(): : 12

:
6
:
1. Mother of 9 y.o. boy has addressed for consultation on hardening of the child. On the last 3 months
rubdown by water 34? with decrease in temperature of water to 18? was used. How to estimate
readiness of the child for transition to hydroprocedures?
A. To estimate diseases of child at the last days
B. To resolve without researches
C. * To spend cold test
D. To resolve after 1 month
E. To spend air baths
2. A 14 y.o. schoolgirl has asymmetry of shoulders and shovels; corner of curvature at the arch of ridge
makes 32 degrees. What infringement of osseous system device at the child?
A. Structural scoliosis
B. * Scoliosis III-IV degree
C. Postural scoliosis
D. Chest deformation
E. Scoliosis - degree
3. The 12 y.o. boy has harmonious physical development. Last year he was ill more than 3 times with
sharp respiratory disease. At profound medical inspection it was found anemia and myopia 3.5 D.
Which group of health is found out in the child?
A. * 3 group
B. 2 group
C. 1 group
D. 4 group
E. 5 group
4. At the estimation of health pupils from secondary school, the doctor has established one pupil with
hypertrophy of tonsils degrees, chronic rhinitis and vessels dystonia. Functionality of organism is
lowered. On a state of health the pupil concerns to:
A. * group
B. group
C. group
D. IV group
E. V group
5. For the estimation of physical development of the child it was defined length and weight of body,
weight growth per year, chest circumference, quantity of constant teeth, sexual development, vital
volume of lungs, determined muscular force by dynamometers. What of the listed signs concern to
physiometrical?
A. Sexual development
B. Length / weight of body, chest circumference
C. * Vital volume of lungs, muscular force
D. Quantity of constant teeth
E. Weight growth per year
6. A 6 y.o. girl of average growth has harmonic physical development, tooth formula 2102. Last year
was ill with epidemic parotitis. Is able to consider. The Kern-Iracek`s test has executed on 7 scores.
Whether the child is ready to training at school?
A. Not ready course of epidemic parotitis

B. * Not ready
C. Not ready course of tooth formula
D. Not ready course of disharmonic physical development
E. Not ready course of Kern-Iracek`s test
7. Secondary school on 960 places is located in the industrial city N. Children of 2-3 classes visit group
of long- day. What kind of rest is effective for children?
A. Doing homework
B. Lessons of physical training
C. Rest outdoors
D. * Motion activity
E. Sleep
8. A 13 y.o. girl has insignificant functional and morphological deviations: myopia 1.0, resistibility of
an organism is lowered. Chronic diseases are not present. For last year was ill 4 times by respiratory
diseases. What group of health is the girl concern?
A. group
B. group
C. * group
D. IV group
E. V group
9. The pupil of 9-th class does not have chronic diseases and morphological deviations. Physical
training is insufficient. What group of physical training is necessary for appointing?
A. Physiotherapy exercises
B. Basic group
C. Special group
D. * Preventive group
E. Release from physical training
10. Educational week of the 1 class pupil provides unloading day, into which schedule subjects which
demand considerable intellectual pressure are not entered. Define this day.
A. Monday
B. * Thursday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
E. Friday
11. In the school for hygienic estimation of air environment it is necessary to carry out laboratory
research of temperature, relative humidity, movement of air, radiating temperature, maintenance of
2, formaldehyde and other chemical substances, dust, bacterial air pollution, ets. When is
necessary to carry out these researches?
A. After second and last lesson
B. After first and last lesson
C. * Before the first and last lessons
D. At any time of lesson
E. Has no value
12. The 8 y.o. girl has average physical development on morphological and functional indicators.
Chronic diseases are absent. At ophthalmologic inspection was revealed myopia weak degree (1.0 D).
For last year 2 times was ill with respiratory diseases. What group of health has this child?
A. *
B. V
C. V

D.
E.
13. In a reading room of library two windows are focused on the north. Near to a library building
apartment houses are located. Air temperature indoors during the summer period 220, relative
humidity - 60 %. Schoolboys who daily work in library throughout 2 hours, complain of fatigability,
headache. What factor of environment can cause such complaints in visitors of library?
A. Hypodynamia
B. Hypoxia
C. Raised humidity of air
D. * Light exposure of a workplace is insufficient
E. Raised temperature of air
14. The microclimate of industrial premise characterized by such indicators: average air temperature
+280, radioactive temperature + 290, relative humidity 60%, air movement 3.0 m/sec. Which basic
ways of thermoregulation took place on such circumstances of microclimate?
A. Conduction
B. Emanation
C. * Evaporation
D. Radiation
E. Radiation and emanation
15. In the forge department of machine-building factory heating of steel details is carried out. The smith
works in a pose standing, during working day he carries out about 80 inclinations of a trunk. The
weight of details makes 20 kg. Energy expenses at work performance make 260 Vat/hour. A pulse
increase to 102 per minutes, the worker complains of memory decrease, exhaustion. What indicator is
more informative to established "weight of work"?
A. Pose of workers
B. Pulse rate
C. * Energy expenses
D. Memory decrease
E. Exhaustion
16. The toxic substance exceeds maximum concentration limit in atmospheric air in 100 times. What
changes of health at the population will be expected?
A. Functional changes
B. * Acute poisoning
C. Specific and nonspecific diseases
D. Physiological shifts
E. Deadly poisoning
17. At the medical inspection of electric welder there was determined encephalopathy, pneumoconiosis,
insufficiency of nerves system with primary defeats of bottom finiteness the chock gait. What
professional poisoning is revealed at the electric welder?
A. Poisoning with carbon dioxide
B. Poisoning with lead
C. Silicosis
D. * Poisoning with manganese
E. Anthracosis
18. The scientific research institute clinic established at a worker of concentrating factory occupational
disease - the chronic dust bronchitis. Case investigation is spent by the commission, which consists
from the member of enterprises, medico sanitary part, territorial sanitary station, Fund of social
insurance, trade-union organization. Which organization should head commission due to Rules
about investigation occupational diseases?

A. Medico sanitary part

B. Enterprises
C. Fund of social insurance
D. Trade-union organization
E. * Territorial sanitary station
19. At the local polyclinic on ground floor there are located: lobby, registry, clothes, three therapeutic
offices, X-ray therapy, toilets, and etc. In what of the listed rooms the artificial ventilation of air
should be organized?
A. * X-ray therapy, toilets
B. Therapeutic offices
C. Lobby
D. Clothes
E. All said
20. During repair work of transport highway the truck transport passes on motorways of settlement N.,
creating vibrating fluctuations of soil and buildings. Characterized this kind of vibration:
A. Transport
B. Local
C. Pulse
D. * General
E. Monotonous
21. In the territory of housing estate without sanitary ruptures the transformer is established. Inhabitants
of houses are submitted to influence of electromagnetic waves which concern to:
A. Constant magnetic field
B. Electrostatic field
C. Electromagnetic field of radio frequencies
D. Laser radiation
E. * Electromagnetic field of industrial frequency of 50 Hz
22. On the workers of steel making factory the changeable high-frequency noise with the level 99 dBA
(permissible level 80 dBA) operates. At the medical inspection about 67 % of workers, with 3-5 years
experience of work, changes on audiograms have been revealed, thus workers did not show
complaints to decrease in hearing. In what range of frequencies the maximum loss of hearing at
workers is observed?
A. * 1000 4000 Hz
B. 1000 500 Hz
C. 500 250 Hz
D. 250 125 Hz
E. 125 16 Hz
23. Diseases in the machine-building factories have decreased from 120 cases to 30 cases on 100
workers. Thus economic losses in days in both cases remained the same - 600 on 100 workers.
Whether health of workers has improved?
A. Yes, disease has decreased in 3 times
B. * No, the group of long ill was generated
C. No, frequency of days of disability has increased
D. Situation is stable
E. Yes, frequency of days of disability has decreased

24. The former makes forms, using manual tool in weight 17 kg, generating vibration 132 dBA
(permissible level 112 dBA). Work is conducted in not heated premise, in an inconvenient working
pose having bent, and knees. For the purpose to prevent development of professional pathology what
radical measures are necessary for undertaking in this case?
A. To rationalize working pose
B. To reduce operating time with the tool
C. * To forbid use the tool with similar technical characteristics
D. To appoint physiotherapeutic procedures
E. To use individual defense means
25. Actions for decreasing dose of irradiation on the population provide environmental protection from
radioactive substances and decrease X-ray loading. What sources of ionising radiation on the
population is the most significant?
A. * X-ray procedures
B. Natural radioactive background
C. Burial places of radioactive waste
D. Radioactive waste
E. Space irradiation
26. At the toxicological laboratory new pesticide has arrived. On the stage of preliminary toxicological
estimation has been defined Relative Safe Level of Action (RSLA). What indicator should be defined
for establishment of maximum concentration limit (MAC) of pesticide in air of a working zone?

A. Zone chronic general toxic action

B. Acute general toxic
C. Zone acute general toxic action
D. * Chronic general toxic
E. Zone specific action
27. Found a limit of effective dose per year for category B (persons who are not occupied by work with
ionising radiation sources) according to Ukrainian National Standards of Radiation Safety:
A. * 2 mSv/year
B. 40 mSv/year
C. 20 mSv/year
D. 10 mSv/year
E. 5 mSv/year
28. Workers of laboratory on manufacturing of electric lamps, and measuring devices (manometers,
thermometers, etc.) complain of metal smack in a mouth, stomatitis, dyspepsia, dream infringements,
shaky gait, sharp deterioration of hart activity. What is the reason of the poisoning?
A. Manganese
B. Lead
C. * Mercury
D. Ethylmercury
E. Tetraethyllead
29. In settlement N. some sources of electromagnetic radiation which work in different radio-frequency
ranges function. Level of electromagnetic radiation need to count with the account:
A. Effect of absorption
B. * Additive action
C. Capacity of the greatest source of electromagnetic radiation
D. Capacity of the least source of electromagnetic radiation
E. Radiation directions

30. In settlement N. some sources of electromagnetic radiation which work in different radio-frequency
ranges function. Level of electromagnetic radiation need to count with the account:
A. Radiation directions
B. Effect of absorption
C. Capacity of the greatest source of electromagnetic radiation
D. Capacity of the least source of electromagnetic radiation
E. * Additive action
31. At the glass blower on medical inspection cataract was revealed. The worker complains of headache,
weakness, infringement of colour perception. The glass blower performs work of middle heavy at the
air temperature 29-300, relative humidity 35 %, air movement 0.3 m/sec, intensity of thermal
radiation - 2600 Vat/m2. What is the reason of changes in the organism of worker?
A. Air movement
B. Air temperature
C. Heavy of work
D. * Thermal radiation
E. Relative humidity
32. Workers at mountain developments were influenced by a dust in the form of decomposition aerosols.
For the establishment of degree of danger occupational diseases it was defined physical and chemical
properties of dust. What property of dust causes depth of its penetration into respiratory ways?
A. Including of SiO2
B. * Dispersion of a dust
C. Form of dust particles
D. Solubility
E. Charge of particles
33. Worker of mechanical branch works with manual grinding car. Level of faltering local vibration
exceeds admissible value of sanitary norms on 3 dB. What of the listed actions for preventive
maintenance of vibrating illness employer should execute?
A. All said
B. Provide with protective mittens
C. Provide optimum parameters of microclimate
D. Reduce weight of manual grinding car
E. * Develop work and rest regimen
34. In a working zone of worker the dust arrives. Ventilation is the mechanical and local exhaust. For
polishing the damp way of processing materials is used. Workers use respirators for protection bodies
of breath, observe work and rest regimen. What preventive actions can be carried to the
technological?
A. * Damp way of processing materials
B. Local exhaust ventilation
C. Mechanical ventilation
D. Using respirators
E. Work and rest regimen
35. Long action of intensive noise in the occupied places promotes occurrence of changes physiological
reactions at the most sensitive people to noise. What maximum permissible noise level is established
for territories, platforms of rest and groups of apartment houses at night?
A. * 45 dBA
B. 50 dBA
C. 55 dBA
D. 60 dBA
E. 65 dBA
36. In the machine-building enterprise cold processing of metal is spent. Turners work in position
standing, with a trunk inclination forward under the corner 20?. Loading is basically located on
hands. Power expenses are equal 3000-3500 kcal/days. What form of organization of labor activity of
work concerns?
A. Group work
B. Work demanding muscular activity
C. Work connected with automatic work
D. * Mechanized work
E. Work with remote control
37. The personnel of physiotherapeutic branch of the hospital which are carrying out therapeutic
procedures on the high-frequency installations, tests influence of electromagnetic field. Estimate
working conditions of the personnel of procedural premises.
A. State of health of workers
B. Measure of maximum permissible level of radio frequencies
C. * Measure intensity of an electromagnetic field
D. Duration of working hours
E. Technical characteristics of high-frequency installations
38. What concept characterized such definition: the maximal intensity of action of all set of the factors of
external environment which is not rendering direct or indirect influence at the humans organism and
his posterity, without worsening sanitary life conditions?
A. Specific action (Z sp)
B. Concentration lethally of 50% laboratory animals (CL 50)
C. * Maximum safe load (MSL)
D. Acute general toxic action (Z ac)
E. Chronic general toxic action (Z ch)
39. At the enterprise for making organic solvents as a result of failure there was a case of sharp
intoxication. Which document the doctor who has rendered the first medical aid should direct to
sanitary station.
A. Act of investigation of failure
B. Act of inspection of working conditions
C. Notice about medical inspection of patient
D. Act of registration of a poisoning
E. * Urgent notice of acute poisoning
40. At carrying out of hygienic rationing of five chemical compounds in reservoir water it was
established, that their DL50 consists: substance - 0.001; - 0.1; - 5; V - 120; V - 2400 mg/kg.
What substance is characterised by the greatest toxicity?
A.
B. *
C.
D. V
E. V
41. At the investigation of occupational poisonings of the mechanic, testing the diesel engine, at the end
of the working day have appeared symptoms: headache, noise in ears, nausea, vomiting, labile pulse.
At objective survey: a skin and mucous membranes of cerise colour. What toxic substance has caused
a sharp poisoning?
A. Lead
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur gas

D. Hydrogen monooxide
E. * Carbon monooxide
42. Parameters of microclimate on the industrial premise are received: air temperature +38, relative
humidity 98%, air movement 0 m/sec, radiating temperature +180. What way of thermoregulation
in a human body is carried out?
A. * Radiation
B. Emanation
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
E. Radiation and emanation
43. At the enterprise for estimation of state health of the working use technique of the profound analysis
of disease with time disability. On the basis of what document working out the materials of disease?
A. Case record
B. * Card of time invalidity
C. Sick-list
D. Card of the outpatient
E. Statistical coupon for disease registration
44. A 47 y.o. worker of weaver's shop with work experience about 15 years works in the conditions of
high-frequency intensive noise. At periodic medical inspection the diagnosis was made: professional
relative deafness. What is the basis for statement of such diagnosis?
A. Researches of central nervous system
B. Work experience
C. Noise characteristic
D. * Auditory sensitivity
E. Researches of internal ear
45. All working in harmful conditions should be examined by the doctor in certain terms. What is a
source of surveys of the workers working in harmful conditions?
A. * State order of carrying out of physical examinations 246
B. Degree of harm of industrial conditions
C. Dynamics of a state health of workers
D. Frequency and duration of cases of time invalidity
E. Order of medical establishment about carrying out of physical examinations
46. At the laboratory analysis of potable water from an artesian chink such indicators of quality are
defined: feculence 1.0 mg/dm3, taste and aftertaste - 2 points, fluorine - 5 mg/dm3, Coli-index - 2,
microbe number -100. What of the listed hygienic actions needs to be spent for improvement of water
quality?
A. Purification
B. Deodorization
C. Soft-making
D. Disinfecting
E. * Defluorination
47. In settlement N. among the population there was a disease flash to which signs the local therapist has
assumed an ecological origin of this disease. For acknowledgement of it, the doctor has excluded an
infectious and food origin of shifts in the state of health, on the basis:
A. Characteristic geographical prevalence
B. Sudden flash of new disease
C. * Absence of a contact way of transfer
D. Dependence "dose-effect"

E. Combination of nonspecific symptoms, characterized for seldom diseases

48. In the chamber for patients with thyreotoxicosis on the endocrinology department have been
registered microclimate parameters: average air temperature +19; relative humidity -57%, air
movement 0.15 m/sec. Which of the listed actions is recommended for microclimate optimization
in the chamber?
A. To increase relative humidity
B. To decrease relative humidity
C. To decrease air movement
D. * To decrease air temperature
E. To increase air temperature
49. In the regional hospital on 300 cots hospital waste is formed: dressing, the amputated bodies, etc.
Which is the basic method of neutralization hospital waste?
A. Export on modern dumps
B. Processing on organic fertilizers
C. * Burning
D. Loading in biothermal chambers
E. Export on the waste treatment station
50. Disease of caries among inhabitants of settlement N makes 89 %. It is established, that potable water
contains 0.1 mg/l of fluorine. Which preventive actions should be carried out?
A. Eat a lot of vegetables
B. Clean tooth
C. Use fluorine food
D. * Fluorinate water
E. Make fluorine inhalation
51. The toxic substance exceeds maximum concentration limit in atmospheric air in 100 times. What
changes of health at the population will be expected?
A. * Acute poisoning
B. Functional changes
C. Specific and nonspecific diseases
D. Physiological shifts
E. Deadly poisoning
52. In the kindergarten after walk among children there was mass defeat: pallor of integuments, cyanosis
among lips, short wind, tachycardia, weakness, consciousness loss. The day before on a children's
playground have delivered sand by car which transports mineral fertilizers (ammonia saltpeter). What
defeat arises at children?
A. * Methemoglobinemia
B. Poisoning with pesticides
C. Carboxyhaemoglobinemia
D. Food poisoning
E. Toxicoinfections
53. In settlement N. the building of kindergarten located in 30 meters from the nearest apartment house,
is transferred to enterprise "Dry-cleaner" (5 class of the enterprises according to Sanitary
classification of the enterprises). On what distance from apartment houses is similar enterprise
supposed to place?
A. 100 m
B. 10 m
C. 30 m
D. 300 m

E. * 50 m
54. In settlement N. data of five years' monitoring of pollution of atmospheric air and breath diseases of
the population were obtained. Which method of statistical data processing is possible to establish
connection between the specified signs?
A. Standardization method
B. * Correlation analysis
C. Calculation of average square deviation
D. Regress analysis
E. Calculation of average sizes
55. Leading method of hygienic researches is epidemiological which studies influence factors of
environment on population health. Way of realisation of this method is:
A. Sanitary inspection
B. Sanitary examination
C. * Sanitary-statistical
D. Sanitary supervision
E. Laboratory experiment
56. Water from artesian chink has such indicators: general hardness and dry residue above standard
norms, smell, aftertaste, color quantity, feculence by standard scale, Coli-index lower than standard
norm. What is necessary for reception of qualitative potable water from a chink?
A. Decolouration
B. Disinfecting
C. Deodorization, disinfecting
D. Clarification, softening
E. * Softening
57. In village N. there is an open-cast mine on extraction of fluorites. The doctor of hygiene has
established, that in water of mine wells contains from 1.5 to 5.0 mg/l of fluorine. What disease will
arise with using of potable water at the population?
A. Gout (podagra)
B. * Fluorosis
C. Itaj-Itaj
D. Encephalopathy
E. Caries
58. At the bacterial research of air in the ward of therapeutic department high level of pollution was
defined. In the ward, with area of 28 2 on 4 beds, carries out airing two times a day, the input is
equipped by a sluice, removal of dust two times a day, damp cleaning in the morning and in the
evening. What reasons of bacterial air pollution?
A. Frequency rate of cleaning of dust
B. Insufficient area on 1 bed
C. * Insufficient airing
D. Frequency rate of damp cleaning
E. All said
59. At the determine of pollution of atmospheric air in territory of a housing estate of the city R was
established, that the indicator of actual air pollution in 2 times exceeds the indicator of maximum
permissible pollution. How to estimate degree of danger of atmospheric air in the city R.?
A. Clean air
B. * Average polluted air
C. Considerably polluted air
D. Much polluted air

E. Very much polluted air

60. At the laboratory research of soil of the ground area of hospital it was established: Coli-tytre 1,
Perfringens-tytre 0.1, Sanitary index 0.99, Flies larvae in 0.25 m2 0. Estimate degree of
epidemic danger of soil.
A. Polluted
B. Low polluted
C. Considerably polluted
D. * Clean
E. Heavily polluted
61. In settlement D. the failure on a sewer collector coursed to the flash of intestinal infections. Make
hygienic assessment of the most effective method of disinfecting of water in settlement D.
A. * Chlorination by the Post-Break Doses
B. Double chlorination
C. Ozonization
D. UV-irradiation
E. Chlorination with the Preammonization
62. In operational surgical branch of regional hospital research of bacterial air pollution is carried out.
Before operation the general quantity of microbes- 950 in 1 m3, number of hemolytic streptococci in
1 m3 - 3; after operation the general quantity of microbes in 1 m3 - 1800, number of hemolytic
streptococci in 1 m3 - 10. Whether is a necessity for carrying out of sanitary-and-hygienic actions
and which?
A. All said
B. No
C. Yes, airing
D. Yes, an air conditioning
E. * Yes, general cleaning
63. At the sanitary inspection of regional infectious hospital was established, that it was constructed on
the decentralized system. Branches consist from boxes and the boxed chambers. The area of each
boxing and semi boxing is 22 m2, orientation of windows to the east, light coefficient 1/5, daylight
factor (DLF) - 1.0. What of the resulted parameters does not answer to hygienic requirements?
A. Building system
B. * Area of boxing and semi boxing
C. Orientation of windows
D. Light coefficient
E. Daylight factor (DLF)
64. At city reconstruction it has been decided to take out in a residential suburb following medical
establishments: tubercular clinic, psychoneurological clinic, children's hospital, tourist base, boarding
house. What of the listed establishments is inexpedient to place in a residential suburb?
A. Psychoneurological clinic
B. Tubercular clinic
C. * Children's hospital
D. Tourist base
E. Boarding house
65. Insufficiently cleared sewage of the industrial enterprise was dumped into the river which water is
used for the centralized drinking water supply. All it promotes to destruction of microorganisms,
infringement of self-cleaning and water deterioration. Similar action of factors of the environment is
called:
A. Combined
B. Direct

C. Additive
D. Complex
E. * Indirect
66. In the region N. flash of virus hepatitis of A was registreted among adults and children of school age.
What indicators of potable water need to be defined first of all?
A. Coli-index
B. Quantity of pathogenic microorganisms
C. Index of faecal coli-forms
D. * Quantity of coli-phages in 1 dm3
E. Microbic number
67. At the industrial enterprise as a result of technological process atmospheric emissions which contain
hydrogen dioxide, sulphur gas, carbon monoxide are formed. What construction is the most effective
for neutralisation of emissions?
A. * Scrubber
B. Fabric filter
C. Weld fume collector
D. Electrostatic precipitator
E. Dust collector
68. In the city D. with intensive automobile movement at the last 5 days of solar weather to the hospital
come inhabitants, workers of transport inspection, drivers with complaints on lacrimation, dry cough,
short wind, headache. What is the reason of such changes?
A. Increasing of sulphur gas in the air
B. Increasing of carbon monoxide in the air
C. Increasing of carbon dioxide in the air
D. Increasing of ozone in the air
E. * Increasing of photooxidizers in the air
69. In territory of agricultural soils the high-voltage electric (HVE) main by capacity 750 kV was build.
Management of the agrarian society has addressed to local sanitary station for consultation about use
of the area of sanitary-protective zone which makes 40 m on two parties from HVE. What cultures
have to grow up near sanitary-protective zone?
A. Vegetables
B. * Cereal cultures
C. Garden cultures
D. It is forbidden to grow up cultures
E. Flowers
70. For water supply of new area of city carry out a water fence from the river in which phenol
maintenance at level of admissible values is revealed. Water disinfecting made by method of
chlorination with preammonization. Duration of disinfecting as well as at usual chlorination (one
hour). Estimate, whether disinfecting of river water is correctly spent?
A. Disinfecting is spend correctly
B. Incorrectly, duration of disinfecting should be reduced
C. Incorrectly, it is not necessary to apply a method of chlorination with preammonization
D. Incorrectly, it is not necessary to apply a method of overchlorination
E. * Incorrectly, duration of disinfecting is insufficient
71. During first hours to the area of chemical failure should be directed experts of a medico-preventive
profile for participation in carrying out investigations, definitions of scales and estimation of
conditions. What experts should be directed to the area in this case?
A. Hygienist, epidemiologist, radiologist

B. * Hygienist, epidemiologist, toxicologist

C. Hygienist, biologist, parasitologist
D. Hygienist, ecologist, disinfections
E. Hygienist, epidemiologist, ecologist
72. Results of inspection of mine well have shown: it is located in the settlement on distance of 100 m
from potential sources of pollution, equipped by a public bucket, the cover is not present. Estimate
sanitary infringements.
A. Presence of a public bucket
B. Well arrangement
C. * Absence of a cover
D. Infringements are not present
E. Presence of potential sources of pollution
73. In operational of clinical hospitals have measured microclimate parametres. Results of
measurements: average air temperature 22, relative humidity 48%, air movement 0.1 m/sec.
A. Microclimate heating up
B. Microclimate discomfortable
C. Microclimate cooling
D. * Microclimate comfortable
E. Microclimate neutral
74. In inhabited territory the biogeochemical province was generated, coursed by atmospheric emissions
of the chemical enterprise. Make estimation of biogeochemical province.
A. * Accumulation in soil of specific chemical compounds
B. Increase of level of disease at the population
C. Deterioration of phytogenesis products
D. Restriction of conditions of water use
E. Pollution of atmospheric air
75. In the camp children had gastroenteric frustration, general state of health has not changed. At the
chemical analysis of potable water have established: ammonia not more than 2.2 mg/dm3, sulphates
600 mg/dm3, chlorides 250 mg/dm3. Bacteriological indicators are standard. What indicator of water
has caused disease in children?
A. * Sulphates
B. Chlorides
C. Ammonia
D. Bacteriological indicators
E. All said
76. In rural area unsatisfactory water supply. Search of new sources is necessary. At a choice for water
supply first of all are used:
A. * Artesian well
B. Atmospheric water
C. Opened reservoirs
D. Core waters
E. Springs
77. In settlement N. flash of intestinal infection was registered: gastroenterocolitis, caused by .oli,
Salmonella enteritidis, dysentery. In 3 weeks splash of belly typhus and virus hepatitis A was
observed. What is the reason of epidemic situation?
A. * Potable water pollution
B. Substandard foodstuff
C. Soil pollution

D. Pollution of atmospheric air

E. Non-observance of a sanitary mode in medical establishments
78. At the stomatologic inspection inhabitants of settlement M. complained of destruction of teeth,
frequent crises of bones forearm at elderly persons. In this district the decentralized water supply
prevails. What microcell promoted this situation?
A. * Fluorine
B. Iodine
C. Selenium
D. Manganese
E. Iron
79. Among inhabitants of settlement N symptoms have been registered: the century, pigmentation of
nails and mucous membranes, weakness, nausea, vomiting has swelled. Such symptoms complicated
by secondary staphylococcal infection. The given signs are connected with environmental
contamination:
A. * Polychlorinated biphenyls
B. Methyl-lead
C. Cadmium
D. Lead
E. Natrium
80. At the sanitary-chemical analysis of potable water the conclusion about fresh faecal pollution is
made. What indicator has given the basis to make such conclusion?
A. * Ammonia
B. Ammonia, nitrites
C. Nitrites and nitrates
D. Sulfates and chlorides
E. General rigidity
81. Insufficiently cleared sewage of the industrial enterprise was dumped into the river which water is
used for the centralized drinking water supply. All it promotes to destruction of microorganisms,
infringement of self-cleaning and water deterioration. Similar action of factors of the environment is
called:
A. * Indirect
B. Direct
C. Additive
D. Complex
E. Combined
82. In city sanitary station the project of maximum permissible dumps of the several household
enterprises of the city M. has arrived. Sewage is planned to carry out in the river S on 1.5 km more
lowly on a current. In the project the qualitative structure of sewage of the specified objects is
resulted. What dump of sewage from mentioned below should be forbidden?
A. * Sewage, which contain substances without established maximum concentration limits
B. Sewage of medical institutions
C. Sewage of steel-iron factory
D. Sewage from a meat-packing plant and an integrated poultry farm
E. Sewage of dry cleaning of clothes
83. The rational lay-out of territory of settlements assumes its division to functional signs on four zones:
1) an industrial zone, 2) a recreational zone, 3) external transport. Name the fourth zone:
A. * Inhabited
B. Sport zone

C. Zone of cultural and community establishments

D. Warehouse zone
E. Zone of new buildings
84. In the region N. flash of virus hepatitis of A was registreted among adults and children of school age.
What indicators of potable water need to be defined first of all?
A. * Quantity of coli-phages in 1 dm3
B. Quantity of pathogenic microorganisms
C. Index of faecal coli-forms
D. Coli-index
E. Microbic number
85. The student of medical university, has arrived for study from Syria, complains of fatigue, palpitation,
short wind, bad appetite, constipation, pain in muscles of shins at the palpation. What lack of vitamin
is observed at the surveyed?
A.
B. 2
C. 6
D. * 1
E.
86. The patient of 45 years complains on diarrhea, skin pigmentation, infringement of mentality and
frustration of the central nervous system. The doctor has established the diagnosis "pellagra"
(maidism). What lack of vitamin caused the disease?
A. E (tocopherol)
B. 1 (thiamine)
C. * (nicotinic acid)
D. (retinol)
E. (ascorbic acid)
87. The girl of 16 months is surveyed by pediatrists who work under the program WHO. Objectively:
hypostases of the bottom finiteness, buttocks, and also round eyes. Weight of the body is 10 kg. The
atrophy of muscles is expressed. It is observed dermatitis of enamels, depigmentation of hair. The
child is apathetic, crying monotonous. The anamnesis: to 6 months was on chest feeding, after an
excommunication from a breast ate vegetative food. What kind of disease is observed?
A. * Kwashiorkor disease
B. Alimentary marasmus
C. Syndrome Laella
D. Goshen disease
E. Gaffskaia disease
88. What foodstuff is recommended by the doctor as a source of vitamin 12?
A. Groats
B. Vegetables
C. Citrus
D. * Meat and liver of animals
E. Milk and dairy products
89. In food ration of the 66 y.o. teacher there are no products with antisclerous action. What foodstuff is
recommended to enter into a ration of the teacher?
A. Products from groats
B. * Fish, fowl, cottage cheese, fruit, vegetable
C. Fat meat
D. Products from flour

E. All said
90. At the survey of schoolboys from 4-th class there were revealed: the lowered working capacity, fast
fatigue, apathy, drowsiness. At 10 % of surveyed children it was observed gums bleeding,
hypodermic hemorrhages. Which lack of vitamin connected with such changes?
A. *
B. P
C.
D.
E.
91. Realisation of dishes as the sources of possible food poisoning has been forbidden at a primary
school. What of the listed dishes are forbidden for using in the organized collectives?
A. Fresh vegetables
B. Compote with fruits
C. Sausage
D. Beans
E. * Flour products with meat
92. Daily diet of the adult contains vitamins: retinol 0.5 mg, thiamin 2 mg, riboflavin 3 mg,
chyancobalamin 3 mg, ascorbic acid - 80 mg. Wich vitamin demands correction?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Thiamin
C. Riboflavin
D. Chyancobalamin
E. * Retinol
93. In the poultry farm on a site of preparation of the combined forages, concentration of dust consists
200 mg/m3. Air microflora is presented by mushrooms Aspergillus and Mucor. What effect of action
defines pathogenic properties of dust?
A. Teratogenic
B. * Allergenic
C. Mutagen
D. Fibrinogen
E. Toxic
94. In settlement D. to the regional hospital arrived patients with complaints to the pain, obdormition in
finitenesses, weakness, drowsiness. In heavy cases "dry gangrene" with mummification of
finitenesses developed. The doctor has established the diagnosis "poisoning from the products of the
plant". What foodstuff caused such disease:
A. Nuts (beech, migdal, ricina)
B. Potatoes
C. Pale toadstool
D. * Bread from rye flour
E. Belladonna
95. Some inhabitants of Odessa have been delivered in city infectious hospital with sharp gastroenteritis.
Disease connect with the use of fresh-salted fish. From excrements of patient V. parahaemolyticus
was allocated. What preventive actions are recommended?
A. * Not use fresh-salted fish
B. To plunge fish to thermal processing
C. To use antibiotics for prevention
D. To salt fish before use
E. To use bacterial phage for prevention

96. In the city infectious hospital a 32 y.o. patient with sharp gastroenteritis was delivered. Four hours
later he had dinner: alcoholic drinks, ham, vegetable salad, etc. For a dessert he ate repeatedly freeze
ice-cream with rum. What foodstuff caused this disease:
A. Perk
B. * Repeatedly freeze ice-cream
C. Alcoholic drinks
D. Vegetable salad
E. All said
97. After failure on the Chernobyl atomic power station Ukraine is situated in a late postemergency
phase. The basic source of internal irradiation is caesium-137. What of the listed foodstuff is a
probable source of caesium-137 in the organism?
A. Eggs
B. Meat
C. * Milk
D. Vegetables
E. Fruits
98. In the carrying out of planned medical inspection of workers of public catering at one of cooks of
secondary school was revealed sharp paraproctitis. This cook can course the disease:
A. * Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
B. Toxicoinfections, coursed by Klebsiella
C. Botulism
D. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Staphylococcus aureus
E. Mycotoxicosis
99. In infectious hospital a 35 y.o. woman with complaints on temperature, nausea, repeated vomiting,
sharp pain in epigastria has arrived. Signs of the general intoxication are marked: headache, cold
sweat, general weakness. Disease has begun in 2 hours after breakfast which consisted of stewed
potato with meat, breads, coffee and cake with custard. The most probable diagnosis:
A. Mycotoxicosis
B. Botulism
C. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Salmonella
D. Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
E. * Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Staphylococcus aureus
100. The food poisoning has occurred in the family consisting of 3 persons. Disease has begun sharply, in
24 hours after use of tinned mushrooms of house manufacturing. All members of the family showed
complaints to headache, feeling of burning in a stomach, nausea, vomiting, infringement of the
certificate of chewing, diplopia, ptosis. Disease lasted week then there has come recover. The most
probable diagnosis:
A. Toxicoinfections, coursed by E. Coli
B. * Botulism
C. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by B. aureus
D. Bacterial toxicoses, coursed by Salmonella
E. Mycotoxicosis
101. On the kindergarten nutrition unit the pork meat has arrived. After its inspection about 3 Finns on 40
sm2 meat were found out. Spend sanitary-and-hygienic estimation of meat.
A. Meat is subject to technical recycling
B. Forged
C. Good-quality
D. * onditionally suitable

E. Substandard
102. At the patient with urolithic illness periodically appeared oxalic acide in urine. What is necessary to
limit in a diet of the patient?
A. Fat food
B. Meat, fish
C. Dairy products
D. * Spinach, tomatoes
E. Broth
103. In the territory with raised disease of endemic craw family doctor for secondary preventive
maintenance suggested to use iodine foodstuff. What of the listed products should be used?
A. Products from a flour
B. Dairy products
C. Meat products
D. Vegetables and fruit
E. * Seafood
104. A 55 y.o. woman complains on diarrhoeia, peeling and pigmentation of skin at the neck, hands and
feet, irritability, anxiety. Anamnesis: basic foodstuff is a corn, vegetables, bean, fish and meat doesn`t
use. What disease at the woman?
A. Beri-beri
B. Scurvy
C. * Pellagra
D. Swifts` dermatitis
E. Keshan`s disease
105. The husband and wife gathered in wood mushrooms. In 12 hours after using of fried mushrooms, at
night they have felt sharp pain in a stomach, which was accompanied by frequent diarrhea, vomiting,
headache. For second day they have addressed for a medical aid. The husband has died for the third
day. The wife had jaundice, she gradually recovered. What mushrooms have served as the poisoning
reason?
A. Fly agarics
B. * Pale toadstool
C. Devil fungus
D. Volnushka
E. Valuy
106. A 50 y.o. woman has growth 165 sm, weight of body 70 kg, receive four-single diet. Works on
manufacturing of white lead. What treatment-and-prophylactic diet should she receive?
A. * Ration 3
B. Ration 2
C. Ration 1
D. Diet 15
E. Diet 9
107. The family from 4 persons was ill. They complaint to strong muscular weakness, headache, sight
deterioration, doubling in eyes, dryness in a mouth, difficulty of swallowing and speech. Objectively:
expansion of pupils, ptosis, infringement of accommodation. Temperature at all members of the
family is normal. The consciousness at all is kept. About what disease there is a speech?
A. Bacterial toxicosis
B. Mycotoxicosis
C. Toxicoinfections
D. Poisoning with chemical substances

E. * Botulism
108. In a diet of schoolchildren deficiency of beta carotene is marked. Which products are necessary to
provide?
A. Meat
B. Potato, cabbage
C. Milk, dairy products
D. * Carrots, tomatoes
E. Vegetative fats
109. Pupils of a boarding school complain of blood allocation at cleaning of teeth, sight deterioration
during the evening period, easy display of bruises. What vitamins are absent at the diet of children?
A. * Ascorbic acid and retinol
B. Riboflavin and pyridoxine
C. Calcium and phosphorus
D. Tocopherol and calcipherol
E. Zink, copper
110. At the survey of schoolboys from 4-th class there were revealed: the lowered working capacity, fast
fatigue, apathy, drowsiness. At 10 % of surveyed children it was observed gums bleeding,
hypodermic hemorrhages. Which lack of vitamin connected with such changes?
A. E
B.
C.
D.
E. * C
111. Educational rooms are illuminated with various lighting fittings. What type of lighting fittings is
themost appropriate in respect of hygienic norms?
A. * Indirect light fittings
B. Direct light fittings
C. Semi-reflected light fittings
D. Ambient light fittings
E. Combined light fittings
112. In terms of megacalorie (1000 kcal = 4184 kJ) the ration of an adult includes 30 g of proteins, 37 g of
fats, 137 g of carbohydrates, 15 mg of vitamin C, 0,6 mg of thiamine (vitamin B1). The ration is
UNBALANCED as to the contents of:
A. * Vitamin C
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Carbohydrates
E. Thiamine
113. A city somatic hospital with 300 beds consists of the main building which houses the therapeuticand
surgical departments. Several separate buildings house the maternity, pediatric andradiologic
departments that are connected to the main building by underground walkways and above-ground
covered skybridges. Specify the building system of the hospital:
A. * Central-unit
B. Centralized
C. Decentralized
D. Free
E. Combined

114. A heat station working on solid fuel is located in a residential district. On cloudy foggy days in
December there was an increase in diseases with upper airway affection and signs of
generalintoxication. There were also mortal cases among the elderly people. What is the most likely
factor that provoked toxic effect?
A. * Suspended materials
B. High air humidity
C. Calm
D. Low air temperature
E. Temperature gradient
115. While making sanitary examination of burn unit for adults it was stated that wards for 4 persons are
of 28 m2 square. What should be the minimum ward area in this unit?
A. * 40 m2
B. 24 m2
C. 28 m2
D. 30 m2
E. 52 m2
116. In order to improve organism tolerance of boarding-school pupils a doctor developed a program.
A. Systematicness
B. Autodefense increase
C. Increase of influence force
D. Increase of influence intensity
E. Increase of resistance
117. A student analyzes noise level of cold-pressing process. What device should be applied for
thishygienic study?
A. * Noise and vibration analyzer
B. Noise analyzer
C. Sound tester
D. Actinometer
E. Pyranometer
118. Environmental pollution is prevented by mechanical separation of nontoxic solid domestic
waste.Specify the method which can be used for mechanical utilization of these wastes:
A. * Compressing of wastes into building blocks
B. Hydrolysis
C. Burning as power-plant fuel
D. Burial of wastes
E. Waste neutralization in biothermal boxes
119. An emergency situation at a chemical plant caused acute occupational intoxication. A doctorwho
revealed the case of "acute occupational disease (intoxication)" must notify the followingauthority:
A. * Sanitary and epidemiological station
B. Plant administration
C. Trade union committee of the plant
D. Medical unit of the plant
E. Ministry of Health of Ukraine
120. At a machine-building plant the casts are cleaned by means of abrasion machines that are asource of
local vibration. What are the most efficient preventive measures for preventingharmful effect of
vibration on workers' organisms?
A. * Use of gloves that reduce vibration
B. Preliminary and periodical medical examinations

C. Hand massaging
D. Warm hand baths
E. Giving sanitary instructions to the workers
121. In order to study impact of microclimate upon the human organism it is necessary to make systematic
observation of air temperature over 3 days. Choose a device that will allow to makethe most precise
temperature records:
A. * Thermograph
B. Alcohol thermometer
C. Mercury thermometer
D. August's psychrometer
E. Assmannpsychrometer
122. The Carpathian region is characterized by constant high humidity of atmospheric air (over 80 %).
Inhabitants of this region feel severe cold in corresponding season at a medium lowtemperature. It's
caused by heat emission by:
A. * Convection
B. Radiation
C. Vaporization
D. Conduction
E. -
123. Poorly refined wastes of an industrial plant are usually thrown into the river that supplies drinking
water. It causes perishing of some microorganisms, disturbs processes of water self-purification and
worsens its quality that can have negative influence upon people's health. How is this effect of
environmental factors called?
A. * Indirect
B. Direct
C. Associated
D. Complex
E. Combined
124. In order to reduce weed growth on agricultural land, some herbicides have been used for a long time.
In terms of environmental stability these herbicides are rated as stable. Specify the most likely route
of their entry into the human body:
A. * Soil-plants-humans
B. Soil-microorganisms-humans
C. Soil-animals-humans
D. Soil-protozoa-humans
E. Soil-insects-humans
125. Hygienic expertise of a sample taken from the batch of grain revealed that 2% of grains were infected
with microscopic Fusarium fungi. On the ground of laboratory analyses this batch of grain should be:

A. Sold without restrictions

B. Tested for toxicity
C. Used for forage production
D. Used for ethanol production
E. * Destroyed
126. ANSWER: A
A. Mercury
B. Cadmium
C. Boron

D. Chromium
E. Lead
127. Examination of a 43-year-old man objectively revealed pallor of skin and mucous membranes, loss of
tongue papillae, transverse striation of fingernails, cracks in the mouth corners, tachycardia. Blood
test results: Hb- 90 g/l, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis. The most likely causativeagent of this state is
inadequate intake of:
A. * Aron
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Magnesium
E. Selene
128. During the medical examination a port crane operator complained of dizziness, nausea, sense of
pressure against tympanic membranes, tremor, dyspnoea, cough. He works aloft, the work is
connected with emotional stress. Workers are affected by vibration (general and local), noise,
ultrasound, microclimate that warms in summer and cools in winter. What factor are the
worker'scomplaints connected with?
A. * Infrasound
B. Noise
C. CVibration
D. Intensity of work
E. Altitude work
129. It is required to analyze the level of daylight illumination in a ward of therapeutics unit. What device
should be applied to estimate the level of daylight illumination?
A. * Illuminometer
B. Anemometer
C. Katathermometer
D. Actinometer
E. Psychrometer
130. During the medical examination at school the schoolchildren had to undergo plantography. After the
analysis of footprints platypodia was found in 30\% of pupils. What is the percentage of the flatfoot
isthmus?
A. * 65%
B. 30%
C. 50 %
D. 55 %
E. 45%
131. A factory's sectorial doctor selects a group of persons who often fall ill for thorough monitoring. At
the same time he takes into consideration the number of etiologically related cases with temporary
disability in each of the employees over the last year. An employee falls into this group if the number
of sickness cases is:
A. * 4 or more
B. 1 or more
C. 2 or more
D. 3 or more
E. 6 or more
132. Production areas of a greenhouse complex have the following microclimate parameters: air
A. Overheated
B. Comfortable

C. Cooling
D. Uncomfortable
E. Satisfactory
133. Sanitary-veterinary examination of a cow carcass revealed measle contamination (2-3 measlesper 10
cm2). What tactics should be chosen in respect of this meat consumption?
A. * The whole carcass should be technically disposed
B. Meat can be sold without any restrictions
C. The carcass should be used for the production of canned meat
D. Meat should be disinfected by boiling
E. Meat should be disinfected by freezing
134. Preventive examination of an 11 year old boy helped to determine his habitus type. It was
established that the child's shoulders were deviated and brought forward, with forward flexion
ofhead, the thorax was flattened, and abdomen was convex. The child's backbone had signs of
deepened cervical and lumbar curvatures. What habitus is it?
A. * Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Round-shouldered
D. Corrected
E. Normal
135. A plot of land with total area of 2,0 hectare was intended for building of a hospital. The maximal
capacity of the hospital will be:
A. * 100 beds
B. 200 beds
C. 400 beds
D. 800 beds
E. Over 1000 beds
136. During hygienic examination of a hospital it was established that the area for each bed in a double
ward was: in the infectious department for children - 7 2, in the infectiousdepartment for adults - 8
2, in the burns department - 9 2, in the radiologicaldepartment - 10 2, in the critical care
department - 13 2. In which wards the area foreach bed doesn't correspond with hygienic
requirements?
A. * In burns wards
B. In infectious wards for children
C. In infectious wards for adults
D. In radiological wards
E. In critical care wards
137. According to the report of water quality control, drinking city water has the following characteristics:
turbidity - 1,5 mg/m3, odour - 3 points, metallic taste - 2 points, pale yellow colour, colour index 20
0, temperature - 120. Which of these factors doesn't comply with hygienic requirements?
A. * Odour
B. Turbidity
C. Colour index
D. Temperature
E. Taste
138. Workers of a laboratory producing measuring devices (manometers, thermometers etc.)complain
about a metallic taste in mouth, stomatitis, dyspepsia, sleep disturbance, unsteady walk, and abrupt
decrease in cardiac activity. These presentations must have been caused by the intoxication with the
following substance:
A. * Mercury

B. Lead
C. Manganese
D. Toluol
E. Tetraethyl lead
139. While assessing the health status of graduates of a secondary school, the doctor found one of them to
have grade 3 tonsillar hypertrophy, chronic rhinitis and vegetative-vascular dystonia. The organism
functionality is reduced. This student belongs to the following health group:
A. * III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
140. Estimation of physical development of a child involved dynamometry and estimation of body weight
and length, annual gain in body length, chest circumference, number of permanent teeth, secondary
sexual characters, lung vital capacity. Which of the mentioned indices relates to the physiometric
ones?
A. * Lung vital capacity, dynamometry
B. Body length and weight, chest circumference
C. Secondary sexual characters
D. Number of permanent teeth
E. Annual gain in body length
141. It is planned to build a multi-disciplinary hospital with 500 beds in a town. Specify the location of a
polyclinic within the medical centre:
A. * At the main entrance
B. In the garden and park area
C. In the centre of the territory near medical buildings
D. It is not allowed to place the polyclinic within the centre territory
E. Intheservicezone
142. Which juice is recommended to include in a comprehensive drug-dietary therapy for patients with
gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer with high acidity of gastric juice in order to accelerate the healing of
the ulcer?
A. * Potato, potato - carrot
B. Apple, birch - apple
C. Pumpkin
D. Cabbage, cabbage - carrot
E. Celery, parsley
143. According to the results of medical-pedagogical, monitoring physical education lesson in the ninth
grade is based physiological curve, which is characterized by a gradual increase in heart rate in the
introduction part, increased heart rate by 80% during the main part, the curve has a 4-toothed
appearance. How can we evaluate the organization of physical education lessons?
A. * Long periods between exercises
B. Lesson is built correctly
C. Insufficient exercise
D. Extreme exercise
E. Sufficient physical activity
144. Clinic Research Institute, found a worker who works at the processing plant with occupational
disease - chronic bronchitis. Investigation of the case holds a commission composed of
representatives from: health department, the territorial SES offices of the Fund of social insurance,
trade union organization. A representative of the facility should lead the work of the commission
under the current Regulations on the investigation ..."?
A. * Territorial EUFOR
B. Enterprises
C. Social Insurance Fund
D. Trade Union Organization
E. Health Part
145. According to the laboratory, monitoring of soil health in the hospital to indicators of health - the soil
lightly, the titre of E. coli - contaminated, the titre of anaerobes (Cl. perfringens) slightly polluted.
This indicates that:
A. * The presence of fresh faecal contamination.
B. Inadequate intensity of humification in the soil.
C. Long faecal contamination.
D. A continuous supply of organic protein contamination.
E. Inadequate insolation and soil aeration.
146. In preschool, among the 240 children there is outbreak of dysentery. In 2 days, 37 children and 5 staff
members from different groups got sick. Detect predominantly severe clinical forms. Specify the pre-
flash type:
A. * Food
B. Contact-household
C. Water
D. Contact
E. fecal-oral
147. In the hospital, patient with complaints of violation of pain and tactile sensitivity and pain in the
terminal phalanges, which occurs after work was admitted. In the company he was working with
mechanical devices. What kind of pathology should be suspected in this case?
A. * Vibration disease
B. Bends
C. Noise illness
D. Signs of fatigue
E. Hypovitaminosis Vitamin B1
148. As a health indicator of air quality in the classroom using the concentration of carbon dioxide in the
air. What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in the air (in%) accepted as valid?
A. * 0,1%
B. 0,05%
C. 0,15%
D. 0,2%
E. 0,3%
149. Indicate which light ratio should be in the wards, facilities for day-stay patients in their offices for
doctors and procedural?
A. * 1:5 - 1:6
B. 1:4 - 1:5
C. 1:6-1:7
D. 1:3-1:4
E. 1:7-1:8

150. According to the draft pre-school institutions in the all group of cells comprises the combined gaming
and bedroom are separated by a sliding partition, making room for the children, pantry, which merged
with the game, and a bathroom. By what measure of the planning group of cells does not meet
hygienic requirements?
A. * Combining gaming and bedrooms for toddlers
B. Combining gaming and room for children of preschool age
C. The union game and a bedroom for the children of the preparatory group
D. Combining gaming and pantry
E. No receiver (dressing room)
151. In studying the actual nutrition of the adult is established: the proportion energotsennost daily diet
from protein - 16% fat - 25%, carbohydrates - 59%. Evaluate compliance of the content of proteins,
fats, carbohydrates recommended by their proportion in the diet energotsennost:
A. * Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet insufficient, excess protein
B. Share of fat in the diet of poor
C. Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet of poor
D. Proportion of carbohydrates in the diet of overweight
E. Content of nutrients is responsible for the recommended values energotsennost
152. The patient, long-term eating refined foods, complained of headache, fatigue, depression, insomnia,
irritability. OBJECTIVE: Muscle fatigue, aches and cramps in the calf muscles when walking on the
heels, then on the outer edge of the foot, from the CCC - tachycardia, hypoxia, dystrophic changes of
the heart muscle, observed violations of the gastrointestinal tract. What is the diagnosis?
A. * Hypovitaminosis B1
B. Hypovitaminosis B2
C. Hypovitaminosis B12
D. Hypovitaminosis B6
E. Hypovitaminosis B15
153. The working chemical plant during a periodic medical examination revealed a malignant neoplasm of
the bladder. Contact with industrial poison, most significantly, has led to the emergence of an
occupational disease?
A. * Benzidine
B. Vinyl chloride
C. Nickel carbonyl
D. Asbestos
E. Arsenic
154. Patient 48 years participated in the aftermath of the accident is being treated at outpatient department.
Diagnosis: progressive autonomic failure. Which group of effects of ionizing radiation can be
attributed the disease:
A. * Somato-stochastic
B. Somatic effects
C. Genetic
D. Hormesis
E. Heterosis
155. Patient Z. hospitalized in a health care with a diagnosis of urolithiasis. When chemical analysis
revealed that the stones are composed of salts of uric acid (urate). Meals for this pathology should be
corrected in the direction of reducing the content in the diet:
A. * Meat products
B. Dairy products
C. Grain products
D. Egg products

E. Vegetables and fruit

156. In the children's holiday camp brought canned food. At external examination marked cans - the banks
have deep dents, while pressing bend inward, did not immediately return to the starting position, no
rust, banks greased technical fat. Determine bombazh.
A. * Physical.
B. Chemical.
C. Biology.
D. Mixed.
E. Physical Chemistry.
157. In the children's sanatorium arose mass food poisoning after eating yogurt, manufactured on dairy.
Among plant workers found employees with pustular skin diseases. Determine the nature of food
poisoning.
A. * Staphylococcal toxemia.
B. Botulism.
C. Salmonella.
D. Aflotoksikoz.
E. Ergotism.
158. The baby 9 months, there were delays and teething extended period of imperforate temechka,
weakness and sweating. With what kind of hypovitaminosis is the baby suffering from?
A. * Hypovitaminosis D.
B. Hypovitaminosis C
C. Hypovitaminosis B1
D. Hypovitaminosis B6
E. Hypovitaminosis A
159. On one of the areas the railway station, home of the unloading of cars from the pitch in bulk, at the
physiological and hygienic study the nature of stevedores, to manually shovel break a lot of baked
and inverted it, it was found that their work relates to the third degree of severity. Which of the
following criteria could be evaluated the work of loaders?
A. * Maximum weight of cargo that moves.
B. Magnitude of static load, it changes.
C. Time Activism, % for the duration of the shift.
D. Time of passive observation, % for the duration of the shift.
E. Smart tension.
160. Working refrigeration plants fisheries operate at low ambient temperatures - from -5 to -15 C.
Which of the following changes in the body of workers are the most characteristic and leading under
these circumstances?
A. * Narrowing of vessels in the skin and muscles.
B. Increase in oxygen consumption.
C. Rapid breathing.
D. Changes in systolic blood volume.
E. Changes in minute volume of blood.
161. Working fisheries are subject to the influence of low ambient temperatures of between -5 C to -15
C. Disease which organs and systems are most common among workers of these industries?
A. * Respiratory system.
B. Cardiovascular.
C. Blood.
D. Liver.
E. Gastrointestinal tract.

162. A boy of 10 years to see a doctor complaining of general weakness, fatigue, irritability, decreased
disability, bleeding gums, petechiae on the legs. Lack of which vitamin can lead to this case?
A. * Ascorbic acid.
B. Thiamine.
C. Riboflavin.
D. Vitamin A.
E. Vitamin D.
163. According to the schedule in the eighth grade, only 36 lessons per week. Breaks between classes is
10 minutes and after the 2nd lesson - 30 minutes. On Wednesday, 1st lesson - geography, 2nd -
Mathematics, 3rd - Training. What is the violation occurs in the timetable?
A. * Number of lessons throughout the week.
B. Place the geography lesson in the timetable.
C. Place the lesson of physical culture in the schedule.
D. Place of mathematics lessons in the timetable.
E. Duration of breaks.
164. Among the population of one district of the city celebrated the uneven color of teeth. On the incisors
were observed white spots, transverse brown stripes. In the occurrence of these symptoms suspected
drinking water from a deep borehole. Which of the components of water could cause disease?
A. * F
B. Ca
C. Mg
D. J
E. Fe
165. In the industrial area of one of the industrial cities in preschool children with chronic diseases and
frequent asthmatic bronchitis, bronchial asthma. Which of the permanent air pollutants could be their
cause?
A. * Sulfur dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Lead
D. Oxides of Nitrogen
E. Products of photochemical reactions
166. City Hospital consists of a main building, which housed the surgical and therapeutic departments, and
several smaller buildings for infection, the maternity and children's departments. Define a system
construction of the hospital.
A. * Mixed
B. Central
C. Septic
D. Centrally blocked
E. barrack
167. Well mining is located 20 meters from the apartment building, 10 meters from the restroom, at a
distance of 15 m from a neighbor's home. What is the smallest distance in accordance with sanitary
norms should be between a well and a source of possible contamination of water?
A. * 50 m
B. 25 m
C. 20 m
D. 15 m
E. 10 m

168. During the medical examination student third class set disharmonious physical development.
OBJECTIVE: biological age corresponds to the calendar, there is a compensated chronic bronchitis.
Clinical and functional changes of the other bodies are missing. Which group of health is a student?
A. * III-rd group
B. I-Group I
C. IV-th group
D. II-I group
E. V-I group
169. A child of preschool age is established harmonious physical development of and compliance with the
biological age calendar. Chronic diseases are absent. Within a year he was sick 5 times acute
illnesses. Which group of health concerns a boy?
A. * II-I group
B. I-Group I
C. III-rd group
D. V-I group
E. IV-th group
170. When analyzing the results of periodical medical examination of working-polishers art glass was
found that 40% of workers aged 30-45 years with long job tenure is set ulnar nerve neuritis, and 21%
- vegetative-sensitive polyneuritis, 12% - vegetomiofastsit upper limbs . Workers polished product
with a rotating abrasive disc. Since the action of adverse factors associated pathology data?
A. * Vibration
B. Adverse climate
C. Dust
D. Noise
E. EMR
171. When carrying out cleaning work in the mine the concentration of coal dust in the working area of
450 mg/m3 (TLV - 10 mg/m3). The development of occupational respiratory diseases in miners may
lava?
A. * Anthracosis
B. Allergic nasopharyngitis
C. Byssinosis
D. Siderosis
E. Talcosis
172. In the city there was a failure on the sewerage network, which resulted in the possibility of suction of
sewage in the water supply network. The growth of any infectious disease may be a consequence of
what happened?
A. * Escheriosis, shigellosis, typho-paratyphoid infections
B. Brucellosis, leptospirosis, salmonellosis
C. Plague, tularemia, rickettsial
D. Hepatitis B, yersiniosis
E. Diphtheria, scarlet fever, epidparotita
173. In April, during the medical examination groups, 27% of those observed decreased in performance
and fatigue. Objectively revealed swollen gums loosened, expressed bleeding when massaging, on
the skin - follicular hyperkeratosis on the background of dry skin. What is the pathology most likely
related to the data display?
A. * C-hypovitaminosis
B. Periodontal
C. A-hypovitaminosis
D. B1-hypovitaminosis
E. Polyhypovitaminosis
174. During the medical examination of workers at a cotton mill 30% of individuals was identified
overweight: at 5-14% above normal in the Quetelet Index of 22 to 25. For the normalization of body
weight in this group of persons is necessary in the diet is primarily to reduce:
A. * Mono-and disaccharides
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Polysaccharides
E. Fibers
175. The patient was hospitalized in a health care setting with a diagnosis of bothriocephaliasis. From
which fish can this infection occurred?
A. * Carp River
B. Pollock
C. Flounder
D. Okun sea
E. Marine Halibut
176. To conduct periodic medical examinations of workers of the chemical plant to produce chrome-and
nickel mineral compounds formed medical committee consisting of: a therapist, dermatologist,
trauma, eye specialist, neurologist, an immunologist, a surgeon, an otolaryngologist, a haematologist.
Determine the minimum of the medical commission, taking into account the features produced by the
production.
A. * Audiologist, physician, dermatologist
B. Therapist, dermatologist, trauma
C. Therapist, optometrist, neurologist
D. Therapist, an immunologist, a surgeon
E. Therapist, haematologist, an oculist
177. In a city hospital with 500 beds accumulated solid waste, including: the remains of food, bandages,
etc. to determine the optimum method of disposal of these wastes.
A. * Incineration
B. Composting
C. Removal for improved landfill
D. Bookmark in bio thermal camera
E. Throw in garbage
178. In the area of placement of an industrial enterprise, where atmospheric air is heavily polluted with
sulphur dioxide, there is increased incidence of total population. What is the impact on the human
body in this situation provides air pollution?
A. * Chronic non-specific
B. Sharp specific
C. Acute non-specific
D. Chronic specific
E. Selective
179. In the house of an infant fell ill at the same time, 40 children under the age of 1 year. Characteristic
symptoms: general weakness, cyanosis, skin and visible mucous membranes. Children received
artificial food mixture, which was diluted with water from wells. Clinical laboratory studies revealed
a considerable amount of children's blood metagmoglobin. The presence of any chemical
contaminants in water could be a possible cause of toxic cyanosis?
A. * Nitrates
B. Aluminium
C. Lead

D. Arsenic
E. Iron
180. In secondary school enrolled 38 pupils. Throughout the year, 4 people were not ill at all, 8 - hurt
once, 11 - 2 times, 6 - 3 times, 5 - 4 times, 2 - 5 times, 1 - 6 times, and 1 - 8 times. How many
students belong to the class group of sickly?
A. * 9 people
B. 15
C. 4 people
D. 2 person
E. 1 person.
181. In the forestry summer sanatorium for children with a view to hardening of the body conducting the
various procedure. Indicate which of the following procedures for the tempering?
A. * Contrast shower
B. Morning gymnastics outdoors
C. Hygienic Shower
D. Walking outdoors
E. Bath with hydromassage
182. Among the population that lives near a pesticide plant in the dynamics of increased level of
congenital malformations, which are expressed in the central paralysis, idiocy and blindness of
newborns. The compounds of the pollutant of the environment can cause the development of this
pathology?
A. * Mercury
B. Strontium
C. Cadmium
D. Hardware
E. Chrome
183. Planned to build a multidisciplinary hospital in one of the central areas of the city N. What type of
building the most expedient in this case?
A. * centrally-block
B. Centralized
C. Decentralised
D. Mixed
E. Block
184. In studying the physical development of children ages preddoshkolnogo estimated parameters: length
and body weight, circumference of chest, head and hips, the shape of the spine and thorax. Which of
the indicators, except for length and body mass refers to the basic indicators of physical
development?
A. * Circumference of chest
B. Head circumference
C. Shape of the spine
D. Shape of the chest
E. Hip circumference
185. In assessing the organization of sanatorium power of persons who suffered as a result of Chornobyl
disaster, it was suggested that regulated the amount of nutrients in diets, which come in a competitive
relationship with the radio nuclides and prevent their absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. Which
nutrients are of priority importance for the designation of the biological action of food?
A. * Potassium, calcium, dietary fiber
B. Iron, zinc, carbohydrate

C. Vegetable fats, dietary fiber

D. Fat soluble vitamins, animal protein
E. Magnesium, phosphorus, plant proteins
186. In the urban-type settlement, located near the river, an outbreak of hepatitis A, possibly water origin.
The increase in public water-quality pond can confirm this assumption?
A. * Number of quantitative phages.
B. The index of Escherichia coli
C. Oxidation.
D. Availability of the pathogen water fever
E. Index of fecal coliforms
187. During the reconstruction of the city hospital in the city, located on the 55o latitude, will transfer the
surgical unit of the basement to the first floor of the building. On which side of the world need to
orient the new operating window for optimal operation of surgical staff?
A. * North
B. East
C. West
D. South
E. South West
188. During a survey of hygienic conditions of education in technical colleges was necessary to evaluate
the visual mode of students who learn from 9.00 to 15.00 hours. Which indicator of natural lighting
will be the most informative and appropriate to the task?
A. * Ratio of natural light (RED)
B. Light coefficient (SC)
C. Depth of the training room
D. Time insolation premises
E. Availability of joint (upper-side) illumination
189. Set a group of schoolchildren's health, which suffers from rheumatic heart disease in the stage
A. Fourth group
B. Second group
C. Fifth group
D. First group
E. Third group
190. When audiometric study of auditory function working - turner found that at the end of the shift
change in the threshold of auditory sensitivity was 17 decibels in both ears. How can we evaluate the
functional state of the auditory analyzer working in the late Baby changing?
A. * Fatigue
B. Adaptation
C. Overfatigue
D. Deafness
E. Fatigue
191. When assessing the physical development of teenage girls of 13 years on the scale of the regression,
her body weight was 1,9 sigmoid regression is different from the "ideal" weight for her body length,
and the value of the circumference of the chest (WGC) on - 1 sigma regression less then "ideal" value
of this indicator on a scale regression for its body length. Assess the physical development of girls?

A. * Dysharmonious due to deficiency of body weight

B. Balanced
C. Dysharmonious of deficit-WGC

D. Sharp dysharmonious by underweight

E. Sharply dysharmonious of deficit-WGC
192. Work-steelworker working in conditions with air temperature of 26 C, relative humidity 40%, air
velocity 0.5 m / sec and a radiation temperature of 35 C . Do physical work is characterized by
moderate severity. Which way is the impact of heat in the body cannot go through in this situation?
A. * By radiation
B. By convection
C. By direct heat
D. By evaporation
E. By evaporation of moisture from the mucosal airway during expiration
193. At a chemical plant in order to optimize conditions scheduled the replacement of toxic raw materials
for non-toxic, equipped with general ventilation, use personal protective equipment, reducing work
time, decrease the severity of labour. What activities related to primary prevention?
A. * Replacement of toxic materials into non-toxic
B. Equipment, general ventilation
C. Use of personal protective
D. Shortness of work time
E. Reduce the severity of labour
194. In the orphanage Sponsor entered the party of children's clothing made from natural materials. A
doctor at the orphanage her assessment found: underwear for preschool children is characterized by
high air and water vapor permeability, igroskopichnostyu and moisture resistant. Tissue is sparse,
porous and elastic. Is the fabric of hygienic requirements?
A. * Responsible
B. Is not responsible for breathability
C. Is not responsible for the hygroscopicity
D. Is not liable for water resistance
E. Is not responsible for porosity
195. In kindergartens (preschool) is used for games furry toy "bear": weight - 200 grams, paint-resistant
material, toxic substances are absent, the smell - 3 points. Does toys hygienic requirements for use in
preschool?
A. * So not responsible for the material
B. Meets
C. Does not meet mass
D. Is not responsible for the stability of the dye
E. Is not responsible for the smell
196. The town, situated in a valley within a few days, the streets were overloaded vehicles. On the second
day after the windless sunny weather in the clinic asked city residents complained of severe irritation
of the conjunctiva, upper respiratory tract, accompanied by lacrimation and coughing. What is the
most possible cause of the disease arising from the residents of the city?
A. * High content of air, photo-oxidant
B. Elevated CO2 in the air
C. Increase in air content of CO
D. Elevated airborne levels of nitric oxide
E. Increase in ozone
197. During the medical examination of schoolchildren in one of his disciples established "asthma."
Symptoms of respiratory failure at rest there. Which group of physical education classes should
include this student?
A. * Preparatory team
B. Basic group

C. Special group
D. Classes of physical therapy
E. Restricted class
198. During the medical examination the patient was observed with "geographic tongue". This micro
symptom indicates a lack of food:
A. * B group vitamins
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin RR
199. Athlete of the group of climbers who had just returned after climbing the snow-capped mountains,
appealed to the doctor complaining of feeling "sand" in the eyes, inability to look at the bright light.
Objectively, there is hyperaemia and edema conjunctiva of eyes. Goggles athlete lost during the
ascent. Put the diagnosis of the disease and indicate which factor was the cause of this disease.
A. * Photo-ophthalmic. Ultraviolet radiation.
B. Foto-toxicos. White snow.
C. Photo-allergy. Ultraviolet radiation.
D. Cataracts. Infrared radiation.
E. Conjunctivitis. Bright sunlight.
200. In the laboratory for the study received a sample of milk. , The following information: colour - white,
scent - no features, taste - a characteristic of milk, density - 1.038, pH - 35 Turner, fat - 3.2%.
Determine the degree of milk quality.
A. * Milk quickie
B. Milk benign
C. Milk debased
D. Milk adulterated
E. Milk conditionally suitable
201. During the medical examination the doctor paid attention to student growth 162 cm and weighing 59
kg, which prdyavlyala complaints that evening, losing the ability to clearly see the surrounding
objects. Obktivno determined by dry skin, hyperkeratosis. As part of the daily diet of a student
found a content of essential vitamins: Vitamin A - 0,5 mg, Vitamin B1 - 2,0 mg, Vitamin B2 - 2,5 mg,
Vitamin B6 - 2 mg, vitamin C - 70 mg. Establish the diagnosis of the disease.
A. * A - vitamin deficiencies
B. B1 - Hypovitaminosis
C. B2 - Hypovitaminosis
D. B6 - vitamin deficiencies
E. C - vitamin deficiencies
202. At the dispensary examination of the citizen age 35 years diagnosed with alimentary-constitutional
obesity III Art. From food history revealed that the patient does not adhere to the requirements of a
balanced diet: often overeat, the last meal for 10-15 minutes before bedtime, preferred fatty foods and
foods containing large amounts of carbohydrate. Which of the following risk factors for obesity is a
major?
A. * Surplus of diet Energetichesky
B. Increase carbohydrate intake
C. Increased consumption of fats
D. Lack kletkoviny in the diet
E. Flag diet

203. In establishing the adaptation of students of class 1 for school revealed that they have a low rate of
information processing in the classroom, the prevalence of processes of inhibition over excitation.
What degree of adaptation of these students?
A. * Tense
B. Satisfactory
C. Good
D. Unsatisfactory
E. Long
204. At grain harvest in July, the outside temperature was 31 ? C in the driver's cab of the combine
temperature - 35 ? C, air velocity - 0,2 m / s, relative humidity - 55%, the temperature of the walls
and roof - 45 ? C. Normalize the microclimate in the cockpit is possible by:
A. * Cooling air
B. Increasing the speed of air movement
C. Increasing humidity
D. Reduce humidity
E. Thermal insulation of walls and roofs
205. During the overhaul of the hospital was provided updated colour schemes for the hospital premises,
as it has great psychological and aesthetic importance; wall wards decided to paint the light of:
A. * Orientation boxes
B. Hospital Profile
C. Disease patients who were hospitalized in these chambers
D. Reflection coefficient of walls
E. Create a sense of comfort
206. In the air emissions from the industrial centre comes metallurgical plants: sulphur oxides, nitrogen,
metals, carbon, which adversely affect the health of the population. The effect of these hazards is
described as:
A. * Combined
B. Complex
C. Combined
D. Neighbouring
E. Mixed
207. In a study of hygienic conditions of work of doctors in the operating room, the following parameters
of the microclimate: t = 220S, air velocity 0.1 m / s, humidity 55%, CO2 - 0.1%, air changes per hour
- 8. Determine which of the parameters of microclimate does not meet the norm?
A. * Air exchange
B. Temperature
C. Humidity
D. The speed of air movement
E. CO2 content
208. The driver repaired the car in the garage, then turned to the doctor is complaining of headache,
dizziness, nausea, muscular weakness, drowsiness, seen determined by increased heart rate,
respiratory failure, hypertension, delusions of persecution. The most likely diagnosis:
A. * Intoxication with carbon monoxide
B. Intoxication leaded gasoline
C. Post-traumatic encephalopathy
D. Hypertensive crisis
E. Asthenic-vegetative syndrome
209. In primary schools the concentration of CO2 in the air - 0,2%, the light ratio - 1:5, temperature - 20 ?
C, humidity - 55%. General lighting incandescent lamps - 200 lux. What features or abnormalities are
most likely?
A. * Reducing disability, headache
B. Colds
C. Visual impairment
D. Scoliosis
E. Vegeto-vascular dystonia
210. In the urban-type settlement recorded case of food poisoning. The diagnosis of botulism "raised on
the basis of clinical disease. Which of the following products should be primarily selected on the
study to confirm the diagnosis?
A. * Canned
B. Potatoes
C. Milk pasteurized
D. Boiled meat
E. Cabbage
211. In studying the link between air pollution and the prevalence of respiratory diseases found that the
simple correlation coefficient of r = + 0,82. Evaluate the strength and nature of the relationship.
A. * A strong direct
B. Mean
C. A strong inverse
D. Average reverse
E. Weak direct
212. Fitter, 42 years for five years working in the shop on a lathe for the production of large heavy parts,
using hand levers and pedal, which require considerable physical effort. What activities should be
encouraged to prevent osteoarthritis?
A. * Restrict heavy physical labour
B. Protein-carbohydrate diet
C. Protein and vitamin diet
D. Improvement of the Black Sea coast
E. Heavy weight lifting
213. At the company where manufactured red lead, formed a team of medical specialists to conduct a
periodic medical examination. Which of the following doctors have to Bach in the team?
A. * Neurologist
B. Gynaecologist
C. Psychiatrist
D. Dermatologist
E. Otorhinolaryngological
214. The working gas stations from 15 years of experience, which is in contact with leaded gasoline, there
is memory loss, bradycardia, hair sensation in the mouth, skin paresthesia. Intoxicating substance
which can be assumed in this case?
A. * Tetraethyl
B. Lead chloride
C. Organophosphates
D. Benzene
E. Nitrobenzene

215. Project hospitals provided the distribution of hospital buildings into three groups: medical, medical-
diagnostic and economic, which are interconnected by underground passages. What type of
construction used in the design of the hospital?
A. * A centrally-block.
B. Mixed.
C. Centralized.
D. Decentralized.
E. Centrally decentralized.
216. The total area of the Chamber therapy department is 28 m2. For a maximum number of beds
designed this chamber?
A. * 4.
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. 3.
E. 5.
217. Bandwidth biodozy ultraviolet radiation a patient is measured in minutes. What instrument
determines the value of biodozy?
A. * Biodosimetry Gorbachev
B. Ultra violet metre
C. Actinometry
D. Radiometer
E. Catathermometer
218. On a plot of rural hospitals for 50 patients identified such areas: the medical building for non-
infectious patients, the medical building for infectious diseases with separate garden and park areas,
as well as the economic zone in which located mortem room. What violation was committed in the
planning section?
A. * Combining business and pathoanatomical zones.
B. Separation of landscaping areas.
C. The location of infectious department in the area hospitals.
D. Demarcation of zones for infectious and non-patients.
E. Mortem Location offices in the area hospitals.
219. For the prevention of nosocomial infections transmitted by airborne droplets, in the infectious
department planned to complete boxes, which consist of a vestibule, the House, Gateway. What other
structural part must be part of a complete boxing?
A. * WC
B. Handling
C. House doctor
D. Sight
E. Nursing post
220. For lighting classrooms use a variety of lighting. What type of lighting fixture creates the most
favorable treatment from the hygienic point of view of lighting?
A. * Reinforcement of the reflected light
B. Fittings of direct light
C. Poly light fittings
D. Different light fittings
E. Valves combined light
221. Diet of adult human contains recalculated as mega calorie (1000 kcal = 4184 kJ) 30 g protein, 37 g
fat, 137 g carbohydrate, 15 mg vitamin E, 0.6 mg thiamine (B1). Ration is not balanced by:

A. * Vitamin E
B. Squirrel
C. Giraud
D. Carbohydrate
E. Thiamine
222. For the organization of village water consumption water source is selected from sulphate, chloride,
nitrate, iron, which meets hygiene requirements, but with a high level of fluoride (3 mg / dm 3). To
the development of the disease can cause drinking water of this composition?
A. * Fluorosis
B. Caries
C. Urolithiasis
D. Gout
E. Cholelithiasis
223. In the cloudy days of December (calm, fog) in the area of the TEC, working on solid fuel, has
increased the number of cases with lesions of the respiratory tract and symptoms of intoxication.
Increased number of deaths among residents of advanced age. What is the most possible factors
triggered the deterioration of public health?
A. * Suspended solids
B. High humidity
C. Calm
D. Low temperature
E. Temperature gradient
224. During the medical examination male drivers 10% of those identified being overweight (BMI = 39.9
kg / m ?, body weight 65% above normal). What is the energy status of Quetelet index?
A. * Obesity third degree
B. The normal energy status (adequate food)
C. Obesity first degree
D. Obesity second degree
E. Obesity fourth degree
225. For hardening body boarding schools had a physician developed program. In the framework of the
program on the following principles: steady, consistency, individuality, complexity. Which of the
basic principles of hardening is not taken into account?
A. * Systematic
B. Increased resistance
C. Increase in strength of influence
D. Increasing the intensity of impact
E. Increasing resistance
226. Soil micro-district territory is characterized as moderately polluted in titre anaerobes, net - the
number of soil-transmitted helminths eggs, slightly soiled - the number of larvae and pupae of flies
and health among the Klebnikov. Which indicator would be decisive in the overall assessment of soil
health district?
A. * Bacteriological
B. Helminthological
C. Entomological
D. Sanitary-chemical
E. All together

227. In the computer room research sector Polytechnic Institute jobs laboratory operators are located near
the front of the monitor. Under the influence of electromagnetic waves over high frequency operators
are a whole working day.
A. * Visual Analyzer.
B. Auditory analyzer.
C. Tactile sensitivity.
D. Auditory analyzer.
E. Pain sensitivity.
228. At an engineering plant is carried out cleaning of castings by grinding machines, which are a source
of local vibration. What are the most Effectiveness preventive measures to prevent its harmful effects
on the body of the workers?
A. * Use of gloves, which are quenched by vibration
B. Conducting preliminary and periodical medical examinations
C. Massage Hands
D. Taking a warm bath for hands
E. Conducting health education among the workers
229. To study the influence of microclimate on the human body is necessary to organize systematic
observation of air temperatures for several days. Select the device that will allow most accurately
register the temperature:
A. * Thermograph
B. Alcohol thermometer
C. Mercury thermometer
D. Psychrometer August
E. Psychrometer Assmann
230. Work is made to work, underwent medical checkups. Found fit for work in this production. What
type of health maintenance inspection was working?
A. * Preliminary
B. Planned
C. Periodic
D. Complete
E. Complex
231. For the population living in radiation contaminated areas, in order to eliminate from the body of
radionuclides are encouraged to include in the diet pectins. Which of the following products are the
primary sources of pectin?
A. * Fruits and Vegetables
B. Bread
C. Milk
D. Meats
E. Noodles
232. Prikarpatskiy region is characterized by constant high (greater than 80%) moisture content of air. In
the cold period at moderately low temperatures the population of this region feels very cold. This is
due to increased heat transfer by:
A. * Convection
B. Radiation
C. Evaporation
D. Conduction
E. Radiation

233. Insufficiently treated waste water for industrial enterprises are thrown off into the river, the water
which is used for drinking water. This contributes to the death of some organisms, disruption of water
purification processes and the deterioration of its quality, which could have a negative impact on
human health. Such an action of environmental factors is called:
A. * Indirectly
B. Direct
C. Joint
D. Complex
E. Combined
234. Cold period was characterized by low air temperature, constant cloud cover, snowfall. In this regard,
the stay of children of preschool institutions in the open air was limited. During the medical
examination the children complained of drowsiness, weakness, and poor appetite, low activity was
observed in the classroom for physical education. During laboratory studies of blood revealed a
violation of phosphorus-calcium metabolism. The reason for this state of children can be:
A. * Ultraviolet failure
B. Heating microclimate in the premises
C. Cooling microclimate indoors
D. Uncomfortable microclimate indoors
E. Excessive exercise
235. For weed control on agricultural lands for a long time used herbicides on the degree of stability in the
environment are stable. Indicate the most likely route of exposure to the soil in the human body:
A. * Soil - plant - man
B. Soil - microorganisms - man
C. Soil - animals - people
D. Soil - the simplest - man
E. Soils - insects - man
236. Microclimate of premises is as follows: average temperature 330 C, the radiation temperature +
300C, relative humidity 52%, air velocity 1.0 m / sec. Specify your preferred way to heat at such
micro-climatic conditions:
A. * Evaporation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Radiation
E. Radiation and convection
237. In conducting in-depth medical examination at school pupil O. chronic diseases and morphological
abnormalities were found. Physical and mental development of responsible age. Physical
development is harmonious. Throughout the year, the time-depth medical examination schoolgirl sick
4 times of acute respiratory viral infection and acute catarrhal sore throat, flu. Which group of health
is a girl?
A. * 2nd group
B. 1st group
C. 3rd group
D. 4th group
E. 5th group
238. High School operates on a 5-day workweek. Schedule drawn up for the whole academic year. Lighter
in the schedule of training sessions for high school students must be:
A. * Thursday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday

D. Wednesday
E. Friday
239. The patient was 45 years, was admitted to the neurological department, was diagnosed with beriberi.
For the success of the treatment, the patient's diet should be primarily to increase the content:
A. * Bakery with bran
B. Meat and meat products
C. Fish and fish products
D. Milk and milk products
E. Fruits and vegetables
240. In studying the sanitary conditions in the classrooms of biology found: KEO 1,7 %, air cube on a
student's 12 m3, the CO2 concentration 0.1 mg/m3, air temperature 18 C. Are the sanitation
standards?
A. * Match
B. Reduced KEO
C. Reduced temperature
D. Reduce air cube
E. Increase the concentration of CO2
241. During the medical examination harbour crane driver complained of dizziness, nausea, feeling of
pressure on the eardrums, oznobopodobny tremor and movement in the bowel, asthma, cough. Work
performed at height, are associated with neuro-emotional stress. The workers to vibration: general
and local noise, infrasound, heating and summer cooling in the winter climate. Since the action of a
factor do you associate complaints worker?
A. * Vibration
B. Noise
C. Infrasound
D. Intensity of labour
E. Work at height
242. To provide drinking water in the field of personnel Cavalry Regiment must locate the source of water
supply and organize the supply of water. Explore the source of water leads and organizes
A. * representative of the Engineering Services
B. representative of the medical service
C. chemical service representative
D. zam. unit commander for logistics
E. representative of the Food
243. In the House of the therapeutic department should analyze the level of natural light. Indicate which
device is used to determine the level of natural light:
A. * Light meter
B. Anemometer
C. Catathermometer
D. Actinometer
E. Psychrometer
244. To make the metal products of high hardness of quenched in furnaces with induction heating at a
temperature of 800-900 C. Thermal radiation in the workplace reaches 1800 kkal/m2. Which of the
following preventive measures is most effective for the prevention of overheating in these
circumstances?
A. * Screening stoves as sources of radiation
B. Unit air showers
C. Application of booths with radiation-cooled walls

D. The use of personal protective equipment

E. Organization of medical check-up
245. In 11-year-old boy during a preventive medical examination determined the kind of posture.
Established that the child's shoulders inclined and brought forward, his head bent forward, the chest
is flattened, the abdomen is convex. From the spinal column, an increase of depth of the cervical and
lumbar curvatures. What kind of posture detected in a child?
A. * Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Stooping
D. Corrected
E. Normal
246. For the construction of hospitals in the town set aside land with total area of 2.0 hectares. Hospital
which maximum power can be built on this land?
A. * 100-bed
B. 200-bed
C. 400-bed
D. Up to 800 beds
E. More than 1000 beds
247. At the hospital hygiene survey found that the area per bed in the wards for two beds and more is as
follows: infectious disease clinic for children - 7 m2, infectious disease clinic for adults - 8 m2 in
burn wards - 9 m2, in a radiological department - 10 m2, in intensive care wards - 13 m2. In some
wards area per bed does not meet hygienic requirements?
A. * In burn
B. Infection in children
C. In the infectious adults
D. In the radiological
E. In intensive care
248. Employees of the laboratory for the production of measuring instruments (pressure gauges,
thermometers, etc.) complain of a metallic taste in the mouth, stomatitis, diarrheal effects, sleep
disturbances, staggering gait, a sharp decrease in cardiac activity. Specify the root causes of the
poisoning.
A. * Mercury.
B. Lead.
C. Manganese.
D. Toluene.
E. Tetraethyl.
249. Do workers who work in shops dye textile mills in the region D, the relation between work
experience and the content of eosinophils in the blood. With the help of indicators most appropriate
to analyze these data?
A. * Correlation coefficient.
B. Student's criteria.
C. Standardized rate.
D. Criteria match.
E. Indicator signs.
250. Assessing the health status of graduates of general secondary school, the doctor found one of the
disciples of hypertrophy of tonsils third degree, chronic rhinitis and vegetative dystonia.
Functionality of the body is reduced. For health reasons this student refers to:
A. * III group.
B. II group.

