake in grammar students to pay attention.
usage or idiom. Each sentence is broken up
(1) admonished (2) accredited
into four parts sequentially 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Choose that part which has an error and mark (3) annulled (4) battered
accordingly.
138. He tried to ___________ the accident by
134. (1) My brother-in-laws slamming on his brakes.
(2) who live in Mumbai (1) abhor (2) avert
(3) have come (3) barter (4) abjure
Directions for questions 139 and 140: Choose

(4) to stay with us
from among the alternatives given, the word
135. (1) The teacher which will substitute the underlined expression
in each of the following questions and mark
(2) together with his the same in your answer sheet.
(3) wife and daughter 139. Gusts of wind quickly drove away the
smoke.
(4) were drowned
(1) dissipated (2) dissected
136. (1) No sooner did the thief
(3) weakened (4) derisioned
(2) see the policeman
140. Our new computer has speeded up
(3) that he jumped over the wall the progress of the companys billing
operation.
(4) and ran away
(1) extorted
Directions for questions 137 and 138: Each
sentence below has a blank space indicating (2) expedited
that something has been left out. Following
(3) exacerbated
each sentence four words are given. Choose
the word that makes the sentence meaningful. (4) elided

26
144. SCURRY : MOVE ::

(b) LOGICAL REASONING
(1) chant : sing
Directions for questions 141 to 144: In each of (2) chatter : talk
the following questions a pair of words with
certain relationship between them is given (3) carry : lift
followed by four pairs numbered 1 to 4. Select (4) limp : walk
the pair wherein the words have closest
relationship to the original pair. Directions for questions 145 to 147: In each
question you find a set of sentences arranged
141. MODERATOR : DEBATE :: in a haphazard way. Choose the correct
(1) legislator : election arrangement of sentences as indicated by
the number to make a coherent paragraph.
(2) chef : banquet
145. A. Thus the hydrosphere permits organic
(3) auditors : lecture
existence.
(4) umpire : game B. More than 24,000 cubic miles of
142. GLOSSARY : WORDS :: rain descend annually upon the
continents.
(1) catalogue : dates
C. From this vast amount about 80,000
(2) atlas : maps cubic miles of water are sucked into
(3) thesaurus : rhymes the atmosphere by evaporation
and returned by precipitation and
(4) lexicon : numbers drainage to the ocean.
143. ARCHIPELAGO : ISLAND :: D. Ocean water plays an indispens-
(1) constellation : star able role in supporting life.
(2) sand : dune E. This vast amount is required to

replenish the lakes and streams,
(3) mountain : valley springs and water tables on which
(4) garden : flower all flora and fauna are dependent.

27
F. The great ocean basin holds about 147. A. Several other gases, such as argon,
300 million cubic miles of water. carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon,
krypton and xenon, comprise the
(1) BEACDF (2) BEDCAF
remaining 1% of the volume of dry air.
(3) BDEAFC (4) DFCBEA
B. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension
146. A. Studies should include reading, which great quantities of dust, pollen,
gives depth; speaking, which adds smoke and other impurities which
readiness of thought and writing are always present in considerable,
which trains in preciseness. but variable amounts.
B. Bacon divides books into three C. The amount of water vapour and its
categories: those to be read in part, variations in amount and distribution
those to be read cursorily and those are of extraordinary importance in
to be read with care. weather changes.
C. He considers the evils of excess study: D. The atmosphere is a mixture of

laziness, affectation and precosity. several gases.
D. He considers studies as they should E. Of these permanent gases, oxygen

be: for pleasure, for self improvement makes up about 21% and nitrogen
for business. about 78%.
E. His careful tripartite division of studies F. There are about ten chemical
expressed succinctly in aphoristic elements which remain permanently
prose demands the complete in gaseous form in the atmosphere
attention of the mind of the reader. under all natural conditions.
F. An essay which appeals chiefly to (1) EFBCAD (2) DFEACB

the intellect is Francis Bacons Of
(3) DEAFBC (4) DBCEAF
Studies.
Directions for questions 148 and 149: In the
(1) FEDCBA (2) EFDCAB
questions given two statements A and B are
(3) DACFBE (4) CFDEBA followed by four conclusions C, D, E and F.