C. I group.
D. IV group.
E. V group.
251. For assessing the physical development of the child to determine the length and weight, the annual
increase in body length, circumference of chest (WGC), the number of permanent teeth, secondary
sexual characteristics, lung capacity (LC), held dynamometry. Which of the following indicators are
to physiometrical?
A. * LC, dynamometry
B. The length and weight, WGC C
C. Secondary sexual characteristics
D. The number of permanent teeth
E. Annual increase in body length
252. What juice should be included in a complex drug and dietary therapy for patients with gastric ulcer or
duodenal ulcer and increased gastric juice acidity in order to accelerate the ulcer healing?
A. Apple, birchandapple
B. Cabbage, cabbageandcarrot
C. Celery, parsley
D. * Potato, potatoandcarrot
E. Pumpkin
253. Study of natural illumination for a workplace in a secondary school classroom revealed that the angle
of sunlight incidence was 25, window opening angle - 3, windowtofloor area ratio - 1:4, daylight
ratio - 0,5%, depth ratio - 2. What indicators do not meet hygienic standards?
A. Window-to-floor area ratio
B. Windowopeningangle
C. * Daylightratio
D. Depthratio
E. Angleofincidence
254. Bakers at bread production work in conditions of high temperature and high heat radiation. What is
used to increase the bodys resistance to the unfavorable effects of these harmful work environment
factors?
A. * Vitamin preparations
B. Pectin
C. Therapeutic and preventive diet number 3
D. Therapeuticand preventive diet 1
E. Milk
255. Some of the population of a city district have uneven teeth color. The individuals have white spots,
transverse brown stripes on the incisors. Occurrence of these symptoms is associated with the quality
of drinking water from a deep well. Which of the following components of water can be the cause of
the disease?
A. Mg
B. Ca
C. * F
D. J
E. Fe
256. A 33-year-old male patient developed a condition that had a stormy clinical course: chills, fever up to
39C, vomiting, epigastric pain, diarrhea with watery smelly feces. 6 hours before, he ate a raw egg,
fried potatoes with stewed meat, drank some juice. What pathogenis likely to have caused this
condition?
A. * Salmonella

B. Campylobacter
C. Vibriocholerae
D. Shigella
E. Colibacillus
257. A 48-year-old male in-patient undergoes treatment for essential hypertension of IIB stage. It is known
from history that he works in a design engineering office. His job involves neuro-emotional stress.
Which of these foodstuffs do not stimulate the central nervous system and can be recommended for
the patient?
A. * Whole milk
B. Mushroom broths
C. Carbonatedbeverages
D. Vegetablebroths
E. Meatbroths
258. In an urban settlement situated on the riverbank, an outbreak of hepatitis A was registered. The
disease might have water origin. This assumption can be confirmed by growth of the following
values of water quality:
A. Index of fecal coli-forms
B. * Numberofcoli-phages
C. Oxidability
D. Escherichia coli index
E. Presence of benign leptospirosis pathogen
259. An employee of a petrol station with 15 years of service record having contact with ethylated
gasoline presents with memory impairment, bradycardia, sensation of having a hair in the mouth,
skin paresthesia. In this case, one can assume intoxication with the following substance:
A. Nitrobenzene
B. * Tetraethyllead
C. Organophosphates
D. Leadchloride
E. Benzene
260. A city somatic hospital with 300 beds has a main building which houses the therapeutic and surgical
departments. Several separate buildings house the maternity, pediatric and radiologic departments
that are connected to the main building by underground walkways and above-ground covered
skybridges. Specify the building system of the hospital:
A. * Central-unit
B. Decentralized
C. Combined
D. Free
E. Centralized
261. Carpathian region is characterized by permanently high (over 80%) air humidity. In the cold season
the population of this region feels very cold at moderately low temperatures. This is due to an
increase in the heat transfer by:
A. * Convection
B. Evaporation
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
E. Emission
262. A 12-year-old boy presents with nausea, frequent repeated vomiting that first occurred after eating
canned vegetables. Objectively: the patient has dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia,
anisocoria, mydriasis, dysphagia and dysarthria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. * Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. Cholera
E. Shigellosis
263. A 12-year-old girls has minor functional and morphological abnormalities: 1,0 D myopia, reduced
body resistance. The patient has no history of chronic diseases. Over the last year, there were 4 cases
of respiratory diseases. The girl belongs to the following health group:
A. I
B. IV
C. V
D. * II
E. III
264. Examination of an electric welder with 15 years of service record revealed dry rales in the lower lung
fields. Radiograph shows diffuse nodules sized 3-4 mm in the middle and lower lung fields. What
disease can be suspected?
A. Silicatosis
B. Silicosis
C. * Heavy-metal coniosis
D. Carbon pneumoconiosis
E. Bronchitis
265. What juice is recommended to be included in a complex drug and diet therapy for patientssuffering
from gastric or duodenal ulcer and high acidity of gastric juice to speed up ulcer healing?
A. Celery, parsley
B. * Potato, potato-carrot
C. Pumpkin
D. Apple, apple-birch
E. Cabbage, cabbage-carrot
266. Bacterial analysis of air in a living space in winter period by means of Krotovs apparatus revealed
that total number of microorganisms in 1m3 of air was 7200. What is the allowed number of
microorganisms for the air to be characterized as "pure"?
A. Upto 7500
B. * Upto 4500
C. Upto 3500
D. Upto 2500
E. Upto 5500
267. When examining the parameters of desk natural lighting in a school class it was determined that: light
angle is 25, window angle is 3, window-to-floor area ratio is 1:4, daylight factor is 0,5%, and
window-head-to-roomdepth ratio is 2. What parameter does no tcorrespond to hygienic norms?
A. Windowangle
B. Window-head-to-room-depth ratio
C. Lightangle
D. * Daylightfactor
E. Window-to-floor area ratio

268. An 8-year-old boy during preventive examination was determined to have changes in his spine
curvature in frontal plane: the right shoulder is lowered and flat, scapulae angles are of different
height due to the right scapula being shifted down. Waist triangles are pronounced on the both sides;
longitudinal muscles of the back form muscle cushion on the left.What type of posture is detected in
the child?
A. Kyphotic
B. Stooping
C. Corrected
D. * Scoliotic
E. Lordotic
269. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. It is determined that fluorine content
in water is 0,1 mg/l. What preventive measures should be taken?
A. Introduce more vegetables to the diet
B. Waterfluorination
C. Fluorineinhalations
D. * Toothbrushing
E. Sealantapplication
270. Clinic of a research instutute for occupati onal diseases examined a worker who works at a
concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. The case is investigated by a
commission including the representatives of: the plant, clinic, local SES, department of Social
Insurance Fund, trade union. According to the regulation on investigation of. . . , the commission
should be headed by the representative of the following authority:
A. * Local SES
B. Plant
C. Social Insurance Fund
D. Trade union
E. Clinic
271. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. It is determined that fluorine content
in water is 0,1 mg/l. What preventive measures should be taken?
A. * Water fluorination
B. Tooth brushing
C. Fluorine inhalations
D. Sealant application
E. Introduce more vegetables to the diet
272. Examination of a group of persons living on the same territory revealed the following common
symptoms: dark-yellow pigmentation of the tooth enamel, diffuse osteoporosis of bone apparatus,
ossification of ligaments and joints, functional disorders of the central nervous system. This condition
may be caused by the excessive concentration of the following microelement in food or drinking
water:
A. * Fluorine
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Iodine
E. Cesium
273. In a pre-school educational establishment the menu consists of the following dishes: milk porridge
from buckwheat, pasta with minced meat, cucumber salad, kissel (thin berry jelly), rye bread. What
dish should be excluded from the menu?
A. * Pasta with minced meat
B. Milk porridge from buckwheat

C. Kissel (thin berry jelly)

D. Rye bread
E. Cucumber salad
274. During meat testing Trichinella was detected in diaphragm crura in one of the two muscular tissue
samples. What tactics should a doctor choose regarding this meat?
A. * Technolgical disposal
B. Incineration
C. Boiling under 1,5 atmosphere
D. Preservation in 10% salt solution
E. Freezing under -12oC
275. After a lengthy march an army regiment has set camp for 3 days near a settlement. Sanitary-hygienic
investigation detected several water sources. Choose the source that would satisfy the demands for
potable water the most under the given field conditions:
A. * Artesian well
B. Brook
C. River
D. Rain water
E. Melt water
276. A planner designs a heating system for a pre-school educational establishment. The highest air
temperature should be in the following room:
A. * Game room of a nursery group
B. Common room of a preschool group
C. Bedroom of a nursery group
D. Bedroom of a preschool group
E. Gymnasium
277. An emergency situation at a chemical plant caused acute occupational intoxication. A doctor who
revealed the case of acute occupational disease (intoxication) must notify the following authority:
A. * Sanitary and epidemiological station
B. Plant administration
C. Trade union committee of the plant
D. Medical unit of the plant
E. Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
278. The process of open-cut mining requires drilling and blasting operations, rock and ore excavation,
transportation of ore to fragmentation and sorting factories and transportation of barren rock to slag-
heaps, road building and maintenance, repair works. What factor of production is most important for
miners health?
A. * High content of dust in the air
B. High content of explosion gas
C. Vibration
D. Noise
E. Adverse microclimate
279. Survey radiograph of a 52-year-old worker of an agglomeration plant (28 years of experience, the
concentration of metal dust is 22-37 mg/m3 ) shows mildly pronounced interstitial fibrosis with
diffused contrast well-defined small nodular shadows. The patient has no complaints. Pulmonary
function is not compromised. What is the provisional diagnosis?
A. * Siderosis
B. Silicosis
C. Anthraco-silicatosis

D. Silicatosis
E. Anthracosis
280. During medical examination of a group of children under 4 years carried out by a pediatric team in
one of the African countries a set of similar pathological signs was detected in some of the children.
The signs are as follows: growth inhibition, mental changes, muscle atrophy, swellings, changes in
hair and skin pigmentation. These children were diagnosed with kwashiorkor. What food products
should be added to the diet to treat this disorder?
A. * Fish, vegetables, cereals
B. Milk, meat, vegetables
C. Vegetables, fruit
D. Cereals, fruit, berries
E. Poultry, fruit, berries
281. What juice is recommended to be included in a complex drug and diet therapy for patients suffering
from gastric or duodenal ulcer and high acidity of gastric juice to speed up ulcer healing?
A. * Potato, potato-carrot
B. Apple, apple-birch
C. Pumpkin
D. Cabbage, cabbage-carrot
E. Celery, parsley
282. Maximum permissible concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is considered to be a sanitary index
of air purity in a classroom.What concentration of carbon dioxide in the air is accepted as a
permissible maximum?
A. * 0,1%
B. 0,05%
C. 0,15%
D. 0,2%
E. 0,3%
283. When examining the parameters of desk natural lighting in a school class it was determined that: light
angle is 25o, window angle is 3 o , window-to floor area ratio is 1:4, daylight factor is 0,5%, and
window-head-to-room-depth ratio is 2. What parameter does not correspond to hygienic norms?
A. * Daylight factor
B. Window angle
C. Window-to-floor area ratio
D. Window-head-to-room-depth ratio
E. Light angle
284. A 46-year-old patient once took part in elimination of breakdown at an atomic power plant. Currently
he is being treated at an in- patient hospital unit. He was diagnosed with progressing somatoform
autonomic dysfunction. This disease relates to the following group of ionizing radiation effects:

A. * Somato-stochastic
B. Somatic
C. Genetic
D. Hormesis
E. Heterosis
285. Caries morbidity rate is 89% among residents of a community. It is determined that fluorine content
in water is 0,1 mg/l. What preventive measures should be taken?
A. * Wate r fluorination
B. Tooth brushing

C. Fluorine inhalations
D. Sealant application
E. Introduce more vegetables to the diet
286. Establishments participating in medical examinations include: medical and preventive treatment
facility, hygiene and preventive treatment facility, sociomedical expert committees, Ministry of
Defence medical committees, Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees, forensic medicine
agency, etc. Specify what service deals with sociomedica assessment of temporary disability:
A. * Medical and preventive treatment facility
B. Hygiene and preventive treatment facility
C. Sociomedical expert committees
D. Ministry of Defence medical committees
E. Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees
287. For a long time to eradicate weeds on agricultural lands herbicides retaining in environment have
been used. Point out the most probable way of herbicides reaching human organism from soil:
A. * Soil-plants-human
B. Soil-microorganisms-human
C. Soil-animals-human
D. Soil-protozoa-human
E. Soil-insects-human
288. Residents of an industrial community situated near a plant suffer from increased morbidity rate
caused by nervous and endocrine system conditions and kidney diseases.Blood test: decrease of
sulfhydric groups content in blood. The pathologies developed can be caused by environment being
polluted by the following:
A. * Mercury
B. Cadmium
C. Boron
D. Chromium
E. Lead
289. A tractor driver with the record of service of 24 years has undergone palestesiometry test (Vibration
Sensitivity Measurement).Test revealed increased vibration sensitivity threshold at the frequencies of
63-125-259 Hz to 25 dB. Dynamometry is 20 kg on the right and 16 kg on the left. Cold stimulus test
is positive, time of hand temeperature restoration is 52 minutes. Blanching at pressure symptom is
positive and equals 21. Hypesthesia of upper and lower limbs is observed and can be classified as
"gloves"and "socks"polyneuritic pattern.Make the provisional diagnosis.
A. * Vibration disease, I stage, caused by combined vibration
B. Vibration disease, I stage, caused by localvibration
C. Vibration disease, II stage, caused by combined vibration
D. Vibration disease, II stage, caused by local vibration
E. Vibration disease, I stage, caused by general vibration
290. Survey radiograph of a 52-year-old worker of an agglomeration plant (28 years of experience, the
concentration of metal dust is 22-37mg/m3 ) shows mildly pronounced interstitial fibrosis with
diffused contrast well-defined small nodular shadows. The patient has no complaints. Pulmonary
function is not compromised.
A. Siderosis
B. Silicosis
C. Anthraco-silicatosis
D. Silicatosis
E. Anthracosis

291. ?A child is 6 years old. Within one year of observation he had URI that lasted 8 days. Physical state is
satisfactory. Specify hi health group:
A. * I
B. II
C. III (a)
D. III (b)
E. III (c)
292. A sample of milk was taken for testing from a 5 ton milk batch. Lab analysis showed the following:
fat content 2 %, specific density- 1,040 g/cm3, acidity 210T, reductase probe weak positive. What
way the product is to be used in? What would you advise?
A. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality
B. Write the product off for animal feeding
C. Utilize technically
D. Sell without limitations
E. Annihilate the product
293. A 5 tons milk batch was sampled. The lab analysis revealed: fat content 2%, specific density - 1,04
g/cm3, acidity - 210, reductase probe - weak-positive. What way is the product to be used in?
A. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality
B. Discard for animal feeding
C. Technical utilization
D. Sell without limitations
E. Do the product away
294. The student has the following devices: Geiger counter, Ebert counter, Krotov's apparatus, Mischuk
device, Ebert device. What device can he use to assess air germ pollution?
A. * Krotov's apparatus
B. Ebert's counter
C. Geiger's counter
D. Mischuk's device
E. Ebert's device
295. Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department. The area ofthe
ward is 18 m2, height is 3 m, ventilation rate is 2,5/h. Air temperature is 200, relative humidity is
45%, air movement velocity is 0,3 m/sec, light coefficient is 1/5, noise level constitutes 30 dB.
Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions.
A. * Discomfortable microclimate
B. Non-effective ventilation
C. Poor lighting
D. High level of noise
E. All conditions are OK
296. A 9 y.o. girl has an average height and harmonic growth development. She was ill with acute
respiratory infection for five times. Define the group of her health.
A. * 2nd group
B. 1st group
C. 3rd group
D. 4th group
E. 5th group
297. A student lives in the modern house in the flat with a complete set of sanitary equipment (WC, bath,
shower, local water heater). How much water consumption has he got?
A. * 160-200 L/day

B. 10-15 L/day
C. 50-100 L/day
D. 300-400 L/day
E. 500 -600 L/day
298. Clinic of a research institute for occupational diseases examined a worker who works at a
concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. The case is investigated by a
commission including the representatives of: the plant, clinic, territorial SES, department of Social
Insurance Fund, trade union. According to the "regulation on investigation of", the commission
should be headed by the representative of the following authority:
A. * Territorial SES
B. Plant
C. Social Insurance Fund
D. Trade union
E. Clinic
299. Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil
was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according
to the coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer. This is indicative of
A. * Fresh fecal contamination
B. Insufficient intensity of soil humification
C. Old fecal contamination
D. Constant entry of organic protein contaminations
E. Insufficient insolation and aeration of soil
300. A patient complained about problems with pain and tactile sensitivity, pain in the nail bones at the
end of the working day. He works at a plant with mechanical devices. What pathology can be
suspected?
A. * Vibration disease
B. Caisson disease
C. Noise disease
D. Overwork symptoms
E. Hypovitaminosis of B1
301. Study of actual diet of an adult revealed the following: proteins make up 16% of energy value ofdaily
ration, fats 25%, carbohydrates 59%. Evaluate compliance of protein, fat and carbohydrate share
in the energy value of daily ration with the recommended shares of these nutrients?
A. * Carbohydrate share is insufficient, there is excess of proteins
B. Fat share is insufficient
C. Carbohydrate share is insufficient
D. Carbohydrate share is excessive
E. Nutrient content complies with the recommended shares of energy value
302. A patient who has been consuming refined foodstuffs for a long time complains aboutheadache,
fatigability, depression, insomnia, irritability. Objectively: muscle asthenia, pain and cramps in the
gastrocnemius muscles, during walking the patient lands onto his heel first, thenon the external edge
of foot. Cardiovascular system exhibits tachycardia, hypoxia, and dystrophic changes of
myocardium. There are also gastrointestinal disorders. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * HypovitaminosisB1;
B. Hypovitaminosis B2;
C. Hypovitaminosis B12;
D. Hypovitaminosis B6;
E. Hypovitaminosis B15.

303. A patient who had eaten mushrooms in the morning was delivered to the infectious diseaseshospital
at night. The disease development was rapid. The patient presented with stomach pain, frequent
diarrhea, intractable vomiting, burning thirst, headache and dizziness. He died on the third day. What
mushrooms are most likely to have caused mycetismus?
A. * Deadly amanita
B. Morels
C. Fly agarics
D. Sulfur-tufts
E. Russules
304. Periodical survey of a worker of a chemicals plant revealed a malignant neoplasm on the
urinarybladder. This occupational disease was the most probably caused by contact with the
following industrial poison:
A. * Benzidine
B. Vinyl chloride
C. Nickel carbonyl
D. Asbestos
E. Arsenic
305. A 46-year-old patient once took part in elimination of breakdown at an atomic power plant. Currently
he is being treated at an in-patient hospital. He was diagnosed with progressing vegetative
insufficiency. This disease relates to the following group of ionizing radiation effects:
A. * Somato-stochastic
B. Somatic
C. Genetic
D. Hormesis
E. Heterosis
306. A military unit stopped for 3-day's rest in an inhabited locality after a long march. The sanitary-
epidemiological reconnaissance found several water sources. It is necessary to choose the source
complying with the hygienic standards for drinking water in the field conditions:
A. * Artesian well water
B. Spring water
C. River water
D. Rain water
E. Melt snow water
307. A district doctor was commisioned with a task to work out a plan of treatment-and-prophylaxis
actions for the population of his district. What actions of secendary prophylaxis must he includeinto
this plan?
A. * Prevention of disease complications
B. Disease prevention
C. Elimination of disease causes
D. Improvement of population's living conditions
E. Rehabilitation actions
308. Examination of a 13-year-old boy reveals that his body length is 147 m (+2 ?), body weight 38kg
(+1,5 ?), circumference of chest - 72 cm (+0,2 ?). Estimate the harmonicityof the child's physical
development:
A. * Disharmonious
B. Harmonious
C. Above the average
D. Sharply disharmonious

E. Supernormal
309. A children's health camp received a party of tinned food. External examination of the tinsrevealed
that they had deep dents, could be easily concaved when pressed and wouldn't immediately return to
the initial state; rust was absent; the tins were greased with inedible fat. Specify the bloat type:
A. * Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Combined
E. Physicochemical
310. On physiologic-sanitary examination of railway department work it was revealed that loaders work is
of III degree of difficulty. They unload vagons with sand, manually break coagulatedmass by shovel
and shift it. What criteria was used to evaluate work of loaders?
A. * Maximun load weigh which is shifted
B. Value of static loading for the shift
C. Time of active activities, % to the shift duration
D. Time of passive observation, % to the shift duration
E. Intellectual efforts
311. Workers of fishery are subjected to low temperatures of the air (from 5 till 150C). Diseasesof what
organs and systems are the most frequent among workers of such enterprises?
A. * Respiratory system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Blood
D. Liver
E. Gastrointestinal tract
312. During the periodic medical examination an assembly fitter (works on soldering details) didn't report
any health problems. Closer examination revealed signs of asthenic-vegetative syndrome. Blood
included red blood cells with basophilic aggregations and a somewhat higher number of
reticulocytes, urine had a high concentration of delta-aminolevulinic acid. The complex of symptoms
indicates the initial stage of chronic intoxication with:
A. * Lead
B. Manganese
C. Mercury
D. Tin
E. Ethanol
313. At the radiological unit of a hospital gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed
sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What measures are to be
taken to protect personnel during working with radioactive sources of such type?
A. * Reduction of working time and screening of the source
B. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation
C. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs
D. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance
E. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening of
working time
314. A patient undergoes inpatient treatment with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. To sparepancreas as
much as possible the doctor prescribed for him starvation for 1-3 days. What products is the patient
allowed to eat during recovery period after cancelling of starvation?
A. * Potato and carrot mash
B. Broth
C. Boiled meat
D. Milk
E. Grape juice
315. To study physical development of children and adolescents, anthropometric studies are widely used.
Choose a physiometric method of study from the below given.
A. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
B. Measurement of growth
C. Determination of thorax form
D. Determination of vertebra form
E. Determination of body weight
316. Study of morbidity with temporary disability among workers of a machine building plant revealed
that average duration of a case was 20 days. What diseases influenced upon the index value?
A. * Chronic
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Preexisting diseases
E. Hard to determine
317. Working conditions of a building company worker are characterized by cooling microclimateeffect,
silica-containing dust, caustic alkali (quicklime) and noise. What medical expert should be the chief
of the commission that periodically examines the workers of the mentioned category?
A. * Therapeutist
B. Ophthalmologist
C. Neurologist
D. Dermatologist
E. Otolaryngologist
318. During coal extraction in a mine the concentration of coal dust in the working area is 450mg/m3
(MPC is 10 mg/m3). What occupational respiratory disease may develop in miners?
A. * Anthracosis
B. Allergic nasopharyngitis
C. Byssinosis
D. Siderosis
E. Talcosis
319. A district doctor keeps the record of reconvalescents after infectious diseases, people who are
disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases, patients with chronic pathologies. What category of
patients should belong to the III health group?
A. * People with chronic diseases
B. People disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases
C. People with chronic pathologies and disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases
D. Reconvalescents after infectious diseases and patients with chronic pathologies
E. All above mentioned categories
320. During a regular medical examination at a metallurgical plant 20\% of workers were found
overweight (body weight was 5-14% higher than normal), and had early signs of obesity (grade I-II)
with Quetelet index from 26 to 30. What products share must be reduced in the diet of thisgroup of
people in the first place in order to normalize their body weight?
A. * Bakery products
B. Vegetables
C. Fruit
D. Milk and dairy products
E. Meat and fish products

321. In a forest summer camp children have variable procedures to harden their organisms.
Whatprocedure has the most hardening power?
A. * Contrast shower
B. Morning exercises on the fresh air
C. Hygienic shower
D. Walking on the fresh air
E. Bath with hydromassage
322. There is a dynamic growth of number of congenital abnormalities such as central paralysis, newborns
blindness, idiocy among the population that lives near to pesticides production enterprise.
Compounds of which pollutant can cause the development of this pathology?
A. * Mercury
B. Strontium
C. Cadmium
D. Iron
E. Chrome
323. At's planned to construct multifield a new hospital in one of the cental city districts. What building
type is the most appropriate in this case?
A. * Centralized and blocked
B. Centralized
C. Decentralized
D. Mixed
E. Blocked
324. During inspection of sanitary conditions of studying at a technical university it was necessary
toevaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9 a.m to 3 p.m. What index of naturallight
will be the most informative?
A. * Natural light coefficient
B. Light coefficient
C. Depth of study room
D. Time of the room insolation
E. Presence of mixed (superolateral) light
325. 200 patients suffering from essential hypertension were examined in order to obtain data
aboutpatients' arterial pressure and age. What statistic value should be applied in order to measure
relation between these characteristics?
A. * Correlation coefficient
B. Student's coefficient
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Representation error
E. Sygmal deviation
326. On medical observation a doctor identified girl (162 cm tall and 59 kg weight) who complainedloss
of ability to see surrounding objects clearly in the evening. On examination: dry skin,hyperkeratosis.
Her daily ration includes the following vitamines: vitamine0,5 mg, vit.12,0 mg, vit.2 2,5 mg,
vit.6 2 mg, vit. 70 mg. What is the hypovitaminosis type?
A. * A-hypovitaminosis
B. B1-hypovitaminosis
C. B2-hypovitaminosis
D. B6-hypovitaminosis
E. C-hypovitaminosis

327. As a result of prophylactic medical examination a 35 year old woman was diagnosed with alimentary
and constitutive obesity of the III degree. It is known from her anamnesis that the patient doesn't
observe rules of rational nutrition: she often overeats, the last food intake is usually 10-15 minutes
before going to bed, prefers fattening and rich in carbohydrates food. What is the main alimentary
risk factor of obesity development?
A. * Energetic unprofitableness of nutrition
B. Excess of carbohydrates
C. Excess of fats
D. Lack of cellulose
E. Violation of dietary pattern
328. The air of a foundry worker's working zone contains condensation aerosol with dust particlessized 2
nm (90%), 2-5 nm (2%), over 5 nm(6%), below 2 nm (about 2%). Characterize thedustdispersivity:
A. * Fine-dispersed
B. Median-dispersed
C. Coarsely dispersed
D. Ultrafine-dispersed
E. Mist
329. The major repair of a hospital included renewal of colour design of hospital premises because it is of
great psychological and aesthetical importance; and so the walls of patient wards will be painted
under consideration of:
A. * Windows orientation
B. Hospital profile
C. Diseases of patients who will be staying in these wards
D. Wall reflection coefficient
E. Creation of cozy atmosphere
330. Atmospheric air of an industrial centre is polluted with the following wastes of metallurgicalplants:
sulphuric, nitric, metal, carbon oxides that have negative influence upon the inhabitants' health. The
effect of these hazards can be characterized as:
A. * Combined
B. Complex
C. Associated
D. Adjacent
E. Mixed
331. Study of morbidity rate in a city N revealed that population of different administrative districts
differed in age structure. What statistic method allows to eliminate influence of this factor upon
morbidity indices?
A. * Standardization
B. Wilcoxon's t-criterion
C. Correlative regressive analysis
D. Analysis of dynamic series
E. Calculation of average values
332. A driver had been fixing a car in a closed garage and afterwards complained about headache,
dizziness, nausea, muscle asthenia, sleepiness. Objectively: pulse and respiratory rate elevation,
excitement, hypertension, delirium of persecution. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Intoxication with carbon oxide
B. Intoxication with ethyl gasoline
C. Posttraumatic encephalopathy
D. Hypertensive crisis

E. Asthenovegetative syndrome
333. An outbreak of food poisoning was recorded in an urban settlement. The illness was diagnosed as
botulism on the grounds of clinical presentations. What foodstuffs should be chosen foranalysis in the
first place in order to confirm the diagnosis?
A. * Tinned food
B. Potatoes
C. Pasteurized milk
D. Boiled meat
E. Cabbage
334. A 42 year old metalworker has been working at the turning machine for production of heavy large-
size parts for 5 years. His work requires using of hand and pedal levers that involves considerable
physical force. What means for osteoarthrosis prevention should be recommended?
A. * To limit physical work
B. To administer protein-and-carbohydrate diet
C. To administer protein-and-vitamin diet
D. To improve health at the Black sea coast
E. To go in for weightlifting
335. The total area of a ward at the therapeutical department is 28 m2. What is the maximum number of
beds that can be exploited in this ward?
A. * 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 5
336. The amount of ultraviolet radiation dose was measured in minutes. What device was applied
formeasurement of the biodose?
A. * Gorbachev's biodosimeter
B. UV-meter
C. Actinometer
D. Radiometer
E. Catathermometer
337. It is planned to make complete isolation boxes in the infectious department in order to prevent
osocomial airborne infections. The boxes consist of a tambour, a ward and a lock chamber. What
structure should be also included in a complete isolation box?
A. * Bathroom unit
B. Manipulation room
C. Doctor's consulting room
D. Patient's examination room
E. Nursing room

(): : 12
Estimation of the environment state and its influence on a health of population (situation tasks)
:
6 course med
:
1. An area, taken under building hospital, occupies 29 % of the land, area of planting of greenery 72
%. The perimeter of the green planting area has width 1.5m. Distance from a pathology anatomical
building to the patient building is 32 m. Which one from the resulted indexes does not hygienic
requirements?
A. * area of buildings
B. Distance is from patient building to the pathology anatomical building
C. A width of the green planting is on a perimeter
D. area of greenery
E. area of orchads
2. In the erected surgical separation of 60 beds two which are planned operating-rooms of an area to 10
and 20 m2. Windows oriented to the north . Light coefficient - 1:2, coefficient of day light - 2,5 %.
What parameters donot answer hygienical requirements?
A. Light coefficient
B. * area of operating-rooms
C. Orientation of windows
D. Amount of operating-rooms
E. coefficient of day light
3. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 8 - 1 : 9, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms
is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and
external wall is 0,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical
requirements?
A. Distance between beds
B. Distance between beds and external wall
C. * The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms
D. The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms
E. The Light coefficient in buffets
4. Isolator in infectious department has an area of 27 m2. What are the maximum numbers of beds in
this ward?
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
5. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. What maximal amount of beds can he be
expected on?
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
6. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size 200 x 300 m. On the front of area a
medical building is located, in a center is a hospital garden, and at back of territory are economic
structures. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located?
A. Not less than 50 m

B. Not less than 20 m

C. * less than 30 m
D. Not less than 15 m
E. Not less than 25 m
7. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non-
infectious of patients, medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas, and also
economic area together with pathology anatomical separation. What violation is assumed at planning
of area?
A. * Combination of economic and pathology anatomical areas
B. Separation of green areas
C. A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital
D. separate infections and non infectious areas
E. presence of infection and pathology anatomical buildings in hospital
8. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps, polyclinic, and obstetrics
- gynecological building, infectious building, kitchen, economic buildings, pathology anatomical
corps, and hospital garden, with the bar of the green planting. What must be the maximum percentage
of build up hospital in the area?
A. 25 %
B. 35 %
C. 20 %
D. * 15 %
E. 10 %
9. On lot land of rural district hospital on 100 beds there are such areas: Zone of medical departments
for noninfectious patients, medical departments for infectious patients with the separated garden
zone, and also economic area in which located pathology-anatomic department. What violation is
assumed at planning of hospital?
A. Presents of infectious department on the area of hospital
B. separated garden zone
C. * Combination of economic and pathology-anatomic department
D. Differentiation of areas for infectious and noninfectious patients
E. Presents of pathology-anatomic department on the area of hospital
10. Planned construction of a multi-disciplinary hospital in one city N. What type of building most
expedient in this case?
A. * Centralized-block
B. Decentralized
C. Centralized
D. Mixed
E. Block
11. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20
C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate
of ward.
A. comfort microclimate;
B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
12. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic department is next: the middle temperature
of air is 20 C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienic estimation of
microclimate of ward.

A. * comfort microclimate
B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
13. The content of microorganisms in the air before the operation 3500/m3 , and after the operation
was 1500m3 . A clearing the air by bactericidal lamps. How much should decrease the content of
microorganisms to sanitation was considered effective?

A. * 80%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 99%
14. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200300 m. On the
facade of area the located medical corps, in a center - hospital garden, at back of territory - economic
structures. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed?
A. not less than 15 m
B. not less than 20 m
C. not less than 25 m
D. * not less than 30 m
E. not less than 50 m
15. The obstetric department is located in three-storied building. The ground floor occupies the
observation obstetric department, first floor occupies physiology maternity department, and second
floor occupies department of pathology of pregnancy. All floors unite by the channels of extraction
ventilation. What change is required by the maternity department?
A. Location of physiology maternity department on the second floor;
B. Location of observation maternity department on the first floor
C. Location of physiology maternity department on the ground floor
D. * Location of observation maternity department on the second floor
E. Location of department of pathology on the ground floor
16. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the south, the air balance is zero. Select a
room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:
A. * Chamber for adults
B. Handling
C. family
D. Check bandaging
E. Lobby
17. The temperature is 20 degrees, light coeficient is 1:6, targeting the east, the air balance is negative.
Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:
A. * Boxing for infectious patients
B. Operating room
C. doctors room
D. Dressing room
E. Corridor
18. The ward on Cardiology hospital blowing ventilation provides air flow volume of 50 m3 per hour in
1 patient. Assess the adequacy of ward ventilation.

A. * volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 60 m3/hour 1 patient

B. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 40 m3/hour 1 patient
C. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 50 m3/hour 1 patient
D. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 80 m3/hour 1 patient
E. Volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 100 m3/hour 1 patient.
19. During the micro-climatic conditions of hospital wards is set: the area - 6 m3, the average
temperature - 16 C, relative humidity - 72%, the speed of air - 0,35 m / s, the rate of natural
illumination - 0.88%, the rate of light - 1:5. Give hygienic assessment of climate hospital room
A. * Discomfort, cooling type
B. Comfortable
C. Discomfort, with high humidity
D. discomfort, such as heating
E. Discomfort, with significant fluctuations of key parameters
20. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town, located on 55 to North, transference of surgical
block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building. What part of the direction is it
necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour
of surgical personnel?
A. West
B. East
C. * North
D. South
E. South-west
21. During the study of microclimatic terms of hospital chamber: area - 6 m2, middle temperature of air -
16 , relative humidity - 72 %, rate of movement of air - 0,35 m/s, coefficient of natural luminosity -
0,88 %, light coefficient - 1:5. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate of hospital room.
A. Discomfort, with lot of vibrations
B. Comfort
C. Discomfort, with the high humidity of air
D. Discomfort, type of heating
E. * Discomfort, cool type
22. In the laboratory study of the quality of air chamber for patients in the summer it was found that
bacterial semination - 4000 bacteria/m3, haemolytic streptococcus - 25 KUO/m3, the content of
carbon dioxide - 0.1%. To estimate the degree of purity of the air.
A. * Average net
B. Very clean
C. Clear
D. Contaminated
E. It is contaminated
23. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %, 2-bed - 20 %,
1-bed - 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic
requirements?
A. * General amount of beds
B. Width of corridor
C. Amount of 2-bed room
D. Amount of 1- bed room
E. Amount of 4- bed room
24. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms
is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:9-1:10. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and
external wall is 1 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical
requirements?
A. Distance between beds
B. Distance between beds and external wall
C. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms
D. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms
E. * the Light coefficient in buffets
25. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. What maximal amount of beds can he be
expected on?
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
26. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size is 200x300 m. On the front of area a
medical building is located, in a center is a hospital garden, at back of territory are economic
structures. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located?
A. Not less than 50 m
B. Not less than 20 m
C. * less than 30 m
D. Not less than 15 m
E. Not less than 25 m
27. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle
temperature of air is 20 C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienical
estimation of microclimate of ward.
A. * comfort microclimate
B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
28. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle
temperature of air is 21 C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 55 %. Give hygienical
estimation of microclimate of ward.
A. * comfort microclimate
B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
29. Sanitary conditions in the manipulation are following indicators: air temperature 20 0 C, relative
humidity of 55%, air speed 0.1 m / sec, the rate of natural lighting (PAC) 2%, the level of artificial
lighting 80 lx. Which of the following indicators requires correction.
A. Ratio of natural lighting
B. The temperature
C. Relative humidity
D. The speed of air movement
E. * The level of artificial lighting

30. The area for building by hospital corps is 19 % of lot land, area of planting of greenery 62 %, area
of garden zone 30 m2 on one bed. Green planting is placed on a perimeter of area with width 15
meters. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments 32 m. Which one
from the next indexes is not hygienical?
A. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments
B. * The area for building by hospital corps
C. Width of the green planting on the perimeter of area
D. Area of planting of greenery
E. Area of garden zone
31. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 28 m2. Does it
corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements?
A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only
B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements
C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals
D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only
E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system
of building
32. The obstetric departmen is located in three-storeyed building. The ground floor occupies the
observation obsteric department, first floor occupies physiology maternity departmen, and second
floor occupies departmen of pathology of pregnancy. All floors unite by the channels of extraction
ventilation.What change is required by the maternity departmen?
A. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the second floor;
B. Location of observation maternity departmen on the first floor
C. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the ground floor
D. * Location of observation maternity departmen on the second floor
E. Location of departmen of pathology on the ground floor
33. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the east, the air balance is negative. Select a
room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:
A. * Boxing for infectious patients
B. Operating
C. family
D. Check bandaging
E. Corridor
34. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the
following parameters: T is 22,0 C, air speed is 0.1 m / s, humidity is 55% , the content of CO2 is
0.1%, the multiplicity of air is 8. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic
requirements:
A. speed of air
B. Temperature
C. * Air
D. Humidity
E. The content of CO2
35. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the
following parameters: T - 22,0 C, air speed of -0.1 m / s, -75% humidity, the content of CO2 - 0.1%,
the multiplicity of air - 5. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic
requirements:
A. Air
B. Temperature
C. Wet

D. The speed of air movement

E. * The content of CO2
36. While laboratory studies of air hospital wards found: the total number of micro organisms in the air -
2500 to 1 m3, of which 125 - haemolytic streptococcus. What measures should be undertaken with
the purpose of decontamination of air in the House?
A. * UV sterilizing lamp
B. Dissipation of 0.5% solution chloramines in the air
C. Electro aero-ionisation of air
D. Air conditioning
E. Infrared radiation air
37. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms
is 1:7-1:8, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and
external wall is 1,0 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical
requirements?
A. Distance between beds.
B. Distance between beds and external wall.
C. The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms.
D. * The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms.
E. The Light coefficient in buffets.
38. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing room of surgical departmen to
beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?
A. To 300
B. To 500
C. To 750
D. To 100
E. * To 1500
39. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle
temperature of air is 20 C, speed of air is 0,5 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienical
estimation of microclimate of ward.
A. comfort microclimate;
B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
40. Temperature of air in a ward for hyperthyreotic patients corresponds to the hygienic norm. Indicate
possible norms of temperature.
A. 20(
B. 24(
C. 15(
D. 22(
E. * 18(
41. In the ward section of somatic departmen are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds
wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,0 m. Which one from the next indexes
is not hygienic?
A. * Width of corridor.
B. The total quantity of beds.
C. Quantity of 2- beds wards.
D. Quantity of 1- bed wards.

E. Quantity of 4- beds wards.

42. In doctor room a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 6, coefficient of day lighting is 1,0%, temperature of
air is 26 C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Which from the resulted indexes
does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?
A. * Temperature of air
B. Relative humidity of air.
C. The Light coefficient in doctor room.
D. The coefficient of day lighting.
E. The speed of air in room
43. A water test for nitrate is highly recommended for households with infants, pregnant women, nursing
mothers, or elderly people. These groups are the most susceptible to nitrate or nitrite contamination.
What reactive used for determine nitrites in water?
A. * Griss reactive
B. Nessler's reactive
C. Seignette salt
D. Barium chloride
E. Hydrochloric acid
44. Group of student studied all about water. What disadvantages of overchlorination over the
chlorination?
A. Don't need to determination chlorine's need of water
B. Don't need calculate the dose of chloric lime
C. Time of water's disinfection is decreasing
D. * Need dechlorination of water
E. all are correct
45. In a city N. for an improvement quality of drinking-water uses the new methods of cleaning and
disinfecting. Which one of the following can be use for disinfecting of water on modern system of
water supply?
A. * Ozonization
B. Filtration
C. Coagulation
D. Boiling
E. Decontamination
46. Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. Which one of the following is
physical method of water disinfection?
A. * Ultraviolet rays
B. Chlorine and its preparations
C. Ozone
D. Iodine-containing preparations
E. Chemical tablet methods
47. Result of water examination are next: iron is 5 mg/dm3, dry residue is 600 mg/dm3, hardness of
water is 6 mEq/dm3, maintenance of fluorine is 1,0 mg/dm3. Name the method of treatment of this
water.
A. Desalinating of water
B. Softening of water
C. Fluoridation of water
D. * Deironation
E. Deodorization

48. Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20 degrees; smell and
test 2 points; transparency is 10 cm; nitrite nitrogen is absent; nitrate nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 ;
microbial number is 2. Estimate the water quality.
A. The water conform hygienic requirements
B. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its decolorizing
C. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its filtration
D. * The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its coagulation
E. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its disinfection
49. Laboratory testing of the well water sample showed the following results: color 20 degrees; smell and
test 2 points; transparency is 30 cm; nitrite nitrogen is absent; nitrate nitrogen is 40 mg/dm3 ;
microbial number is 100. Estimate the water quality.
A. The water conform hygienic requirements
B. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its decolorizing
C. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its filtration
D. The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its coagulation
E. * The water doesnt conform hygienic requirements, necessary its disinfection
50. Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms that most commonly are transmitted
in contaminated fresh water. Water borne diseases affect mostly
A. Adolescents
B. * Children under 5 years of age
C. Adult men
D. Adult women
E. Elder person
51. The term "waterborne disease" is reserved largely for infections that predominantly are transmitted
through contact with or consumption of infected water. The maximum desirable limit of general
microbes number in drinking water is
A. not more 1000 CFU/dm3
B. not more 200 CFU/dm3
C. not more 50 CFU/dm3
D. not more 10 CFU/dm3
E. * not more 100 CFU/dm3
52. Students during lesson of hygiene studied all about water. What indexes belong to organoleptic?
A. Transparency of water
B. Coloring of water
C. Smell of water
D. Taste of water
E. * All are correct
53. Students examined water and determine chlorines need of water. What test they used for
determination of the chlorines need of water?
A. One-glass test
B. Two-glass test
C. * Three-glass test
D. Four-glass test
E. Five-glass test
54. Disinfection is an important step in ensuring that water is safe to drink. Which of the following
physical method is used as germicidal in modern time for the treatment of drinking water?
A. Chlorination
B. Treating with potassium permanganate

C. * UV radiation
D. Treating with bleaching powder
E. Treating with chloramine
55. The bacteriological examination of water is performed routinely by water utilities and many
governmental agencies to ensure a safe supply of water for drinking, bathing, swimming and other
domestic and industrial uses. Coliform bacteria in water is an indication of the presence of
A. Radioactive wastes
B. Excess fertilizer
C. Decaying animals and plants
D. * Human feces
E. Toxic substances
56. A 24-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. There was nausea, vomiting,
weakness, flabbiness, double vision. On physical exam, there was decrease of a muscle tone,
anisocoria, flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Food toxicoinfection
B. * Botulism
C. Acute gastritis
D. Salmonellosis
E. Acute encephalitis
57. A 2,5 y.. child presents with muscle hypotonia, sweating, alopecia of the back of the head. The child
is prescribed massage, curative gymnastics and vitamin D. What is the dosage and frequency of
vitamin D administration?
A. 1000IU every other day
B. 500 IU daily
C. . 1000 IU daily
D. * 3000 IU daily
E. 500 IU every other day
58. A pediatrician examines a healthy mature-breast-fed baby, aged 1 month. Prevention of what
condition should be recommended in the first place?
A. Paraophji
B. * Rachitis
C. Anaemia
D. Hypotrophy
E. Spasmophilia
59. The adolescent of 15 years old was brought to the hospital with complaints of poor night eyesight.
On physical exam: increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjunctiva. The patient skin
is dry, scales off; folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is a cause of this disease?
A. Thiamine deficit
B. Biotin deficit
C. * Retinole deficit
D. Folic acid deficit
E. Napthtochynones deficit
60. Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride 2,0 mg/L, nitrates 43 mg/L,
chlorides 250 mg/L, ferrum 0.2 mg/L, residual nitrogen 0,5 mg/L. What medical condition
is the most likely to occur among the inhabitants of this city?
A. * Fluorosis
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Caries

D. Endemic goitre
E. Methemoglobinemia
61. A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue, weight and appetite loss, headache. Suffered from acute
glomerulonephritis as adolescent. Suffers from arterial hypertension since age 25. Has not
systematically undergone medical treatment, consulted doctor very rarely. On laboratory
investigation signs of chronic renal failure first degree were found, (creatinine 0,23 mol/L). What
nutrition recommendations are the most suitable for this patient?
A. * Protein control
B. Ingestion with the increased content of the" "alkaline" food
C. Carbohydrate control
D. Fluid volume increase
E. Adipose control
62. A man, aged 28, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during the breakdown on
the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there was an emission of circa 30 kg
radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is expedient in this case?
A. Cystamine
B. * Potassium iodide
C. Thiourea
D. Leucine
E. Valine
63. The patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7-th day of the disease with complaints of high
temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. The dermal integuments and
scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient went fishing
two weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. * Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Trichinellosis
E. Yersiniosis
64. Medical examination of a man revealed "geographic tongue". This microsymptom is the evidence of
the following vitamin deficiency:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin PP
D. Vitamin A
E. * Vitamins of B group
65. A 33-year-old woman works as the secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of
animal), 200 g of fat, 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology this diet can cause?
A. Paradontosis
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. * Obesity
D. Schizophrenia
E. Common cold
66. A severely traumatized patient who has been receiving prolonged parenteral alimentation develops
diarrhea, mental depression, alopecia and perioral and periorbital dermatitis. Administration of which
of the following trace elements is most likely to reverse these complications?
A. Iodine
B. * Zinc

C. Copper
D. Silicon
E. Selenium
67. Study of actual diet of an adult revealed the following: proteins make up 16% of energy value of
daily ration, fats - 25%, carbohydrates - 59%. Evaluate compliance of protein, fat and carbohydrate
share in the energy value of daily ration with the recommended shares of these nutrients?
A. Carbohydrate share is insufficicent
B. * Nutrient content complies with the recommended shares of energy value
C. Carbohydrate share is excessive
D. Fat share is insufficient
E. Carbohydrate share is insufficient, there is excess of proteins
68. A 15-year-old teenager complains of poor night vision. Physical examination: increased darkness
adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjunctiva. The patient skin is dry, scales off; folliculitis signs of
the face skin are present. What is the cause of the disease?
A. Napthtoquinone deficit
B. * Retinole deficit
C. Thiamine deficit
D. Folic acid deficit
E. Biotin deficit
69. A 4-year-old child attends the kindergarten. Complaints of the bad appetite, fatigue. Objective
examination: skin and mucous membrane are pale, child is asthenic. In the hemogram:
hypochromatic anemia 1st., leucomoide reaction, of the eosinophile type. What pathology must be
excluded at first?
A. Lymphoprolipherative process
B. * Worm invasion
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. Hypoplastic anemia
E. Atrophic gastritis
70. People who live in the radiation polluted regions are recommended to include pectins into their
dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout. What products are the main source of pectins?
A. Meat
B. Bread
C. * Fruit and vegetebles
D. Milk
E. Macaroni
71. A 15 year old adolescent was taken to the hospital with complaints of poor night vision. Objectively:
increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjuctiva. The patient's skin is dry, scales off,
folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is the cause of this disease?
A. Biotin deficit
B. Folic acid deficit
C. Thiamine deficit
D. * Retinole deficit
E. Napthtochynones deficit
72. A 33 y.o. patient, works as a secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of animal
protein), 200 g of fat, 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology can result from this diet?
A. * Obesity
B. Uterine fibromyoma
C. Paradontosis

D. Schizophrenia
E. Common cold
73. A 36-year-old alcoholic patient has cirrhosis and pancreatic failure due to recurrent pancreatitis. His
complaints of nightblindness, decreased ability to taste food, dry skin with hyperpigmentation. What
deficiency does these symptoms show?
A. Copper
B. * Zinc
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
E. Selenium
74. To assess the nutritional status of children less than one year, the measurement of circumference of
head and chest is useful. If chest measurement is less than the circumference of head, it indicates
A. Obesity
B. * Malnutrition
C. Normal development
D. Adequacy nutrition
E. Over nutrition
75. What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness, weakness, and dyspnea on exertion,
tachycardia, palpitations, and edema?
A. * Iron deficiency
B. Calcium deficiency
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Pellagra
E. Xerophthalmia
76. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm-
A. 27
B. * 30
C. 33
D. 36
E. 45
77. A 33-year-old woman works as secretary. Her diet contains 150 g of protein (including 100 g of
animal), 200 g of fat, and 600 g of carbohydrates. What pathology can effect this diet?
A. * Obesity
B. Paradontosis
C. Common cold
D. Uterine fibromyoma
E. Schizophrenia
78. People who live in the radiation polluted region are recommendation to include pectins into their
dietary intake for the radioactive nuclides washout. What products are the main source of pectins?
A. Milk
B. Bread
C. Macaroni
D. * Fruit and vegetables
E. Meat
79. Student, 19 years, with mass of body 60 kg get the feed with day's ration a 45 g protein, a 55 g fat
and insufficient quantity of calcium. What products must be foremost plugged in a ration?
A. Fruits;

B. Honey
C. Carrot;
D. * Cheese
E. Meat
80. Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride 2,0 mg/L, nitrates 43 mg/L, chlorides 250
mg/L, ferrum 0,2 mg/L, residual nitrogen 0,5 mg/L. What medical condition is the most likely to
occur in inhabitants of this city?
A. Endemic goitre
B. Caries
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Fluorosis
81. To study physical development of children and adolescents, anthropometric investigations are widely
used. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the below given.
A. Measurement of growth
B. Determination of vertebra form
C. Determination of thorax form
D. Determination of body weight
E. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
82. A 9-year-old child with diagnosis chronic tonsillitis" stands dispanserization control. For 1 year of
observation there was one exacerbation of disease. Physical condition is satisfactory. The general
state is not infringed. Define group of health:
A. I
B. II
C. III (c)
D. III (b)
E. * III (a)
83. A bad-room of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 18 0, relative
humidity 50 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which from the parameters of microclimate is
not to the hygienical norm?
A. * Temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air.
84. A size of length of body of boy 10 years is in scopes from +1 sigma to +2 sigma. Individual
indexes of mass of body +1,33 sigma but to circumflex of thorax +1,12 sigma. Give the estimation of
physical development of schoolboy after the scales of regression.
A. * Physical development of child above average, disharmonious
B. Physical development of child is sharp disharmonious
C. Physical development of child is middle, harmonious
D. Physical development of child is high, harmonious
E. Physical development of child above average, harmonious
85. After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the III class on a
Monday, in IV - on Tuesday, in V - on Wednesday, in VI - even distributing of loading on the days of
week, in VII - on Friday. What class the timetable of lessons is built in correctly?
A. IV
B. VI

C. VII
D.
E. * V
86. After the medical examination of children of primary school doctor gave conclusion about they
physical development. What minimum list of indexes it is necessary for estimate the level of physical
development of children?
A. * Growth and mass of body
B. Mass of body, presence of the second sexual signs
C. Mass of body, presence of the second teeth
D. Mass of body and circumference of thorax
E. Mass of body, circumference of thorax, and also presence of the second sexual signs
87. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: CNI (coefficient of natural
illumination) is 1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air 27 0, relative humidity of air 78 %,
concentration CO2 0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent
B. Worsening of sight
C. Head pain;
D. Illnesses of spine
E. * Overheating
88. Growth of boy 13 years old is 144 cm, mass of body is 30 kg (-1,1 sigma) and circumference of
thorax is 64 cm (-1,2 sigma). Estimate physical development of boy.
A. * Harmonious
B. Disharmonious
C. Middle
D. Not proportional
E. High
89. Growth of girl l 0 years old is 127 cm, mass of body is 24 kg (-0,7 sigma) and circumference of
thorax is 44 cm (-1,9 sigma). Estimate physical development of girl.
A. Harmonious
B. * Disharmonious
C. Middle
D. Low
E. High
90. In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 22 0,
relative humidity 70 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which from the parameters of
microclimate is not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature
B. * Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air
D. Temperature and relative humidity
E. Temperature and rate of movement of air
91. In a playroom of pre-school institution such parameters of microclimate were exposed: 20 0,
relative humidity 80 %, and rate of movement of air 0,1 m/s. Which from the parameters of
microclimate is not to the hygienical norm?
A. Temperature;
B. Relative humidity
C. Rate of movement of air;
D. * Temperature and relative humidity

E. Temperature and rate of movement of air.

92. . There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is
1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air 20 0, relative humidity of air 58 %, concentration CO2 0,1
%. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. * Negative factors for a health is absent
B. Worsening of sight
C. Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine;
E. Cold.
93. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is
0,7 %, LC - 1: 10, temperature of air 20 0, relative humidity of air 58 %, concentration CO2
0,1 %. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent
B. * Worsening of sight
C. Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine
E. Cold.
94. There are following data of hygienic inspection in classroom: Coefficient of natural illumination is
1,7 %, LC - 1: 5, temperature of air 20 0, relative humidity of air 58 %, concentration CO2 0,3
%. What diseases are possible at these students?
A. Negative factors for a health is absent.
B. Worsening of sight;
C. * Head pain
D. Illnesses of spine
E. Cold
95. At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other
closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the
measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?
A. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance
B. Systematic cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening of working time
C. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source
D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation
E. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs
96. The property possessed by some elements of spontaneously emitting energy in the form of particles
or waves by disintegration of their atomic nuclei is named
A. * Radioactivity
B. Ionization
C. Radiation
D. Effects of radiation
E. Exposure dose

(): : 11
Hygiene and ecology ( test )
:
6 -
:
1. Which one from the following is major factor which forms a climate?
A. Type of earths surfaces.
B. Distance from sea.
C. Height above sea-level.
D. Prevailing winds.
E. * Geographical position
2. Waters, which used for drink and everyday needs, must correspond to the demands:
A. Have good organoleptic features
B. Have suitability by its chemical content
C. The absence of pathogenic microorganisms
D. Safety in the radiological attitude
E. * All are correct
3. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in
A. Orange
B. Lemon
C. Grapes
D. Carrot
E. * Blachberry
4. Daily requirement of vitamin A is -
A. 400 IU
B. 300 IU
C. 2000 IU
D. 4000 IU
E. * 1000 IU
5. Highest vitamin A content is seen in-
A. Lemon
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Tomato
D. Ragi
E. * Fish oils
6. Daily requirement of vitamin C is -
A. 20 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 500 mg
D. 1000 mg
E. * 100 mg
7. The occurrence of pellagra is mist common in -
A. Teenagers
B. Growing children
C. Young adults
D. All of these
E. * Adults in later life
8. Poorest source of vitamin C among following is
A. Orange
B. Cabbage
C. Guava
D. Indian gooseberry
E. * Apple
9. Carotene is not found in high amounts in -
A. Red carrot
B. Apricot
C. Spinach
D. Margarine
E. * Potato
10. All are vegetable origin except
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. None of these
E. * Vitamin B12
11. Which one of the following statements about clinical features of vitamin A deficiency is
A. Night blindness occurs due to impaired dark adaptation
B. Bitots spot affects bulbar conjunctiva
C. Vit A deficiency cause follicular hyperkeratosis of the skin
D. * Xerophthalmia usually begins with a drying of the conjunctiva
E. Bitots spot affects palpebral conjunctiva
12. Niacin is synthesized from
A. Methionine
B. Tyrosine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Lysine
E. * Tryptophan
13. For every 100 kilocalories vitamin B1 required is -
A. 0,5 mg
B. 5,0 mg
C. 1,0 mg
D. 1,0 gm
E. * 0,05 mg
14. Daily requirement of protein for adults is -
A. 2 g/kg
B. 3 g/kg
C. 4 g/kg
D. 5 g/kg
E. * 1 g/kg
15. Protein content is highest per 100 g in -
A. milk
B. rice
C. hens egg

D. bread
E. * meat
16. In kwashiorkor the principal deficiency is
A. * Deficiency of proteins
B. Deficiency of iron
C. Deficiency of calories
D. Deficiency of fats
E. Deficiency of vit PP
17. Which disease is the clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Pellagra
C. Fe-deficient anemia
D. Scurvy
E. * Xerophthalmia
18. What from next clinical symptoms NOT characteristic for xerophthalmia
A. Follicular hyperkeratosis
B. Night blindness
C. conjunctival xerosis
D. keratomalacia
E. * Anemia
19. What nutrient is NOT necessary for the development of the teeth and their surrounding structures?
A. Fluoride
B. Vit. A
C. Vit C
D. Phosphorus
E. * Vit B1
20. Sources of vitamin A is NOT
A. butter
B. eggs
C. liver
D. fish
E. * meat
21. Goiter occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of
A. Some fish
B. Refined or polished rice
C. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables
D. Maize
E. * Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide
22. Iron is poorly absorbed from
A. Meat
B. Poultry
C. Fish
D. Mixture of foods
E. * Wheat
23. In nutritional marasmus the principal deficiency is
A. Deficiency of proteins

B. Deficiency of iron and vit. C

C. Deficiency of fats
D. Deficiency of vit PP
E. * Deficiency of calories and proteins
24. Cretinism is usually due to
A. Severe calcium deficiency of the mother
B. Severe vit. C deficiency of the mother
C. Severe iron deficiency of the mother
D. Severe protein deficiency of the mother
E. * Severe iodide deficiency of the mother
25. Dietary iron is absorbed near
A. 10 %
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 90 %
E. * 5%
26. Which one of the following is not reason of osteomalacia?
A. Pregnancy of women
B. Lack vitamin D in diet
C. Lactation of women
D. Work indoor
E. * Drinking milk
27. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat loss of man ?
A. Increase a radiation
B. Decrease a convection
C. Increases evaporation
D. Decrease a radiation
E. * Decreases evaporation
28. What unfavorable change is caused by high temperature of air ?
A. Sunstroke
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Asthmatic state
D. Stroke
E. * Heat-prostration
29. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on temperature of subjects contacting with
body?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Perspiration
D. Perspiration and radiation
E. * Conduction
30. What pathological changes in an organism is cause by the local overcooling ?
A. Cold diseases
B. Inflammatory diseases
C. Hypothermia
D. Infectious diseases

E. * Frost-bitten
31. What air temperature stops the heat loss by convection ?
A. 20 C
B. 13 C
C. 37 C
D. 0 C
E. * 33 C
32. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on speed of air?
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Perspiration
D. Perspiration and radiation
E. * Conduction
33. What pathological change in an organism is caused by the local action of high temperature ?
A. Heat-prostration
B. Sunstroke
C. General hyperthermia
D. Violation of thermoregulation of organism
E. * Burn
34. Heat loss by this way depends on speed of air moving
A. Radiation
B. Perspiration
C. Convection
D. All of these
E. * Conduction
35. Which one of the following way of heat loss does prevail in the conditions of comfort microclimate?
A. Evaparation
B. Convection
C. Condaction
D. None of these
E. * Radiation
36. Kata Thermometer is used to measure
A. Maximal temperature
B. Minimum temperature
C. Radiation heat
D. Humidity
E. * Cooling power of air
37. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded ventilated room are all except
A. Increase of temperature
B. Increase in humidity
C. Decrease in air change
D. All of these
E. * Increase in CO2
38. The norms of speed air moving in the rooms is
A. 0,6 - 0,8m/sec
B. 0,5 - 0,7 m/sec

C. 2 -3 m/sec
D. 3 - 4 m/sec
E. * 0,1 - 0,3 m/sec
39. What type of airs humidity using for estimation of microclimatic condition?
A. Minimum humidity
B. Middle humidity
C. Maximum humidity
D. General humidity
E. * Relative humidity
40. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate:
A. Humidity of air
B. Temperature
C. Speed of air motion
D. Radiation temperature
E. * Chemical structure of air
41. In condition of comfortable microclimate human feels himself good, because
A. Absent wind
B. Absent psycho emotionally stress
C. Atmospheric pressure in a norm
D. A room is well lighted
E. * Heat production equal to heat loss
42. What parameter of the microclimate we can measuring with the help of Kata thermometer?
A. Air temperature
B. Point of dew
C. Relative moisture
D. Resulting temperature
E. * Speed of air moving
43. Loss of heat, which depends on difference between temperature of a skin and temperature an air, is
A. Conduction
B. Evaporation
C. Radiation
D. All are correct
E. * Convection
44. Normal indices of airs humidity is
A. 10-20 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 20-30 %
D. 80-100 %
E. * 30-60 %
45. The most of the heat humans organism loses
A. by transfer
B. by convection
C. by conduction
D. by evaporation
E. * by radiation
46. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments

A. Minimum a 1 time per a week

B. Minimum 2 times per a week
C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days
D. Minimum a 1 time per a day
E. * Minimum 2 times per a day
47. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of
measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?
A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital
B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments
C. specific immune prophylaxis
D. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature
E. * exposure and isolation of source of infection
48. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air . What
maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward?
A. 0,5 %
B. 1,0 %
C. 10,0 %
D. 5,0 %
E. * 0,1 %
49. Name the factor, which dont increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection
A. the level of wound contamination
B. length of incision
C. the duration of hospitalization before surgery
D. use of antibiotics
E. * opening the windows
50. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of dermatological and
oncological department . What system of disposing of wastes will be according to hygienical
requirements?
A. Utilization on waste factory
B. Separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes
C. Previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place on the ground of domestic
wastes (dump)
D. A compatible delete is with hospital hard wastes
E. * Collection in air-tight capacities with next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital
51. Name harmful and dangerous factors in work doctors which do not belong to physical
A. Ionizing and laser irradiation
B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound, noise, vibration)
C. increase of atmospheric pressure
D. inefficient illumination and intence light loadings
E. * Psychophysical.
52. To wards hospitalize infectious patients with the following illnesses
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis A
C. Food toxic infection
D. Food intoxication
E. * Cholera
53. Where is working place of nurse on duty in the ward section?
A. At the end of corridor
B. By the dining-room
C. Near doctor`s room
D. Near manipulation room
E. * In the center of section
54. Situation plan is:
A. Picture of building
B. Plan of settlement
C. Plan on which existing is inflicted and objects are projected
D. Plan which the vertical cuts of the projected object are inflicted on
E. * Plan of settlement with denotation of place of location of area, selected under building
55. Receiving department of general hospital has to be located
A. In a separate building
B. below the second floors in the isolated part of hospital
C. by the windows of ward department
D. By administration of hospital
E. * on ground floor in the isolated part of the hospital
56. What heating must be used in hospitals?
A. Local
B. Central steam
C. Central air
D. Panel-effulgent
E. * Central aquatic nater
57. What ventilation must be used in an operating-room?
A. Natural
B. Inflowin
C. Extract
D. Wave-drawing with predominance of extraction
E. * Inflowing-extract
58. Who one of the following pregnant women is NOT reception in observation department of the
maternity house ?
A. acute respiratory disease
B. at absence of the medical documentation
C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology
D. skin diseases of infectious ethyology
E. * Iron-deficient anemia
59. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day.
Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?
A. concentration of nitrogen
B. concentration of smeech gas
C. concentration of dust
D. concentration of oxygen
E. * concentration of carbon dioxide
60. What is the norm of L.C. (light coefficient) in hospital ward?
A. 1: 18
B. 1:10
C. 1:2

D. 1:7
E. * 1: 6
61. Mineral salts are needed by the body
A. For maintaining our body temperature
B. For provide support for many organs
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins
D. For furnish energy to the bod
E. * To maintain tone of muscles, nerves and blood
62. One of the following is not complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to
ionizing radiation:
A. Size of dose received
B. Rate the dose is received
C. Part of the body exposed
D. The age of the individual
E. * The sex of the individual
63. One of the following is not main principle of protection from closed ionizing radiation.
A. * Protection by temperature
B. Protection by distance
C. Protection by quantity
D. Protection by screens
E. Protection by time
64. What are the components of daily losses energy of organism?
A. basic metabolism
B. energetic expresses for mental work and basic metabolism
C. energetic expresses for physical and mental work
D. specific - dynamic action of nutrition, basic metabolism
E. * basic metabolism, energetic expresses for work, specific - dynamic action of nutrition
65. How many energy give 1 gram of fat?
A. 4 kcal
B. 6 kcal
C. 7,5 kcal
D. 12 kcal
E. * 9 kcal
66. The deficiency of K vitamin leads to
A. Sores on lips
B. mental instability
C. Night blindness
D. deformed bones
E. * haemorrhage
67. Body building foods are foods rich in
A. carbohydrate and fat
B. protein and carbohydrate
C. vitamin and protein
D. mineral and vitamin.
E. * protein
68. One of the following is not effect of deficiency phosphorus

A. softening of bones
B. caries of teeth
C. stunted growth
D. depression of vital processes
E. * cramps
69. The carbohydrate in milks is
A. glucose
B. fructose
C. galactose
D. maltose
E. * lactose
70. The disease goiter occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of
A. Diet with lack of calcium
B. Some fish
C. Refined or polished rice
D. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables
E. * Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide
71. The fat content of meat depends on
A. the type of animal;
B. diet of animal
C. condition at time of slaughter
D. the cut of meat chosen
E. * All are correct
72. One of the following is not sources of iron
A. liver
B. meat,
C. eggs
D. cereals
E. * cheese
73. Protective foods are foods rich in
A. carbohydrate and fat
B. protein and carbohydrate
C. fat
D. carbohydrate
E. * vitamins, minerals and proteins
74. Green leafy vegetables are
A. Body building foods
B. Energy-yielding foods
C. None of above
D. All of above
E. * Protective foods
75. Proteins are needed by the body
A. For maintaining our body temperature
B. For provide support for many organs
C. For carriers of fat-soluble vitamins
D. For stimulate digestive secretions

E. * For growth and development

76. Whole milk contains next amount of fat
A. 5,5 -7 %;
B. 15 - 20 %;
C. 50 - 55 %;
D. 60 - 70 %.
E. * 2,5 - 3,2 %;
77. Average content of protein in meat is
A. 3 - 5 %;
B. 5 - 10 %;
C. 50 - 60 %;
D. 80 - 90 %.
E. * 16 - 20 %;
78. Meat is a major source of ...
A. Calcium, sodium
B. Potassium, calcium
C. Iron, copper
D. Fluorine, chrome
E. * Iron, phosphorus, zinc
79. Originally vitamin C was described as
A. anti-Dermatitis Vitamin
B. Anti-neurotic Vitamin
C. Anti-Sterility Vitamin
D. Anti-Rachitic Vitamin
E. * anti-scorbutic vitamin
80. Carbohydrates are needed by the body
A. For growth and development;
B. For repair of body tissues and their maintenance;
C. For synthesis of antibodies, enzymes and hormones
D. For maintaining body temperature
E. * For furnish energy to the body
81. What product is the main source of iron for peoples?
A. Milk
B. Bread.
C. Chess
D. Butter
E. * Meet
82. One of the following is somatic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism
A. cancerogenic effect
B. leukemia
C. genetic mutation
D. impotence
E. * chronic ray disease
83. One of the following is somato-stochastic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism
A. Radial burns
B. acute ray disease

C. Cataract
D. * cancerogenic effect
E. Chronic ray disease
84. A free radical is
A. Any charged particle.
B. * An atom, ion or molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell
C. An atom with an even number of electrons
D. A chemically stable atom.
E. Any stable particle.
85. A radiation monitor device should be worn by all except
A. radiographer undergoing a radiographic procedure
B. nurse working in an area where mobile radiography is performed
C. * family member assisting a patient during a radiographic procedure
D. radiographer performing fluoroscopic procedures
E. all of above
86. A single whole body exposure to what dose of radiation will almost invariably lead to a persons death
in a relatively short time?
A. 25 rem
B. 100 rem
C. 300 rem
D. 600 rem
E. * 1000 rem
87. Cow's milk is rich in next protein
A. Lact albumen;
B. Lacto-globulin
C. Myosin
D. All are present
E. * Casein
88. What food is not include in the base of the Food Guide pyramid?
A. breads
B. cereals
C. rice
D. pasta
E. * meat
89. To which group of food belong cereals
A. Protective foods
B. Body building foods
C. Vitamins
D. Mineral salts
E. * Energy-giving foods
90. The important milk-borne diseases is not
A. Tuberculosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Malta fever
D. Anthrax
E. * Botylism

91. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in school classes?

A. Less than 0,5 %
B. More than 35 %
C. Less than 1,5 %
D. Less than 1,0 %
E. * More than 1,5 %
92. Human 's milk is rich in next protein
A. Lact albumen
B. Lacto-globulin
C. Myosin
D. All are present
E. * Casein
93. The most high-grade proteins of meat are the protein of
A. Nervous tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Cartilage
D. All of the above
E. * Muscular tissue
94. At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of soda in milk?
A. Solution of Lyogolya
B. Solution rozole acids
C. Solution of KI.
D. Solution phenolphtalein
E. * Solution sulphuric acid
95. Average specific gravity of cow's milk is
A. 1.750
B. 2.005
C. 0.505
D. 1.102
E. * 1.032
96. Why barley is unsuited for making bread
A. its richness in mineral salts
B. its richness in fat
C. its poor in starch
D. its richness in gluten
E. * its poor in gluten
97. What group of food not supply heat and energy to the body
A. Cereals,
B. Roots;
C. Tubers;
D. Fruits;
E. * Green leafy vegetable
98. To which group of food belong fresh fruits
A. Energy-giving foods;
B. Body building foods;
C. Vitamins;
D. Mineral salts.
E. * Protective foods;
99. The most high-grade proteins of meat is
A. Collagen;
B. Elastin;
C. Neurokeratin;
D. Chondroprotein.
E. * Myosin;
100. At the help of what reagent it is possible to determine the presence of starch in the sausages?
A. Solution of rozole acids.
B. Solution of sulphuric acid.
C. Solution of NaOH.
D. Solution of phenolphtalein.
E. * Solution of Lyogolya
101. What kind of carbohydrates is in meat?
A. glucose,
B. lactose,
C. maltose,
D. glycogen,
E. * amylum.
102. What are called "poor man's meat".
A. Bread;
B. Maize;
C. Rice;
D. potatoes
E. * Pulses
103. Use of maize may cause
A. anemia;
B. beri-beri;
C. scurvy;
D. goiter.
E. * pellagra
104. What food maintain the alkalinity of the blood?
A. Roots and Tubers;
B. Rice;
C. Wheat;
D. Pulses.
E. * Green Vegetables
105. What vitamin absent in cows milk ?
A. Vit A;
B. Vit D;
C. Vit C;
D. Vit E;
E. * Vit. B.
106. Cheese is sources of
A. Chlorides;

B. potassium;
C. sodium;
D. iron.
E. * calcium;
107. What does the food value of meat depend from?
A. From correlation of muscular and fat.
B. From maintenance of extract matters.
C. From correlation of muscular, connecting tissues and fat.
D. From correlation of muscular, connecting tissues and fat, and maintenance of extract matters.
E. * From correlation of muscular and connecting tissues
108. What is not effect of influence of UV-irradiation?
A. Formation of pigment.
B. Stimulated
C. Vitamin formation
D. Bactericide.
E. * Thermal.
109. What is the hygienic norm of artificial illunination by luminescent lamp in study room?
A. 150 lux
B. 50 lux
C. 560 lux
D. 400 lux
E. * 300 lux
110. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to
A. Protein deficiency
B. Vitamin A deficiency
C. Iron deficiency
D. None of this
E. * Protein, iron and Vitamin A deficiency
111. Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by
A. Acid secretion in stomach
B. Reducing substances in food
C. Alkaline medium in small intestine
D. Acid secretion in head
E. * Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according to iron requirement
112. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in
A. Orange
B. Lemon
C. Grapes
D. Carrot
E. * Indian gooseberry
113. Daily requirement of vitamin A is -
A. 400 IU
B. 300 IU
C. 2000 IU
D. 4000 IU
E. * 1000 IU

114. Air is dry when relative humidity is

A. to 45 %
B. to 55 %
C. to 70 %
D. to 85 %
E. * to 30 %
115. Air is moist when relative humidity is
A. 50 - 55 %
B. 30 - 60 %
C. to 55 %
D. to 40 %
E. * more 60 %
116. Maximal humidity of air depend from
A. Atmospheric pressure;
B. Relative humidity;
C. the deficit of satiation;
D. Temperature of body.
E. * Temperature of air;
117. Humidity of air influence on next kind of exchange in human body
A. Vitamins exchange;
B. Protein exchange;
C. Fat exchange;
D. Gas exchange.
E. * Heat exchange;
118. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat emission of man ?
A. Increases radiation
B. Decreases a convection
C. Increases a perspiration
D. Decreases a radiation
E. * Decreases perspiration
119. What humidity measures by a hygrometer ?
A. Absolute humidity
B. Maximal humidity
C. Absolute and relative humidity
D. Relative and maximal humidity
E. * Relative humidity
120. Hygrograph registers air humidity changes
A. for a day and a hour.
B. for a day and a month.
C. for a week and a month
D. for a hours and a month.
E. * for a day and a week.
121. What functions of hygrograph ?
A. Measuring of absolute humidity
B. Measuring of relative humidity
C. Record of changes of absolute humidity

D. Measuring and record of changes of relative humidity

E. * Record of changes of relative humidity
122. What unfavorable changes for human is caused by the warm moist air ?
A. Sunstroke;
B. Caisons disease;
C. Asthmatic state;
D. Overcooling.
E. * Heat Stroke;
123. Which one of the following is not effects of Cold and Dry Air on the Body.
A. Breathing is deeper and more frequent,
B. the circulation of blood is increased;
C. processes of digestion and assimilation are stimulated.
D. metabolism are stimulated.
E. * loss of appetite;
124. When the rate of evaporation from the body is greatly increased?
A. When the air is moist and warm,
B. When the air is dry and cold,
C. When the air is moist and cold,
D. None of above.
E. * When the air is dry and warm,
125. Which air affects respiratory passages, and causes, blood circulation, kidneys, and rheumatism
problems?
A. dry and warm air,
B. moist and warm air,
C. dry and cold air,
D. None of above.
E. * moist and cold air,
126. Low temperature of air conduce to the increase of next ways of heat loses by
A. Perspiration;
B. Radiation;
C. Convections and perspiration;
D. Conduction and radiation;
E. * Convections and conduction.
127. Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local overcooling ?
A. Cold diseases
B. Inflammatory diseases
C. Hypothermia
D. Infectious diseases
E. * frost-bite
128. Which pathological changes in an organism are caused by the local action of high temperature ?
A. Heat-prostration;
B. Sunstroke;
C. Hyperthermia;
D. Dysfunction of thermoregulation of organism
E. * It was a guardian;
129. Thermograph registers air temperature changes

A. for a day and a hour.

B. for a day and a month.
C. for a week and a month
D. for a hours and a month.
E. * for a day and a week.
130. Thermograph usually used for
A. Measuring of temperature of air
B. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air
C. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air
D. Measuring and registration of temperature of body
E. * Registration of changes of temperature of air
131. Which one of the following is a lack of disinfecting of water by the method of the superchlorination?
A. Previous necessary to light water
B. Wide spectrum of action
C. Previous necessary to discolouring of water
D. Long duration of process of disinfecting
E. * necessary of dechlorinationof water
132. In a city N. for an improvement quality of drinking-water utillized the new methods of cleaning and
disinfecting. Which one of the following can be utillized for disinfecting of water on modern system
of water supply?
A. Filtration
B. Coagulation
C. Boiling
D. Decontamination
E. * Ozonization
133. Contact period of Chlorine solution and water in the well for water disinfection of water must be not
less than
A. 20 min
B. 40 min
C. 80 min
D. 100 min
E. * 60 min
134. At decentralized water supply on the one inhabitant it is necessary
A. 10-30 liters /days on a man
B. 60-90 liters /days on a man
C. 50-100 liters /days on a man
D. 200-250 liters /days on a man
E. * 30-50 liters /days on man
135. Which one of the following methods used to accelerate the sedimentation of suspended matters,
filtration and lightening of water.
A. Chlorinating
B. Ozonization
C. Fluoridation of water
D. Decontamination
E. * Coagulation
136. Rate of filtration water in Slow Sand Filter is
A. Less than 0.1 m3/m2/h

B. 0.1-0.4 m3/m2/h
C. 5-15 m3/m2/h
D. more than 15 m3/m2/h
E. * 1.0-1.5 m3/m2/h
137. Which one of the following is methods of desalting of water:
A. Flokulation
B. Coagulation
C. Superfiltration
D. Storage
E. * Distillation
138. Due to what slow sand filter removes organic matter, holds bacteria and oxidizes ammoniacal
nitrogen into nitrates?
A. To imposition on the surface of filters of the special fabric
B. To imposition on the surface of filters of polyethylene with the shallow openings
C. To formation of tape from the salts of metals dissolved in water
D. To form tiny sticky particles called "floc"
E. * To formation of biological tape.
139. Rate of filtration water in Rapid Sand Filter is
A. Less than 0.1 m3/m2/h
B. 0.1-0.4 m3/m2/h
C. 1.0-1.5 m3/m2/h
D. more than 15 m3/m2/h
E. * 5-15 m3/m2/h
140. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water?
A. Chlorination
B. Ozonization
C. Desaltening
D. Irradiation
E. * Coagulation
141. Which one of the following is methods of desalting of water:
A. Coagulation
B. Superfiltration
C. Storage
D. UV - radiation
E. * Freezing
142. Reagents which are used for coagulation of water.
A. Hyposulphite sodium
B. Chlorine lime
C. Iodide potassium
D. Ammonium chloride
E. * Aluminium sulphate
143. Which one of the following is not methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water:
A. Desalting
B. Softening
C. Decontamination
D. Deodorization
E. * Sublimation
144. What one from the following is not coagulator or flocculators?
A. Al2(SO4)3
B. FeCl3
C. FeSO4
D. Poliakrilamid
E. * Fe (OH)3
145. Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water:
A. Super Chlorination
B. Desalinization
C. Aeration
D. Boiling
E. * Filtration
146. To the physycal methods of water disinfecting belong:
A. filtration
B. coagulation
C. Iodination
D. chlorinating
E. * boiling
147. How correctly to store chloride lime?
A. in open barrels
B. under solar rays
C. at high temperature
D. in moist room
E. * in dark, dry, cool places
148. What is not the purpose of disinfecting water?
A. elimination of E. coli
B. elimination of causative agents of intestinal infections
C. elimination of spore forms
D. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms
E. * change of a chemical compound of water
149. Which one of the following is methods of desalinating of water?
A. Decontamination
B. Deodorization
C. Stirage
D. Coagulation
E. * Distillation
150. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water
A. Chlorinating
B. Ozonization
C. Distillation
D. UV-irradiation
E. * Coagulation
151. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water:
A. Sublimation
B. Ionization

C. Pasterisation
D. Sterilization
E. * Desinfection
152. Which one of the following is not methods of decolorizing of water?
A. Settling
B. Coagulation
C. Filtration
D. Flocculation
E. * Aeration
153. Disinfecting of water is
A. cleaning it from dirt
B. removal of unpleasant smell
C. removal of hangings up matters
D. removal of poisonous matters
E. * removal of pathogenic microorganisms
154. To the chemical methods of water disinfecting belong:
A. boiling
B. coagulation
C. irradiation of ultraviolet rays
D. filtration
E. * chlorinating
155. The time of water disinfection by ozone is
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 2 hours
D. 10 hours
E. * 3-5 min
156. Which one from the following is chemical method of water disinfection:
A. The use of ultraviolet radiation
B. Treatment of water by an ultrasound
C. Application of high-voltage impulsive currents
D. Boiling
E. * Treatment of water by the ions of silver
157. Slow sand filter are also called
A. Chemical filters
B. Mechanical filters
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
E. * Biological filters
158. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water:
A. Ionization
B. Sublimation
C. Pasterisation
D. Sterilization
E. * Disinfecting
159. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water.

A. Fluoridation of water
B. Deironation
C. Desalinating
D. Softenin
E. * Settling
160. Indicate the basic method of disinfection of water:
A. Toxicological
B. Biological
C. Biochemical
D. Bacteriological
E. * Physical
161. What method of water treatment use for removed coloryty of the water, for acceleration of
sedimentation of small particles and duration of process of filtration?
A. Chlorinating.
B. Ozonization.
C. Desalinization
D. Fluoridation
E. * Coagulation.
162. What is chlorine absorption of water?
A. Quantity of chlorine for oxidize the microorganisms
B. Quantityof chlorine for oxidize organic substances
C. Quantityof chlorine for oxidize norganic substances
D. Quantity of chlorine, wich absorbted by the hanging up in water matters
E. * All right
163. How is cleaned slow sand filter
A. Washing by chlorine solution;
B. Washing by reversing the flow of water through the sand bed
C. Washing by water under preasure
D. Washing by chlorine potassium permanganate
E. * by scrapping of the top portion of the sand layer
164. Which one of the following is not the basic stage of desinfection of well:
A. Cleaning of territory round a well
B. Improvement of the technical state of well
C. Disinfection of water
D. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination
E. * Fluorination of water
165. What is reliability index of water well in the epidemiology relation:
A. Sulfates no more than 500 mg/l
B. Chlorides no more than 350 mg/l
C. Hardness of water no more than 7 mg eqv/l
D. Iron not more > 0,3 mg/l
E. * Residual chlorine 0,3-0,5 mg/l
166. Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection
A. The use to the chlorine and its preparations
B. Ozonization
C. Iodine-containing preparations

D. Chemical tablet methods

E. * The use of ultraviolet radiation
167. Which one of the following is not the necessary condition of the effective disinfecting of water by the
method of the ordinary chlorinating?
A. Correct choice of dose to the chlorine
B. Rapid mixing the chlorine with water
C. Sufficient time of contact a chlorine with water
D. Previous necessary to light and decolorize water
E. * necessary of dechlorination of water
168. Disadvantages of UV-irradiation over the chlorination:
A. don't denaturate the water
B. don't change smell of water,
C. dont change taste of water
D. is spread over the spores, viruses and worm eggs, resistant to chlorine
E. * need lightening and decolorising of water
169. Slow sand filter also called:
A. Chemical filter
B. Mechanical filter
C. Physycal filter
D. None of the above
E. * Biological filter
170. Which one of the following is method of softening of water
A. Ozonization
B. Bacteriological method
C. Biological method
D. Biochemical method
E. * Physical method
171. Indicate the basic method of disinfection of water:
A. Biological
B. Biochemical
C. General-sanitary
D. Bacteriological
E. * Chemical
172. Which chemical matters usually used for coagulation of water:
A. Granozan
B. chlorine gas
C. Chlorinated Lime
D. Chloramine
E. * Aluminium sulphate
173. Which one of the following is not the basic stage of desinfection of well:
A. Cleaning of territory round a well
B. Improvement of the technical state of well
C. Disinfection of water
D. Quality control of disinfection after chlorination
E. * Determination of distance from a well to the sources of contaminate
174. Which one of the following is not chemical method of water disinfection

A. The use to the chlorine and its preparations

B. Ozonization
C. Iodine-containing preparations
D. Chemical tablet methods
E. * Boiling
175. The following steps may be involved in chlorination of well:
A. (1) >(3)>(4)>(2)
B. (1) >(4)>(3)>(2)
C. (3) >(4)>(2)>(1)
D. (1) >(2)>(3)>(4)
E. (3) >(4)>(1)>(2)
176. What is major categories of water pollutants
A. Infections agents
B. Organic chemical
C. Inorganic chemicals
D. Radioactive materials
E. * All are correct
177. Time of water's disinfection by superchlorination in winter is
A. 10 min
B. 15 min
C. 60 min
D. 120 min
E. * 30 min
178. Which one of the following is decelerate the UV-disinfection of water, decreasing the transparence of
water.
A. Turbidity of water
B. colour of water
C. iron salts
D. None of above
E. * All are correct
179. Which one of the following is disadvantages of ozonization of water?
A. water is well disinfected
B. organic admixtures become destroyed
C. organoleptic features are improved
D. more effective against bacteria and viruses
E. * costs are higher than other treatment procedures
180. Superficial waters is characterized by
A. High mineralized
B. Constant chemical composition
C. Constant temperature
D. Absent pathogenic organisms
E. * High oxidity and colority
181. One of the following is not characteristic of atmospheric water:
A. Lightly mineralized
B. Without color
C. With not very pleasant in taste

D. Dangerous in the radiological attitude

E. * Very hard
182. In drinking water samples selected after purification and disinfection by gaseous chlorine the
following was revealed: chloroform and threechloracetic acid in concentration three times more than
their MAC. What disease may probably develop as a result of prolong intake of this water?
A. Urolithiasis
B. Hypertensive disease
C. Stroke
D. Anemia
E. * Stomach cancer
183. How many zones of sanitary preservation are to be set round the place of water supply for a city
from a river?
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Four.
D. Five.
E. * Three.
184. Method of removal of waters hardness is
A. Filtration
B. Deironation
C. Desalting
D. Decontamination
E. * Softening
185. In what unit of measurement measure hardness of water?
A. degree
B. centimeter
C. percent
D. dm3
E. * mg equ/l
186. What index testifies to contamination of water by the organic matters?
A. Hardness
B. Iodine
C. Iron
D. Sulphates
E. * Ammonia
187. A mine well is located on territory of the small holding in the distance 20 m from a dwelling-house,
10 m - from a cloak-room; 15 m - from the house of neighbour. What least distance, pursuant to
sanitary norms, must be between a well source of possible contamination of water?
A. 10 m.
B. 15 m
C. 25 m.
D. 35 m.
E. * 30 m.
188. What disease can cause surplus of fluorine in water (more 1,5 mg/dm3 )?
A. Caries
B. Stomatyt
C. Gingivitis
D. Osteoporoz
E. * fluorosis
189. Best source of drinking water
A. Interlayer water without pressure
B. Lakes
C. Subsoil water
D. River
E. * Artesian water
190. A significant role in the spreading of infections and helminthes in tropical regions can play
A. Subsoil water
B. Artesian water
C. Springs
D. Rain
E. * Opened reservoirs
191. What method of water purification is consider to be general
A. Iron elimination
B. Decontamination
C. Desalination
D. Decolorizing
E. * Disinfection
192. Distance from the well to the residence of consumer must not exceed
A. 50-150 m
B. 200-250 m
C. 300-350 m
D. 1000 m
E. * 500 m
193. Which one of the following does not behave to the obligatory requirement to the equipment of wells
A. Waterproof walls
B. Sufficient distance to the sources of contamination
C. Cover
D. Cemented brick work
E. * A electric pump
194. Which one of the following general between ground and Interlayer waters
A. Low temperature
B. Permanent chemical composition
C. High mineralized
D. Depth of bedding
E. * Transparency
195. Distance from a well to the user must not exceed
A. 1000 - 1500 m
B. 500 - 1000 m
C. 250 - 500 m
D. 200 - 250 m
E. * 50 - 150 m
196. For physical and chemical examination of water is essential
A. about 0.5 litres of water

B. about 1 litres of water

C. about 10 litres of water
D. about 20 litres of water
E. * about 2 litres of water
197. For bacteriological examination of water is required
A. about 10 ml of water
B. about 100 ml of water
C. about 1000 ml of water
D. about 2000 ml of water
E. * about 300 ml of water
198. What waters sources characterizes by constant chemical composition?
A. Atmospheric water
B. River
C. Sea
D. Lake
E. * Groundwater
199. Than superficial waters are characterized?
A. high mineralization
B. constant chemical composition
C. constant temrerature
D. absent patigenic organizms
E. * high oxidity and colority
200. The major source of contamination of well water in village is:
A. Bird droppings;
B. Washing and bathing on the well
C. A pond near the well
D. Provision of parapet
E. * Repeatedly putting diferent bucket and rope in the well
201. Deep wells are differentiated from shallow wells by:
A. Depth of the well
B. Method of taking out water from wells
C. Hardness of water
D. Covered on the top
E. * Number of impervious layer
202. Water is the factor of transmission of many infectious diseases. For which from the resulted diseases
not characteristic water-way of transmission?
A. dysentery
B. typhoid
C. cholera
D. poliomyelitis
E. * windy pox
203. In drinking water samples selected after purification and disinfested by gaseous chlorine the
following was revealed:
A. Urolithiasis
B. Hypertensive disease
C. * Stroke
D. Anemia

E. Stomach cancer
204. In drinking water samples the following substances were revealed: copper, manganese, iron, lead,
chlorphenol on the level
A. Manganese
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. * Chlorphenol
E. Lead
205. In the dull December days (calm and mist) the respiratory system diseases and'diseases accompanied
by signs of general
A. Lead
B. Low temperature;
C. * Air humidity;
D. Photooxidants.
E. Suspended substances (dust);
206. Patient was receiving intensive antibacterial therapy because of double-sided pneumonia. As result
disbacteriosis has
A. By increasing food-stuffs rich in cellulose
B. By increasing meat food-stuffs
C. By increasing food-stuffs rich in fats
D. * By increasing plant oil amount
E. By increasing acid milk amount
207. The eating of fish and crawfish in Japan causes the Minamata disease. What chemical substance is
related with this
A. Copper
B. Cadmium
C. Selenium
D. * Lead
E. Mercury
208. A woman's body weight index (Ketle's index) is 20,8. Which out of given below nutrition status
variants suits the woman's
A. Adequate nutrition
B. The I degree hypotrophia
C. The II degree obesity
D. * The II degree hypotrophia
E. Optima average quantity
209. For human nutrition status estimation body weight index (Ketle biomass index) is used. What
quantity can we estimate as adequate nutrition for a woman?
A. 20,1-24,9;
B. 16,0-17,9;
C. 30,0-39,9;
D. 25,0-29,9.
E. * 18,0-20,3;
210. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water.
A. Fluoridation of water
B. Deironation
C. Desalinating

D. Softenin
E. * Settling
211. Which one of the following is used as coagulant for coagulation of water?
A. Bleaching Powder
B. Potassium Permanganate
C. ethanol solution of iodine
D. Ozone
E. * Aluminium sulpfate
212. Which one of the following is used as coagulator for coagulant of water?
A. Chloramine
B. chlorine gas
C. Ozone
D. CaOCI2
E. * FeCl3
213. Which one of the following is methods of decolorizing of water:
A. Super Chlorination
B. Aeration
C. Boiling
D. Softening
E. * Settling
214. Which one of the following is methods of remove tastes and odors of water?
A. Settling
B. Coagulation
C. Softening
D. Boiling
E. * Aeration
215. Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water:
A. Biological
B. Biochemical
C. General-sanitary
D. Bacteriological
E. * Chemical
216. Which one of the following is not advantage of water disinfection by ozone
A. water is well disinfected
B. organic admixtures become destroyed
C. organoleptic features of water are improved
D. Water equated with spring water
E. * Water have chlorine smell
217. Which one of the following is not influenced on maintenance of a available chlorine in a chloric
lime?
A. temperature of storage
B. motion of air
C. sun rays
D. a contact is with oxygen
E. * atmospheric pressure
218. Reagents which are used for dechlorination of water.