28
Assume the two given statements to be true F. Some oranges are

even if they vary from commonly known facts. bananas.
Read all the conclusions and decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows the two (1) All follow
given statements.
(2) Only C and F follow
148. Statements: A. All papers are bags.
(3) Only C and E follow
B. No bag is green.
(4) Only C follows
Conclusion: C. No paper is green.
D. Some papers are green. Directions for question 150: In the following
question a part of the figure is missing. Find
E. Some green are papers. out from the given options the right figure to fit
in the missing place.
F. Some bags are papers.
(1) Either C or D follow 150.
(2) Only C and E follow
(3) Only C and F follow
(4) Either D or E follow
149. Statements: A. All bananas are apples.
B. All apples are oranges.
Conclusions: C. Some oranges are

apples.
D. All apples are bananas.
E. Some bananas are not

oranges.

29

1

BITSAT 2008
BRILLIANTS MTP 6/SOLNS
MOCK TEST 6
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE

TOWARDS
BITSAT, 2008
SOLUTIONS
PART I: MATHEMATICS
1. (2) log9 729 = log9 93 = 3 Let x, b, c, y are in G.P.
1
and 3 log 3 = 3 log 3 = 6 b2 = xc, c2 = by
3 1 2 3
2
the given expression b xc
=
2 yb
c
= log3 (log33) + 6
3 3 3
=0+6=6 b x b Ac xAy 2a
= = =
3 y 3 y 2
c c c b
2. (1) , are the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0
b3 + c3 = 2abc
2
= , = , being a complex
cube roots of unity. 3 15 63
4. (4) A A A ..... to n terms
4 16 64
22 = (3)7 = ,
1 1 1
= 1B A 1B A 1B
13 = (2)12 2 = 2 (Q 3 = 1) 4 16 64
+ ..... to n terms
Hence the equation is the same as
the given equation. 1 1
= nB 1A
4 4
3. (3) Let x, y be the two positive numbers.
1
A A ..... to n terms
x + y = 2a ... (1) 2
4
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Solns - 1

2
n 7. (4) The number of all five digit numbers

1
1B that can be formed with 0, 1, 3, 5,
1 4
= nB 7 = 4 54 (Q 0 cannot occur in
4 1
1B
4 the 10000th place)
= 2500
1
=n (1 4 n)
3 The number of numbers without any
repetition = 4 4 3 2 1 = 96
5. (1) 271995 = (20 + 7)1995
the number of five digit numbers
= multiple of 10 + 71995 with at least one digit repeated
= multiple of 10 + (72)996 73 = 2500 96 = 2404
= multiple of 10 + (492)498 343 8. (1) The required number of committees
which ends in 3 = 5C2 7C4 + 5C3 7C6
Similarly 171995 ends in 3. = 350 + 70 = 420
9. (3) If n is the number of teams, it is

Hence 271995 171995 + 111995 ends
in 0 + 1 = 1. given by nC2 = 120.
nA1 nA1 n A1 n n B1
P C C C = 120
nA1
=
0 1 2 2
6. (3)
P n n n
n C C C
0 1 2 n2 n 240 = 0
nA1
C
n A1 n A1
C 2
nA1 (n + 15) (n 16) = 0
...
nA1
n
C
n n = 16
1 n A1 n A1 n A1
= 10. (4)
1 n n B1 n B2
n A 1 n A1
2
1
n
n A1 nA1
= 2
n
10 9 AB AC A BCBA A CACB
= 2
10
(given)
9 = cb cos (90 ) + ac cos
+ ba cos 90
n=9

3
= cb sin + ac cos + 0 Let x i A y j A zk be the foot of the

perpendicular.
b a
= cb + ac
c c
Then, x i A y j A zk = 2 i A 3 j B 4k
2 2 2
=b +a =c A t 6 i A 3 j B 4k
11. (1) a b c = a b c, x = 2 + 6t, y = 3 + 3t, z = 4 4t
if a b c cos = a b c , PM = x A1 i A y B 2 j A z B 6 k
where is the angle between