A. Chlorine lime
B. Iodide potassium
C. Aluminium sulphate
D. Ammonium chloride
E. * Hyposulphite sodium
219. In slow filter, the surface of sand bed gets covered with a slimy grows which called:
A. biological layer
B. Filter layer
C. Sand layer
D. Main layer
E. * Basic layer
220. Which one of the following is methods of improvement of quality of drinking-water:
A. Ionization
B. Sublimation
C. Pasterisation
D. Sterilization
E. * Deironation
221. Which one of the following is methods of lightening of water
A. Deironation
B. Desalinating
C. Softening
D. Deodorization
E. * Filtration
222. Disinfection of well is required in normal days and during epidemics. Which one of the following is
indexes which testify to reliability of the disinfecting of water in the case of the use of method of
chlorination?
A. Transparence of water 30 cm
B. GMN - 100 CFU/dm3, Index BGEC - 10 CFU/cm3
C. GMN - 110 CFU/dm3, smell is 2 points
D. "free" residual chlorine level is 0.2 mg/ litre, Transparence of water 30 cm
E. * "free" residual chlorine level is 0.5 mg/ litre, GMN - 100 CFU/dm3
223. Which one of the following is not traditional method of water purification?
A. lightening
B. decolorizing
C. disinfecting
D. None of the about
E. * Ionization
224. Which one of the following is methods of remove tastes and odors of water?
A. settling
B. Coagulation
C. Softening
D. Boiling
E. * Filtration through an activated carbon
225. Which one of the following is basic method of disinfecting of water:
A. Toxicological
B. Biological
C. Biochemical

D. Bacteriological
E. * Physical
226. Which one of the following methods used to accelerate the sedimentation of suspended matters,
filtration and lightening of water?
A. Chlorinating
B. Ozonization
C. Deodorization
D. Fluoridation
E. * Coagulation
227. Content of free residual chlorine after finishing of chlorination process:
A. 0,1-0,2 mg/L
B. 0,6 - 0,8 mg/L
C. 0,8 - 1,0 mg/L
D. 1,0 - 1,5 mg/L
E. * 0,3-0,5 mg/L
228. Which one of the next is not conditions of chlorination effectiveness:
A. correct choose of chlorine dose
B. keeping of contact time
C. previous water lightening
D. mixing of chlorine with hole water volume
E. * previous removal of soluble salts
229. Time of contact for effectiveness of chlorination in summer must be not less than
A. 10 min
B. 20 min
C. 60 min
D. 90 min
E. * 30 min
230. Radius of maintenance of children of middle classes general schools in a town is
A. 0,5 (km)
B. 2,0 (km)
C. 2,5 (km)
D. 3,0 (km)
E. * 1,5 (km)
231. How is named distance between table and chair by the vertical?
A. Distance of the back support
B. Distance of sitting
C. Height of seating
D. Depth of seating
E. * Differentia
232. After the grade scale of complication of objects the most sum of marks is in the III class on a
Monday, in IV - on Tuesday, in V - on Wednesday, in VI - even distributing of loading on the days of
week, in VII - on Friday. What class the timetable of lessons is built in correctly?
A. IV
B. VI
C. VII
D.
E. * V

233. General illumination of school class is planned to provide by incandescent lamps. Which one of the
following is the norm for classrooms?
A. 250 Lx
B. 350 Lx
C. 300 Lx
D. 200 Lx
E. * 150 Lx
234. Indicate an area on a 1 child in a dinning room in kindergarten
A. 3,0 m2
B. 2,0 m2
C. 1,5 m2
D. 1,25 m2
E. * 2,5 m2
235. During of hygienic estimation of school text-book of requirement are produced to
A. Type, typing, printing
B. To bacterial contamination, wood contents in paper, weight
C. Clearness of type, printing, to creation of optimum terms for visual work
D. External design, weight and name
E. * Paper, type, typing, printing, external design, weight
236. The school furniture should be ergonomic, that means
A. Accord to the weight of the child
B. Accord to the age of the child
C. Accord to the sex of the child
D. Accord to the age and weight of the child
E. * Accord to the height of the child
237. Which one of the following is NOT the anthroposcopic parameters ?
A. Estimate a constitution,
B. Estimate habitus,
C. Estimate backbone,
D. Estimate degree of development of secondary sexual attributes
E. * Measurement of a circle of the chest
238. How is named distance between table and chair by the vertical
A. Distance of the back support
B. Distance of sitting
C. Height of seating
D. Depth of seating
E. * Differentia
239. In an educational room for the help of luxmeter the level of lamplight was determined, luminescent
lamps carry that out. Common lamplight of classroom must be:
A. 200 lx
B. 150 lx
C. 100 lx
D. 75 lx
E. * 300 lx
240. The school furniture should be ergonomic, that means
A. Accord to the weight of the child
B. Accord to the age of the child

C. Accord to the sex of the child

D. Accord to the age and weight of the child
E. * Accord to the height of the child
241. Distance, which a book (notebook) from eyes at reading, letter is found on
A. 20-25 cm
B. 40-45 cm
C. 50-55 cm
D. 55-60 cm
E. * 30-35 cm
242. Indicate an area on a 1 child in a playing room in kindergarten.
A. 3,0 m2
B. 2,0 m2
C. 1,5 m2
D. 1,25 m2
E. * 2,5 m2
243. How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and back of the chair?
A. Distance of sitting
B. Differentia
C. height of seating
D. depth of seating
E. * Distance of the back support
244. The distance from building of pre-school institution to red line must be
A. 5m
B. 10 m
C. 15 m
D. 20 m
E. * 25 m
245. Which maximal mass of toy for the children over 3 years old is to be?
A. 500g
B. 250g
C. 300 g
D. 600 g
E. * 400 g
246. How is named distance between back edge of the desk table and front edge of the sit of chair?
A. Distance of the back support
B. Differentia
C. height of seating
D. depth of seating
E. * Distance of sitting
247. Recommended height of classroom is
A. 2m
B. 2,5 m
C. 4m
D. 5m
E. * 3m
248. Number of children in younger kindergarten group cannot more than

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
E. * 15
249. Name somatometric index.
A. Growth and mass of body, circumference of thorax and head.
B. Growth and circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh.
C. Growth and mass of body.
D. Mass of body, circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh.
E. * Growth and mass of body, circumference of thorax, head, shoulder, thigh.
250. After the medical examination of children of primary school doctor gave conclusion about they
physical development. What minimum list of indexes it is necessary for estimate the level of physical
development of children?
A. Mass of body, presence of the second sexual signs;
B. Mass of body, presence of the second teeth
C. Mass of body and circumference of thorax
D. Mass of body, circumference of thorax, and also presence of the second sexual signs
E. * Growth and mass of body;
251. Which one of the following is NOT the anthroposcopic parameter?
A. Estimate a constitution,
B. Estimate form of the chest
C. Estimate backbone
D. Estimate degree of development of secondary sexual attributes
E. * Measurement of growth
252. Plantography is the method of estimation
A. Form of back
B. Form of chest
C. Degree of obesity
D. Force of muscles of a back
E. * Degree of flatness of foot
253. Rice contain next vitamin
A. Vit. A
B. Vit.C
C. Vit.D
D. Vit.B12
E. * Vit.B1
254. Exclusive use of which to the cereal may cause pellagra
A. Millet.
B. Wheats.
C. Oats.
D. Barley.
E. * Maize
255. Vegetable Foods contain large amount of
A. Iron;
B. Vitamins D
C. Proteins

D. Fats
E. * Carbohydrates
256. A middle layer or endosperm consists chiefly of
A. Proteins;
B. fats.
C. cellulose
D. calcium
E. * starch
257. Cow's milk is rich in next protein
A. Lact albumen
B. Lacto-globulin
C. Myosin
D. All are present
E. * Casein
258. What devise used for registration of bodys temperature?
A. Catatermometer.
B. Minimal alcohol thermometer.
C. Minimal mercury thermometer.
D. Luxmeter.
E. * Maximal mercury thermometer
259. Name vitamins, which synthesis by intestinal bacteria?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. C.
D. Vit. E
E. * Vit. K
260. How many energy give 1 gram of carbohydrate?
A. 6 kcal
B. 7,5 kcal
C. 9 kcal
D. 12 kcal
E. * 4 kcal
261. The deficiency of one of the following vitamin leads to the disease beri-beri
A. Vit. C
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. PP
D. Vit. B12
E. * Vit. B1
262. Vitamin C deficiency leads to
A. Osteomalacia
B. Pellagra
C. Beri-beri
D. Rickets
E. * Scurvy
263. Name products, which are not rich in vitamin
A. Citrus fruits

B. Tomatoes
C. Cabbage
D. green leafy vegetables
E. * Meat
264. Main clinical sings of vit. D deficiency
A. Sores on lips
B. hemorrhage
C. Night blindness
D. * deformed bones
E. mental instability
265. Name coefficient of physical activity for people of hard physical work.
A. 1,2
B. 1,4
C. 1,6
D. 1,9
E. * 2,2
266. Vitamin C helps increase absorption from plant foods next mineral salt
A. zinc
B. iodine
C. Phosphorus
D. Copper
E. * iron
267. What vitamine synthesis by action of sunlight in skin?
A. Vit. C.
B. Vit. K
C. Vit. A
D. Vit. E
E. * Vit. D
268. Which one of the following in not a fat-soluble vitamin?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. K
D. Vit. E
E. * Vit. PP
269. Name coefficient of physical activity for people of mental work
A. 1,2
B. 1,6
C. 1,9
D. 2,2
E. * 1,4
270. Name component of food, which is main sources of energy for organism.
A. Protein
B. Fat
C. vitamins
D. Minerals
E. * Carbohydrate

271. Vitamin A deficiency leads to

A. Sores on lips
B. mental instability
C. hemorrhage
D. deformed bones
E. * Night blindness
272. How many energy give 1 gram of proteine?
A. 6 kcal
B. 7,5 kcal
C. 9 kcal
D. 12 kcal
E. * 4 kcal
273. Basic clinical symptoms of avitaminosis vit. K
A. Sores on lips
B. mental instability
C. Night blindness
D. deformed bones
E. * haemorrhage
274. Name normal ratio between protein, fat, carbohydrates
A. 2:1:4
B. 4:1:1
C. 1:4:1
D. 2:2:4
E. * 1:1:4
275. One of the following not destroyed Vitamin C
A. prolonged heating
B. cooking of fruits
C. sun light
D. presence of alkaline salts
E. * presence of acidic salts
276. Vitamin C is essential for
A. transforms calcium and phosphorus into bones
B. maintains osmotic pressure in blood and other tissue fluids
C. formation of hydrochloric acid in the body
D. normal coagulation of the blood
E. * maintaining capillary integrity
277. The deficiency of this vitamin leads to pellagra
A. Vit. B1
B. Vit. C
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. B12
E. * Vit. B3
278. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. K

D. Vit. E
E. * Vit. B1
279. The deficiency of this vitamin leads to rickets
A. Vit. B1
B. Vit.A
C. Vit. B3
D. Vit. B12
E. * Vit. D
280. Name vitamins, which synthesis in human organism?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. B1
C. Vit. C
D. Vit. E
E. * Vit. K
281. What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness, weakness, and dyspnea on exertion,
tachycardia, palpitations, and edema.
A. Calcium deficiency
B. kwashiorkor
C. Pellagra
D. Xerophthalmia
E. * Iron deficiency
282. Which one of the following is not natural sources of carotene
A. Tomatoes
B. Carrots
C. Dark-green leafy vegetables
D. Papaya
E. * Lemon
283. The disease beri-beri occurs predominantly among peoples because of their use of
A. Diet with lack of calcium
B. Some fish
C. Diet containing very little fresh fruit or vegetables
D. Diet with lack of the mineral nutrient iodide
E. * Refined or polished rice
284. Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for
A. X-rays.
B. * alpha particles
C. Electrons.
D. Gamma rays
E. All of these choices are true
285. Direct effects of irradiation are those that
A. * cause immediate cell death
B. affect structures distant from irradiated structures
C. affect the site of irradiation
D. cause the least biological effect
E. None of above
286. Dose equivalent is measured in

A. * Sieverts
B. Man sieverts
C. Coulombs
D. Grays
E. becquerel
287. Energy transmitted in the form of electromagnetic waves or subatomic particles.
A. Effects of radiation
B. Radioactivity
C. Ionization
D. * Radiation
E. Exposure dose
288. Exposure is
A. the internal energy within the atom that holds its components together.
B. * a measurment of ionization produced in air by x- or gamma radiation
C. a small negitively charged particle of the atom containing much energy and little mass.
D. a unit of measurment that describes the wavelengths of certain high frequency radiation.
E. None of above
289. Exposure is measured in
A. * Coulombs per kg
B. Coulombs per mg
C. Sieverts per cGy
D. Coulombs per mGy
E. Grays
290. For a specific delivered dose of soft x-rays, which type of material has the largest absorbed dose?
A. * Bone
B. muscle
C. water
D. they all have the same absorbed dose
E. None of above
291. How is named the number of nuclear transformations taking place per unit time in a radioisotope?
A. dose equivalent
B. exposure
C. absorbed dose
D. * activity
E. quality factor
292. How will the dose of radiation change at the increase of time of display?
A. Increased in quadratic dependence to the activity
B. * Increased directly proportional to the activity
C. Not change
D. Increased in logarithmic dependence to the activity
E. Increased in geometrical dependence on activity
293. In the case of non-uniform irradiation of the body, the risk for stochastic effects is described by
A. * the equivalent dose
B. the effective dose
C. the total absorbed dose
D. Quality factor

E. Age
294. Increasing the distance from a source by a factor of three, will
A. reduce the exposure rate in 3 times
B. * reduce the exposure rate in 9 times
C. increases the exposure rate in 4 times
D. increase the exposure rate in 9 times
E. not change
295. Main principles of protection from external gamma-radiation are
A. time, distance
B. * time, distance, screen
C. distance, screen, ventilation
D. distance, screen, ventilation, respirators
E. screen, ventilation, rubber gloves
296. Maximum permissible dose for adults exposed in the course of their work is . per year
A. * 5 rem
B. 2 rem
C. 10 rem
D. 50 rem
E. 100 rem
297. Naturally occurring radioisotopes does not include
A. Uranium-238
B. Radium-226
C. * Technetium-99
D. Carbon-14
E. Potassium - 40
298. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments?
A. Minimum a 1 time per week
B. Minimum 2 times per week
C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days
D. Minimum a 1 time per day
E. * Minimum 2 times per day
299. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the ground area under
construction projected object
A. general plan;
B. * situational plan
C. horizontal plan
D. Facades plan
E. explanatory note
300. What square must be on the one patient in many beds ward?
A. 11m2
B. 9 m2
C. * 7 m2
D. 22m2
E. 5,5 m2
301. How many patients must be in the typical wards section
A. 25

B. 35
C. * 30
D. 15
E. 20
302. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on:
A. 50 beds
B. 60 beds
C. * 30 beds
D. is not regulated
E. Regulated only in city hospitals
303. The hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the
flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:
A. The room charge nurse
B. In the corridor
C. In the House
D. In doctors room
E. * operating
304. Indicate where exhaust ventilation present in the hospital`s rooms :
A. The room charge nurse
B. In the corridor
C. In the House
D. In doctors room
E. * operation room
305. Airing of the Chamber carried out by multiple air vents open during the day. What of the following
indicators to evaluate the effectiveness of airing?
A. oxygenation of air
B. the concentration of carbon monoxide
C. * the concentration of carbon dioxide
D. concentration of dust
E. oxygen content
306. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department
A. 6 beds
B. 4 beds
C. 3 beds.
D. * 2 beds
E. 5 beds
307. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of
measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?
A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital;
B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments
C. specific immune prophylaxis;
D. * exposure and isolation of source of infection
E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature
308. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of
28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?
A. 30 m2
B. 24 m2

C. 28 m2
D. * 40 m2
E. 52 m2
309. Biological laboratory Regional Hospital conducts monthly quality control pre sterilisation processing
and sterilization of instruments, using, in particular, samples from the test indicators. What control
using these samples?
A. * The temperature in the autoclave
B. General microbe semination
C. Remains of blood
D. Remnants of detergents
E. The pressure in the autoclave
310. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of
reconstruction of central district hospital. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical
requirements?
A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital
B. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes
C. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage
D. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic wastes
E. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital
311. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type
of building is most expedient in this case?
A. decentralized
B. centralized
C. is mixed
D. Block
E. * centralized block
312. Choose a hospital room, which rated the temperature 22 degrees:
A. Corridor
B. * Checking bandaging
C. WC-room
D. Ward for patients with hyperthyriosis
E. Ward for newborn
313. Determine the best time of the infectious hospital waste water in septic tanks to achieve effective
mechanical cleaning?
A. 3 hours
B. 3 days
C. 5 hours
D. * 5 days
E. half a year
314. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town, located on 55 to north, transference of surgical
block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building. What part of the direction is it
necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour
of surgical personnel?
A. West
B. east
C. * north
D. South
E. South-west

315. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the
specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust
container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?:
A. should be not less than 10 m
B. should be not less than 15m
C. * should be not less than 25 m
D. should be not less than 30 m
E. should be not less than 40m
316. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air . What
maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward?
A. * 0,1 %
B. 1,0 %
C. 10,0 %
D. 0,25 %
E. 0,5 %
317. What is the maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide in patient room?
A. * 0,1 %
B. 1,0 %
C. 10,0 %
D. 0,25 %
E. 0,5 %
318. Frequency of wet cleaning aseptic chambers:
A. Once a day
B. * Twice a day
C. Once a week
D. Twice a week
E. three times a week
319. General area of therapeutic separation makes 28 m2. What maximal amount of beds is this ward
counted on?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. * 4
E. 1
320. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing room of surgical departmen to
beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?
A. To 300
B. * To 500
C. To 1000
D. To 1500
E. To 2000
321. How many patients must be in the typical wards section
A. 25
B. 35
C. * 30
D. 15
E. 20

322. What are the number patients must be in the one typical hospital wards section?
A. 25
B. 35
C. * 30
D. 15
E. 20
323. How many posts of the on duty nurse should be in one ward section?
A. * One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
E. Five
324. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section?
A. * One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
E. Five
325. What are number of the duty nurse`s post in one ward section?
A. * One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
E. Five
326. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments?
A. Minimum a 1 time per a week
B. Minimum 2 times per a week.
C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days
D. Minimum a 1 time per a day
E. * Minimum 2 times per a day
327. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments?
A. Minimum a 1 time per a week
B. Minimum 2 times per a week.
C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days
D. Minimum a 1 time per a day
E. * Minimum 2 times per a day
328. In a hospital, which is built, should be artificial illumination. Where will not be violation of norms of
lamplight by luminescent lamps:
A. Operation room (general illumination) 200 lux
B. * Examination rooms 190 lux;
C. ward 40 lux
D. Corridors 15 lux
E. Manipulation 50 lux.
329. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps in the hospital?
A. Operation room (general illumination) 200 lux
B. * Examination rooms 190 lux;

C. ward 40 lux
D. Corridors 15 lux
E. Manipulation 50 lux.
330. In identifying the hospital infection in the hospital to hold a particular set of measures on prevention.
Which of the following activities is of paramount importance?
A. of the disinfection of all hospital premises;
B. To strengthen control over sterilisation of instruments;
C. Specific immunization;
D. * Detection and isolation of the source of infection;
E. Isolation of patients with fever.
331. In purulent operating a surgical department patient with leg amputation gangrene. How does the
waste disposed of origin operating in hospitals?
A. * burned in special furnaces
B. are being exported to waste solid waste
C. are being exported to the special places for dumping animals.
D. bury oneself at the hospital
E. crushed and discharged into sewer
332. In the dressing surgical department to start work was a common bacterial contamination of the air.
What should be a general indicator of microbial numbers in this case?
A. 300
B. * to 500
C. Up to 1000
D. Up to 1500
E. Before 2000
333. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with:
A. health
B. With the cardiovascular diseases
C. * with influenza
D. By the opthomalogical diseases
E. pathological pregnancy
334. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with:
A. health
B. With the cardiovascular diseases
C. * with influenza
D. By the opthomalogical diseases
E. pathological pregnancy
335. In the rural hospital, which is being built, to ensure a minimum level of facilities artificial
illumination. What is the premise of this hospital will not be a violation of artificial lighting
fluorescent lamps:
A. Operating (general lighting) - 200 lx;
B. * A doctor's office - 300 lx;
C. House - 40 lx;
D. Corridors - 15 lx;
E. manipulative - 50 lx.
336. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is
very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?
A. * by the fields of underground filtration

B. With the sand-gravel filter

C. With the filtering well
D. With the compact options of the factory making
E. From biofilteration of small power
337. In what conditions should be chlorinated products?
A. In the light place
B. In the dark place
C. * In dry and dark place
D. In a closed container
E. In the wet ground
338. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel
A. * Operating
B. A doctor's office
C. Lobby
D. Corridor
E. doctors room
339. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator:
A. * room
B. Preoperative
C. Operating
D. Opaque Chamber
E. family
340. What is minimum level lighting in operational room by luminiscent lamp?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 300
D. * 400
E. 1000
341. Levels of noise in the wards shall not exceed:
A. 10 dB.
B. 15 dB.
C. 20 dB
D. 25 dB.
E. * 30 dB
342. Light coefficient in doctors room must be:
A. * 1:5-1:6
B. 1:3-1:4
C. 1:7-1:8
D. 1:2-1:4
E. 1:10-1:12
343. Light coefficient in operation room must be:
A. 1:5-1:6
B. 1:3-1:4
C. 1:7-1:8
D. * 1:2-1:4
E. 1:10-1:12

344. Light coefficient in hospital corridor must be:

A. 1:5-1:6
B. 1:3-1:4
C. 1:7-1:8
D. 1:2-1:4
E. * 1:8-1:10
345. Light coefficient in wards must be:
A. * 1:5-1:6
B. 1:3-1:4
C. 1:7-1:8
D. 1:2-1:4
E. 1:10-1:12
346. Light ratio in doctor's room be:
A. 1:2 - 1:3
B. * 1:4 - 1:5
C. 1:6 - 1:7
D. 1:8 - 1:9
E. 1:9 - 1:10
347. Light ratio, which recommended in operating.
A. 1:2-1:2,5.
B. 1:2-1:3.
C. 1:4-1:5.
D. 1:3-1:4.
E. * 1:2-1:4.
348. Major professional harm to the medical staff?
A. * Mental and moral tension
B. Prolonged stay on their feet
C. Lack of artificial lighting
D. Lack of artificial lighting
E. Uncertainty
349. Mark, which incorrectly indicated the rate of natural lighting.
A. The operating - 2%.
B. * In handling - 1%.
C. Check bound - 2%
D. House - 1%.
E. Corridors of 0.1%.
350. Mark, which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio:
A. The operation - 1:2 - 1:4.
B. Surgery - 1:4 - 1:5.
C. Dressing room - 1:6 - 1:5.
D. * In the wards - 1:8 - 1:10
E. In the corridor - 1:8 - 1:10.
351. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides.
A. general plan
B. situational plan;
C. * Facades plan

D. horizontal plan
E. explanatory note
352. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:
A. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:
B. malaria mosquitoes
C. helminths
D. Sick animals infections
E. * herbs
353. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to chemical
A. anaesthetics
B. antibiotics
C. disinfection substances
D. * dust that contains silicon dioxide
E. dust that micro organism
354. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to the physical
A. ionizing, e / m and laser radiation
B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound, noise, vibration)
C. increasing the atmospheric pressure
D. poor lighting and high light load
E. * physiological
355. Name the adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors:
A. load of the senses (hearing, sight)
B. * stressful situation (the need to make a decision in a deficit time)
C. forced to working out and static load
D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory
E. lack of professional training in some young professionals
356. Name the factor, which dont increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection:
A. the level of wound contamination
B. the length of incision
C. opening the windows
D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery
E. use of antibiotics
357. Name the group of harmful and dangerous factors that are not typical for doctors of different
specialties:
A. Physical
B. * Hand-made
C. Chemical
D. Biological
E. Physiological
358. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected
building and other buildings are represented.
A. * general plan
B. situational plan
C. Facades plan
D. horizontal plan
E. explanatory note

359. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected
building and other buildings are represented.
A. * general plan
B. situational plan
C. Facades plan
D. horizontal plan
E. explanatory note
360. Write adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors:
A. load of the senses (hearing, sight)
B. * working with dead material
C. forced to working out and static load
D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory
E. lack of professional training in some young professionals
361. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room
A. The south, a southeast
B. * The north
C. The west, a southwest
D. The east, northeast.
E. The west
362. Please provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards:
A. * The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.1%
B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg
C. Frequency - 50 lx
D. aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter.
E. Oxygenation of air - up to 1 mg oxygen / m3
363. Hygienic requirements to the air of hospital wards:
A. The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.2%
B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg
C. Oxygenation of air - to 2 mg O2 / m3
D. * Aerobic Bacterial - to 3500 in 1 m3 in summer
E. Aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter
364. Primary prevention of diseases including:
A. Warning of further development of diseases
B. * Warning of further development of diseases
C. Prevention of complications of the disease
D. Rehabilitation
E. Prevention of recurrence of disease
365. Provides nutrition in hospital?
A. * Hygienic conditions aimed at ensuring patients complete somatic and mental comfort
B. Hygienic conditions that provide patients a long, deep sleep
C. Skilful care
D. The presence of light house
E. The availability of comfortable beds
366. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate
possible norms of humidity.
A. 20-40 %
B. 50-70 %

C. 70-90 %
D. * 30-60 %
E. 20-65 %
367. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutics ward corresponds to the hygienical norm. Indicate possible
norms of humidity.
A. 20-40 %
B. 50-70 %
C. 70-90 %
D. * 30-60 %
E. 20-65 %
368. Relative humidity of air in the oncology wards is
A. 20-50 %
B. 30-70 %
C. 30-80 %
D. 20-40 %
E. * 30-60 %
369. Relative humidity of air in the pediatrictic wards is
A. 20-50 %
B. 30-70 %
C. 30-80 %
D. 20-40 %
E. * 30-60 %
370. Relative humidity of air in the surgery wards is
A. 20-50 %
B. 30-70 %
C. 30-80 %
D. 20-40 %
E. * 30-60 %
371. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is
A. 20-50 %
B. 30-70 %
C. 30-80 %
D. 20-40 %
E. * 30-60 %
372. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20
C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienical estimation of
microclimate of ward.
A. comfort microclimate;
B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type
C. discomfort microclimate of heating type
D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air
E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air
373. Select the correct option for the doctor's office:
A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the
temperature of 2 degrees horizontally
B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02 m / s, changing
the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally.
C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s, changing the
temperature of 2 degrees horizontally
D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the
temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally
E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s, changing the
temperature of 3 degrees horizontally.
374. Set to be micro-climatic conditions in the ward for patients with severe burns?
A. Temperature - 200C, relative humidity - 40%, the speed of air - 0.1 m / s
B. Temperature - 180C, relative humidity - 50%, the speed of air - 1 m / s
C. Temperature - 150C, relative humidity - 60%, the speed of air - 1 m / s
D. * 22-250C temperature, relative humidity - 55%, the speed of air - 0.05 - 0.1 m / s
E. Temperature - 280p relative humidity - 65% of the speed of air - 0.5 m / s
375. Specify one of the five given options, which are located on the right order (1st, 2nd, 3rd places)
factors that cause occupational diseases doctors:
A. * Chemistry (1), biological (2), psychological (3)
B. biological (1), psychological (2), Physics (3)
C. Physics (1), biological (2), chemical (3)
D. Biology (1), chemistry (2), psychological (3)
E. psychological (1), chemistry (2), biological (3)
376. Light coefficient, which is recommended for the premises of the stay of patients.
A. 1:2-1:3.
B. 1:4-1:5.
C. * 1:6-1:7.
D. 1:9-1:10.
E. 1:10-1:12.
377. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled coccyx
micro flora. For the prevention of nosocomial infections in the recovery room to be necessary to
provide ventilation:
A. tidal flat extraction volume
B. * tidal dominated exhaust hoods
C. general exchange of matters
D. Only extraction
E. tidal extraction dominated by the influens of sun rays
378. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled pyo
microflora in quantities that exceed the permissible level. To prevent the pollution of air operating in
it must be ventilated:
A. * Tidal exhaust dominated by the influx
B. Only Exhaust
C. Only tidal
D. Tidal exhaust, with equal volumes of flow and exhaust
E. Tidal dominated exhaust hoods
379. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be in hospital area
A. not more 12-15%
B. * not less then 60 %,
C. 15-20 %.
D. not more 20-25 %;
E. 45-55 %;
380. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be

A. not more 12-15%

B. * not less then 60 %,
C. 15-20 %.
D. not more 20-25 %;
E. 45-55 %;
381. The level of general illumination by fluorescent lamps in medical offices should be, lx:
A. 100
B. 200
C. * 300
D. 400
E. 500
382. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. * Three.
D. Four
E. Five
383. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. * Three.
D. Four
E. Five
384. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic
and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is
applied at planning of hospital?
A. * central block
B. Perimeter.
C. is mixed
D. is centralized
E. Decentralizing
385. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic
and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is
applied at planning of hospital?
A. * central block
B. Perimeter.
C. is mixed
D. is centralized
E. Decentralizing
386. To evaluate the effectiveness of airing the Chamber determined the content of CO2 in the air. What is
the maximum permitted concentration of carbon dioxide in the air chamber
A. * 0.1%
B. 0.04%
C. 0.01%
D. 0,15%
E. 0,20%

387. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day.
Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?
A. concentration of nitrogen
B. concentration of smeech gas
C. * concentration of carbon dioxide
D. concentration of dust
E. concentration of oxygen
388. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day.
Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?
A. concentration of nitrogen
B. concentration of smeech gas
C. * concentration of carbon dioxide
D. concentration of dust
E. concentration of oxygen
389. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic
department?
A. 10,0 %
B. 1,0 %
C. * 0,1 %
D. 0,25 %
E. 0,5 %
390. What factors do not affect the degree of severity and tension medical staff?
A. Conditions of work in medical organizations
B. nature of work
C. availability of professional harm
D. * length of leave
E. conditions of life and recreation in the production stuff
391. What factors influence the effectiveness of the chemical deactivation?
A. * solution
B. atmospheric pressure
C. The temperature
D. Humidity
E. Exposition (processing time)
392. What is necessary to analyze the doctor hygienist for the examination of the project to make a
conclusion about how natural lighting hygienic requirements under current sanitary regulations.
Identify the best answer.
A. * Light coefficient (LC), the rate recess , the rate of natural illumination (CNI), the angle of incidence,
the angle of the hole
B. angle of the angle of the hole, the rate recess , light coefficient (LC)
C. daylight factor , light coefficient , the rate recess
D. angle of the angle of aperture, the light ratio
E. ratio of natural light, reflection coefficient
393. What measures should be taken to hospitals to improve working conditions?
A. current control of the Orders of compliance with established hygienic standards
B. regulation regimes of work and rest according to the severity and labour tension
C. immunization medical staff during epidemics
D. spa treatment of cases of health workers

E. * strict control of the administration of hospitals for compliance with sanitary-epidemiological profile
394. What rooms are not present in ward section?
A. Wards.
B. A room of daytime stays
C. Procedural
D. * laboratory.
E. doctors room
395. What ventilation should be used in the operation:
A. natural
B. tidal
C. Exhaust
D. * tidal exhaust dominated at expiration
E. tidal dominated exhaust hoods
396. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type?
A. Separation of functional diagnostics
B. Induction centre
C. Permanent establishment
D. Polyclinic
E. * factory
397. What units are not included in a hospital of general type?
A. Separation of functional diagnostics
B. Induction centre
C. Permanent establishment
D. Polyclinic
E. * factory
398. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type?
A. Separation of functional diagnostics
B. Induction centre
C. Permanent establishment
D. Polyclinic
E. * factory
399. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of
pollution. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds, airing through the window leaf is held twice a
day, the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway, removal of debris twice a day, wet
cleaning of the morning and evening. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of
the air chamber?
A. * Insufficient ventilation
B. Lack of space at 1 bed
C. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris
D. insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning
E. Lack of mechanical ventilation
400. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?
A. * Near the post of nurse
B. In the end of the corridor of ward section
C. Near the doctors office
D. At the beginning of the corridor.
E. Near the dinning room.

401. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?
A. * Near the post of nurse
B. In the end of the corridor of ward section
C. Near the doctors office
D. At the beginning of the corridor.
E. Near the dinning room.
402. Where the infectious department should be placed?
A. * In a separate a building
B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital
C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital
D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital.
E. Near to cardiological department
403. Which kind of hospital building is best for prophylactic of intra hospital infections?
A. * decentralized
B. centralized
C. Sectional
D. block
E. Free
404. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?
A. * decentralized
B. centralized
C. Sectional
D. block
E. Free
405. While major repairs have been provided to upgrade the hospital colours for the hospital premises, so
that the latter has great psychological value and asthetic, with the walls of the chambers for patients
to paint, taking into account:
A. * Orientation of the windows
B. Profile of hospital
C. Diseases of patients who were hospitalized in these chambers
D. Insulation regime
E. temperature-humidity regime
406. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the
maternity house
A. acute respiratory disease
B. at absence of the medical documentation
C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology
D. long waterless interval
E. * Fe-deficient anemia
407. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the
maternity house
A. acute respiratory disease
B. at absence of the medical documentation
C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology
D. long waterless interval
E. * Fe-deficient anemia
408. Without natural light can not arrange:

A. Bathrooms in the wards.

B. Dressing of staff.
C. * room
D. pre operation
E. room for personal hygiene, staff
409. In the ward section of somatic department are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-
beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 1,5 m. Which one from the next
indexes is not hygienic?
A. * Width of corridor
B. The total quantity of beds
C. Quantity of 2- beds wards
D. Quantity of 1- bed wards
E. Quantity of 4- beds wards.
410. Favorable treatment and security service, effective prevention of nosocomial infections, availability
of hospital patients to use the park system provides building hospitals:
A. * decentralized
B. Centralized
C. Block
D. Centralized Block
E. Free
411. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %, 2-bed - 20 %,
1-bed - 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic
requirements?
A. * General amount of beds
B. Width of corridor
C. Amount of 2-bed room
D. Amount of 1- bed room
E. Amount of 4- bed room
412. Isolator in infectious department has an area of 27 m2. What are the maximum numbers of beds in
this ward?
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
413. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. What maximal amount of beds can he be
expected on?
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
414. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non-
infectious of patients, medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas, and also
economic area together with pathology anatomical separation. What violation is assumed at planning
of area?
A. * Combination of economic and pathology anatomical areas
B. Separation of green areas
C. A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital
D. separate infections and non infectious areas
E. presence of infection and pathology anatomical buildings in hospital
415. Planned construction of a multi-disciplinary hospital in one city N. What type of building most
expedient in this case?
A. * Centralized-block
B. Decentralized
C. Centralized
D. Mixed
E. Block
416. The area of ward on 1 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 9 m2. Does it
corresponds to the hygienical requirements?
A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only
B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements
C. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only
D. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system
of building.
E. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals
417. The area of ward on 2 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 14 m2. Does it
corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements?
A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only
B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements
C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals
D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only
E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system
of building
418. The area of ward on 3 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 21 m2. Does it
corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements?
A. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements
B. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals
C. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only
D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only
E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system
of building
419. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 28 m2. Does it
corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements?
A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only
B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements
C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals
D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only
E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with centralized system
of building
420. The content of microorganisms in the air before the operation 3500/m3 , and after the operation
was 1500m3 . A clearing the air by bactericidal lamps. How much should decrease the content of
microorganisms to sanitation was considered effective?
A. * 80%
B. 20%
C. 40%

D. 60%
E. 99%
421. The habitant of m. Chertkova, 58 years, is ill hypertension first degree with frequent hypertensive
crises. Gets necessary permanent chemical- physiotherapy. Offer locality, most expedient for
sanatorium treatment in a cardiologic sanatorium.
A. sanatorium is Kyiv
B. sanatorium in Crimea on the coast of the Black sea
C. * cardiologic sanatorium
D. sanatorium on the beach of sea
E. sanatorium is in Pribaltici (m. of Yurmala)
422. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200300 m. On the
facade of area the located medical corps, in a center - hospital garden, at back of territory - economic
structures. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed?
A. not less than 15 m
B. not less than 20 m
C. not less than 25 m
D. * not less than 30 m
E. not less than 50 m
423. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological
and oncologic separations. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienic requirements?
A. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital
B. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes
C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant
D. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place
E. all things are dumped together with hospital waste
424. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the east, the air balance is negative. Select a
room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:
A. * Boxing for infectious patients
B. Operating
C. family
D. Check bandaging
E. Corridor
425. The ward on Cardiology hospital blowing ventilation provides air flow volume of 50 m3 per hour in
1 patient. Assess the adequacy of ward ventilation.
A. * volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 60 m3/hour 1 patient
B. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 40 m3/hour 1 patient
C. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 50 m3/hour 1 patient
D. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 80 m3/hour 1 patient
E. Volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 100 m3/hour 1 patient.

(): : 12
6 year Pediatrics-Infections KROK
:
.
:
1. A young man has painful indurations in the peripapillary regions of both mammary glands. The most
reasonable action will be:
A. * To leave these indurations untouched
B. To remove them
C. To cut and drain them
D. To take an aspirate for bacterial inoculation and cytology
E. To administer steroids locally
2. A 9 year old girl with a history of intermittent wheezing for several years is brought to the
pediatrician. The child has been taking no medications for some time. Physical examination reveals
agitation and perioral cyanosis. Intercostal and suprasternal retractions are present. The breath sounds
are quiet, and wheezing is audible bilaterally. The child is admitted to the hospital. Appropriate
interventions might include all of the following, {EXCEPT}:
A. * Prescribe nebulized cromolyn sodium
B. Prescribe intravenous aminophylline
C. Administer supplemental oxygen
D. Prescribe intravenous corticosteroids
E. Prescribe nebulized metaproterenol
3. Routine examination of a child with a history of bronchial asthma reveals AP of 140/90 mm Hg. The
most likely cause of the hypertension is:
A. * Renal disease
B. Theophylline overdose
C. Chronic lung disease
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Obesity
4. Routine examination of an otherwise healthy child with a history of bronchial asthma reveals AP of
140/90 mm. Hg. The most likely cause of the hypertension is:
A. * Renal disease
B. Theophylline toxicity
C. Chronic lung disease
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Obesity
5. Patient with thyrotoxicosis is in the 2 beds hospital ward of therapeutic department. The area of the
ward is 18 m2, height 3 m, ventilation rate 2, 5/hr. Air temperature 200, relative humidity
45/%, air movement velocity - 0, 3 m/s, light coefficient - 1/5, noise level - 30 db. Do hygienic
evaluations of the conditions meet the standards?
A. * Discomfortable microclimate
B. Non-effective ventilation
C. Poor lighting
D. High level of noise
E. Normal microclimate
6. The child is 11 month old. He suffers from nervous-arthritic diathesis. The increased synthesis of
what acid is pathogenic at nervous-arthritic diathesis?
A. * Uric acid
B. Acetic acid

C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
E. Sulfuric acid
7. A 10-year-old child complains of fever (temperature is 390C), frequent painful urination
[pollakiuria]. Urine test: proteinuria [0,066 g/L], leukocytouria [entirely within eyeshot], bacteriuria
[105 colony forming units/mL]. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute pyelonephritis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Dysmetabolic nephropathy
D. Acute cystitis
E. Urolithiasis
8. An 8-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint
pain, edema of joints, restriction of movements, fever. On examination, an acute rheumatic heart
disease, activity of the III-rd. degree, primary rheumocarditis, polyarthritis; acute course of disease,
cardiovascular failure IIA. What medication is to be prescribed?
A. * Prednisone
B. Cefazolin
C. Delagil
D. Diprazinum
E. Erythromycin
9. A 10 year old boy has complains on headache, weakness, fever 400, vomiting, expressed dyspnea,
pale skin with flush on right cheek, lag of right hemithorax respiratory movement, dullness on
percussion over low lobe of right lung, weakness of vesicular respiration in this zone. The abdomen
is painless and soft at palpation. Which disease leads to these symptoms and signs?
A. * Pneumonia croupousa
B. Intestinal infection
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Flu
10. A neonate was born from the 1st gestation on term. The jaundice was revealed on the 2nd day of life,
and then it became more acute. The adnamia, vomiting and hepatomegaly were observed. Indirect
bilirubin level was 275 micromole/L, direct bilirubin level - 5 micromole/L, Hemoglobin - 150 g/l.
Mothers blood group - 0[I], Rh+, childs blood group- A[II], Rh+. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. * Hemolytic disease of the neonate [ incompatibility], icteric type
B. Jaundice due to conjugation disorder
C. Hepatitis
D. Physiological jaundice
E. Hemolytic disease of the neonate [Rh - incompatibility]
11. A baby boy was born in time; it was his mother's 1st pregnancy. The jaundice was revealed on the
2nd day of life, and then it progressed. The adnamia, vomiting and hepatomegaly were presented.
The indirect bilirubin level was 275 micromole/L, the direct bilirubin level - 5 micromole/L,
Hemoglobin- 150 g/L. Mother's blood group - 0(I), Rh+, child's blood group - A(II), Rh+. Make a
diagnosis.
A. * Hemolytic disease of newborn ( incompatibility), icteric type
B. Jaundice due to conjugation disorder
C. Hepatitis
D. Physiological jaundice
E. Hemolytic disease of newborn (Rh - incompatibility)

12. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiration rate - 80
per minute), paradoxical breathing, tachycardia, total cyanosis. Respiration and pulse ratio is 1:2.
Such signs characterize:
A. * Respiratory failure of III degree
B. Respiratory failure of I degree
C. Respiratory failure of II degree
D. Myocarditis
E. Congenital heart malformation
13. The 7 mo. infant is suffering from acute pneumonia which was complicated by cardiovascular
insufficiency and respiratory failure of II degree. The accompanied diagnosis is malnutrition of II
degree. Choose the best variant of therapy:
A. * Ampiox and Amicacin
B. Macropen and Penicillin
C. Penicillin and Ampiox
D. Gentamycin and Macropen
E. Ampiox and Polymixin
14. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis for 4 days. He has
been taking sulfadimethoxine. Today it has fever up to 390C and maculopapular rash on its face.
Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Allergic rash
C. Rubella
D. Scarlet fever
E. Pseudotuberculosis
15. A 2 year old girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low grade fever, severe catarrhal resentations,
slight maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital lymph nodes. What is your
diagnosis?
A. * Rubella
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles
D. Adenoviral infection
E. Pseudotuberculosis
16. A 3 year old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 390C, weakness, vomiting. Hemorrhagic rash of various
size appeared on his lower limbs within 5 hours. Meningococcemia with infective - toxic shock of the
1 degree was diagnosed. What medications should be administered?
A. Penicillin and prednisone
B. Penicillin and immunoglobulin
C. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon
D. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin
E. * Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone
17. A 7 year old girl has mild form of varicella. Headache, weakness, vertigo, tremor of her limbs, ataxia,
and then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. Meningeal signs are negative.
Cerebrospinal fluid examination is normal. How can you explain these signs?
A. * Encephalitis
B. Meningitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Myelitis
E. Neurotoxic syndrome

18. A 7 year old girl fell ill abruptly: fever, headache, severe sore throat, vomiting. Minute bright red rash
appear in her reddened skin in 3 hours. It is more intensive in axillae and groin. Mucous membrane of
oropharynx is hyperemic. Greyish patches are on the tonsils. Submaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged
and painful. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Scarlet fever
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Pseudotuberculosis
E. Enteroviral infection
19. An 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: he presents with fever, weakness, headache, abdominal pain,
recurrent vomiting, then diarrhea and tenesmus. Stools occur 12 times daily, are scanty, contain a lot
of mucus, pus, streaks of blood. His sigmoid gut is tender and hardened. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Dysentery
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis
E. Escherichiosis
20. The child has complains of the "night" and "hungry" abdominal pains. At fibroscopy in area a
bulbous offal duodenum the ulcerative defect of 4 mms diameter is found, the floor is objected with a
fibrin, (Hp. +). Administer the optimum schemes of treatment:
A. * Omeprazole - Trichopolum - Clarithromycin
B. De-nol
C. Maalox - Ranitidin
D. Vicalinum - Ranitidine
E. Trichopolum
21. A woman delivered a child. It was her fifth pregnancy but the first delivery. Mother's blood group is
A (II) Rh-, newborn's A (II)Rh+. The level of indirect bilirubin in umbilical blood was 58 m mole/l,
hemoglobin - 140 g/l, RBC- 3,81012/l. In 2 hours the level of indirect bilirubin turned 82 m mole/l.
The hemolytic disease of newborn (icteric-anemic type, Rh-incompatibility) was diagnosed. Choose
the therapeutic tactics:
A. * Replacement blood transfusion (conservative therapy)
B. Conservative therapy
C. Blood transfusion (conservative therapy)
D. Symptomatic therapy
E. Antibiotics
22. A mother with an infant visited the pediatrician for expertise advice. Her baby was born with body
weight 3, 2 kg and body length 50 cm. He is 1 year old now. How many teeth the baby should have?
A. * 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 20
E. 6
23. A mother consulted a pediatrician about her son. Her son was born with body mass of 3 kg and length
of 48 cm. He's 1 year old now. What is the required normal mass?
A. * 10, 5 kg
B. 9, 0 kg
C. 11, 0 kg
D. 12, 0 kg
E. 15, 0 kg
24. 6 mo. infant was born with body's mass 3 kg and length 50 cm. He is given natural feeding. How
many times per day the infant should be fed?
A. * 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
E. 4
25. Infant is 6, 5 month now and is given natural feeding since birth. Body mass was 3, 5 kg, with length
52 cm at birth. How many times per day the supplement (up feeding) should be given?
A. * 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
E. 4
26. A 2 month old healthy infant with good appetite is given artificial feeding since he turned 1 month
old. When is it recommended to start the corrective feeding (fruit juice)?
A. * 4, 0 months
B. 1, 5 months
C. 2, 0 months
D. 3, 0 months
E. 1, 0 months
27. An infant was born with body mass 3 kg and body length 50 cm. Now he is 3 years old. His brother
is 7 years old, suffers from rheumatic fever. Mother asked the doctor for a cardiac checkup of the 3-
year-old son. Where is the left relative heart border located?
A. * 1 cm left from the left medioclavicular line
B. 1 cm right from the left medioclavicular line
C. Along the left medioclavicular line
D. 1 cm left from he left parasternal line
E. 1 cm right from the left parasternal line
28. A boy of 7 year old had an attack of asthma and distant whistling rales after playing with a dog. In the
medical history: atopic dermatitis caused by eating eggs, chicken, beef. What group of allergens is
the reason of the development of bronchial asthma attacks?
A. * Epidermal
B. Dust
C. Pollen
D. Itch mite
E. Chemical
29. A 14-year-old boy has rheumatism. Over the last 2 years he has had 3 rheumatic attacks. What course
of rheumatism does the patient have?
A. * Prolonged
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Latent
E. Persistent-recurrent
30. The patient with acquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. What heart failure does the
child have?
A. * Aortal insufficiency

B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortal stenosis
D. Mitral insufficiency
E. Rheumatism
31. A 12 year old child has the ulcer disease of stomach. What is the etiology of this disease?
A. * Intestinal bacillus
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella
D. Lambliosis
E. Influenza
32. A nine year old child is at a hospital with acute glomerulonephritis. Clinical and laboratory
examinations show acute condition. What nutrients must not be limited during the acute period of
glomerulonephritis?
A. * Carbohydrates
B. Salt
C. Liquid
D. Proteins
E. Fats
33. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began
acutely with temperature 39, weakness, cough, breathlessness. He is pale, cyanotic, has had febrile
temperature for over 3 days. There are crepitate fine bubbling rales on auscultation. Percussion sound
is shortened in the right infrascapular region. X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment
infiltration 8-10 mm on the right, the intensification of lung pattern. Your diagnosis:
A. * Segmentary pneumonia
B. Grippe
C. Bronchitis
D. Bronchiolitis
E. Interstitial pneumonia
34. A 9-year-old girl has attacks of abdominal pain after fried food. No fever. She has pain in Cer's point.
The liver is not enlarged. Portion B [duodenal probe] - 50 ml. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Biliary tracts dyskinesia, hypotonic type
B. Hepatocirrhosis
C. Acute colitis
D. Chronic duodenum
E. Peptic ulcer
35. A baby was born at 36 weeks of gestation. Delivery was normal, by natural way. The baby has a large
cephalohematoma. The results of blood count are: Hemoglobin- 120g/l, RBC- 3, 5 10 12/total
serum bilirubin - 123 micromole/l, direct bilirubin - 11 micromole/l, indirect - 112 micromole/l. What
are causes of hyperbillirubinemia in this case?
A. * Erythrocyte hemolysis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
C. Disturbance of the conjugative function of liver
D. Bile condensing
E. Mechanical obstruction of the bile outflow
36. A 4-month-old girl with blond hair and blue eyes has "mousy" odor of sweat and urine, delayed
psychomotor development. The most typical laboratory data for this disorder is:
A. * Positive urine ferric chloride test
B. High level of oxyproline in urine

C. High level of glycosaminoglycans in urine

D. High concentration of chlorides in sweat
E. Low level of thyroid gland hormones in blood
37. A neonate is 5 days old. What vaccination dose of BCG vaccine (in mg) is necessary for vaccination
of this child?
A. * 0, 05 mg
B. 0,025 mg
C. 0,075 mg
D. 0, 1 mg
E. 0, 2 mg
38. A neonate is 5 days old. What vaccination dose of BCG vaccine (in mg) is necessary for vaccination
of this child?
A. * 0, 05 mg
B. 0,025 mg
C. 0,075 mg
D. 0, 1 mg
E. 0, 2 mg
39. 7 year old boy with chronic sinusitis and recurrent pulmonary infections has chest X-ray
demonstrating a right-sided cardiac silhouette. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Cartagener syndrome
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Bronchiolitis obliterans
D. Laryngotracheomalacia
E. $\alpha$-antitrypsin deficiency
40. A 2, 9-kg term male infant is born to a mother who developed polyhydramnios at 34 weeks' gestation.
At birth, the Apgar scores were 9 and 9. The infant develops choking and cyanosis with the first feed.
In addition, is unable to place a nasogastric tube. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Esophageal atresia
B. Choan's atresia
C. Laryngomalacia
D. Tracheal atresia
E. Respiratory distress syndrome
41. Full term newborn has developed jaundice at 10 hours of age. Hemolytic disease of newborn due to
Rh-incompatibility was diagnosed. 2 hours later the infant has indirect serum bilirubin level
increasing up to 14 m mole/L. What is most appropriate for treatment of hyperbillirubinemia in this
infant?
A. * Exchange blood transfusion
B. Phototherapy
C. Phenobarbital
D. Intestinal sorbents
E. Infusion therapy
42. A 4 year old girl was playing with her toys and suddenly she got an attack of cough, dyspnea.
Objectively: respiration rate - 45/min, heart rate - 130/min. Percussion revealed dullness of
percussion on the right in the lower parts. Auscultation revealed diminished breath sounds with
bronchial resonance on the right. X-ray picture showed shadowing of the lower part of lungs on the
right. Blood analysis revealed no signs of inflammation. The child was diagnosed with foreign body
in the right bronchus. What complication caused such clinical presentations?
A. * Atelectasis

B. Emphysema
C. Pneumothorax
D. Bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
43. A man, 42 years old, died in a road accident after the hemorrhage on the spot, because of acute
hemorrhagic anemia. What minimum percent of the whole blood volume could result in death by
acute hemorrhage?
A. * 25-30/%
B. 6-9/%
C. 0-14/%
D. 15-20/%
E. 35-50/%
44. A 6 week old child is admitted because of tachypnea. Birth had been uneventful, although
conjunctivitis developed on the third day of life and lasted for about 2 weeks. Physical examination
reveals tachypnea, bilateral inspiratory crackles and single expiratory wheezing. Bilateral pneumonia
is evident on chest X-ray. The child is afebrile and has no history of fever. White blood cell count is
15109l, with 28\% of eosinophil. The most likely cause of this child's symptoms is:
A. * Chlamydia trachomanis
B. Pneumocystis carinas
C. Mycoplasma pneumonia
D. Visceral larva migrants
E. Varicella
45. A 6 year old asthmatic child was taken to the emergency hospital because of severe coughing and
wheezing for the last 24 hours. Physical examination reveals that the child is excitable, has intercostal
and suprasternal retractions, expiratory wheezing throughout all lung fields, RR- 60/min. Initial
treatment may include the prescription of:
A. * Subcutaneous epinephrine
B. Parenteral phenobarbital
C. Intravenous fluids in the first 2 h to compensate water deficiency
D. N-acetyl cysteine and cromolyn by inhalation
E. Parenteral gentamycin
46. A full term infant was born after a normal pregnancy, delivery, however, was complicated by
marginal placental detachment. At 12 hours of age the child, although appearing to be in good health,
passes a bloody meconium stool. For determining the cause of the bleeding, which of the following
diagnostic procedures should be performed first?
A. * Barium enema
B. an Apt test
C. Gastric lavage with normal saline
D. An upper gastrointestinal series
E. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
47. In the 43rd week of gestation a long, thin infant was delivered. He is apneic, limp, pale, and covered
with "pea soup" amniotic fluid. The first step in the resuscitation of this infant at delivery should be:
A. * Suction of the trachea under direct vision
B. Artificial ventilation with bag and mask
C. Artificial ventilation with endotracheal tube
D. Administration of 100\% oxygen by mask
E. Catheterization of the umbilical vein

48. A newborn infant has mild cyanosis, diaphoresis, poor peripheral pule, hepatomegaly and
cardiomegaly. Respiratory rate is 60 breaths per minute, and heart rate is 230 beats per minute. The
child most likely has congestive heart failure caused by:
A. * Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
B. A ventricular septal defect and transposition of the great vessels
C. Atrial flutter and partial atrioventricular block
D. Hypo plastic left heart syndrome
E. A large atrial septal defect and valvular pulmonary stenosis
49. A 6-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a 3-hour history of fever up to 39,50C and
sore throat. The child looks alert, anxious and has a mild inspiratory stridor. You should immediately:

A. * Prepare to establish an airway

B. Obtain an arterial blood gas and start an IV line
C. Order a chest x-ray and lateral view of the neck
D. Examine the throat and obtain a culture
E. Admit the child and place him in a mist tent
50. A 7 day old boy is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of vomiting and dehydration. Physical
examination is otherwise normal except for minimal hyperpigmentation of the nipples. Serum sodium
and potassium concentrations are 120 mg/L and 9 m e/L respectively. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. * Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Secondary hypothyroidism
D. Panhypopituitarism
E. Hyperaldosteronism
51. A 7 year old boy has cramp abdominal pain and a rash on the back of his legs and buttocks as well as
on the extensor surfaces of his forearms. Laboratory analysis reveals proteinuria and microhematuria.
He is most likely to be affected by:
A. * Anaphylactic purpura
B. Systemic lupus erythematous
C. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
D. Polyarthritis nodes
E. Dermatomyositis
52. A 5-year-old boy was progressively getting worse compared to the previous 2 months. A chest x-ray
has shown right middle lobe collapse. A tuberculin skin test was strongly positive. What is the most
characteristic finding in primary tuberculosis?
A. * Hilary or paratracheal lymph node enlargement
B. Atelectasis with obstructive pneumonia
C. Cavity formation
D. Miliary tuberculosis
E. Hematogenous dissemination leading to extrapulmonary tuberculosis
53. A girl is 12 year old Yesterday she was overcooled. Now she is complaining on pain in suprapubic
area, frequent painful urination by small portions, temperature is 37,80C. Pasternatskys symptom is
negative. Urine analysis: protein 0,033 g/L, WBC- 20-25 in f/vie, RBC- 1-2 in f/vie. What diagnosis
is the most probable?
A. * Acute cystitis
B. Dysmetabolic nephropathy
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Acute pyelonephritis

E. Urolithiasis
54. The girl of 11 year old is ill for 1 month. She has "butterfly"-type rash on face (spots and papules),
pain and swelling of small joints on arms and legs, signs of stomatitis (small-sized ulcers in mouth).
CBC: Hemoglobin 80 g/L, RBC 2,9*1012/L, WBC 15*109L, ESR- 40 mm/hour. Urinalysis:
protein 0, 33 g/L. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Systemic lupus erythematous
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, systemic type
C. Periarteriitis nodes
D. Acute rheumatic fever
E. Dermatomyositis
55. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor, hoarse
voice and barking cough. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest
retractions. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate is
52 per min and pulse- 122 p.m. The body temperature is 37,50C$. What disease does the infant have?

A. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis

B. Acute laryngitis
C. Bronchopneumonia without complications
D. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress
E. Acute epiglottitis
56. A newborn aged 3 days with hyperbillirubinemia (428 m mole/L) developed following disorders.
From beginning there were severe jaundice with poor suckling, hypotonic and hypodynamia. Little
bit later periodical excitation, neonatal convulsions and neonatal primitive reflexes loss are noted.
Now physical examination reveals convergent squint, rotatory nystagmus and setting sun eye sign.
How to explain this condition?
A. * Encephalopathy due to hyperbillirubinemia
B. Skull injury
C. Brain tumour
D. Hydrocephalus
E. Spastic cerebral palsy
57. A child is 2 years old. The child complains of hoarse voice, dyspnea with obstructed inspiration. The
disease started 3 days ago from dry cough and nose stuffiness. Objectively: general condition is
unbalanced, stridor is present. The child's skin is pale. Body temperature is 37,70C. The palatine
arches are hyperemic. There is no deposit. Heart sounds are rhythmic. Auscultation of lungs reveals
rough breathing sounds, crepitation is absent. Parainfluenza virus has been detected in nasopharynx
lavage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute laryngotracheitis
B. Epiglottitis
C. Foreign body
D. Diphtheria
E. Laryngospasm
58. A 3-year-old child has been admitted to a hospital because of ostealgia and body temperature rise up
to 390C. Objectively: the patient is in grave condition, unable to stand for ostealgia, there is apparent
intoxication, lymph nodes are enlarged up to 1,5 cm. Liver can be palpated 3 cm below the costal
margin, spleen - 2 cm below the costal margin. In blood: RBCs - 3,01012/l, Hemoglobin- 87 g/l,
color index - 0,9, thrombocytes - 190 1012/l, WBC - 3,2 1012/l , eosinophils - 1, stab neutrophils -
1, segmented neutrophils - 0, lymphocytes - 87, monocytes - 2, ESR - 36 mm/h. What examination
should be conducted in order to specify the diagnosis?
A. * Sternal puncture
B. Ultrasound
C. Lymph node puncture
D. Lymph node biopsy
E. Computer tomography
59. Apgar test of a newborn girl at 1st and 5th minute after birth gave the result of 7-8 scores. During the
delivery there was a short-term difficulty with extraction of shoulder girdle. After birth the child had
the proximal extremity dysfunction and the arm couldn't be raised from the side. The shoulder was
turned inwards, the elbow was flexed, and there was also forearm pronation, obstetric palsy of
brachial plexus. What is the clinical diagnosis?
A. * Duchenne-Erb palsy
B. Trauma of thoracic spine
C. Right hand osteomyelitis
D. Intracranial hemorrhage
E. Trauma of right hand soft tissues
60. Examination of a 9-month-old girl revealed skin pallor, cyanosis during excitement. Percussion
revealed transverse dilatation of cardiac borders. Auscultation revealed continuous systolic murmur
to the left of the breastbone in the 3-4 intercostal space. This murmur is conducted above the whole
cardiac region to the back. What congenital cardiac pathology can be suspected?
A. * Defect of interventricular septum
B. Defect of interatrial septum
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Fallouts tetrad
E. Pulmonary artery stenosis
61. A worker was temporarily off work because of illness for 16 days, was under out-patient treatment.
The doctor in charge issued a sick-list first for 5 days, and then prolonged it for 10 days. Who can
further prolong the sick-list of this patient?
A. * The doctor in charge of the case together with the head of department
B. Working ability expertise committee
C. The doctor in charge of the case with the permission of the head of department
D. Deputy Head physician on the working ability expertise
E. The head of department
62. A 13 year old patient was treated in dermatological hospital for atopic dermatitis exacerbation. He
was discharged in the condition of clinical remission. What recommendations should the doctor give
to prevent exacerbations?
A. * Use of neutral creams to protect skin
B. Frequent skin washing with detergents
C. Systematic use of local corticosteroids
D. Systematic skin disinfection
E. Avoidance of skin insolation
63. On the 21 day after appearance of vesiculous chickenpox rash a 7-year-old child developed ataxia,
nystagmus, intention tremor, muscle hypotonia. Liquor analysis shows a low-grade lymphocytic
pleocytosis, slightly increased protein rate. What complication is it?
A. * Encephalitis
B. Purulent meningitis
C. Pneumonitis
D. Acute nephritis
E. Postherpetic neuralgia

64. An 8-year-old boy suffering from hemophilia was undergoing transfusion of packed red cells.
Suddenly he felt pain behind the breastbone and in the lumbar area, dyspnea, and cold sweat.
Objectively: pale skin, heart rate - 100/min, AP - 60/40 mm Hg; oliguria, brown urine. For the
treatment of this complication the following drug should be administered:
A. * Prednisolone
B. Lasix
C. Adrenaline
D. Aminophylline
E. Analgine
65. A 3-year-old child has been diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus, hyperosmolar coma. The
laboratory confirmed the diagnosis. Which laboratory findings are characteristic for such condition?
A. * High hyperglycemia without ketonemia
B. Hyperglycemia and ketonemia
C. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria
D. Hyperglycemia and ketonuria
E. Hyperglycemia and high indicators of acid-base balance
66. A 3-year-old child was playing in a playpen when he suddenly developed paroxysmal cough and
shortness of breath. Objectively: dry cough, mixed dyspnea. Lung auscultation revealed some
wheezes. Breathing sounds on the right are diminished. The child doesn't mix with other children.
Immunization is age-appropriate. What pathological condition can be suspected?
A. * Foreign body in the respiratory tracts
B. Pneumonia
C. Acute respiratory viral infection
D. Pertussis
E. Bronchial asthma
67. A 10-year-old child has been followed-up for the dilated cardiomyopathy. The child presents with
dyspnea, cardialgia. There are dense, non-mobile edema on the lower extremities and sacrum. Pulse
120/min. The cardiac borders are extended transversely. Heart sounds are muffled, there is blowing
systolic murmur at the apex and over the xiphoid process. Liver is 3 cm enlarged, urine output is
reduced. In urine: protein - 0,025 g/l, WBCs - 2-4 in the field of vision, RBCs - 2-3 in the field of
vision. What is the main mechanism of edema syndrome development?
A. * Venous congestion of greater circulation
B. Venous congestion of lesser circulation
C. Peripheral circulation disorder
D. Secondary nephropathy development
E. Hypoproteinemia
68. After objective clinical examination a 12 year old child was diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse.
What complementary instrumental method of examination should be applied for the diagnosis
confirmation?
A. * Echocardiography
B. Roentgenography of chest
C. Phonocardiography
D. ECG
E. Veloergometry
69. A full-term child survived antenatal and intranatal hypoxia, it was born in asphyxia (2-5 points on
Apgar score). After birth the child has progressing excitability, there are also vomiting, nystagmus,
spasms, strabismus, spontaneous Moro's and Babinskis reflexes. What localization of intracranial
hemorrhage is the most probable?
A. * Subarachnoid hemorrhage

B. Small cerebral tissue hemorrhages

C. Subdural hemorrhage
D. Periventricular hemorrhages
E. Hemorrhages into the brain ventricles
70. A 15 year old boy was twice attacked by bees; as a result he had severe anaphylactic shock. What is
the most effective prophylaxis method?
A. * Desensibilisation by means of bee venom extract
B. Prescription of corticosteroids for summer
C. Long-term prophylactic treatment with antihistamines
D. Limitation of outside staying during summer months
E. Protective clothing
71. A 9-year-old boy has been suffering from bronchiectasis since he was 3. Exacerbations occur quite
often, 3-4 times a year. Conservative therapy results in short periods of remission. The disease is
progressing, the child has physical retardation. The child's skin is pale, cyanotic; he has "watch glass"
nail deformation. Bronchography revealed saccular bronchiectasis of the lower lobe of his right lung.
What is the further treatment tactics?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Further conservative therapy
C. Physiotherapeutic treatment
D. Sanatorium-and-spa treatment
E. Tempering of the child's organism
72. A child with tetralogy of Fallout is most likely to exhibit:
A. * Increased pressure in the right ventricle
B. Increased pulmonary blood flow
C. Increased pulse pressure
D. Normal pressure gradient across the pulmonary valve
E. Normal oxygen tension in the left ventricle
73. A 2-months-old child after preventive vaccination had a prolonged hemorrhage from the vaccination
place and due to those an intramuscular hematoma. During examination of the child a considerable
rise of prothrombin consumption and a significant prolongation of the activated partial
thromboplastic time were found. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Hemophilia
B. Werlhof's disease
C. Henoch-Schoenlein disease
D. Hemorrhagic disease of the neonate
E. Inborn afibrinogenemia
74. A 10 year old boy with hemophilia has signs of acute respiratory viral infection with fever. What of
the mentioned antifebrile medications are contraindicated to this patient?
A. * Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Analgin
C. Pipolphen
D. Paracetamol
E. Panadol extra
75. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose, was taking nasal drops. The boy suffers
with alimentary allergy. He applied to doctor due to supportive and bloody discharges from nose,
maceration of ale nasal and upper lip. Rhinoscopy results: there are whitish-greyish areas at nasal
septum. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is not changed. What is the most probable disease?
A. * Diphtheria of the nose

B. Adenovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Allergic rhinitis
E. Sinusitis (maxillary sinus)
76. A 10-year-old boy underwent treatment in cardiological department for rheumatism, I acute attack of
rheumatic fever, active phase, II degree. The patient was discharged in satisfactory condition. Which
drug should be chosen for prevention of rheumatism recurrence?
A. * Bicillinum-5
B. Bicillinum-1
C. Erythromycin
D. Ampicillin
E. Oxacillin
77. A child is 4 years old, has been ill for 5 days. There are complaints of cough, skin rash, t- 38,20C$
face puffiness, photophobia, and conjunctivitis. Objectively: there is bright, maculo-papulous, in
some areas confluent rash on the face, neck, upper chest. The pharynx is hyperemic. There are
seropurulent discharges from the nose. Auscultation revealed dry rales in lungs. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Scarlet fever
D. Rubella
E. Enterovirus exanthema
78. A 10 month old boy has been ill for 5 days after consumption of unboiled milk. Body temperature is
38-39 C; there is vomiting, liquid stool. The child is pale and inert. His tongue is covered with white
deposition. Heart sounds are muffled. Abdomen is swollen, there is borborygmus in the region of
umbilicus, liver is enlarged by 3 cm. Stool is liquid, dark-green, with admixtures of mucus, 5 times a
day. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Salmonellosis
B. Staphylococcal enteric infection
C. Escherichiosis
D. Acute shigellosis
E. Rotaviral infection
79. A 3 year old child with weight deficiency suffers from permanent moist cough. In history there is
some pneumonia with obstruction. On examination: distended chest, dullness on percussion over the
lower parts of lungs. On auscultation: a great number of different rales. Level of sweat chloride is 80
millimole/ l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Recurrent bronchitis
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Pulmonary hypoplasia
80. A 12 year old child with acute glomerulonephritis presented with hypertensive syndrome during first
days of the disease. What is the role of angiotensin II in the pathogenesis?
A. * Intensifies production and secretion of aldosterone
B. Increases heart output
C. Inhibits depressive action of prostaglandins
D. Increases erythropoietin production
E. Increases renin level

81. A full-term infant is 3 days old. On the different parts of skin there are erythema, erosive spots,
cracks, areas of epidermis peeling. The infant has scalded skin syndrome. Nikolsky's symptom is
positive. General condition of the infant is grave. Anxiety, hyperesthesia, febrile temperature is
evident. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Exfoliate dermatitis
B. Phlegmon of newborn
C. Finger's pseudofurunculosis
D. Impetigo neonatorum
E. Mycotic erythema
82. District pediatrician examines a healthy carried 1-month-old child. The child is breast-fed.
Prophylaxes of what diseases will the doctor recommend doing first?
A. * Rickets
B. Anemia
C. Hypotrophy
D. Spasmophilia
E. Parathropy
83. A 7-year-old boy has been managed for a month. Immediately after hospitalization there were
apparent edema, proteinuria - 7, 1 g/l, daily urine protein - 4, 2 g. Biochemical blood test shows
persistent hypoproteinemia (43,2 g/l), hypercholesterolemia (9,2 millimole/l). The patient is most
likely have the following type of glomerulonephritis:
A. * Nephrotic
B. Nephritic
C. Isolated urinary
D. Hematuria
E. Combined
84. A 7 year old boy has been treated in a hospital for a month. At the time of admission he had evident
edema, proteinuria - 7,1 g/L, protein content in the daily urine - 4,2 g. Biochemical blood analysis
reveals permanent hypoproteinemia (43,2 g/L), hypercholesterolemia (9,2 mmole/L). What variant of
glomerulonephritis is the most probable?
A. * Nephrotic
B. Nephritic
C. Isolated urinary
D. Hematuric
E. Mixed
85. A 3 year old girl has had a temperature rise up to 380, rhinitis, dry superficial cough, flabbiness,
appetite loss. Palpation didn't reveal any changes over her lungs. Percussion sound has a wooden
resonance, auscultation revealed puerile breathing, no rales. In blood: leukopenia, lymphocytosis,
increased ESR. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute simple tracheitis
B. Acute obstructive bronchitis
C. Recurrent bronchitis, acute condition
D. Acute simple bronchitis
E. Bilateral microfocal pneumonia
86. A 5-year-old girl with the transitory immunodeficiency according to T-system has a clinical picture of
a right-sided pneumonia during 2 months. How pneumonia progress can be described?
A. * Delaying
B. Recidivating
C. Chronic
D. Wavelike

E. Acute
87. A 12 year old girl took 2 pills of aspirine and 4 hours later her body temperature raised up to 39-
400. She complains of general indisposition, dizziness, sudden rash in form of red spots and
blisters. Objectively: skin lesions resemble of second-degree burns, here and there with erosive
surface or epidermis peeling. Nikolsky's symptom is positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute epidermal necrosis
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Polymorphous exudative erythema
D. Bullous dermatitis
E. Duhring's disease
88. A 5-year-old child had an attack of palpitation with nausea, dizziness, generalized fatigue. On ECG:
tachycardia with heartbeat rate of 220/min. Ventricle complexes is deformed and widened. P wave is
absent. What medication is to be prescribed to provide first aid?
A. * Lydocain
B. Isoptin
C. Seduxen
D. Novocainamides
E. Strophantin
89. Examination of a 4 month old child revealed some lemon-yellow squamous with fatty crusts on the
scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Gneiss
B. Milk crust
C. Strophulus
D. Pseudofurunculosis
E. Infantile eczema
90. A neonate from gestation with severe gestosis of the second half was born on the 41st week with
2400 g birth weight and 50cm long. On physical examination: skin is flaccid, subcutaneous fatty
cellular tissue is thin, muscle hypotonia, new-born period reflexes are decreased. Internal organs are
without pathological changes. How would you estimate this child?
A. * Term infant with pre-natal growth retardation
B. Premature infant
C. Immature infant
D. Post mature infant
E. Term infant with normal body weight
91. A child was taken to a hospital with focal changes in the skin folds. The child was anxious during
examination, examination revealed dry skin with solitary papulous elements and ill-defined
lichenification zones. Skin eruption was accompanied by strong itch. The child usually feels better in
summer; his condition is getting worse in winter. The child has been artificially fed since he was 2
months old. He has a history of exudative diathesis. Grandmother by his mother's side has bronchial
asthma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Atopic dermatitis
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Seborrhea eczema
D. Strophulus
E. Urticaria
92. A boy, aged 9, was examined: height - 127 cm (-0, 36), weight - 28, 2 kg (+0, 96), chest
circumference - 64, 9 cm (+0, 66), lung vital capacity - 1520 ml (-0, 16). What is the complex
assessment of the child's physical development?
A. * Harmonious

B. Disharmonious
C. Apparently disharmonious
D. Excessive
E. Below the average
93. A child is 7 months old. Birth weight was 3450, the child is breastfed. Supplemental feeding was
introduced on time. Determine the daily protein requirements for the child:
A. * 3, 0 g/kg
B. 2, 0 g/kg
C. 2, 5 g/kg
D. 3, 5 g/kg
E. 4, 0 g/kg
94. 2 weeks after recovering from angina an 8-year-old boy developed edema of face and lower limbs.
Objectively: the patient is in grave condition, AP- 120/80 mm Hg. Urine is of dark brown color.
Oliguria is present. On urine analysis: relative density - 1,015, protein - 1,2 g/l, RBCs are leached and
cover the whole vision field, granular casts - 1-2 in the vision field, salts are represented by urates
(big number). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome
B. Acute glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome, hematuria and hypertension
D. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urinary syndrome
E. Nephrolithiasis
95. A 14 year old child suffers from vegetovascular dystonia of pubertal period. He has got
sympathoadrenal attack. What medicine should be used for attack reduction?
A. * Obsidan
B. No-spa
C. Amysyl
D. Aminophylline
E. Corglicone
96. A child is 9 months old. The patient's body temperature is $36, 7^oC$, the skin is pale, humid; there
is pain in leg muscles. There is no extremities mobility, sensitivity is present. The child has been
diagnosed with poliomyelitis. The causative agent of this disease relates to the following family:
A. * Picornavirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Tohovirus
D. Adenovirus
E. Rotavirus
97. A 4 month old child fell seriously ill: body temperature rose up to 38,50C, the child became inert and
had a single vomiting. 10 hours later there appeared rash over the buttocks and lower limbs in form
of petechial, spots and papules. Some hemorrhagic elements have necrosis in the center. What is the
most probable disease?
A. * Meningococcemia
B. Rubella
C. Influenza
D. Haemorrhagic vasculitis
E. Scarlet fever
98. A 5-year-old child had strong headache, vomiting, ataxia, dormancy, discoordination of movements,
tremor of the extremities on the 8th day of the disease. It was followed by rise in body temperature,
vesiculosis rash mainly on the skin of the body and the hairy part of the head. At the second wave of
the fever a diagnosis of encephalitis was given. What disease complicated encephalitis in this case?

A. * Chicken pox
B. Measles
C. German measles
D. Enterovirus infection
E. Herpetic infection
99. A 13 year old girl was admitted to the cardiological department because of pain in the muscles and
joints. Examination of her face revealed an edematic erythema in form of butterfly in the region of
nose and cheeks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Systemic lupus erythematous
B. Rheumatism
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Periarteritis nodes
100. A 4 year old boy was admitted to the hospital with complaints of dyspnea, rapid fatigability. His
anamnesis registers frequent respiratory diseases. On percussion: heart borders are dilatated to the left
and upwards. On auscultation: amplification of the SII above pulmonary artery, a harsh
systolodyastolic "machine" murmur is auscultated between the II and the III rib to the left of breast
bone, this murmur is conducted to all other points including back. AP is 100/20 mm Hg. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. * Opened arterial duct
B. Interventricular septal defect
C. Isolated stenosis of pulmonary arterial orifice
D. Interatrial septal defect
E. Valve aortic stenosis
101. A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The day
before she ate home-made stock fish, beef. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left
knee, dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, and midrate pupils. The girl is
unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this
case?
A. * Parenteral introduction of polyvalent antibotulinic serum
B. Parenteral disintoxication
C. Parenteral introduction of antibiotics
D. Gastric lavage
E. Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum
102. A child from the first non-complicated pregnancy but complicated labor had cephalhematoma.On the
second day there developed jaundice. On the 3th day appeared changes of neurologic status:
nystagmus, Graefe's sign. Urea is yellow, feces- golden-yellow. Mother's blood group is (II) Rh-,
child- (II) Rh+. On the third day child's Hemoglobin- 200 g/L, RBC- 6,11012L, bilirubin in blood
- 58 m mole/L due to unconjugated bilirubin, Ht- 0, 57. What is the child's jaundice explanation?
A. * Brain delivery trauma
B. Physiologic jaundice
C. Hemolytic disease of newborn
D. Bile ducts atresia
E. Fetal hepatitis
103. A full-term baby (the 1st uncomplicated pregnancy, difficult labour) had a cephalogematoma. On the
2nd day there was jaundice, on the third the following changes in neurological status appeared:
nystagmus, Graefes syndrome. Urine was yellow; feces were of golden-yellow color. Mother's blood
group is A (II) Rh-, the baby's one - A (II) Rh+. On the third day the child's Hemoglobin was 200g/l,
RBCs - 6,11012/l, blood bilirubin - 58 m mole/l at the expense of unbound fraction. What caused
the jaundice in the child?

A. * Craniocerebral birth trauma

B. Physiological jaundice
C. Neonatal anemia
D. Biliary atresia
E. Fetal hepatitis
104. After birth a child was pale and had arrhythmic breathing. Oxygen therapy didn't have any effect.
Pulse was weak and rapid. It was difficult to measure arterial pressure accurately. There were no
edemas. What is the most likely reason for these symptoms?
A. * Asphyxia
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Intracranial hematoma
D. Intrauterine sepsis
E. Congenital pneumonia
105. A child was delivered severely premature. After the birth the child has RI symptoms, anasarca, fine
bubbling moist rales over the lower lobe of the right lung. Multiple skin extravasations, bloody foam
from the mouth have occurred after the 2 day. On chest X-ray: atelectasis of the lower lobe of the
right lung. In blood: Hemoglobin-100 g/L, Ht- 0, 45. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Edematous-hemorrhagic syndrome
B. Disseminated intravascular clotting syndrome
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Hyaline membrane disease
E. Congenital pneumonia
106. An infant is 2 do. It was full-term born with signs of intrauterine infection, that's why it was
prescribed antibiotics. Specify why the gap between antibiotic introductions to the new-born children
is longer and dosage is smaller compared to the older children and adults?
A. * The newborns have a lower level of glomerular filtration
B. The newborns have lower concentration of protein and albumins in blood
C. The newborns have reduced activity of glucuronil transferees
D. The newborns have diminished blood pH
E. The newborns have bigger hematocrit
107. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked activity of the process.
Bilirubin 70 m mole/L, direct - 26 m mole /L, indirect - 44\ m mole /L S - 6, 2 m mole /L, L -
4, 8 m mole /L. What mechanism underlies the transaminase level increase of this patient?
A. * Cytolysis of hepatocytes
B. Failure of the synthetically function of the liver
C. Hypersplenism
D. Intrahepatic cholestasis
E. Failure of bilirubin conjugation
108. A 12-year-old girl applied to doctor with complaints of swelling on the front part of the neck. The
doctor diagnosed hyperplasia of the thyroid gland of the second degree, euthyroidism. Ultrasound
suspected autoimmune thyroiditis. Blood was taken for titer of antibodies to thyroglobulin. What titer
of antibodies will be diagnostically important?
A. * 1:100
B. 1:50
C. 1:150
D. 1:200
E. 1:250

109. A 14-year-old girl has been presenting with irritability and tearfulness for about a year. A year ago
she was also found to have diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland (II grade). This condition was
regarded as a pubertal manifestation; the girl didn't undergo any treatment. The girl's irritability
gradually gave place to a complete apathy. The girl got puffy face, soft tissues pastosity, bradycardia,
constipations. Skin pallor and gland density progressed, the skin became of a waxen hue. What
disease may be suspected?
A. * Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Diffuse toxic goiter
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Subacute thyroiditis
E. Juvenile basophiles
110. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction. There
are heterogeneous moist and dry rales, respiration is weakened. Dense, viscous secretion is difficult
to hawk. There are "drumsticks", physical retardation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Mucoviscidosis, pulmonary form
B. Recidivating bronchitis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
111. On the 3rd day of life a baby presented with hemorrhagic rash, bloody vomit, and black stool.
Examination revealed anemia, extended coagulation time, hypoprothrombinemia, normal
thrombocyte rate. What is the optimal therapeutic tactics?
A. * Vitamin K
B. Sodium ethamsylate
C. Epsilon-aminocapronic acid
D. Fibrinogen
E. Calcium gluconate
112. A 2 month old full-term child was born with weight 3500 g and was on the mixed feeding. Current
weight is 4900 g. Evaluate the current weight of the child:
A. * Corresponding to the age
B. 150 g less than necessary
C. Hypotrophy of the I grade
D. Hypotrophy of the II grade
E. Paratrophy of the I grade
113. A 2 mo. breast-fed child suffers from cheek skin hyperemia, sporadic papulous elements on the skin
of the chest and back following the apple juice introduction. The child is restless. What is the initial
pediatricians tactics?
A. * Clarify mother's diet and exclude obligate allergens
B. Refer to prescribe dermatologist
C. Administer general ultraviolet irradiation
D. Treat with Claritin
E. Apply ointment with corticosteroids to affected skin areas
114. A 5 month old boy was born prematurely; he didn't suffer from any disease at the infant age and later
on. Examination at an outpatient's hospital revealed paleness of skin, sleepiness. Blood count:
Hemoglobin - 5 g/l, erythrocytes - 3,5x1012/l, reticulocytes 9%, color index - 0, 7, osmotic stability
of erythrocytes - 0, 44-0, 33%, serum iron - 4, 9 micromole/l. What is the most probable cause of
anemia?
A. * Iron deficit
B. Homogenizes immaturity

C. Infectious process
D. Erythrocyte hemolysis
E. B12 deficit
115. A 7 year old child had elevation of temperature to 400C in anamnesis. For the last 3 months he
presents fusiform swelling of fingers, ankle joints and knee joint, pain in the upper part of the
sternum and cervical part of the spinal column. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Juvenile rheumatic arthritis
B. Rheumatism
C. Toxic synoviitis
D. Septic arthritis
E. Osteoarthritis
116. An 8 year old girl complains about joint pain, temperature rise up to $38^oC$, dyspnea. Objectively:
the left cardiac border is deviated by 2; 5 cm to the left, tachycardia, systolic murmur on the apex and
in the V point is present. Blood count: leukocytes - 20,0x109/l, ESR - 18 mm/h. What sign gives the
most substantial proof for rheumatism diagnosis?
A. * Carditis
B. Arthralgia
C. Leukocytosis
D. Fever
E. Accelerated ESR
117. A 5 year old child with stigmas of dysembryogenesis (small chin, thick lips, opened mouth, upper
telorismus) has systolic murmur in the second intercostal to the right of the sternum. The murmur
passes to the neck and along the sternum left edge. The pulse on the left brachial artery is weakened.
BP on the right arm is 110/60 mm Hg, on the left - 100/60 mm Hg. ECG results: hypertrophy of the
right ventricle. What defect is the most probable?
A. * Aortic stenosis
B. Defect of interventricular septum
C. Defect of interatrial septum
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Open aortic duct
118. A 1, 5-year-old child fell ill acutely with high temperature 380C, headache, and fatigue. The
temperature declined on the fifth day, muscular pain in the right leg occurred in the morning, there
were no movements and tendon reflexes, and sensitivity was reserved. What is the initial diagnosis?
A. * Poliomyelitis
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Polyartropathy
D. Osteomyelitis
E. Hip joint arthritis
119. A 3-year-old child has been delivered to a hospital in soporose state with considerable amyotonia,
inhibition of tendon and periosteal reflexes. Miosis and asthenocoria are also present. Corneal
reflexes are preserved. Pulse is rapid and weak. The parents suspect the child of accidental taking
some tablets. Such clinical presentations are typical for intoxication with the following tableted
drugs:
A. * Tranquilizers
B. Atropine drugs
C. Antihypertensive drugs
D. Barbiturates
E. Beta-2-adrenoceptor agonists

120. A 2 mo. child with birth weight 5100 g has jaundice, hoarse cry, umbilical hernia, physical
development lag. Liver is +2 cm enlarged, spleen is not enlarged. In anamnesis: delayed falling-away
of umbilical cord rest. In blood: Hemoglobin- 120 g/L, erythrocytes - 4,5\cdot10^{12}$/L, ESR- 3
mm/h. Whole serum bilirubin is 28 micromole/L, indirect - 20 micromole/L, direct - 8 micromole/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Congenital hypothyreosis
B. Congenital hepatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Conjugated jaundice
E. Cytomegalovirus infection
121. A 5-year-old child developed an acute disease starting from body temperature rise up to 38,50C,
running nose, cough and conjunctivitis. On the 4th day the child presented with maculo-papular rash
on face. Body temperature rose again up to $39, 2^oC$. Over the next few days the rash spread over
the whole body and extremities. Mucous membrane of palate was hyperemic; there was whitish
deposition on cheek mucous membrane next to molars. What is your provisional diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Acute viral respiratory infection
C. Yersinia
D. Enterovirus diseases
E. Rubella
122. A 3 year old child fell acutely ill, body temperature rose up to $39,5^oC$, the child became inert,
there appeared recurrent vomiting, headache. Examination revealed positive meningeal symptoms,
after this lumbar puncture was performed. Spinal fluid is turbid, runs out under pressure, protein
concentration is 1, 8 g/l; Pandys reaction is +++, sugar concentration is 2,2 millimole/l, chloride
concentration - 123 millimole/l, cytosis is 2,35x109 (80% of neutrophils, 20% of lymphocytes). What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Purulent meningitis
B. Serous viral meningitis
C. Serous tuberculosis meningitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
E. Brain tumor
123. A 13 year old girl complains of having temperature rises up to febrile figures for a month, joint ache,
and periodical skin rash. Examination revealed steady enhancing of ESR, LE-cells. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. * Systematic lupus erythematous
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Systematic scleroderma
D. Acute lymphoblast leucosis
E. Rheumatics
124. A child is 1 year old within the last months after the beginning of supplemental feeding the child has
appetite loss, diarrhea with massive defecation, sometimes vomiting. Objectively: body temperature
is normal. Body weight is 7 kg. Evident pallor of skin, leg edema, enlarged abdomen. Coprogram
shows a lot of fatty acids and soaps. The child was diagnosed with celiac disease and prescribed
gluten-free diet. What should be excluded from the dietary intake in this case?
A. * Cereals - wheat, oats
B. Milk and dairy produce
C. Fruit
D. Animal protein
E. Digestible carbohydrates
125. A child is 1 year old. After the recent introduction of complementary feeding the child has presented
with loss of appetite, diarrhea with large amounts of feces and occasional vomiting, body temperature
is normal. Objectively: body weight is 7 kg, the child is very pale, there is edema of both legs, and
abdomen is significantly enlarged. Coprogram shows many fatty acids and soaps. The child has been
diagnosed with celiac disease and administered the gluten-free diet. What is to be excluded from the
ration?
A. * Cereals - wheat and oats
B. Milk and dairy products
C. Fruit
D. Animal protein
E. High digestible carbohydrates
126. A 7-year-old child was brought to a doctor for a check. The child has a 4-year history of bronchial
asthma, asthma attacks occur mainly in spring and summer. Allergy tests revealed hypersensitivity to
poplar seed tufts, field herbs. What recommendation should be given?
A. * Specific hyposensitization
B. Physiotherapy
C. Treatment at a health resort
D. Phytotherapy
E. Needle reflex therapy
127. An 8 year old boy complains of constant cough along with discharge of greenish sputum, dyspnea
during physical activities. At the age of 1 year and 8 months he fell ill for the first time with bilateral
pneumonia that had protracted course. Later on there were recurrences of the disease 5-6 times a
year, during the remission periods there was constant productive cough. What examination results
will be the most important for making a final diagnosis?
A. * Bronchography
B. Roentgenography of thorax organs
C. Bacterial inoculation of sputum
D. Bronchoscopy
E. Spirography
128. A mother of a 5 year old girl consulted a doctor about daughters involuntary urination at night,
nightmares, sleep disorders, slow gaining of body weight. Objectively: malnutrition, intellectual
development is good; the girl can read and explains common situations quite adultly. Her skin is very
pale, liver is enlarged in size. Her mother suffers from holetithiasis. What type of diathesis is the most
probable in the child's case?
A. * Gouty diathesis
B. Urine acid diathesis
C. Exudative diathesis
D. Allergic diathesis
E. Lymphohypoplastic diathesis
129. A 10 year old girl complains about abdominal pain that is arising and getting worse after eating rough
or spicy food. She complains also about sour eructation, heartburn, frequent constipations, headache,
and irritability. She has been suffering from this for 12 months. Objectively: the girl's diet is
adequate. Tongue is moist with white deposit at the root. Abdomen is soft, painful in its epigastria
part. What study method will help to make a diagnosis?
A. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Intragastral pH-metric
C. Fractional examination of gastric juice
D. Contrast roentgenoscopy
E. Biochemical blood analysis

130. A 40 hour old child age has hyperesthesia, CNS depression, dyspepsia. Sepsis is suspected. What
should the differential diagnosis be made with?
A. * Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcaemia
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hypomagnesaemia
131. A 1, 5 year old child fell seriously ill: chill, body temperature rise up to 40,10, then rapid dropping
to 36,20, skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Extremities
are cold, face features are sharpened. Diagnosis: meningococcosis, fulminant form, infection-toxic
shock. What antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage?
A. * Soluble Levomycetine succinate
B. Penicillin
C. Lincomycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Sulfamonometoxin
132. A 10 year old boy suffers from chronic viral hepatitis type B with maximal activity. What laboratory
test can give the most precise characteristic of cytolysis degree?
A. * Transaminase test
B. Weltman's coagulation test
C. Takata-Ara test
D. Prothrombin test
E. Test for whole protein
133. A 6 year old child complains of thirst, polyuria, and increased appetite for 2 months with weight loss
for 3 kg. There has been nocturnal enuresis during last week. On examination: hyperglycemia 14
mole/L. The diagnosis is diabetes mellitus I type. What is the genesis of this disease?
A. * Autoimmune
B. Viral
C. Bacterial
D. Neurogenic
E. Virus-bacterial
134. A 10 year old child who is at oligoanuretic stage of acute renal insufficiency has got sensations of
pricking in the mucous membrane of oral cavity and tongue, extremities numbness, reduced reflexes,
respiratory disturbance, arrhythmia. What are these symptoms caused by?
A. * Hyperkaliemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyper azotemia
D. Acidosis
E. Alkalosis
135. Examination of a 12 year old child revealed diffuse thyroid enlargement of the II degree. Heart
auscultation revealed dullness of heart sounds; heart rate was 64/min. The child has frequent
constipations, anemia. Concentration of thyroglobulin antibodies is increased. What disease might
have caused such symptoms?
A. * Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Diffuse toxic goiter
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Thyroid hyperplasia
E. Endemic goiter

136. An 8-year-old girl has been admitted to the cardiology department. Objectively: there is a skin lesion
over the extensor surfaces of joints with atrophic cicatrices, depigmentation, and symmetrical
affection of skeletal muscles (weakness, edema, and hypotrophy). What disease are these changes
most typical for?
A. * Dermatomyositis
B. Systemic scleroderma
C. Nodular periarteritis
D. Systemic lupus erythematous
E. Reiter's disease
137. A 13 year old teenager who suffers from hemophilia A was taken to the hospital after a fight at
school. His diagnosis is right-sided hemarthrosis of knee joint, retroperitoneal hematoma. What
should be primarily prescribed?
A. * Fresh frozen plasma
B. Aminocapronic acid
C. Washed thrombocytes
D. Placental albumin
E. Dry plasma
138. A 3 mo. child fell seriously ill, body temperature raised up to $37,8^0C$, there is semi cough. On the
3-rd day the cough grew worse, dyspnea appeared. On percussion: tympanic sound above lungs, on
auscultation: a lot of fine moist and wheezing rales during expiration. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. * Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchiolitis
B. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchopneumonia
C. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchitis
D. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchitis with asthmatic component
E. Acute respiratory viral infection, focal pneumonia
139. On the 1st day of life a full-term girl (2nd labor) weighing 3500g, with Apgar score of 8 points,
presented with jaundice. Indirect bilirubin of blood - was 80 m mole/l, 6 hours later - 160 m mole/l.
What is the optimal method of treatment?
A. * Exchange blood transfusion
B. Phototherapy
C. Infusion therapy
D. Phenobarbital treatment
E. Enterosorbents
140. A child was born at a gestational age of 34 weeks in grave condition. The leading symptoms were
respiratory distress symptoms, namely sonorous and prolonged expiration, involving additional
muscles into respiratory process. The Silverman score at birth was 0 points, in 3 hours it was 3 points
with clinical findings. Which diagnostic study will allow diagnosing the form of pneumopathy?
A. * X-ray of chest
B. Clinical blood test
C. Determination of blood gas composition
D. Proteinogram
E. Immunoassay
141. A 10-year-old girl consulted a doctor about thirst, frequent urination, and weight loss. She has been
observing these symptoms for about a month. Objectively: no pathology of internal organs was
revealed. What laboratory analysis should be carried out in the first place?
A. * Blood glucose analysis on an empty stomach
B. Glucose in urine test on the base of daily diuresis
C. Acetone in urine test

D. Glucose tolerance test

E. Glycosuria profile
142. After a 10-year-old child had been bitten by a bee, he was delivered to a hospital. There were lip, face
and neck edema. The patient felt hot and short of breath. Objectively: breathing was labored and
noisy. There were foamy discharges from the mouth, cough. The skin was pale and cold. There was
bradypnea. Heart sounds were muffled and arrhythmic. Thread pulse was present. What diagnosis
was made by the expert in resuscitation?
A. * Anaphylactic shock
B. Quincke's edema
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Acute cardiovascular collapse
E. Cerebral coma
143. A 3-year-old girl presents with pertussis-like cough with thick sputum. There have been persistent
changes in lungs since the age of 6 months when she was first diagnosed with acute pneumonia.
Chloride concentration in the perspiration is 112 m/l. The child has been diagnosed with
mucoviscidosis. What is the basis for autosomal recessive disease - mucoviscidosis?
A. * Inadequate transport of sodium and chloride ions
B. alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
C. Deposition of calcium triphosphates and carbonates in the alveolus
D. Pulmonary cysts
E. Pulmonary artery hypoplasia
144. 15 minutes after the second vaccination with DTP vaccine a 4-month-old boy exhibited the
symptoms of Quincke's edema. What medication should be given for emergency aid?
A. * Prednisolone
B. Heparin
C. Adrenalin
D. Furosemide
E. Seduxen
145. A full-term baby was born with body weight of 3200 g, body length of 50 cm, Apgar score - 8-10
points. What is the optimum time for the first breast-feeding?
A. * First 30 minutes
B. First 6 hours
C. First 24 hours
D. First 48 hours
E. after 48 hours
146. A 3-year-old child has been taken to a pediatrician. He has no recent history of any diseases.
Objective examination revealed no pathology of the internal organs. The child needs the routine
immunization against the following disease:
A. * Poliomyelitis
B. Diphtheria and tetanus
C. Measles, rubella, parotitis
D. Pertussis
E. Type B hepatitis
147. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. It is known from the
anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. What is the most likely
etiological factor in this case?
A. * Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus

C. Pneumococcus
D. Klebsiella
E. Proteus
148. Head circumference of a 1-month-old boy with signs of excitement is 37 cm; pre fontanel is 2x2 cm
large. After feeding the child regurgitates small portions of milk; stool is normal in respect of its
volume and composition. Muscle tonus is within norm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Pylorospasm
B. Meningitis
C. Pylorostenosis
D. Microcephaly
E. Craniostenosis
149. On the second day after preventive vaccination a 2-year-old boy presented with abdominal pain
without clear localization, body temperature rose up to $38^oC$. On the third day the child got red
papular hemorrhagic eruption on the extensor surfaces of limbs and around the joints. Knee joints
were edematic and slightly painful. Examination of other organs and systems revealed no
pathological changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Hemorrhagic vasculitis
B. Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Meningococcemia
D. Urticarial
E. DIC syndrome
150. On the 6th day of life a child got multiple vesicles filled with seropurulent fluid in the region of
occiput, neck and buttocks. General condition of the child is normal. What disease should be
suspected?
A. * Vesiculopustulosis
B. Impetigo neonatorum
C. Miliaria
D. Impetigo
E. Epidermolysis bullosa
151. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose, was taking nasal drops. The boy suffers
with alimentary allergy. He applied to doctor due to suppurative and bloody discharges from nose,
maceration of ala nasi and upper lip. Rhinoscopy results: there are whitish-greyish areas at nasal
septum. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is not changed. What is the most probable disease?
A. * Diphtheria of the nose
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Sinusitis (maxillar sinus)
D. Rhinovirus
E. Adenovirus
152. A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the
joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes
and spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
A. * Immunocomplex
B. Hypersensitivity of delayed type
C. Cytoxic
D. ----
E. Hypersensitivity of immediate type

153. A 5-year-old child had strong headache, vomiting, ataxy, dormancy, di-scoordination of movements,
tremor of the extremities on the 8th day of the disease. It was followed by rise in body temperature,
vesiculosis rash mainly on the skin of the body and the hairy part of the head. At the second wave of
the fever a diagnosis of encephalitis was given. What disease complicated encephalitis in this case?
A. * Chicken pox
B. Measles
C. Herpetic infection
D. Enterovirus ifection
E. German measles
154. District doctor of rural medical department was called to a 12-year-old patient. While examining the
patient, the doctor suspected the dysentery. What document must the doctor issue?
A. * Urgent notification of infectious disease
B. Statistical coupon of final (precise) diagnosis
C. Abstract of outpatient medical card
D. Infectious disease report
E. Report addressed to Head of the village
155. A male with a stab-wound of the right foot applied to doctor. He stepped on the board with nail two
hours ago. In the patient medical chart it is stated those 3 years ago he passed the whole course of
vaccination against tetanus. What is the tactics of doctor to prevent tetanus in this case?
A. * Do not conduct specific prophylaxis
B. Administer 0,5 ml of tetanus toxoid
C. Administer 1 ml tetanus toxoid and 3000 U of anti-tetanic serum
D. Administer 1,0 ml of tetanus toxoid
E. Administer 3000 U of anti-tetanic serum
156. A 4-year-old child on the 5th day of illness complains of cough, rash on the skin. Temperature is
38,2C, face is puffy, photophobia, conjunctivitis. There is a bright papulomacular rash on the face,
neck, upper half of the thorax. Pharynx is hyperemiated. There are serous and purulent discharge
from nose, dry rales in the lungs. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. German measles
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Adenovirus infection
E. Scarlet fever
157. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever [temperature 40 C], vomiting. On
physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a right cheek, right
hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung,
weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What
disease causes these symptoms and signs?
A. * Pneumonia croupousa
B. Intestinal infection
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Influenza
158. A 14-year-old male on the second day of the disease with a sudden onset complains of a strong
headache in temples and in the area of orbits, dull pain in the body, dry painful cough. His
temperature is 39C. Adynamic. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is "flaming", rales are not
ausculated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Influenza
B. Parainluenza
C. Meningococcus infection
D. Pneumonia
E. Respiratory mycoplasmosis
159. Neonate is 5 days old. What vaccination dose of bacillius Calmette-Guerin (bCG) vaccine is
necessary for this child?
A. * 0.05 Mg
B. 0.1 Mg
C. 0.025 Mg
D. 0.075 Mg
E. 0.2 Mg
160. A 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: fever, weakness, headache, abdominal pain, recurrent vomiting, then
diarrhea and tenesmus. Stools occur 12 times daily, are scanty, contain a lot of mucus, pus, streaks of
blood. His sigmoid gut is tender and hardened. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Dysentery
B. Escherichiosis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Cholera
E. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis
161. A 3-year-old boy suddenly fell ill with fever up to 39C, weakness, vomiting. Hemorrhagic rash of
various size appeared on his lower extremities in 5 hours. Meningococcemia with infective-toxic
shock of the 1st degree was diagnosed. What medications should be prescribed?
A. * Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone
B. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon
C. Penicillin and immunoglobulin
D. Penicillin and prednisone
E. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin
162. In the inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria during the last 3 years with separate
outbursts in families. What measure can effectively influence the epidemic process of diphtheria and
decrease the morbidity with diphtheria to single cases?
A. * Immunization of the population
B. Revelation of carriers
C. Early diagnostics
D. Hospitalization of patients
E. Disinfection in disease focus
163. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked activity of the process. Total
bilirubin 70/^mol/L, direct - 26/xmol/L, indirect 44 mol/L. AST 6,2 mmoUL, ALT 4,8
mmol/L. What mechanism underlies the transaminase level increase of this pati_ent?
A. * Cytolysis of hepatocytes
B. Failure of bilirubin conjugation
C. Intrahepatic cholestasis
D. Hypersplenism
E. Failure of the synthetical function of the liver
164. A 5-year-old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39,8C, recurrent vomiting, severe headache.
Convulsions occur in 3 hours. Physician found out positive meningeal sign. Pleocytosis of 2500 cells
chiefly polymorphonuclear cells, elevated protein concentration and normal glucose concentration
was found in cerebrospinal fluid examination. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Purulent meningitis
B. Tuberculous meningitis

C. Serous meningitis
D. Subarachnoidal hemorrhage
E. Encephalitis
165. A 14-year-old patient felt sick in 16 hours after dried fish intake. There was nausea, vomiting,
weakness, flabbiness, double vision. On physical exam, there was decrease of a muscle tone,
anisocoria, flaccid swallowing and tendon reflex. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Botulism
B. Food toxicoinfection
C. Acute gastritis
D. Salmonellosis
E. Acute encephalitis
166. A 9-year-old child is ill for 5 days. Physical examination: Conscious, inert. Puffy face. Cataral
conjunctivitis, scleritis. Bright-red papulous middle-spotted skin rash on face and behind ears.
Somewhere elements merge. Diffuse hyperemia in pharynx. Soft palate shows enanthema. The child
is not vaccinated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Rubella
167. A 2-year-old girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low-grade fever, severe catarrhal symptoms,
non-abundant maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital glands. What is your
diagnosis?
A. * Rubella
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. Measles
D. Scarlet fever
E. Adenoviral infection
168. A child, aged 5, is ill with fever, vesicular rash mainly on the trunk and head skin. On the 8th day
there appeared severe headache, ataxia, lethargy, movement discoordination, tremor of the
extremities. On the second wave of the fever encephalitis is diagnosed. Complication of what decease
can be encephalitis in this case?
A. * Chicken pox
B. Herpetic infection
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Measles
E. Rubella
169. A patient, aged 16, complains of headache, mainly in the frontal and temporal areas, superciliary
arch, appearing of vomiting at the peak of headache, pain during the eyeballs movement, joints pain.
On examination: excited, t 39C, Ps - 110/min. Tonic and clones cramps. Uncertain meningeal
signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations
B. Parainfluenza
C. Adenovirus infection
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Influenza, typical disease duration

170. A child, aged 4, .has being ill for 5 days, suffers from cough, skin rash, t 38,2C, facial hydropy,
photosensitivity, conjunctivitis. On the face, neck, upper part of the chest there is bright
maculopapular rash with areas of merging. Hyperemic throat. Seropurulent nasal discharge. In lungs
there are dry crackles. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Rubella
D. Scarlet fever
E. Enterovirus exanthema
171. A 1,5 y.o. child fell ill acutely with high temperature 38C, headache, fatigue. The temperature
declined on the fifth day, muscular pain in the right leg occured in the morning, there were no
movements and tendon reflexes, sensitivity was reserved. What is the initial diagnosis?
A. Viral encephilitis
B. Hip joint arthritis
C. * Polyomyelitis
D. Polyartropathy
E. Osteomyelitis
172. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor, hoarse
voice and barking cough. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostals chest
retractions. There is a bluish skin discoloration . Moistly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate
is 52 per min and pulse 122 bpm. The body temperature is 37,5C. What disease does the infant
have?
A. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress
B. Bronchopneumonia without complications
C. Acute epiglottitis
D. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis
E. Acute laryngitis
173. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. But this
microorganism does not produce exotoxin. As a result of what process can this microorganism
become toxigenic?
A. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals
B. Cultivation in the telluric environment
C. * Phage conversion
D. Chromosome mutation
E. Growing with antitoxic serum
174. A 17-year-old boy fell seriously ill, body temperature rose up to 38,50, there is cough, rhinitis,
lacrimation, nasal discharges. What kind of inflammation is it?
A. Fibrinous inflammation
B. Hemorrhagic inflammation
C. Suppurative inflammation
D. * Catarrhal inflammation
E. Serous inflammation
175. Parents with an ill child consulted an infectionist. They had been working in one of Asian countries
for a long time. The child has sallow skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral
lymph nodes. What protozoal illness can be suspected?
A. Amebiasis
B. * Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Balantidiasis

D. Lambliasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
176. A patient with suspected diphtheria went through bacterioscopic examination. Examination of throat
swab revealed rod-shaped bacteria with volutin granules. What etiotropic preparation should be
chosen in this case?
A. Interferon
B. Bacteriophage
C. Diphtheria antitoxin
D. * Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum
E. Eubiotic
177. Autopsy of a 12-year-old girl revealed: multiple cutaneous hemmorhages (mostly into the skin of
buttocks, lower extremities), serous and mucous memrane hemmorhages, cerebral hemmorhages.
Adrenal glands show focal necrosis and massive hemmorhages; kidneys show necrotic nephrosis,
suppurative arthritis, iridocyclitis, vasculitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus
B. Radiation sickness
C. * Meningococcemia
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Periarteritis nodosa
178. A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protosoa 10-18 mcm large. They
have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of
body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
A. Balantidium
B. Intestinal ameba
C. Dysentery ameba
D. Trichomonas
E. * Lamblia
179. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. But this
microorganism does not produce exotoxin. As a result of what process can this microorganism
become toxigenic?
A. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals
B. Cultivation in the telluric environment
C. * Phage conversion
D. Chromosome mutation
E. Growing with antitoxic serum
180. Autopsy of a 16-year-old male revealed multiple brown-and-green layers and hemmorhages on the
mucous membrane of rectum and sigmoid colon; slime and some blood in colon lumen;
histologically - fibrinous colitis. In course of bacteriological analysis of colon contents S.Sonne were
found. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Crohn's disease
B. * Dysentery
C. Salmonellosis
D. Yersiniosis
E. Cholera
181. The donor who didn't donate the blood for a long time was investigated with IFA method. Anti-HBs
antibodies were revealed. What does positive result of IFA in this case mean?
A. Chronic hepatitis
B. Previous hepatitis B

C. Acute hepatitis B
D. Acute hepatitis C
E. * Chronic hepatitis
182. Blood analysis of a patient showed signs of HIV infection (human immunodeficiency virus). Which
cells does HIV-virus primarily affect?
A. * Cells that contain receptor T4 (T-helpers)
B. Cells that contain receptor IgM (B-lymphocytes)
C. Specialized nervous cells (neurons)
D. Proliferating cells (stem hematoplastic cells)
E. Mast cells
183. From pharynx of a child with suspected diphtheria a pure culture of microorganisms was isolate d.
Their morphological, tinctorial, cultural and biochemical properties appeared to be typical for
diphtheria causative agents. What study should be conducted in order to drow a conclusion that this
is a pathogenic diphtheria bacillus?
A. Estimation of urease activity
B. Estimation of cystinous activity
C. Estimation of ability to decompose starch
D. Estimation of proteolytic properties
E. * Estimation of toxigenic properties
184. A hepatitis outbreak was registered in a settlement. This episode is connected with water factor. What
hepatitis virus could have caused the infective outbreak in this settlement?
A. G
B. D
C. B
D. C
E. * E
185. A boy is 7 y.o. Objectively: against the background of hyperemic skin there is knobby bright-pink
rash on his forehead, neck, at the bottom of abdomen, in the popliteal spaces; nasolabial triangle is
pale. Examination of oropharyngeal surface revealed localized bright-red hyperemia; tonsils are
swollen, soft, lacunas contain pus, tongue is crimson. Cervical lymph nodes are enlarged, dense and
painful. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Scarlet fever
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Rubella
D. Diphtheria
E. Whooping cough
186. The first grade pupils were examined in order to sort out children for tuberculosis revaccination.
What test was applied for this purpose?
A. Anthraxine test
B. * Mantoux test
C. Schick test
D. Supracutaneous tularin test
E. Burnet test
187. After a 2 y.o. child has had flu, there appeared complaints about ear ach e. A doctor revealed hearing
impairment and inflammation of the middle ear. How did the infection penetrate into the middle ear?

A. Through canalis caroticus

B. Through canalis nasolacrimalis

C. Through atrium mastoideum

D. Through foramen jugularis
E. * Through the auditory tube
188. A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice,
muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed
dark-field microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
A. Rickettsia mooseri
B. * Leptospira interrogans
C. Bartonella bacilloformis
D. Borrelia dutlonii
E. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
189. RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse transcriptase
forced a cell to synthetize a viral DNA. This process is based upon:
A. Operon depression
B. * Reverse transcription
C. Convariant replication
D. Operon repression
E. Reverse translation
190. Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous
membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells.
What causative agents are they?
A. Staphylococci
B. Diphtheria bacillus
C. Fusobacteria
D. * Candida
E. Actinomycetes
191. A 7 year old boy fell seriously ill, the body temperature rose up to 38,5oC there appeared cough,
rhinitis, lacrimation, nasal discharges. What inflammation is it?
A. Serous
B. Purulent
C. Fibrinous
D. Hemorrhagic
E. * Catarrhal
192. A pregnant woman was registered in an antenatal clinic and underwent complex examination for a
number of infections. Blood serum contained IgM to the rubella virus. What is this result indicative
of?
A. Of a chronic process
B. Of recurring infection with rubella virus
C. * Of primary infection
D. Of exacerbation of a chronic disease
E. The woman is healthy
193. The territory of an old burial ground for animal refuse that hasn't been used for over 50 years is
meant for house building. But soil investigation showed the presense of viable spores of a causative
agent causing a very dangerous diseas E. What microorganism might have been preserved in soil for
such a long period of time?
A. Brucella abortus
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Yersinia pestis

D. Mycobacterium bovis
E. * Bacillus anthracis
194. Inoculum from pharynx of a patient ill with angina was inoculated into blood-tellurite agar. It resulted
in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies 4-5 mm in diameter. Gram-positive
bacilli with clublike thickenings on their ends placed in form of spread wide apart fingers are visible
by microscop E. What microorganisms are these?
A. Diphtheroids
B. Streptobacilli
C. Streptococci
D. * Diphtheria corynebacteria
E. Botulism clostridia
195. Bacterioscopic examination of a smear from the pharynx of a diphtheria suspect revealed bacilli with
volutine granules. What etiotropic drug should be chosen in this case?
A. * Antidiphtheritic antitoxic serum
B. Diphtheritic anatoxin
C. Interferon
D. Eubiotic
E. Bacteriophage
196. Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important
role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
A. -
B. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine
C. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine
D. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
E. * BCG
197. A 7 year old child is ill with bronchitis. It is necessary to administer him an antibacterial drug. What
drug of fluoroquinolone group is CONTRA-INDICATED at this age?
A. Ampiox
B. Ampicillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Sulfadimethoxine
E. * Cyprofloxacin
198. A patient recovered from Sonne dysentery and was once more infected with the same causative agent.
What is such infection form called?
A. Superinfection
B. Chronic infection
C. * Reinfection
D. Recidivation
E. Persisting infection
199. The disease of a 2 y.o. patient began with raise of temperature up to 39,00, headache, chill, repeated
vomiting. Rigidity of occipital muscles is determined. The analysis of liquor revealed: cytosis - 1237
in 1 ml, including: 84% of neutrophils, 16% of lymphocytes. On bacterioscopy: gram-negative cocci
are found in liquor. What is the most probable disease?
A. Secondary purulent meningitis
B. Meningococcal infection: serous meningitis
C. Serous meningitis
D. * Meningococcal infection: purulent meningitis
E. Infectious mononucleosis

200. A 14 y.o. female consulted a doctor about continued fever, night sweating. She lost 7 kg within the
last 3 months. She had casual sexual contacts. Objectively: enlargement of all lymph nodes,
hepatolienal syndrome. Blood count: leukocytes - 2,2*109/L. What disease can be suspected?
A. Infectionous mononucleosis
B. Chroniosepsis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Lymphogranulomatosis
E. * HIV-infection
201. A 7 y.o. girl has mild form of varicella. Headache, weakness, vertigo, tremor of her limbs, ataxia,
then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. Meningeal signs are negative.
Cerebrospinal fluid examination is normal. How can you explain these signs?
A. Meningitis
B. * Encephalitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Myelitis
E. Neurotoxic syndrome
202. A 14 y.o. patient without permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with the preliminary
diagnosis influenza. On the fith day of illness he got a maculopapular petechial rash on his body and
internal surfaces of extremities. Body temperature is 410, euphoria, face hyperemia, sclera
reddening, tongue tremor, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitement. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. * Epidemic typhus
B. Delirium alcoholicum
C. Leptospirosis
D. Typhoid fever
E. Measles
203. A 2 y.o. girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low grade fever, catarrhal presentations, slight
maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital lymph nodes. What is your diagnosis?
A. Pseudotuberculosis
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Measles
D. * Rubella
E. Scarlet fever
204. A 1,5 y.o. child fell seriously ill: chill, body temperature rise up to 40,10, then rapid dropping to
36,20, skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Extremities are
cold, face features are sharpened. Diagnosis: meningococcosis, fulminant form, infection-toxic
shock. What antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage?
A. * Soluble Levomycetine succinate
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfamonometoxin
D. Lincomycin
E. Gentamycin
205. A 17 y.o. patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of having skin and sclera
icteritiousness, dark urine, single vomiting, appetite loss, body temperature rise up to 380 for 2
days. Three weeks ago he went in for fishing and shared his dishes with friends. Objectively: the
patient is flabby, t0- 36,80, skin and scleras are icteritious, liver sticks from under the costal margin
by 3 cm, it is sensitive; spleen isn't palpable. Urine is dark, stool is partly acholic. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis

B. Intestinal yersiniosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. * Virus A hepatitis
206. A 16 y.o. male fell seriously ill, he feels chill, has got a fever, body temperature raised up to 38,50,
paroxysmal pain in the left iliac region, frequent defecation in form of fluid bloody and mucous mass.
Abdomen palpation reveals painfulness in its left half, sigmoid colon is spasmed. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute dysentery
B. Colibacillosis
C. Malignant tumors of large intestine
D. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Amebiasis
207. A patient complains of skin painfullness and reddness of the right gastrocnemius muscle. Objectively:
body temperature is 38,50, enlarged and painful inguinal lymph nodes on the right. Skin of
extremity is edematic, hyperemic, covered with eruption in form of vesicles containing dark fluid; its
palpation is painful. There is distinct border between normal and hyperemic skin. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. * Anthrax, dermal form
B. Erysipelas, hemorrhagic form
C. Crus phlegmon
D. Chickenpox
E. Herpetic infection
208. A 17 y.o. patient who has no permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with preliminary
diagnosis "influenza", on the 5-th day of disease there are appeared maculopapular and petechial rash
on his body and internal surfaces of his extremities. Body temperature is 410, euphoria, hyperemic
face, scleras reddening, tongue tremor, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitement. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Delirium alcoholicum
C. Typhoid fever
D. * Spotted fever
E. Measles
209. The patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7-th day of the disease with complaints of high
temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. The dermal integuments and
scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient went fishing
two weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. * Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Trichinellosis
E. Yersiniosis
210. A 3 m.o. child fell seriously ill, body temperature rised up to 37,80C, there is semicough. On the 3-rd
day the cough grew worse, dyspnea appeared. On percussion: tympanic sound above lungs, on
auscultation: a lot of fine moist and wheezing rales during expiration. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchitis
B. Acute respiratory viral infection, focal pneumonia
C. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchopneumonia

D. Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchitis with asthmatic component

E. * Acute respiratory viral infection, bronchiolitis
211. The patient 15 y.o. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of double vision in the
eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate home-made mushrooms. On objective
examination: paleness, widened pupils, disorder of swallowing, bradycardia, constipation are marked.
What is the diagnosis?
A. * Botulism
B. Leptospirosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
212. The disease began acutely. The frequent watery stool developed 6 hours ago. The body's temperature
is normal. Then the vomiting was joined. On examination: his voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply sunken
in the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There is no urine. What is the preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Dysentery
B. Salmonellosis
C. * Cholera
D. Typhoid fever
E. Toxic food-borne infection
213. A 7 y.o. girl fell ill abruptly: fever, headache, severe sore throat, vomiting. Minute bright red rash
appear in her reddened skin in 3 hours. It is more intensive in axillae and groin. Mucous membrane of
oropharynx is hyperemic. Greyish patches is on the tonsills. Submaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged
and painful. What is your diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Enteroviral infection
C. * Scarlet fever
D. Rubella
E. Pseudotuberculosis
214. A 12 y.o. male complains of acute throat pain, increasing upon swallowing during 3 days. Body
temperature 38,30, neck lymph nodules are slightly enlarged and painful. Pharyngoscopically -
tonsilar hyperemia, enlargement and edema, tonsils are covered by round yellow fibrinous patches
around crypts openings. Beta-haemolytic streptococcus in swab analysis. What is the diagnosis?
A. nfectious mononucleosis
B. * Acute membranous tonsilitis
C. Pharyngeal candidosis
D. Acute follicular tonsilitis
E. Pharyngeal diphtheria
215. A 3 year old child fell acutely ill, body temperature rose up to 39,5oC, the child became inert, there
appeared recurrent vomiting, headache. Examination revealed positive meningeal symptoms, after
this lumbal puncture was performe D. Spinal fluid is turbid, runs out under pressure, protein
concentration is 1,8 g/l; Pandy reaction is +++, sugar concentration is 2,2 millimole/l, chloride
concentration - 123 millimole/l, cytosis is 2,35*109 (80% of neutrophils, 20% of lymphocytes). What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Serous tuberculous meningitis
B. Brain tumour
C. Serous viral meningitis
D. * Purulent meningitis
E. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

216. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis for 4 days. He has
been taking sulfadimethoxine. Today it has fever up to 39oC and maculopapular rash on its face.
Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. What is your diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. * Measles
E. Allergic rash
217. A 13 year old patient was admitted to the clinic with complaints of the temperature rise up to 39,0oC,
headache, weakness, constipation on the 9th day of the diseas E. On examination: single roseolas on
the skin of the abdomen are present. The pulse rate is 78 bpm. The liver is enlarged by 2 cm. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Typhoid fever
B. Sepsis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Malaria
E. Brucellosis
218. A 7 year old patient complains about general weakness, spastic pain in the lower parts of his
abdomen, mainly in the left iliac area, frequent defecations up to 18 times a day, feces contain
admixtures of mucus and bloo D. The illness began abruptly 3 days ago with chill, fever, headach E.
General condition is moderately severe, body temperature is 37,8oC. Sigmoid colon is spasmed and
painful. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Amebiasis
C. * Dysentery
D. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Yersiniosis
219. A patient in grave condition was delivered to the admission ward of a hospital on the 2nd day of
illness. Examination revealed body temperature of 36,1oC, sharpened features of face, dry skin that
makes a fold, aphonia, convulsive twitching of some muscle groups. Acrocyanosis is present. Heart
sounds are muffled, Ps is 102 bpm, AP is 50/20 mm Hg. Abdomen is soft, drawn-in, painless. Anuria
is presnt. Stool is liquid in form of rice water. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Cholera
B. Intestinal amebiasis
C. Escherichiosis
D. Acute dysentery
E. Salmonellosis
220. A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The day
before she ate home-made stockfish, bee. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left knee,
dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils. The girl is unable to
read a simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this case?

A. Parenteral introduction of antibiotics

B. * Parenteral introduction of polyvalent antibotulinic serum
C. Gastric lavage
D. Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum
E. Parenteral disintoxication
221. An 17 year old patient was admitted to a hospital with complaints of headache, weakness, high
temperature, sore throat. Objectively: enlargement of all groups of lymph nodes was revealed. The
liver is enlarged by 3 cm, spleen - by 1 cm. In blood: leukocytosis, atypical lymphocytes - 15%. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Angina
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Diphtheria
D. Acute lymphoid leukosis
E. * Infectious mononucleosis
222. A patient has been in a hospital. The beginning of the disease was gradual: nausea, vomiting, dark
urine, cholic stools, yellowness of the skin and scleras. The liver is protruded by 3 cm. Jaundice
progressed on the 14th day of the diseas E. The liver diminished in siz E. What complication of viral
hepatitis caused deterioration of the patient's condition?
A. Infectious-toxic shock
B. * Hepatic encephlopathy
C. Meningitis
D. Relapse of viral hepatitis
E. Cholangitis
223. 15 minutes after the second vaccination with diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine a 4
month old boy manifested symptoms of Quincke's edem A. What medication should be applied for
emergency aid?
A. Adrenalin
B. * Prednisolone
C. Furosemide
D. Heparin
E. Seduxen
224. A 14-year-old male on the 5th day of acute respiratory disease with high grade temperature started
having strong headaches, systemic dizziness, sensation of double vision, paresis of mimic muscles to
the right, tickling by swallowing. Diagnosis: Acute viral encephalitis. Determine the basic direction
of the emergent therapy.
A. * Zovirax
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Hemodesis
D. Cephtriaxon
E. Lasix
225. A male presents to physician with cramping pain in left side of the chest, general weakness, fever and
headache that have appeared 2 days ago. In the morning skin rash on chest is noted. Physical
examination: multiple aggregated vesicles with edematous roofs filled with transparent liquid, 2-4
mm in diameter. Vesicles are situated on the erythematous and edematous background along 4-5
intercostals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Herpes zoster varicellosus
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Streptococcal (Fox's) impetigo
D. Allergic dermatitis
E. Herpes simplex

226. A 15-year-old male is hospitalized with complaints of double vision, worsening of eyesight, difficulty
of breath, dryness in the mouth. He fell ill acutely 12 hours ago. Before falling ill he ate mushrooms.
Physical examination: skin is pale, pupils are wide with weak reaction to light, swallowing is
disturbed. Ps 55 bpm. Severe muscle weakness. The stomach is bloated . What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
A. * Botulism
B. Salmonella infection, gastrointestinal form
C. Yersiniosis
D. Leptospirosis
E. Lambliasis
227. A child with meningococcus meningitis has been taking penicillin for 7 days. Last 4 days a body's
temperature is normal. Meningitic signs are absent. When is it possible to cancel antibiotic?
A. * If liquor cytosis is 100 or less, mainly due to lymphocytes
B. If liquor cytosis is 150, mainly due to lymphocytes
C. Right away
D. If leucocytosis and left neutrophil shift are absent
E. If liquor cytosis is 100 or less, mainly due to neutrophils
228. A 12-year-old female complains of fever, headache, acute weakness, sleeplessness for 8 days. On
physical examinations: t - 39,8C, Ps 86 bpm, BP 90/60 mmHg. Skin is pale with solitary roseola
rash at the abdomen. Tongue is dry, covered by spot and prints of teeth on lateral surface. Abdomen is
soft with dullness of percussion sound in ileocecal area. Hepatosplenomegalia .What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Exanthematic typhus (Spotted fever)
B. * Typhoid fever
C. Influenza
D. Sepsis
E. Miliary tuberculosis
229. A 14-year-old male, complains of moderate weakness,fever 38 C for 3 days. On physical
examination an ulcer on right forearm is revealed, diameter 1,5 cm, covered with dark brown scab,
surrounded by zone of hyperaemia with fine vesicles. There is a severe edema of forearm soft tissues.
The right-side cubital and axillary lymphatic nodes are enlarged and tender. He has fresh scratches on
his hands. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Anthrax
B. Felinosis
C. Staphylococcus carbuncle
D. Tularaemia, ulcerobubonic form
E. Erysipelas
230. A 12-year-old male complains of dull right subcostal pain, nausea, decreased appetite. History:
disease started with jaundice in 2 months after appendectomy. She was treated in an infectious
hospital. 1 year later present complaints have developed. Physical examination: subicteric sclerae,
enlarged firm liver. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic viral hepatitis
B. Chronic cholangitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Calculous cholecystitis
E. Gilbert's disease
231. A baby, aged 8 months, is examined and a diagnosis of atypical community-acquired pneumonia of
chlamidial etiology is made. What is the optimum alternative of antibiotic therapy in this case?
A. * Macrolide of 2nd generation

B. Macrolide of 1st generation

C. Aminopenicilline
D. Cephalosporine of 2nd generation
E. Aminoglycoside
232. A patient suffering with virus hepatitis B presents with increase of jaundice and bloody vomiting
after break of diet and nervous stress. Physical examination: Ps 110 bmp, BP 80/50 mmHg. The liver
is painful at palpation and is reduced in size. What complication is the most likely being observed?
A. * Acute hepatic failure
B. Toxico-infection shock
C. Haemolytic crisis
D. Acute adrenal failure
E. Acute renal failure
233. A patient, aged 16, complains of headache, mainly in the frontal and temporal areas, superciliary
arch, appearing of vomiting at the peak of headache, pain during the eyeballs movement, joints pain.
On examination: excited, t 39C, Ps - 110/min. Tonic and clones cramps. Uncertain meningeal
signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations
B. Parainfluenza
C. Adenovirus infection
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Influenza, typical disease duration
234. A child, aged 4, .has being ill for 5 days, suffers from cough, skin rash, t 38,2C, facial hydropy,
photosensitivity, conjunctivitis. On the face, neck, upper part of the chest there is bright
maculopapular rash with areas of merging. Hyperemic throat. Seropurulent nasal discharge. In lungs
there are dry crackles. What is the most probable preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Measles
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Rubella
D. Scarlet fever
E. Enterovirus exanthema
235. A female, aged 33, complains of periodical febrile chills with fever up to 40C, sensation of heat
alternating with profuse sweat. During last three months has lived in a tropical African country. The
patient has already suffered 3 such attacks, which appeared every other day, lasted 12 hours, and were
accompanied by the headache, lumbar and muscular pain. The face is pale with yellowish tinge.
Cyanotic lips. Liver, spleen are enlarged. In blood: RBC 2.5 * lO12/L. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. * Malaria
B. Leptospirosis
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Sepsis
E. Hemoiytic anaemia
236. In a college with the majority of 14-year-old students preventive antituberculosis planned
examination is taking place. Which method from the following should be used?
A. * Mantoux [ tuberculin ] test with 2 TU
B. Fluorographic
C. Sputum analysis for tuberculosis mycobacteria
D. General blood analysis
E. Physical examination

237. A patient complains of intense pressing pain in the pharynx, mainly to the right, impossibility to
swallow even liquid food. The illness started 5 days ago. The patient's condition is grave. Body
temperature 38,9C speech is difficult, voice is constrained, difficulties in opening the mouth.
Submaxillary lands to the right are painful, enlarged; hat is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Peritonsillar abscess
B. Pharyngeal tumour
C. Diphtheria
D. Vincent's disease
E. Phlegmonous tonsillitis
238. A woman complains of high temperature to 38C, mild pain in the throat during 3 days. On
examination: angle lymphatic nodes of the jaw are 3 cm enlarged, palatinel tonsils are enlarged and
coated with grey plaque which spreads to the uvula and frontal palatinel arches. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Vincent's angina
C. Oropharyngeal candidosis
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. * Larynx dyphtheria
239. A 15 y.o. female complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago. Next
day she ate with difficulties, there were muscles tension of back, the back of the head and abdomen.
On the third day there was tension of all muscle groups, generalized convulsions every 10-15 min.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Epilepsy
B. * Tetanus
C. Tetania
D. Meningoencephalitis
E. Hemorrhagic stroke
240. A 24 y.o. woman presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She's lost weight for 7 kg during
the last 3 months. She had irregular intercourses. On examination: enlargement of all lymphaden
groups, hepatolienal syndrom. In blood: WBC 2,2*109/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. * HIV-infection
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Chroniosepsis
241. The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On
examination: shaky gait is marked; the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The
painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering
over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Bubonic plague
B. Acute purulent lymphadenitis
C. Anthrax
D. Tularemia
E. Lymphogranulomatosis
242. On the 5-th day of the respiratory disease a 24 y.o. man has developed progressive headaches
systemic dizziness, feeling of seeing double, paresis of mimic muscles on the right, choking while
swallowing. Acute viral encephalitis has been diagnosed. What is the main direction of urgent
therapy?

A. Ceftriaxon
B. Lasix
C. * Zovirax
D. Hemodesis
E. Glucocorticoids

(): : 12
6 year Pediatrics, tests
:
Exam 2016
:
1. At what stage of upper respiratory failure arterial pressure is increased?
A. *
B.
C.
D. V
E. V
2. More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 7 to 15 years is:
A. streptococcus
B. chlamydia
C. * pneumococcus
D. hemophilus influenza
E. E. coli
3. Name the reason of ventilation acute respiratory failure.
A. Laryngospazm
B. Viral pneumonia
C. Pneumothorax
D. Acute endobronchitis
E. * Poliomyelitis
4. Obstruction by tongue is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. * Obstructive type
B. Ventilation type
C. Diffuse-distributive type
D. Mixed type
E. Restrictive type
5. A complete effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all, except:
A. improvement of the general condition
B. decrease of temperature below 38C in 24 - 48 hours from the beginning of treatment
C. * increase of dyspnea
D. roentgenologic changes do not increase or even decrease
E. decrease of dyspnea
6. A new-born child was born in asphyxia and covered by a green amniotic liquid. Your primary
measures:
A. Artificial ventilation with the use of endotracheal tube
B. Catetherization of umbilical vein
C. Artificial ventilation with the use of mask and sack
D. Application of 100% oxygen
E. * Sucking of tracheal content
7. At acute pneumonia acid-alkaloid balance carries mainly character of:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. * Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

E. Mixed acidosis
8. At mild pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:
A. 5 - 7 days
B. 3 - 5 days
C. * 7 - 10 days
D. 10 - 14 days
E. 15 - 18 days
9. At moderate pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:
A. 5 - 7 days
B. 7 - 10 days
C. * 10 - 14 day
D. 14 - 20 days
E. 15 - 18 days
10. At severe pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:
A. 7 - 10 days
B. 10 - 14 days
C. * 14 - 21 day
D. 21 - 24 days
E. 24 - 28 days
11. At what indexes of the partial pressure of 2 and 2 hypoxemic coma is developing?
A. 2 is below, than 80 mm Hg, 2 more than 20 mm Hg
B. 2 is below, than 60 Hg, 2 more than 60 Hg
C. 2 is below, than 70 Hg, 2 more than 30 Hg
D. * 2 is below, than 50 Hg, 2 more than 80 Hg
E. 2 is below, than 60 Hg, 2 more than 30 Hg
12. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency inconstant perioral cyanosis is observed?
A. *
B.
C.
D. At all stages
E. Does not have the diagnostic value
13. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency oxygen saturation of blood is 95- 85%?
A.
B. *
C.
D. At all stages
E. It is normal
14. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency permanent perioral and acrocyanosis are observed?
A.
B. *
C.
D. At all stages
E. Does not have the diagnostic value
15. At what stage of respiratory insufficiency the oxygen saturation of blood is less than 70%?
A. Does not have the diagnostic value
B. *

C.
D.
E. At all stages
16. At what stage of RF oxygen blood saturation is decreased on 10%?
A.
B.
C. *
D. At all stages
E. Does not have the diagnostic value
17. At what stage of upper respiratory failure arterial pressure is decreased?
A.
B.
C. V
D. V
E. *
18. At what stage of upper respiratory stenosis does inspiratory short breath occur?
A.
B.
C. V
D. V
E. *
19. Children with lobar pneumonia give advantage to lying:
A. on the back
B. on a stomach
C. * on the sick side
D. on the healthy side
E. on the left side
20. Choose clinical signs which are not typical for acute pneumonia:
A. * Short breath, hypothermia
B. Cyanosis
C. Moist and dry rales
D. Shortening of pulmonary resonance
E. Crepitation
21. Choose criteria of respiratory insufficiency:
A. Everything enumerated is right
B. * Cyanosis of the skin
C. Paleness of the skin
D. Short breath
E. Bradycardia
22. Clinical changes in the lungs during percussion not typical for:
A. * focal pneumonia
B. segmental pneumonia
C. lobar pneumonia
D. pleuropneumonia
E. segmental pneumonia
23. Correlation of pulse and breathing 2 - 1,5 : 1 is typical for:

A. Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B. Respiratory ins. I st.
C. Respiratory ins. II st.
D. * Respiratory ins. III st.
E. Respiratory ins. IVst.
24. Croupous (lobar) pneumonia begins:
A. gradually
B. * from the signs of URT Infection
C. acutely
D. subacutely
E. immediately
25. Cyanotic marbling and grey color of the skin occur at:
A. Mild pneumonia
B. Moderate pneumonia
C. * Severe pneumonia
D. Complicated pneumonia
E. In infants with pneumonia
26. For pneumococcal pneumonia is not typical:
A. * pain syndrome (stomach-ache, in the side)
B. gradual beginning
C. shortening of the percutory sound above the focus of pneumonia
D. changed breathing without wheezes
E. signs of intoxication
27. For pneumonia which is caused by the B. cereus is not typical:
A. the severe intoxication
B. * absence of the respiratory insufficiency
C. much mucus-purulent sputum
D. propensity to formation of destruction
E. signs of hypoxia
28. For treatment of mild pneumonia semisynthetic penicillins are used in a dose:
A. 30 - 50 mg/kg/daily
B. * 50 - 80 mg/kg/daily
C. 80 - 100 mg/kg/daily
D. 100 - 150 mg/kg/daily
E. 150 - 200 mg/kg/daily
29. For treatment of moderate pneumonia semisynthetic penicillins are used in a dose:
A. 30 - 50 mg/kg/daily
B. 50 - 80 mg/kg/daily
C. * 80 - 100 mg/kg/daily
D. 100 - 150 mg/kg/daily
E. 150 - 200 mg/kg/daily
30. For treatment of severe pneumonia semisynthetic penicillins are used in a dose:
A. 30 - 50 mg/kg/daily
B. 50 - 80 mg/kg/daily
C. 80 - 100 mg/kg/daily
D. 100 - 150 mg/kg/daily

E. * 150 - 200 mg/kg/daily

31. Functional and organic changes of all organs and systems are characteristic at pneumonia:
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. * Severe
D. Lobar
E. Bilateral
32. Hospital pneumonia is one that developed:
A. during 6 hours being in the hospital
B. during 12 hours being in the hospital
C. during a 24 hours being in the hospital
D. * during 48 hours being in the hospital
E. during 56 hours being in the hospital
33. Hospital pneumonia is one that developed:
A. during 6 hours after discharge from the hospital
B. during 12 hours after discharge from the hospital
C. during a 24 hours after discharge from the hospital
D. * during 48 hours after discharge from the hospital
E. during 56 hours after discharge from the hospital
34. How many stages of respiratory stenosis are?
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 4
D. 3
E. 5
35. Intrauterine pneumonia is one that developed:
A. during first 3 days of life
B. * during first 5 days of life
C. during first 7 days of life
D. during first 10 days of life
E. during first 14 days of life
36. Lack of blood arterialization at pneumonia is compensated by increased cardiac work of:
A. * Right heart
B. Left heart
C. Right ventricular
D. Left ventricular
E. Total heart
37. Main complications of pneumonia are, except:
A. * exicosis
B. toxicosis
C. cardiac insufficiency
D. vascular insufficiency
E. respiratory insufficiency
38. Medicine of choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias is:
A. * aminopenicillins
B. carbapenems

C. fluorquinolones
D. antibiotics of other groups
E. tetracyclines
39. More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 6 months to 6 years is:
A. chlamydia
B. mycoplasm
C. * pneumococcus
D. staphylococcus
E. E. coli
40. More often the etiology of typical community acquired pneumonia in children before 6 months are
the following, except:
A. * staphylococcus
B. RS virus
C. E. coli
D. pneumococcus
E. mycoplasm
41. Mostly destructive pneumonia is caused by:
A. pneumococci
B. * staphylococci
C. proteus
D. klebsiella
E. streptococci
42. Name the reason of obstructive acute respiratory failure.
A. Paresis of intestine
B. Cranial-cerebral trauma
C. Severe toxicosis
D. * Stenosis of larynx
E. Great number of ribs fractures
43. Name the reason of restrictive acute respiratory failure.
A. * Dry pleurisity
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Laryngospazm
D. Viral pneumonia
E. Pneumothorax
44. Neonates primarily have pneumonia:
A. * Aspiration
B. Atelectatic
C. Atypical
D. Alveolar
E. Bronchopneumonia
45. The abscess in destructive pneumonia will be on x-ray as:
A. * the round air formation on the background of infiltration
B. the round formation of the high degree of infiltration, afterwards - with the level of liquid on the
background of infiltration
C. infiltration near the walls and in the area of sinus together with the pulmonary infiltration
D. total homogeneous infiltration
E. displacement of the mediastinal organs into opposite side

46. Oxygen saturation of the blood 90 % is typical for:

A. Respiratory ins. 0 st.
B. * Respiratory ins. I st.
C. Respiratory ins. II st.
D. Respiratory ins. III st.
E. Respiratory ins. IVst.
47. Paresis of diaphragm is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Ventilation type
B. Obstructive type
C. Diffuse-distributive type
D. Mixed type
E. * Restrictive type
48. Pneumococci are absolutely stable to:
A. penicillines
B. * aminoglicozides
C. macrolydes
D. cephalosporins
E. tetracycline
49. Pneumonia which is caused by the B.cereus is not typical at:
A. cystic fibrosis
B. defects of the lungs development
C. defects of immunity
D. * rickets
E. anomaly of the lungs
50. Pulmonary complications of pneumonia are not belong to:
A. pleurisy
B. pneumothorax
C. pyopneumothorax
D. * septic shock
E. abscess
51. Shortening of percussion sound above the focus of pneumonia in the early age children appears:
A. in the first days of disease
B. * on 3 - 5 day of illness
C. on 5 - 10 day of illness
D. on 10 - 15 day of illness
E. on 15 - 20 day of illness
52. Specify an absolute indication for artificial ventilation.
A. Critical diminishment of backlogs of breathing
B. Progress of respiratory acidosis
C. * Apnoe
D. All from these
E. Nothing of these
53. Specify the maximal concentration of 2 during the artificial ventilation.
A. * 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%

D. 90%
E. 100%
54. Staphylococcal pneumonia develops mainly at children:
A. teenagers
B. * school age
C. preschoolers
D. in the first year of life
E. in the second year of life
55. The manifestation of focal pneumonia at preschoolers and schoolchildren consists of the following,
except:
A. symptoms of intoxication
B. signs of cardiac insufficiency
C. signs of respiratory insufficiency
D. * local physical changes
E. hypoxemia
56. The clinical features of an acute pneumonia at children of the early age do not depend on the
following:
A. age
B. sex
C. premorbid state
D. * nationality
E. weight
57. The coma of any etiology is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Obstructive type
B. Diffuse-distributive type
C. * Ventilation type
D. Mixed type
E. All types respiratory failure are possible
58. The increasing of signs of respiratory failure in child with ARVI is due to occurrence of:
A. * Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Pleurisy
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Bronchoadenitis
59. The typical sign of the inspection of the patient with lobar pneumonia is:
A. butterfly
B. jaundice of the skin
C. * red cheek, more frequent on a damage side
D. grey color of the skin
E. dark color of the skin
60. There is no advantage to treat severe community acquired pneumonias by:
A. semisynthetic and inhibitor-protected penicillins
B. cefalosporines of the second generation in combination with aminoglicosides
C. * macrolides
D. cefalosporines of the third generation
E. cefalosporines of the second generation
61. Such laboratory changes are not typical for focal pneumonia:

A. * reticulocitosis
B. leucocytosis
C. neutrophylosis
D. elevated ESR
E. anemia
62. To complications of staphylococcal pneumonias do not belong:
A. bullas
B. abscesses
C. * croup syndrome
D. pyopneumothorax
E. meningitis
63. To the antibiotics of the first choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias do not belong:
A. amoxycillin
B. macrolides
C. * fluorquinolones
D. inhibitor-protected penicillins
E. carbapenems
64. To the criteria of an acute pneumonia diagnosis do not belong:
A. intoxication
B. * epidemiological history
C. local physical changes
D. respiratory acidosis
E. percussion changes
65. To the most frequent etiologic factors of intrauterine pneumonia does not belong:
A. * streptococcus
B. E. coli
C. S. aureus
D. mycoplasma
E. staphylococcus
66. To the most frequent etiological agents of hospital pneumonia does not belong:
A. E. coli
B. * pneumococcus
C. proteus
D. enterobacter
E. virus
67. What etiologic factor is typical for nosocomial pneumonia in children?
A. Pneumococci
B. H.influenza
C. Streptococci
D. * Pseudomonas
E. Viruses
68. What is characteristic for the I stage of respiratory failure?
A. Shortness of breath at the insignificant loading
B. * Shortness of breath at the ordinary loading
C. Shortness of breath at the surplus loading
D. Shortness of breath at rest

E. Absence of shortness of breath

69. What is observed at the severe form of pneumonia?
A. Cardiovascular syndrome
B. Meningoencephalitis syndrome
C. Gastrointestinal syndrome
D. * All of these
E. Nothing of these
70. What is the main pathogenetic factor of pneumonia in children?
A. Obstruction
B. Secretion
C. Hypoxemia
D. * Hypoxia
E. All transferred
71. What is the most common form of pneumonia in children 1yr?
A. Lobar
B. Croupous
C. * Focal
D. Obturative
E. Bilateral
72. What is the most important in the genesis and development of pneumonia in children?
A. Cooling
B. Improper feeding
C. Rickets
D. * The state of reactivity of body
E. All transferred
73. What is the reason of acute upper respiratory tracts obstruction which is related with spring-autumn
time?
A. Viral laryngotracheitis
B. * Edema of larynx
C. Epiglotitis
D. Foreign body
E. Laryngospazm
74. What may not cause changes of percussion sounds at pneumonia in children?
A. * Small foci of inflammation
B. Atelectasis
C. Interstitial inflammation
D. Segmental inflammation
E. All transferred
75. What pathology of respiratory system is characterized by short painfull cough?
A. Bronchitis
B. Croupous pneumonia
C. * Pleurisy
D. Bronchoadenitis
E. Atelectatic pneumonia
76. What respiratory rate is normal for child 2 weeks old?
A. * 40-50

B. 35-40
C. 30-35
D. 25-30
E. 18-20
77. What respiratory rate is normal for child 2 yrs old?
A. 40-50
B. 35-40
C. 30-35
D. * 25-30
E. 18-20
78. Why a severe form of pneumonia is a disease with respiratory-heart failure?
A. Due to severe hypoxia
B. Due to obstruction
C. Due to mucous edema
D. * Due to circulatory hypoxemia
E. All transferred
79. In most cases an acute pneumonia at children of the early age develops as a result of:
A. overheat
B. super cooling
C. violation of the regime
D. * upper respiratory tract viral infection
E. upper respiratory tract microbial infection
80. In pneumonia etiology prevail:
A. pathogenic candida
B. klebsiella
C. * pneumococci
D. staphylococci
E. streptococci
81. Name the main way of the infection entering at pneumonia:
A. * bronchogenic
B. hematogenic
C. lymphogenic
D. mixed
E. urogenic
82. The roentgenologic (X-ray) sign typical for acute pneumonia is:
A. strengthening of pulmonary picture (lung pattern)
B. * infiltrative shadows
C. emphysema
D. dilation of lungs' roots
E. pneumosclerosis
83. To description of hospital pneumonias does not belong:
A. resistance of the etiological agent to antibiotics
B. * low lethality
C. frequent complications
D. severe complications
E. hypoxia

84. To the pathogenetic links of an acute pneumonia does not belong:

A. hypoxemia
B. * alcalosis
C. acidosis
D. hypoxia
E. bacteriemia
85. Typical physical data at pneumonia are:
A. diffuse dry wheezes
B. local small moist wheezes
C. diffuse small moist wheezes
D. * weakened breathing
E. local dry wheezes
86. What is typical for the III stage of respiratory failure?
A. * Shortness of breath at rest
B. Shortness of breath at the insignificant loading
C. Shortness of breath at the ordinary loading
D. Shortness of breath at the surplus loading
E. Absence of shortness of breath
87. What symptom of pneumonia is inherent only to the new born?
A. Cough
B. Nod motions by a head
C. Dulling of percussion sound
D. * Foamy excretions from a nose and mouth
E. Dissipated moist wheezes
88. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory ins. II st.?
A. serve of oxygen through an oxygen pillow
B. serve of oxygen in an oxygen tent
C. serve of oxygen through a nasal catheter
D. serve of oxygen through an intubation tube
E. * serve of oxygen through a mask
89. More often the reason of bronchial asthma is the:
A. * Dust
B. Drugs
C. Food
D. Bacteria
E. Viruses
90. When it is possible to make allergens tests:
A. Before attack of asthma
B. During attack of asthma
C. After attack of asthma
D. * Intermittant period of asthma
E. In any period
91. What will be the therapeutic management of acute attacks of asthma?
A. * Bronchodilators
B. Anti-inflammatory agents
C. Commonly sodium

D. Inhalation of corticosteroids
E. Prednizolone orally
92. The mucolitical effect depends on:
A. * Normal quantity of water
B. The prescribing of antiviral drugs
C. Prescribing of antihystamine drugs
D. Prescribing of vitamins
E. Prescribing of antibiotics
93. What examination is the most important at bronchial asthma?
A. Stools examination
B. Culture of sputum
C. * Immunoglobulin E
D. Biochemical examination of the blood
E. Chest X-ray
94. At obstructive bronchitis narrowing of airways less depends on:
A. Edema of mucous membrane
B. Secret in bronchus
C. Spasm of bronchus muscles
D. * Damaging of mucociliar clearance
E. Nervous exiting
95. Specific therapy of acute viral infection during acute bronchitis is effective:
A. The effect is absent
B. * During 2 first days of disease
C. During 5-7 days of disease
D. During all term of disease
E. During all of hyperthermia
96. Such symptom is absent during objective examination of the child with obstructive bronchitis:
A. Perioral cyanosis
B. Exiting
C. * Symptom of acute abdomen
D. Wheezing
E. Hyperthermia
97. The duration of acute bronchitis is:
A. * 5 7 days
B. 7 14 days
C. 10 20 days
D. 14 24 days
E. 2-3 days
98. What drug is usually used as prophylactic in children to prevent bronchial asthma attack?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Bronchodilators
D. Antiinflammatory agents
E. * Cromolyn sodium
99. Complex of treatment of acute bronchitis does not include:
A. Mucolitics

B. Physiotherapy
C. * Antacids drugs
D. Antipiretics drugs
E. Antibiotics
100. Drugs, which have no mucolitic effect:
A. Acetylcustein
B. Bromhexin
C. Ambroxol
D. Mucaltin
E. * Claritin
101. The auscultation date during bronchitis is:
A. Puerile breathing
B. Decrease breathing
C. * Rough breathing
D. Moist local rales
E. Crepitus rales
102. There is not typical such auscultation data during bronchitis:
A. Rough breathing
B. * Decrease breathing
C. Dry rales
D. Moist diffuse rales
E. Decreasing or disappearing of rales after cough
103. What factor is the main for prescription of antibiotics at acute bronchitis?
A. Sex of child
B. Social state of child
C. * Etiology of bronchitis
D. Time of year
E. Presence of hyperthermia
104. What is apnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. * The cessation of breathing
E. The increase of the respiratory depth
105. What is bradypnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. * The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing
E. The decrease of the respiratory depth
106. What is dyspnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. * The distress during breathing
C. The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing
E. The increase of the respiratory depth

107. What special substances may be found in sputum in case of bronchial asthma?
A. * Eosinophyls
B. Erythrocytes
C. Neuthrophyls
D. Leucocytes
E. Monocytes
108. According classification bronchitis cannot be:
A. Acute
B. * Latent
C. Relapse
D. Chronic
E. Bronchiolitis
109. Acute bronchiolitis is accompanied with acute respiratory failure of:
A. Ventilation type
B. Diffuse-distributive type
C. Mixed type
D. Restrictive type
E. * Obstructive type
110. All factors can lead to bronchitis, except:
A. Cooling
B. * Poor feeding
C. Allergies
D. Genetically predilection
E. Bad ecology
111. Asthmatic status is the attack of asthma during more than:
A. * 6 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours
E. 12 hours
112. At acute bronchitis in general analysis of blood there is:
A. Severe leucocytosis
B. Leucopoenia
C. Anemia
D. * Moderate leucocytosis
E. Monocytosis
113. At the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is prevailing:
A. Intoxication
B. * Cough
C. Dyspnea
D. Wheezing
E. Tonsillitis
114. At the stage of false croup the best method of oxygen therapy is:
A. Artificial ventilation
B. * Inhalation therapy in an oxygen tent, 4-6 inhalations a day
C. Inhalation therapy through a mask by the moistened oxygen

D. Inhalation therapy through a nasal catheter by the moistened oxygen

E. All variants are possible
115. At what stage of upper respiratory stenosis does inspiratory short breath with participation of
auxiliary musculature occur?
A.
B. *
C.
D. V
E. V
116. Atopical status of asthma is not determined by:
A. Hereditary sensitivity to allergens
B. Food allergens
C. Hyperglobulinemia G
D. * Lymphocytosis
E. Eosinophylia
117. Auscultation during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Prolonged inspiration
B. Decrease of breathing
C. * Dry rales and moist diffuse rales
D. Crepitation
E. Local moist rales
118. Both pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia may be accompanied by:
A. Intestine anomalies
B. CNS anomalies
C. * Renal anomalies
D. Skin defects
E. All transferred
119. Both pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia may be accompanied by:
A. Intestine anomalies
B. CNS anomalies
C. Skin defects
D. * Cardiac defects
E. All transferred
120. Bronchiolitis is more frequent in:
A. The first year of life
B. Newborn period
C. * Preschool age
D. School age
E. Teenagers
121. Bronchitis is caused most often by:
A. Fungi
B. * Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Parasites
E. Mixed flora
122. Bronchitis is most often in:

A. A Great city
B. B Little cities
C. C Villages
D. * D The quantity of people is not important
E. Little villages
123. Bronchoobstructive syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Noisy breathing
B. Paroxysmal breathing
C. Noisy inspiration
D. Silently breathing
E. Noisy expiration
124. Children with asthma need daily:
A. * Picflowmetry
B. Spirografy
C. ECG
D. Allergodiagnistic tests
E. General analysis of blood
125. Cough during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is most severe:
A. At night
B. * In the morning
C. At day
D. In the evening
E. After mucolitics
126. Dose of euphyllini during mild attack of bronchial asthma is:
A. 1-2 mg/kg/day
B. * 10 mg/kg/day
C. 3-5 mg/kg/day
D. 20 mg/kg/day
E. 25 mg/kg/day
127. During acute bronchitis respiratory insufficiency is most often of:
A. * 0 stage
B. 1 stage
C. 2 stage
D. 3 stage
E. 2-3 stage
128. During acute bronchitis the bed regime is prescribed:
A. During all term of treatment
B. * Does not prescribed
C. 2-3 days
D. 2 - 3 weeks
E. All time of hyperthermia
129. During obstructive bronchitis determined such percussion sound:
A. Clear pulmonary sound
B. * Box sound
C. Local shortness of pulmonary sound
D. Total shortness of pulmonary sound

E. Mosaic sound
130. During the attack of asthma in early childhood is prevailing:
A. * Edema of mucous
B. Spasm of bronchus
C. Emphysema
D. Allergic reaction antigen - antibody
E. Plethora of lungs
131. During the bronchoscopic investigation on remission period of obstructive bronchitis are next
finding:
A. Local changes
B. Atrophy of sputum
C. Hyperemia of sputum
D. Hyperemia of sputum, secret in great quantity, thickening of walls of bronchus
E. * Granulations on sputum
132. During the decreasing of signs of acute period of obstructive bronchitis the first of all is disappearing:

A. * Rales
B. Cough
C. Rough breathing
D. Wheezing
E. Inflammation syndrome
133. During the first aid at asthma it is necessary to introduce:
A. Euphyllini
B. Ketotiphen
C. Intal
D. * Prednisolone
E. Adrenalin
134. During the mild attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 2 mg/kg
B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. * 7-10 mg/kg
D. 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
135. During the mild attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. * 2 2,5 mg/kg
B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 3-4 mg/g
E. 5-6 mg/kg
136. During the moderate attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 2 mg/kg
B. * 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
137. During the moderate attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. 2 2,5 mg/kg

B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. * 3-4 mg/kg
E. 5-6 mg/kg
138. During the percussion of patient with asthma is present:
A. * Box sound
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Clear lung sound
D. Local shortness lung sound
E. Tympanic sound
139. During the severe attack of asthma the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 2 mg/kg
B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 25-30 mg/kg
E. * 15-20 mg/kg
140. During the severe attack of asthma the dose of prednisolone is:
A. 2 2,5 mg/kg
B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. 3-4 mg/kg
E. * 5-4 mg/kg
141. During the status asthmatics the dose of euphyllini is:
A. 1 2 mg/kg
B. 10 15 mg/kg
C. 7-10 mg/kg
D. * 24 mg/kg
E. 20 mg/kg
142. During the treatment of acute period of obstructive bronchitis postural drainage it is better to do:
A. * After getting up
B. After breakfast
C. After dinner
D. Before sleeping
E. Any time
143. During the treatment of asthma it is necessary to need such inhalator:
A. * Salbutamol
B. Euphyllini
C. Inhalipt
D. Cameton
E. Prednisolone
144. Easy intermittent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day less than once a week
B. Frequency of attacks during night time - less than 2 time a month
C. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) 80%
D. Acute period from some hours till some days
E. * Often attack at night

145. For decreasing the quantities of acute periods of obstructive bronchitis it is necessary to prescribe:
A. Inductothermia
B. Eleuterococus
C. * Ribomunil
D. Claritromycin
E. Penicillin
146. In approximately 60% of patients, cystic adenomatoid malformation manifests:
A. * Soon after the neonatal period
B. At first 3-6 months
C. At 6-12 months
D. At 1-2 yrs of life
E. Up to 5 yrs of life
147. In blood analysis at asthma there is:
A. Anemia
B. Leucosytoses
C. Lymphocytosis
D. * Eosinophylia
E. Monocytosis
148. In most cases cystic adenomatoid malformation results in:
A. Malignancy
B. * Recurrent infections
C. Respiratory failure
D. Pneumothorax
E. Pyopneumothorax
149. In what unit of children hospital must be admitted a child with acute stenotic laryngotracheitis?
A. Pulmonary
B. Infectious
C. Junior childhood
D. Otolaryngology
E. * Intensive care
150. It is necessary to provide allergodiagnostic in the period:
A. Acute
B. During the treatment
C. * Remission
D. Post attack
E. Intraattack
151. More often dyspnea appears:
A. Early in morning
B. In morning
C. On day
D. * At night
E. Any time
152. More often the reason of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * Viral bacterial flora
B. Parasites
C. Fungis
D. Bacterial - fungis flora
E. Viral fungis flora
153. Most often obstructive bronchitis is present on the basis of, except:
A. Foreign body of respiratory ways
B. * Disturbance of feeding
C. Immune deficiency
D. Anomalies of respiratory ways
E. Hereditary diseases of respiratory system
154. Obstructive bronchitis with anamnesis of disease more than 5 years is the sign of:
A. * Asthma bronchial
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Scoliosis
D. Polyhypovitaminosis
E. Deformation of chest
155. Parasites are the most often cause of bronchitis in:
A. Teenagers
B. Preschool age
C. Child of early age
D. * First year of life
E. School age
156. Percussion during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Clear lung sound
B. * Box sound
C. Dullness of lung sound
D. Dullness of lung sound in lower parts
E. Dullness of lung sound in upper parts
157. Quickly increasing asphyxia, cough, cyanosis, laryngo- and bronchospazm are characteristic for:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Parainfluenze infection
C. False croup
D. Real croup
E. * Aspiration in respiratory tract
158. RSV is the most often cause of bronchitis in:
A. * Teenagers
B. Preschoolers
C. Child of early age
D. First year of life
E. School age
159. Specify the leading mechanism of pathogenesis of asthmatic status.
A. Edema of mucous membrane of bronchial tubes
B. Increased secretion of biologically active substances
C. * Complete blockade of beta2-adrenoreceptors
D. Inflammation of mucous membranes of bronchial tubes
E. Spasm of smooth muscles
160. Specify the optimum method of oxygen therapy at the stage of asthmatic status in children.
A. Periodically 40% moistened oxygen through a mask

B. Permanent the clean moistened oxygen through a mask

C. * Permanent 40% moistened oxygen through a mask
D. Periodically the clean moistened oxygen through a mask
E. Artificial ventilation of lungs
161. Such auscultation picture may be determined at obstructive bronchitis, except:
A. * Local decrease of vesicular breathing
B. Increase vesicular breathing
C. Rough breathing
D. Puerile breathing
E. Bronchus breathing
162. The anti-inflammation drugs during asthma are:
A. * Intal
B. Tailed
C. Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
163. The anti-inflammations drugs during asthma are not include:
A. Cromoglicat natrium
B. Nedocromil natrium
C. * Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
164. The auscultation picture of asthma attack does not include:
A. The grate quantity of rales
B. Dry rales
C. Whistling rales
D. * Local rales
E. Diffuse rales
165. The basic anti-inflammation treatment of asthma is prescribed during:
A. 6 months
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 year
D. * 2 months
E. 1 month
166. The basic criteria of bronchitis are all, except:
A. Subfebrile temperature
B. * Acrocyanosis
C. Cough
D. Wheezing
E. Rales
167. The beginning of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * Catarrhal syndrome
B. Allergic reactions
C. Inspiration dyspnea
D. Expiration dyspnea
E. Tonsillitis

168. The chest falls on inspiration and rises on expiration. What type of respiration is it?
A. Kussmauls respiration
B. * Paradoxical respiration
C. Normal respiration
D. Biots respiration
E. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
169. The contributory factors of obstructive bronchitis are all, except:
A. * Genetics factors
B. Chronic diseases of larynx and pharynx
C. Ecologies
D. Bad habits
E. Acute bronchitis
170. The criteria of acute obstructive bronchitis are all, except:
A. * Severe intoxication
B. The great quantity of dry rales
C. Nonproductive cough
D. Box sound during percussion
E. Perivascular infiltration of lung tissue
171. The diagnostic criteria of asthmatic status is:
A. 2 is below than 80 mm Hg, 2 is more than 20mm Hg
B. * 2 is below than 60 mm Hg, 2 is more than 60mm Hg
C. 2 is below than 70 mm Hg, 2 is more than 30mm Hg
D. 2 is below than 50 mm Hg, 2 is more than 50mm Hg
E. 2 is below than 60 mm Hg, 2 is more than 30mm Hg
172. The diagnostic criterion of asthmatic status is:
A. stage of respiratory failure
B. Dry unproductive cough
C. * Resistence to sympathomimetics
D. Emphysema of lungs
E. Atelectasis of lungs
173. The drug for treatment of mild intermittent asthma is:
A. * Cromoglicat natrium
B. Berotek
C. Aspirin
D. Flexotil
E. Prednisolone
174. The final diagnosis of pulmonary agenesia and hypoplasia is based on:
A. X-ray
B. Bronchoscopy
C. * Bronchography
D. MRI
E. CT
175. The greatest quantity of ticks is present in:
A. Soft toys
B. Soft furniture
C. Bed

D. * Carpet
E. On floor
176. The main link in development of asthma attack in school age is:
A. * Bronchospazm
B. Edema of mucous
C. Emphysema
D. Allergic reaction antigen - antibody
E. Plethora of lungs
177. e main symptom of acute bronchitis is:
A. Wheezing
B. Pain in throat
C. * Cough
D. Dyspnea
E. Hyperthermia
178. The main symptom of asthma is:
A. Wheezing
B. Sneezing
C. * Dyspnea
D. Cough
E. Intoxication
179. The main treatment of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. Liquidation of viruses
B. Desintoxication therapy
C. * Normalization of drainage function of bronchus
D. Rehydratation therapy
E. Antibiotics
180. The marker of atopia is:
A. * Hyperglobulinemia E
B. Hyperglobulinemia A
C. Hyperglobulinemia G
D. Eosinophylia
E. Leucopoenia
181. The mild course of persistent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day not more than once a week but less
B. than one time a day
C. * Frequency of attacks during night time - more than 2 time a month
D. Often attack at night
E. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) > 80% or 80%
F. Using of inhalators b-2 antagonists every day
182. The moderate course of persistent asthma does not include:
A. Frequency of attacks during day every day
B. Frequency of attacks during night time - more than once a week
C. * Often attack in night
D. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) 60-80%
E. Using of inhalators corticosteroids every day 800-2000 mkg
183. The percussion sign of acute bronchitis is:

A. Lung sound
B. * Lung sound with box tone
C. Shortness of lung sound
D. Shortness of lung sound in lower parts of lungs
E. Tympanic sound
184. The time of acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. 3 5 days
B. 5 7 days
C. 1 2 weeks
D. * 3 4 weeks
E. 56 weeks
185. The time of giving antibiotic during acute period of obstructive bronchitis is:
A. * 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
E. 1 month
186. The X-ray criteria of acute bronchitis is all, except:
A. * Atelectasis
B. Increase of lung pattern
C. Perivascular infiltration
D. Peribronchial infiltration
E. Infiltration of roots
187. There is not typical such type of rales during bronchitis:
A. Diffuse
B. Symmetrical
C. * Local
D. Decreasing or disappearing of rales after cough
E. Dry rales
188. We see hyperventilation, gasping and labored respiration. What type of breathing is it?
A. * Kussmauls breathing
B. Paradoxical breathing
C. Normal breathing
D. Biots breathing
E. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
189. What are the anatomical and physiological characteristics of the bronchopulmonary system
contributed to the development of obstructive syndrome in infants?
A. * Hypoplasia of respiratory muscles
B. The rich vascularization of the mucous membrane
C. Incomplete formation of ciliated epithelium of the mucous membrane of bronchi
D. The presence of a multilane cylindrical epithelium in the mucosa of the trachea and bronchi
E. Mucous membranes are rich with lymphoid tissue
190. What complication is rare at cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. * Malignancy

D. Emphysema
E. Atelectasis
191. What cough is characteristic for bronchial asthma?
A. Productive
B. * Nonproductive
C. Moist
D. Dry
E. All transferred
192. What examination is most important in the case of bronchitis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Culture of sputum
C. Culture of alveolar fluid
D. Biochemical examination of the blood (hyponatremia, hypokaliemia)
E. * Chest X-ray
193. What is agenesia of lung?
A. Absence of lung tissue in the presence of rudimentary bronchus
B. * Absence of lung together with the main bronchus
C. Absence of differentiation of lung tissue
D. Absence of alveoli
E. Poor vascularization
194. What is aplasia of lung?
A. * Absence of lung tissue in the presence of rudimentary bronchus
B. Absence of lung together with the main bronchus
C. Absence of differentiation of lung tissue
D. Absence of alveoli
E. Poor vascularization
195. What is bradypnea?
A. The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. * The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing
E. The decrease of the respiratory depth
196. What is characteristic for viral laryngotracheitis?
A. Hoarse voice, dry cough
B. An obtrusive cough, voice is not changed
C. Cock scream, cough is absent
D. Moist cough without the change of voice
E. * Hoarse voice, rough barking cough
197. What is prescribed at asthmatic status?
A. Nothing of these
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Intravenously euphyllini
D. Oxygen therapy
E. * All of these
198. What is tachypnea?
A. * The increase of the respiratory rate
B. The distress during breathing
C. The decrease of the respiratory rate
D. The cessation of breathing
E. The increase of the respiratory depth
199. What is the main feature of bronchiolitis?
A. Puerile breathing
B. Dry wrestling rales
C. Course bubbling rales in lower parts of lungs
D. * Diffuse fine rales
E. Decreased vesicular breathing
200. What is the reason of acute upper respiratory tracts obstruction?
A. Convultions of a different etiology
B. Poisoning
C. * Viral laryngotracheitis
D. All of these
E. Nothing of these
201. What is usual ratio of breaths to heartbeats?
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. * 1:4
E. 1:5
202. What main clinical features are useful in the diagnosis of bronchiolitis?
A. Paroxysmal cough
B. * Wheezing
C. Tachypnea
D. Dyspnea
E. Tension and swelling of the nostris
203. What main X-ray features are useful in the diagnosis of acute bronchitis?
A. * Perivascular and peribronhial infiltration
B. Particularly clear lung field
C. Hyperinflation
D. Occasional scattered areas of consolidation
E. Local infiltration of lung tissue
204. What mechanisms are leading in the development of bronchial obstruction in young children?
A. * Edema of the mucous
B. Hypersecretion
C. Bronchospasm
D. Violation of the function ciliated epithelium
E. All transferred
205. What preparations must not be applied at asthmatic status?
A. * Glucocorticoids
B. Sympathomimetics
C. Euphyllini
D. No-spani
E. Cardiac glucozides

206. What special substances may be found in sputum in case of bronchial asthma?
A. * Eosinophyls
B. Erythrocytes
C. Neuthrophyls
D. Leucocytes
E. Monocytes
207. What stage of larynx stenosis is the immediate indication for intubation with artificial ventilation?
A. Only in extreme cases
B.
C.
D.
E. * V
208. X-ray criterion of acute bronchitis is:
A. * Symmetrical increasing of lung pattern
B. Symmetrical decreasing of lung pattern
C. Infiltration of lung tissue
D. Infiltration of lung tissue near roots
E. Symmetrical decreasing of lung pattern and infiltration of lung tissue
209. During the treatment of asthma broncholitics must be introduced:
A. Parenterally
B. Orally
C. In inhalations
D. * Doses inhalators
E. Parenterally and orally
210. For treatment the severe persistent asthma is used:
A. * Glucocorticoids
B. Euphyllini
C. Intal
D. Adrenaline
E. Tailed
211. The children of what age may have acute laryngotracheal stenosis?
A. 2-5 years
B. * 1-3 years
C. 3-7 years
D. 5-7 years
E. In any age
212. The diagnostic criterion of asthmatic status is:
A. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing, that cant be treated during 2 hours
B. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing, that cant be treated during 3 hours
C. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing, that cant be treated during 4 hours
D. Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing, that cant be treated during 5 hours
E. * Presence of attack of difficulty in breathing, that cant be treated during 6 hours
F. Cough
213. There is necessary to use for control the effect of treatment of bronchial asthma:
A. Spirography
B. ECG

C. Allergic tests
D. * Peakflowmetria
E. X-ray
214. Chest in children with chronic lung disease is:
A. Conic
B. Cylindrical
C. * Asymmetrical
D. Bulging
E. Pigeon breast
215. Clinical features in 70% of cases of cystic fibrosis is detected during:
A. The first 2 months of life
B. The first 1 year of life
C. * The first 2 years of life
D. 5-7years of life
E. School age
216. Congenital lobar emphysema primarily involves:
A. * Upper lobes
B. Low lobes
C. Right middle lobe
D. Left low lobe
E. Right low lobe
217. Cyanosis, shortness of breath, coughing, choking during breastfeeding occur at:
A. * Tracheoesophageal and bronchoesophageal fistulas
B. Atresia of the esophagus
C. Tracheobronchomegalia
D. Atonia of esophagus
E. Cogenital achalasia of esophagus
218. Cystic adenomatoid malformation is a defect in the development of:
A. Alveolars
B. * Terminal bronchioles
C. Little bronchi
D. Middle bronchi
E. All structures of bronchial tree
219. Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed in the early days of life in the form:
A. Pulmonary
B. Enteric
C. Mixed
D. * Meconium ileus
E. Edematous-anemic
220. Duration of antibacterial therapy at chronic lung disease in children is:
A. One month
B. 2 months
C. 7-14 days
D. * 14-21 days
E. 21-28 days
221. During the chronisation of inflammation process in bronchus it is not important:

A. Disturbance of mucociliar clirense

B. Decrease of local immunity
C. * Endocrine disbalance
D. General destabilization of organism
E. Spasms of bronchus
222. Dyspnea at chronic lung disease in children is often:
A. Expiratory
B. Inspiratory
C. * Mixed
D. Associated only with physical activity
E. Associated with emotions
223. Final diagnose of pulmonary hypoplasia is based on:
A. * Bronchography
B. Bronchoscopy
C. X-ray examination
D. US observation of lungs
E. CTG
224. Hamman-Rich syndrome is characterized by:
A. Rapidly progressive diffuse pulmonary fibrosis
B. Respiratory failure
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Cor pulmonale
E. * All transferred
225. Hamman-Rich syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Rapidly progressive diffuse pulmonary fibrosis
B. Bronchial agenesia
C. Tracheobronchomegalia
D. Bronchial aplasia
E. All transferred
226. How long after the exacerbation of chronic lung disease children can be send to a spa treatment?
A. It is the second stage
B. After 1 month
C. * After 3 months
D. After 6 months
E. After year
227. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis is a disease in which the main symptom is:
A. Recurrent haemorrhage in lung tissue
B. Development of fibrosis
C. Hemosiderin deposition
D. * All transferred
E. Nothing of transferred
228. In period of remission of chronic bronchitis on X-ray is absent:
A. Increase of lung pattern
B. Deformation of lung picture
C. Enlargement of roots
D. Infiltration of roots

E. * Normal X-ray
229. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome.
A. Tracheobronchomegalia
B. Accessory bronchus
C. Bronchial agenesia
D. Bronchial aplasia
E. * Chronic bronchopulmonary process
230. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome.
A. Bronchial agenesia
B. Tracheobronchomegalia
C. Bronchial aplasia
D. * Pathology of paranasal sinuses (hypoplasia or chronic sinusitis)
E. Bronchial diverticulum
231. Name one of the defects at Kartagener syndrome.
A. Atonia of esophagus
B. Cogenital achalasia of esophagus
C. * Sinus viscerus inversus
D. Congenital heart disease
E. Lung hypoplasia
232. Name right assertion about Williams Campbell syndrome.
A. The clinical picture is the bronchial obstruction
B. The clinical picture is bronchopulmonary infection
C. Chronic bronchopulmonary process is formed
D. Chest is like hump
E. * All are right
233. Name the causes of lung hypoplasia.
A. Prolonged rupture of membranes
B. Renal dysplasia
C. Neuromuscular diseases
D. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
E. * All transferred
234. Name the changes of cardio-vascular system at lung agenesia and hypoplasia.
A. Congenital heart diseases
B. * Heart is shifted toward the lesion
C. Dull heart tones
D. Tachycardia
E. All transferred
235. Name the localization of process at Williams Campbell syndrome.
A. Upper lobes
B. * Low lobes
C. Right middle lobe
D. Left low lobe
E. Right low lobe
236. Name the main treatment of cystic adenomatoid malformation.
A. Symptomatic
B. Antibiotics

C. Oxygen therapy
D. Physiotherapy
E. * Surgical
237. Name the right assertion about cough at Williams Campbell syndrome.
A. Cough is permanent with shortness of breath
B. * Cough is resistant with shortness of breath
C. Cough is permanent with prolonged breath
D. Cough is resistant with prolonged breath
E. Resistant attack of cough
238. Name wrong assertion about congenital lobar emphysema.
A. * There is frequent anomaly
B. There is rare anomaly
C. Quickly leads to death of newborns
D. Disease is characterized by narrowing of the bronchus
E. All are wrong
239. Name wrong assertion about pathophysiologic process at traheobronchomegalia.
A. Softened and lost their resilience cartilages of the trachea and major bronchi
B. * Trachea and major bronchi increase exhalation and cough
C. Trachea and major bronchi decrease exhalation and cough
D. Bronchial drainage function is disrupted
E. Suppuration in the distal lung
240. Name wrong assertion about surgical treatment at sequestration of the lung.
A. In asymptomatic patients
B. Obligatory after diagnostics
C. At compression of normal lung mass
D. It is preventive measure
E. * Only in patients with recurrent infections
241. Of all congenital lung malformations cystic adenomatoid malformation accounts for:
A. 10%
B. * 25%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 80%
242. Pathological changes in the lungs are characterized by symptoms of:
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Diffuse pneumosclerosis
D. Permanent obstructive syndrome
E. * All transferred
243. Radiological examination of the lungs at cystic fibrosis reveals:
A. Widespread peribronchial changes
B. Infiltrative changes
C. Sclerotic changes
D. Atelectasis on the background of marked emphysema
E. * All transferred
244. Relatives of the patient should be taught techniques of:
A. * Postural drainage
B. Injections
C. Monitoring a feces
D. Monitoring a body weight
E. All transferred
245. Respiratory failure at chronic lung disease in children develops:
A. Very quickly
B. For several days
C. For several months
D. Acutely
E. * Gradually
246. Secondary chronic pneumonia develops:
A. 1 month after acute pneumonia
B. After "foreign body" of bronchi
C. * At systemic diseases and hereditary diseases of the lungs
D. At reduced immunity
E. After aspiration
247. The consequence of gene mutation at cystic fibrosis is a disturbance of the structure and function of:
A. Collagen
B. * Protein
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Connective tissue
E. Endocrine cells
248. The Hamman-Rich syndrome manifests itself mainly in:
A. Infants
B. Newborns
C. * Preschoolers
D. School age
E. Teen ages
249. The incidence of lung hypoplasia is higher in:
A. Big birth weight infants
B. Low birth weight infants
C. Newborns after pathological pregnancy
D. Newborns after pathological delivery
E. * Preterm infants
250. The increased viscosity of bronchial secretion in cystic fibrosis patients leads to:
A. Development mucostasis
B. Occlusions of small bronchi and bronchioles
C. Development of emphysema
D. Formation of atelectases
E. * All transferred
251. The intestinal obstruction in cystic fibrosis patients on the 3-4-th day of life is associated with:
A. * Pneumonia
B. Perforation of the intestine
C. Meconium peritonitis
D. Pancreas insufficiency

E. Collapse
252. The main diagnostic value at cystic adenomatoid malformation have next investigations:
A. X-ray and CT
B. Bronchoscopy and X-ray
C. X-ray and bronchography
D. * CT and bronchography
E. Bronchoscopy and bronchography
253. The main diagnostic value at sequestration of the lung has:
A. * Angiography
B. Bronchoscopy
C. X-ray
D. Bronchography
E. CT
254. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes:
A. Antihistamines
B. * Corticosteroids
C. Diuretics
D. Bronchodilatators
E. Expectorants
255. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes:
A. Oxygen therapy
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Antibiotics
D. Desintoxication
E. * All transferred
256. Treatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes:
A. Antihistamines
B. * Diuretics
C. Ferrum drugs
D. Expectorants
E. Diuretics
257. What are not the first symptoms of broncho-pulmonary forms of cystic fibrosis?
A. Fatigue
B. Paleness of the skin
C. Lack of weight gain with satisfactory appetite
D. Hacking cough
E. * Dry rales
258. What are the auscultation signs of chronic lung disease in children?
A. A variety of wheezes
B. A variety of dry and moist rales
C. * Permanent local fine rales
D. Amphoric breathing
E. Crepitation
259. What are the peculiarities of radiological changes in the idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis?
A. * Rapid regression of foci shadows
B. Interstitial pneumosclerosis

C. Diffuse deformation of lung pattern

D. Cysts in the lungs
E. All transferred
260. What are the rare complications of cystic fibrosis?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pyopneumothorax
C. Pulmonary hemorrhages
D. * All transferred
E. Nothing of transferred
261. What auscultation data are characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. Thoracic respiration
B. Gasps
C. Moist rales
D. * Tender crepitation wheezing
E. Whistling rales
262. What auscultation data are characteristic for traheobronchomegalia?
A. Fine rales
B. Crepitation
C. Dry rales
D. * Variety of wheezing
E. All transferred
263. What bronchi are involved in process at traheobronchomegalia?
A. * Main
B. Segmental
C. Subsegmental
D. Small
E. All
264. What changes in blood are characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. Polycythemia
B. Polyglobulinemia
C. ESR is increased
D. Concentrations of gamma-globulin is elevated
E. * All transferred
265. What clinic is characteristic for Kartagener syndrome?
A. Early occurrence of chronic bronchitis and pneumonia
B. Development of bronchiectasis
C. Bronchiectasis symptoms
D. Dextrocardia
E. * All transferred
266. What clinical form is absent at cystic fibrosis?
A. Mostly pulmonary
B. Mostly enteric form
C. Mixed form
D. Meconium ileus
E. * All are present
267. What clinical symptom is common for congenital lung diseases?