= 3 A 6t i A 1 A 3t j
a b and c
B 10 A 4t k
i.e., if a b sin cos = a b ,
where is the angle between AM = x B 2 i A y B 3 j A z A 4 k
a and b .
= 6t i A 3t j B 4tk

i.e., if sin cos = 1 i.e., if =
2 PM AM = PMAM = 0
and = 0
(3 + 6t) 6t + (1 + 3t) 3t
i.e., if a b is parallel to c and a , + (10 + 4t) 4t = 0
b are perpendicular
61t2 + 61t = 0 t = 1
i.e., if a, b , c are mutually perpen-
dicular. PM = B 3 i B 2 j B 6k
i.e., if a b = b c = ca = 0 = 9 A 4 A 36
12. (2) The straight line passing through =7

2 i A 3 j B 4k and parallel to
6 i A 3 j B 4k is given by the 13. (3)
equation
r = 2 i A 3 j B 4k A t 6 i A 3 j B 4k
|z + 4i| = 3 is a circle with centre at

(0, 4) and radius is 3.
Join C, the centre of the circle to

A( 3, 0). Let it meet the circle at P
and Q. Then AP is the least of |z + 3|.

4
2 2 OP2 = OQ2 = PQ2

AP = AC CP = 3 A4 B3
2 4 2 2 2 4 2 2
=53=2 a t A 4a t = a t A 4a t
1 1 2 2
14. (2) If z = x + iy, |z2 1| = |z|2 + 1 2 2 2 2 2 2

= a t Bt A 4a t Bt ... (1)
1 2 1 2
|(x + iy)2 1| = x2 + y2 + 1
2 4 4 2 2 2
a t Bt = 4a t Bt
2 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 1
(x y 1) + 4x y
= (x2 + y2 + 1)2 2 2 2 2
either t B t = 0 or t A t = B 4 ,
1 2 1 2
(x2 + y2 + 1)2 (x2 y2 1)2 which is impossible.
4x2 y2 = 0
2 2
t =t t =Bt
1 2 2 1
4x2 (y2 + 1) 4x2 y2 = 0
Hence from equation (1),
x = 0 which is a straight line.
4 2 2
t A 4t = 16t
15. (3) The given line can be written as 1 1 1
(x + y 2) + (x y 3) = 0
2
t = 12
1
Solving, x + y 2 = 0 and x y 3 = 0,
the required point is found to be
t1 = 2 3
5 1
,B .
2 2
2 2
OP2 = 16a t
1
16. (1)
= 4a 2 3 = 8a 3
17. (4)
2
Let O (0, 0), P at , 2at and
1 1 Let the equation of the hyperbola
2
Q at , 2at be the vertices of the be xy = c2.
2 2
triangle. the axes are the asymptotes.

5
Let M(h, k) be the midpoint of PN. B ABC 2 B

sin cos = 2 sin
2 2 2
y
1
h = ON = x1 ; k =
2 ABC B
cos = 2 sin
2 2
x1 y1 = c2
B ABC
2 cos cos
2hk = c2 2 2
B B
2 = 4 sin cos
Locus of (h, k) is xy = c , which 2 2
2
is a hyperbola. sin A + sin C = 2 sin B
18. (3) The given equation becomes B AAC

Q cos = sin
2 2
2 2
sin 2x A 2 cos x 3 B sin 2x A 2 cos x
3 A3 = 28
2R sin A + 2R sin C = 2 2R sin B
27
y+ = 28, a + c = 2b
y
2
sin 2x A 2 cos x
a, b, c are in A.P.
where y = 3
20. (2) The inradius of the equilateral triangle,
y2 28y + 27 = 0
3 2
l
(y 27) (y 1) = 0 4
r=
3l
y = 27 or 1 2
sin 2x + 2 cos2 x = 3 or 0 l
i.e., r=
2 3
2 cos x (sin x + cos x) = 0
cos x = 0 or tan x = 1
(Note: sin 2x + 2 cos2 x = 3

sin 2x = 1, cos2 x = 1
simultaneously which is
Then the side of the square inscribed
impossible)
l
in the circle is 2r =
19. (1) Given cos A + cos C = 2(1 cos B) 6
AAC ABC the area of the square