A. Tachycardia
B. Bradicardia
C. * Prolonged cough
D. Deformation of chest
E. All of transferred
268. What complication is characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. * Respiratory failure
B. Pneumonia
C. Purulent endobronchitis
D. Pneumothorax
E. All transferred
269. What does predominate the clinics of cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. Hypoxia
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. * Disturbance of the drainage function
D. Arrhythmic respiration
E. Respiratory failure
270. What extrapulmonary signs do occur at idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis?
A. Cor pulmanale
B. * Anemia
C. Hypoxic encephalopathy
D. Left heart failure
E. Mental retardation
271. What form at cystic fibrosis is the most severe?
A. Mostly pulmonary
B. Mostly enteric
C. * Mixed form
D. Meconium ileus
E. Atypical and abortive forms (edematous-anemic, cirrhotic, and others)
272. What form of chest is characteristic for congenital lung diseases?
A. * Bulging chest
B. Scoliosis
C. Kiphoscoliosis
D. Navicular chest
E. Pigeon breast
273. What is a poor prognostic sign for the patient with cystic fibrosis?
A. * Presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in sputum
B. Progressive respiratory failure
C. Fibrosis of pancreas
D. Prolonged pneumonia
E. Meconium ileus
274. What is atypical in the initial stage of primary pulmonary hypertension?
A. Poor tolerance to physical activity
B. Shortness of breath
C. Attacks of breathlessness
D. * Cardiologic

E. Weakness
275. What is involving in the pathological process at long course of cystic fibrosis?
A. Heart
B. * Nasopharynx
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
E. Kidney
276. What is not characteristic for cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. Dullness of percussion sounds
B. Respiratory failure
C. Auscultation with the weakening of breath
D. Wheezing of various sizes
E. * Dry rales
277. What is not characteristic for lung agenesia?
A. Cyanosis
B. The heart is shifted toward the lesion
C. On the lesion side thorax is flattened, and the healthy half is convex
D. * On the lesion side thorax is convex, and the healthy half is flattened
E. "drumsticks" phalanx
278. What is not characteristic for pathomorphologic changes in primary pulmonary hypertension?
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy
B. Expansion of large branches of pulmonary artery
C. * Congenital pathology of the heart
D. Atriovenose anastomoses
E. Thrombosis
279. What is not characteristic for pulmonary sequestration?
A. Chronic cough
B. Recurrent pneumonias
C. Poor exercise performance
D. * Pain in the chest
E. Congestive cardiac failure
280. What is one of the first signs parents notice at cystic fibrosis?
A. * Salty taste of the skin
B. Blockage in the bowel
C. Coughing or wheezing
D. Greasy stools
E. Thick sputum
281. What is pulmonary sequestration?
A. Increasing of the number of lobes
B. Increasing of the mass of lobes
C. Histological changes of lung tissue
D. * Benign mass of non-functioning lung tissue
E. Intralobar malformation
282. What is the form of chest at cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. * Asymmetrical
B. Conic

C. Cylindrical
D. Bulging
E. Pigeon breast
283. What is the leading component of complex treatment of chronic lung disease in children?
A. Antibacterial therapy
B. * Restoration of bronchial drainage function
C. General stimulation therapy
D. Therapeutic feeding
E. Immune therapy
284. What is the main distinguishing clinical feature of traheobronchomegalia?
A. Attack of cough
B. Dry unproductive cough
C. Wet unproductive cough
D. * Bitonal irritating cough
E. Dry productive cough
285. What is the main distinguishing feature of sequestration of the lung?
A. Progressive respiratory failure
B. Chronic cough
C. Recurrent chest infections
D. * Additional large vessel
E. Small bubbling moist rales
286. What is the main observation to diagnose the tracheoesophageal and bronchoesophageal fistulas?
A. CT
B. X-ray examination
C. * Bronchoscopically with the introduction of contrast into the esophagus
D. Bronchogram
E. Suction of trachea content
287. What is the main pathophysiological mechanism at congenital lobar emphysema?
A. Narrowing of the bronchus
B. * Valve mechanism of respiration
C. Stretching of the parenchyma of the lung lobe
D. Stretching of the parenchyma of a segment
E. Mucociliar insufficiency
288. What is the main phatophysiologic mechanism of Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. Violation of mucociliary clearance
B. * Auto-sensitization of connective tissue
C. Disorganization of muscular tissue
D. Structure disorders of respiratory tract
E. All transferred
289. What is the main phatophysiologic mechanism of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis?
A. * Anomaly of arteriolar-venular anastomoses
B. Narrowing of arterioles
C. Narrowing of venulaes
D. Auto-sensitization of connective tissue
E. All transferred
290. What is the main sing in differential diagnosis of lung aplasia and pulmonary agenesia?
A. X-ray changes
B. Bronchoscopic changes
C. * The absence of the carina in the latter
D. Abnormalities of the vertebrae
E. Abnormalities of cardiovascular system
291. What is the main treatment at congenital lobar emphysema?
A. Conservative
B. Oxygen
C. * Emergency lobectomy
D. Surgical at progressive respiratory failure
E. Combined
292. What is the most effective way of introduction to antibacterial drugs at chronic lung disease in
children?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Endobronchial
D. * Intraorgan electrophoresis
E. In inhalations
293. What is the reason of chronic cough in children with pulmonary sequestration?
A. Pressure on lung tissue
B. Mucociliar insufficiency
C. * Recurrent chest infections
D. Disturbance of the drainage function
E. All transferred
294. What is the reason of primary pulmonary hypertension?
A. Congenital pathology of the heart
B. Acquired pathology of the heart
C. Congenital pathology of the lungs
D. Acquired pathology of the lungs
E. * Nothing of transferred
295. What is the reason of Williams Campbell syndrome?
A. * Bronchial cartilage defect
B. Bronchial muscular defect
C. Mucociliar insufficiency
D. Atrophy of the longitudinal elastic fibres
E. Disturbance of the drainage function
296. What is the requirement for antibacterial drugs which are used for inhalations at chronic lung disease
in children?
A. Broad-spectrum
B. Good dissolution in water
C. Selective action on gram negative flora
D. Selective action on gram positive flora
E. * Minimal sensitization
297. What is wrong assertion about cystic adenomatoid malformation?
A. Cysts may be filled with air or fluid
B. * Cysts can not be asymptomatic
C. Cysts arise from an abnormal budding of the ventral foregut

D. Infection, hemorrhage, and malignancy can occur

E. Dysphagia and epigastric discomfort can occur
298. What is wrong assertion about cystic fibrosis?
A. It is a hereditary systemic disease caused by mutation of cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator
B. It is characterized by exocrine glands disorders
C. * Pathological gene is localized in the middle of the long arm of chromosome 5
D. It is characterized by severe impaired function of the respiratory and gastro-intestinal tract
E. The disease is the result of gene mutation
299. What is wrong assertion about cystic fibrosis?
A. Difficult output of a viscous exocrine glands secretion
B. Expansion of the excretory ducts of glands
C. * Narrowing of the excretory ducts of glands
D. Atrophy of glandular tissue
E. Development of progressive fibrosis of exocrine glands
300. What is wrong assertion about liver changes at cystic fibrosis?
A. Focal or diffuse fatty and protein dystrophy of liver cells
B. Bile stasis in the interlobular bile ducts
C. Interlobular lymphohistiocytic infiltrates in intralobular layers
D. * Development of hepatitis
E. Fibrous transformation and development of cirrhosis
301. What is wrong assertion about primary pulmonary hypertension.
A. The disease is usually fatal
B. The development of new directions in treatment can increase survival and improve quality of life of
patients
C. Primary pulmonary hypertension affects mainly young patients
D. The reason of death is the developing prolonged functional overload the right heart
E. * Prognosis in the cases of early treatment is favorable
302. What main treatment is used at Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. * Corticosteroids
B. Antibiotics
C. Bronchodilatators
D. Expectorants
E. All transferred
303. What symptom does indicate the long-term hypoxemia?
A. Cyanosis of nasolabial triangle
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Wet cough more in the morning
D. Hyperhidrosis
E. * Deformation of the terminal phalanges as "drumsticks" and "watch glasses"
304. What syndrome is common for congenital lung diseases?
A. * Obstructive
B. Cardio-vascular
C. Intoxication
D. Intestinal
E. Respiratory failure
305. What treatment is used at Williams Campbell syndrome?

A. Only surgical
B. Surgical and conservative
C. * Only conservative
D. Physiotherapy
E. Lung transplantation
306. What type of inheritance is characteristic for cystic fibrosis?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. * Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked autosomal dominant
D. X-linked autosomal recessive
E. Y-linked autosomal dominant
307. What type of inheritance is characteristic for Hamman-Rich syndrome?
A. * Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked autosomal dominant
D. X-linked autosomal recessive
E. Y-linked autosomal dominant
308. What type of inheritance is characteristic for Kartagener syndrome?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. * Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked autosomal dominant
D. X-linked autosomal recessive
E. Y-linked autosomal dominant
309. What ventilatory insufficiency is present at traheobronchomegalia?
A. Inspiratory
B. Expiratory
C. * Combined
D. Restrictive
E. Obstructive
310. What X-ray changes are characteristic for chronic lung disease in children?
A. Infiltration of lung tissue in basal areas
B. Lung tissue infiltration on the tops of the lungs
C. Availability of cavities
D. * Increased and deformation of the lung pattern
E. Scanty lung pattern
311. Williams Campbell syndrome is:
A. Tracheobronchomegalia
B. Sclerotic changes in the peribronchial tissues
C. Deformation of trachea and bronchi
D. Expansion of the lumen of the trachea and main bronchi
E. * Congenital generalized bronchiectasis
312. A newborn has tachycardia if the resting rate is more than:
A. 120 beats per minute
B. 40 beats per minute
C. * 160 beats per minute
D. 180 beats per minute

E. 200 beats per minute

313. A teenager is considered to have tachycardia if the resting heart rate is more than:
A. 80 beats per minute
B. * 90 beats per minute
C. 100 beats per minute
D. 110 beats per minute
E. 120 beats per minute
314. Acute increasing of cardiac contractions at paroxismal tachycardia causes:
A. Increasing of cardiac output
B. Increasing of minute circulatory volume
C. Increasing of circulation time
D. * Diminishment of percussion volume of heart
E. All transferred
315. An exercising teenager may have a normal heart rate of up to
A. 120 beats per minute
B. 140 beats per minute
C. 160 beats per minute
D. 180 beats per minute
E. * 200 beats per minute
316. Centralization of blood circulation with the increase of CBV takes place due to:
A. A. Decline of hydrostatical pressure and moving of blood from intersticia to blood vessels
B. B. Throwing out the additional blood from depot
C. C. Increases of readsorbtion of sodium and water in proximal kidney channels
D. D. Nothing of these
E. * E. All of these
317. Clinic of paroxismal tachycardia includes:
A. Cardiac tones are increased
B. Embriocardia
C. Arterial pressure is reduced.
D. Pale skin
E. * All transferred
318. Paroxismal tachycardia is the attacks of acute tachycardia, which arises up suddenly and lasts:
A. A few seconds
B. A few minutes
C. A few hours
D. * All transferred
E. Nothing of transferred
319. Ventricular tachycardia may be best managed with:
A. * Implanted defibrillator
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Medications
D. Open-heart surgery
E. Catheter radiofrequency ablation
320. What complains are not characteristic for paroxismal tachycardia?
A. Unpleasant feelings in the region of heart
B. Squeezing pain in a breast

C. Pain in a epigastrial area

D. Dizziness, vomit
E. * All are characteristic
321. What is not the reason of cardiac arrhythmia?
A. Functional disorders (psychogenic, reflex)
B. Organic disorders (heart disease, carditis, etc.)
C. Toxic disorders (eg, an overdose of drugs digitalis)
D. Hormonal disorders (eg, imbalance of hormones thyroid)
E. * All transferred
322. What is the reason of cardiac arrhythmia?
A. Electrolyte disturbances (eg, changes in the level of potassium in the blood)
B. Mechanical disorders (surgery, trauma)
C. Congenital disorders (eg, WPW syndrome)
D. * Pneumonia
E. All transferred
323. What is the best method for diagnostic of arrhythmias?
A. ECG
B. * Holter-monitoring
C. EchoCG
D. Heart catheterization
E. All transferred
324. Irritation of nervus vagus is effective at:
A. Ventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia
B. * Supraventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia
C. All forms of paroxysmal tachycardia
D. Has mild effectivity
E. Supporting of medicines
325. The first medicine at treatment of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia is:
A. Cordaroni
B. Novocainomidi
C. Corgluconi
D. * Lidocaini
E. Seduxeni
326. The result of paroxysmal tachycardia attack is:
A. Neurovegetative changes in an organism
B. Pathology of the explorer cardiac system
C. * Coronal insufficiency and blood circulation insufficiency
D. All of these
E. Nothing of these
327. Paroxismal tachycardia is the attack of sudden tachycardia:
A. More than 90-100 per minute
B. More than 110-130 per minute
C. More than 130-140 per minute
D. * More than 150-180 per minute
E. More than 200 per minute
328. Specify the method of irritation of nervus vagus at paroxysmal tachycardia.

A. Vomitive reflex
B. Tension (the Valsalvi method)
C. Delay of breathing
D. Squat
E. * All of these
329. Syncope arises up in children with:
A. Promoted sensitiveness to the pain irritants
B. Fright, strong emotions
C. Insufficiency of oxygen in the apartment
D. Promoted sensitiveness to unpleasant procedures (injections, blood analysis)
E. * At all of these
330. The best medicines at symphatotic collapse are:
A. Cordiamini, caffeini
B. Eyphyllini, salbutamoli
C. * Droperidoli,aminasini
D. Adrenalini, mezatoni
E. Reopolyglucini, polyglucini
331. A paralytic collapse is the result of:
A. Any severe toxaemia and hypercatecholamia
B. * Accumulations of histamines, kinings, prostaglandins
C. Increases of nervus vagus tonus
D. All of these
E. Nothing of these
332. A vagotonic collapse is the result of:
A. Accumulations of histamines, kinings, prostaglandins
B. Any severe toxaemia and hypercatecholamia
C. * Increases of nervus vagus tonus
D. All of these
E. Nothing of these
333. Clinical picture, when the child is undynamic, consciousness is oppressed, face lines are sharp, the
skin is marble, sticky sweat is present, veins are empty is characteristic for:
A. Vagotonic collapse
B. Symphatotonic collapse
C. * Paralytic collapse
D. Post hemorragic collapse
E. All types of collapse
334. It is recommended to use for inhalation at syncope:
A. Liquid ammonia
B. Vinegar
C. Horse-radish
D. Garlic
E. * All of these
335. Pallor skin, cold extremities, increase of body temperature and systolic arterial pressure and loud
heart tones are observed at:
A. * Sympathetic collapse
B. Paralytic collapse
C. Vagotonic collapse
D. Post hemorragic collapse
E. At all types of collapse
336. Position of patient at syncope must be:
A. Horizontal with the low position of feet
B. * Horizontal with high position of feet
C. Half sitting with the inclined head to the right
D. Half sitting with the inclined head to the left
E. Raised with the low position of feet
337. The best medicines at paralytic collapse are:
A. Droperidoli, aminasini
B. Eyphyllini, salbutamoli
C. Cordiamini, caffeini
D. Reopolyglucini, polyglucini
E. * Adrenalini, mezatoni
338. The general electrocardiography criteria of paroxysmal tachycardia are:
A. Presence 3 and anymore groups of extrasystoles
B. Absence of compensating pause
C. Cardiac frequency more than 150 per 1 minute
D. * Outbreak and sudden end
E. All of these
339. What does not lead to the loss of consciousness at syncope?
A. Infectious disease
B. Hypoxia
C. * Exhaustion
D. Anemia
E. All of these
340. What is the reason of acute right heart insufficiency?
A. * RDS in newborns
B. Acute myocarditis
C. Congenital carditis
D. Cardiomyopathy
E. All of these
341. Appearance of systolic murmur with an epicenter above an apex occurs at left heart failure due to:
A. Violation of conductive heart system
B. * Development of relative insufficiency to the AV-valve
C. Hypertrophy of myocardium
D. Mitral insufficiency
E. All transferred
342. Attempts to convert and maintain sinus rhythm can be approached by:
A. In-hospital electrical cardioversion
B. In-hospital chemical cardioversion
C. Outpatient antiarrhythmic medication therapy
D. Catheter ablation procedure
E. * All transferred
343. Basic in determination of clinical death is:
A. Absence of the independent breathing

B. Absence of photoreaction of pupils on light

C. * Permanent expansion of pupils
D. Absence of pulse on carotid and femoral arteries
E. All of these
344. Cardiac asthma mainly occurs:
A. In the morning
B. * At night
C. In the evening
D. During day
E. At any time
345. Chronic cardio-vascular insufficiency is distinguished as:
A. Left heart, right heart, arythmogenes, total
B. Systolic, diastolic, mixed
C. * On stages: -A, I-B, -A, II-B,
D. Left heart, right heart, systolic, diastolic
E. All of these
346. Clinical death comes at hypothermia in the case of the sudden stopping of heart:
A. Till 5 minutes
B. Till 7 minutes
C. Till 9 minutes
D. * Till 10 minutes
E. Till 20 minutes
347. Clinical death comes at normothermia in the case of the sudden stopping of heart:
A. * Till 5 minutes
B. Till 7 minutes
C. Till 10 minutes
D. Till 15 minutes
E. Till 20 minutes
348. Ejection fraction is a powerful tool to classify those in the population with:
A. Necessity of long-term medical therapy
B. Necessity of surgical treatment
C. * Higher-risk of sudden cardiac death
D. Risk of ventricular tachycardia
E. Risk of supraventricular tachycardia
349. Electric heart defibrillation is produced at:
A. * Fibrillation of ventricles
B. Uneffective cardiac- pulmonary resuscitation
C. Always on the third stage of cardiac- pulmonary resuscitation
D. Asystolia
E. All indicated cases
350. Hemodynamic manifestation of cardiac decompensation is:
A. Tachycardia
B. * Reduced minute volume of blood
C. Reduced volume of circulating blood
D. Reduced venous pressure
E. Increased venous pressure

351. Hypertensive crisis at children may be complicated:

A. By a brain hemorrhage
B. By the lungs edema
C. By the myocardium infarction
D. * By all of these
E. By nothing of these
352. Intracardiac introduction of medicines due to great amount of complications during the cardiac-
pulmonary resuscitation is better to replace on:
A. Intravenous micro stream
B. Intravenous stream
C. Intravenous slow
D. * Endotracheal
E. Inhalation
353. Leading pharmakodynamic effect of digitalis in congestive heart failure is:
A. Reducing venous pressure
B. Reduced edema
C. * Reduction of diastolic heart improve contractions of myocardium
D. Reducing the volume of blood
E. None of the allegations are right
354. Most frequent reason of primary stopping of heart is:
A. Acute cardiac insufficiency
B. Acute obstruction of cardiac vessels
C. Acute great deficit of circulatory blood volume
D. Sudden falling of vessels tonus
E. * All of these
355. Name a list of tests that the doctor may order at sick sinus syndrome in children.
A. ECG
B. Holter monitoring
C. Event monitoring
D. Electrophysiology studies
E. * All transferred
356. Name ECG characteristic of WPW syndrome:
A. Very fast rate, SVT
B. A-fib/flutter
C. Delta wave
D. Shortened PR-Interval
E. * All transferred
357. Name the dose of 0,25 % Isoptini solution at the supraventricular form of tachycardia:
A. * 0,1-0,15 mg/kg
B. 0,15-0,2 mg/kg
C. 0,2-0,25 mg/kg
D. 0,25-0,3 mg/kg
E. 0,3-0,35 mg/kg
358. Name the dose of 10 % Novocainamidi solution at the supraventricular form of tachycardia:
A. 1-2 mg/kg
B. 2-3 mg/kg

C. * 3-6 mg/kg
D. 6-8 mg/kg
E. 8-10 mg/kg
359. Name the dose of Lidocaini at the ventricular form of tachycardia:
A. * 1-3 mg/kg
B. 3-5 mg/kg
C. 5-7 mg/kg
D. 8-10 mg/kg
E. 10-15 mg/kg
360. Specify the best treatment of attack of paroxysmal tachycardia that was developed on a background
of infection-allergic myocarditis:
A. Morphini
B. Noradrenalini
C. Cardiac glukozides
D. * Phynoptini (izoptini)
E. Hinidini
361. Specify the best treatment of cardiac glucozides intoxication.
A. * Potassium chloride
B. Calcium chloride
C. Anaprillini
D. Phenobarbitali
E. Lidocaini
362. Specify the dose of dibazoli for treatment of hypertensive crisis in children.
A. * 0,1-0,2 ml/kg
B. 0,2-0,3 ml/kg
C. 0,4-0,5 ml/kg
D. 0,6-0,7 ml/kg
E. 0,8-1 ml/kg
363. Specify the most frequent reason of blood circulation stopping in children.
A. * Stopping of heart in a systole or diastole
B. Fibrillation of ventricles
C. Uneffective heart (circulation of blood is saved only in large vessels)
D. Stopping of heart only in a systole
E. Stopping of heart only in a diastole
364. Specify the volume of liquid for intravenous introduction at acute left-heart insufficiency in the
second stage.
A. 20-30 ml/kg of the masses
B. * 30-40 ml/kg of the masses
C. 40-50 ml/kg of the masses
D. 50-60 ml/kg of the masses
E. 60-70 ml/kg of the masses
365. Specify the wrong assertion about ventricular tachycardia.
A. VT may result from serious heart disease
B. Some forms of VT may not need treatment
C. It usually requires prompt treatment
D. Often specialized tests, including an intracardiac electrophysiologic procedure, may be needed
E. * All are right

366. Symptomatic hypertension in children is conditioned:

A. By illnesses of kidneys
B. By the anomalies of vessels
C. By illnesses of adrenal glands
D. By nothing of these
E. * By all of these
367. The first medicine at treatment of supraventricular form of paroxysmal tachycardia is:
A. Corgluconi
B. Novocainamidi
C. * Isoptini
D. Cordaroni
E. Seduxeni
368. The following method of introduction of blood and other blood substitutes is the most effective for
renewal of hemodynamics:
A. Steamily in a vein catheter
B. * Steamily in a artery catheter
C. Slowly in a artery catheter
D. Slowly in a vein catheter
E. Droply in a vein catheter
369. The general electrocardiography criteria of paroxismal tachycardia are:
A. * All transferred
B. Outbreak and sudden end
C. Absence of compensating pause
D. Frequency of cardiac contractions more than 150 per 1 minute
E. Presence of 3 and anymore group of extrasystols
370. The main sing in the determination of clinical death is:
A. Discoloration skin (dead-grey or cyanotic)
B. Absence of consciousness
C. Loss of muscular tone
D. Absence of reflexes
E. * All of these
371. The signs of cardiac insufficiency at paroxismal tachycardia occur:
A. * With the long duration attack
B. Immediately
C. Gradually
D. With duration few minutes
E. In dependence of the cause
372. Vasodilatation at treatment of heart failure is achieved by:
A. Nitroprussidi sodium
B. Phentalamini
C. Captoprilli
D. Euphyllini
E. * All transferred
373. Ventricular tachycardia is indeed the most dangerous of the cardiac arrhythmias with a real risk of:
A. Infarction
B. * Sudden cardiac death

C. Myocardiosclerosis
D. Heart failure
E. All transferred
374. What drug is possible to enter only intracardiac?
A. Lidocaini
B. Atropini
C. * Adrenalini
D. All of these
E. Hydrocarbonati of sodium
375. What is applied at all types of stopping blood circulations?
A. Adrenalini
B. Atropini
C. Hydrocarbanati of sodium
D. Nothing of these
E. * All of these
376. What is the dose of Potassium orotatis at treatment of VT?
A. 5-10 mg/kg/day
B. * 10-20 mg/kg/day
C. 20-30 mg/kg/day
D. 30-40 mg/kg/day
E. 40-50 mg/kg/day
377. What is used as sedative therapy at prehospital stage of treatment of VT?
A. * Valleriani, Corvaloli
B. Seduxeni
C. Diazepami
D. Oxybutirate-Sodium
E. All transferred
378. What is used at presence of syndrome of preterm excitation of ventricles?
A. Strophantini
B. Corgluconi
C. Novocainamidi
D. * Cordaroni
E. Isoptini
379. What is used together with dibazoli for treatment of hypertensive crisis in children?
A. Captoprilli
B. Clophelini
C. * Diuretic drugs
D. Cardiac glucozides
E. All of these
380. What must be position of child at emergency therapy of ventricular tachycardia?
A. Sitting
B. * Halfsitting
C. Laing
D. Laing with head down
E. Laing with head up
381. What observation is little informed at atrial flutter?
A. ECG
B. Holter monitoring
C. Event monitoring
D. * Stetoscope
E. Electrophysiology studies
382. What rhythm is often at left heart failure?
A. * Rhythm of gallop
B. Cardiac fibrillation
C. Sinus arrhythmia
D. Extrasystole
E. Ventricular flatter
383. When violations are flagged by conduction seizures at Morgan-Edemsa Stokes syndrom?
A. Atrioventricular block st
B. * Atrioventricular block st
C. Synoaurikulyarna block st
D. Paroxysmal tachycardia
E. Sinus arrhythmia
384. EG shows at left heart failure:
A. Voltage is reduced or high
B. Leftgramm
C. -negative in pectoral left branches
D. -negative inV2 and AVL
E. * All transferred
385. Activation of the sympathoadrenal system leads to heart output at acute left heart insufficiency due
to:
A. Kinins
B. Serotonini
C. Histamines
D. * Catecholamines
E. All of these
386. At the stage of cardiac insufficiency starting preparation is:
A. Cardiac glucozides
B. Prednizoloni
C. Lazix
D. Captoprilli
E. * Dopamini
387. At what degree of cardiac insufficiency does ascitis appear?
A. A
B. B
C. A
D. B
E. *
388. At what type of collapse is necessarily to include aminasini in urgent therapy?
A. Ortostatic
B. Toxic
C. Paralytic

D. * Sympathotonic
E. Hypoxic
389. At what type of collapse is necessary to include mezatoni and adrenalini in urgent therapy?
A. Toxic
B. Sympathetic
C. * Paralytic
D. Ortostatic
E. Hypoxic
390. Cardiac asthma arises up as a result of:
A. * Declines of retractive ability of left ventricle
B. Declines of retractive ability of right ventricle
C. Declines of retractive ability of left auricle
D. Declines of retractive ability of right auricle
E. Declines of retractive ability of both ventricles
391. It is useful to apply for oxygen therapy at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency:
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Antiphomsilani
C. Silicani
D. * All of these
E. Nothing of these
392. Ratio of indirect heart massage and artificial respiration for children of all age groups is:
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. * 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1
393. Specify indications for prescription of cardiac glycosides.
A. * Cardiac insufficiency
B. Atrioventricular blockade
C. Expressed bradycardia
D. Group extrasystoles
E. Expressed hypokaliemia
394. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.
A. Swelling of neck veins
B. Skin cyanosis
C. * Foamy excretions from mouth
D. Hepatomegalia
E. Edema on extremities
395. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.
A. Olyguria
B. Expansion of right border of heart
C. Decline of arterial pressure
D. * Forced sitting position of body
E. Edema on extremities
396. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.
A. Swelling of neck veins

B. Change of depth and breathing rhythm

C. * Expressed pallor of skin
D. Hepatomegalia
E. Edema of extremities
397. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.
A. Edema of extremities
B. Accent of 2nd tone on a pulmonary artery
C. Swelling of neck veins
D. Hepatomegalia
E. * Weak pulse or undetermined
398. Specify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.
A. * Low cardiac tones
B. Cyanotic skin
C. Swelling of neck veins
D. Hepatomegalia
E. Edema of extremities
399. Specify the dose of Lazix at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency on prehospital stage.
A. * 1-2 mg/kg
B. 3-4 mg/kg
C. 5-6 mg/kg
D. 7-8 mg/kg
E. 9-10 mg/kg
400. Specify the dose of Prednizoloni at treatment of acute left heart insufficiency at prehospital stage.
A. 1 mg/kg
B. * 2 mg/kg
C. 3 mg/kg
D. 4 mg/kg
E. 5 mg/kg
401. Specify the reason of acute right heart insufficiency.
A. Acute myocarditis
B. Congenital carditis
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Rheumatic heart disease
E. * Congenital heart-diseases with increased pulmonary circulation
402. Fibroelastosis as a result of:
A. Viral carditis
B. Bacterial carditis
C. Fungi carditis
D. * Early congenital carditis
E. Late congenital carditis
403. Morphological changes at rheumatic fever are mainly in:
A. lymph
B. * connective tissue
C. blood
D. muscles
E. fat tissue

404. Name changes on skin and mucous membranes at Kawasaki disease.

A. A rash, sometimes in the groin region
B. Red, swollen and cracked lips, bright red, swollen tongue
C. Red eyes
D. Red rash on palms of hands and soles of feet
E. * All transferred
405. Name specific findings at physical examination of patients with cardiomyopathy.
A. * No specific physical examination findings are consistent
B. Prominent apical beat
C. Apical displacement
D. Heart murmurs
E. All transferred
406. Pinkish-purple patches on cheeks are characteristic for:
A. Mitral insufficiency
B. * Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic insufficiency
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Tricuspid insufficiency
407. Quite often rheumatic fever durates with:
A. only arthritis
B. only myocarditis
C. * pancarditis
D. with arthritis and chorea
E. only pericarditis
408. Rheumatic endocarditis is characterized by:
A. * rough systolic murmur on the apex
B. accent of tone above the aorta
C. soft systolic murmur on the apex
D. systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery
E. soft systolic murmur on the aorta
409. Rheumatic pancarditis is characterized by:
A. the decrease of Arterial pressure
B. strengthening of cardiac tones
C. the increase of Arterial pressure
D. decreasment of heart's sizes
E. * considerable cardiomegalia
410. The dose of benzathine penicillin G for schoolboys is:
A. 600 thousand U 2 times per month
B. 600 thousand of U 1 time per month
C. 1200 thousand U 2 times per month
D. * 1200 thousand U 1 time per month
E. 1200 thousand U 3 time per month.
411. The duration of salicylates treatment at rheumatic fever is:
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. * 3-4 weeks

D. 6 weeks
E. 2 months
412. The individuals with no carditis continue with secondary prophylaxis since the last attack of
rheumatic fever at least:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. * 5 years
E. 6 years
413. The main symptom of Kawasaki disease is:
A. * Persistent fever (over 38.5C) for five days or longer
B. A rash, sometimes in the groin region
C. Red eyes
D. Red rash on palms of hands and soles of feet
E. Bright red, swollen tongue
414. The majority of diagnosed children with cardiomyopathy are infants under the age of:
A. 3 month
B. 5 month
C. 7 month
D. 9 month
E. * 1 year
415. The treatment for Kawasaki disease is:
A. Antibiotics
B. Aspirin obligatory
C. * Intravenous gammaglobulin
D. Vitamins
E. All transferred
416. What age rheumatic fever is more frequent in?
A. before 1 year
B. in 2 - 4 years
C. in 5 - 7 years
D. * in 7 - 11 years
E. in 15-18 years
417. What are rare circumstances when endomyocardial biopsy is needed?
A. After heart transplantation
B. Suspecting of cardiomyopathy
C. Suspecting of cardiac amyloidosis
D. Suspecting of carditis
E. * Differentiation disease processes and guide therapy
418. What is the diagnostics of Kawasaki disease?
A. * There is no test to diagnose Kawasaki disease
B. Blood tests
C. Echocardiogram
D. ECG
E. Microbiological observation
419. Accent of the second tone on the aorta occurs at:

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Aortic valve insufficiency
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy in the early stages
D. * Hypertension and hypertensive syndromes
E. Hypotension
420. Aortic coarctation (aortarctia) is more common in persons with certain genetic disorders, such as:
A. Down syndrome
B. * Turner syndrome
C. Edwards syndrome
D. Patau syndrome
E. Klainfelter syndrome
421. Arthralgia associated with rheumatic fever differs from arthralgia associated with rheumatoid arthritis
by:
A. Permanent course
B. * Absence of tenderness during passive movement of the affected joint
C. More expressed in the morning
D. More expressed in the evening
E. Increases day by day
422. Attack of rheumatic fever is more frequent after
A. flu
B. sinusitis
C. * scarlet fever
D. measles
E. rhinitis
423. Basis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
A. Calcium antagonists of Verapamilum group
B. Metoprolol succinate
C. Propranolol
D. Atenolol
E. * All that is mentioned
424. Basis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
A. * Calcium antagonists of Verapamilum group
B. Antiunrhythmical preparations
C. inhibitors of ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)
D. Cardiac glycozides
E. All that is mentioned
425. Cardiac catheterization provides in tricuspid insufficiency an opportunity to identify:
A. Size of defect
B. Diagnose
C. Presence of hypertrophy
D. * High pressure in the right atrium and the portal veins
E. All that is mentioned
426. Clinical manifestation of mitral insufficiency includes:
A. Weakness
B. Poor appetite
C. Pale skin
D. * Shortness of breath
E. Nothing that is mentioned
427. Clinical manifestation of mitral insufficiency includes:
A. Weakness
B. Palpitations
C. Pasty legs and feet
D. * All that is mentioned
E. Nothing that is mentioned
428. Clinical manifestation of Sydenhams chorea includes:
A. Concomitant psychological dysfunction
B. Increased emotional labiality
C. Hyperactivity
D. Age-regressed behaviour
E. * All transferred
429. Duration of active process in rheumatic fever is:
A. * 1 - 2 months
B. 3 - 4 months
C. 5 - 6 months
D. 7 - 8 months
E. 9-11 months
430. Early deaths at dilated cardiomyopathy are principally:
A. Sudden
B. Due to arrhythmia
C. Caused by decreasing of heart output
D. * Caused by severe heart failure
E. All answers are right
431. Early formation of cardiac hump is characteristic for:
A. * Early congenital carditis
B. Late congenital carditis
C. Viral carditis
D. Bacterial carditis
E. All types of nonrheumatic carditis
432. ECG in case of rheumatic fever characteristically is characterized by:
A. lengthening of the QT interval
B. * lengthening of the PQ interval
C. deformation of the QRS complex
D. increase of voltage
E. decrease of voltage
433. Etiology of rheumatic fever is:
A. * streptococcus
B. pneumococcus
C. the virus of influenza
D. fungi
E. staphylococcus
434. Family history at cardiomyopathy includes:
A. Hereditary causes of secondary cardiomyopathy

B. Storage diseases
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. * All transferred
E. Nothing of transferred
435. For rheumatic polyartritis is typical
A. morning stiffness
B. constant deformations of the joints
C. * inconstant damage of joints
436. A skin syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by:
A. * Livedo
B. Puncture hemorrhages
C. Hyperpigmentation of skin
D. Vesicles
E. Hemangiomas
437. Acute duration of Systemic scleroderma is characterized by the development of fibrosis during:
A. * 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 3 months
E. 6 months
438. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. Involvement of large and small joints
B. * Hepatosplenomegaly
C. Mild or painless synoviitis
D. Colicky abdominal pain
E. Massive bleeding after traumas
439. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. Uncommon systemic features
B. Rheumatoid nodules
C. * Polyserositis
D. Nephritis
E. Massive bleeding after teeth extraction
440. Acute febrile form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. Chronic pain and swelling of many joints
B. Asymptomatic iridocyclitis
C. Purpuric skin rashes
D. * Leucocytosis
E. Massive bleeding after operations
441. Affection of the eyes is special for:
A. Infectious arthritis
B. Acute rheumatic lever
C. Overuse syndrome
D. * Juvenile rheumathoid arthritis
E. Osteomyelitis
442. Aminoquinolones at dermatomyositis are applied in case of:
A. Prednisone hypersensitivity

B. Acute duration of the disease

C. Expressed visceral disorders
D. Expressed activity
E. * Signs of activity are absent
443. At Dermatomyositis the etiologic importance has:
A. Presence of chronic infection in the organism
B. Previous staphylococcal infection
C. Exudative anomaly of constitution
D. * Latent persistent viral infection
E. Vaccination
444. At fading of dermatomyositis activity damage of heart has signs of:
A. Myocardiosclerosis
B. Endocarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Pericarditis
E. * Myocardial dystrophy
445. At polyarticular form of JRA is observed:
A. Myocarditis
B. * Hepatomegaly
C. Kidneys amyloidosis
D. Pleurisy
E. Ascytis
446. At the most severe duration of polyarteritis nodosa more frequently can develop:
A. * Dry gangrene
B. Purulent osteomyelitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Acquired heart disease
E. Joints' ankylosis
447. At which systemic connective tissue disease the clinic of myocarditis is the most prominent?
A. * SLE
B. SSD
C. JRA
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
E. Dermatomyositis
448. Basic vessels damaging factor at polyarteritis nodosa is:
A. Viruses
B. Bacterial toxins
C. * Circulating immune complexes
D. Cool allergens
E. Chemical toxins
449. Basis of the RA pathogenesis is:
A. Osteomalacia
B. * Autoimmune processes in connective tissue
C. Damage of the mineral processes in bones
D. Acute infectious inflammation of joints
E. Systemic dysplasia of connective tissue

450. Bedsores and necroses of soft tissues at Dermatomyositis are rare in the area of:
A. * Buttocks
B. Scapulas
C. Sacrum
D. Elbows
E. Small hand joints
451. Body temperature at polyarteritis nodosa decreased, as a rule, after setting of:
A. Antibiotics
B. * Glucocorticoids
C. NSAIDs
D. Anti convulsive preparations
E. Immunedepressors
452. Calcinosis at Dermatomyositis can develop mainly in:
A. Kidneys
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Lungs
D. * Muscles
E. Joints
453. CREST-syndrome is:
A. * Systemic scleroderma in combination with rheumathoid arthritis
B. Systemic scleroderma in combination with glomerulonephritis
C. Systemic scleroderma in combination with osteoporosis
D. Systemic scleroderma in combination with rheumatism
E. Systemic scleroderma in combination with hemorrhagic vasculitis
454. Damage of eyes at JRA more frequent looks as:
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Rethynopathy
C. Retina's degeneration
D. * Irydocyclitis
E. Cataract
455. Damage of heart at acute and subacute duration of dermatomyositis has signs of:
A. Myocardial dystrophy
B. Myocardiosclerosis
C. Endocarditis
D. * Myocarditis
E. Pericarditis
456. Damage of the neck part of spine at JRA more frequent is at level of:
A. 1st vertebra
B. * 2-3rd vertebrae
C. 4th vertebra
D. 5th vertebrae
E. 7th vertebra
457. Dermatomyositis glasses are presence in paraorbital areas:
A. Maculo-papulous rashes
B. * Heliotrope erythema with the edema
C. Expressed edema

D. Massive hematomas
E. Hyper pigmentation of skin
458. Dermatomyositis is more frequent in:
A. * Girls
B. Boys
C. Newborns
D. Preschoolers
E. Teenagers
459. For polyarticilar form of JRA typical is damage of more than:
A. 1 joint
B. 3 joints
C. * 5 joints
D. 10 joints
E. 4 joints
460. For RA characteristic is:
A. Absence changes of bones and joint surfaces
B. Hemarthroses
C. Absence of exudate in a joint cavity
D. * Narrowing of the joint crack
E. Widening of the joint crack
461. For seronegative polyarticilar form of JRA typical is:
A. Fast progressing duration
B. Favorable prognosis
C. Early destruction
D. * Unfavorable prognosis
E. Damage of 10 and more joints
462. For Systemic scleroderma in child's age the most characteristic beginning is:
A. * Gradual, unnoticeable
B. Fulminate
C. Sudden
D. Rapidly progressed
E. Acute
463. For the damage of the respiratory system at dermatomyositis is not typical:
A. Food aspiration
B. Pulmonary vasculitis
C. Pleurisy
D. Bronchopneumonia
E. * Obstructive syndrome
464. For the muscular syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is typical:
A. Myalgia of humeral belt
B. * Myalgia attacs
C. Muscular atrophy
D. Muscular hypertonus
E. Flexors hypotonus
465. In case of acute dermatomyositis prednisolone is applied in a dose:
A. 0.5 mg/kg/day

B. 1 mg/kg/day
C. * 2 mg/kg/day
D. 5 mg/kg/day
E. 10 mg/kg/day
466. In children the most frequent visceral localization of Systemic scleroderma is:
A. Pulmonary
B. Hepatic
C. Kidney
D. Cerebral
E. * Cardio-vascular
467. In children with Systemic scleroderma the most frequent is:
A. Pneumosclerosis
B. * Pneumofibrosis
C. Pulmonitis
D. Fibrosing alveolitis
E. Atelectasis
468. In children with Systemic scleroderma the most frequent is damage of the:
A. Intestine
B. Stomach
C. * Esophagus
D. Liver
E. Pancreas
469. LE-cells are:
A. * Neutrophyls with the lumps of nuclear disintegration in a cytoplasm
B. Changed -cells
C. Components of nuclear DNA
D. Changed circulating immune complexes
E. Antinuclear antibodies
470. Leading symptom at the Still syndrome is:
A. Damage of eyes
B. * Hyperthermia and exanthema
C. Kidneys syndrome
D. Carditis and vasculitis
E. Spine damage
471. Metotrexat at dermatomyositis is applied in case of:
A. * Prednisone hypersensitivity
B. Acute duration of the disease
C. Expressed visceral disorders
D. Previous chronic duration
E. Signs of activity are absent
472. Polyarticular form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
A. * Symmetric involvement of large and small joints
B. Macular rashes
C. Systemic features
D. Nephritis
E. Massive bleeding after traumas
473. Systemic scleroderma at the initial period more frequently has:
A. Changes in joints
B. * Changes in the skin
C. Changes in cardio-vascular system
D. Changes in kidneys
E. Changes in CNS
474. Systemic scleroderma is characterized by the:
A. Isolate damage of skin
B. Skin damage of the face and changes of the cardio-vascular system
C. * Polysyndrome displays
D. Absence of joints' damage
E. Absence of vascular violations
475. Systemic scleroderma is more frequently in:
A. Newborns
B. Schoolboys
C. * Girls aged over 3 years
D. Boys aged over 3 years
E. Independent from age or sex
476. The basis of Dermatomyositis pathogenesis is:
A. Inflammatory changes
B. Allergy of immediate type
C. Allergy of slow type
D. Neoplastic processes
E. * Autoimmune violation
477. The change of the nervous system at Systemic scleroderma in children is:
A. The early sign of the disease
B. * Secondary
C. Prognostic favorable
D. Brightly-expressed
E. Absent
478. The damage of heart at RA more frequently all shows:
A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
B. Mitral stenos
C. * Myocarditis
D. Disturbance of the coronal circulation of blood
E. Acute cardiac insufficiency
479. The direct sign of cardiosclerosis at Systemic scleroderma in children is:
A. * "Small" heart
B. "Large" heart
C. Fibroelastosis
D. Arhythmia
E. "Warty" endocarditis
480. The dose of aspirin to treat juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. 30-50 mg/kg/day
B. 50-60 mg/kg/day
C. * 75-100 mg/kg/day

D. 100-120 mg/kg/day
E. 150-200 mg/kg/day
481. The dose of ibuprophen to treat juvenile rheumathoid arthritis is:
A. * 10 mg/kg four times daily
B. 10 mg/kg daily
C. 20 mg/kg four times daily
D. 50 mg/kg/day
E. 75 mg/kg/day
482. The main clinical criteria of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are:
A. * Next joint arthritis in 3 months and more after the first one
B. Carditis
C. Hepatitis
D. Nephritis
E. Pneumonia
483. The main clinical criterion of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. Carditis
B. * Arthritis more than 3 months
C. Hepatitis
D. Nephritis
E. Pneumonia
484. The main clinical criterion of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. Chorea
B. Encephalitis
C. * Symmetrical affection of small joints
D. Nephritis
E. Pneumonia
485. The main role in the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis pathogenesis belongs to:
A. Sensitization
B. Bacterial inflammation
C. Aseptic inflammation
D. * Autoimmune reactions
E. Allergic reactions
486. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. * Sinovial precipitation
B. Primary streptococcus sensitization
C. Intracellular sensitization
D. Constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood
E. Persistancy of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
487. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. * Antigen-antibody-complement complex formation
B. Primary streptococcus sensitization
C. Intracellular sensitization
D. Constant persistancy of the streptococcus in a blood
E. Persistance of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
488. The pathogenetic chain of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. Primary streptococcus sensitization

B. * Chondrial lesion
C. Intracellular sensitization
D. Constant persistency of the streptococcus in a blood
E. Persistency of the streptococcus in connecting tissues
489. The typical skin damage at Systemic scleroderma is characterized by such stages:
A. * Firm edema, induration, atrophy
B. Rashes, induration, atrophy
C. Firm edema, hyperpigmentation, atrophy
D. Induration, atrophy, sclerosis
E. Firm edema, C, hyperthrophy
490. Thrombangiitic syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa has symptoms of:
A. Soft palate necrosis
B. Stable stomatitis
C. Ulcerative esophagitis
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. * Visual nerve's athrophy
491. To the early signs of polyarteritis nodosa does not belong:
A. Remittent fever
B. Profuse sweating
C. Arthralgia
D. Myalgia
E. * Peryorbital erythema
492. What are the most frequent provoking factors of polyarteritis nodosa?
A. Chemic toxins
B. * Vaccines
C. Ionizing radiation
D. Super cooling
E. B Hemolytic streptococcus
493. What are the preparations of the first line for the SLE treatment?
A. Aminoquinolones
B. Antibiotics
C. Cytostatics
D. * Corticosteroids
E. NSAIDs
494. What average daily dose of prednizolne (mg/kg) is applied for polyarteritis nodosa treatment?
A. 0,5 - 0,75
B. * 1-2
C. 2,5 3,5;
D. 6-7;
E. 4-5.
495. What daily dose of aspirin is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment?
A. 1-1.5 mg
B. 10-15 mg
C. 20-30 mg
D. 30-50 mg
E. * 50-100 mg

496. What daily dose of azatyoprin (mg/kg) is applied for polyarteritis nodosa treatment?
A. * 2-4
B. 0,1 - 0,25
C. 5 -10
D. 20 - 25
E. 50 - 100
497. What daily dose of delagyl is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment?
A. 1 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 3 mg
D. 4 mg
E. * 5mg
498. What daily dose of heparin (U/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with thrombangiitis
syndrome?
A. 20 - 50
B. 75 - 100
C. 100 - 150
D. * 200 - 400
E. 500 - 1000 damage of the hearts
499. What daily dose of prednisolone (mg/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with
thrombangiitis syndrome?
A. 0,5 - 0,75
B. 1-2
C. 2,5 - 5
D. * 5-7
E. 10
500. What daily dose of prednisolone (mg/kg) is applied for treatment of polyarteritis nodosa with
abdominal syndrome?
A. 0,5 - 0,75
B. 1-2
C. 2,5 - 5
D. * 5-7
E. 10
501. What daily dose of voltaren is appointed to the children per 1kg of body weight for JRA treatment?
A. 1mg
B. 2 mg
C. 1.5 mg
D. * 2.5 mg
E. 5 mg
502. What does it mean "Still's Syndrome"?
A. * Systemic form JRA
B. Pauciarticular form JRA
C. Subclinical form JRA
D. Damage of spine at JRA
E. Damage of eyes at JRA
503. What duration of aminoquinolones application at JRA?
A. 1-2 weeks

B. 3-6 weeks
C. 1-2 months
D. 2-3 months
E. * 3-6 months
504. What duration of cytostatics application at JRA?
A. 6-8 days
B. 3-6 weeks
C. 1-2 months
D. 2-3 months
E. * 6-8 months
505. What from enumerated is characteristic for the RA clinic at children (but not for adults)?
A. Often damage of small hand's joints
B. Deformity of joints
C. * Often damage of neck part of spine
D. Symmetrical damage of joints
E. Rare mono- and pauciarticular forms development
506. What from these preparations is the component of the JRA base therapy?
A. * Methotrexat
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Ketotyphen
D. Diclophenac
E. Methyndol
507. What from this is the clinical diagnostic criterion of JRA?
A. Carditis
B. Chorea
C. Rheumatic nodules
D. * Muscular atrophy
E. Annular erythema
508. What is the basic damaging agent at SLE?
A. * Circulating immune complexes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. -lymphocytes
D. LE-cells
E. Hematoxylin little bodies
509. What is the basic laboratory criterion of SLE?
A. Leucopenia with a neutrophyl shift
B. * LE-cells
C. Thrombocytopenia, anemia
D. Hyperproteinemia, hypergammaglobulinemia
E. Lymphadenopathy
510. What is the daily dose of prednisolone (mg) for pulse-therapy?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 250
D. 500
E. * 1000

511. What is the etiology of polyarteritis nodosa?

A. Viral
B. Bacterial
C. * Unknown
D. Inherited
E. due to the toxins influence
512. What is the JRA laboratory diagnostic criterion?
A. Leucocytosis and ESR acceleration
B. Increased CRP, seromucoid
C. Increased level of ASL-
D. * Positive rheumathoid factor
E. Anemia, leucocytosis
513. What is the maximal day's dose of prednisolone at JRA?
A. 1 mg/kg
B. 2.5 mg/kg
C. 5 mg/kg
D. 7.5 mg/kg
E. * 10 mg/kg
514. What is the most frequent cardio-vascular syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa?
A. * Ischemia of myocardium
B. Fibroelastosis
C. Myocarditis
D. Myocardiosclerosis
E. Pancarditis
515. What is the most frequent sign in the debut of SLE?
A. * Skin syndrome
B. Lupus-nephrite
C. Libman-Sax endocarditis
D. Pulmonitis
E. Neurolupus
516. What is the most typical for the system form of JRA?
A. Meningitis
B. Kidney's syndrome
C. Abdominal syndrome
D. * Polyserositis
E. Pulmonitis
517. What is the most unfavorable form of JRA in relation to the function of joints?
A. Still's syndrome
B. Polyarticular seronegative
C. * Polyarticular seropositive
D. Allergosepsis
E. Pauciarticular
518. What is the motive regime in children with JRA?
A. Limited
B. * Free
C. Half-bed

D. Bed
E. Bed-limited
519. What is the sign of cerebral crisis at polyarteritis nodosa?
A. Hemorrhage into the brain
B. Neurotoxicosis
C. * Unconsciousness
D. Sable loss of hearing
E. Paralyses
520. What is the sign of kidneys damage at SLE?
A. Leucocyturia
B. Bacteriuria
C. * Proteinuria
D. Cylindruria
E. Oxaluria
521. What joints are more frequently damaged at RA in children?
A. * Knee
B. Ankles
C. Stern-costal
D. Humeral
E. Hip
522. What joints are the most frequent damaged at SLE?
A. * Small joints of hands
B. Neck joints
C. Knees
D. Elbows
E. Hips
523. What joints at JRA become fusiform?
A. Knee
B. * Elbow
C. Radial-wrist
D. Humeral
E. Hip
524. What joints at JRA become spherical?
A. * Knee
B. Elbow
C. Radial-wrist
D. Humeral
E. Hip
525. What neurological syndrome at polyarteritis nodosa is the most frequent?
A. Hemorrhage into the brain
B. Neirotoxicosis
C. * Cerebral vascular crisis
D. Stable damage of spinal cord
E. Paralyses
526. Bloating is typical of patients with gastritis with acid- function:
A. increased

B. normal
C. * reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
527. By origin chronic gastroduodenitis classified as:
A. * primary and secondary
B. congenital and acquired
C. Postinfectious and nutritional
D. common and limited
E. Allergic and toxic
528. Chronic gastroduodenitis often combined with disabilities:
A. CNS
B. * hepatobiliary system
C. the respiratory system
D. cardiovascular system
E. urinary system
529. Clinical symptoms of gastro-esophageal reflux
A. headache, dysphagia
B. * chest pain, heartburn, nausea
C. pain in the right upper quadrant
D. nausea, pain in the left upper quadrant, diarrhea
E. in the left upper quadrant pain, diarrhea
530. Complications of peptic ulcer do not include:
A. * intestinal obstruction
B. penetration
C. perforation
D. stenosis of the pylorus
E. peryvistserytis
531. Constipation characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid- function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
532. Cytoprotectors prescribe to children with peptic ulcer disease:
A. * after withdrawal of Helicobacter therapy
B. from the beginning of treatment prescribed
C. at high acidity
D. under ulcer healing
E. in remission
533. Dosage of no-spa to children with peptic ulcer disease?
A. 0.5 - 1 mg / kg / day
B. * 1 - 1.5 mg / kg / day
C. 1.5 - 2 mg / kg / day
D. 2 - 2.5 mg / kg / day
E. 2.5 - 3 mg / kg / day

534. Drug of choice in relation to Helicobacter pylory are:

A. penicillin
B. gentamicin
C. * metronidazole
D. cefazolin
E. erythromycin
535. Duration of appointment or triple quadrotherapy children are:
A. 5 - 7 days
B. * 7 - 10 days
C. 10 - 14 days
D. 14 - 21 days
E. 21 - 30 days
536. Endoscopic hemostasis is carried out by introducing
A. Glucose
B. novocaine
C. * aminocaproic acid
D. heparin
E. papaverine
537. Factors aggression gastric mucosa:
A. * hydrochloric acid
B. formation of mucus
C. prostaglandin E2
D. bicarbonate
E. all wrong
538. Factors for secondary prevention of ulcer own everything except:
A. antirecurrent treatment in spring and autumn
B. * rate of Helicobacter therapy 1 time per year
C. group on physical education - special
D. rehabilitation of chronic foci of infection
E. dynamic monitoring pediatrician
539. Famotidine refers to a group:
A. antacids
B. * H2- histamine blockers
C. hydrogen pump inhibitors
D. reparants
E. cytoprotectors
540. For endoscopic characteristics in children occurs less often chronic gastroduodenitis:
A. surface
B. hemorrhagic
C. * atrophic
D. mixed
E. erosive
541. Functional disorders of the stomach include:
A. Chronic esophagitis.
B. Chronic gastritis.
C. * Duodenogastric reflux.

D. Peptic ulcer.
E. Chronic duodenitis.
542. Gastroesophageal reflux refers to:
A. Functional disorders of stomach secretory type.
B. * Functional indigestion motor type.
C. Chronic gastritis.
D. Dyskinesia of the biliary tract.
E. Chronic duodenitis.
543. Helicobacter pylori colonize:
A. cardia of the stomach
B. fundus
C. pyloric
D. * antral
E. all true
544. Helicobacter pylori produce an enzyme:
A. Lactase
B. * Urease
C. peptidase
D. lipase
E. Amylase
545. Helicobacter pylori promote:
A. esophagitis
B. * gastritis
C. colitis
D. gastro - duodenitis
E. hepatitis
546. Histamine H2- blockers include:
A. smecta
B. almagel
C. * ranitidine
D. omeprazole
E. motilium
547. How physiotherapy can be used in children with pain syndrome in chronic gastroduodenitis?
A. ozocerite applications
B. tyubazh with xylitol
C. * electrophoresis of novocaine
D. diathermy
E. mud applications
548. Impurities of bile in the vomit indicates the location of
A. of the esophagus
B. stomach
C. * average of duodenal ulcers
D. colon
E. small intestine
549. In case of severe esophageal mucosal injury with severe pain prescribed diet
A. enteral

B. with a spoon
C. * parenteral
D. Fractional
E. the bottle
550. In gastric ulcer using the following drugs:
A. Analgin
B. * De-nol
C. essentiale
D. Prednisone
E. aspirin
551. In mild severe ulcers:
A. * ulcer healing period of 1 month in remission for over a year
B. ulcer healing time up to 2 weeks to 6 months of remission
C. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months in remission less than 1 year
D. term ulcer healing 1 month recurrence up to 2 times a year
E. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months, recurrence at 1 year
552. In order to monitor the effectiveness of Helicobacter therapy prescribed
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. EFGDS
C. pH meter
D. * urea breath test
E. Common blood analysis
553. In patients with duodenitis pain occurs more frequently through:
A. 15-30 min. after meals
B. 30-45 min. after meals
C. 45-60 min. after meals
D. * 1-1.5 hours after meals
E. all true
554. In patients with gastritis pain occurs due to:
A. * 15-30 min. after meals
B. 30-45 min. after meals
C. 45-60 min. after meals
D. 1-1.5 hours after meals
E. all wrong
555. In what position to take medication to patients with acute esophagitis
A. standing
B. * lying
C. sitting
D. half-sitting
E. reclining
556. Increased secretion in patients with gastritis pain:
A. weakly expressed
B. dull
C. moderate
D. * intensive
E. there is not

557. Indications for assignment Motilium are:

A. increased secretion
B. pain syndrome
C. * expressed dyspeptic syndrome
D. reduced secretion
E. presence of "hungry" pain
558. Leading to the diagnosis of achalasia is
A. EFGDS
B. * contrast x-ray study of the esophagus
C. Ultrasonography of internal organs
D. CT
E. nuclear magnetic resonance
559. Low secretion in patients with gastritis pain:
A. intensive
B. * weakly expressed
C. acute
D. missing
E. all wrong
560. Main clinical manifestations of achalasia?
A. * dysphagia and regurgitation
B. Heartburn pain and epigastric
C. prolonged nausea, bitter taste in the mouth
D. diarrhea, sometimes constipation
E. pain in the right upper quadrant
561. Massive antibiotic therapy for peptic ulcer requires the use of
A. analgesic
B. antipyretics
C. * Probiotics
D. hormones
E. cytostatics
562. Most suffer from a stomach ulcer:
A. preschool children
B. school-age children
C. * girls
D. boys
E. Children of first three years of life.
563. Night pain characteristic of patients with acid - function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. achlorhydria
E. all true
564. Pain fasting characteristic of patients with acid - function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced

D. achlorhydria
E. That's right
565. Pain in duodenal ulcer is not characterized by:
A. "Hungry" pain
B. night pain
C. Late pain
D. * pain immediately after eating
E. pain after exercise
566. Pain in remission of peptic ulcer is:
A. pronounced after a meal
B. * kept on deep palpation
C. absent;
D. may occur during exercise
E. sometimes bothers night.
567. Palpation to an acute ulcer is characterized by:
A. Kers symptom
B. symptom of Shchetkin -Blumberg;
C. * symptom of Mendel
D. symptom Pasternatsky
E. Ortners symptom
568. Pathogenesis of gastritis:
A. increase in mucous discharge
B. * increased secretion of hydrochloric acid
C. increased secretion of bicarbonate
D. physiological blood flow in the mucosa
E. reduction of gastric acid secretion
569. Pathogenetic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease of II stage
A. reparant antacids
B. antacids, prokinetics, antibiotics
C. * antacids, prokinetics, blockers of histamine H2-receptor
D. blockers of histamine H2 -receptor antagonists, bismuth preparations
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
570. Pathogenic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis
A. antispasmodics, antacids
B. * antacids, prokinetics
C. prokinetics, blockers of histamine H2-receptor
D. antacids reparant
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
571. Pathogenic therapy of gastroesophageal reflux disease of III-IV stage
A. * proton pump inhibitors, cytoprotectors
B. antacids, prokinetics
C. antibiotics, antispasmodics
D. antacids, H2- blockers of histamine receptors
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
572. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastro-duodenitis with acid- function:
A. increased

B. normal
C. * reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
573. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastroduodenitis with acid- function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. achlorhydria
E. all true
574. Products formation of gastric juice urea hydrolisation:
A. oxygen
B. * ammonia
C. nitrogen
D. chlorine
E. fluorine
575. Severity of dyspeptic symptoms in children with chronic gastroduodenitis depends on:
A. * secretory function
B. age of the child
C. dietary habits
D. intervals between meals
E. balance of ingredients of food
576. Signs of dyspeptic syndrome:
A. abdominal pain
B. headache
C. weakness
D. fever
E. * Vomiting
577. Sour smell of vomit indicates the eruption of their
A. oral
B. larynx
C. esophagus
D. * stomach
E. Colon
578. The average duration of histamine H2- blockers in the treatment of gastric ulcer:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
E. * 6-8 weeks
579. The average duration of histamine H2- blockers in the treatment of peptic ulcer of duodenum:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. * 4-6 weeks
E. 6 8weeks

580. The current treatment regimen of chronic gastroduodenitis associated with HP is:
A. Single component
B. two-component
C. * four-component
D. five-component
E. multicomponent
581. The enzyme urease hydrolyzes in gastric contents:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. mucus
D. * urea
E. bile
582. The gold standard in the diagnosis of gastro-esophageal reflux
A. EFGDS
B. * daily intra esophageal pH-metry
C. x-ray with barium
D. Ultrasound of the abdomen
E. Echo CS
583. The group of drugs is reparant
A. Maalox
B. motilium
C. * Aktovegin
D. Smecta
E. omeprazole
584. The leading symptom of I stage of ulcers are:
A. * pain
B. vomiting
C. belching
D. heartburn
E. local muscle tension
585. The main criterion for radiological research gastro-esophageal reflux
A. retrograde penetration of barium into the stomach ulcer 12paloyi
B. * retrograde penetration of barium from the stomach into the esophagus in a horizontal position
C. total narrowing of the esophagus
D. cone-shaped narrowing of the esophagus
E. cone-shaped extension of the esophagus
586. The main pathognomonic sign for gastroesophageal reflux disease are:
A. Pain behind the breastbone
B. * Heartburn
C. Nausea
D. Vomiting
E. Flatulence
587. The most common complication of peptic ulcer in children is:
A. * bleeding
B. stenosis of the pylorus
C. penetration

D. perforation
E. peryvistserytis
588. The most common location of pain duodenitis:
A. around the navel
B. right upper quadrant
C. * pyloroduodenal zone
D. left upper quadrant
E. behind the breastbone
589. The sequence of symptoms in Moinigans rhythm is follows:
A. meal - pain - hunger - relief
B. * hunger - pain - eating - relief
C. Pain - hunger - a meal - relief
D. hunger - relief - meal - pain
E. meal - relief - pain - hunger
590. The three major syndromes of chronic gastritis:
A. pain, diarrhea, hemorrhagic
B. * pain, diarrhea, intoxication
C. dysuria, diarrhea, intoxication
D. pain, hemorrhage, dysuria
E. all true
591. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. * prostaglandin E2
D. insulin
E. mucosal ischemia
592. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. * bicarbonate
D. gastrin
E. glucagon
593. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. * secretory Ig A
B. hydrochloric acid
C. pepsin
D. gastrin
E. all true
594. What are the most frequent causes of neonatal dysphagia?
A. * malformations of the larynx and esophagus
B. inflammation of the larynx and esophagus
C. psychogenic violation
D. tumors of the esophagus and mediastinum
E. tumors of the stomach and intestines
595. What are the radiological signs of chalasia
A. * New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach

B. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcers in stomach

C. conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath
D. narrowing of the esophagus just
E. expand all esophagus
596. What are the symptoms chalasia
A. pain behind the breastbone and heartburn
B. * regurgitation and vomiting
C. nausea
D. sometimes constipation diarrhea
E. Pain when chewing
597. blockers?
A. Metoclopramide
B. almagel
C. * famotidine
D. De-nol
E. omeprazole
598. What drugs reduce the tone of the lower esophageal
A. antibiotics
B. * beta- blockers
C. analgesics
D. hormones
E. cytoprotectors
599. What drugs referred to as proton pump inhibitors
A. Phosphalugel
B. No-spa
C. De-nol
D. * Omeprazole
E. Solcoseril
600. What group of drugs is Metoclopramide?
A. antacids
B. * prokinetic
C. H2- histamine blockers
D. antispasmodics
E. cytoprotectors
601. What group of drugs is solcoseril?
A. antacids
B. prokinetic
C. H2 histamine blockers
D. * reparant
E. cytoprotectors
602. What is achalasia?
A. * changes cardia under which hampered its permeability
B. failure gastro-esophageal sphincter
C. narrowing of the pylorus
D. failure pylorus
E. expand all esophagus

603. What is gastro-esophageal reflux?

A. is the involuntary leaking intestinal contents into the stomach
B. * is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the esophagus
C. is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the mouth
D. a failure pyloric stomach
E. a lack of gastric fundus
604. What is halaziya
A. Failure of the upper esophageal sphincter
B. * cardia insufficiency
C. failure pylorus
D. narrowing of the pylorus
E. expansion pylorus
605. What is the basis for functional disorders of the stomach for motor type ( hastroezophageal disorder):
A. Hypotension of cardia
B. Hypotension of pylorus
C. * Hypertension of cardia
D. Hypertension of pylorus
E. Pilorostenosis
606. What is the daily dose of cimetidine used in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children?
A. 1 mg / kg;
B. 3 mg / kg;
C. 5 mg / kg;
D. * 10 mg / kg;
E. 20 mg / kg.
607. What is the main radiological sign of achalasia?
A. New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach
B. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcer in stomach
C. * conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath
D. expand all esophagus
E. narrowing of the esophagus just
608. What is the most informative method of instrumental diagnosis of functional disorders of the
stomach:
A. X-ray
B. * EFGDS
C. Ultrasound
D. Ph -metry
E. Duodenal intubation.
609. What is the primary diagnosis chalasia
A. * EFGDS
B. ultrasound
C. nuclear magnetic resonance
D. tomography
E. R-graphia
610. What method of diagnosis is carried out during endoscopic examination?
A. * Urease test on biopsies
B. Respiratory urease test

C. serological diagnosis
D. Microbiological examination of biopsy
E. All right
611. What methods of examination used to diagnose in chalasia
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. * Contrast radiography of the esophagus
C. CT
D. nuclear magnetic resonance
E. R-graphia
612. What position in bed should occupy patients with gastroesophageal reflux during sleep?
A. horizontal
B. with lowered head end
C. * with raised at least 15cm head
D. with raised footside
E. sitting
613. What resulted from the research methods are the most important for the diagnosis of chronic
gastroduodenitis?
A. * EFGDS
B. pH meter
C. Fractional study of gastric contents
D. test for acidosis
E. radiographic
614. Which diagnostic methods refer to invasive?
A. * Bacteriological study of biopsy gastric mucosa
B. study of feces and saliva by polymerase reaction
C. breathe test
D. determination of immunoglobulins
E. "Aerotest"
615. Which diagnostic methods refer to non-invasive?
A. urease test
B. * "Aerotest"
C. de-nol -tests
D. study of nucleic acids
E. biopsy of the stomach or duodenum
616. Which group of drugs used to treat gastro-esophageal reflux?
A. analgesics, antispasmodics
B. * antacids, prokinetic, antisecretory
C. antibiotics, antacids
D. reparants
E. analgesics, antispasmodics, prokinetics
617. Which of blood groups is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease?
A. * First Rh-positive
B. First Rh-negative
C. other
D. Three Rh-positive
E. Four Rh-positive

618. Which of the following drugs belong to antihelicobacter?

A. * De-nol
B. Maalox
C. hastrofarm
D. cimetidine
E. penicillin
619. Which of the them related to blocking histamine H2-receptor?
A. * cimetidine
B. Maalox
C. vikalin
D. metacin
E. hastrofarm
620. A child is suffering from functional indigestion for motor type. What preparation for correction
neurovegetative disorders should be prescribed?
A. Hastrofarm
B. * Fitosed
C. Kvamatel
D. Smecta
E. Almagel
621. Acute gastrointestinal bleeding is characterized by the following except:
A. bloody vomit
B. pale skin
C. * hyperthermia
D. melena
E. collapse
622. Appetite in duodenal ulcer:
A. reduced
B. * increased
C. not changed
D. distortion of taste
E. available
623. Assign a drug with gastroesophageal reflux to improve gastric motility:
A. Almagel
B. Hastronorm
C. * Motilium
D. Kvamatel
E. No-spa
624. Assign the correct secretory disorders in reflux esophagitis:
A. Motilium
B. No-spa
C. Hastroform
D. * Kvamatel
E. Smecta
625. At low gastric acidity is often observed:
A. tendency to constipation
B. * unstable stool

C. burp "sour"
D. "Hunger pains"
E. vomiting
626. At UC contraindicated such dairy products, except:
A. cheese
B. milk
C. * kefir
D. Creamy oil
E. Cheese
627. Auscultation of the abdomen of a healthy baby listens:
A. - Complete absence of intestinal sounds
B. * - Poor intestinal sounds
C. - Noise friction peritoneum
D. - Respiratory and cardiac murmurs
E. - Noise "splash"
628. Belching rotten characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid- function:
A. increased
B. normal
C. * reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
629. Bloating is typical of patients with gastritis with acid- function:
A. increased
B. normal
C. * reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
630. By origin chronic gastroduodenitis classified as:
A. * primary and secondary
B. congenital and acquired
C. Postinfectious and nutritional
D. common and limited
E. Allergic and toxic
631. Cells lining the stomach secrete:
A. * hydrochloric acid
B. bicarbonate
C. mucus
D. endorphins
E. bile
632. Chronic gastroduodenitis often combined with disabilities:
A. CNS
B. * hepatobiliary system
C. the respiratory system
D. cardiovascular system
E. urinary system
633. Chronic gastroduodenitis usually begins in children:

A. First month of life

B. First year of life
C. * preschool children
D. the first three years of life
E. school age
634. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for endoscopic characteristics of gastro-duodenitis:
A. * Surface and erosive
B. Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. Restricted common
635. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for endoscopic characteristics of gastro-duodenitis:
A. Restricted common
B. Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. * Hypertrophic and hemorrhagic
636. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis for the duration of the disease:
A. Surface and erosive
B. Primary and secondary
C. * Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. Restricted common
637. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis on localization process:
A. Surface and erosive
B. Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. * Antral and fundic
E. Restricted common
638. Classification of chronic gastro-duodenitis on the prevalence of the process:
A. Surface and erosive
B. Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. * Restricted common
639. Classification of chronic gastroduodenitis by origin:
A. Restricted common
B. * Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. Surface and erosive
640. Clinical symptoms of gastro-esophageal reflux
A. headache, dysphagia
B. * chest pain, heartburn, nausea
C. pain in the right upper quadrant
D. nausea, pain in the left upper quadrant, diarrhea

E. in the left upper quadrant pain, diarrhea

641. Complications of peptic ulcer do not include:
A. * intestinal obstruction
B. penetration
C. perforation
D. stenosis of the pylorus
E. peryvistserytis
642. Complications of UC are following except:
A. Perforation of ulcer
B. Stricture of rectum
C. Profuse intestinal bleeding
D. * Gastric bleeding
E. Toxic dilatation of the colon
643. Constipation characteristic of patients with gastritis with acid- function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong
644. Cytoprotectors prescribe to children with peptic ulcer disease:
A. * after withdrawal of Helicobacter therapy
B. from the beginning of treatment prescribed
C. at high acidity
D. under ulcer healing
E. in remission
645. Dosage of no-spa to children with peptic ulcer disease?
A. 0.5 - 1 mg / kg / day
B. * 1 - 1.5 mg / kg / day
C. 1.5 - 2 mg / kg / day
D. 2 - 2.5 mg / kg / day
E. 2.5 - 3 mg / kg / day
646. Drug of choice for UC is:
A. Furazolidone
B. Gentamicin
C. * Salazopirydazyn
D. Biseptol
E. Immodium
647. Drug of choice in relation to Helicobacter pylory are:
A. penicillin
B. gentamicin
C. * metronidazole
D. cefazolin
E. erythromycin
648. Duration of appointment or triple quadrotherapy children are:
A. 5 - 7 days
B. * 7 - 10 days

C. 10 - 14 days
D. 14 - 21 days
E. 21 - 30 days
649. Dyspeptic manifestations in III stage of ulcer:
A. * absent
B. slightly marked
C. expressed
D. may experience nausea and heartburn
E. bloating, belching "sour"
650. Endoscopic hemostasis is carried out by introducing
A. Glucose
B. novocaine
C. * aminocaproic acid
D. heparin
E. papaverine
651. Factors aggression gastric mucosa:
A. * hydrochloric acid
B. formation of mucus
C. prostaglandin E2
D. bicarbonate
E. all wrong
652. Factors for secondary prevention of ulcer own everything except:
A. antirecurrent treatment in spring and autumn
B. * rate of Helicobacter therapy 1 time per year
C. group on physical education - special
D. rehabilitation of chronic foci of infection
E. dynamic monitoring pediatrician
653. Famotidine refers to a group:
A. antacids
B. * H2- histamine blockers
C. hydrogen pump inhibitors
D. reparants
E. cytoprotectors
654. For endoscopic characteristics in children occurs less often chronic gastroduodenitis:
A. surface
B. hemorrhagic
C. * atrophic
D. mixed
E. erosive
655. For patients with chronic intestinal disorders characterized by a history of such information, except:
A. About transferred acute intestinal diseases
B. About transferred parasitic diseases
C. * About heart disease
D. On the continuity burdened by chronic bowel disease
E. On the quantitative and qualitative malnutrition
656. Functional disorders of the stomach include:

A. Chronic esophagitis.
B. Chronic gastritis.
C. * Duodenogastric reflux.
D. Peptic ulcer.
E. Chronic duodenitis.
657. Gastroesophageal reflux refers to:
A. Functional disorders of stomach secretory type.
B. * Functional indigestion motor type.
C. Chronic gastritis.
D. Dyskinesia of the biliary tract.
E. Chronic duodenitis.
658. Helicobacter pylori colonize:
A. cardia of the stomach
B. fundus
C. pyloric
D. * antral
E. all true
659. Helicobacter pylori produce an enzyme:
A. Lactase
B. * Urease
C. peptidase
D. lipase
E. Amylase
660. Helicobacter pylori promote:
A. esophagitis
B. * gastritis
C. colitis
D. gastro - duodenitis
E. hepatitis
661. Histamine H2- blockers include:
A. smecta
B. almagel
C. * ranitidine
D. omeprazole
E. motilium
662. Histological classification of gastro-duodenitis
A. Restricted common
B. Primary and secondary
C. Acute and chronic
D. Antral and fundic
E. * Surface and diffuse
663. How long after the acute chronic gastroduodenitis children displayed a resort treatment?
A. 1 month
B. * 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months

E. 1 year
664. How physiotherapy can be used in children with pain syndrome in chronic gastroduodenitis?
A. ozocerite applications
B. tyubazh with xylitol
C. * electrophoresis of novocaine
D. diathermy
E. mud applications
665. Impurities of bile in the vomit indicates the location of
A. of the esophagus
B. stomach
C. * average of duodenal ulcers
D. colon
E. small intestine
666. In case of severe esophageal mucosal injury with severe pain prescribed diet
A. enteral
B. with a spoon
C. * parenteral
D. Fractional
E. the bottle
667. In childhood chronic gastroduodenitis prevalence for most often:
A. antral
B. fundic
C. piloroduodenitis
D. bulbitis
E. * common
668. In gastric ulcer using the following drugs:
A. Analgin
B. * De-nol
C. essentiale
D. Prednisone
E. aspirin
669. In many syndromes combined clinical features of chronic gastritis:
A. 1
B. 2
C. * 3
D. 4
E. 5
670. In mild severe ulcers:
A. * ulcer healing period of 1 month in remission for over a year
B. ulcer healing time up to 2 weeks to 6 months of remission
C. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months in remission less than 1 year
D. term ulcer healing 1 month recurrence up to 2 times a year
E. ulcer healing period of up to 2 months, recurrence at 1 year
671. In order to monitor the effectiveness of Helicobacter therapy prescribed
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. EFGDS

C. pH meter
D. * urea breath test
E. Common blood analysis
672. In patients with duodenitis pain occurs more frequently through:
A. 15-30 min. after meals
B. 30-45 min. after meals
C. 45-60 min. after meals
D. * 1-1.5 hours after meals
E. all true
673. In patients with gastritis pain occurs due to:
A. * 15-30 min. after meals
B. 30-45 min. after meals
C. 45-60 min. after meals
D. 1-1.5 hours after meals
E. all wrong
674. In the development of ulcerative colitis / UC / leading role:
A. viral infections
B. bacterial Infections
C. * autoimmune reactions
D. intestinal symbiosis
E. helminthiasis
675. In what direction is conducted palpation of the sigmoid colon at its default location?
A. - Top left - bottom right
B. * - It is top - bottom left
C. - From left to right relative to body length
D. - Left bottom - top right
E. - Right to left relative to body length
676. In what position to take medication to patients with acute esophagitis
A. standing
B. * lying
C. sitting
D. half-sitting
E. reclining
677. Increased secretion in patients with gastritis pain:
A. weakly expressed
B. dull
C. moderate
D. * intensive
E. there is not
678. Indications for antibiotics in UC:
A. Increased bleeding
B. Increased stool
C. The appearance of the stool mucus, pus
D. * Septic complications
E. Increased abdominal pain
679. Indications for assignment Motilium are:

A. increased secretion
B. pain syndrome
C. * expressed dyspeptic syndrome
D. reduced secretion
E. presence of "hungry" pain
680. Indications of prednisolone at UC following except:
A. skin damage
B. joint damage
C. eye damage
D. Swelling
E. * anemia
681. Leading to the diagnosis of achalasia is
A. EFGDS
B. * contrast x-ray study of the esophagus
C. Ultrasonography of internal organs
D. CT
E. nuclear magnetic resonance
682. Low secretion in patients with gastritis pain:
A. intensive
B. * weakly expressed
C. acute
D. missing
E. all wrong
683. Main clinical manifestations of achalasia?
A. * dysphagia and regurgitation
B. Heartburn pain and epigastric
C. prolonged nausea, bitter taste in the mouth
D. diarrhea, sometimes constipation
E. pain in the right upper quadrant
684. Massive antibiotic therapy for peptic ulcer requires the use of
A. analgesic
B. antipyretics
C. * Probiotics
D. hormones
E. cytostatics
685. Morphological forms of gastro-duodenitis in children following except:
A. Surface
B. erosive
C. Hemorrhagic
D. * Ulcer- necrotic
E. mixed
686. Most suffer from a stomach ulcer:
A. preschool children
B. school-age children
C. * girls
D. boys

E. Children of first three years of life.

687. Night pain characteristic of patients with acid - function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. achlorhydria
E. all true
688. On palpation of the anterior abdominal wall in patients with chronic intestinal disorders such data can
be obtained, except:
A. - Power anterior abdominal wall
B. - The presence of pain in different areas of the belly
C. - The presence of hyperesthesia of the skin
D. - The presence of condensed structures in the abdomen
E. * - The presence of fecal conglomerates in the rectal ampulla
689. Pain fasting characteristic of patients with acid - function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. achlorhydria
E. That's right
690. Pain in duodenal ulcer is not characterized by:
A. "Hungry" pain
B. night pain
C. Late pain
D. * pain immediately after eating
E. pain after exercise
691. Pain in isolated gastritis is characterized by:
A. Pain in fasting
B. Increased pain after exercise
C. * Pain in after eating
D. Increased pain in position on the right side
E. two-wave pains
692. Pain in isolated lesions of duodenal ulcer characterized by:
A. "Two-wave" pain
B. * Pain fasting
C. Pain after eating
D. Pain that increases in horizontal position
E. Pain that increases after ingestion of fatty foods
693. Pain in remission of peptic ulcer is:
A. pronounced after a meal
B. * kept on deep palpation
C. absent;
D. may occur during exercise
E. sometimes bothers night.
694. Palpation to an acute ulcer is characterized by:
A. Kers symptom

B. symptom of Shchetkin -Blumberg;

C. * symptom of Mendel
D. symptom Pasternatsky
E. Ortners symptom
695. Pathogenesis of gastritis:
A. increase in mucous discharge
B. * increased secretion of hydrochloric acid
C. increased secretion of bicarbonate
D. physiological blood flow in the mucosa
E. reduction of gastric acid secretion
696. Pathogenetic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease of II stage
A. reparant antacids
B. antacids, prokinetics, antibiotics
C. * antacids, prokinetics, blockers of histamine H2-receptor
D. blockers of histamine H2 -receptor antagonists, bismuth preparations
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
697. Pathogenic therapy of gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis
A. antispasmodics, antacids
B. * antacids, prokinetics
C. prokinetics, blockers of histamine H2-receptor
D. antacids reparant
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
698. Pathogenic therapy of gastroesophageal reflux disease of III-IV stage
A. * proton pump inhibitors, cytoprotectors
B. antacids, prokinetics
C. antibiotics, antispasmodics
D. antacids, H2- blockers of histamine receptors
E. analgesics, antispasmodics
699. Patients with UC prohibit such fruit, except:
A. raspberries
B. oranges
C. * apples
D. watermelon
E. grapes
700. Perforation of ulcers in UC is characterized by the following except:
A. Sudden drop in blood pressure
B. tachycardia
C. Sharp deterioration in the general condition
D. * Increased intestinal bleeding
E. Cutting pain in the abdomen
701. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastro-duodenitis with acid- function:
A. increased
B. normal
C. * reduced
D. preserved
E. all wrong

702. Prevalence of dyspeptic pain syndrome typical gastroduodenitis with acid- function:
A. * increased
B. normal
C. reduced
D. achlorhydria
E. all true
703. Products formation of gastric juice urea hydrolisation:
A. oxygen
B. * ammonia
C. nitrogen
D. chlorine
E. fluorine
704. Radiological signs of ulcers are:
A. radial convergence of the stomach wall
B. thickening of the walls
C. thickening of the mucosal folds
D. * existence of a "alcove" of the inflammatory axis
E. smoothing the folds of mucous
705. Regulator selection of hydrochloric acid is:
A. somastatyn
B. glucagon
C. * gastrin
D. insulin
E. trypsin
706. Secondary gastro most often occurs on the background:
A. food poisoning
B. of Helicobacter pylori
C. worms invasions
D. * other chronic diseases of the digestive system
E. fermentopathy
707. Severity of dyspeptic symptoms in children with chronic gastroduodenitis depends on:
A. * secretory function
B. age of the child
C. dietary habits
D. intervals between meals
E. balance of ingredients of food
708. Signs of dyspeptic syndrome:
A. abdominal pain
B. headache
C. weakness
D. * nausea
E. Vomiting
709. Sour smell of vomit indicates the eruption of their
A. oral
B. larynx
C. esophagus
D. * stomach
E. Colon
710. The average duration of histamine H2- blockers in the treatment of gastric ulcer:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
E. * 6-8 weeks
711. The average duration of histamine H2- blockers in the treatment of peptic ulcer of duodenum:
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. * 4-6 weeks
E. 6 8weeks
712. The current treatment regimen of chronic gastroduodenitis associated with HP is:
A. Single component
B. two-component
C. * four-component
D. five-component
E. multicomponent
713. The dose of prednisolone at UC:
A. 0.5 mg / kg per day
B. * 1 mg / kg per day
C. 2 mg / kg per day
D. 3 mg / kg per day
E. 5 mg / kg per day
714. The enzyme urease hydrolyzes in gastric contents:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. mucus
D. * urea
E. bile
715. The gold standard in the diagnosis of gastro-esophageal reflux
A. EFGDS
B. * daily intra esophageal pH-metry
C. x-ray with barium
D. Ultrasound of the abdomen
E. Echo CS
716. The group of drugs is reparant
A. Maalox
B. motilium
C. * Aktovegin
D. Smecta
E. omeprazole
717. The leading symptom of I stage of ulcers are:
A. * pain

B. vomiting
C. belching
D. heartburn
E. local muscle tension
718. The main criterion for radiological research gastro-esophageal reflux
A. retrograde penetration of barium into the stomach ulcer 12paloyi
B. * retrograde penetration of barium from the stomach into the esophagus in a horizontal position
C. total narrowing of the esophagus
D. cone-shaped narrowing of the esophagus
E. cone-shaped extension of the esophagus
719. The main method of diagnostic of UC is:
A. ultrasound
B. * Sigmoidoscopy
C. Irygographia
D. Radiography of the gastrointestinal tract
E. Investigation of fecal occult blood
720. The main pathognomonic sign for gastroesophageal reflux disease are:
A. Pain behind the breastbone
B. * Heartburn
C. Nausea
D. Vomiting
E. Flatulence
721. The most common complication of peptic ulcer in children is:
A. * bleeding
B. stenosis of the pylorus
C. penetration
D. perforation
E. peryvistserytis
722. The most common location of pain duodenitis:
A. around the navel
B. right upper quadrant
C. * pyloroduodenal zone
D. left upper quadrant
E. behind the breastbone
723. The most common location of pain in gastritis:
A. around the navel
B. right upper quadrant
C. left upper quadrant
D. * epigastria
E. behind the breastbone
724. The presence of blood in the stool requires differential diagnosis of these diseases, except:
A. Portal hypertension
B. System vasculitis
C. Crohn's Disease
D. Ulcerative Colitis
E. * Peptic ulcer and duodenal ulcer

725. The sequence of symptoms in Moinigans rhythm is follows:

A. meal - pain - hunger - relief
B. * hunger - pain - eating - relief
C. Pain - hunger - a meal - relief
D. hunger - relief - meal - pain
E. meal - relief - pain - hunger
726. The three major syndromes of chronic gastritis:
A. pain, diarrhea, hemorrhagic
B. * pain, diarrhea, intoxication
C. dysuria, diarrhea, intoxication
D. pain, hemorrhage, dysuria
E. all true
727. To epithelialization of ulcers and esophageal erosions prescribed
A. almagel
B. * sea ??buckthorn oil
C. activated carbon
D. prednisolone
E. famotidine
728. To probiotics for the treatment of chronic gastro-duodenitis include
A. festal
B. Smecta
C. * Linex
D. Metronidazole
E. Sea buckthorn oil
729. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. * formation of mucus
D. gastrin
E. Trypsin
730. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. * prostaglandin E2
D. insulin
E. mucosal ischemia
731. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. pepsin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. * bicarbonate
D. gastrin
E. glucagon
732. To the factors protect the gastric mucosa belongs:
A. * secretory Ig A
B. hydrochloric acid
C. pepsin

D. gastrin
E. all true
733. Top gastroenterological diseases in children:
A. Isolated gastritis
B. Isolated duodenitis
C. * gastro
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Peptic ulcer 12 duodenal ulcer
734. Treatment of achalasia:
A. * papaverine
B. motilium
C. indomethacin
D. ranitidine
E. omeprazole
735. Treatment of children with chronic gastroduodenitis should be:
A. long
B. constant
C. * complex and landmark
D. stationary
E. ambulatory
736. What almagel A dose administered to children under 10 years?
A. ? tablespoon 3 times a day
B. ? teaspoon 4 times a day
C. 1 tablespoon 3 times a day
D. * 1 teaspoon 4 times a day
E. 1 dessert spoon 3 times a day
737. What are the characteristics of dyspeptic symptoms in ulcer exacerbation stage?
A. expressed
B. held nausea
C. sour belching
D. * absent
E. heartburn
738. What are the contraindications for the sigmoidoscopy?
A. - Prolapse of the rectum
B. - Bleeding from the intestines
C. - Mucus in the feces
D. - Bleeding from feces
E. * - No contraindications
739. What are the most frequent causes of dysphagia in older children?
A. defects of the mouth and throat
B. malformations of esophagus
C. * inflammation, injury, larynx, esophagus
D. neurogenic disorders (intracranial hemorrhage)
E. tumors of the stomach and intestines
740. What are the most frequent causes of neonatal dysphagia?
A. * malformations of the larynx and esophagus

B. inflammation of the larynx and esophagus

C. psychogenic violation
D. tumors of the esophagus and mediastinum
E. tumors of the stomach and intestines
741. What are the radiological signs of chalasia
A. * New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach
B. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcers in stomach
C. conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath
D. narrowing of the esophagus just
E. expand all esophagus
742. What are the symptoms chalasia
A. pain behind the breastbone and heartburn
B. * regurgitation and vomiting
C. nausea
D. sometimes constipation diarrhea
E. Pain when chewing
743. What determines the length of bed regime in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children?
A. The severity of dyspeptic symptoms
B. magnitude of secretion
C. * severity of pain
D. age of the child
E. endoscopic changes
744. What dose of mineral water intended for internal use children?
A. 1 ml / kg
B. 2 ml / kg
C. * 3 ml / kg
D. 5 ml / kg
E. 10 ml / kg
745. What dose of motilium assigned to children?
A. 0.025 - 0.01 mg / kg
B. 0.1 - 0.2 mg / kg
C. * 0.25 - 1 mg / kg
D. 1 - 2 mg / kg
E. 3 - 5 mg / kg
746. What drugs are H2- histamine blockers?
A. Metoclopramide
B. almagel
C. * famotidine
D. De-nol
E. omeprazole
747. What drugs belong to cytoprotectors
A. De-nol
B. Omeprazole
C. * Sucralfate
D. Famotidine
E. Maalox

748. What drugs reduce the tone of the lower esophageal

A. antibiotics
B. * beta- blockers
C. analgesics
D. hormones
E. cytoprotectors
749. What drugs referred to as proton pump inhibitors
A. Phosphalugel
B. No-spa
C. De-nol
D. * Omeprazole
E. Solcoseril
750. What feature of the course of peptic ulcer in children?
A. mild course
B. * usually severe course
C. latent
D. slow course
E. chronic course
751. What group of drugs is Metoclopramide?
A. antacids
B. * prokinetic
C. H2- histamine blockers
D. antispasmodics
E. cytoprotectors
752. What group of drugs is solcoseril?
A. antacids
B. prokinetic
C. H2 histamine blockers
D. * reparant
E. cytoprotectors
753. What is achalasia?
A. * changes cardia under which hampered its permeability
B. failure gastro-esophageal sphincter
C. narrowing of the pylorus
D. failure pylorus
E. expand all esophagus
754. What is gastro-esophageal reflux?
A. is the involuntary leaking intestinal contents into the stomach
B. * is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the esophagus
C. is the involuntary leaking of gastric contents into the mouth
D. a failure pyloric stomach
E. a lack of gastric fundus
755. What is halaziya
A. Failure of the upper esophageal sphincter
B. * cardia insufficiency
C. failure pylorus
D. narrowing of the pylorus
E. expansion pylorus
756. What is the basis for functional disorders of the stomach for motor type ( hastroezophageal disorder):
A. Hypotension of cardia
B. Hypotension of pylorus
C. * Hypertension of cardia
D. Hypertension of pylorus
E. Pilorostenosis
757. What is the daily dose of cimetidine used in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis in children?
A. 1 mg / kg;
B. 3 mg / kg;
C. 5 mg / kg;
D. * 10 mg / kg;
E. 20 mg / kg.
758. What is the main characteristic of pain in the I stage of the ulcer?
A. * Fast or late
B. early
C. aching
D. on deep palpation
E. Late pain more day
759. What is the main radiological sign of achalasia?
A. New barium mixture flows into the esophagus from the stomach
B. New to the flow of barium mixture of duodenal ulcer in stomach
C. * conical narrowing of the distal esophagus and expanding area underneath
D. expand all esophagus
E. narrowing of the esophagus just
760. What is the most informative method of instrumental diagnosis of functional disorders of the
stomach:
A. X-ray
B. * EFGDS
C. Ultrasound
D. Ph -metry
E. Duodenal intubation.
761. What is the primary diagnosis chalasia
A. * EFGDS
B. ultrasound
C. nuclear magnetic resonance
D. tomography
E. R-graphia
762. What kind of diet is prescribed for acute chronic gastroduodenitis?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 9
E. * 1a 1b
763. What medication is prescribed for treatment of chalasia?

A. papaverine
B. analginum
C. * motilium
D. aspirin
E. penicillin
764. What method of diagnosis is carried out during endoscopic examination?
A. * Urease test on biopsies
B. Respiratory urease test
C. serological diagnosis
D. Microbiological examination of biopsy
E. All right
765. What methods of examination used to diagnose in chalasia
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. * Contrast radiography of the esophagus
C. CT
D. nuclear magnetic resonance
E. R-graphia
766. What neutralizes ammonia in gastric juice?
A. pepsin
B. * hydrochloric acid
C. bicarbonate
D. mucus
E. bile
767. What position in bed should occupy patients with gastroesophageal reflux during sleep?
A. horizontal
B. with lowered head end
C. * with raised at least 15cm head
D. with raised footside
E. sitting
768. What preparation is reparant, used for stomach ulcers?
A. Maalox
B. motilium
C. * sea ??buckthorn oil
D. Smecta
E. omeprazole
769. What resulted from the research methods are the most important for the diagnosis of chronic
gastroduodenitis?
A. * EFGDS
B. pH meter
C. Fractional study of gastric contents
D. test for acidosis
E. radiographic
770. What secretory function is most prominent in childhood?
A. Reduced
B. reduced and maintained
C. * enhanced and maintained

D. increased
E. maintained.
771. When dysmotility should be prescribed:
A. no- spa
B. smecta
C. hastrofarm
D. * motilium
E. almagel
772. Which antacids would be the best used in children?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. * Maalox
C. calcium carbonate
D. magnesia
E. carbon dioxide
773. Which diagnostic methods refer to invasive?
A. * Bacteriological study of biopsy gastric mucosa
B. study of feces and saliva by polymerase reaction
C. breathe test
D. determination of immunoglobulins
E. "Aerotest"
774. Which diagnostic methods refer to non-invasive?
A. urease test
B. * "Aerotest"
C. de-nol -tests
D. study of nucleic acids
E. biopsy of the stomach or duodenum
775. Which drugs antacids should be used in children after 12 years?
A. * ranitidyn
B. famotidyn
C. Maalox
D. gastrocepin
E. haviskon
776. Which drugs is reparants?
A. * Spirulina
B. cimetidine
C. renehast
D. smecta
E. motilium
777. Which group includes Phosphalugel:
A. * antacids
B. prokinetic
C. H2 histamine blockers
D. antispasmodics
E. cytoprotectors
778. Which group of drugs used to treat gastro-esophageal reflux?
A. analgesics, antispasmodics

B. * antacids, prokinetic, antisecretory

C. antibiotics, antacids
D. reparants
E. analgesics, antispasmodics, prokinetics
779. Which medicines prescribed for acute esophagitis?
A. aspirin
B. * vikalin
C. prednisolone
D. laziks
E. ranitidine
780. Which of blood groups is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease?
A. * First Rh-positive
B. First Rh-negative
C. other
D. Three Rh-positive
E. Four Rh-positive
781. Which of the following drugs belong to antihelicobacter?
A. * De-nol
B. Maalox
C. hastrofarm
D. cimetidine
E. penicillin
782. Which of the following semi-quantitative indicators scatological study lies within the permissible
norms?
A. - Neutral Oil - (+)
B. - Fatty acids and soaps - (+)
C. * - Undigested cellulose - (+)
D. - Digested fiber - (+)
E. - Starch - (+)
783. Which of the survey data is not specific to patients with chronic bowel disease?
A. - Increasing the size of the belly
B. * - The marked expansion of the venous network of the anterior abdominal wall
C. - Protrusion of different divisions of the anterior abdominal wall
D. - Rumbling in the belly
E. - Visible peristalsis
784. Which of the them related to blocking histamine H2-receptor?
A. * cimetidine
B. Maalox
C. vikalin
D. metacin
E. hastrofarm
785. Which products related to cytoprotectors?
A. spirulina
B. cimetidine
C. renehast
D. * smecta

E. motilium
786. Which products related to reparant?
A. * hastrofarm
B. panzinorm
C. renehast
D. belaspon
E. ranitidyn
787. Which syndrome is the most constant at chronic gastroduodenitis in children?
A. * Pain
B. dyspeptic
C. intoxication
D. epithelial
E. hemosideric
788. Who is the main method for diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease:
A. EFGDS
B. Ultrasound
C. * Ph-metry of esophagus
D. Ro- graphy of esophagus
E. Duodenal intubation.
789. With increased gastric acidity is not typical:
A. constipation
B. * diarrhea
C. epigastric pain
D. belching
E. nausea
790. With increased secretion in patients with gastritis syndrome is more pronounced:
A. * pain
B. dyspeptic
C. intoxication
D. dysuria
E. hemorrhagic
791. At the sclerosis of what amount of nephrons and what level of creatininemia there is the stage of
decompensation of chronic kidney insufficiency?
A. 20% of nephrons and creatinin of blood up to 0,177 mmol\l
B. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0, 22 0,44 mmol\l
C. 75% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0, 25 0,40 mmol\l
D. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0,177 mmol\l
E. * 80-90% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0,44-0,707 mmol\l
792. At what disease may occur acute renal failure in a newborn baby?
A. Double kidneys
B. * Agenesia of kidneys
C. As transitional state of the newborn
D. Wilms tumor
E. Berger disease
793. Bacteriuria is considered significant if there is:
A. 1000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine

B. 5000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine

C. 10000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine
D. 25000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine
E. * 50000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine
794. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of:
A. Virus hepatitis
B. Hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. * Renal tumor
D. Glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelopephritis
795. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of:
A. Virus hepatitis
B. Hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. * Renal tumor
D. Glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelopephritis
796. Combined kidney and bone lesions are characteristic for:
A. * Tubular renal acidosis
B. Hereditary nephritis
C. Amyloidosis of kidneys
D. Polycystosis of kidneys
E. Wilms tumor
797. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of:
A. * Virus hepatitis
B. Hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. Renal-tumor
D. Glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelopephritis
798. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of:
A. * Virus hepatitis
B. Hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. Renal-tumor
D. Glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelopephritis
799. Dose of heparin during acute glomerulonephritis is:
A. 50-100 Un/kg/day
B. 400-500 Un/kg/day
C. 70-150 Un/kg/day
D. * 100-300 Un/kg/day
E. 250-500 Un/kg/day
800. Dose of prednisolone during the nephrotic variant of glomerulonephritis is:
A. 0,5 0,75 mg/kg/day
B. 0,8 1 mg/kg/day
C. * 1,5 2,5 mg/kg/day
D. 2,5 3 mg/kg/day
E. 4 4,5 mg/kg/day

801. During the hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis it is necessary to
prescribe with the prednisolone:
A. Nonsteroid antiinflamation drugs
B. Preparates of aminohinoline group
C. * Cytostatics
D. Heparin
E. Curantil
802. Dysuria doesnt include symptom of:
A. Painful urination
B. * Poliuria
C. Urinary urgency
D. Incomplete voiding
E. Enuresis
803. Edema syndrome at hereditary nephropathy is often seen as:
A. Swollen face
B. Swollen legs
C. Anasarca
D. * Swollen skin
E. Swollen lumbar area
804. For diagnostic of this pathology you can use all methods, except
A. Excretory urography
B. Ultrasound examination
C. Computer tomography
D. * Cystoscopy
E. MR tomography
805. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) is suspected. What is characteristic for this disease?
A. Hematuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Crystaluria
D. * Deafness
E. Leucocyturia
806. Hereditary nephritis is inherited by:
A. * Dominant type, connected with the X chromosome
B. Recessive type, connected with the X chromosome
C. Dominant type, connected with Y chromosome
D. Recessive type, connected with Y chromosome
E. Autosomal recessive type
807. Hereditary nephritis is typically ends with:
A. Recovering
B. Formation of pyelonephrosis
C. * Chronic renal failure
D. Development of urolithiasis
E. Acute renal failure
808. Hereditary nephritis with deafness is called:
A. Disease-de Toni- Debrae- Fanconi
B. Berger's disease

C. * Alport syndrome
D. Harnupa disease
E. Leu syndrome
809. How collect urine for urinanalysis (general analyses of the urine):
A. * Collect all morning urine; investigate physical properties, and lead microscopy
B. In the clear bottle collect urine, which was excreted of urine while 10 nights hours (from 22 to 8).
C. Use for investigate minute leukocyturia formed elements which excreted of urine for 3 hours
D. Taking middle portion of morning urine, near 2-3 ml
E. Collect 8-portion urine while 24 hours
810. How long is continues antibacterial therapy of inflammation process of this organ?
A. 7-14 days
B. 14-21 days
C. * before the complete clinical and laboratory remission
D. within 6 months
E. before the partial clinical-laboratorial remission
811. How to collect sample of urine for analysis in babies?
A. To catch some urine in the specimen bottle whilst
B. * To place a specially designed absorbent pad in a nappy
C. To use a syringe
D. To use catheter
E. All transferred
812. Hypertension at renal diseases in children is:
A. Short
B. Easy to treat
C. * Resistance to treatment
D. Especially expressed at Hereditary nephritis
E. Increased only systolic pressure
813. Hypotensive syndrome may occur at:
A. Phosphate-diabetes
B. Tubular renal acidosis
C. * Hereditary nephritis without deafness
D. Nephroptosis
E. Wilms tumor
814. If remission cannot be achieved at treatment of focal-segmental glomerulosclerosis with prednisolon
it is necessary to prescribe:
A. Cyclosporin A+ prednisolon
B. Cyclosporin A+ non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
C. * Cyclosporin A as monotherapy
D. Cyclosporin A+heparin
E. Cyclosporin A+trental
815. Indicate the factors that contribute to the development of microbial-inflammatory process in the
urinary system in children:
A. Bladder-ureter reflux
B. Neurogenic bladder dysfunction
C. Stenosis of pelvic-ureteral segment
D. * Hypotension of ureters
E. All transferred

816. Indicate which of the following below is a feature of acute urinary infections in infants and children
during the first months of life?
A. * High fever
B. Dyspepsia
C. Severe intoxication
D. Dizuric signs
E. All transferred
817. It is nessesary to prescribe imunosupressors during acute glomerulonephritis in the case of:
A. Suddenly beginning of disease
B. Severe proteinuria
C. * The absence of effect from the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephrotic
variant
D. The absence of effect from the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephritic
variant
E. The damaging of functions of kidneys at the beginning of disease
818. Kidney angiography is the main investigation for
A. * Suspicion on the defects of development or diseases of vessels
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Nephroptosis
D. Nephritis
E. Glomerulonephritis
819. Kidney angiography is the main investigation for
A. * Suspicion on the defects of development or diseases of vessels
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Nephroptosis
D. Nephritis
E. Glomerulonephritis
820. Kidney biopsy is necessary in the case of:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. * Kidney disease is unclear
E. All transferred
821. Megaureter is:
A. * Innate uretherctasis
B. Violation of ureter discharge
C. Absence of free transport urine from the kidney to the bladder
D. Obstruction of urine transport
E. All transferred
822. Mild proteinuria cannot be a symptom of:
A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Vulvovaginitis
D. * Glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome
E. Pyelopephritis
823. Name the extrarenal symptom of glomerulonephritis.
A. Oliguria and anuria

B. Hematuria and proteinuria (mild, moderate, significant)

C. Casts
D. * Arterial hypertension
E. All symptoms are renal
824. Name the forms of chronic glomerulonephritis.
A. Nephrotic, nephritic, mixed
B. * Nephrotic, hematuric, mixed
C. Nephritic, hematuric, mixed
D. Urinary, nephritic, mixed
E. Urinary, hematuric, mixed
825. Name the post-renal cause of acute renal failure.
A. Calculus
B. Blood dots
C. Crystals of uric acid
D. Sulphonamides
E. * All transferred
826. Name the wrong assertion about acute renal failure.
A. It is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys
B. * It is accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic alcalosis
C. It is resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine)
D. It is resulting in retention of non-nitrogenous waste products
E. All answers are right
827. Name the wrong assertion about acute renal failure.
A. It is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys
B. * It is accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic alcalosis
C. It is resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine)
D. It is resulting in retention of non-nitrogenous waste products
E. All answers are right
828. Nephritic syndrome doesnt include:
A. Edema
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Mild proteinuria
D. * Proteinuria more than 3 g/l
E. Hematuria, casturia
829. Nephrotic form of hereditary nephritis is more common in:
A. Pre-school age
B. * Newborns
C. Boys
D. Girls
E. School age
830. Pathogenic mechanisms of formation of primary (hereditary) tubulopathies are associated with the
following factors:
A. Genetic determined disorders the structure of membrane protein carriers
B. Enzimopathic hereditary enzyme deficiency
C. Changes in sensitivity of receptors tubular epithelial cells to the action of hormones
D. * Changes in the overall structure cells membrane in dysplasia

E. All transferred
831. Pyelonephritis is distinguishing from low urinary infection by:
A. Fever more than 38,5
B. Leukocytosis and increasing of ESR
C. Increasing of concentration function of kidneys
D. Proteinuria and aminoaciduria
E. * All transferred
832. Rickets like changes among hereditary nephropathy are often found as:
A. Cystic kidneys
B. * Phosphate-diabetes
C. Renal without hereditary deafness
D. Renal with hereditary deafness
E. Renal amyloidosis
833. Secondary tubulopathy is observed as:
A. Phosphate-diabetes
B. Tubulyar renal acidosis
C. Disease de Toni-Debrae-Fanconi
D. Hereditary nephritis
E. * Galaktozemia
834. Secondary tubulopathy is observed at:
A. Phosphate-diabetes
B. Tubulyar renal acidosis
C. Disease de Toni-Debrae-Fanconi
D. Hereditary nephritis
E. * Galaktozemia
835. Severe edema syndrome is more characteristic for:
A. Myocarditis
B. * Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Kidney stones disease
E. Cystitis
836. Significant proteinuria is the symptom of:
A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Vulvovaginitis
D. * Glomerulonephritis
E. Pyelopephritis
837. Syndrome of urine changes doesnt includes:
A. * Painful urination
B. Proteinuria
C. Hematuria
D. Casturia
E. Leucocyturia
838. The average age dose of lasix is:
A. * 1-2 mg/kg/day
B. 4-5 mg/kg/day

C. 10 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5-1 mg/kg/day
E. 0,5mg/kg/day
839. The basis of the pathogenesis of hereditary nephritis is:
A. Inflammatory process in glomerulars
B. * Dysembriogenesis of connective tissue
C. Violation of intravascular coagulation in glomerular capillaries
D. Failure of proximal tubules in reabsorbtion of bicarbonates
E. Violation of the process in tubular transport
840. The children of school age have normal contents of urea in the blood:
A. 21,44-32,76 mmol/l
B. * 3,33-8,32 mmol/l
C. 15,66-17,45 mmol/l
D. 1,76-2,87 mmol/l
E. 2,43-3,76mmol/l
841. The children of school age have normal contents of creatinin in the blood:
A. * Up to 0,1 mmol/l
B. B. 2,1-3,2 mmol/l
C. 4,3-7,3 mmol/l
D. 15,0-17,3 mmol/l
E. 4,2- 1,1 mmol/l
842. The development of hereditary nephropathy is often associated with:
A. Sex chromosome abnormality
B. * Gene mutations
C. Chronic inflammatory diseases of the mother
D. Measles of pregnant women
E. Change of the number of chromosomes
843. The diagnostic criterion of hereditary nephritis does not include:
A. Urinary Syndrome
B. Deafness
C. Dysmorphies
D. * Prior tonsillaties
E. Similar illness in family
844. The drug for treatment of dismetabolic nephropathies is:
A. * Kanefron
B. Penicillin
C. Bicillin
D. Aspirin
E. Linex
845. The function of this organ you can define using
A. Cystography
B. Cystoscopy
C. Nechiporenkos test
D. Endogenous creatinine clearance
E. * Ultrasound examination

846. The kidneys are able to maintain the chemical composition of fluids within normal limits until
functional renal capacity is destroyed of more than:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. * 50%
D. 75%
E. 90%
847. The main criterion of differential diagnose of hereditary nephritis is:
A. * Genetic anamnesis
B. Hematuria
C. Proteinuria
D. Previous renal colic attacks
E. Hypertension
848. The main criterion of hematuric form of chronic glomerulonephritis is:
A. Arterial hypertension
B. Proteinuria
C. * Hematuria
D. Cylindruria
E. Leucocyturia
849. The main role in etiology of pielonephritis plays:
A. * Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Micoplasma
D. Parasites
E. Fungi
850. The main symptoms of De Toni-Debre-Fanconi syndrome are:
A. Failure to thrive
B. Vomiting
C. Unexplained fever
D. Excessive urination with dehydration
E. * All transferred
851. The main task of therapy of acute cystitis in children should be directed to:
A. The elimination of pain
B. Normalization of urination disorders
C. Elimination of microbial-inflammatory process in the bladder
D. Liquidation of spasms
E. * All transferred
852. The middle age dose of Amicin is:
A. * 15-10 mg/kg/day
B. 4-5 mg/kg/day
C. 10 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5-1 mg/kg/day
E. 0,5 mg/day
853. The middle age dose of nitrofurans is:
A. * 8 mg/kg/day
B. 50-100 mg/kg/day
C. 1-2 mg/kg/day
D. 15-20 mg/kg/day
E. 20-50 mg/kg/day
854. The sing of recovering after acute glomerulonephritis is the period of clinical and laboratory
remission during:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. * 5 years
D. 2 years
E. 6 months
855. The sing of recovering after acute glomerulonephritis is the period of clinical and laboratory
remission during:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. * 5 years
D. 2 years
E. 6 months
856. The test of urine by Zimnitsky gives information about:
A. * Concentration function
B. Bacteruria
C. Leucocyturia
D. Erythrocyturia
E. Glucosuria
857. The vast majority of crystalluria and dysmetabolic nephropathy are related to:
A. * Calcium oxalates
B. Calcium phosphates
C. Tripelphospates
D. Urate crystalluria
E. Cystine crystalluria
858. The Zimnitskys test of urine gives information about:
A. * Concentration function
B. Bacteruria
C. Leucocyturia
D. Erithrocyturia
E. Glucosuria
859. Treatment of subacute glomerulonephritis includes:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Trental, Heparin
D. Plasmapheresis
E. * All transferred
860. Tubulopathies do not include:
A. Renal diabetes insipidus
B. Phosphate-diabetes
C. Disease de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae
D. Alport syndrome
E. * Tubular renal acidosis

861. Urine analysis determines such data, except:

A. Colour of urine
B. Specific gravity
C. Level of protein, glucose, sugar, ketone bodies
D. Microscopy of sediment: leukocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders, endotelial cells
E. * Daily urine volume
862. Vitamin-D-resistant rickets occurs due to:
A. * X-linked hypophosphatemia
B. X-linked hypocalcaemia
C. Lack of vitamin D in ration
D. Lack of phosphorus in ration
E. Lack of calcium in ration
863. What are possible complications of hereditary nephritis?
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Decrease or loss of vision
C. End-stage renal disease
D. Permanent deafness and blindness
E. * All transferred
864. What are the clinical signs of megaureter in older childrem?
A. Pains in the abdomen or lumbar region
B. Admixture of blood in the urine
C. Palpable abdominal tumor formation
D. Formation of stones in the urinary tract
E. * All transferred
865. What are the extrarenal causes of acute renal failure?
A. Acute gastroenteritis (vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric tubes)
B. Acute anemia (hemolytic crises, including sickle cell crisis)
C. Shock
D. Congestive heart failure
E. * All transferred
866. What are the main causes of urethritis in children?
A. Irritation by chemicals in bubble bath
B. Shampoo left on the genital area
C. Soap left on the genital area
D. Urinary tract infections
E. * All transferred
867. What diet it is necessary prescribe during acute pyelonephritis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 7
E. * 5
868. What disease can occur with isolated moderate proteinuria?
A. Phosphate-diabetes
B. Hereditary nephritis
C. Amyloidosis of kidneys

D. * Nephroptosis
E. Wilms tumor
869. What disease is accompanied with bone changes?
A. * Phosphate-diabetes
B. Hereditary nephritis
C. Amyloidosis of kidneys
D. Policystic kidneys
E. Wilms tumor
870. What does allow doctors to visualize the anatomy of the ureter and assess how well the kidneys
collect and drain urine?
A. Voiding cystouretrogram
B. * Intravenous pyelogram
C. A renal (kidney) scan
D. USO
E. MRI
871. What dose of heparin it is necessary to prescribe during acute glomerulonephritis?
A. 50-100 IU/kg
B. * 100-300 IU/kg
C. 10-20 IU/kg
D. 500-600 IU/kg
E. 250-500 IU/kg
872. What drug do we use in the case of nephrotic syndrome for pathogenetical treatment?
A. * Prednisolone
B. Penicillin
C. Curantil
D. Suprastin
E. Ascorutin
873. What from diseases more frequent can result development of chronic kidney insufficiency?
A. Kidney stones disease
B. Metabolic nephropathies
C. Reflux
D. * Chronic glomerulonephritis
E. Oxalaturia
874. What from formulas is necessary for the calculation of day's amount of urine for children?
A. * 600+100(n-1), where n-amount of years
B. 500(n+5), where n-amount of years
C. WEIGHT+10
D. 600(n+5), where n-amount of years
E. 600(n+10), where n-amount of years
875. What from such biochemical tests cannot demonstrate activity of inflammatory process at
glomerulonephritis?
A. Protein and its fractions
B. C reactive protein
C. Seromucoid
D. ESR
E. * Ca and P of blood
876. What from such drugs is ineffective at treatment of pyelonephritis?

A. Ampicillin
B. Amicin
C. Cefatoxin
D. * Levomicetin
E. Loracin
877. What from such drugs is not used at treatment of acute pyelonephritis?
A. Antibiotics
B. Uroseptics
C. * Hormones
D. Antiinflamation drugs
E. Diet
878. What from the diseases is contraindication for prescribing of heparin?
A. Nephrotic syndrome of acute glomerulonephritis
B. Mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Sub acute malignant glomerulonephritis
D. * Aplastic anemia
E. Nephrotic syndrome of chronic glomerulonephritis
879. What from the methods of researches is most informing at the syndrome of malignant hypertension?
A. X-ray of kidneys
B. Excretory X- ray of kidneys
C. * Angiography
D. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
880. What from the pathological states cannot be the reason of the secondary pyelonephritis?
A. Kidney stones disease
B. Dismetabolic nephropathies
C. Reflux disease
D. * Hereditary nephritis
E. Oxaluria
881. What from the resulted positions is incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome?
A. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed
B. The dose of diuretics depends of effect
C. * Cytostatics are prescribing to all patients
D. During edema syndrome and hypercoagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin
E. Cytostatics are prescribing only according indications
882. What from the resulted signs are not characteristic for the mixed form of glomerulonephritis?
A. Arterial hypertension
B. Edema syndrome
C. * The absence of hypoproteinemia with disproteinemia
D. Urine syndrome
E. Hematuria
883. What from the resulted symptoms is not characteristic for glomerulonephritis?
A. Pain in back
B. * Pain during the act of urination
C. Hypertension
D. Edema

E. Oliguria
884. What from the variants of therapy most expedient during the mixed form of chronic
glomerulonephritis?
A. Monotherapy of prednizolone
B. * Prednisolone and cytostatics
C. Prednisolone and heparin
D. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil
E. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and cytostatics
885. What from these signs do not present at pyelonephritis?
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucocyturia
C. Little proteinuria
D. * Hematuria
E. Bacteriuria
886. What investigation demonstrate the concentration function of kidneys?
A. General analysis of urine
B. Analysis of urine by Nechiporenko
C. * Analysis of urine by Zimnitskiy
D. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
887. What investigation demonstrate the concentration function of kidneys?
A. General analysis of urine
B. Analysis of urine by Nechiporenko
C. * Analysis of urine by Zimnitskiy
D. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
888. What investigation is used when doctor suspect obstruction of ureterovesical junction?
A. Intravenous pyelogram
B. * A renal (kidney) scan
C. Voiding cystouretrogram
D. USO
E. MRI
889. What investigation is used when doctor suspect vesicoureteral reflux?
A. Intravenous pyelogram
B. * Excretory cystogram
C. A renal (kidney) scan
D. USO
E. MRI
890. What investigation must be performed to confirm the kidneys dysfunction during chronic
glomerulonephritis?
A. General analysis of urine
B. * Endogenous creatinin clearance
C. Nechiporenko test
D. Estimation of daily proteinuria
E. Estimation of cholesterol
891. What is agenesia of kidney?
A. Absence of differentiation of kidney tissue

B. * Absence of kidney
C. Polycyst kidney
D. Small kidney
E. Small amount of pelvis
892. What is Alport syndrome?
A. Cystic kidneys
B. * Hereditary nephritis with deafness
C. Hereditary nephritis without deafness
D. Renal diabetes
E. Embryonic kidney tumor
893. What is more often the reason of glomerulonephritis?
A. * Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. E.l
D. Hepatitis A virus
E. Influenza virus
894. What is not a form of acute glomerulonephritis?
A. With nephritic syndrome
B. With nephrotic syndrome
C. With nephrotic syndrome, adding arterial hypertension, hematuria
D. With urinary syndrome
E. * Mixed form
895. What is not characteristic for urethritis in children?
A. Discomfort, stinging, or burning when urinating
B. Feeling an urgent and frequent need to urinate
C. * Fever
D. Itching in the genital area
E. Pain in the genital area
896. What is not characteristic of hereditary nephritis?
A. * Edema
B. Arterial hypotension
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria
E. Dyzmorphies
897. What is not reason of functional proteinuria?
A. Proteinuria of newborn
B. Alimentary proteinuria
C. Orthostatic proteinuria
D. Febrile temperature
E. * Nephroptosis
898. What is not renal cause of acute renal failure?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Glomerular diseases
C. Acute bacterial pyelonephritis
D. * Calculus
E. Miscellaneous diseases
899. What is predispositive factor of the development bladder-urether-pelvis reflux in children?
A. * Anatomic immaturity of urether orifice
B. Intravesicular obstruction
C. Neurogenic dysfunction of urine bladder
D. Recanalization in violation of urethers in embriogenesis
E. All transferred
900. What is reason of pain during glomerulonephritis:
A. Inflammation syndrome
B. Stagnation of urine
C. * Enlargement of capsules of kidneys
D. Physical exertion
E. Hematuria
901. What is the dose of indometacin during treatment of nephritic variant of glomerulonephritis?
A. * 2-3 mg/kg/day
B. 1-2 mg/kg/day
C. 3 5 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5 1 mg/kg/day
E. 0,8 1 mg/kg/day
902. What is the drug of choice for treating phosphate-diabetes?
A. Prednisolone
B. Calcium preparations
C. * Vitamin D
D. Heparin
E. Parathyroid hormone
903. What is the etiologic factor of primary tubulopathy?
A. Microorganism
B. * Violation of membrane substances inrenal tubules
C. Reflux
D. Anatomic anomaly of kidney
E. Insufficiency of podotcytes
904. What is the etiologic factor of primary tubulopathy?
A. Microbs
B. * Violation of membrane substances inrenal tubules
C. Reflux
D. Anatomic anomaly of kidney
E. Insufficiency of podotcytes
905. What is the etiology of glomerulonephritis?
A. Bacterial (Group A streptococci, staphylococcal) infection
B. Viral ( hepatitis B, mononucleosis)
C. Fungal ( histoplasmosis)
D. Parasitic (toxoplasmosis)
E. * All transferred
906. What is the evidence of Streptococcal etiology of glomerulonephritis?
A. Raised antistreptolysin-O
B. Raised antihyaluronidase
C. Raised antideoxyribonuclease-B

D. Raised antinicotinamide adenine dinucleotidase

E. * All transferred
907. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure?
A. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
B. * Increased level of creatinin and urea, decreased filtrative function of the kidneys
C. Anemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Polyuria
908. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure?
A. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
B. * Increased level of creatinin and urea, decreased filtrative function of the kidneys
C. Anemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Polyuria
909. What is the main feature of kidney edema?
A. * Appears at morning, warm, pale
B. Appears in the second half of day, cold, cyanotic
C. Dense
D. Disposed mainly on trunk
E. Disposed mainly on place or sex organs
910. What is the main feature of kidney edema?
A. * Appears at morning, warm, pale
B. Appears in the second half of day, cold, cyanotic
C. Dense
D. Disposed mainly on trunk
E. Disposed mainly on place or sex organs
911. What is the main feature of urine infection in children?
A. Leucocyturia
B. * Bacteriuria
C. Erythrocyturia
D. Cylindruria
E. All transferred
912. What is the main pathogenetical mechanism of development of glomerulonephritis?
A. Bacterial inflammation
B. Allergy reaction
C. * Immunocomplex damaging
D. Violation of passage of urine
E. Reflux
913. What is the main pathogenetical mechanism of development of glomerulonephritis?
A. Bacterial inflammation
B. Allergy reaction
C. * Immunocomplex damaging
D. Violation of passage of urine
E. Reflux
914. What is the most distinctive feature of the initial period of hereditary nephritis?
A. Leukocyturia

B. Bacteriuria
C. * Microhematuria
D. Oxaluria
E. Uraturia
915. What is the most frequent complication of hereditary nephropathy?
A. Acute renal failure
B. Pyelonephrosis
C. * CRF
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Amiloidosis of kidneys
916. What is the most often course of Alport syndrome?
A. Acute
B. Immediate
C. Fast-progressive
D. * Undulating
E. Continuous-recurrent
917. What is the most often start of hereditary nephritis?
A. Gradual
B. Rapid
C. Acute
D. Immediate
E. * Unnoticed
918. What is the name of author, who described embryonic kidney tumor?
A. * Wilms
B. Bruton
C. Edwards
D. Allbright
E. von Willebrand
919. What is the name of this examination?
A. * Excretory urography
B. Ultrasound examination
C. Computer tomography
D. Cystoscopy
E. MR tomography
920. What is the name of this symptom?
A. Blyooberh
B. Voskresensky
C. Babinski
D. Ortner
E. * Pasternatsky
921. What is the outcome of hereditary nephritis?
A. Full recovery
B. Sudden death
C. * Chronic renal failure
D. Development of deafness
E. Transition into chronic

922. What is the rate of blood plasma filtration in older children and adults?
A. * 100-125 ml/min/kidney.
B. 70-100 ml/min/kidney.
C. 60-70 ml/min/kidney.
D. 40-50 ml/min/kidney.
E. 34-40 ml/min/kidney.
923. What is the reason of uraturia?
A. Hereditary reasons (defect of the renal tubules, enhanced exchange of purines)
B. Increased consumption of meat products
C. Treatment of chemotherapy
D. Long term administration of furosemide
E. * All transferred
924. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1 year old children?
A. 30ml
B. * 35-50 ml
C. 50-90 ml
D. 100-150ml
E. 200ml
925. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1-3years old children?
A. 30ml
B. 35-50ml
C. * 50-90ml
D. 100-150ml
E. 200ml
926. What is usually the reason of asymptomatic hematuria?
A. Membranous glomerulopathy
B. * Mesangial glomerulonephritis
C. Proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Progressive glomerulonephritis
E. Minimal change disease
927. What is usually the reason of nephritic syndrome?
A. * Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Renal medullary disease
D. Fanconi syndrome
E. All transferred
928. What kidney disease is disease with chromosomal aberrations?
A. Hereditary nephritis
B. Primary tubulopathy
C. Secondary tubulopathy
D. Renal amyloidosis
E. * Cystic kidneys
929. What level of proteinuria is the criterion of nephrotic variant of acute glomerulonephritis:
A. * 3 g/l and more
B. 2-3 g/l
C. 1-3 g/l

D. Up to 1 g/l
E. 0,5-2 g/l
930. What metabolic disorder is characteristic for acute renal failure?
A. Hypernatriemia
B. * Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokaliemia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypoglucemia
931. What metabolic disorder is characteristic for acute renal failure?
A. Hypernatriemia
B. * Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokaliemia
D. Hypocalcemia
E. Hypoglucemia
932. What observation is used to demonstrate immune globulins (antibody) and complement outlining the
glomerular capillary walls in the immune complex type?
A. Immunogram
B. Immune globulins and complement in blood
C. Biopsy of kidney
D. * Immunofluorescence techniques
E. All transferred
933. What preparate do we use during pathogenetical treatment of nephritic variant of glomerulonephritis?

A. Reserpin
B. Lasix
C. Tavegil
D. Delagil
E. * Prednisolone
934. What reason of glomerulonephritis is the more often?
A. * Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. E.l
D. Virus of hepatitis A
E. Virus of flu
935. What sign does give information about the damaging of function of kidneys?
A. Hypoproteinemia
B. Proteinuria
C. * Asotemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Hyperglycemia
936. What sign gives information about the damaging of kidneys function?
A. Hypoproteinemia
B. Proteinuria
C. * Azotemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Hyperglycemia
937. What signs together with hematuria are typical for glomerulonephritis?

A. Fever, bloody, odd-smelling or cloudy urine, irritability, vomiting, frequent or painful urination
B. Pain in lower back, blood in urine, child may have been hit or kicked in lower back
C. * Blood in the urine, foamy urine ranging in color from light brown to bright red, painless, may be no
other symptoms
D. Blood in urine, usually not noticeable to the eye but detected by urinalysis
E. Blood in urine while child is taking penicillin, a blood-thinning medicine
938. What symptom is observed at initial period of hereditary nephritis?
A. * Vascular hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Polyuria
D. Oliguria
E. Edema
939. What symptom is the most important for diagnostic of hematuric form of hereditary nephritis?
A. Leucocyturia
B. Edema
C. * Erytrocyturia
D. Cylindruria
E. Proteinuria
940. What symptom is uncommon at cystitis in children?
A. * Blood in urine
B. Fever
C. Vomiting or diarrhea
D. Crying, going off feeds and generally unwell
E. Appear to be in pain
941. What syndrome is crucial in the diagnosis of hereditary nephritis?
A. * Urinary
B. Intoxication
C. Pain
D. Dyspeptic
E. Edema
942. What system of organism is damaged at renal failure?
A. Cardiovascular
B. CNS
C. Digestive
D. Respiratory
E. * All listed
943. What test is used to confirm concentrative function of kidneys?
A. Urinanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. * Zimnitski test
D. Creatinine clerance test
E. Rebergs test
944. What test is used to confirm filtrate function of kidneys?
A. Urinanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. Zimnitski test
D. * Creatinine clerance test
E. Rebergs test
945. What test is used to confirm orthostatic proteinuria?
A. Urinanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. Zimnitski test
D. Creatinine clerance test
E. * Rebergs test
946. Which disease is associated with acidosis?
A. Nephrophtisis Fanconi
B. Phosphate-diabetes
C. Diseases de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae
D. Alport syndrome
E. * Tubular renal acidosis
947. Which extrarenal signs do point the possibility of hereditary nephritis at presence of urinary
syndrome?
A. * Stigmes of dyzembriogenesis
B. Edema of legs
C. Skin edema
D. Increased AP
E. Haemorrhagic rash
948. Which investigation is the most effectiveness for diagnostic this pathology?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. * Excretory urography
C. Cystoscopy
D. Cystografia
E. Thermography
949. Which is the most important symptom for the diagnostics of nephrotic form of hereditary nephritis?
A. Leukocyturia
B. Edema
C. Erytrocyturia
D. Cylindruria
E. * Massive proteinuria
950. Which of the following indicates the presence of urinary infection?
A. * Pyuria
B. Abdominal pain
C. Alginuresis
D. Swelling
E. All transferred
951. Which sign does give information about the damaging of function of kidneys?
A. Hypoproteinemia
B. Proteinuria
C. * Asotemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
E. Hyperglycemia
952. With which disease is often differentiated hereditary nephritis?

A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. * Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Disease de Toni-Fanconi-Debrae
D. Tubular renal acidosis
E. Nephronophtisis Fanconi

(): : 12
6 year Pediatrics, situation tasks
:
.
:
1. A 2 year boy was admitted to the hospital with complaints: persistent cough, periodic diarrhea and
malnutrition. He had bronchitis 4 times before and pneumonia 2 times before. Also was diagnosed
sinusitis. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis?
A. Chronic pneumonia
B. * Cystic fibrosis
C. Intestinal infection
D. alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency
E. Tracheobronchomegaly
2. A 2 months-old boy is admitted to the hospital with complaints: persistent cough, dyspnea, cyanosis,
prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly. During lungs percussion there is bandbox sound. What is the most
likely preliminary diagnosis?
A. Chronic pneumonia
B. Tracheobronchomegaly
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Intestinal infection
E. * alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency
3. A 5 year girl is suffering from bronchitis frequently. The physical development is delayed. There is
persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. The doctor suspected chronic disease of lungs. What
symptoms will allow to the physician to make such conclusion?
A. Delay in physical development
B. * All mentioned above
C. Relapsing course of disease
D. Persistent local changes in lung
E. Cough with mucous-purulent sputum
4. A 5 year child is suffering from bronchitis frequently. The physical development is delayed. There is
persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. The doctor suspected chronic disease of lungs.
Which method is the most informative to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Spirography
B. Echocardiography
C. Chest X-ray
D. * Bronchography
E. Sputum analyses
5. A 5 year old boy was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of chronic disease of lungs. He is ill
during 4 years. There is a constant wet cough, persistent moist rales in the lower lobe of the right
lung. Which of the following will prove diagnosis?
A. Biplane (two-dimensional) chest x-ray
B. Chest ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Spirography
E. * Bronchography
6. In 5 year child who has frequent maxillary sinusitis and respiratory diseases was suspected
Kartagener syndrome. All symptoms are typical for this disease EXEPT:
A. Situs inversus
B. Chronic bronchitis with bronchiectasis

C. * Nephritis
D. Endocrine glands hypofunction
E. Ethmoidoantritis
7. In 3 year child was revealed situs inversus, chronic recurrent bronchitis, frontal sinuses hypoplasia,
congenital heart defect. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome
B. Williams-Campbell syndrome
C. alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. * Kartagener syndrome
8. A 10 year child is suffering from bronchitis frequently. The physical development is delayed. There is
persistent cough with mucous-purulent sputum. The doctor suspected bronchiectasis. Select the
primary method for diagnosis of bronchiectasis:
A. Bronchoscopy
B. CT of the chest
C. Chest x-ray
D. * Bronchography
E. Scintigraphy
9. The 4 year child with frequent respiratory tract, which are observed from the 1st year of life, is
examined in the hospital. The most typical clinical manifestations of lung malformation are the
following symptoms, except:
A. * Attacks of dyspnea at night
B. Shortness of breath during physical exercises
C. Deformation of the chest
D. Fingers club bing and drum sticks
E. Recurrent bronchitis or pneumonia
10. A 7-year-old child was hospitalized with exacerbation of chronic disease of lungs. A child was born
from premature pregnancy. He suffered from rickets and anemia during the first year of life, in two
years a foreign body aspiration (button) which as not taken out. He has acute respiratory tract
infections 3-4 times per year. What probably caused the development of chronic disease of lungs?
A. Prematurity
B. Rickets
C. Anemia
D. Frequent acute respiratory tract infections
E. * Foreign body aspiration
11. A district pediatrician examined the 5-year-old child, whom disturbed wet cough. During this year,
same problems developed for the third time. After clinical examination a doctor thought about
chronic disease of lungs. What auscultation signs are characteristic for this disease?
A. Dry diffuse rales
B. Weakened breathing
C. * Persistent local moist rales
D. Hard breathing
E. Moist rales
12. 8 year old child complains of coughing with purulent sputum, especially in the morning. He is ill 5
years after foreign body aspiration episode. After that he had pneumonia two times. What disease is
the most probable?
A. Recurrent pneumonia
B. Recurrent bronchitis

C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Chronic disease of lungs
13. 5-year-old child is hospitalized with complaints of wet cough. He is ill for 3 years, he had left side
low lobe pneumonia three times before. During examination: skin is pale, perioral and periorbital
cyanosis. During percussion: local dullness below the lower corner of the left scapulae. During
auscultation: many fine moist rales under the left scapulae. X-ray of chest: deformation of bronchial
pattern on the left side. Which of the following will prove diagnosis?
A. Biplane (two-dimensional) chest x-ray
B. Chest ultrasound
C. CT of chest
D. * Bronchoscopy or bronchography
E. Spirography
14. 6-year-old child is hospitalized with constant complaints of cough with purulent sputum. He is ill
during 3 years, exacerbations periods develop 3-4 times per year. After the clinical and instrumental
examinations was diagnosed chronic disease of lungs. What is the basic complex treatment of this
disease?
A. * Restoration of drainage function of bronchi
B. Physiotherapy
C. Desensitization therapy
D. Physiotherapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
15. 5-year-old child is hospitalized with complaints of wet cough, shortness of breath during exercise.
Condition worsened 10 days ago after contact with patients with acute respiratory infection. From
anamnesis it is known that a child is suffering from pneumonia 2-3 times per year. There was a
suspicion of chronic disease of lungs. What research will be definitive in establishing of the final
diagnosis?
A. Arteriography
B. X-ray of the chest
C. Spirography
D. Bronchoscopy
E. * Bronchography
16. 8-year-old child is treated in a hospital from chronic disease of lungs. Sputum was taken for
bacteriological study from the bronchi during medical and diagnostic bronchoscopy. Pneumococci
were revealed, sensitive to cephalosporines. Which way is the best for introduction of antibiotics?
A. Intramuscular
B. Electrophoresis
C. * Endobronchial
D. Oral
E. Intravenous
17. A district pediatrician examined the 9-year-old child, whom disturbed wet cough and shortness of
breath during physical exercises. Child is sick during 6 years: frequent respiratory diseases, 1-2 times
per year - pneumonia. After analysis of anamnesis and clinical examination chronic disease of lungs
was diagnosed. What is the most typical symptom of this disease?
A. Dyspnea
B. * Persistent cough
C. Pale skin
D. Subfebrile t emperature
E. Perioral cyanosis

18. The 7 year boy is suffering from persistent wet cough. There was a suspicion of chronic disease of
lungs. What chest X-ray changes are the most typical for the chronic disease of lungs?
A. Local infiltration of lung tissue
B. Presence of the round shape shadow
C. Lungs extension and hyperaeration
D. Heart extension
E. * Intensification and deformation of the lungs pattern
19. A 5 year boy is suffering from bronchitis and pneumonia often. At bronchologic examination
bronchiectasis were revealed. In addition, the child suffers from chronic sinusitis, there is
dextracardia. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome
B. * Kartagener syndrome
C. Hammen-Rich syndrome
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Williams-Campbell syndrome
20. In 1 year child was revealed chronic recurrent bronchitis and tracheobronchomegaly,
ethmoidoantritis. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Williams-Kempbell syndrome
B. Alpha-1-antitripsin deficiency
C. Kartagener syndrome
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. * Mounier-Kuhn syndrome
21. In 5 year child was revealed dyspnea during physical exercises, heart pain, collapse attacks, cyanosis,
2 tone accent above the pulmonary artery, systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery. Chest x-ray
revealed deceased intensity of the lungs pattern, enlarged heart. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome
B. Williams-Campbell syndrome
C. Alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency
D. * Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
22. In 5 year child was revealed dyspnea during physical exercises, heart pain, collapse attacks, cyanosis,
2 tone accent above the pulmonary artery, systolic murmur above the pulmonary artery. Chest x-ray
revealed deceased intensity of the lungs pattern, enlarged heart. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Mounier-Kuhn syndrome
B. Williams-Kampbell syndrome
C. * Primary pulmonary hypertension
D. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
E. alpha -1-antitripsin deficiency
23. In 8 month child there is high possibility of cystic fibrosis according the clinical and anamnestic
criteria. What examination will prove the diagnosis?
A. Level of lipids in blood
B. Koprogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Level of ?-1-antitripsin in blod
E. * Level of chlorides in the sweat
24. The 6 year boy was hospitalized with the complaints of shortness of breath, frequent cough, loss of
weight. He is ill during 4 years since the idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis was diagnosed. What is
pathogenic treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. NSAIDs
C. Broncholytics
D. * Corticosteroids
E. Immune modulators
25. Patient is 5 years old. He has chronic cough, recurrent pneumonias and poor physical exercises
resistance. Auscultation reveals a murmur and congestive cardiac failure. X-ray reveals signs of lungs
tissue consolidation. Vomiting, failure to thrive and abdominal pain periodically occur. Very often
there are cough, fever, shortness of breath and small bubbling moist rales. What diagnosis is
suspected?
A. Sequestration of the lung
B. Aplasia of lung
C. Lung atelectasis
D. * Idiopathic fibroalveolitis
E. Cystic adenomatous malformation
26. The child is 4 years old. During the first year of life an acute pneumonia occured, and then a chronic
bronchopulmonary process was formed eventually. Objectively chest is looking like hump.The cough
is resistant with shortness of breath. At percussion of the lungs there is bandbox sound, at
auscultation dry and moist rales of various sizes. Phalanges and nails become "drumsticks", "hour-
glass", a violation of external respiration is present. Radiological findings in the lungs: increased
pulmonary pattern, the phenomenon of emphysema. At bronchography there are determined
generalize bronchiectasis with balloon expansion during inspiration and collapse. Put diagnosis.
A. * Williams Campbell syndrome
B. Idiopathic fibroalveolitis
C. Mounier -Kuhn syndrome
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Kartagener syndrome
27. Child is 6 years old. He has frequent respiratory diseases. There is a poor tolerance to physical
activity, development of shortness of breath, sometimes accompanied by attacks of breathlessness.
Syncope often appears at an exercise, heart failure signs are present. Put the most probable diagnosis.
A. Idiopathic hemosiderosis
B. Idiopathic fibroalveolitis
C. Congenital carditis
D. Cardiomyopathy
E. * Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension
28. At 3 months child three times bronchoobstructive syndrome occurred without previous catarrhal
phenomena. The cough is unproductive. Stool has unpleasant smell from the first days of life.
Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, mixed form was suggested. What research can confirm the diagnosis?
A. Radiography of the chest
B. * Determination of sweat chlorides
C. Coprogram
D. Determination of blood lipids
E. Chest X-ray
29. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia has signs of collapse. Which of the following pneumonia
complication is the most likely to be accompanied with collapse?
A. Toxic hepatitis
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Emphysema
D. Exudative pleurisy

E. * Septic shock
30. A 16-year-old girl complains of nasal blockage, sneezing, watery nasal discharges. The body
temperature is normal. Objectively - edema of nasal mucous membrane on both sides, especially of
the lower turbinate (with cyanosis). Blood test data - mild leukocytosis and eosinophilia. What is the
diagnosis?
A. * Allergic rhinitis
B. Acute sinusitis
C. Infective rhinitis
D. Foreign body in the nose
E. Atrophic rhinitis
31. A child was taken to a hospital with focal changes in the skin folds. The child was anxious during
examination, examination revealed dry skin with solitary papulous elements and ill-defined
lichenification zones. Skin eruption was accompanied by strong itch. The child usually feels
better in summer, his condition is getting worse in winter. The child has been artificially fed since he
was 2 months old. He has a history of exudative diathesis. Grandmother by his mother's side has
bronchial asthma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Urticaria
B. Contact dermatitis
C. * Atopic dermatitis
D. Seborrheal eczema
E. Strophulus
32. A 6-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with a 3-hour history of fever up to 39,5oC and
sore throat. The child looks alert, anxious and has a mild inspiratory stridor. You should I
mmediately:
A. * Prepare to establish an airway
B. Obtain an arterial blood gas and start an IV line
C. Order a chest x-ray and lateral view of the neck
D. Admit the child and place him in a mist tent
E. Examine the throat and obtain a culture
33. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. It is known from the
anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. What is the most
likely etiological factor in this case?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Proteus
C. Klebsiella
D. Pneumococcus
E. * Streptococcus
34. On the third day of disease a 10 years old child with acute respiratory infection developed productive
cough. The percussion is without pathologic features. The auscultation reveals bilateral rales over
the lung surface. What diagnosis should be made?
A. * acute bronchitis
B. relapsing bronchitis
C. obstructive bronchitis
D. Asthma
E. Pneumonia

35. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor, hoarse
voice and barking cough. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest
retractions. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate is
52 per min and pulse rate 122 per min. The body temperature is 37,50C. What disease does the
infant have?
A. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis grade II of airway obstruction, incomplete
compensation state
B. Acute laryngitis
C. Focal pneumonia without complications
D. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress
E. Acute epiglottitis
36. Mother of a previously healthy 4 year old male complains of cough and wheeze. Boy had playing
with a small toy. During examination the right side of a chest show hyperresonance, diminished vocal
resonance and poor air entry. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Foreign body aspiration
B. Asthma
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
E. Bronchiolitis
37. A 6-year-old boy with asthma has had mild wheezing only four times since you began treating him 3
months ago with Cromolyn inhalation twice each day. For the past 2 days, he has again had mild
coughing and wheezing. What should you recommend to treat acute attack of asthma?
A. * Inhalation Salbutamol
B. Inhalation corticosteroids
C. Loratadine
D. Aspirin
E. Theophylline
38. 7 -year-old boy with chronic cinusitis and reccurent pulmonary infections has chest a x-ray
demonstrating a right-sided cardiac silhouette. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. antitrypsin deficiency
B. cystic fibrosis
C. bronhiolitis obliterans
D. laryngotracheomalacia
E. * Kartagener syndrome
39. Parents of 3-year-old girl complain of rectal prolapse and failure to gain weight in spite of a good
appetite. Patient has a history of recurrent prolonged respiratory infections and frequent, bulky,
greasy stools. Sweet chloride is 126 mmol/l. What is the diagnosis?
A. * cystic fibrosis
B. antitrypsin deficiency
C. Kartagener syndrome
D. celiac disease
E. Hirschprungs disease
40. 2-year-old previously healthy boy had eaten peanuts and suddenly presents with an acute onset of
cough, choking, and respiratory distress. Physical examination reveals a RR of 45 and wheezing,
body temperature is normal. There is no history of asthma or allergic reactions, and no one at home is
ill. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. acute bronchiolitis
B. * foreign body aspiration
C. attack of asthma

D. acute laryngitis
E. angioedema
41. A 6-year-old girl has had a dry cough without sputum for 2 months. The cough is getting worse after
exercises and at night. Family history revealed that the parents have eczema. On physical
examination, you hear a wheeze in both lung fields. She has none of the signs of chronic lung
disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. bronchiectasis
B. pertussis
C. foreign body aspiration
D. * bronchial asthma
E. interstitial pneumonia
42. A 2 year boy has subfebrile temperature, dry, persistent, prolonged, attacked cough, frequent
breathing with hindered exhalation. The breathing under auscultation is harsh, there are diffuse dry
sibilant rales. X-ray lung examination shows increased transparency. There is leukopenia in blood.
What diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Pertussis
C. Pneumonia
D. Rhinitis
E. * Obstructive bronchitis
43. A 1,5 year old boy has non-productive cough with purulent sputum, dyspnea, retardation in physical
development, polyfecalia, increasing of sweat chloride up to 150 mEq/l. The cystic fibrosis was
diagnosed. What treatment will you prescribe?
A. * Enzymes + antibiotics
B. Choleretics + adaptogens
C. 2-histaminic blockaders + hepatoprotectors
D. Vitamins + antibiotics
E. Vitamins + mucolytics
44. What kind of breathing can be heard above the lungs in healthy children aged 7 years?
A. Puerile
B. * Vesicular
C. Weakened vesicular
D. Coarse
E. Grunting
45. A 1.5 years old child is ill for 1 week. Objectively: body temperature is 38.5? C, often moist cough,
dyspnea in the rest. On X-ray: lungs roots are broad, infiltrated, and in both sides are little shadows.
What form of an acute pneumonia is according to X-ray?
A. Interstitial
B. Monosegmental
C. Polysegmental
D. Crupous
E. * Focal pneumonia
46. A 10-years old boy is ill for 4 days. He complaints on subfebrile temperature, dry cough.
Objectively: pallor of the skin, red cheeks, greater on right side. Percussion: on right side dull sound
in lowest part, and in axillar region. Auscultation: on right sight lower than angle of the scapula
decrease of breathing, crepitating. What form of an acute pneumonia is possible in this case?
A. Focal pneumonia
B. Monosegmental

C. * Crupous
D. Interstitial
E. Polysegmental
47. The 5-month's child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. The clinical blood analysis is:
erythrocytes 2.86 10??/l, b - 86 g/l, CI 0.8, leucocytes 11,2 109/l, eosynophyles - 3 %,
neutrophyles: band forms - 2 %, segments - 30 %, lymphocytes - 58 %, monocytes - 7 %, ESR - 8
mm/hour. Name the pathological changes.
A. Lymphopenia, anemia
B. Leucopenia, increase of ESR
C. * Leucocytosis, anemia
D. Lymphocytosis, monocytosis
E. Shift of the formula to the left
48. The 7-months' old child has body temperature 38.3 C, cyanosis of perinasal triangle, breathing rate
is 54 per minute. During percussion: dullness of the sound paravertebrally. During auscultation: big
amount of small moist riles all over the lungs, diminished breathing and crackles on the right. The
most possible diagnosis is:
A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Acute bronchiolitis
D. Acute interstitial pneumonia
E. * Acute focal pneumonia
49. The 9 months' old child who disturbs cough, dyspnea, subfebrile body temperature was examined by
district pediatrician. Focal pneumonia was suspected. What auscultation picture is typical for this
case?
A. Diffuse dry rales
B. * Local crackles
C. Diffuse wet rales
D. Decrease breathing
E. Rough breathing
50. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened.
Once again has increased the body temperature, has appeared: moist cough with separation of
mucous-purulent phlegm, dyspnea. Breathing - 30 per 1 min., cyanosis of perioral triangle, in lower
parts of the lungs, more in the right, dullness of the lung sound, moist small rales. Pulse - 120 per 1
min., heart tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible?
A. Croup syndrome
B. Meningitis
C. Myocarditis
D. Obstructive bronchitis
E. * Pneumonia
51. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing of the body temperature
to 39 0, general weakness, and periodic humid cough with mucous phlegm. Objectively: the general
condition is moderate, skin is pale with pigmented rashes. On auscultation dull sound, small rales in
lower parts of lungs. What complication of the measles has appeared in child?
A. Tracheobronchitis
B. Bronchitis
C. * Pneumonia
D. Pharyngitis
E. Bronchiolitis

52. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began acutely
with temperature 39C, weakness, cough, restlessness. He is pale, has cyanosis, febrile temperature
for more than 3 days. There are crackles and small bubbling rales at the auscultation on the right.
Percussion sound is shortened in right under scapula area. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental
infiltration 8-10 at the right, the increase of vascular picture, unstructural roots. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchitis
B. * Segmental pneumonia
C. Interstitial pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. Bronchiolitis
53. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever (temperature - 40 C), vomiting. On
physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a right cheek, right
hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung,
weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What
disease causes these symptoms and signs?
A. Intestinal infection
B. * Pneumonia crupous
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Influenza
E. Acute appendicitis
54. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. A fever of 39C, chest pain which is worsened by
breathing, cough, brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. Chest X-ray shows left
lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
E. * Cephalosporines of the III generation
55. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration
and dyspnea. On exam, t - 37C, Ps 92/min, BR of 24/min, vesicular breath sounds. There is a dry,
grating, low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the
chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pneumothorax
D. Myocarditis
E. Acute bronchitis
56. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiratory rate - 80
per minute), paradoxical breathing, tachycardia, total cyanosis. Respiration/pulse ratio is 1:2. The
relative heart dullness borders are normal. Such signs are characteristic for:
A. Congenital heart defect
B. * Respiratory failure of III degree
C. Respiratory failure of I degree
D. Respiratory failure of II degree
E. Respiratory failure of 0 degree

57. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39oC with chills, cough, and pain on respiration in
the right side of her chest. On physical examination: HR - 120/min, BP- 85/45 mm Hg, RR- 36/min.
There is dullness over the right lung on percussion. On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the
lung. What is the diagnosis?
A. Interstitial pneumonia
B. Acute pleuritis
C. Community-acquired lobar pneumonia
D. Acute lung abscess
E. * Nosocomial lobar pneumonia
58. 8-month-old child was entered to the hospital. After bacteriological observation it is diagnosed
atypical community-acquired Chlamidia trachomatis pneumonia. Select the best antibiotic.
A. Carbopenem
B. Aminopenicilline
C. Cephalosporin
D. * Macrolides
E. Aminoglycosides
59. A boy, 8 years old, has addressed to pediatrician with complains of increasing of the body
temperature to 37.5 ?, sore throat, cough, serous discharge from nose, lacrimation. During
examination mild hyperemia and edema of the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall, conjunctives were
revealed. The physician suspects adenoviral infection. Which method of express-diagnostics is better
to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis?
A. The selection of the virus on tissue culture
B. Serological investigation
C. bacteriological investigation
D. Bacteriosopy investigation of pharyngeal swab
E. * Immunofluorescent method
60. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia presents signs of collapse. Which of the following pneumonia
complications is most likely to be accompanied by collapse?
A. Exudative pleuritis
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Toxic hepatitis
D. Emphysema
E. * Septic shock
61. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began acutely
with temperature 39C, weakness, cough, restlessness. He is pale, has cyanosis, febrile temperature
for more than 3 days. There are crackles, fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. Percussion sound is
shortened in right under scapula area. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental infiltration 8-10 in the
right, the increase of vascular picture, unstructural roots. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchitis
B. * Segmental pneumonia
C. Interstitial pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. Bronchiolitis
62. A 7-year-old boy has body temperature 39.4C, productive cough and intoxication. During the
examination: a voice fremitus is stronger, short percussion sound, depressed breathing and
bronhophonia over the right lung. The X-ray: a homogeneous infiltration of the right lung lower lobe.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute right-sided segmental pneumonia
B. Acute right-sided pleuritis
C. * Acute right-sided lobar pneumonia
D. Acute right-sided intersticial pneumonia
E. Acute right-sided pneumothorax
63. A 9 month-old baby has fever, cough, dyspnea. She is sick for 5 days after contact with ARVI patient.
Condition of the child is severe. Temperature 38C, nasolabial triangle is cyanotic. RR 54 per 1 min,
nostrils flaring during breathing. Percussion: a shortening of the sound below the right scapula angle,
over the other sites - tympanic sound. On auscultation - small bubbling moist rales on both sides,
more on the right side. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchiolitis
B. ARVI
C. Acute laryngotracheitis
D. * Acute pneumonia
E. Acute bronchitis
64. A child of 10 months has acute bronchopneumonia with destruction of the left lung. Which agent is
most likely caused this disease?
A. Pneumococcus (S. pneumoniae)
B. Colibacillus (E. Coli)
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Proteus vulgaris
E. * St. aureus
65. Patient 14yrs during the week noted the deterioration of general condition, sub-febrile temperature.
Then suddenly developed fever to 38C, there was pain in the right half of the chest, a dry cough. On
the right of the 3 ribs downwards shortening of percussion sounds is determined. Above the
shortening of the sound breathing is not listened. The blood leukocytes 10.5x109, ESR - 32mm/h. X-
ray on the right intense homogenous darkening of 3 ribs down. The heart is shifted to the left. What
disease should be suspected in a patient?
A. Pneumonia
B. * Pleural effusion
C. Cancer of the lung
D. Acute lung a bscess
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
66. Child 2.5 years is acutely ill. Body temperature is raised to 38 C and appeared with abdominal pain,
vomiting once. Condition of the child is severe. Skin is pale. Breathing rate is 80 per minute. There is
cyanosis of naso-labial triangle. Dullness of percussion sound is in the right lower part of chest, there
is diminished breathing, crackles is absent. Abdomen is moderately swollen, painful to palpation in
the right upper ribs region. At chest X-ray- right side is infiltrated in 7-10 segments. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Membranous pneumonia
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Right side pericardial pleurisy
D. Acute obstructive bronchitis
E. * Acute right side polysegmental pneumonia
67. Child in 12y.o. diagnosed pneumonia, which is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. What treatment
should be chosen?
A. Adrenalin
B. Cephalosporines
C. * Macrolide
D. Antifungal drugs
E. Aminopenicillin

68. Child is two years old. The mother appealed to the district pediatricians with complaints of child
cough, runny nose, fever up to 38.5C, weakness and decrease in appetite. Objectively: condition of
the child is moderately severe, skin is pale, RR 40 per 1 min., Auscultation: lung breathing is hard,
there is crackles on the lower right side. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchiolitis
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Pneumonia
69. A 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5C. Percussion: clear
pulmonary sound without dullness. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. In the
peripheral blood: leukocytosis, eosynophylia, increased ESR. What disease is possible?
A. Acute simple bronchitis
B. * Obstructive bronchitis
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Whooping cough
70. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child whos mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature,
rhinitis and dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without
dullness. During auscultation: puerile breathing. Laboratory findings: leucopenia, lymphocytosis,
increased ESR. What disease is possible first of all?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. Acute bronchopneumonia
C. * Acute tracheitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Recurrent bronchitis
71. The 5-months' old child has subfibrile temperature, paroxysmal cough and dyspnea. He is
hospitalized. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral
infection. Objectively: the condition is severe, skin is cyanotic, considerable expiration dyspnea, oral
crepitation. Percussion: tympanic sound. Auscultation: a scattered, wet rales in both sides, respiratory
rate is 80 per 1 minute. What disease is possible?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Aspiration of a foreign body
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute pneumonia
E. * Bronchiolitis
72. The 7-years old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. His condition has worsened
10 days ago. He is ill during last 4 years: viral infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by
bronchitis. Objectively: cough with sputum. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound. Auscultation:
rough breathing, nonconstant single diffuse wet rales. X-ray: lung pattern is increased, roots are
nonstructural. What disease is possible in this case?
A. Viral infection
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Chronic disease of lungs
E. * Relapsed bronchitis

73. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened.
Once again has increased the body temperature, has appeared: moist cough with sputum, dyspnea.
RR - 30 per min., cyanosis of perioral triangle, in lower parts of the lungs is dullness of the lung
sound, moist small rales. Pulse - 120 in 1 min., heart tones are weak. What complication of influenza
is possible?
A. * Pneumonia
B. Meningitis
C. Myocarditis
D. Obstructive bronchitis
E. Croup syndrome
74. The child, 2 years old, is treated from influenza. His condition suddenly became worse: the body
temperature has increased to 39.8 ?, has appeared rough barking cough, hoarseness of the voice,
expressed inspiratory dyspnea. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary muscles in breathing, skin
pallor, tachycardia. What complication of influenza has developed?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup syndrome
D. Obstructive bronchitis
E. * Pharyngitis
75. A 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5C. Percussion: tympanic
sounds. Auscultation: breath sounds are coarse, dry whistling and different moist rales. In the
peripheral blood: leucocytosis, eosynophylia, increased ESR. What disease is possible?
A. Acute simple bronchitis
B. * Obstructive bronchitis
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Whooping cough
76. Pediatrist was called to the 2-years child in connection with subfibrile fever, rhinitis and dry cough.
Child is sick 3-d day. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sounds. Auscultation: breath sounds are coarse.
By results of examinations: a leucopenia, lymphocytosis, accelerated ESR. What disease is possible
first of all?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. Acute tracheitis
C. Acute bronchopneumonia
D. Relapse bronchitis
E. * Acute bronchitis
77. The 9-month's child in a severe condition is hospitalized. Diagnose is bronchiolitis. What is the
reason of the severe condition of the child?
A. Neurotoxicosis
B. Heart failure
C. Epinephral failure
D. * Respiratory failure
E. Exicosis
78. The 5-years child has obstructive bronchitis. There is non-productive cough and dyspnea. What drugs
will be as a base of therapy?
A. Antibiotics
B. Hyposensibilization
C. Mucolitics
D. * Broncholitics

E. Hormones
79. The 5-month's child with the complaints of subfibrile fever, inefficient tussis, dyspnea is hospitalized.
He was ill 3 days ago after a contact with ill on virus sister. Objectively: the condition is very severe,
skin is cyanotic, considerable expiration dyspnea, oral crepitation. Percussion: sound boxes.
Auscultation: prolonged expiratory, scattered whistling sounds, RR 80 per 1 minute. What disease is
possible?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Aspiration of a foreign body
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute pneumonia
E. * Bronchiolitis
80. 12-month old child after contact with cat has a frequent paroxysmal, irritative, nonproductive cough.
The child has short breathing, he tries to breathe more deeply and the expiratory phase becomes
prolonged and is accompanied by an audible wheezing. His lips are cyanotic, cyanosis observed in
the nail beds and skin, especially around the mouth. The child is restless and anxious. Sweating is
prominent as the attack progresses. In history: allergy on food products. Put your diagnosis.
A. Acute pneumonia
B. * Bronchial asthma
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Bronhiolitis
E. Respiratory virus infection
81. The child of 6 years diagnose asthma bronchial the first time. After liquidation of attack period it
was decided to prescribe anti-inflammatory therapy. It is necessary to give:
A. Aspirin
B. Diclofenac
C. Prednizolon
D. ndometacini
E. * Nedocromil
82. The child of 10 years diagnose bronchial asthma during 5 yrs. Attack periods appear in summer
during flowering. In period between attacks the child needs such treatment:
A. Anti-inflammatory
B. Antibacterial
C. Broncholitical
D. Mucolitical
E. * Inhaled corticosteroids
83. The child of 10 years diagnose bronchial asthma during 5 years. Duration of an attack period is
more than 6 hours. It is necessary to prescribe:
A. Adrenalin
B. * Prednizolon
C. Suprastin
D. fedrin
E. ntal
84. 1.5 years old child is sick the second day. Body temperature is 37.8C, restless, barking cough, hoarse
voice, noisy breathing, stridor, pallor of skin, retraction at rest. Put diagnosis.
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Bronchial asthma

E. * Laryngitis
85. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath,
dry cough, the temperature 38C. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. Auscultation
reveals prolonged expiration, many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. What is
your diagnosis?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. * Acute obstructive bronchitis
C. Pertussis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
86. A child is 11 months. He is ill ARI. On the second day it was marked the emergence of a barking
cough, hoarse voice, stridor, breath difficulties, shortness of breath, cyanosis. In what department is
hospitalized child?
A. Pulmonary
B. Infectious
C. Junior childhood
D. Otolaryngology
E. * Intensive care unit
87. A child 5 years is ill. Premorbid anamnesis is good. There is a mild indisposition, increasing t to
37.3C, decreased appetite, frequent coughing, significant nasal drainage. Objectively: RR-25 per 1
min., percussion lung sound, auscultation reveals different bubble rales, after the cough character of
rales changes. It was diagnosed ARI, acute bronchitis. What kind of treatment is most faithful?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. * Mucolytics and vitamins
C. Sulphamids
D. Antihistamines
E. Cephalosporines
88. A child 7 years is ill. There is a slight indisposition, increasing t to 37.3C, decrease of appetite,
frequent coughing, significant nasal drainage. ARI is diagnosed, acute bronchitis. What kind of
treatment is most faithful?
A. Antibiotics
B. Vitamins
C. Physiotherapy
D. Antihistamine
E. * Mucolytics
89. A child of 9 months is acutely ill: increased body temperature to 38,8C, cough, runny nose. On 3d
day of illness, at night, the condition became worse: the child became restless, barking cough, stridor
and hoarse voice appeared, inspiratory shortness of breath. It was diagnosed croup. Which of the
pathogens most likely is the reason of croup in children?
A. Adenovirus
B. * Virus parainfluenza
C. Rynovirus
D. Enteroviruse
E. Influenza
90. Children under eight months came to hospital complaining of non-productive, intense cough for 2
days, wheezing breath, increased body t to 37.8C. Objectively: perioral cyanosis; barrel thorax;
auscultation: different wet rales. It was diagnosed obstructive bronchitis. What is the basic therapy?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antibiotics

C. Mukolytics
D. Enzymes
E. * Broncholytics
91. Child is 2 years. He is Ill at the first time. Sick 2 days: t - 37.4C, dry cough, RR 60 per min,
expiratory dyspnea. There is box sound over lungs. Auscultation reveals hard breathing, crepitation
and dry whistling. What is the diagnosis?
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Congenital stridor
C. * Acute obstructive bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Acute bronchitis
92. Child is 2 years. He is Ill at the first time. Sick 2 days: t - 37.4C, dry cough, RR 30 per min. There
is clear lung sound. Auscultation reveals hard breathing, crepitation and dry rales. The X-ray shows
increasing of pulmonary pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obstructive bronchitis
B. Congenital strydor
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchiolitis
E. * Acute (simple) bronchitis
93. Child is four months old. He is acutely ill with fever to 37.8C, coughing. On 3d day cough
increased, shortness of breath appeared, percussion tympanic sound over lungs, auscultation:
prolonged expiration, a large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation on both sides.
What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. ARI, pneumonia
B. * ARI, acute bronchiolitis
C. ARI, obstructive bronchitis
D. ARI, focal pneumonia
E. ARI, acute bronchitis
94. Child is 6 months. He is acutely ill with fever to 37.8C, coughing. On 3d day cough increased,
shortness of breath appeared, percussion tympanic sound over lungs, auscultation: on both sides a
large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation. Acute bronchiolitis was diagnosed. What
is the reason of such disease?
A. Rinovirus
B. Flu
C. * Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Virus parainfluenza
E. Adenovirus
95. The girl 10 months was entered to the hospital the next day of illness with complaints of increase
body temperature to 39C, dry, barking cough. After clinical examination the diagnosis of acute
laryngitis was established. What breathing disorder is characteristic for this situation?
A. Mixed breathlessness
B. Expiratory dyspnea
C. Hoarse breath
D. Stridor breath
E. * Inspiratory dyspnea
96. Three-year-old boy was delivered to the hospital at night by ambulance. He is ill 2 days. On
background of ARVI loud inspiratory dyspnea occurred with retraction of intercostal spaces, blowing
nostrils and barking cough. The most probable diagnose is:
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Real (diphtheric) croup
D. * Viral false croup
E. Foreign body of air ways
97. The child 5 years was admitted to the hospital with rapid breathing disorders. Skin is pale,
acrocyanosis, stenotic breathing, breathing with participation of auxiliary muscles, retractions at rest,
hoarse voice. He has contact with ill ARI person. Your diagnosis is:
A. Laryngeal papillomatosis
B. * Laryngotracheitis
C. Foreign body of larynx
D. Foreign body of trachea
E. Bronchitis
98. Child 2 month was born premature. Clinically: mild cardiomegaly, proof arrhythmias from birth,
which are interrupted by medicines. EchoCG: moderate dilatation of the left ventricle, hypokinesia
of its walls, without the morphological changes. Late congenital carditis was diagnosed. Late
hereditary carditis is formed in terms of gestation:
A. 1 3 months
B. * 7 9 months
C. During a birth
D. 1-6 months
E. 4 6 months
99. Child is 2 month old. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth, its rapid progress, formation of cardiac hump,
progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency, refraction to the therapy. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed. It
is possible to suspect fibroelastosis when:
A. Rough systolic murmur on apex
B. Bradiarythmia
C. Diastolic murmur on apex
D. Diastolic murmur on aorta
E. * The refraction to therapy tachycardia
100. Child is 2 month old. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth, its rapid progress, formation of cardiac hump,
progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency, refraction to the therapy. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed.
For changes during fibroelastos it is not characteristic:
A. Cardiac hump
B. Decrease of physical development
C. Hepatomegalia
D. * Leucocytosis
E. Cardiac noise
101. Child 5 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite,
shortness of breath. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias,
soft systolic murmur on the apex. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. It is caused by:
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. * All transferred
D. Allergic conditions
E. Toxins
102. 15 y.o. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to 40C, onset of pain in
the side caused by deep breathing, cough with considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood
with bad smell. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Complication of liver echinococcosis

B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Actinomycosis of lungs
D. Bronchiectatic disease
E. * Abscess of the lung
103. 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5 C. Percussion: clear pulmonary
sound without dullness. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. In the peripheral blood:
leukocytosis, eosynophylia, increased ESR. What disease is possible?
A. Acute simple bronchitis
B. Whooping cough
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Obstructive bronchitis
104. A 1-year-old child suffers of attack-like cough. The child presents with the history of dyspepsia since
birth. On physical examination there are signs of delay in physical development, bronchial
obstruction, respiratory insufficiency, 1 grade. Blood count\: signs of inflammatory process. Sweat
chlorides 120 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Kartagener's syndrome
C. Acute respiratory infection, bronchitis
D. Severe bronchial asthma
E. * Cystic fibrosis
105. A 1-year-old infant is admitted for failure to thrive. During the neonatal period he had an exploratory
laparotomy for intestinal obstruction. At 3,8 and 11 month of age, he had respiratory infections
diagnosed as bronchitis. Physical examination: weight of 6,8 kg, thin extremities with very little
subcutaneous tissue, and a protuberant abdomen. The essentials diagnostic study in this child is:
A. Skin test for milk allergy
B. Bronchoscopy
C. Serum immunoglobulin level
D. Tuberculin skin test
E. * Sweat electrolytes
106. A 1,5-year-old child has following symptoms: chronic cough with purulent sputum discharge.
Dyspnea, physical retardation, large amount of stool. Sweat chloride isl50 mEq/L. The child has been
ill since 2 month age. Diagnosis: cystic fibrosis. What is the most suitable therapy?
A. Vitamins + mucolytics
B. H2-blockers + hepatoprotectors
C. Cholepoietic+adaptogenetic medicines
D. Vitamins+antibiotics
E. * Enzymes + antibiotics
107. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever [temperature 40 C], vomiting. On
physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a right cheek, right
hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung,
weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What
disease causes these symptoms and signs?
A. Intestinal infection
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Influenza
E. * Pneumonia croupousa

108. A 10-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumonias and chronic cough production of foul smell,
purulent sputum, ocassionally gloom tinged, which becomes worse in the morning and in reclining
position. On physical examination, it is a chronic patient with clubbing of fingers, wet inspiratory
tract at the root of lungs from behind. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary neoplasm
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Chronic obstructive emphysema
E. * Bronchoectasis
109. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. A fever of 39C, chest pain which is worsened by
breathing, cough, brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. Chest X-ray shows left
lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
E. * Cephalosporins of the III generation
110. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration
and dyspnea. On exam, t - 37C, Ps 92/min, RR of 24/min, vesicular breath sounds. There is a dry,
grating, low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the
chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pneumothorax
D. Myocarditis
E. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis
111. A 16-year-old male was discharged from the hospital after having an out-of-hospital pneumonia. He
has no complaints. On physical exam: his temperature is 36,6C, RR-18/min, Ps 78 bpm, BP
120/80 mm Hg. During ausculation there is harsh respiration to the right of the lower part of the
lung. Roentgenologically: infiltrative changes are absent, intensification of the pulmonary picture to
the right in the lower lobe. How long should the doctor keep the patient under observation?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. Permanently
D. 6 months
E. * 12 months
112. A 3 month old infant suffering from acute segmental pneumonia has dyspnea (respiration rate - 80
per minute), paradoxical breathing, tachycardia, total cyanosis. Respiration / pulse ratio is 1:2. The
heart dullness under normal size. Such signs characterise:
A. Congenital heart malformation
B. Myocarditis
C. Respiratory failure of II degree
D. Respiratory failure of I degree
E. * Respiratory failure of III degree
113. A 3-month-old infant who is suffering from acute segmental pneumonia reveals dyspnea, respiration
rate is 80 per minute, paradoxical breathing, tachicardia, total cyanosis. Respiration-pulse ratio is 1:2.
The heart size is normal. What are these signs indicative for?
A. Congenital heart disease
B. Respiratory failure of I degree

C. Respiratory failure of II degree

D. Myocarditis
E. * Respiratory failure of III degree
114. A child was born at 34 weeks of gestation in bad condition. The cardinal symptoms show respiratoty
disorders: sound prolonged expiration, additional muscles taking part in breathing, crepitation rales
on the background of the rough breath sounds. Assesment according to Silverman's scale was 0, in 3
hours- 6 with presence of clinical data. What diagnostic method can determine pneumopathy's type in
the child?
A. Immunologic investigation
B. Blood gases
C. Proteinogram
D. Blood test
E. * Chest X-ray
115. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia presents signs of collapse. Which of the following pneumonia
complications is most likely to be accompanied by collapse?
A. Exudative pleuritis
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Toxic hepatitis
D. Emphysema
E. * Septic shock
116. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began acutely
with temperature 39 C, weakness, cough, reastlessness. He is pale has cyanosis, febrile temperature
for more than 3 days. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. Percussion sound is
shortened in right under scapula area. X-ray picture: unhomogenous segmental infiltration 8-10 in the
right, the increase of vascular picture, unstructural rools. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Interstitial pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. * Segmental pneumonia
117. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction. There
are heterogeneous moist and dry rales, respiration is weakened. Dense, viscous secretion is difficult
to hawk. There are "drumsticks", physical retardation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Recidivating bronchitis
D. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis
E. * Cystic fibrosis, pulmonary form
118. In the child, 7 years old, disease has acute beginning, with increasing of the body temperature to 39
dgr. Objectively: hyperemia of the face, injection of sclera vessels, moderate cyanosis of the lips.
During examination of the oral cavity exists maculous exanthema on soft palate, groiness of the back
pharyngeal wall. The skin is clean, pale tachycardia is present. What disease is most probable in this
case?
A. Measles.
B. Typhoid fever.
C. Hemorrhagic fever.
D. Parainfluenza.
E. * Influenza.