2 cos cos
2 2 2
= l sq. units
= 4 sin
2 B 6
2

6
1 24. (2) x3 cos x and b sin x are odd func-
21. (3) The domain of sec x = R ( 1, 1)
and x [x] = 0, when x I. tions.
Hence the domain of f(x) is
R (( 1, 1) I). 2
B1
ax 3
cos x A b sin x A c dx
xA B cos x
B
2 2
22. (3) f x =
B1
2x A tan x
= 0 + 0 + 2c = 2c
B1
x A sin x 5 5 5 5
= 1 A 2 A 3 A ... A n
B1 Lt
2x A tan x 25. (4)
6
n n
B1
sin x
1A 5
x n
=
B1
= Lt 1 r
tan x n n r=1
n
2A
x
1
For the function to be continuous
at x = 0, f(0) = Lt f x =
1A1 2
=
= x 5
dx
0
x0 2A1 3
1
23. (4) f(x) = 1 + 2 sin x + 3 cos2 x =
6
f (x) = 2 cos x 6 cos x sin x
f (x) = 2 sin x + 6 sin2 x 6 cos2 x 26. (2)
1
f (x) = 0 cos x = 0 or sin x =
3

cos x = 0 x = and f =4> 0
2 2
1
sin x =
3
y = x2 is a parabola facing upwards.
2 6 1
f (x) = B A B6 1B <0
3 9 9 y = [x + 1] = [x] + 1
2 8 y = 1 in [ 0, 1), y = 0 in [ 1, 0) etc.
maximum value of f(x) = 1 + A
3 3
Hence the required area
13
=
3 = the shaded area

7
1 1
d=
=11 x 2
dx 3
0
1
a7 = a1 + 6d = 3 + 6 =5
3
1 2
=1 =
3 3 Again h1 = 3, h10 = 6
27. (1) Tossing two coins 5 times and getting

1 =1, 1 =1
odd number of heads is the same h 3 h 6
1 10
as tossing one coin ten times and
getting odd number of heads.
Since 1 , 1 , ..., 1 are in A.P.,
h h h
The required probability 1 2 10
1 1
10 1 10 1 10 1 = A 9D,
= C A C A C h h
1 10 3 10 5 10 10 1
2 2 2
10 1 10 1 where D is the common difference
A C A C
7 10 9 10
2 2 of the A.P.
1 1 1
1 10 B 1 1 9D = B =B
= 2 = 6 3 6
10 2
2
1
D=
28. (2) cos x B 4 cos x = 1 54
1 1 1 1 5
cos x B 4 = 1 and = A 3D = A 3 B =
h h 3 54 18
4 1
cos x = 1
h4 = 18
or cos x B 4 = B1 and 5
cos x = B1
18
a7 h4 = 5 = 18
5
either both x B 4 and x are
even integers or both x B 4 and x 30. (1) The given equations are
are odd integers.
x2 + p1 x + q1 = 0 ... (1)
x = 4 is the only solution.
and x2 + p2 x + q2 = 0 ... (2)
29. (1) a10 = 6 a1 + 9d = 6, where d is
2
the common difference of the A.P. Discriminant of (1) = p 1 B 4q 1
2
9d = 6 3 = 3 and discriminant of (2) = p B 4q
2 2

8
Now, sum of the discriminants By symmetry the figure PQRS is a

rhombus.
2 2
= p Ap B4 q Aq
1 2 1 2 Required area = 4 area of the
OPQ
2 2
= p A p B 2p p
1 2 1 2
OP OQ
= 4
= (p1 p2) 0 2 2
Hence, at least one of the discrimi- 484

=
nants is non-negative. This implies 2
at least one of the equation has = 64 sq. units

real roots.
1
31. (4) b2 = a2 (1 e2) 32. (3) sin x + cos x =
5
12 = 16(1 e2) 2
2t 1Bt 1
A = ,
2 2 5
1 1At 1At
e=
2
x
where t = tan
an end of a lactus rectum is 2
2
b 6t2 10t 4 = 0
ae, = 2, 3
a
1
Equation of the tangent to the ellipse t = 2,
3
2x 3y
at (2, 3) is A =1
16 12
Since 0 x , 0 x
2 2
x y
or A =1
8 4 t 0
t=2
2t 22 4
tan x = = =B
2 2 3
1Bt 1B2
33. (2) (0, ) is a point on y-axis. Solving the

given equations, we get the vertices
as A( 2, 4), B (2, 3) and C( 1, 1).
The side AB i.e., 4y + x 14 = 0
This tangent meets the x-axis (major 7
meets the y-axis at point P 0,
axis) at the point P(8, 0) and y-axis 2
(minor axis) at the point Q(0, 4). and the side BC i.e., 3y 2x 5 = 0

9
5 5
meets the y-axis at Q 0, . For the
4x e
4
sin x
3 35. (1) Let I = dx
point (0, ) to lie on or inside the 1
5 7
triangle, we must have . Put x4 = t 4x3 dx = dt
3 2
x = 1 t = 1 and x = 5 t = 625
625
sin t
= e
t
dt
1
625
= Ft
1
= F(625) F(1)
k = 625
34. (2) When n > 0,
36. (4) The given plane is
n nB1
a na
Lt = Lt P 2x + ay + 3z + 1 = 0.
a a
a e a e
If points are on the same side, P
(by L Hospitals rule)
should have same sign for both
n n B1 a
nB2 points.
= Lt
a
a e 2(0) + a(0) + 3(0) + 1 > 0.
So, 2(2) + a(5) + 3(7) + 1 > 0

n
= ...... = Lt =0
a
a e 26
i.e., a >
5
n
When n = 0, Lt a = Lt 1 = 0 37. (2) From a determinant of value 1, we
a a
a e a e
can obtain determinant of values
When n < 0, say n = m, where 1 in as many ways as we can do
n Bm
the reverse. So B and C contain
m N, then Lt a = Lt a the same number of elements.
a a
a e a e
38. (4) Since z1, z2, z3, ..., z7 are the roots of
= Lt 1 (z + 1)7 + z7 = 0.
=0
m a
a a e
2 z7 + 7z6 + 21z5 + 35 z4 + 35 z3
n
a + 21z2 + 7z + 1
lim = 0 for all integers n.
a
a e
= (z z1) (z z2) (z z3) (z z4)
(z z5) (z z6) (z z7)

10
7 1
z =B
7 Also, 4 sec2 3 sec + =0
k 2
k=1
2
1 1
7 sec = , , which is not possible.
7 2 4
Similarly, z = B
k 2 So this equation too is not satisfied
k=1
by any value of .
7 7 z Az
k k
Re z
k
= 2 41. (3) Given equation is

=

A

k=1 k=1 2x x A r xBr
=
1 7 7
B B or (x2 r2) = { (x r) + (x + r)} 2x
2 2 2
or x2(2 + 2 ) + 2x( )r + r2 = 0
7
=
2 As this equation has equal roots,
discriminant = 0
39. (3) We must have
[2( )r]2 4r2 (2 + 2 ) = 0
2n + 1 2n + 1 2n + 1
C1 + C2 + ... + Cn = 1023
2 2 ( + ) + ( )2 = 0
2n + 1
Now, C0 + 2n + 1C1 + 2n + 1C2
2 2
2 A 4 A B 4 B
+ ... + 2n + 1Cn + 1 + ... =
2
+ 2n + 1C2n + 1 = 22n
= A 4
1 + 2 (2n + 1C1 + 2n + 1C2 + ...
2
+ 2n + 1Cn) + 1 = 22n + 1 =
1 + 2 (1023) + 1 = 22n + 1 42. (2) Slope of the line joining (3, 6) and
B2B 6
(3, 2) is =
2048 = 22n + 1 3B3
2n + 1 = 11 n = 5 the axis is parallel to x-axis.
40. (4) 2 sin4 4 sin2 1 = 0 equations of the two possible

parabolas will be of the form
2(sin2 1)2 = 3
(y k)2 = 4a(x h) ... (1)
3
cos4 = Now,
2
2 2
Hence there is no solution for this latus rectum = 3B3 A 6A 2
equation.
=8
11
from equation (1), 44. (4) P (the student passes)