119. In the infectious hospital has admitted 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena. The
physician has suspect adenoviral infection. What method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to
use to prove this diagnosis?
A. Binding complement reaction
B. Indirect hemaglutination reaction
C. neutralization reaction
D. Direct hemaglutination reaction
E. * The fluorescence antibody method
120. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child whos mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature,
rhinitis, dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness.
During auscultation\: puerile breathing. Laboratory findings: leukopenia, lymphocytosis, increased
ESR. What disease is possible first of all?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. Acute bronchopneumonia
C. Resedive bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. * Acute tracheitis
121. The 5-months' old child has subfibrile temperature, paroxysmal cough, and dyspnea. He is
hospitalized. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral
infection. Objectively: the condition is severe skin is cyanotic, considerable expiration dyspnea, oral
crepitation. Percussion: dull sound. Auscultation\: a plenty of wet rales in both sides, respiratory rate
is 80 per 1 minute. What disease is possible?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Aspiration of a foreign body
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute pneumonia
E. * Bronchiolitis
122. The 5-years old child has obstructive bronchitis. What drugs will be used as a base therapy?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiallergic medicine
C. Mucolytics
D. Hormons
E. * Broncholytics
123. The child, 2 years old, is treated from influenza. His condition suddenly became worse: the body
temperature has increased to 39.8 ?, has appeared rough barking cough, hoarseness of the voice,
expressed inspiratory dyspnea. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary musculature in breathing,
skin pallor, tachycardia. What complication of influenza has developed?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Pharyngitis
E. * Croup syndrome
124. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing of the body temperature
to 39 ?, general weakness, and periodic humid cough with discharge of the mucous phlegm.
Objectively: the general condition is moderate skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of
lungs dull sound, small rales. What complication of the measles has appeared in child?
A. Tracheobronhitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Bronchiolitis

D. Pharyngitis
E. * Pneumonia
125. 12-month old child after contact with cat has a frequent paroxysmal, irrita-tive, nonproductive
cough. The child appears short of breath, he tries to breathe more deeply, and the expiratory phase
becomes prolonged and is accompanied by an audible wheezing. He often appears pale but have red
ears. His lips are cyanotic, cyanosis observed in the nail beds and skin, especially around the mouth.
The child is restless and apprehensive, and his facial expression is anxious. Sweating is prominent as
the attack pro-gresses. In history: allergy to eggs and lemons, cats and dogs. Put your diagnosis.
A. Acute pneumonia
B. Respiratory virus infection
C. Bronchitis
D. Brinchiolitis
E. * Bronchial asthma
126. 1.5 years old child is sick the second day. Body temperature is 37.8C, restless, barking cough, hoarse
voice, noisy breathing, stridor, pallor of skin, retraction at rest. Put diagnosis.
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Laryngitis
127. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath,
dry cough, the temperature 38C. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. Auscultation
reveals prolonged expiration, many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. What is
your diagnosis?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. * Acute obstructive bronchitis
C. Pertussis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
128. A child is 11 months. He is ill ARI. On the second day it was marked the emergence of a barking
cough, hoarse voice, stridor, breath difficulties, shortness of breath, cyanosis. In what department is
hospitalized child?
A. Pulmonary
B. Infectious
C. Junior childhood
D. Otolaryngology
E. * Intensive care unit
129. Child is 2 years. He is Ill at the first time. Sick 2 days: t - 37.4C, dry cough, RR 30 per min. There
is clear lung sound. Auscultation reveals hard breathing, crepitation and dry rales. The X-ray shows
increasing of pulmonary pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obstructive bronchitis
B. Congenital strydor
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchiolitis
E. * Acute (simple) bronchitis
130. Child is 6 months. He is acutely ill with fever to 37.8C, coughing. On 3d day cough increased,
shortness of breath appeared, percussion tympanic sound over lungs, auscultation: on both sides a
large number of fine wet and wheezing rales on exhalation. Acute bronchiolitis was diagnosed. What
is the reason of such disease?

A. Rinovirus
B. Flu
C. * Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Virus parainfluenza
E. Adenovirus
131. The 2 years old child was hospitalized because of acute pneumonia. During feeding he started to
cough, become worrisome, dyspnea has appeared. Objectively: cyanosis of mucus membranes
distended left half of the thorax. During percussion: on the left near top of the lung is tympanic
sound, from the 3rd rib down - dull sound. What diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Left side pyopneumothorax
B. Acute cardiac failure
C. The lung abscess
D. Perycarditis
E. * Foreign body of the left bronchus
132. The 4-months' old child was hospitalized with interstitial pneumonia. What bacteria cause the
disease?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Pneumocysta
D. Pneumococcus
E. * Klebsiella
133. The 5 years old boy complains of headache, high temperature of the body, dyspnea, nonproductive
cough with blood. During percussion: shortness of the sound paraveretebrally. During auscultation\:
hard breathing. On X-ray: signs of the lungs infiltrated. About what disease is possible to think?
A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection
B. Interstice pneumonia
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Miliar tuberculosis
E. * Focal pneumonia
134. The 6-month's child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. The clinical blood analysis is:
erythrocytes 2.66 1012/l, b - 76 g/l, CI 0.8, leucocytes 11,2 109/l, eosynophyles - 3 %,
neutrophyles\: band forms - 2 %, segments - 30 % lymphocytes - 58 %, monocytes - 7 %, ESR - 7
mm/hour. Name pathological changes.
A. Lymphopenia, anemia
B. Leucopenia, increase of ESR
C. shift of the formula to the left
D. Lymphocytosis, monocytosis.
E. * Leucocytosis, anemia
135. The child, 2 years old, is treated from influenza. His condition suddenly became worse\: the body
temperature has increased to 39.8 ?, has appeared rough barking cough, hoarseness of the voice,
expressed inspiratory dyspnea. Objectively: involvement of the auxiliary musculature in breathing,
skin pallor, tachycardia. What complication of influenza has developed?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Obstructive bronchitis
D. Pharyngitis
E. * Croup syndrome

136. The child, 5 years old, complains of\: increasing of the body temperature to 39.5 ?, shivering,
headache, poor sleeping. What single dose of panadol should be given?
A. 0.05 g/kg
B. 0.1 g/kg
C. 0.2 g/kg
D. 0.3 g/kg
E. * 0.01 g/kg
137. The 7-years old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. His condition has worsened
10 days ago. He is ill during last 4 years: viral infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by
bronchitis. Objectively: cough with slimy sputum. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound.
Auscultation: rough breathing, nonconstant single diffuse wet rales. X-ray: lung figure is increased,
roots are nonstructural. What disease is possible in this case?
A. Viral infection
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Chronic pneumonia
E. * Relapsed bronchitis.
138. The 9-month's ols child was hospitalized because of severe condition. Diagnose - bronchiolitis. What
from this tells us about the severity?
A. Neurotoxicosis
B. Heart failure
C. Suprarenal failure
D. Exicosis
E. * Respiratory failure
139. The boy is 8 years old. He complains of headache, increasing of the body temperature to 39 ?, and
general weakness. The diagnosis is: influenza, typical form, hard degree. How long bed regimen must
be prescribed?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 18 days
E. * 7 days
140. The child is 10 years old. He has influenza for 4 days. Objectively: slight cyanosis of perinasal
triangle, hoarseness of the voice, periodic barking cough, inspiratory dyspnea without participation of
the auxiliary muscles. Stenosing laryngotracheitis of the I stage was diagnosed. What from named
medicine is inadvisable to use?
A. Tavegil
B. No-spa
C. Reaferon
D. Antiedematous mixture inhalations
E. * Prednizolon
141. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the child sharply worsened.
Once again has increased the body temperature, has appeared: moist cough with separation of
mucous-purulent phlegm, dyspnea. Breathing - 30 in 1 min. cyanosis of perioral triangle in lower
parts of the lungs, more in the right, dullness of the lung sound, moist small rales. Pulse - 120 in 1
min., heart tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible?
A. Croup syndrome
B. Meningitis
C. Myocarditis

D. Obstructive bronchitis
E. * Pneumonia
142. The child, 1 year old, is treated in infectious department with diagnosis Parainfluenza. On the 2nd
day of the disease his condition became worse. The child is excited, inspiratory dyspnea, tachypnea,
tachycardia, cyanosis of the lips, tip of the nose and fingers, cool perspiration has appeared.
Intercostal spaces involvement is noted at breathing. What degree of larynx stenosis is present?
A. I
B. II
C. IV
D. V
E. * III
143. In the anamnesis of a 2-year-old girl there are recurrent pneumonias with signs of obstruction. There
are heterogeneous moist and dry rales, respiration is weakened. Dense, viscous secretion is difficult
to hawk. There are "drumsticks", physical retardation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Recidivating bronchitis
D. Congenital pulmonary polycystosis
E. * Cystic fibrosis, pulmonary form
144. In the child, 7 years old, disease has acute beginning, with increasing of the body temperature to 39
dgr. Objectively: hyperemia of the face, injection of sclera vessels, moderate cyanosis of the lips.
During examination of the oral cavity exists maculous exanthema on soft palate, groiness of the back
pharyngeal wall. The skin is clean, pale tachycardia is present. What disease is most probable in this
case?
A. Measles.
B. Typhoid fever.
C. Hemorrhagic fever.
D. Parainfluenza.
E. * Influenza.
145. In the infectious hospital has admitted 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena. The
physician has suspect adenoviral infection. What method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to
use to prove this diagnosis?
A. Binding complement reaction
B. Indirect hemaglutination reaction
C. neutralization reaction
D. Direct hemaglutination reaction
E. * The fluorescence antibody method
146. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child whos mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature,
rhinitis, dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without dullness.
During auscultation\: puerile breathing. Laboratory findings: leukopenia, lymphocytosis, increased
ESR. What disease is possible first of all?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. Acute bronchopneumonia
C. Resedive bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. * Acute tracheitis

147. The 4-months' old child has subfibrile temperature, paroxysmal cough, and dyspnea. He is
hospitalized. 3 days ago he was in a contact with sister ill on acute upper respiratory tract viral
infection. Objectively: the condition is severe skin is cyanotic, considerable expiration dyspnea, oral
crepitation. Percussion: dull sound. Auscultation\: a plenty of wet rales in both sides, respiratory rate
is 80 per 1 minute. What disease is possible?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Aspiration of a foreign body
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Acute pneumonia
E. * Bronchiolitis
148. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39oC with chills, cough, and pain on respiration in
the right side of her chest. On physical examination: HR - 120/min, BP- 85/45 mm Hg, RR- 36/min.
There is dullness over the right lung on percussion. On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the
lung. What is the diagnosis?
A. Community-acquired lobar pneumonia of moderate severity
B. Acute pleuritis
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Nosocomial lobar pneumonia
E. * Community-acquired bronchopneumonia
149. A boy, 8 years old, has addressed to pediatrician with complains of increasing of the body
temperature to 37.5 ?, sore throat, cough, serous discharge from nose, tearing. During examination
mild hyperemia and edema of the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall, conjunctives, narrowing of ocular
slots were revealed. The physician suspects adenoviral infection. Which method of express-
diagnostics is better to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis?
A. The separation of the virus on tissue culture
B. Serological investigation
C. bacteriological investigation
D. Bacteriosopy investigation of pharyngeal swab
E. * Immunofluorescent method
150. A 10-year-old boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever [temperature 40 C], vomiting. On
physical examination: there is an expressed dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a right cheek, right
hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung,
weakness of vesicular respiration in this region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What
disease causes these symptoms and signs?
A. Intestinal infection
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Influenza
E. * Pneumonia croupousa
151. A 10-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumonias and chronic cough production of foul smell,
purulent sputum, ocassionally gloom tinged, which becomes worse in the morning and in reclining
position. On physical examination, it is a chronic patient with clubbing of fingers, wet inspiratory
tract at the root of lungs from behind. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary neoplasm
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Chronic obstructive emphysema
E. * Bronchoectasis

152. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. A fever of 39C, chest pain which is worsened by
breathing, cough, brownish sputum appeared on the 7th day of the treatment. Chest X-ray shows left
lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
E. * Cephalosporins of the III generation
153. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of stabbing back pain on inspiration
and dyspnea. On exam, t - 37C, Ps 92/min, RR of 24/min, vesicular breath sounds. There is a dry,
grating, low-pitched sound heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the
chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pneumothorax
D. Myocarditis
E. * Acute fibrinous pleuritis
154. To study physical development of children and adolescents, anthropometric investigations are widely
used. Choose a physiometric method of investigation from the below given.
A. Determination of thorax form
B. Determination of vertebra form
C. Determination of body weight
D. Measurement of growth
E. * Determination of vital capacity of lungs
155. 15 y.o. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to 40C, onset of pain in
the side caused by deep breathing, cough with considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood
with bad smell. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Complication of liver echinococcosis
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Actinomycosis of lungs
D. Bronchiectatic disease
E. * Abscess of the lung
156. The 10 y.o. boy has complains on headache, weakness, fever 40?, vomiting, expressed dyspnea,
pale skin with flush on right cheek, lag of right hemithorax respiratory movement, dullness on
percussion over low lobe of right lung, weakness of vesicular respiration in this zone. The abdomen
is painless and soft at palpation. Which disease lead to these symptoms and signs?
A. * Pneumonia croupousa
B. Intestinal infection
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Flu
157. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began
acutely with temperature 39, weakness, cough, breathlessness. He is pale, cyanotic, has had febrile
temperature for over 3 days. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales on auscultation. Percussion
sound is shortened in the right infrascapular region. X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment
infiltration 8-10 mm on the right, the intensification of lung pattern. Your diagnosis:
A. * Segmentary pneumonia
B. Influenza
C. Bronchitis

D. Bronchiolitis
E. Interstitial pneumonia
158. A 6 y.o. asthmatic child was taken to the emergency hospital because of severe coughing and
wheezing for the last 24 hours. Physical examination reveals that the child is excitable, has intercostal
and suprasternal retractions, expiratory wheezing throughout all lung fields, RR- 60/min. Initial
treatment may include the prescription of:
A. * Salbutamol aerosol
B. Parenteral phenobarbital
C. Intravenous fluids in the first 2 h to compensate water deficiency
D. N-acetyl cysteine and cromolyn by inhalation
E. Parenteral gentamicyn
159. An infant aged 1 year on the third day of common cold at night developed inspiratory stridor, hoarse
voice and barking cough. Physical examination revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest
retractions. There is a bluish skin discoloration moistly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate is
52 per min and pulse- 122 bpm. The body temperature is 37,5 C. What disease does the infant have?

A. * Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis

B. Acute laryngitis
C. Bronchopneumonia without complications
D. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress
E. Acute epiglottitis
160. A child is 2 years old. The child complains of hoarse voice, dyspnea with obstructed inspiration. The
disease started 3 days ago from dry cough and nose stuffiness. Objectively: general condition is
unbalanced, stridor is present. The child's skin is pale. Body temperature is 37,7oC. The palatine
arches are hyperemic. There is no deposit. Heart sounds are rhythmic. Auscultation of lungs reveals
rough breathing sounds, crepitation is absent. Parainfluenza virus has been detected in
nasopharynx lavage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute laryngotracheitis
B. Epiglottitis
C. Foreign body
D. Diphtheria
E. Laryngospasm
161. A premature newborn with the gestation age of 36 weeks was born with its body mass of 1,800 g.
The child has dyspnoea, his respiratory rate is 86/minute. A depression of the breastbone is marked.
The most probable pathological syndrome is:
A. obstructive syndrome;
B. congenital stridor;
C. * respiratory distress syndrome;
D. croup syndrome.
E. Bronchial astma
162. A 4-month-old child was examined by a medical student, who found: difficultly in the nose
breathings, a barrel-shaped chest, horizontal direction of ribs, their weak excursion, respiratory rate
of 44/minute, the bandbox type of percussion sounds, the puerile type of breathing on auscultation.
Which of the above symptoms is pathological?
A. * Difficultly in the nose breathing;
B. barrel-shaped chest;
C. weak excursion of ribs;
D. bandbox type of percussion sounds;
E. puerile breathing.
163. A premature newborn was born at its gestation age of 35 weeks with the body mass of 2,300 g. Now
the newborns age is 3 weeks. Its breathing is irregular, 30-34/minute. What respiratory rate must be
normal in this child?
A. 30-80;
B. * 40-60;
C. 35-40;
D. 30-35;
E. 50-70.
164. Bronchoscopy, roentgenography of the chest, examination of sputum, blood count, spirography were
advised for examination of a 4-year-old girl, who suffers from frequent episodes of bronchitis. Which
from the below investigations cannot be done at this age?
A. bronchoscopy;
B. examination of sputum;
C. roentgenography of the chest;
D. blood count;
E. * spirography.
165. A 3-month-old infant who is suffering from acute segmental pneumonia reveals dyspnea [respiration
rate 80 per minute], paradoxical breathing, tachicardia, total cyanosis. Respiration-pulse ratio is
1\2. The heart size is normal. What are these signs indicative of?
A. * Respiratory failure of III degree
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Respiratory failure of I degree
D. Respiratory failure of II degree
E. Myocarditis
166. A child was born at 34 weeks of gestation in bad condition. The cardinal symptoms show respiratoty
disorders\ sound prolonged expiration, additional muscles taking part in breathing, crepitation rales
on the background of the rough breath sounds. Assesment according to Silverman's scale was 0, in 3
hours- 6 with presence of clinical data. What diagnostic method can determine pneumopathy's type in
the child?
A. * Chest X-ray
B. Immunologic investigation
C. Blood gases
D. Proteinogram
E. CBC
167. Patient D. complains of dry cough, hoarseness, general weakness, sweating, increase of body
temperature up to 37,5?. Data of physical examination\ vocal fremitus is not changed, above the
lungs resonant pulmonary sound is heard. What these data testify about?
A. Pulmonary emphysema
B. * Acute simple bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Norma
E. Hydrothorax
168. Patient T. complains of painful parching sensations behind the sternum during coughing as well as on
dry cough. This type of pain is typical for
A. bronchitis
B. bronchiectatic disease,
C. * tracheitis
D. dry pleurisy,

E. exudative pleurisy.
169. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the right part of his chest at deep breathing and caugh. Pain in
the chest which relates to a disease of respiratory system, is typical for\
A. bronchitis,
B. bronchiectatic disease,
C. diffuse bronchitis,
D. * dry pleurisy,
E. exudative pleurisy.
170. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the throat especially in swallowing. This type of pain is typical
for
A. bronchitis
B. * pharyngitis
C. diffuse bronchitis,
D. dry pleurisy,
E. exudative pleurisy.
171. The 4 year child with frequent respiratory tract, which are observed from the 1st year of life, is
examined in the hospital. The most typical clinical manifestations of lung malformation are the
following symptoms, except:
A. * Attacks of dyspnea at night
B. Shortness of breath during physical exercises
C. Deformation of the chest
D. Fingers club bing and drum sticks
E. Recurrent bronchitis or pneumonia
172. A 16-year-old girl complains of nasal blockage, sneezing, watery nasal discharges. The body
temperature is normal. Objectively - edema of nasal mucous membrane on both sides, especially of
the lower turbinate (with cyanosis). Blood test data - mild leukocytosis and eosinophilia. What is the
diagnosis?
A. * Allergic rhinitis
B. Acute sinusitis
C. Infective rhinitis
D. Foreign body in the nose
E. Atrophic rhinitis
173. The 10 years old boy developed an asphyxic attack, expiratory wheezing and cough. In past history
the child has had relapsing rhinitis and red eyes syndrome. His sister suffers with atopic dermatitis.
The correct diagnosis is:
A. * bronchial asthma;
B. acute bronchitis;
C. viral croup;
D. acute obstructive bronchitis;
E. pneumonia.
174. A 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5C. Percussion: clear
pulmonary sound without dullness. Auscultation: dry whistling and different moist rales. In the
peripheral blood: leukocytosis, eosynophylia, increased ESR. What disease is possible?
A. Acute simple bronchitis
B. * Obstructive bronchitis
C. Acute pneumonia
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Whooping cough

175. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child whos mother complaints of a subfebrile temperature,
rhinitis and dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear pulmonary sound without
dullness. During auscultation: puerile breathing. Laboratory findings: leucopenia, lymphocytosis,
increased ESR. What disease is possible first of all?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. Focal pneumonia
C. * Acute tracheitis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Recurrent bronchitis
176. 1.5 years old child is sick the second day. Body temperature is 37.8C, restless, barking cough, hoarse
voice, noisy breathing, stridor, pallor of skin, retraction at rest. Put diagnosis.
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Bronchial asthma
E. * Laryngitis
177. A child 10 months was entered to the hospital in severe condition with expiratory shortness of breath,
dry cough, the temperature 38C. At percussion over lungs there is tympanic sound. Auscultation
reveals prolonged expiration, many dry wheezing and occasional wet rales on both sides. What is
your diagnosis?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. * Acute obstructive bronchitis
C. Pertussis
D. Acute bronchitis
E. Pneumonia
178. The girl 8 months was entered to the hospital the next day of illness with complaints of increase body
temperature to 39C, dry, barking cough. After clinical examination the diagnosis of acute laryngitis
was established. What breathing disorder is characteristic for this situation?
A. Mixed breathlessness
B. Expiratory dyspnea
C. Hoarse breath
D. Stridor breath
E. * Inspiratory dyspnea
179. Three-year-old boy was delivered to the hospital at night by ambulance. He is ill 3 days. On
background of ARVI loud inspiratory dyspnea occurred with retraction of intercostal spaces, blowing
nostrils and barking cough. The most probable diagnose is:
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Real (diphtheric) croup
D. * Viral false croup
E. Foreign body of air ways
180. The child 6 years was admitted to the hospital with rapid breathing disorders. Skin is pale,
acrocyanosis, stenotic breathing, breathing with participation of auxiliary muscles, retractions at rest,
hoarse voice. He has contact with ill ARI person. Your diagnosis is:
A. Laryngeal papillomatosis
B. * Laryngotracheitis
C. Foreign body of larynx
D. Foreign body of trachea

E. Bronchitis
181. Child 11 yrs old was entered to the hospital with abdominal trauma. Doctor notes in patient hiccups,
vomiting, persistent red dermographism, salivation, bradycardia, increased the difference between
maximum and minimum blood pressure. What complication of trauma does occur?
A. Paralytic collapse
B. Sympatotonic collapse
C. Post hemorrhagic collapse
D. Toxic collapse
E. * Vagotonic collapse
182. A 7 yrs old child had elevation of temperature t to 40C in anamnesis. For the last 3 months he
presents fusiform swelling of fingers, ankle joints and knee joints, pain in the upper part of the
sternum and cervical part of the spinal column. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Toxic synovitis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Osteoarthritis
E. * Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
183. A 14 year old female fell ill 3 months ago after cold exposure. She complained of pain in her hand
and knee joints, morning stiffness and fever up to 38oC. Interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal and
knee joints are swollen, hot, with reduced ranges of motions; ESR of 45 mm/h, CRP (+++), RF (+).
What group of medicines would you recommend to the patient?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Fluorchinolones
D. Cephalosporines
E. * Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs
184. A 4 years old girl was hospitalized with complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee and an
ankle joints, morning stiffness, rapid fatigue, subfebrile temperature. She is ill for 4 months.
Beginning of illness she connects with ARI. The disease began with a knee violation. She received
aspirin, but the effect was absent. After 3 months the process has spread to the radiocarpal joint. Put a
preliminary diagnosis.
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Infectious-allergic arthritis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosis
D. Systemic scleroderma
E. * Rheumatoid arthritis
185. Girl is 8 years old. Complaints: the general malaise, periodic arthralgia, tingling sensation in fingers,
spotty rash on her face. She is ill during the year. Beginning of illness mother connects with the rest
in the summer in the south. Objectively: integuments and visible mucous membranes are pale, on the
face, neck, palms there is expressed capillaritis, weakness of muscles. Joints are not changed. Cardiac
tones are rhythmic, weakened, delicate dyastolic murmur on the apex, HR is 100 per min.Your
previous diagnosis is:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosis
B. Nodular peryartheriitis
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. * Raynaud's Syndrome

186. A 6 years old girl with eye problems was consulted by ophthalmologist. Diagnosis of uveitis was
established. There are complaints of pain and swelling in the right knee and a ankle joints, rapid
fatigue, subfebrile temperature. She is ill for 4 months. Affection of the eyes is special for:
A. Infectious arthritis
B. Acute rheumatic lever
C. Overuse syndrome
D. Osteomyelitis
E. * Juvenile rheumathoid arthritis
187. 3 yrs old girl has fever, rash, arthritis and signs of inflammation of internal organs. Systemic form of
the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis was suspected. It is characterized with:
A. Chronic pain and swelling of many joints in a symmetric fashion
B. Chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints
C. Purpuric skin rash
D. Hemarthrosis
E. * Evanescent salmon-pink macular rash
188. A 8 years old girl was hospitalized with complaints of pain and swelling in the left knee and left
ankle joints, morning stiffness, rapid fatigue, subfebrile temperature. She is ill for 4 months.
Beginning of illness she connects with ARI. Pauciarticular form of the juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is
characterized by:
A. Hepatosplenomegaly
B. Salmon-pink macular rashes
C. Purpuric skin rashes
D. Hemarthrosis
E. * Chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints
189. The 14-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour patches on the wrists, legs and
face. These patches are cold, firm, thick and dry. The movements of wrists joints are not limited.
From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's syndrome the year before and there is
decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. No changes in the inner organs were founded. What
observation is the most helpful to confirm the diagnosis?
A. ANA test
B. MRI
C. Angiography
D. General blood analysis
E. * Skin biopsy
190. The 14-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour patches on the wrists, legs and
face. These patches are cold, firm, thick and dry. The movements of wrists joints are not limited.
From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's syndrome the year before and there is
decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. No changes in the inner organs were founded. Localized
scleroderma was diagnosed. What treatment would be prescribed?
A. Penicillamine
B. Pentoxifylline
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Physiotherapy
E. * All mentioned above

191. The 8 years old boy complaints of body temperature 37.4 37.8?C, muscle weakness, pain in knees
and legs. These symptoms appeared 8 days ago. During examination was noticed violet-colored rash
on eyelids and around the nails, periorbital edema. Palpation of the shin muscles is painful,
movements of legs are limited. There is hyperemia of the oral cavity, multiple ulcers on the gingiva.
No changes in the inner organs were found. What observation is the most helpful to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. ANA test
B. MRI
C. Serum muscle enzymes (CK,CPK, LDH, and/or aldolase)
D. General blood analysis
E. * Skin and muscle biopsy
192. A boy 10 years old has complaints of significant fatigue, fever, dysphagia, hardness in flexion of
wrist fingers. He is ill during 5 months; his mom thinks that his disease is provoked with overcooling.
During examination: the weight of patient is less than normal, there are firm small tubercles under the
skin and in the muscles. The movements in hand joints are painless and decreased. The oral cavity
mucosa is dry with hemorrhages. Three months ago in this boy was diagnosed stomach ulcer. Put the
most probable diagnosis.
A. Atopic gingivatis
B. Systemic vasculitis
C. Myastenia gravis
D. Polyneuropathy
E. * Juvenile dermatomyositis
193. The 16-years old boy has the complaints of skin discoloration on the face and feeling of hard skin
around the mouth. Also there is swelling of wrists joints and limited but painless movements in these
joints. During examination there were registered dull heart sounds, tachycardia, decreased sensitivity
in the hands and feet. In ultrasound examination was diagnosed heart fibrosis. Put the diagnosis.
A. JRA
B. JDM
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Restrictic cardiomyopathy
E. * Scleroderma systemica
194. The 16-years old boy has the complaints of skin discoloration on the face and feeling of hard skin
around the mouth. Also there is swelling of wrists joints and limited but painless movements in these
joints. During examination there were registered dull heart sounds, tachycardia, decreased sensitivity
in the hands and feet. In ultrasound examination was diagnosed heart fibrosis. What observation is
the most helpful to confirm the diagnosis?
A. General blood analysis, ANA test
B. MRI, CT
C. EchoCG
D. ECG
E. * Skin biopsy
195. The 17-years old girl came to hospital because of dysphagia symptoms. According anamnesis data
was revealed abnormal sensitivity to cold in the hands and feet. During examination were found:
painful calcium deposits under the skin, pallor and cyanosis of hands and feet, tightening of the skin
on the fingers or toes and presence of dilated capillaries on the hands and face. Put the diagnosis.
A. Systemic vasculitis
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Localized scleroderma
D. Raynaud's syndrome
E. * Progressive Systemic Sclerosis
196. The 13 years old girl complaints of body temperature 37.8 38.2?C, muscle weakness, pain in knees
and legs. These symptoms appeared 4 days ago. During examination was noticed violet-colored rash
on eyelids and around the nails, periorbital edema. Palpation of the shin muscles is painful,
movements of legs are limited. There is hyperemia of the oral cavity, multiple ulcers on the gingiva.
No changes in the inner organs were found. Put the diagnosis.
A. Atopic gingivatis
B. Systemic vasculitis
C. Myastenia gravis
D. Polyneuropathy
E. * Juvenile dermatomyositis
197. The 12-years old girl has the complaints of presence of white colour bands on the arms and legs.
These bands are firm, thick and dry. The girl describes the feelings at the areas of lesions presence
like tightening or compression. From the anamnesis is known that she had signs of Raynaud's
syndrome the year before and there is decreased sensitivity of hands and feet now. No changes in the
inner organs were founded. Put the diagnosis.
A. Atopic dermatitis
B. Systemic vasculitis
C. Polyneuropathy
D. Obliterised endarteriitis
E. * Localized scleroderma
198. A boy 5 years old was hospitalized because of pain in the neck, knees and decrease of movements in
these joints especially in the morning. Two weeks ago was ARI with tonsillitis. The disease have
acute onset: hyperthermia, hard movements of the head, pain and edema of joints. After anti-
inflammatory drugs the pain became less intensive, but decreasing of active movements still
remained. During examination: skin pallor, deformation of knee joints with decrease movements in
them and neck. What examination will help to put early diagnosis of JRA?
A. Coombs test
B. ESR, CRP
C. Pheumatoid factor
D. US of joints
E. * Biopsy of synovial membrane
199. Patient 10 years old admitted to the hospital with intermittent high fever, allergic rash, pain and
swelling in the knee and ankle joints, increase of peripheral lymph nodes, liver and spleen. In general
blood analysis - leukocytes 27x109/l, ESR - 65mm/hour, increased immunoglobulin "M" and "G".
Which of the following diagnoses is most probable?
A. Sepsis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Rheumatc fever
D. Leukemia
E. * Systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
200. 10-year old girl was hospitalized to the children's department with a pain, localized in the joints, high
body temperature, muscle weakness, dysfunctional speech. Mother notes that symptoms are
developed 2 weeks ago after attack of pharyngitis. Auscultation picture - tachycardia, blowing mitral
murmur. Laboratory examination shows leucocytosis l0xl09n 1 liter, erythrocyte sedimentation rate
30 mm/hour C-reactive protein "+++". Put your diagnosis.
A. Nonrheumatic carditis.
B. Exudative perycarditis
C. Septic endomyocarditis
D. Fibroelastosis of endomyocardium
E. * Rheumatic fever, myocarditis, acute duration

201. 9 years old girl has rheumatoid arthritis, system form that manifests by expressed deformation and
pain in knees, feet joints, cervical part of the spine, high temperature, diffuse urticaria, pancarditis,
hepatosplenomegaly. ESR is 30 mm/hour, CRP (+++), seromucoid 1.5 IU. What from these is the
most expedient in treatment?
A. Methothrexat
B. Aspirin
C. Macropen
D. Delagyl
E. * Prednisolone pulse-therapy
202. A 10 y.o. patient of rheumatic heart disease complains of anorexia, weakness and loss of weight,
breathless and swelling of feet. On examination: t 39 , pulse is 120/min. Ascultation: diastolic
murmur in the mitral area. Petechical lesion a round clavicle spleen was palpable, tooth extraction
one month ago.
A. Recurrence of rheumatic fever
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Thrombocytopenia purpure
D. Aortic stenosis
E. * Subacute bacterial endocarditis
203. A 10-year-old boy complains of joint pain and impossibility of movement in left knee and right
elbow. 2 weeks ago he had tonsillitis Physical examination: t - 38,5C and ankle dysfunction,
enlargement of cardiac dullness on 2 cm, tachycardia, weakness of Sound 1, gallop rhythm, weak
systolic murmur near apex. Which diagnosis corresponds to such symptoms?
A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
B. Reiter's disease
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. * Acute rheumatic heart disease
E. Reactive arthritis
204. A 12 year old patient complains of rest dyspnea, heart pains. 3 years ago he had myocardial
infarction. Physical examination: orthopnea, acrocyanosis, swollen cervical veins. Ps - 92, total heart
enlargement, the liver is enlarged by 7 cm, shin edema. What is the stage of chronic heart failure
(CHF)?
A. CHF- 3
B. CHF- 2
C. CHF- 0
D. CHF- 1
E. * CHF- 2 B
205. A 14 year old female fell ill 3 months ago after cold exposure. She complained of pain in her hand
and knee joints, morning stiffness and fever up to 38oC. Interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal and
knee joints are swollen, hot, with reduced ranges of motions ESR of 45 mm/h, CRP (+++), Vaaler-
Rouse test of 1:128. What group of medicines would you recommend the patient?
A. Sulfonamides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Fluorchinolones
D. Cephalosporines
E. * Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

206. A 14 year old patient complains of chest pain, temperature up to 38,5oC, breathlessness. He had acute
tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. He is in grave condition. The skin is pale. Heart borders are dilated, heart
sounds are quiet. Above total heart area you can hear pericardium friction sound. Electrocardiogram\:
the descent of QRS voltage, the inversiont. The liver is enlarged by 3 cm. ESR - 4 mm/h, ASL - 0 -
1260, C-reactive protein +++. Your diagnosis:
A. Septic endocarditis
B. Rheumatic endocarditis
C. Rheumatic pericarditis
D. Rheumatic myocarditis
E. * Rheumatic pancarditis
207. A 15 y.o. female with rheumatoid arthritis of five years duration complains of pain in the first three
fingers of her right hand over past 6 weeks. The pain seems especially severe at night often
awakening her from sleep. The most likely cause is?
A. Atlanto-axial subluxation of cervical spine
B. Sensory peripheral neuropathy
C. Rheumatoid vasculitis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis without complication
E. * Carpal tunnel syndrome
208. A 16 y.o. male patient complains of pain in knee and ankle joints, temperature elevation to 39, 5C.
He had a respiratory disease 1,5 week ago. On examination: temperature 38,5C, swollen knee
and ankle joints, pulse 106 bpm, rhythmic, AP 90/60 mm Hg, heart borders without changes,
sounds are weakened, soft systolic apical murmur. What indicator is connected with possible etiology
of the process?
A. Seromucoid
B. Creatinkinase
C. 1-antitrypsine
D. Rheumatic factor
E. * Antistreptolysine-0
209. A 7 y.o. child had elevation of temperature tol 40C in anamnesis. For the last 3 months he presents
fusiform swelling of fingers, ankle joints and knee joint, pain in the upper part of the sternum and
cervical part of the spinal column. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Toxic synovitis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Osteoarthrits
E. * Juvenile rheumatic arthritis
210. A 8-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint
pain, edema of joints, restriction of movements, fever. On examination, an acute rheumatic heart
disease, activity of the III-rd degree, primary rheumocarditis, polyarthritis acute course of disease,
cardiovascular failure IIA. What medication is to be prescribed?
A. Erythromycin
B. Cefazolin
C. Diprazinum
D. Delagyl
E. * Prednisone
211. A 1-year-old child with fibroelastosis fell ill with acute respiratory viral infection. Suddenly he
develops anxiety, acrocyanosis, Ps- 132 per min, BR - 50/min, small bubbling rales in lower lungs,
pO2 60 mmHg, pCO2 55mm Hg. On X-ray: cardiomegaly, amplification of lung pattern, radix
pulmonis resembles butterfly wings. What is the most likely reason of child condition worsening?

A. Pulmonary abscess
B. * Pulmonary edema
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Double-sided pneumonia
E. Angioneurotic (Quincke's) edema
212. A 6-year-old boy has suffered from tonsillitis. In 2 weeks he started complaining of migratory joint
pain, edema of joints, restriction of movements, fever. On examination: an acute rheumatic heart
disease, activity of the III-rd degree, primary rheumocarditis, polyarthritis; acute course of disease,
cardiovascular failure II A. What medication should be prescribed?
A. Delagil
B. Diprazinum
C. Erythromycin
D. Cefazolin
E. * Prednisone
213. The boy of 3 months has poor increase in mass at satisfactory appetite, periodic cyanosis of the child
during feeding, the changes on the part of heart are auscultated from birth, deficit of weight 15 %,
paleness and xeroderma; rough systolic murmur in all points, is maximum in left intercostal area.
What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. * Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
D. Coarctation of aorta
E. Atrial septal defect
214. The neonatal boy was born with weight 3,100 from normal pregnancy, which one past with
toxicosis during the first trimester, has cried at once; rough systolic murmur in intercostal to the
left of a breast bone, skin pink, clean. What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. Patent ductus arterioses
B. Ventricular septum defect
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. * Atrial septal defect
215. Child 2 month was born premature. Clinically: mild cardiomegaly, proof arrhythmias from birth,
which are interrupted by medicines. EchoCG: moderate dilatation of the left ventricle, hypokinesia
of its walls, without the morphological changes. Late congenital carditis was diagnosed. What can be
the reason of late congenital carditis?
A. Hereditary predilection
B. * Acute respiratory infection in the last trimester of pregnancy
C. Prenatal malnutrition
D. Birth trauma
E. Anemia of pregnant women
216. A 1.5 years girl with problematic obstetrics anamnesis, decrease of physical development, deficiency
of mass 24%. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus, quantity of breathing-52
per minute with participation of additional muscles, expressed cardiomegalia, liver +4sm, and
quantity of heart beating-145, edema. What disease can be in this case?
A. Rheumatic myocarditis
B. Acute no rheumatic carditis
C. Exudative perycarditis
D. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis
E. * Fibroelastosis

217. The 10-year-old girl marks a frequent headache, dizziness, noise in ears; such complaints are present
during 6 months, with the tendency to increase; physical development normal, a hypersthenic
constitution; cardiomegalia, systolic murmur on apex and between scapulae, a tachycardia; arterial
pressure on hands-180/100. What diagnosis the most probable in this case?
A. Essentsial hypertension
B. Renal hypertension
C. * Coartation of aorta
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Stenosis of aorta
218. A 14-year-old boy has rheumatic fever. Over the last 2 years he has had 3 rheumatic attacks. What
course of rheumatic fever does the patient have?
A. * Prolonged
B. Subacute
C. Acute
D. Latent
E. Persistent-reccurent
219. An 18-month-old child was taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The disease began
acutely with temperature 39, weakness, cough, breathlessness. He is pale, cyanotic, has had febrile
temperature for over 3 days. There are crepitative fine bubbling rales on auscultation. Percussion
sound is shortened in the right infrascapular region. X-ray picture shows non-homogeneous segment
infiltration 8-10 mm on the right, the intensification of lung pattern. Your diagnosis:
A. Grippe
B. Interstitial pneumonia
C. * Segmentary pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
E. Bronchiolitis
220. A 27-year-old patient with a history of bronchial asthma was stung by a bee. He had a sensation of
chest compression, breath shortage, difficult expiration, sense of heat in the upper half of body,
dizziness, apparent itch, convulsions. Objectively: noisy wheezing breath, AP - 90/60 mm Hg,
Ps- 110 bpm. Auscultation revealed weak rhythmic heart sounds, rough respiration above lungs,
sibilant rales. What drug group should be administered in the first place?
A. Anticonvulsive
B. Analgetics
C. * Glucocorticoids
D. Cardiac glycosides
E. Methylxanthines
221. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. What heart failure does the
child have?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral insufficiency
C. Aortal stenosis
D. * Aortal insufficiency
E. Rheumatic fever
222. A 16-year-old boy with a history of rheumatic fever complains of fever up to 38-39oC, abdominal
pain, dyspnea, tachycardia. Heart borders are displaced to the left by 2 cm, systolic and diastolic
murmurs above aorta, BP of 140/30 mm Hg. Petechial rash occurs after measurement of blood
pressure. Liver is enlarged by 3 cm, spleen is palpable. Urine is brown-yellow. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Rheumatic fever

B. * Infectious endocarditis
C. Acute nephritis
D. Acute hepatitis
E. Aortic regurgitation
223. A boy is 8 year old. His physical development is compliant with his age. The child has had cardiac
murmur since birth. Objectively: skin and visible mucous membranes are of normal colour. AP-
100/70 mm Hg. Auscultation revealed systolo- diastolic murmur and diastolic shock above the
pulmonary artery. ECG shows overload of the left heart. Roentgenoscopy shows coarsening of the
lung pattern, heart shadow of normal form. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fallot's tetrad
B. Pulmonary artery stenosis
C. * Atrio-septal defect
D. Aorta coarctation
E. Patent ductus arteriosus
224. Examination of a 9-month-old girl revealed skin pallor, cyanosis during excitement. Percussion
revealed transverse dilatation of cardiac borders. Auscultation revealed continuous systolic
murmur on the left from the breastbone in the 3-4 intercostal space. This murmur is conducted
above the whole cardiac region to the back. What congenital cardiac pathology can be suspected?
A. Coarctation of aorta
B. Pulmonary artery stenosis
C. * Ventricular septal defect
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
E. Atrial septal defect
225. An infant was born with body mass 3 kg and body length 50 cm. Now he is 3 years old. His brother
is 7 years old, suffers from rheumatic fever. Mother asked the doctor for a cardiac check up of the 3-
year-old son. Where is the left relative heart border located?
A. 1 cm left from he left parasternal line
B. 1 cm right from the left medioclavicular line
C. * 1 cm left from the left medioclavicular line
D. Along the left medioclavicular line
E. 1 cm right from the left parasternal line
226. During examination at a military commissariat a 15-year-old teenager was found to have interval
systolic murmur on the cardiac apex, diastolic shock above the pulmonary artery, tachycardia. Which
of the supplemental examination methods will be the most informative for the diagnosis
specification?
A. Roengenography
B. Phonocardiography
C. Electrocardigraphy
D. Rheography
E. * Echocardiography
227. A 4 year old female has been limping with swelling of her right knee for several months. Physical
examination demonstrates swelling of her right knee, flexion contracture of 10 degrees and flexion to
120 degrees. Lab. data: WBC 8 g/l, with 45\% neutr., 47 lymphs\%, 8\% mon. Hgb 120 g/l. ESR
20mm/h. Rheum. factor neg., ANA 1:640 speckled. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Lupus
D. * Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
E. Infection Arthritis
228. An 1 month old female presents to the intensive care unit with severe cyanosis, congestive heart
failure, normal first sound, single second sound and an insignificant one to two ejection systolic
murmur. The electrocardiogram shows right axis deviation and right ventricular hyperthrophy. The
thoracic roentgenogram shows cardiomegaly with narrow base and plethoric lung fields. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Congenital heart disease, left to right shunt
B. * Congenital heart disease, right to left shunt
C. Pneumonia
D. Congenital lung malformation
E. Bronchiolitis
229. A 3 month old child has admitted to hospital to diagnose the reason for cardiac murmur. Complaints
of parents: low weight gain, attacks of dyspnoea and cyanosis which amplify at a physical load.
Systolic murmur in 3rd intercostal interspace on the left side, systolic murmur under 2nd intercostals
interspace on the right side of the sternum, hypertrophia of right ventricle. What diagnosis should be
suspected?
A. hypertrophyc cardiomyopathy
B. infectious endocarditis
C. ventricular septal defect
D. * Tetralogy of Fallot
E. atrial septal defect
230. A 12 yr old boy complains of slight fever up to 38.00C, knee joints pain, a day before ankle pain,
tenderness in active and passive movements, common weakness and cardiac pain. It is known he was
ill with acute tonsillitis two weeks ago. Physical examination reveals left heart border external shift,
non frequent cardiac premature bites. What disease should be suspected?
A. * Rheumatic fever
B. Now-rheumatic carditis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis.
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Reactive arthritis
231. An 8 years old girl had had a rheumatic fever manifested with chorea and carditis 6 months ago.
She was treated in-patient department within 1,5 months. Now she is under long term observation by
the rheumocardiologist in children out-patient department. The prevention therapy of rheumatic
fever relapse foresees:
A. The administration of bicillin-3 every month during 3 years
B. The administration of bicillin-5 every month during a year
C. The administration of bicillin-5 every month during 3 years
D. The administration of bicillin-3 every month during a year
E. * The administration of bicillin-5 every month during 5 years
232. A 9 year old boy is ill for 3 days. He has complaints on pain and restriction of movements in right
knee and left elbow joints, dyspnoea. He was suffered from acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago. There are
fever (38,5 C), oedema of joints, extension of the borders of cordial dullness on 2 cm left, HR - 110
per 1 min, weakness of 1st sound, "soft" systolic murmur on an apex. What diagnosis should be
suspected?
A. * Acute rheumatic fever
B. systemic lupus erythematodes
C. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D. Reiters disease
E. reactive arthritis

233. Parents of the 7-year-old boy come to the neurologist with complaints of decrease in his movement
activity, disturbance of walking. These complaints developed gradually, without any reason. At
examination: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body, a hypotonia of
muscles of the feet, an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries, systolic murmur in intrascapular
region. What pathology can be suspected at the patient?
A. Kawasaki illness
B. Takajasu Illness
C. Aneurysm of aorta
D. Endartereitis of femoral arteries
E. * Coartation of aorta
234. A 6 month old girl is ill during 10 days. The disease began acutely with high temperature and
catarrhal syndrome. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus, dyspnea,
acrocyanosis, cardiomegalia. During nonrheumatic carditis is surprised more often:
A. All covers of heart
B. Endocardium
C. Pericardium
D. Myocardium and pericardium
E. * Myocardium
235. A 2 month old child. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth, its rapid progress, formation of cardiac hump,
progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency, refraction to the therapy. Early hereditary carditis belongs
to:
A. Acute myocarditis
B. * Fibroelastosis
C. Cardiac sclerosis
D. Myocardiodistrophy
E. Chronic myocarditis
236. Child 5 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite,
shortness of breath. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias,
soft systolic murmur on the apex. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. For acute
nonrheumatic carditis is not characteristic:
A. Tachycardia
B. Cardiomegalia
C. Dullness of heart tones
D. Bradycardia
E. * Pain in joints
237. Child 8 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite,
shortness of breath. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias,
soft systolic murmur on the apex. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. The forecast during
acute nonrheumatic carditis
A. * Recovering
B. Death till 3 years
C. Death till 1 year
D. The illness during all life
E. Death till 6 years
238. Child 7 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 2 year ago. 1 year ago it was relapse of carditis.
Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatment. Clinically it is revealed physical retardation,
cardiac hump and signs of cardiac failure.
A. Chronic nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. The forecast is:
B. Cardiac insufficiency

C. Death till 3 years

D. Death till 1 year
E. * Recovering
239. Child is 3 month old. Clinically: cardiomegaly at birth, its rapid progress, formation of cardiac hump,
progressive left-heart cardiac insufficiency, refraction to the therapy. Fibroelastosis was diagnosed.
Cardinal in treatment of fibroelastosis is:
A. Surgical correction of infringements of hemodynamics
B. Catheterisation of heart cavities
C. * Heart transplantation
D. Hormones therapy
E. Antibiotic therapy
240. Child 7 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite,
shortness of breath. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias,
soft systolic murmur on the apex. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. Preparation of choise
during acute nonrheumatic carditis is:
A. Planquenil
B. Digoxin
C. Delagil
D. Lasix
E. * Aspirin
241. Child 7 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 1 year ago. Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month
of treatment. Clinically it is observed periodic cardialgias, weak heart tones, tachyarrhythmia,
functional systolic murmur. Subacute nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. Preparation of choise is:
A. Aspirin
B. Prednisolone
C. Digoxin
D. * Delagil
E. Indometacin
242. Child 9 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite,
shortness of breath. Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias,
soft systolic murmur on the apex. Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. The daily dose of
prednisolon during acute nonrheumatic carditis is:
A. 1,5 2,5 mg/kg
B. 2,5 3,5 mg/kg
C. 3,5 4,5 mg/kg
D. 5 mg/kg
E. * 0,5 1,5 mg/kg
243. Child 10 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 2 year ago. 1 year ago it was relapse of carditis.
Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatment. Clinically it is revealed physical retardation,
cardiac hump and signs of cardiac failure. Chronic nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. Drug which
does not improve function of myocardium is:
A. * Metiluracil
B. Mildronat
C. Fosphaden
D. Cardonat
E. Riboxin
244. Child was born in term. From 2 weeks sudden episodes of bluish skin from crying or feeding was
observed. Clinical examination permits to suspect congenital heart disease. What are the blood
compensatory mechanisms in cyanotic defects?

A. Leucocytosis with left shift, elevation of ESR

B. Hypohemoglobinemia, low blood viscosity, erythrocytopenia
C. * Polycythemia, hyperhemoglobinemia, high blood viscosity
D. Leucocytopenia, Hypohemoglobinemia
E. Thrombocytosis, high blood viscosity
245. Clinical examination of child has revealed tachycardia, cardiomegaly, dyspnea at physical activity.
Instrumental observations were prescribed. What heart defect is characterized by round, apple-shaped
heart during X-ray examination?
A. Fallout tetralogy
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Aortic stenosis
E. * Tricuspid atresia
246. Child 1 month was born in term. Clinically it is observed tachycardia, arrhythmia, respiratory
problems, shortness of breath, continuous machine-like murmur. Patent ductus arteriosus is
diagnosed clinically. How can you characterize the patent ductus arteriosus?
A. Cyanotic heart defect with right-to-left shunt
B. Acquired heart disease
C. * Acyanotic heart defect with left-to-right shunt
D. Acyanotic heart defect without shunt
E. Complication of the congenital heart disease
247. A patient, 14 yrs old, suffering from heart failure, undergoes inpatient treatment. On ECG: changes in
the form of a trough-shaped displacement of ST segment below isoline and frequent ventricular
extrasystoles. What is the most probable cause of these changes?
A. Carditis
B. Potassium overdose
C. Myocardiodystrophy
D. * Cardiac glycosides overdose
E. Myocardiosclerosis
248. A 5-year-old child had an attack of palpitation with nausea, dizziness, generalized fatigue. On ECG:
tachycardia with heartbeat rate of 220/min, ventricle complexes are deformed and widened, P wave is
absent. What medication is to be prescribed to provide first aid?
A. Seduxen
B. Isoptin
C. Novocainamides
D. Strophantin
E. * Lidocain
249. During examination of the 4 months old boy were revealed: cardiomegaly, steadfast tachyarrythmia,
stagnant wheezes in lungs, dyspnea, increasing liver to 3cm. Early inborn carditis was diagnosed.
What degree of the cardiac insufficiency has this child?
A. 1st
B. 2A
C. 3rd
D. * 2-B
E. 4th

250. During examination of 1 year child next findings were observed: mild peryoral cyanosis, respiratory
rate is 47 per min., pulse rate is 144 beats/min., auscultation: normal lung sound, diminished heart
sounds and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erbs point; hepatomegaly +2 cm, moderate
edema on legs. Such clinical findings are character to:
A. The I degree of heart failure
B. * The II A degree of heart failure
C. The III degree of heart failure
D. The 0 degree of heart failure
E. The II B degree of heart failure
251. Girl 7 years in the hospital with congestive heart failure is receiving digoxin. On the fifth day of
treatment there were vomiting, nausea, anorexia, headache, disturbance of color vision, liquid
emptying. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
A. Acute renal failure
B. Exacerbation of underlying disease
C. Acute meningoencephalitis
D. Botulism
E. * Dygitalis intoxication
252. A 16-year old girl with mitral stenosis after exercise there was a mixed attack of breathlessness,
cough with frothy sputum release. AP is 140/95mm Hg. What did cause the deterioration of the
patient?
A. Left auricular acute failure
B. Bronchoobstructive syndrome
C. Acute right ventricular failure
D. Increase in total peripheral resistance
E. * Acute left ventricular failure
253. In children 1 year with fibroelastosis on the background of ARI suddenly appeared anxious,
acrocyanosis, pulse 132 per minute, BR 50 per min, fine moist rales in the lower areas of lungs, pO2
60mm Hg, pCO2 55mm Hg. On X-ray: - cardiomegaly, increased pulmonary pattern, roots are as
butterfly wings. Exacerbation is the result of:
A. Both sides pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Angioneurotic edema
D. * Pulmonary edema
E. Lung abscess
254. A child 12 years old suffers from rheumatic mitral heart defect. After exercise there was shortness of
breath, paroxysmal cough, unproductive cough, bubbling breath. On auscultation on the background
of hard breathing there are different-sized moist rales. HR - 120 per 1 minute, AP - 110/60mm Hg.
What emergency state has developed in a child?
A. Acute heart failure is a total type
B. * Acute heart failure, left ventricular type
C. Acute vascular insufficiency
D. Acute respiratory failure
E. Acute heart failure, right ventricular type

255. A child is 13 years old. He has combined rheumatic mitral valve defects with predominance of
failure. On the background of acute respiratory viral infections increased shortness of breath, general
weakness, there was a feeling of tightness in the chest, a dry cough. The position is semi-sitting.
There are air of long suffering on his face and cyanosis of the lips. Pulse on peripheral vascular is
weak filling. Heart rate is 150 per 1 min. In the lungs on the background of hard breathing in low
back areas variegated moist rales are listened. Liver is on the costal arch. What emergency state has
developed in a child?
A. Acute right ventricular heart failure
B. Total acute heart failure
C. * Acute left ventricular heart failure
D. Acute vascular insufficiency
E. Chronic left ventricular failure
256. The boy 12 years, suffering from mitral stenosis, after playing basketball has increasing breathing,
feels a lack of air, attack and dyspnea, bubbling secreations on the lips. In the lungs (back basal areas)
there are fine moist rales. The most likely cause of worsening of the child condition is associated
with:
A. Acute vascular insufficiency
B. Cardiac total insufficiency
C. * Cardiac left-type insufficiency
D. Acute heart right-type insufficiency
E. Acute respiratory failure
257. Patient 15 years with mitral heart defect is treated by digoxin (0.00025g twice daily) and furosemid
(0,04g twice a week). At 10 day of treatment appeared acute heartbeat, frequent ventricular
extrasystoles, nausea, vomiting. Your tactics is:
A. Add to digoxin indomethacin
B. Reduce digoxin dose in 2 times
C. Cancel digoxin, prescribe atropine subcutaneously
D. Replace digoxin on strophantin i/v
E. * Cancel digoxin, prescribe potassium preparations, unitiol i/m
258. The boy in the maternity hospital was diagnosed congenital heart defects (ventricular septum defect).
In the 2-month age appeared dyspnea to 60 per minute, tachycardia to 170 beats per minute,
increasing of liver 3cm below costal arch edge. What preparations should be priority to the child?
A. Preparation of potassium
B. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs
C. Beta-blockers
D. Glucocorticoids
E. * Cardiac glycosides
259. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. Child feels fear. Skin is pale, there are
acrocyanosis, swelling of neck veins. Pulse is weak, heart rate can not be counting. On ECG pulse is
260 per 1 minute. What complication did occur?
A. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia
B. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia
C. * Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
D. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
E. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia
260. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute, complexes
QRS are not changed, wave P merges with T. Put the diagnosis.

A. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia

B. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia
C. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia
D. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
E. * Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
261. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. ECG pulse is 180 per 1 minute, complexes
QRS are changed (ventricular extrasystoles), wave P is absent. Put the diagnosis.
A. Acute left heart failure with sinus tachycardia
B. Acute right heart failure with sinus tachycardia
C. Total heart failure with sinus tachycardia
D. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
E. * Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
262. The 12-year-old boy had a first episode of syncope in 10 years. He was treated for "family convulsant
syndrome". He has a history of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation from 4 days of age.
On ECG all T-wave are abnormal; T wave in V-4 lead is particularly changed, the final part of the T
wave in V-4 lead is greater in amplitude than the initial part. Put the diagnosis.
A. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
B. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
C. Congenital sinus tachycardia
D. * Congenital elongation of QT interval
E. Congenital carditis
263. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. ECG pulse is 180 per 1 minute, complexes
QRS are changed (ventricular extrasystoles), wave P is absent. What medicines must be introduced
intravenously first of all?
A. Novocainamid
B. * Lidocain
C. Corglucon
D. Potassium orotatis
E. Isoptin
264. Child 10yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute, complexes
QRS are not changed, wave P merges with T. Syndrome of premature ventricular excitation was
diagnosed. What medicines must be introduced intravenously first of all?
A. Novocainamid
B. Isoptin
C. Corglucon
D. Lidocain
E. * Cordaron
265. Child 10 yrs old with acute carditis complains of heart beating, constricting pain in the chest, fear,
lack of air. ECG: early ventricular extrasystoles, superimposed on T waves preceding cardiac cycle,
frequent isolated ectopic extrasystoles (more than 5 per min), and group polytopic extrasystoles.
What treatment must be prescribed?
A. Isoptin
B. Lidocain
C. Phenobarbital
D. * Amiodaron
E. Electric defibrillation

266. Child is 1yr old. Mother complaints of marked anxiety, refusal to eat, pale skin, tachypnea, excessive
sweating, cyanosis of nasolabial triangle and vomiting. n the ECG there is the replacement of normal
P wave rapid oscillations, tachycardia 160 per min. Put diagnose.
A. Ventricular fibrillations
B. * Atrial fibrillations
C. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
D. Sinus tachycardia
E. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
267. Child 10 yrs old with acute carditis complains of discomfort in the heart, constricting pain in the
chest, pain in the epigastric region, dizziness, vomiting. ECG pulse is 240 per 1 minute, complexes
QRS are not changed, wave P merges with T. Put the diagnosis. Suddenly loss of consciousness,
pallor cyanosis, tonic seizures occur, stop respiratory rhythm, blood pressure is not determined. What
complication did occur?
A. Atrial fibrillations
B. Left heart failure
C. Right heart failure
D. Total heart failure
E. * Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
268. During procedure of taking blood in boy for general blood analysis weakness, dizziness, nausea,
vomiting appear. This is accompanied by a darkening of the eyes, tinnitus with the following brief
loss of consciousness. The patient falls to the floor. Skin is pale, his pupils are dilated, react to light.
Extremities are cold. Breathing is shallow, bradypnea, bradycardia, weak pulse. Heart sounds are
muffled. Blood pressure is lowered. Put the diagnosis.
A. Paralytic collapse
B. Vagotonic collapse
C. * Syncope
D. Post hemorrhagic collapse
E. Sympatotonic collapse
269. Child is 6yrs old. On background of severe pneumonia there is marked pallor, cool extremities, rising
of systolic blood pressure. Heart sounds are loud, tense, urine output is decreased. Patient is exiting,
reflexes are increased, convulsions. Put the diagnosis.
A. Acute renal failure
B. Acute heart failure
C. Vagotonic collapse
D. Neurotoxicosis
E. * Sympatotonic collapse
270. Child is 6 yrs old. On background of severe pneumonia child became adinamic, consciousness is
darkened, facial features are sharp. Marbling of the skin, cold, clammy sweat, the empty veins are
observed . The first heart tone is flapping, pulse is thready, blood pressure is decreased, urine output
is significantly reduced. To restore vascular tone it is necessary to enter:
A. * Mezaton or adrenalin
B. Prednisolon
C. Reopolyglucin
D. Sodium ascorbinati
E. All that is mentioned
271. A17 y.o. patient complains of acute pain in the knee joint and t- 38C. He was ill with angina 3
weeks ago. Objectively: deformation and swelling of the knee joints with skin hyperemia. Small
movement causes an acute pain in the joints. Which diagnose is the most correct?
A. Reactive polyarthritis

B. Systemic lupus eritematodes

C. Rheumathoid arthritis
D. Infectious-allergic polyarthritis
E. * Rheumatic fever, polyarthritis
272. An 8 year old girl complains about joint pain, temperature rise up to 38oC, dyspnea. Objectively\: the
left cardiac border is deviated by 2,5 cm to the left, tachycardia, systolic murmur on the apex and in
the V point are present. Blood count\: leukocytes - 20,0*109/l, ESR - 18 mm/h. What sign gives the
most substantial proof for rheumatic fever diagnosis?
A. Fever
B. Accelerated ESR
C. Leukocytosis
D. Arthralgia
E. * Carditis
273. During laboratory examinations of the 13-years old boy with rheumatic carditis and polyarthritis was
found\: leukocytes 1010 9/l, ESR 26 mm/hour, CRP ++, seromucoid 0,45 units, syalic acids 230
units, antystreptolysin O 420 units. What degree of the disease activity?
A. 1st degree
B. 3rd degree
C. 4th degree
D. 5th degree
E. * 2nd degree
274. In 14 years old girl is diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis, mono articular form that manifests by
deformation of the left feet joint over 6 months, morning awkwardness. ANA are positive in blood
serum. What complication is the most possible to reveal in such form of disease?
A. Stomatitis
B. Pulmonitis
C. Nephritis
D. Carditis
E. * Uveitis
275. In 2 weeks after pharyngitis a 15- year-old patient started complaining of rise in temperature to 33C,
fatigue, shortness of breath during walking, migrating joint intumescence and pain . On physical
exam: cyanosis of lips, pulse is weak, rhythmical, 100 bpm. The left heart border is moved outwards
from mediaclavicular line for 1 cm. Sound I on the apex is weakened, soft systolic murmur is
auscultated. What etiologic factor caused this pathological process in the most probable way?
A. Virus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Fungus
E. * Beta hemolytic streptococcus
276. In the boy, 2 years old, exists: high temperature (39 - 40 oC), which dominates in the night, does not
fall after using antipyretics edema and restriction of movements in feet joints rashes on the face,
trunk and limbs. He is ill for 10 days. The disease has begun acutely with increasing of the
temperature and catarrhal phenomena. Objectively: general condition is severe, the child is faded,
drowsy on cheeks, abdomen and hips diffuse papulous rashes feet joints are painful, edematous, hot
when palpated the heart borders are enlarged, tachycardia, hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Alergosepsis

D. Pseudotuberculosis
E. * JRA, Still syndrome
277. The boy, 5 years old, notes the edema, pain, restriction of the movements in feet and wrists joints. He
is ill for 2.5 months, has got the treatment\: erythromycin, aspirin, bicillin-1, but improvement did not
approach, 2 days ago has noted the pain in cervical part of the spinal cord. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Spondylitis deformans (Bechterew's disease)
B. JRA, Still syndrome
C. Reiter syndrome
D. Rheumatic fever
E. * JRA, polyarticular form
278. The boy, 6 years old, has rheumatoid arthritis, polyarticular form (deformation and morning
awkwardness in both elbows, hands, left knee joint). He suffer from the disease during 1 year, the
combination of ibuprofen and plaquenil is not effective. What is most reasonable to prescribe for
long-term therapy?
A. Aspirin
B. Azulfadine
C. Delagyl
D. Prednisolon pulse-therapy
E. * Methothrexat
279. The child is four years old. The disease has begun 3 weeks ago, from temperature 39 ?. During the
day temperature changed on 2-2.5 ?, reduction was accompanied with perspiration. Periodically
appeared pink rash, different in size and localization joints (knees, feet, hands) were painful and
edematous, their function was poor. The pain lasted 1-2 days. Objectively: the temperature is 39 ?,
liver +2 cm, spleen +1 cm, all groups of lymph nodes are palpated. Feet joints are painful,
movements in them are vastly limited. The blood test\: Hb 112 g/l, er. 3.91012 l, leukocytes
12.9109/l, e.- 6%, b.-1%, s.- 48%, l.-35%, m.-10%, ESR 54 mm/hour. Indicate the most reliable
diagnosis.
A. JRA, subsepsis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Reactive arthritis
D. Rheumatic fever, active phase
E. * JRA, Still syndrome
280. The girl is 4 years. She has entered in clinic with complaints on pain and edema in right knee and
hand joints, morning stiffness (limitation of motions), quick malaise, subfebril temperature. She is ill
during 4 months, this disease connected with influenza. The disease has begun with damage of the
knee joint, the girl received the aspirin, but ineffectively. In 3 months the process extended to hand
joints. Put the previous diagnosis
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Infectious-allergic arthritis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Systemic scleroderma
E. * Rheumatoid arthritis
281. 514. The girl, 12 years old, has entered in clinic with diagnosis Rheumatic fever. She is ill for 2
months, disease has begun acutely with high temperature, headache, and spotted-papulous rashes on
trunk, in a week was joined pain in all groups of joints and in spine. Objectively: diffuse pallor of the
skin and mucous membranes, ample rashes on trunk, myocarditis, ESR-28 mm/hour, CRP (++++),
CCP-test is positive, antistreptolysin-O titer is negative. There is enlargement of peripheral lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, joints are of usual form, movements are moderately limited because of
pain. The treatment of the rheumatic fever was slight effective. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Alergosepsis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Leukemia
D. Tuberculosis
E. * JRA, Still syndrome
282. To the 10-years old boy rheumatic fever, the active phase, 3rd st. activity, endomyocarditis,
polyarthritis, acute duration, cardiac insufficiency 2A st. was diagnosed. What from these schemes is
correct?
A. Prednisolon 1 mg/kg 10 days, with the following reduction of the dose
B. Prednisolon 1 mg/kg 10 days
C. Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days
D. Prednisolon 2,5 mg/kg masses 10 days, with the following reduction of the dose.
E. * Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days, with the following reduction of the dose
283. 11 years old boy. Diagnosis: "Rheumatic fever, active phase, endomyocarditis, acute duration".
Indicate the main treatment.
A. Hormons, antiinflammatory preparations
B. Antibacterial therapy, hormons
C. Antibacterial, antiinflammatory, symptomatic therapy
D. Antibacterial, antiinflammatory therapy.
E. * Antibacterial, antiinflammatory, symptomatic therapy, hormons
284. To the 12-years old girl was diagnosed rheumatic fever, the active phase 3rd st. of activity,
endomyocarditis, polyarthritis, acute duration, cardiac insufficiency 2B st. What changes on ECG are
typical for this case?
A. Blocade of the left drumstick of the Gis bunch
B. Lengthenings of the segment PQ
C. Voltage reduction
D. Blocade of the right drumstick of the Gis bunch
E. * Voltage reduction, lengthening of the segment PQ, overloading of the left ventricle, brady- or
tachyarrythmia
285. To the 9-year old girl who has systemic form of rheumatoid arthritis, with high temperature, languor,
urticarial rashes on skin, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, diffuse damage of large and middle-sized
joints, was prescribed prednisolon pulse-therapy. In the beginning of the treatment the most
reasonable is to combine it with:
A. Auranofin
B. Antibiotics
C. Enterosorbents
D. Polyvitamines
E. * Aspirin
286. To the12-years old girl was diagnosed rheumatic fever, active phase, 1st stage activity, chorea, acute
duration. What from these schemes of antiinflammatory treatment is correct?
A. Aspirin 100 mg/kg 3-4 weeks.
B. Aspirin 100 mg/kg, prednisolon 2 mg/kg/day
C. Penicillin 30 000 IU/kg, prednisolon 2 mg/kg/day
D. Prednisolon 2 mg/kg 10 days, with the following reduction of the dose.
E. * Aspirin 50 mg/kg 3-4 weeks, afterwards 2/3 doses - 2 weeks
287. 1,5 years girl was administrated to hospital with defect of intraventricular septum, decompensation,
cardiac insufficiency 2B stage. Dose of digoxin saturation is:
A. 0,01-0,02 mg\kg\day

B. 0,03-0,04 mg\kg\day
C. 0,07-0,08 mg\kg\day
D. 0,09-0,1 mg\kg\day
E. * 0,05-0,06 mg\kg\day
288. 1,5 years old girl with problematic obstetrics anamnesis, decrease of physical development,
deficiency of mass 24%. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucous, quantity of
breathing-52 per minute with participation of additional muscles, cardiomegaly, liver +4sm, and
quantity of heart beating-145, edema. What disease can you suspect?
A. Rheumatic myocarditis
B. Acute no rheumatic carditis
C. Exudative perycarditis
D. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis
E. * Fibroelastosis
289. 10 month old child was hospitalized with complaints on weakness, anxiety, and refusal of foods. He
is ill by the upper respiratory tract viral infection. His condition grew worse on the 3rd day of the
disease. Objectively\: pallor of the skin, moderate per oral cyanosis, dyspnea, cardiac rate is 156 per 1
min., left border of the heart is on the front axillary line, cardiac activity is rhythmic. On ECG - sinus
tachycardia, overloading of left ventricle, myocardial hypoxia. The biochemical blood test is
prescribed. What change is possible to expect?
A. Increasing of the AST and ALT level
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Presence of the C-reactive protein
D. Hypoglycemia
E. * Increasing of the LDG1 level
290. 2 years boy has acute norheumatic carditis. What dose of prednisolone must be at the beginning of
treatment?
A. 2 mg\kg\day
B. 3 mg\kg\day
C. 1 mg\kg\day
D. 5 mg\kg\day
E. * 0,5 mg\kg\day
291. 7 months girl has defect of intraventricular septum. During objective examination: dyspnoe, exiting,
cough, the great quantity of moist rales in lungs, quantity of breathing is 84 per min, and quantity of
heart beating is 160 per min, liver +3sm, edema of legs, cardiomegaly. What stage of cardiac
insufficiency in this case?
A. 1A
B. 1B
C. 2A
D. 3
E. * 2B
292. A 10 y.o. patient of rheumatic heart disease complains of anorexia, weakness and loss of weight,
breathless and swelling of feet. On examination: t 39 , pulse is 120/min. Ascultation: diastolic
murmur in the mitral area. Petechical lesion a round clavicle spleen was palpable, tooth extraction
one month ago.
A. Recurrence of rheumatic fever
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Thrombocytopenia purpure
D. Aortic stenosis
E. * Subacute bacterial endocarditis

293. A 10 year old girl ill with influenza felt palpitation and dull cardiac pain during moderate physical
exercise. Objectively: Ps - 106 bpm, AP - 80/45 mm Hg. The first sound is quiet above the apex, soft
systolic murmur is present. What complication is indicated by these clinical presentations?
A. Acute allergic infectious myocarditis
B. Myocardiopathy
C. Idiopathic myocarditis
D. Neurocirculatory dystonia
E. * Acute viral myocarditis
294. A 10-year-old patient complains of shortness of breath, pain in the right rib arc place, dry cough and
leg edema. He has been ill for 2 months. He was treated for rheumatic fever without effect. On exam:
cyanosis, edema of the legs, t - 36,6C, RR 28/min, HR 90/min, BP 90/50 mm Hg. Bilateral
pulmonary rales on lower lungs. Heart borders are displaced to the left and to the right. Cardiac
sounds are weakened, systolic murmur above the apex. What is the most likely preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Infectious endocarditis
B. Rheumatic fever, mitral stenosis
C. Acute myocarditis
D. Acute pericarditis
E. * Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy
295. A 12 year old patient complains of rest dyspnea, heart pains. 3 years ago he had myocardial
infarction. Physical examination: orthopnea, acrocyanosis, swollen cervical veins. Ps - 112, total
heart enlargement, the liver is enlarged by 7 cm, shin edema. What is the stage of chronic heart
failure (CHF)?
A. CHF- 3
B. CHF- 2
C. CHF- 0
D. CHF- 1
E. * CHF- 2 B
296. A 13 y.o. female complains of shooting heart pain, dyspnea, and irregularities in the heart activity,
progressive fatigue during 3 weeks. She had acute respiratory disease a month ago. On examination:
AP-120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 108 bpm, heart boarders +1,5 cm left side, sounds are muffled, soft
systolic murmur at apex and Botkin's area sporadic extrasystoles. Liver isn't palpated, there is no
edema. Blood test: WBC 6,7*109/L, sedimentation rate-21 mm/hour. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Rheumatic fever, mitral insufficiency
B. Climacteric myocardiodystrophia
C. Ichemic heart disease, angina pectoris
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
E. * Acute myocarditis
297. A 14 y.o. female is suffering from squeezing substernal pain on physical exertion. On examination:
AP-130/80 mm Hg, heart rate *pulse rate 72 bpm, heart boarders are dilated to the left side, aortic
systolic murmur. ECG-signs of the left venticle hypertrophy. What method of examination is the most
informative in this case?
A. Sphygmography
B. Phonocardiography
C. X-ray
D. Coronarography
E. * Echocardiography

298. A 17-year-old male complains of shortness of breath, swelling on shanks, irregularity in cardiac
work, and pain in the left chest half with irradiation to the left scapula. Treatment is ineffective. On
physical exam\: heart's sounds are diminished, soft systolic murmur on the apex. Ps 100/min,
arrhythmical, BP - 115/75 mm Hg. The liver is +2 cm, painful. Roentgenoscopy: enlargement of heart
shadow to all sides, pulsation is weak. Electrocardiogram (ECG): leftventricled extrasystolia,
decreased voltage. What method of investigation is necessary to do to determine the diagnosis?
A. Coronarography
B. X-ray kymography
C. Veloergometry
D. ECG in the dynamics
E. * Echocardiography
299. A 5-year-old child with stigmas of dysembryogenesis (small chin, thick lips, opened mouth,
hyperthelorismus) has systolic murmur in the second intercostal to the right of the sternum. The
murmur passes to the neck and along the sternum left edge. The pulse on the left brachial artery is
weakened. BP on the right arm is 110/60 mm Hg, on the left -100/60 mm Hg. ECG results:
hypertrophy of the right ventricle. What congenital heart disease is the most probable?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. * Aortic stenosis
300. A 5-year-old girl has a small ventricular septal defect (VSD). Her growth and development are
normal, and she has normal activity levels. Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Her ECG demonstrated atrial enlargement due to the left-to-right shunt
B. Her pulmonary vascular resistance is increased
C. The ventricular septal defect may close spontaneously
D. The heart size is normal
E. * She does not need endocarditis prophylaxis before dental work because the shunt is small
301. A female patient, aged 15. Two weeks after pneumonia developed shortness of breath during walking,
constant ache in precardiac area, skin edema. On examination: t*37, 2C, Heart borders without
changes, Sound 1 on the apex is weakened. ECG: atrioventricular heart block I degree, lowering of
the amplitude of T wave in V2-V6. In blood: Hb - 124 g/L, WBC - 5, 68 *109/L, ESR -18 mm/h.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. CHD: unstable angina
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Metabolic cardiopathy
E. * Acute myocarditis
302. A patient, aged 9, complains of fever of 37,5oC, heart pain, dyspnea. S1 is clapping S2 is accentuated
in the aortic area opening snap, presystolic murmur can be auscultated. What is the most efficient
examination for valvular disorder assessment?
A. Ballistocardiogram
B. Chest X-ray
C. Phonocardiography
D. ECG
E. * Echocardiography + Doppler-Echocardiography
303. During dynamic investigation of a patient the increase of central venous pressure is combined with
the decrease of arterial pressure. What process is proved by such combination?
A. Depositing of blood in venous channel

B. Presence of hypervolemia
C. Shunting
D. Increase of bleeding speed
E. * Developing of cardiac insufficiency
304. During examination of 1 year child next findings were observed: mild perioral cyanosis, respiratory
rate is 47 per min., pulse rate is 144 beats/min., auscultation: normal lung sound, diminished heart
sounds and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erbs point hepatomegaly +2 cm, moderate
edema on legs. Such clinical findings are character to:
A. The I degree of heart failure
B. The II B degree of heart failure
C. The III degree of heart failure
D. The 0 degree of heart failure
E. * The II A degree of heart failure
305. During examination of 6 years child next findings were observed: acrocyanosis, respiratory rate is 31
per min., pulse rate is 119 beats/min., auscultation: moist rales in the lungs, diminished heart sounds
and rough systolic murmur on the apex and Erbs point hepatomegaly +4 cm, marked edema,
oliguria. Such clinical findings are character for:
A. The I degree of heart failure
B. The II A degree of heart failure
C. The III degree of heart failure
D. The 0 degree of heart failure
E. * The II B degree of heart failure
306. During examination of the 4 months old boy were revealed\: cardiomegaly, steadfast tachyarrythmia,
stagnant rales in both lungs, dyspnea, increased liver to 3 cm. Early inborn carditis was diagnosed.
What stage of the cardiac insufficiency has this child?
A. 1st st
B. 2A st
C. 3rd st
D. 4th st
E. * 2-B st
307. In 12 years old girl was diagnosed chronic nonrheumatic carditis, cardiac insufficiency of the 3rd
stage. What plaquenil dose must be used in this case?
A. 5 mg/kg/day
B. 10 mg/kg/day
C. 2 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5 mg/kg/day
E. * 8 mg/kg/day
308. Parents of the 7-year-old boy come to the neurologist with complaints on decrease in his movement
activity, disturbance of walking. These complaints developed gradually, without any reason. At
examination: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body, hypotonia of
muscles of the feet, an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries, systolic murmur in intrascapular
region. What pathology may be suspected in the patient?
A. Kawasaki disease
B. Takajasu disease
C. Aneurysm of aorta
D. Nothing of these
E. * Coartation of the aorta

309. Six-month boy with often unproductive cough, irritibility, poor appetite, dyspnea. He was treated
twice with pneumonia, was born with weight 3,200 now a weight deficit is 18 %, skin is cyanotic,
the dyspnea, RR -48/min., in mild asperous breathing with rales, left-hand border of heart on forward
axially line, systolic a noise in V point, is conducted in scapular segment, pulse - 148/min. Accent
of tone above pulmonary artery. What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronhiolitis
C. Hereditary carditis
D. Acute pneumonia
E. * Congenital heart disease with the left-to-right shunt
310. The girl of 6 month old is ill during 10 days. The disease began acutely with high temperature and
catarrhal syndrome. During objective examination: paleness of skin and mucous, dyspnoe,
acrocyanosis, cardiomegaly. What disease can you suspect?
A. Rheumatic myocarditis
B. Exudative perycarditis
C. Hereditary nonrheumatic carditis
D. Fibroelastosis
E. * Acute nonrheumatic carditis
311. The girl of 6 months was administrated to hospital with complaints of mother to general exiting,
dyspnoe. Anamnesis of disease 1 week, but peroral cyanosis was from the moment of birth. During
objective examination: paleness of skin and mucus, quantity of breathing is 52 per minute with
participation of additional muscles, cardiomegalia, liver +3sm, and quantity of heart beating-175.
What disease may you suspect?
A. Late hereditary carditis
B. Rheumatic carditis
C. Acute no rheumatic carditis
D. Secondary fermentopathy
E. * Early hereditary carditis
312. The newborn boy was born with weight 3,100 from normal pregnancy, which was pasted with
hestosis during the first trimester without asphyxia. Systolic murmur in intercostal to the left of
sternum, skin is pink, clean. What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. Intraventricular septum defect
B. Intraatrium septal defect
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
E. * Patent ductus arterioses
313. The newborn girl from normal pregnancy was born in time of gestation 39-40 weeks with weight 3
kg, growth 50 sm, an estimation behind a scale of Apgar 6 on 1min. and 7 on 5 min. It is observed
proof cyanose which does not decrease at oxygen inhalation quantity of breathing- 70, quantity of
heart beating-160 - 180, tone of heart clear, in lungs pueral breathing. X-ray- pulmonary picture-
transparent, narrowing of a vascular bunch of heart. What it is possible to suspect? The disease
of gialin membranes
A. Aspiration of meconij
B. Tetralogy of Fallott
C. Defect of intraventricular septum
D. * A transposition of main vessels
314. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure 0 mm Hg. What heart failure does the
child have?
A. Rheumatism

B. Aortal i stenosis
C. Mitral insufficiency
D. Mitral stenosis
E. * Aortal insufficiency
315. To the neuropathologist parents of the 7-year-old boy with complaints to decrease in its movement
activity, disturbance of walking. These complaints developed gradually, without any reason. At
examination\: irregularity of development of the upper and lower parts of body, a hypotonia of
muscles of the feet, an absent pulsation on the femoral arteries, systolic murmur in intrascapular
region. What pathology can be suspected at the patient?
A. Disease of Kawasaki
B. Disease of Takajasu
C. Aneurysm of aorta
D. Endartereit of femoral arteries
E. * Coartation of aorta
316. To the newborn child with a syndrome of respiratory frustration EhoCG that has helped to diagnose a
hereditary heart disease: a transposition of the main vessels, ductus artheriosus does not function.
What it is necessary to spend to the newborn during the first hours of life?
A. Ingalations of oxygen
B. Lungs ventilation
C. Cardiac glycoside
D. Diuretic
E. * Procedure of Rashkinde
317. An 8 years old girl has complains about joint pain, temperature rise up to 38oC, difficult breathing.
Objectively the left cardiac border is deviated by 2.5 cm to the left. Tachycardia is present. On an
apex and Erbs point is listening systolic murmur. Blood count: leukocytes - 20,0x109/l, ESR - 18
mm/h. What sign gives the most substantial proof for rheumatism diagnosis?
A. Fever
B. Accelerated ESR
C. Leukocytosis
D. * Carditis
E. Arthralgia
318. A 15 years old patient suffers from headache, nasal haemorrhages, sense of coldness on lower
extremities. Objectively: muscles of shoulder girdle are developed, lower extremities are
hypotrophied. Pulsation on the pedal and femoral arteries is sharply dampened. AP is 150/90 mm Hg
on the arms and 90/60 on the legs. Systolic murmur can be auscultated above carotid arteries. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Coarctation of pulmonary artery
B. Aortal insufficiency
C. * Aorta coarctation
D. Aortal stenosis
E. Aorta aneurism
319. During preventive examination a 16 year old patient presented no problems. Objectively: the patient
has signs of malnutrition. He is asthenic. AP is 110/70 mm Hg. Ps is 80 per minute. Cardiac border is
normal. Auscultation above the cardiac apex reveals three sounds but cardiac murmur is absent. ECG
shows no pathological changes. Phonocardiogram shows that the third sound comes 0,15 s after the
second one above the apex. How are these changes called?
A. IV physiological sound
B. Reduplication of the 2nd sound
C. Protodiastolic gallop rhythm

D. Atrial gallop rhythm

E. * III physiological sound
320. The six-month boy suffers from unproductive tussis, disturbing, poor appetite, dyspnea. According to
mother explanation the child was born with 3200 g of body weight, twice was treated with
pneumonia. Now deficit of mass is 18 %, skin is cyanotic, the dyspnea, breath-48/min., in mild hard
breathing with rhonchus, left-hand border of heart on forward axially line, systolic murmur in V
point, is conducted in scapular segment, pulse - 148/min. Accent of tone above pulmonary artery.
What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. * Congenital heart diseases with reset of blood on the left right
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Hereditary carditis
E. Acute pneumonia
321. The boy of 3 months has poor increase in mass at satisfactory appetite, periodic cyanosis of the child
during feeding, the changes on the part of heart are auscultated from birth, deficit of weight 15 %,
paleness and xeroderma; art rough systolic murmur in all points, it is maximum in left
intercostal space to the left. What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. atrial septal defect
B. tetralogy of Fallot
C. * Ventricular septal defect
D. pulmonary stenosis
E. Coarctation of the aorta
322. The neonatal boy, was born with weight 3,100 from normal pregnancy, which one flowed past with
gessoes during the first trimester, has cried at once; rough systolic noise in intercostal to the left of
a breast bone, skin pink, clean. What diagnosis is possible to suspect?
A. * Patent Ductus Arteriosus
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. atrial septal defect
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. pulmonary stenosis
323. What deformations of joints are typical for Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
A. * Hyperextension of interphalangeal joints
B. Contractures of knee-joints
C. Arthralgia
D. Fusiform deformation of elbows
E. An increase in joints volume
324. What deformation of the thorax is typical for Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
A. Keeled chest
B. Barrel chest
C. * Flat back
D. Deformations of collar-bones and ribs
E. Rachitic rosary
325. After birth the newborn has heart rate 110 per minute, he is crying, has active movements, sneezing
in answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What will be 1-
st minute Apgar score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8

D. * 9
E. 10
326. After birth the newborn has heart rate 90 per minute, he is crying, has active movements, sneezing in
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What will be 1-st
minute Apgar score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. * 8
D. 9
E. 10
327. After birth the newborn has heart rate 90 per minute, he has irregular breathing, has active
movements, sneezing in answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities
are blue. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score?
A. 6
B. * 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
328. After birth the newborn has heart rate 26 per minute, he doesnt breathe, doesnt move, there is no
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body is pale. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score?
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
329. After birth the newborn has heart rate 110 per minute, he is crying, has weak movements, sneezing in
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What will be 1-st
minute Apgar score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. * 8
D. 9
E. 10
330. After birth the newborn has heart rate 126 per minute, he is crying, has active movements, sneezing
in answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color. What will be 1-st minute Apgar
score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. * 10
331. After birth the newborn has heart rate 85 per minute, he has irregular breathing, weak movements,
grimace in answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What
will be 1-st minute Apgar score?
A. * 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

E. 9
332. After birth the newborn has heart rate 80 per minute, he has irregular breathing, extremities are
hanging down, grimace in answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has blue color. What will
be 1-st minute Apgar score?
A. * 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
333. After birth the newborn has heart rate 96 per minute, he is crying, has active movements, sneezing in
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color. What will be 1-st minute Apgar score?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. * 9
E. 10
334. After birth the newborn has heart rate 116 per minute, he is crying, has active movements, grimace in
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What will be 1-st
minute Apgar score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. * 8
D. 9
E. 10
335. After birth the newborn has heart rate 84 per minute, he is crying, muscle hypotonia, grimace in
answer to the clearing of airways, skin of body has pink color, extremities are blue. What will be 1-st
minute Apgar score?
A. * 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
336. The newborn with expressed acrocyanosis had cried immediately after birth. The muscular tone is
reduced. During nosal catheter usuge he is crying. Cardiac rate is 128 in a minute. Estimate the
childs Apgar score.
A. * 8 points
B. 7 points
C. 9 points
D. 6 points
E. 5 points
337. What is the right place for the checking of presence of pulse for assessment of unconscious patient?
A. Femoral artery
B. Carotid artery
C. Clavicular artery
D. Brachial artery
E. * Radial artery

338. What is the appropriate order for checking of vital signs before the beginning of cardio-vascular
resuscitation?
A. circulation, airways, breathing
B. breathing, circulation, airways
C. * airways, breathing, circulation
D. airways, circulation, breathing
E. breathing, airways, circulation
339. What is the first step of resuscitation in this case?
A. * clearing the airways
B. warming of the child
C. oxygen therapy
D. injection of adrenaline
E. tactile stimulation
340. A 10-year-old boy complains of joint pain and impossibility of movement in left knee and right
elbow. 2 weeks ago he had tonsillitis Physical examination: t - 38,5C and ankle dysfunction,
enlargement of cardiac dullness on 2 cm, tachycardia, weakness of Sound 1, gallop rhythm, weak
systolic murmur near apex. Which diagnosis corresponds to such symptoms?
A. gastroduodenal disease
B. kidney disease
C. * Cardiovascular disease
D. malnutrition
E. infection disease
341. The patient with aquired heart failure has diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. What heart failure does the
child have?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral insufficiency
C. Aortal stenosis
D. * Aortal insufficiency
E. Rheumatic fever
342. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. It is known from the
anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. What is the most
likely etiological factor in this case?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Proteus
C. Klebsiella
D. Pneumococcus
E. * Streptococcus
343. A 4 year old female has been limping with swelling of her right knee for several months. Physical
examination demonstrates swelling of her right knee, flexion contracture of 10 degrees and flexion to
120 degrees. Lab. data: WBC 8 g/l, with 45\% neutr., 47 lymphs\%, 8\% mon. Hgb 120 g/l. ESR
20mm/h. Rheum. factor neg., ANA 1:640 speckled. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Rheumatism
C. Lupus
D. * Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
E. Infection Arthritis

344. The boy of 9 years old. He is ill for 3 days. He has complaints on pain and restriction of movements
in right knee and left elbow joints, dyspnoea. He was suffered from acute tonsillitis 2 weeks ago.
There are fever (38,5 C), oedema of joints, extension of the borders of cordial dullness on 2 cm left,
HR - 110 per 1 min, weakness of 1st sound, "soft" systolic murmur on an apex. What diagnosis
should be suspected?
A. * Acute rheumatic fever
B. systemic lupus erythematodes
C. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D. Reiters disease
E. reactive arthritis
345. In 2 weeks after pharyngitis a 15-year-old patient started complaining of rise in temperature to 38 C,
fatigue, shortness of breath during walking, migrating joint intumescence and pain . On physical
exam: cyanosis of lips, pulse is weak, rhythmical, 100 bpm. The left heart border is moved outwards
from medi-aclavicular line for 1 cm. Sound I on the apex is weakened, soft systolic murmur is
ausculated. What ethiological factor caused this pathological process in the most probable way?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Virus
D. Fungus
E. * Betha hemolytic streptococcus
346. A 5-year-old child had to undergo an operated for ankyloglossya. There were no external symptoms
of preoperative anxiety. Aafter injection of 1,5 ml of 0,5\% novocaine solution the child presented
with motor anxiety, vomiturition, stomachache. Objectively: the child is conscious, face and neck
skin is hyperemic, tachypnoe is present, pulse is rapid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Allergic reaction to novocaine
B. Pain shock
C. Cardiovascular collapse
D. Giddiness
E. Overdosage of anesthetics
347. ?All of the following conditions are causes of glomemlonephritis, except:
A. * Allergies
B. Bacterial infection
C. Viral
D. Fungal
E. Vaccination
348. For a boy 7 years in 2 weeks after the carried tonsillitis edema appeared on face, lower extremities.
The state is heavy, predefined by intoxication syndrome. Blood pressure - 140/80. Urine of brown
color. General analysis of urine: specific gravity -1015, protein 1,2 g/l, red corpuscles cover all
field of view, cylinders 1 2 in field of view. Protein in day's urine 0,78 gr. What most reliable
diagnosis?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome
B. Stones disease
C. Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome, hematuria and arterial hypertension
D. * Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome
E. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urine syndrome

349. The boy of 3 has an edema syndrome like as anasarca. Blood pressure - 95/60. In the general
analysis of urine: protein 6,3 g\l, leucocytes 2-3 in field of view, red corpuscles 1-2 in field of view,
cylinders - 2-3 in field of view. General protein of blood 44,2 g\l, albumen 38,1%, cholesterol of
blood 8,6 mmol\l. What clinical variant of acute glomerulonephritis does take place probably?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome

B. * Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis with isolated urine syndrome
D. Acute glomerulonephritis with nefrotic syndrome, hematuria and arterial hypertension
350. The child of 10 years is ill during one week. The disease appears after cooling. The symptoms: pain
in abdomen, back, temperature 38. In analysis of urine: leucocytes 25-30 in field of view, protein
0,33 g/l. Diagnose acute pielonephritis. What investigation it is necessary to prescribe for making
of etiotropic treatment?
A. Cistographia
B. Urogrphia
C. Zimnitskiy test
D. Nechiporenko test
E. * Bacteriological test of urine
351. Acute glomerulonephritis is diagnosed. What from the resulted investigations is informing for
kidneys function estimation?
A. General analysis of urine
B. Protein estimation in days urine
C. Nechiporenko test
D. * Zimnitskiy test
E. Estimation of daily diuresis
352. A 10 years old boy has acute glomerulonephritis during a mouth. He has edema. In urine: protein
2,5 g/l, in the biochemical blood test: total protein 48 g/l, cholesterol- 9,8 mmol|l. What from this
medicine must be appointed to the child in the complex of pathogenetical therapy?
A. Delagyl
B. Plaquenyl
C. * Prednisolon
D. Heparin
E. Curantil
353. Dark color of urine is observed at a 9 years boy, that 3 weeks ago had an tonsillitis, arterial blood
presser 100|50, in the complete analysis of urine: protein is 0,98 g|l, leucocytes 3-2 in field of view,
erythrocytes on 1/3 in field of view, hyaline casts 1-2 in field of view. What variant of acute
glomerulonephritis is more reliable in the child?
A. Nefrotic
B. * Nephritic
354. What investigation must be performed to confirm the kidneys dysfunction during chronic
glomerulonephritis?
A. General analysis of urine
B. * Endogenous creatinin clearance
C. Nechiporenko test
D. Estimation of daily proteinuria
E. Estimation of cholesterol
355. The 7 years boy with edema, headache, red urine, blood pressure 130/90. The 10 day before were
pain in throat, hypothermia. In general analysis of urine: protein-2,5 g/l, leuc. 2-3, erythr. On all
field of view, casts gialine 2-3. What can lead to such changes?