= P (the student passes in tests A
(y k)2 = 8 (x h) and B and fails in C)
+ P (the student passes in
Since (3, 6) and (3, 2) lie on the tests A and C and fails in B)
parabola, (6 k)2 = 8 (3 h) ... (2) + P (the student passes in
all the three tests)
and ( 2 k)2 = 8 (3 h) ... (3)
1 1 1
= pq 1 B A P 1B q A pq
Solving equations (2) and (3), we 2 2 2
get k = 2.
p
Putting k = 2 in equation (2), h = 5, 1 = 1Aq
2
(h, k) = (5, 2) and (1, 2)

1 1
we must have p 1Aq =
the required parabolas are 2 2
(y 2)2 = 8(x 5) and

p(1 + q) = 1
(y 2)2 = 8(x 1)
p = 1, q = 0 is possible and also,
43. (3) We note that for all x [ 1, 1],
there are infinitely many values of
1 > x sin (x) 0 the pairs (p, q) connected by the
1
f(x) = [x sin (x)] relation p = .
1Aq
= 0, for all x [ 1, 1]
2
1
xi B n1
2 2
So f(x) is a constant function for 45. (2) =
n
xi
1 x 1. So f is continuous in ( 1, 1).
Now xi is changed by hxi , let

Also, f(1) = [1 sin ] = 0
variance be ()2.
Lt f x = Lt x sin x = 0
B B
x 1 x 1 2
2 1 2 1
=
n
hx
i
B
n
h xi
Lt f x = Lt x sin x = B1
A A
x 1 x 1
2
{In the immediate right neighbour- 2 1 2 1
=h
n
x B
i n
xi
hood of 1, 1 < x sin x < 0}
f is not continuous at x = 1. = h22

Consequently f is not derivable at 1.

12
PART II: PHYSICS
2 2 2
I
t m or m2 = m B m
46. (3) = 1 A or t 1
I 2
c
2 2
= 0.757 B 0.4
I
t
I = = 0.413 Y 0.64
c
2
m
1 A 47. (1)
2
11 11 2GM
= = 48. (3) v = escape velocity =
es R
2 1 A 0.08
0.4
1A
2 GM
v = orbital velocity =
o R Ah
or Ic = 10.58 A
v
e
I 2 Given, v =
t m o 2
Again = 1 A
I 2
c
GM 1 2GM
=
It = 12 A, Ic = 10.58 A. m is to be R A h 2 R
found out. GM 1 2GM
2
or =
2
R A h 4 R
m I
1 A
t
=
t or On solving, we get; h = R
2 I
c
49. (2) Absorbing power of a body is
2
2 equal to emissivity of the body.
m I
t t And also a + r + t = 1
= B1
2 I
c
0 + 0.5 + a = 1
2 a = 0.5
I = a = 0.5
t
or mt = 2 B1
I
c Q 4
= AT
t
2
B8
12 = 0.5 5.67 10 0.15
= 2 B1
10.58 4
273 A 227
= 2 1.286 B 1 = 2 0.286
Q
= 265.78 watt
= 0.757 t
2 2 2 2 2 50. (2)
m = m Am or m = m A m
t 1 2 t 1 2
51. (3)

13
52. (3) According to continuity equation, 60. (3) We know,

A v = A v P = 4r2 T4
1 1 2 2
dT
10
B4
1= A 2gh = mS B
2 dt
B4 4 3 dT dT
or 10 = A 2 9.8 0.15 =B r and R =
2 3 dt dt
B5 2
A = 5.83 10 m 2 1
2 P r and R
r
53. (1) Due to filing, frequency of tuning T
2 t
fork B increases. Since, after filing dT
beats frequency increases. 4
= constant dt
T T 0
1
Q f >f
B A
1 1
f B f = 4 t = c B
B A 3 3
T T
2 1
f = 4 A f = 4 A 512
B A
61. (3)
= 516 Hz
62. (4)
54. (1)
63. (2)
55. (1)
64. (2)
56. (1)
65. (3)
57. (2)
66. (3)
58. (4)
67. (1) For equilibrium, M1 sin = M2 sin
59. (1) Total heat required to convert the
temperature of ice from 20C to
0C water is
H = mL + ms
= 5 80 + 5 0.5 [0(20)]
= 400 + 2.5 20
= 400 + 50 = 450 cal
The total heat released to reduce
or M1 sin = M2 sin(90 )
the temperature of water from
30C to water at 0C is Q A = 90
H = 5 1 (30 0) = 150 cal or M1 sin = M2 cos
Since, heat released is lesser than or M0 sin = 2M0 cos
heat required. Hence, total ice is
not converted into water. Hence, or tan = 2
final temperature of mixture is 0C. = tan1 (2)

14
68. (4) 77. (1) The net electric field at P is zero.
69. (2) E = E AE A E
p 1 2 sphere
70. (1) or 0= E AE AE
1 2 sphere
71. (2)
E =B E A E
sphere 1 2
72. (1) Let R = 6.4 106 m

2 2
E = E AE
sphere 1 2
= surface charge density
2 2
Total charge on the surface of
q q
earth = q = 1
A 2
2 2
4 a 4 b
2 0 0
q = 4R
Then, the potential V at a point on 2 2
the earths surface is same as if the q q

1 1 2
= A
entire charge q were concentrated 4 a
2
b
2
0
as its centre. Thus
Hence, (1) is correct.
1 q
V =
4 R 78. (2)
0
79. (3)
2
1 4 R R
= =
4 R 80. (2)
0 0
81. (4)
6 B19
6.4 10 B1.6 10
V =
B12 82. (4)
8.9 10
83. (4)
= 0.115 V
84. (3)
73. (4)
85. (4)
74. (4)
75. (3)
76. (3)

16
PART III: CHEMISTRY
86. (1) dil

K2Cr2O7(aq) + 4H2SO4(aq) Cr2(SO4)3(aq) + K2SO4(aq) + 4H2O(l) + 3[O]
3SO2(g) + 3[O] 3SO3(g)
3SO3 + 3H2O 3H2SO4
K2Cr2O7(aq) + 3SO2(g) + H2SO4 Cr2(SO4)3 +K2SO4 + H2O

Y X Z
87. (3) 0.224 L of a gas at STP weigh 0.44 g
22.4 0.44
22.4 L of the gas weighs = = 44 g
0.224
CO2 = 44, CO = 28, O2 = 32, SO2 = 64
B18 2
B 2.18 10 Z
88. (2) En of H like species = Joule/atom
2
n
89. (2)
90. (2) Greater the electronegativity difference between the atoms in the bond, greater
will be the bond energy (C F bond energy is high).
91. (4) Atomic orbitals of same sign combines to form molecular orbitals.
92. (2) A C; H1 = q1 .... (I)
C D; H2 = q2 ... .(II)
1
2 D 2B; H3 = 2q3 .... (III)
2
Adding I, II and III A 2B; = H = H1 + H2 + H3 = q1 + q2 + 2q3

overall

16
93. (1) 97. (3) 2 [H2O(l) + CO(g)
c
2 H2(g)+ CO2(g)] ; K C = 0.44 2
94. (4) K = 2
a
c 1 B
for a weak acid,

H2(g) + 2CO2(g) 2H2O(l)
0.001
c = 0.1M, = + CO(g) ; K =?
100 C
3
2
1
0.001 B10 K = = 5.16
K = 0.1 = 0.1 1 10 C 2
a 100
3
0.44
B 11 98. (4)
= 1 10
A1 B2 A1 B
99. (3) Ag O A H A 2e
95. (2) Ba(NO3)2 Ba2+ + 2NO 3 2
0 B
At the start 2Ag A 2OH
1 mole
2Ag+ + 2e 2Ag0 (reduction is
At equilibrium 2 gain of electron).
(moles 1 )
100. (2) G = nFE
Total number of ions (mole)
Cell reaction of Daniel cell
=1 ++ 2 =1+2
Zn|Zn2+||Cu2+|Cu
1+2 =i n - number of electrons involved in
redox reaction = 2
i B 1
=
2 E = 1.10 V
2.74 B 1 G = 2 96500 1.10

=
2
= 212300 J
1.74 = 212.30 kJ
= = 0.87 = 87%
2
1
101. (2) N2O5(g) N2O4(g) + O
H 2 2(g)
96. (1) N N + 3 H H 2 N H 102. (3) Catalyst, products and reactants in

the some phase Homogeneous
H
catalyst.
945 + 3 436 2 3 391 Catalyst, products and reactants
in different states Heterogeneous
945 + 1308 2346
catalyst.
H = 2346 2253 = 93 kJ mol1

17
111. (2) Chemical compounds formed, not

Fe(s) by the action of valence bonds,
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
but by molecular imprisonment,
(2) Vegetable oils(l) + the combined molecules being
held together mechanically by
Ni(s) virtue of the vacant space in
H2(g) Hydrogenated oils(s)
between them are called as
clathrates.
(3) CH3COOCH3(aq) + H2O(aq)
HCl(aq) 112. (2)

CH3COOH(aq) + CH3OH(aq)
ZnO 113. (3)

(4) CO(g) + H2(g) CH3OH(l)
114. (3)
103. (3)
115. (3)
104. (2)
116. (4)
105. (4) 2LiOH(s) Li2O(s) + H2O(l)
106. (3) Be(s) + 2NaOH(aq) H2(g) 117. (1)

+ Na2BeO2(s)
118. (4)
107. (3) Al(OH)3 + NaOH(aq)
119. (4)
[Al(OH)4 (H2O)2]1 Na+
120. (3)
108. (4) CuCl + NH3 CuNH3Cl + CO(g) or
121. (4)
Cu(CO)NH3] Cl CuCl CO2H2O
C2H5OC2H5 122. (4)

109. (3) 2Na+H + B2H6 2NaBH4
123. (2)
110. (1) Na2SO3(s) + H2SO4(aq)
Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) + SO2(g) 124. (3)
K2Cr2O7 + 3SO2 + H2SO4 Cr2(SO4)3 125. (1)

orange green
+ K2SO4 + H2O
Na2S(s) + H2SO4(aq) Na2SO4

+ H2S(g)
H2S + Pb(CH3COO)2 PbS

(black) + 2CH3COOH

18
PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING
(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (b) LOGICAL REASONING
126. (3) 127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (1) 130. (2) 141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (2) 145. (4)
131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (4) 134. (1) 135. (4) 146. (1) 147. (2) 148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (1)
136. (3) 137. (1) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (2)

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BITSAT 2008

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 450

Read the following instructions carefully:

5. The test is of 3 hours duration.

6. The test consists of 150 questions.

7. The maximum marks are 450.

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited .

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ...........................................................................

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 1

1. If a = log3 log3 log9 729 + 3 log 3 , then Bn

3 5. The digit at the unit place in the number

2. If , are the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0, then (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 2

9. In a football championship, 120 matches point whose position vector is

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17. PN is the perpendicular from a point P square inscribed in the circle is

(1) a parabola (2) a circle 21. The domain of the function

(1) x R (2) R+ (0, 1)

(2) cos x = 1 (3) R (( 1, 1) I) (the set of integers)

(3) either cos x = 0 or tan x = 1 (4) R+ N

(4) tan x = 1 22. The value of f(0) so that

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 4

24. The value of ax 3

(3) a (4) a and b (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 5

(2) non-real roots 7 5

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 6

(1) C is empty (3) infinite

(2) B has as many elements as C (4) equal to the number of values of

(4) B has twice as many elements as C 41. If r 0 and the equation

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 7

42. The equation of the parabola with latus 1

(4) (y 2)2 = 8(x + 1) (3) p = 0, q = 1

(1) 2 (2) h22

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 8

PART II: PHYSICS

46. The antenna current of an AM R

47. The horizontal flow of fluid depends (Given: = 5.67 104J/m2/s/K)

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 9

(3) 5.83 105 m2 (4) 2 105 m2

filing of the prongs of the tuning fork B,

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 10

60. Choose the correct relation, when the

(4) in any non-viscous liquid

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 11

(1) distances (1) alpha emission

(2) magnetic lengths (2) + emission

(3) gamma emission

(1) half of the length of the magnet

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 6/Obj/Qns - 12

70. The magnetic moments of all atoms in

(1) sum of the moments of individual

1 (2) product of the moments

(4) coercivity (4) Phase instability