A. * Streptococci
B. Enteroviruses
C. Respiratory viruses
D. Staphylococci
E. E. Coli
356. The girl of 10 years. One month before was tonsillitis. Last 2 weeks general malaise, painless of
skin, consistency of urine 1018, protein-0, 91 g/l, blood pressure 140/90, leuk. In urine 2-3,
erythr. on 1/2 of field of view. What drug it is necessary to give:
A. * Indometacin
B. Prednisolone
C. Chlorbutin
D. Plackvenil
E. Lejkeran
357. What dose of heparin it is necessary to prescribe during acute glomerulonephritis?
A. 50-100 IU/kg
B. * 100-300 IU/kg
C. 10-20 IU/kg
D. 500-600 IU/kg
E. 250-500 IU/kg
358. What diet it is it is necessary to prescribe during acute pielonephritis?
A. 2
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
E. * 5
359. What sign is present during acute pielonephritis?
A. * Proteinuria
360. What from the variants of therapy most expedient at the mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis:
A. Prednisolone
B. Prednisolone and citostatic
C. Prednisolone and heparin
D. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil
E. * Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and citostatic
361. What from the resulted positions incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome:
A. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed
B. The dose of diuretics is depending from an effect
C. * To all patients with nephrotic syndrome it is necessary to prescribe citostatics
D. During the expressed edema and hyper coagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin
E. It is necessary to prescribe citostatics according the needing
362. During the hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis with the prednisolone it
is necessary to prescribe:
A. No steroid antiinflamation drugs
B. Preparates of aminohinoline groope
C. * Citostatics
D. Heparin
E. Curantil
363. What from the methods of researches is most informing at the syndrome of malignant hypertension:

A. X- ray of kidneys
B. Excretory X- ray of kidneys
C. * Angiographies
D. Ultrasound investigation of kidneys
E. Biochemical analysis of blood
364. What from the diseases is contra-indication for prescribing of heparin:
A. Nephrotic syndrome of acute glomerulonephritis
B. Mixed form of chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Sub acute malignant glomerulonephritis
D. * Aplastic anemia
E. Nephrotic syndrome of chronic glomerulonephritis
365. What position relatively to nephritic variant of edema syndrome is incorrect:
A. Edema syndrome more frequent is moderately expressed
B. In. the basic of mechanism of such edema is violation of the vascular penetrating
C. * In the basic of mechanism of such edema lies hypoproteinemia
D. In the basic of mechanism of such edema hypoproteinemia is not important
E. In. the basic of mechanism of such edema is and increase of pressure
366. What position relatively to nephrotic variant of edema syndrome is incorrect:
A. Edemas more frequent are expressed: from peripheral till anasarca
B. In genesis of such edema hypoproteinemia has a great role
C. * In genesis of such edema In genesis of such edema hypoproteinemia has a great role
D. .There is hypoproteinemia disproteinemi
E. There is hypercholesterinemia
367. What from the variants of therapy most expedient during the mixed form of chronic
glomerulonephritis:
A. Monotherapy of prednizolone
B. * Prednisolone and citostatic
C. Prednisolone and heparin
D. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil
E. Prednisolone and heparin with curantil and citostatic
368. At the sclerosis of what amount of nephrons and what level of creatininemia there is the stage of
decompensation of chronic kidney insufficiency:
A. 20% of nephrons and creatinin of blood till 0,177 mmol\l
B. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0, 22 0,44 mmol\l
C. 75% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0, 25 0,40 mmol\l
D. 50% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0,177 mmol\l
E. * 80-90% of nephrons and creatinin of blood - 0,44-0,707 mmol\l
369. What from the resulted positions incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic syndrome:
A. Corticosteroid therapy is appointed
B. The dose of diuretics prescribes depending of effect
C. * Citostatics are prescribing to all patients
D. During edema syndrome and hyper coagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin
E. Citostatics are prescribing only according indications
370. During hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic glomerulonephritis it is necessary to prescribe
with prednisolone:
A. No steroid antiinflamation drugs
B. Preparate of aminohinolin group

C. * Citostatics
D. Heparin
E. Antibiotics
371. What from the resulted signs not characteristic for the mixed form of glomerulonephritis:
A. Arterial hypertension
B. Edema syndrome
C. * The absence of hypoproteinemia with disproteinemia
D. Urine syndrome
E. Hematuria
372. Violation of desintoxication function of kidneys in the beginning of glomerulonephritis is
characteristic for:
A. Isolated urinary syndrome
B. * Nephritic syndrome
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Mixed form
E. Nephrotic syndrome with arterial hypertension
373. What from such biochemical tests cannot demonstrate activity of inflammatory process during
glomerulonephritis:
A. Protein and its fractions
B. C reactive protein
C. Seromucoid
D. ESR
E. * Ca and P of blood
374. Normal indexes of analysis of urine about Nechiporenko are:
A. * Leucocytes 4000 in 1 ml, red corpuscles 2000 in 1 ml
B. Leucocytes 1000 in 1 ml, red corpuscles 500 in 1 ml
C. Leucocytes 2000 in 1 ml, red corpuscles 1000 in 1 ml
D. Leucocytes 3000 in 1 ml, red corpuscles 1000 in 1 ml
E. Leucocytes 2000 in 1 ml, red corpuscles 500 in 1 ml
375. The children of school age have normal contents of urea in the blood:
A. * 21,44-32,76 mmol/l
B. 3,33-8,32 mmol/l
C. 15,66-17,45 mmol/l
D. 1,76-2,87 mmol/l
E. 2,43-3,76mmol/l
376. The children of school age have a normal contents of creatinin in the blood:
A. * Till 0,1 mmol/l
B. B. 2,1-3,2 mmol/l
C. 4,3-7,3 mmol/l
D. 15,0-17,3 mmol/l
E. 4,2- 1,1 mmol/l
377. What from formulas is necessary for the calculation of day's amount of urine for children:
A. * 600+100(n-1), where n-amount of years
B. 500(+5), where n-amount of years
C. mass +10
D. 600(+5), where n-amount of years
E. 600(+10), where n-amount of years

378. Excretory urographia allows to estimate:

A. * Anatomical state of urinary tract and urodinamics
B. State of nephrons
C. Functional state of urinary tract
D. State of urinary bladder
E. Functional state of urodinamics
379. Ecskretory urographia does not allow to discover:
A. Position, sizes, form of kidneys
B. State of nephrons
C. Functional state of urinary tract
D. * Anomaly of kidney vessels
E. State of urinary bladder
380. Main sign of pielonephritis is:
A. * Leikocituria
B. Hematuria
C. Eritrocituria
D. Proteinuria
E. Cilindruria
381. Main features of kidney edema:
A. * Appear at morning, warm, pale
B. Appear in the second half of day, cold, cyanotic
C. Dense
D. Disposed mainly on trunk
E. Disposed mainly on place of sex organs
382. Kidney angiographies is an main investigation during::
A. * Suspicion on the defects of development or disease of vessels
B. Arterial hypertension
C. Nephroptos
D. Nephritis
E. Glomerulonephritis
383. What drug we use in the case of nehprotic syndrome for pathogenetical treatment:
A. Prednisolone
B. Penicillin
C. Curantil
D. * Suprastin
E. Ascorutin
384. What from the resulted pathological states cannot become reason of the secondary pyelonephritis:
A. Kidney stones disiease
B. Dismetabolic nephropathies
C. Reflux
D. * Hereditary nephritis
E. Ocsalaturia
385. What from such points is not used at treatment of acute pyelonephritis:
A. Antibiotics
B. Uroseptics
C. * Hormones

D. Antiinflamation drugs
E. Diet
386. What from such drugs is ineffective at treatment of pyelonephritis:
A. Ampicillin
B. Amicin
C. Cefatoxin
D. * Levomicetin
E. Loracin
387. What from these products are eliminated in a diet 7:
A. Rice
B. Porridge
C. Vegetable puree
D. Egg
E. * Meat
388. The main role in etiology of pielonephritis is:
A. * Bakeries
B. Viruses
C. Micoplasma
D. Parasites
E. Fungis
389. What from diseases more frequent in all can result in development of chronic kidney insufficiency:
A. Kidney stones disease
B. Metabolic nephropathies
C. Reflux
D. * .Glomerulonephritis chroni
E. Ocsalaturia
390. The middle age dose of lasics is:
A. * 1-2 mg/kg/day
B. 4-5 mg/kg/day
C. 10 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5-1 mg/kg/day
E. 0,5mg/kg/day
391. The middle age dose of amicin is:
A. 15-10 mg/kg/day
B. 4-5 mg/kg/day
C. 10 mg/kg/day
D. 0,5-1 mg/kg/day
E. * 0,5 mg/day
392. The middle age dose of nitrofurans is:
A. 8 mg/kg/day
B. 50-100 mg/kg/day
C. 1-2 mg/kg/day
D. 15-20 mg/kg/day
E. * 20-50 mg/kg/day
393. The preparetate for treatment of dismetabolic nephropathies is:
A. Kanefron

B. Penicillin
C. Bicilin
D. Aspirin
E. * Linecs
394. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1-3years old children?
A. 30ml.
B. 35-50 ml.
C. * 50-90 ml.
D. 100-150ml.
E. 200ml.
395. What is the volume of the urinary bladder in 1 year old children?
A. 30ml.
B. * 35-50 ml.
C. 50-90 ml.
D. 100-150ml.
E. 200ml.
396. What is the rate of blood plasma filtration in elder children and adults?
A. * 100-125 ml/min/kidney.
B. 70-100 ml/min/kidney.
C. 60-70 ml/min/kidney.
D. 40-50 ml/min/kidney.
E. 34-40 ml/min/kidney.
397.
A. Urineanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. * Zimnitskys test
D. Creatinine clerance test
E. Rebergs test
398. What test will you prescribe to evaluate concentrative function of kidneys?
A. Urineanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. * Zimnitskys test
D. Creatinine clerance test
E. Rebergs test
399. What test will you prescribe to confirm orthostatic proteinuria?
A. Urineanalysis
B. Nechiporenco
C. Zimnitskys test
D. Creatinine clerance test
E. * Rebergs test
400. Bacteriuria is considered significant if there are
A. 1000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine.
B. 5000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine.
C. 10000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine.
D. 25000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine.
E. * 50000 of microbes in 1 ml of urine.

401. How collect urine for urinanalysis (general analyses of the urine):
A. * Collect the morning urine, middle portion; investigate physical properties, and lead
microscopy
B. In the clear bottle collect urine, which was excreted of urine while 10 nights hours (from 22
to 8).
C. Use for investigate minute leukocyturia formed elements which excreted of urine for 3
hours
D. Taking middle portion of morning urine, near 2-3 ml
E. Collect 8-portion urine while 24 hours;
402. Urinanalysis determines such data, except:
A. colour of urine
B. specific gravity
C. level of protein, glucose, sugar, ketone bodies
D. microscopy of sediment: leukocytes, erythrocytes, cylinders, endotelial cells
E. * daily urine volume
403. Dysuria doesnt includes symptom of:
A. painful urination
B. * poliuria
C. urinary urgency
D. incomplete voiding
E. enuresis
404. Syndrome of urine changes doesnt includes
A. * painful urination
B. proteinuria
C. heamaturia
D. casturia
E. leukocyturia
405. Nephritic syndrome doesnt include
A. edema,
B. arterial hypertension,
C. mild proteinuria,
D. * significant proteinuria
E. hematuria, casturia
406. Nephrotic syndrome doesnt include
A. massive edema
B. significant proteinuria (more than 3 g/l)
C. hypoproteinemia
D. hypercholesterolemia
E. * arterial hypertension
407. Significant proteinuria is the symptom of
A. cystitis
B. urethritis
C. vulvovaginitis
D. * glomerulonephritis
E. pyelopephritis
408. Mild proteinuria cannot be a symptom of?
A. cystitis
B. urethritis
C. vulvovaginitis
D. * glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome
E. pyelopephritis
409. The reasons of functional proteinuria are next, except?
A. proteinuria of newborn
B. alimentary
C. orthostatic
D. febrile temperature
E. * nephroptosis
410. Heamaturia isnt a symptom of?
A. TB of kidney
B. * glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome
C. glomerulonephritis with nephritic syndrome
D. renal bleeding
E. cystitis
411. What is the main diagnostic criterion for chronic renal failure?
A. hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
B. * increased level of creatinin and urea, decreased filtrative function of the kidneys
C. anemia
D. metabolic acidosis
E. polyuria
412. Coca-Cola-like colour of urine can be the symptom of
A. cystitis
B. urethritis
C. vulvovaginitis
D. * glomerulonephritis
E. pyelopephritis
413. Dark-brown colour of urine can be the symptom of
A. * virus hepatitis
B. hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. renal-tumor
D. glomerulonephritis
E. pyelopephritis
414. Dark-violet discoloration of urine can be the symptom of
A. virus hepatitis
B. * hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. renal-tumor
D. glomerulonephritis
E. pyelopephritis
415. Bright red colour of urine can be the symptom of
A. virus hepatitis
B. hemolysis incase of poisoning
C. * renal-tumor
D. glomerulonephritis
E. pyelopephritis

416. The labels for analysis of urine shouldnt contain the following information:
A. the kind of analysis (urinanalysys, Nechiporenko or Amburgeau test)
B. the childs name,
C. the ward unit,
D. * diagnosis
E. the date and hour of collection.
417. The child, 12 years old, complaints of the skin and mucous membranes jaundice, clay-colored feces
and dark color of the urine, weakness. He is ill for 2 weeks. Jaundice has appeared on the 10th day of
the disease. Three months ago was performed hemotransfusion because of bleeding. The liver +3 cm,
spleen +1 cm. Hepatitis is suspected, what examination will realistically confirm the diagnosis?
A. The biochemical blood test.
B. The urinalysis on bile pigments.
C. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig M.
D. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig G
E. * Polymerase Chain Reaction.
418. The child, 12 years old, was treated because of the hepatitis . He discharges from the hospital on
24th day in satisfactory condition. What is the duration of dispensary observation?
A. 3 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 12 months.
D. 18 months.
E. * 6 months.
419. To the child in the age of 6 years with complaints on acute pains in the right subcostal area was made
fraction duodenal probing, as a result of which is the elongation of 1-st, 2 and 3-rd phases of fraction
examination with decreasing of a volume of bile in 1-st and 2 phases. Indicate the type of a
dyskinesia.
A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Hypokinetic
D. Hyperkinetic
E. * Hypotonic-Hypokinetic
420. To the child of 5 years, who has on chronic cholecystocholangitis the biochemical blood analysis is
performed. Syndrome of cholestasis is detected. What parameters will be increased?
A. Transaminase
B. Diastase
C. Thrombinogen
D. Thymol test
E. * Alkaline phosphatase
421. ?17 year old patient complains of intensive skin itching, jaundice, bone pain. The skin is
hyperpigmentated. There are multiple xanthelasma palpebrae. The liver is +6 cm enlarged with acute
edge. The blood analysis revealed total bilirubin 160 mkmol/L, direct 110 mkmol/L, AST
(asparate aminotransferase) 2,1 mmol/L per hour, ALT-1,8 mmol/L, alkaline phosphotase 4,6
mmol/L per hour, cholesterol- 9,2 mmol/L, antimitochondrial antibodies M2 in a high titer. What is
the probable diagnosis?
A. * Primary biliary liver cirrhosis
B. Primary liver cancer
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Chronic viral hepatitis

E. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis

422. A 10 year old girl complained of attacks of right subcostal pain after fatty meal she has been suffering
from for a year. Last week the attacks repeated every day and became more painful. What diagnostic
study would you recommend?
A. X-ray examination of the gastrointestinal tract
B. Ultrasound study of the pancreas
C. * Ultrasound examination of the gallbladder
D. Liver function tests
E. Blood cell count
423. A 10-year-old boy is ill with autoimmune hepatitis. Blood test: A/G ratio 0,8, bilirubin 42
mkmol/L, transaminase: ALT 2,3 mmol/L, AST 1,8 mmol/L. What is the most effective means
in treatment?
A. * Glucocorticoids, cytostatics
B. Hepatoprotectors
C. Antibacterial medication
D. Hemosorbtion, vitamin therapy
E. Antiviral medications
424. A 12-year-old girl complains of dull right subcostal pain, nausea, decreased appetite. History: disease
started with jaundice in 2 months after appendectomy. She was treated in an infectious hospital. 1
year later present complaints have developed. Physical examination: subicteric sclerae, enlarged firm
liver. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic viral hepatitis
B. Chronic cholangitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Calculous cholecystitis
E. Gilbert's disease
425. A 14 year-old patient was admitted to the gasteroenterology with skin itching, jaundice, discomfort in
the right subcostal area, generalized weakness. On examination: skin is jaundice, traces of scratches,
liver is +5 cm, splin is 6x8cm. In blood: alkaline phosphatase 2,0 mmol/hour/L, general bilirubin
60 mkmol/L, cholesterol 8,0 mmol/L. What is the leading syndrome in the patient?
A. Cytolytic
B. Asthenic
C. Mesenchymal inflammatory
D. Liver-cells insufficiency
E. * Cholestatic
426. A 15 year old patient has been suffering from chronic pancreatitis for 5 years. During the last 5 years
he has been observing abatement of pain syndrome, abdominal swelling, frequent defecations up to
3-4 times a day (feces are grey, glossy, with admixtures of undigested food), progressing weight loss.
Change of symptom set is caused by joining of:
A. Syndrome of lactase deficiency
B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
C. Chronic enterocolitis
D. Endocrine pancreatic insufficiency
E. * Irritable bowels syndrome
427. A 17-years old patient has sudden acute pain in the right epigastric area after having fatty food. What
method of investigation is to be used on the first stage of examining the patient?
A. * Ultrasonic
B. Radionuclide
C. Magnetic-resonance

D. Roentgenological
E. Thermographic
428. 7 years old child complains of an acute abdominal pain, which arises after mental loading, use of cold
drinks, ice-cream. The diagnosis: Dyskinesia of gallbladder, hypertonic type. What drugs should be
assigned first of all for treatment?
A. Sedative and cholikinetics
B. Choleretics and cholikinetics
C. * Spasmolitics and choleretics
D. Antioxidants
E. Antibiotics
429. The boy of 12 years complains of a periodic short-lived cutting pain in the right subcostal area, which
occurs after the greasy food. For what type of dyskinesia these complaints are typical?
A. * Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Dystonic
D. Hepatalgic
E. Asthenic
430. The child 12 years old complaints of the skin and mucous membranes jaundice, clay-colored feces
and dark color of the urine, weakness. He is ill for 2 weeks. Jaundice has appeared on the 10th day of
the disease. Three months ago had hemotransfusion because of bleeding. The liver is +3 cm, spleen
+1cm. Hepatitis is suspected. What examination will realistically confirm the diagnosis?
A. The biochemical blood test
B. The urinalysis on bile pigments
C. * Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig M
E. Investigation of Anti-HAV Ig G
431. The child, 12 years old, was treated because of the chronic hepatitis. He discharges from the hospital
on the 24th day in satisfactory condition. What is the duration of dispensary observation?
A. 6 months
B. 9 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. * 5 years
432. To the child of 5 years, who has chronic cholecystocholangitis the biochemical blood analysis is
performed. Syndrome of cholestasis is detected. What parameters will be increased?
A. Transaminase
B. * Alkaline phosphatase
C. Diastase
D. Thrombinogen
E. Thymol test
433. 14-year-old patient has admitted to the intensive care unit with hemorrhagic shock due to gastric
bleeding. He has been ill hepatitis B for the last 5 years. The source of bleeding - veins of the
esophagus. What is the most effective method to control bleeding?
A. * Introduction of the obturator through the nasogastric tube
B. Intravenous pituitrin
C. Fresh frozen plasma I/V
D. Operation
E. Hemostatic therapy

434. Patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, in the right hypochondrium radiating to the right
scapula. It was vomiting without relief. The body temperature is 37.6C. The abdomen is moderately
distended, tense and painful in the epigastrium and right hypochondrium. A mild muscle strain of the
abdominal wall in the right hypochondrium is palpated. Ortners symptom is positive. Put a
preliminary diagnosis.
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Stomach ulcer penetration
D. * Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute intestinal obstruction
435. 7 years old girl is ill during 3 years. Hypotonic type of gallbladder dyskinesia was diagnosed. Which
of the following is inappropriate in the complex therapy?
A. * Antispasmodic drugs
B. Physiotherapy of tonic type
C. Cholekinetics
D. Duodenal intubation
E. Mineral water of high salinity
436. 15 years old girl has gallstone disease. She has chills, increase body temperature up to 38 C,
jaundice during three days. Symptoms of peritonitis are negative, the pain is not increased. Blood
bilirubin is 45 mmol / l, leucocytes -18 x 10 9/L. What kind of complications should be considered?
A. Perforation of the gallbladder
B. * Choledocholithiasis
C. Subhepatic abscess
D. Acute cholangitis
E. Hemolytic jaundice
437. Patient 14yrs old complained of recurrent pain in the right hypochondrium, which irradiates to the
right shoulder, periodic jaundice with fever, metallic taste in the mouth. These complaints appear
after overeating. OBJECTIVE: a patient is being overweight, sclera are yellowish, local tenderness in
the right hypochondrium, Ortners, Keras symptoms are positive. In the blood there is the high level
of direct bilirubin. What kind of diseases you can think about?
A. Chronic pancreatitis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Gastric ulcer
D. * Cholelithiasis
E. Hemolytic jaundice
438. Patient 16yrs old is suffering from chronic calculous cholecystitis with periodic exacerbations, as a
short-term biliary colic. After colic sclera and palate icteric, darkening of urine color was observed.
After the next exacerbation and examination in the hospital a surgical method of treatment was
recommended. What of the following methods will be the most reliable way to exclude
choledocholithiasis in this case?
A. Fibrogastroduodenoscopy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Ultrasound of the liver and biliary tract
D. Duodenal intubation
E. * Cholecystocholangiography

439. Patient 12yrs old is feeling heaviness in the right hypochondrium and sometimes nausea or bitterness
in his mouth, a tendency to constipation. An objective examination revealed no abnormalities. At
ultrasound: the liver and the pancreas are not changed; gall bladder is enlarged, hypotonic, with
parietal cholestasis. At duodenal intubation: fraction B - 90 ml, the time of its excretion - 50 minutes
with no changes in the bile microscopy. Which disease is possible?
A. Chronic pancreatitis
B. Giardiasis
C. Chronic cholecystitis
D. * Biliary dyskinesia
E. Chronic hepatitis
440. Patient 17yrs old was hospitalized to the surgical department with complaints of nausea, vomiting,
pain in the right hypochondrium. She has been ill for the last 3 days, when there were the same
complaints. Prior to this, she ate greasy and fried dishes. Objectively: the patient's state is moderate.
Abdomen is soft at palpation, tender in the right hypochondrium. Grekov-Ortners, Keras signs are
positive. In the blood analysis: leukocytosis 14 x 109/l, with a shift to the left. Put the correct
diagnosis.
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. * Acute cholecystitis
E. Stomach ulcer
441. The patient 10 years old suddenly fell ill about 12 hours ago. There was a pain in the epigastric
region, nausea, single vomiting. A few hours later the pain was localized in the right iliac region,
where now the positive symptoms of peritoneum irritation are determined. In the blood analysis:
leukocytosis 12.2 x 109/l, with a shift to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Right-sided renal colic
E. * Acute appendicitis
442. Patient 15 years old was brought by an ambulance to the pediatric department with acute pain in the
right hypochondrium and vomiting. The doctor on duty has diagnosed acute calculous cholecystitis.
Which of the invasive methods of radiology screening of the patient should do?
A. Computed tomography
B. Radionuclide diagnosis
C. Thermography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging
E. * Ultrasound
443. The 10 years old boy has chronic viral hepatitis B with maximum activity. Which laboratory tests
accurately characterizes the degree of cytolysis in a patient?
A. Prothrombin
B. Veltmans test
C. Takata-Aras test
D. * Transaminases
E. Total protein

444. In patient 11yrsold, that for a long time has been suffering from the liver cirrhosis, has recently
appeared complaints of moderate pain in the epigastric region, constant flatulence, which intensifies
after meals. OBJECTIVE: Symptoms of free fluid in the abdomen, enlarged liver and spleen. At
ultrasonography: extended portal vein, enlarged liver and spleen. What kind of cirrhosis
complications has this patient?
A. Bleeding from esophageal varices
B. Intestinal dysbacteriosis
C. Peritonitis
D. Hepatocellular failure
E. * Portal hypertension
445. In a patient with chronic hepatitis B jaundice was growing, increased weakness and fatigue, he
became drowsy during the day. The liver is uniformly decreased. Diuresis is normal. Name the
further tactics of the patients treatment.
A. Appointment of choleretic and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
B. Appointment of trental and heparin
C. Laferon appointment
D. * Appointment of prednisolone and increased detoxification
E. Appointment of legalon and essentiale
446. Patient 17yrs old, student, came to the clinic of the University. The last 4 days has being complained
of general weakness, fatigue and impaired appetite. Skin and sclera are yellowish, brick-colored
urine. In the blood analysis: hyperbilirubinemia (35 mcmol/L) with the predominance of direct
bilirubin; ALT 2.1; AST 1.9. What is the reason of jaundice?
A. Malaria, hemolytic anemia
B. Cholelithiasis, obstructive jaundice
C. Macronodular cirrhosis
D. * Viral hepatitis
E. Hemolytic anemia
447. 8 years old boy was ill with hepatitis B a year ago. In the past two months, he is complaining about
fatigue, sleep disturbance, appetite loss, nausea, especially in the morning. Skin is without jaundice,
liver and spleen were palpable 1cm below the costal edge, not painful. ALT is 2,2 mmol/L. This
situation can be regarded as:
A. * Development of chronic hepatitis B
B. Recurrence of hepatitis B
C. Dyskinesia of bile ducts
D. Residual phenomena of acute hepatitis
E. The development of cirrhosis
448. 15 years old patient was hospitalized with straining pain in the left hypochondrium, which irradiates
to the back. He notes nausea, decreased appetite, weight loss, vomiting without relief, diarrhea. He
has been ill for over 5 years. Exacerbation has developed because of errors in the diet. OBJECTIVE:
t = 37,0C, pulse rate 94 per minute, BP 125/75 mm Hg. Skin is pale, pain in the epigastrium, right
and left hypochondrium. In the blood: leuk. 10.4 x 109/l, ESR 22 mm/hour. The worsening of what
disease is the most likely in this case?
A. Stomach ulcer
B. Chronic gastritis
C. * Chronic pancreatitis
D. Chronic cholecystitis
E. Chronic enterocolitis
449. Boy 12 years old was entered to the intensive care unit in extreme severe condition. At the inspection:
absent conscious, skin and sclera are yellow. Liver is enlarged, splenomegaly and ascites. There are
respiratory arrythmia, tachycardia, pulse 120 per min, AP 90/40 mm Hg, hemorrhagic syndrome,
erythema of palms. Laboratory results: metabolic acidosis, pH 4.2, AST 1.8 mmol/L, ALT 2.1
mmol/L, bilirubin 334.2 mcmol/L, blood serum sodium 90 mmol/L, potassium blood serum 5.9
mmol/L. The worsening of condition is due to?
A. CVF III st
B. Violation of cerebral circulation
C. Thyreotoxic crisis
D. * Hepatic coma
E. Acute renal failure

(): : 11
2016 6 year Pediatrics - Infectious , test
:
Exam
:
1. When is it possible to select a measles virus from children that are infected by measles?
A. * In the end of incubation period, catarrhal period, first days of exanthema period
B. In the incubation period, catarrhal period
C. In the catarrhal period, period of exanthema, pigmentation
D. In the period of exanthema, pigmentation
E. In the incubation, catarrhal period and period of exanthema
2. Name characteristic catarrhal symptoms in catarrhal period of measles.
A. Laboring nasal breath, snoring in asleep
B. paroxysmal cough, anymore disturbs at night
C. Moist productive cough, disturbs in the morning, cold
D. * Rhinitis, hoarse, dry cough, conjunctivitis, scleritis
E. Hoarse voice, barking cough
3. Indicate localization of the rashes in measles, 1st day of exanthema.
A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle
B. all over the body, scalp
C. * On face, behind the ears, neck
D. On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms
E. all over the body
4. A child has a measles, period of exanthema. On what day of this period a rash will spread on a trunk,
proximal parts of arms?
A. On the 1st
B. * On the 2nd
C. On the 3rd
D. On the 4th
E. On the 5th
5. Indicate the term of blood taking for serological tests in case of measles.
A. In the first days of illness
B. On the 7th day of illness
C. After 10 days of illnesses
D. * In the first days of illness, in 10-14 days
E. On 10, 15 days of illness
6. In what cases a measles patient can be treated at home?
A. mild or moderate measles in any age
B. Early age child, without complications
C. severe disease at the child of senior age
D. * Uncomplicated, mild illness at the child of senior age
E. Child of early age from the socially protected family
7. . What is the evidence to give immunoglobulin to a child of 10 months who has the uncomplicated
measles?
A. Croup syndrome
B. Measles pneumonia
C. Early age, moderate disease
D. Child from socially unprotected family

E. * Early age, severe disease

8. Indicate the term of patient's isolation in case of uncomplicated measles.
A. 5 days from the beginning of illness
B. 9 days from the beginning of illness
C. * Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes
D. 10 days from the beginning of rashes
E. On all catarrhal period
9. Indicate the term of patient's isolation in case of measles, complicated by pneumonia.
A. On all catarrhal period
B. Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes
C. 5 days from the beginning of illness
D. 9 days from the beginning of illness
E. * On 10 days from the beginning of rashes
10. Name the etiology of rubella.
A. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family
B. paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family
C. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family
D. orthomyxovirus
E. * togavirus of the Rubivirus family
11. What is the mechanism of the aquired rubella transmission?
A. hemocontact
B. transplacental
C. alimentary
D. * droplet
E. contact
12. Indicate the term of patient's contagiousness in case of the aquired rubella.
A. Till 3rd day from the disease beginning
B. * Till 5th day after appearance of rashes
C. Till 15th day after appearance of the last rash
D. Till 9th day after the disease beginning
E. Till 10th day after appearance of rashes
13. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella?
A. microcephaly, calcinates in a brain
B. granulomatous inflammation
C. * cataract, deafness, congenital heart defects
D. hydrocephaly, retinopathy
E. exanthema, the CNS damage
14. What is the characteristic localization of rashes in case of aquired Rubella?
A. * Mainly on the extensor surfaces of limbs, back, buttocks
B. All over the body including the scalp
C. In skin folds
D. Mainly on the flexor surfaces of extremities, pale perioral triangle
E. Mainly on the face, neck, behind the ears
15. What changes in the lymphatic system are typical for Rubella?
A. hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
B. catarrhal, follicular or lacunar tonsillitis

C. adenoiditis, tonsillitis
D. enlargement and tenderness of the anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes
E. * enlargement and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes
16. What changes in a peripheral blood are typical for Rubella?
A. * leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis
B. leucopenia, lymphomonocytosis
C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells
D. leucocytosis, neutrophylia
E. leucopenia, plasmocytosis, anaemia
17. What pathogenetic treatment does it follow to administer in case of Rubella, complicated by arthritis?

A. corticosteroids
B. protease inhibitors
C. * NSAIDs
D. antibiotics of wide spectrum
E. recombinant interferon
18. What preparation from diuretics does it follow to give an advantage in treatment of Rubella that
complicated by meningitis?
A. 40% of glucose solution
B. lasix
C. * mannitol
D. verospiron
E. diacarb
19. How long after the contact with a Rubella patient a child cannot go to the rest camp?
A. 11 days
B. 14 days
C. 17 days
D. * 21 day
E. 25 days
20. Indicate medicine for etiologic therapy of chicken pox:
A. benzyl penicillin
B. chloramphenicol
C. * acyclovir
D. human immunoglobulin
E. vaccine Varylrix"
21. For the typical chicken pox is characteristically:
A. tonsillitis precedes the rashes development
B. Koplick's spots appear two days before the rashes
C. rashes are provoked by the use of semisynthetic penicillins
D. * new elements of rashes are accompanied by the increase of body temperature
E. desquamation on the second week after rashes period
22. Neurological complications of chicken pox appear in:
A. prodromal (initial) period
B. period of exanthema
C. * period of crusts
D. period of desquamation
E. period of hyperpigmentation

23. Keratoconjunctivitis at a patient with chicken pox is treated by:

A. 2% chloramphenicol ointment
B. 1% tetracycline ointment
C. drops Tobradex"
D. * ointment Zovirax" and 20% solution of albucid
E. 20% solution of albucid and 1% tetracycline ointment
24. Typical mechanism of chicken pox transmitting is:
A. * droplet
B. alimentary
C. parenteral
D. contact
E. by water
25. A patient with chicken pox should be isolated:
A. on 2 days after appearance of the last element of rash
B. * on 5 days after appearance of the last element of rash
C. on 7 days after appearance of the last element of rash
D. on 11 days after appearance of the last element of rash
E. on 21 day after appearance of the last element of rash
26. What is the chicken pox rashes evolution?
A. spot-erythema-papule-crust
B. spot-papule-crust
C. * spot-papule-vesicle-crust
D. spot-papule-vesicle-scar
E. spot-bulla-erosion-scar
27. What is the duration of the chicken pox latent period?
A. a few hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 3-7 days
D. * 11-21 day
E. 30 days
28. What distinguish herpes zoster from the chicken pox?
A. fever
B. * asymmetrical skin damage
C. presence of the vesicles
D. severe intoxication
E. hemorrhagic rashes
29. What is the single dose of acyclovir for chicken pox treatment?
A. * 10 mg/kg
B. 100 mg/kg
C. 200 IU/kg
D. 1 mg/kg
E. 5 mg/kg
30. Indicate the etiologic therapy of Herpes Zoster.
A. gancyclovir
B. chloramphenicol
C. * acyclovir

D. human immunoglobulin
E. Varylrix" vaccine
31. The Varicella-Zoster Virus belongs to:
A. adenovirus family
B. rhinovirus family
C. * herpesvirus family
D. hepadnavirus family
E. paramyxovirus family
32. In case of herpetic keratoconjunctivitis it follows to give:
A. 2% chloramphenicol ointment
B. 1% tetracycline ointment
C. drops Tobradex"
D. * ointment Zovirax" and a 20% albucid solution
E. 1% tetracycline ointment and 20% albucid solution
33. What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of Herpes Zoster?
A. blood culture
B. throat smear
C. * immune-fluorescent method
D. thick drop"test
E. bacterioscopy of the vesicles contain
34. Name viruses which do not belong to the herpes family:
A. Herpes simplex virus;
B. Varicella-Zoster virus;
C. Epstein-Barr virus;
D. * Rubella virus ;
E. Cytomegalovirus.
35. What virus causes genital and neonatal herpes?
A. Herpes simplex 1;
B. * Herpes simplex 2;
C. Herpes simplex 4;
D. Epstein-Barr virus;
E. Cytomegalovirus.
36. Where is the virus of Herpes simplex persisting in the human organism?
A. in lymph nodes;
B. in bone marrow;
C. * in nervous ganglia;
D. in liver;
E. in spleen.
37. Indicate the most frequent rashes localization at Herpes Zoster;
A. along intercostal arteries;
B. * along intercostal nerves;
C. along trigeminal nerve;
D. along facial nerve;
E. along oculomotor nerve.
38. Name the primary site of infection in case of herpes simplex:
A. * skin, mucus membranes of external sexual organs;

B. skin, mucus membranes of upper respiratory tract;

C. mucus membranes of gastro-intestinal tract;
D. mucus membranes of upper respiratory tract, conjunctiva;
E. skin, mucus membranes of bronchial tubes.
39. The symptoms of scarlet fever heart (sympatic-phase) appear in:
A. prodromal period
B. * first two days of exanthema period
C. on 3-4 days of exanthema period
D. from the second week of exanthema period
E. only in the period of recovery
40. Choose septic complications of scarlet fever:
A. encephalitis, otitis, myocarditis
B. * otitis, purulent lymphadenitis, necrotizing tonsillitis
C. myocarditis, nephritis, arthritis, rheumatism
D. synovitis, encephalitis, otitis
E. myocarditis, nephritis, necrotizing tonsillitis
41. Indicate the typical changes in the blood test in scarlet fever:
A. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR
B. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR
C. leucocytosis, neutropenia, normal ESR
D. leucocytosis, monocytosis, elevated ESR
E. * leucocytosis, elevated ESR, eosinophilia
42. For typical scarlet fever is characteristically:
A. the prolonged period of fever precedes the rashes eruption
B. the Koplicks spots appear two days before the rashes period
C. semisynthetic penicillins provoke the rashes eruption
D. new elements of the rash are accompanied by the increased body temperature
E. * skin desquamates on the second week after the rashes appear
43. When the child, who had scarlet fever, may visit the organized child's establishments?
A. on 6 day from the beginning of disease
B. on 10 day from the beginning of disease
C. on 15 day from the beginning of disease
D. * on 22 day from the beginning of disease
E. on 30 day from the beginning of disease
44. Typical rashes for scarlet fever are:
A. hemorrhagic
B. macular-papular, is predisposed to confluence
C. small macules
D. * pin-point
E. polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts)
45. How long the symptoms of scarlet fever" heart (vagus-phase) are present?
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-6 days
C. 10 days
D. 1-2 weeks
E. * 3-4 weeks

46. What investigations is it necessary to do on the 20-21st day of scarlet fever?

A. * Complete blood analysis, urinanalysis, ECG
B. Pharyngeal culture
C. Blood culture
D. USI of the heart, ECG, USI of abdominal organs
E. Smear from the nose and throat on C.diphtheriae
47. What is the dose of benzyl penicillin in case of scarlet fever?
A. 10-15 mg/kg/day
B. 100 mg/kg/day
C. 25-50 thousand IU/kg/day
D. * 50-100 thousand IU/kg/day
E. 100-200 thousand IU/kg/day
48. Name the mechanism of the pseudotuberculosis transmission.
A. droplet
B. contact
C. * fecal-oral
D. alimentary
E. by water
49. Name the second phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis.
A. regional infection
B. * enteral
C. generalization
D. infection
E. bacteriemia
50. What seasonality is characteristic for pseudotuberculosis?
A. Winter
B. Spring
C. * Winter-spring
D. Autumn-winter
E. No one
51. At fellow pseudotuberculosis is suspected. When was he infected?
A. 3-7 days ago
B. * 3-18 days before the disease
C. 9-21 day before the disease
D. 9-21 day before exanthema period
E. 11-17 days before exanthema period
52. What complication is typical for pseudotuberculosis, abdominal form?
A. Perforation of the sigmoid colon
B. intestinal invagination (intususseption)
C. * acute appendicitis
D. pyelonephritis
E. glomerulonephritis
53. What changes in the urine analysis are typical for the toxic damage of kidneys in pseudotuberculosis?

A. proteinuria, leucocyturia, bacteriuria

B. crystaluria, leucocyturia, epithelium (flat epithelium) in the urine

C. crystaluria, erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells)

D. proteinuria, leucocyturia, epithelium in the urine
E. * proteinuria, casts, erythrocyturia, epithelium in the urine (kidney epithelium)
54. Indicate the nodular erythema overwhelming localization.
A. Buttocks, thighs, shins
B. Forearms, hands, shoulders
C. * Front and back surface of shins, thighs
D. Buttocks, thighs, round the joints
E. Front surface of shins, round the joints, feet
55. What investigation should be done for early diagnostics of pseudotuberculosis?
A. Bacteriological examination of excrements, urine, blood
B. * immune-enzyme analysis, immune-fluorescent test
C. agglutination reaction
D. indirect hemagglutination reaction
E. indirect hemagglutination reaction with paired sera
56. What is the pathogenetical treatment in case of pseudotuberculosis, arthralgic form?
A. prednisolone, ibuprophen
B. cefotaxim, chloramphenicol
C. paracetamol, ibuprophen
D. * ibuprophen, diclofenac of sodium
E. nimesulid, indomethacin
57. What color at painting by Neisser the corns of volutin in Corynebacterium diphtheria are painted?
A. Rose
B. Black
C. * Navy blue
D. Red
E. Light brown
58. Indicate the way of Corynebacterium diphtheria transmission:
A. * air-droplet
B. transmissive
C. water
D. vertical
E. air-dust
59. What immunity will be formed at a child who had diphtheria?
A. Immunity is stabile, long-life
B. Immunity is stabile, unsterile
C. Immunity is stabile, typospecific
D. * Immunity is unstabile
E. Immunity is prolonged, typospecific
60. What is an entrance gate (atrium) for the agent of diphtheria?
A. Middle ear
B. * Mucous membranes
C. Undamaged skin
D. Gastrointestinal tract
E. Urinary system
61. Indicate the seasonality of diphtheria.

A. Summer
B. Spring-summer
C. * Autumn-winter
D. Summer-autumn
E. Spring
62. Indicate the most frequent reason of cardiac arrest at diphtheria on 3-5 day of disease.
A. myolisis of cardiomyocytes
B. * parasympatic influence
C. parenchymatose dystrophy
D. fatty degeneration of myocardium
E. Destruction of myofibrils
63. Indicate the disease severity in case of localized tonsilar diphtheria.
A. severe
B. moderate
C. * mild
D. combined
E. toxic
64. The Epstein-Barr virus is characterized by expressed tropism to:
A. D3-lymphocytes
B. D4-lymphocytes
C. -lymphocytes
D. * -lymphocytes
E. NK-cells
65. What cases are typical for infectious mononucleosis?
A. Epidemics
B. * Sporadic
C. Sporadic only in the cold time of a year
D. Epidemics in the cold time of a year
E. Epidemics in the hot time of a year
66. What is the letality in infectious mononucleosis?
A. Lethality is high
B. * Lethality is low, only single cases
C. Lethality is absent
D. Lethality is high only among new-borns
E. Lethality is high only in preschool age
67. Indicate the most characteristic time of illness when atypical mononuclears appear in the peripheral
blood.
A. 1st day
B. 3rd day
C. * 1st week
D. 2nd week
E. 3rd week
68. Which antibiotic is impossible to use for concomitant bacterial infection treatment in infectious
mononucleosis?
A. azithromicin
B. roxithromicin
C. amikacin

D. * ampicillin
E. cefasolin
69. Among the symptoms choose the main diagnostic sign of the infectious mononucleosis.
A. short course fever
B. * hepatosplenomegaly
C. catarrhal syndrome
D. exanthema
E. tonsillitis
70. What fluids of organism is it possible to select a mumps virus from?
A. Urine, excrements, bile
B. Urine, blood, CSF
C. Urine, excrements, blood
D. * Saliva, blood, CSF
E. Saliva, excrements, bile
71. When the contagiousness of mumps patient is the biggest?
A. * First 3-5 days of the disease
B. Till 9 day of the disease
C. 1-3 days of the disease
D. First 5-7 days of the disease
E. 7-9 days of the disease
72. What is the entrance gate (atrium) of mumps infection?
A. Mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, throat, conjunctiva
B. * Mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, throat
C. Mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, throat, tonsils
D. Mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, throat, external orifices of salivary glands ducts
E. External orifices of salivary glands ducts
73. Which way does a mumps virus spread to the glands?
A. by lymph
B. by contact way
C. * by blood
D. by blood and by lymph
E. by a contact way and by blood
74. Give the description of Filatov's sign in mumps.
A. edema and hyperemia of the external orifice of Stensen's duct
B. white points on cheeks mucus
C. dryness in the mouth, fissures on the tongue
D. tear of the tongue bridle (frenula)
E. * pain behind and in front an ear-lobe during speech, chewing
75. For mumps is typical the damage of:
A. Ductless glands, nervous system
B. Glands of external secretion
C. * Glands of external secretion, nervous system
D. Glands of external secretion, ductless glands, nervous system
E. Glands of external secretion, ductless glands
76. What differs the bacterial parotitis from the mumps parotitis?
A. * Tenderness at palpation is expressed

B. Skin above the gland has usual color

C. Slight painful swelling
D. Gland is not firm
E. Bilateral parotitis
77. How many days does it follow to isolate the ill child in case of mumps, typical form?
A. 4 days
B. 5 days
C. days
D. * 9 days
E. 14 days
78. Indicate duration of ill children isolation in case of Whooping cough.
A. 4 days
B. 14 days;
C. 21 days;
D. 25 days;
E. * 30 days.
79. What from additional methods is better to use for early diagnostic of whooping cough?
A. "Cough plates" method;
B. Serological method;
C. The reaction of the complement binding;
D. * Immune-enzyme method;
E. DNA polymerase reaction.
80. What medicine is contraindicated for whooping cough treatment in case of apnea attaks?
A. Buthamirat;
B. * Aminazin;
C. Ampicillin;
D. Cefotaxim;
E. Amoxicillin.
81. Indicate the daily dose of amikacin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough" treatment:
A. 1-2;
B. 2-4;
C. 6-8;
D. 10-12;
E. * 15-20.
82. What antibiotic will be ineffective for the whooping cough treatment?
A. Ampicillin;
B. * Cefasolin;
C. Amoxicillin;
D. Genthamycin;
E. Cefotaxim.
83. When the first vaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. In 1 month
B. In 2 months
C. * In 3 months
D. In 4 months
E. In 5 months

84. When the first revaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. * through 1 year after finished vaccination;
B. through 1.5-2 years after finished vaccination;
C. through 2.5 years after finished vaccination;
D. through 3 years after finished vaccination
E. in 4 years
85. Which of the following diseases is most likely accompanied by lesions of the pancreas?
A. * Mumps
B. Influenza A
C. Colibacteriosis
D. Dysentery
E. Infectious mononucleosis
86. Mumps virus from the upper respiratory tract spreads by:
A. * Hematogenous way
B. Lymphogenous way
C. Ascending through a Stensens duct
D. Combination of ascending and haematogenous way
E. Neither one of the above
87. Which of the following, both with increased parotid glands, is a symptom of mumps?
A. * Pain while chewing
B. Cough
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Enanthema on the soft palate
E. Maculopapular rash
88. What the radiological changes in the lungs are typical for whooping cough?
A. * Emphysema, segmental or lobar atelectasis
B. Emphysema, infiltrative changes
C. Migratory eosinophilic infiltrates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. Dilated roots
89. What antibacterial drug is better for 1 month infant with whooping cough?
A. * Azithromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Streptomycin
D. Bactrim
E. Gentamicin
90. At what age children can be ill with whooping cough?
A. * From the first days of life
B. From three months
C. From six months
D. From one year
E. From two years
91. What are the features of whooping cough in infants?
A. * All the listed
B. Shortening of the incubation and catarrhal period
C. The prevalence of severe forms in the course of disease

D. Frequent complications
E. The absence of typical coughing paroxisms
92. Complications of whooping cough can be:
A. * All the listed
B. Atelectasis
C. Pneumonia
D. Encephalopathy with seizures
E. Massive subconjunctival hemorrhages
93. What treatment should be start without delay to a patient with diphtheria?
A. * Antidiphtheritic serum
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. Antifungal drugs
D. Corticosteroids
E. Surgical intervention
94. What treatment should be start to a patient with perytonsilliis first of all?
A. * Surgery
B. Corticosteroids
C. Antibiotics penicillins
D. Antidiphtheritic serum
E. Local treatment
95. Why the isolated diphtheria croup has no toxic forms?
A. * Fibrinous membrane is easily separated from the mucosa that is covered with single-layered
columnar epithelium
B. In the development of diphtheritic croup, mainly nontoxigenic diphtheria bacilli play the role
C. Diphtheria croup is more common in vaccinated children of 1-5 years, when still antitoxic immunity
is high
D. Croup is caused by a specific type of pathogen that does not cause toxic forms of diphtheria
E. Croup, unlike tonsillar diphtheria, develops usually in children with a mature immune system
96. What is the main cause of asphyxia in diphtheria croup?
A. * Trachea blockage by fibrinous membrane
B. The presence of a viscous secretion
C. Edema of the mucous membrane
D. Reflex spasm of laryngeal muscles
E. Necrosis of mucosa
97. Enter the earliest complication of diphtheria:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. * Myocarditis
C. Palatoplegia
D. Polyradiculitis
E. Pneumonia
98. The increase of which lymph nodes has the greatest diagnostic value in infectious mononucleosis?
A. * Posterior neck
B. Supraclavicular
C. Occipital
D. Tonsillar
E. Axillary

99. What from the following is used for the treatment of uncomplicated moderate infectious
mononucleosis?
A. * None of the above
B. Antidiphtheritic serum
C. Steroid hormones
D. Local antifungal treatment
E. Antibiotics
100. In which of the following diseases mainly posterior neck lymph nodes are increased?
A. * Infectious mononucleosis
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Toxic tonsillar diphtheria
D. "Cats scratches" disease
E. Rubella
101. In lacunary tonsillitis are observed all of the following symptoms except:
A. * Membranes are difficulty removed with a spatula, and the mucosa bleeding
B. Bright diffuse hyperemia of the throat
C. Exedates in the gaps are yellowish-white
D. Increasing the temperature to 39-40 oC for 2-3 days
E. In severe cases, almost always vomiting is repeated
102. What kind of research will verify the diagnosis of fungal tonsillitis?
A. * Smear microscopy
B. Throat culture
C. Analysis of peripheral blood
D. The agglutination reaction with horses erythrocites
E. The increased antibody titer to streptococcal antigens
103. What changes in the peripheral blood can confirm a diagnosis of bacterial tonsillitis?
A. * Neutrophilic leukocytosis with a left shift
B. Leukopenia in with lymphocytosis
C. Slightly elevated ESR
D. Reduced hemoglobin levels and low color index
E. The number of atypical mononuclear cells in a smear more than 10%
104. What the swelling consistency is typical for mumps?
A. * Doughy
B. Cartilaginoid
C. Firm
D. Fluctuating
E. Nodular
105. The causative *agent of mumps belongs to:
A. Myxoviruses
B. Adenoviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Rotaviruses
E. Cytomegalovirus
106. What is the main cause of low mumps virus distribution in the environment?
A. * No patients with catarrhal symptoms, and virus isolation from large drops of saliva
B. The virus is transmitted from person to person primarily through contaminated saliva

C. The relatively high percentage (30-40) of atypical forms of mumps

D. Virus is not stable to the effects of physical and chemical factors
E. Lack of virus transmission via third parties
107. Which of the following is best to do in a presumptive diagnosis of toxic tonsillar diphtheria?
A. * Hospitalization without the prior laboratory examination
B. Pharynx and nose swab bacteriologic test for the diphtheria bacillus
C. Microscopy of material from the pharynx
D. Serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis
E. Otolaryngologist consultation
108. Constrictive laryngitis (croup) may be a complication of the following diseases except:
A. * Mumps
B. Diphtheria
C. Influenza
D. Measles
E. Parainfluenza
109. What tissues are most sensible to Meningococcal endotoxin?
A. heart
B. * endothelium of blood vessels
C. suprarenal glands
D. brain
E. cerebellum
110. Indicate antibacterial medicine for treatment of Meningococcal nasopharyngitis.
A. semisynthetic penicillines
B. genthamycin or ofloxacin
C. macrolides or azythromicin
D. * rifampicin or macrolides
E. sumamed or genthamicin
111. When usually the hemorrhagic rashes at Meningococcemia appear?
A. On the second day of the disease
B. In 2-3 days after the disease beginning
C. During first two days of the disease
D. On 3-4 day of the disease
E. * In 4-6 hours after the beginning of the disease
112. Indicate the typical pose of child at meningococcal meningitis.
A. * Position on side with the thrown back head and knees flexed to the abdomen
B. Position on the back with the knees flexed to the abdomen
C. Position on a stomach with the legs flexed to the abdomen
D. Position on side with the back curved outside
E. Knee-elbow position
113. What antibiotic is given in case of toxic shock in Meningococcal infection?
A. ampicillin thryhidratis
B. benzylpenicillin
C. ciprofloxacin
D. * chloramphenicol
E. cefotaxim
114. What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of Meningococcal infection?

A. Biochemical analysis of CSF

B. Immunological tests
C. Express methods
D. Latex agglutination of blood
E. * nasopharynx mucus, blood, CSF cultures
115. What dose of prednisolone is injected in case of Meningococcemia without the sings of infectious-
toxic shock?
A. 25 mg/kg
B. 20 mg/kg
C. 10 mg/kg
D. 15 mg/ kg
E. * 5 mg/kg
116. Indicate typical signs of meningitis in infants.
A. Nuchal rigidity, positive Mussi symptom, Kernigs symptom
B. Positive Brudzinsky, Kernigs and Lessage symptom
C. * Bulging and tension of large fontanel, positive hanging (Lessage) symptom
D. Positive Mussi, Kernigs and Lessage symptom
E. Nuchal rigidity, positive Mussi, and Lessage symptom
117. What type of immunity is formed after poliomyelitis?
A. unstabile immunity
B. typospecific immunity
C. familyspecific immunity
D. * persistent immunity
E. absent immunity
118. The children of what age most often ill with poliomyelitis?
A. in the first months of life
B. in the first year of life
C. in school age
D. in 15-17 years
E. * before 7 years
119. What system is most sensible to the virus of poliomyelitis?
A. * Nervous system
B. Cardio-vascular system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Bone-muscular system
E. System of blood
120. What vaccination is done for the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis?
A. Specific active prophylaxis by anatoxin
B. * Specific active prophylaxis by the living attenuated vaccine
C. Unspecific active prophylaxis
D. By specific Ig
E. Specific active prophylaxis by the killed vaccine
121. When vaccination against poliomyelitis is performed?
A. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 week
B. In 1 year, 3 and 6 years
C. Only by an epidemic testimony

D. * From 3 months triply with an interval 1 month

E. First day, 1, 6 months
122. Indicate the way of vaccine introduction against poliomyelitis at the third vaccination and next
revaccinations.
A. * Through a mouth
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intracutaneously
D. Intramuscularly
E. Intranasal
123. What is the characteristic pose of children who have poliomyelitis?
A. The Lessage symptom
B. Orthopnoe
C. Pose of ballet-dancer
D. Pose of frog
E. * A symptom of tripods
124. Enterovirus infections are caused:
A. By rheovirus
B. By herpes virus
C. By poliomyelitis virus
D. By the respiratory syncitial virus
E. * By C and Coxacie viruses
125. The way of the Enterovirus infection transmission is:
A. contact-domestic and water
B. water, domestic and transmissive
C. * orally-fecal and air-droplet
D. transmissive and ascending
E. air-droplet and domestic
126. More frequent entrance gate (atrium) of Enterovirus infection is:
A. Wound surface
B. * Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine
C. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach
D. Mucus membranes of the intestine
E. Lymphatic and blood circulatory system
127. What are the typical clinical signs of Enterovirus infection?
A. Meningeal signs
B. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis
C. Presence of papulous rashes and itch
D. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication
E. * Hyperemia of the face and neck, sometimes with appearance of the maculo-papulous rashes
128. Medical tactic at enterovirus infection is:
A. Diet. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment.
B. Specific treatment is not present. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment.
C. Diet. Antiviral and pathogenetic therapy.
D. * No diet. Gamma-globulin and RNA-sum is specific treatment.
E. A diet is not appointed. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment.
129. What is the specific prophylaxis of enterovirus infection?
A. Vaccination by inactivated vaccines in age of 1 year.
B. * A specific prophylaxis is absent
C. Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 3 and 9 years.
D. Specific Ig injection in 3 months.
E. Specific Ig injection in 15 months.
130. Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enterovirus infection:
A. Supervision after patients and contacts, final disinfection
B. Hospitalization of sick and contacts for 10 days, current disinfection
C. * Hospitalization of patients, isolation of contacts for 14 days, current disinfection
D. The supervision after patients, isolation of contacts for 7 days, final disinfection
E. Supervision after patients and contacts, giving them interferon
131. What medicine is given to the children in the focus of enterovirus infection?
A. * Gamma-globulin and interferon for 14-15 days
B. Anaferon for 10 days
C. Antibiotics for 5 days
D. Specific Ig for 3 days
E. Specific anatoxin for the first 2 days
132. Which of prevention is crucial in the eradication of polio?
A. * Routine vaccination for 96 percent or more
B. Observation of contact at the source of infection for three weeks
C. The current and final disinfection in the focus
D. Emergency vaccination of those whoi were not vaccinated before
E. Emergency introduction of the donor immunoglobulin to all contacts
133. The differential diagnosis of polio acute paralytic form must be made with the following diseases
except:
A. * Rabies
B. Encephalitis
C. Infection polyradiculoneuritis
D. Myopathy
E. Myelitis
134. In acute paralytic poliomyelitis virus mainly affected:
A. * The anterior horns of the spinal cord
B. Cortex
C. Cerebellum
D. Pia mater
E. Posterior horns of the spinal cord
135. Which of the allegations about the rash in enterovirus infection is wrong?
A. * Leaves pigmentation and scaling
B. Pink, smal maculous-papulous and pin-point
C. A skin Background is not changed
D. Appears simultaneously on the face and trunk
E. It is saved for a few days
136. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema?
A. * Convulsions.
B. Hypothermia.
C. Hyperthermia.

D. Oliguria.
E. Venous stasis.
137. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of unknown etiology:
A. * Penicillin.
B. Chloramphenicol.
C. Ceftriaxone.
D. Cyprofloxacin.
E. Streptomycin.
138. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. * Bulging fontanelle.
B. Kernings Symptom.
C. Single vomiting.
D. Paralysis.
E. Confusion.
139. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia, typical form?
A. * Petechial.
B. Erythematous.
C. Bullous.
D. Vesiculous.
E. Pustulous.
140. What are the most typical places of rash localization in meningococcemia?
A. * Legs.
B. Face.
C. Neck.
D. Chest.
E. Hands.
141. For which viral infections meningeal syndrome is the most typical?
A. * Influenza.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Reovirus infection
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Astrovirus infection
142. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children?
A. * 300 thousand units / kg
B. 50 thousand units / kg
C. 100 thousand units / kg
D. 1 million IU / kg
E. 200 thousand units / kg
143. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment?
A. * Chloramphenicol succinate.
B. Cephalosporin Antibiotics.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Dicarboxylic.
E. Penicillin.
144. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. * Asymmetrical.

B. Distal.
C. Hypertension of muscles.
D. Hyperreflexia.
E. Violation of sensitivity.
145. Select the most typical features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. * Proximal.
B. Symmetrical
C. Hypertension of muscles.
D. Hyperreflexia.
E. Violation of sensitivity.
146. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment?
A. * Prednisolone.
B. Diphenhydramine.
C. Dicarboxylic.
D. Penicillin.
E. Verospiron
147. For which viral infections meningeal syndrome is the most typical?
A. * Enteroviral infection.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Rotavirus
148. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome?
A. * Poliomyelitis.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Respiratory syncytial infection
149. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome?
A. * Herpesvius infection.
B. Respiratory syncytial infection
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rotavirus infection
E. Reovirus infection
150. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia?
A. * Haemorrhagic.
B. Excoriated.
C. Roseolous.
D. Vesicular.
E. Pustular.
151. What is the most typical version of the primary rash in meningococcemia?
A. * Papulous.
B. Erythematous
C. Excoriated.
D. Roseolous.
E. Vesiculous.

152. What are the most typical places of rash localization in meningococcemia?
A. * Buttocks.
B. Face.
C. Head.
D. Chest.
E. Hands.
153. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. * Repeated vomiting.
B. Kernings Symptom.
C. Sunken fontanel.
D. Paresis.
E. Hallucinations.
154. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. * All the ennumerated
B. Convulsions.
C. Bulging fontanelle.
D. Repeated vomiting.
E. Tilting the head.
155. List illnesses with myositis:
A. * Enteroviral infections.
B. Influenza.
C. Herpetic infection.
D. Salmonellosis.
E. Typhoid fever.
156. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema?
A. * Violation of consciousness.
B. Hyperthermia.
C. Oliguria.
D. Increased blood pressure.
E. Bulging fontanelle.
157. Herpangina in children (agent - Coxsackie B viruses) is characterized by the appearance of small
vesicles surrounded by a red circle on the mucous membranes with subsequent formation of fast
healing erosions. Usually the vesicles appear on all sites, except:
A. * Cheek mucosa
B. Soft palate
C. Palatal tongue
D. Palatal arches
E. Posterior pharyngeal wall
158. Name the incorrect assertion about the epidemiology of poliomyelitis:
A. * More likely older children are infected
B. The only source of infection is a sick person or a virus carrier
C. The virus is excreted from the nasopharyngeal or intestinal contents
D. In nasopharynxl virus stay not more than 1-2 weeks
E. Virus secretion with faeces may take several weeks
159. What does not belong to criteria of the vaccine associated paralytic polio?
A. * Vaccine associated paralytic polio (after oral vaccine) is most often associated with type I polio virus

B. The onset of illness later than 4th and no later than 30th day after receiving the vaccine. To contacts
with vaccinated this period is extended to 60-day.
C. Development of flaccid paresis and paralysis without violating sensitivity with persistent (after 2
months) residual effects
D. Lack of the disease progression
E. Isolation of vaccine strain polio virus and a 4-fold increase of type-specific antibodies
160. The influenza virus belongs to:
A. picornaviruses.
B. paramyxoviruses.
C. poxviruses.
D. * ortomyxoviruses.
E. adenoviruses.
161. The influenza virus contains:
A. * hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
B. hemagglutinin and reverse transcriptase.
C. hemolysin and revertase.
D. hemolysin and neuraminidase.
E. hemagglutinin and mucinase.
162. How many time will last immunity of organism to the influenza B virus after the disease?
A. 14 - 21 day
B. 1 - 2 months
C. 1 - 2 years
D. * 3 - 5 years
E. during all the life
163. What etiotrope medicine will be the most effectively in case of severe influenza in the 1 years old
child?
A. Remantadin
B. Amantadin
C. Interferon
D. Laferon
E. * Influenza immune globulin
164. How long bed regimen must be prescribed to the child in case of influenza, typical form, severe
degree?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. * 7 days
D. 14 days
E. 18 days
165. What serological method could be used to put diagnosis of influenza?
A. * Braked hemagglutination reaction
B. Complement binding reaction
C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction
D. Neutralization reaction
E. Direct hemagglutination reaction
166. Rhinoviruses belong to the family of:
A. paramyxoviruses.
B. * picornaviruses.

C. poxviruses.
D. ortomyxoviruses.
E. adenoviruses.
167. Name a leading syndrome at patients with the Respiratory-syncitial infection (for children of early
age):
A. Toxic.
B. Catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract.
C. * Obstructive.
D. Asthenia.
E. Dyspepsia.
168. What group of viruses does adenovirus belong to?
A. RNA-containing.
B. Myxovirus.
C. Parvovirus.
D. Rheovirus.
E. * DNA-containing.
169. The source of adenoviral infection is:
A. Patients with the typical and atypical forms of adenoviral infection.
B. People and birds with adenoviral infection.
C. * Patients with adenoviral infection and transmitters of adenovirus.
D. People and small mammals with adenoviral infection.
E. People and animals with adenoviral infection.
170. What term is the duration of parainfluenza latent period?
A. 1-2 days.
B. * 2-7 days.
C. 3-4 days.
D. 4-7 days.
E. 7-10 days.
171. Enumerate the sources of parainfluenza infection.
A. * Patient with parainfluenza.
B. Patient with parainfluenza and transmitter.
C. People and animals sick with parainfluenza.
D. Sick animals and birds.
E. Sick people and birds.
172. How long is virus transmitting in case of parainfluenza?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 3-5 days.
C. 5-7 days.
D. * 7-10 days.
E. 10-14 days.
173. Which method of express-diagnostics is better to use for adenovirus infection diagnosis?
A. The separation of the virus on tissue culture
B. * Immunofluorescent method
C. Serological investigation
D. Bacteriological investigation
E. Bacteriosopy investigation of pharyngeal swab

174. What features of shigellosis are typical for infantsthis?

A. A continuously relapsed course.
B. Absence of inflammation signs at sigmoscopy.
C. Feces often without fecal mass.
D. Expressed vomits and frequent regurgitation.
E. * In 20 % develops neurotoxicosis.
175. What is the duration of furazolidone treatment (to the child of 1 year) in case of acute mild
shigellosis?
A. 3 days.
B. * 5 days.
C. 7 days.
D. 10 days.
E. 14 days.
176. When the course of shigellosis becomes chronic?
A. If it lasts for 3 weeks.
B. If it lasts for 1 month.
C. If it lasts from 1.5 till 3 months.
D. If it lasts for 3 months.
E. * If it lasts more than 3 months.
177. Indicate the mechanism of shigellosis transmission.
A. by food
B. by water
C. * fecal-oral
D. contact-domestic
E. air-droplet
178. At children of what age group shigellosis morbidity is the largest?
A. 0-12 months
B. 1-2 years
C. * 2-7 years
D. 7-10 years
E. 10-14 years
179. What is the duration of shigellosis incubation period in children?
A. * a few hours -7 days;
B. 1-3 days;
C. 1-5 days;
D. 1-10 days;
E. 5-30 days.
180. Indicate the typical signs of colitis syndrome in case of shigellosis:
A. liquid feces with undigested meal;
B. watery feces which looks like a rice-water;
C. pain in epigastrium, nausea, vomiting;
D. * paroxysmal stomach-ache, tenesmus, rectal spit;
E. yellow-orange feces with mucus in a small amount.
181. A basic treatment of acute mild shigellosis (to the child of 6 year) is:
A. genthamicin
B. pancreatin

C. * bifi-form
D. netilmicin
E. polimixin
182. Contact persons in case of shigellosis are observed during:
A. 5 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces
B. * 7 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces
C. 7 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces
D. 10 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces
E. 14 days and 3 bacteriological inspections of feces
183. What form of salmonellosis is the most often in newborns?
A. gastrointestinal (gastritis);
B. gastrointestinal (gastroenteritis);
C. gastrointestinal (enterocolitis);
D. * septic;
E. typhoid.
184. Main sign of salmonellosis is:
A. respiratory syndrome;
B. rash;
C. hyperthermia;
D. disuria;
E. * dyspepsia.
185. Typhoid form of salmonellosis is not characterized by:
A. hectic fever;
B. toxic syndrome;
C. roseols rush on skin;
D. * osteomyelitis;
E. dyspepsia.
186. Septic form of salmonellosis is not characterized by:
A. hepatosplenomegaly;
B. toxic syndrome;
C. * roseols on skin;
D. osteomyelitis;
E. dyspepsia
187. In typical cases of salmonellosis stools are:
A. liquid, green, without mucus;
B. liquid, with undigested parts of food;
C. * liquid, dark-green with mucus, muddy;
D. in a small amount with mucus, blood, like spit;
E. liquid, yellow-orange with large amount of water.
188. Name the main laboratory test to prove salmonellosis:
A. Blood analysis,
B. * Bacteriological (feces culture),
C. Koprogram,
D. Serological,
E. Bacteriological (blood culture).
189. What etiological treatment should be used in mild cases of salmonellosis?

A. furazolidone;
B. enzymes;
C. cephalosporins;
D. rehydrates;
E. * bacteriophage.
190. What etiological treatment should be used in severe cases of salmonellosis?
A. furazolidone;
B. enzymes;
C. * cephalosporins;
D. rehydrates;
E. Bacteriophage.
191. What diseases hospital salmonellosis is mainly differentiated from?
A. escherichiosis,
B. viral diarrhea,
C. invagination of the bowel,
D. * staphylococcal diarrhea;
E. dysentery.
192. What dose of fluorquinolones is used to treat severe cases of salmonellosis?
A. * 10-20 mg/kg per day,
B. 40-50 mg/kg per day,
C. 50-100 mg/kg per day,
D. 150 mg/kg per day,
E. 200 mg/kg per day.
193. To what family does Escherichia belong?
A. Micrococcaceae
B. * Enterobacteriaceae
C. Neisseriaceae
D. Vibrionaceae
E. Korynebacteriaceae
194. Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause coli enteritis in infants?
A. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
B. * enteropathogenic E.coli
C. enteroaggregative E.coli
D. enteroinvasive E.coli
E. enterohemolytic E.coli
195. What method will prove the etiology of acute intestinal infection?
A. Serological
B. Biological
C. Allergic
D. Microscopic
E. * Bacteriological
196. Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause the dysentery-like disease at children elder
than 1 year and adults?
A. * enteroinvasive E.coli
B. enteropathogenic E.coli
C. enteroaggregative E.coli

D. enterohemolytic E.coli
E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
197. Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause the cholera-like diseases?
A. enteroinvasive E.coli
B. enteropathogenic E.coli
C. * enterotoxigenic E.coli
D. enterohemolytic E.coli
E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
198. Indicate the source of illness at Rotavirus infection:
A. * sick man; virus carrier;
B. virus carrier;
C. sick animal; virus carrier;
D. sick birds
E. sick animal; sick man;
199. Indicate the basic mechanism of Rotavirus infection transmission:
A. air-droplet;
B. * fecal-oral;
C. transmissive;
D. contact
E. alimentary.
200. The peak of Rotavirus infection morbidity is:
A. January-April;
B. March-June;
C. May-August;
D. July-November;
E. * November-February.
201. Rotavirus infection is characterized by such syndromes:
A. cardio-vascular; toxic; respiratory;
B. dyspepsia; dehydration.
C. cardio-vascular; dyspepsia; dehydration.
D. * toxic; dyspepsia; dehydration.
E. cardio-vascular; respiratory; dehydration.
202. What from laboratory methods are used in early diagnostics of Rotavirus infection?
A. bacteriological;
B. koprogram;
C. reaction of binding the complement;
D. * method of immune-enzyme analysis;
E. reaction of neutralization.
203. What features of respiratory syndrome are typical for Rotavirus infection?
A. expressed catharrhal signs;
B. mild catharrhal signs;
C. long lasting catharrhal signs;
D. moderate throat hyperemia;
E. * expressed throat hyperemia.
204. What is the stools character in case of Rotavirus infection?
A. * sprinkling, colorless, watery;

B. in a small amount, with mucus, blood;

C. watery, bright-yellow with the two-bit of mucus;
D. muddy with large amount of mucus
E. with undigested parts of food.
205. What formula is given to the children in case of Rotavirus infection?
A. with probiotics;
B. for preterm infants;
C. sour-milk;
D. containing soya;
E. * lactose-free.
206. What medicine diminishes the excretion of water and electrolytes in the intestine?
A. rehydron;
B. smecta;
C. * loperamide;
D. bifidum bacterin;
E. enterosgel.
207. Indicate the etiology of the intestinal yersiniosis.
A. Yersinia frederiksenia
B. Yersinia intermedia
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D. * Yersinia enterocolitica
E. Yersinia pestis
208. Indicate the main ways of the intestinal yersiniosis transmission.
A. fecal-oral, contact-domestic
B. * by food, water
C. contact, water
D. by food, contact
E. droplet, contact
209. What immunity will develope in case of intestinal yersiniosis?
A. family specific, stabile
B. * type specific, stabile
C. family specific, unstabile
D. type specific, unstabile
E. family specific, life-long
210. What organs will be more damaged in case of intestinal yersiniosis?
A. small intestinum, liver, spleen
B. small intestinum, mesenteric lymphnodes, kidneys
C. * lymphatic vehicle of the intestinum, mesenteric lymphnodes, spleen
D. heart, kidneys, liver, spleen
E. throat, intestinum, mesenteric lymphnodes
211. Name the clinical periods of intestinal yersiniosis.
A. Incubation, height, recovery
B. Incubation, initial, height, recovery
C. * Initial, height, recovery
D. Initial, height, exacerbation, recovery
E. Initial, height, recovery, relapses

212. What part of the intestinum is damaged more frequently in case of intestinal yersiniosis?
A. cecum, ascending and transversal colon
B. cecum, appendix
C. duodenum, small intestinum, cecum
D. * Terminal department of small intestinum, cecum, appendix
E. Descending colon, sygmoid colon
213. What changes in complete blod test will be present in case of intestinal yersiniosis?
A. leucocytosis, neutrophylosis, eosynopenia, elevated ESR
B. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, elevated ESR
C. * leucocytosis, neutrophylia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR
D. leucopenia, anaemia, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR
E. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR
214. What fluids and environments does it follow to examine to confirm the intestinal yersiniosis?
A. Bile, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus
B. Saliva, blood, urine, excrements
C. CSF, blood, urine, excrements
D. * Blood, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus
E. CSF, blood, urine, excrement, nasopharyngeal mucus
215. A fellow has Yersiniosis. Appoint the diet for him (by Pevsner).
A. * Diet 4
B. Diet 5
C. Diet 5p
D. Diet 10
E. Diet 15
216. Hepatitis A incubation period lasts for:
A. 3-7 days
B. 8-10 days
C. 7-14 days
D. 7-21 days
E. * 10-45 days
217. The pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A is characterized by the increase of:
A. Indirect bilirubin, tymol test
B. Cholesterol, ALAT
C. tymol test, alkaline phosphatase
D. cholesterol, beta-lipoproteins, indirect bilirubin
E. * ALAT, ASAT, direct bilirubin
218. Level of bilirubin at viral hepatitis A, mild form is:
A. 10-15 mcmol/l
B. * Not higher than 82 mcmol/l
C. 100-120 mcmol/l
D. 150-200 mcmol/l
E. more than 200 mcmol/l
219. Name the atypical forms of viral hepatitis A.
A. * unjaundice, effaced, subclinical
B. fulminant, hypertoxic, effaced
C. asymptomatic, hemorrhagic, unjaundice

D. generalized, effaced, asymptomatic

E. There is no right answer
220. Name hepatitis C markers:
A. anti HAV Ig and anti HAV IgG
B. * anti HCV Ig, viral RNA
C. anti HV Ig, viral RNA
D. anti HV Ig and HV IgG
E. HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti IgM, IgG
221. What diseases is it necessary to differentiate with the inborn hepatitis ?
A. Hepatitis A, , biliary dyskinesia
B. * sepsis, biliary atresia, TORCH-infections, massive hemorrhages
C. sepsis, pseudotuberculosis, infectious mononucleosis
D. Gilbert syndrome, leptospirosis, hemolytic anemia
E. hemolytic disease of new-born, hepatitis Delta, cholecystitis.
222. When is it necessary to give choleretics in case of hepatitis B, moderate degree?
A. From the 1st day of jaundice period
B. From the 2nd week of jaundice period
C. * From the 3rd week of jaundice period
D. From the 4th week of jaundice period
E. Does not need to give
223. What is the most common way of HIV transmission?
A. Parenteral.
B. Perinatal.
C. * Sexual.
D. Oral.
E. Contact.
224. What is the average incubation period of AIDS?
A. One year.
B. Five years.
C. * Ten years.
D. Fifteen years.
E. Twenty years
225. Which cells are the most often infected by HIV?
A. * CD4+ T lymphocytes.
B. CD8+ T lymphocytes.
C. NK cells.
D. B cells.
E. Macrophages.
226. Which opportunistic bacterial infection the most often occurs in case of HIV infection?
A. Yersinia pseudotubercullosis infection.
B. Salmonella infection.
C. Gardnerella infection.
D. Klebsiella infection.
E. * Mycobacterium infection.
227. Which of these antiviral drugs most commonly are used to inhibit HIV replication?
A. Zintevir.

B. Nevirapine.
C. Indinavir.
D. * Azidothymidine.
E. Retonavir.
228. Antigenic structure of HIV:
A. Changes slowly
B. * Is variable
C. Depends on the immunity
D. Does not change
E. Changes every 5 years
229. Virological method sometimes is used for the diagnosis of HIV infection. Where HIV is cultivated?
A. In chicken embryos;
B. In white mice organism;
C. * In normal lymphocytes;
D. In cell culture He-La;
E. In cell culture Vero.
230. A protein gp120 was found in a test of serum by western blot method. About what disease does it tell
us?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. * HIV infection.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Poliomyelitis.
231. What method should be used to confirm HIV infection?
A. Electrophoresis of blood proteins in polyacrylamide gels
B. The ELISA test
C. Radioimmune analysis
D. Coagglutination reaction
E. * Immune blot
232. Pneumocystis carinii were revealed in the analysis of patients sputum. At which infection could
develop pneumonia of this etiology?
A. Plague
B. * HIV infection
C. Ornitosis
D. Legionellosis
E. Candidiasis
233. Enter disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine:
A. * Whooping cough
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Tuberculosis
E. Mumps infection
234. Specify live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. * Measles
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. DTP
D. BCG

E. Against Haemophilus influenzae

235. At what age is recommended DPT vaccination and booster in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination
schedule?
A. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
E. 12 months, 6 years
236. At what age is recommended BCG vaccination and revaccination in accordance with Ukrainian
immunization schedule?
A. * 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
E. 2 months, 6 years
237. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against poliomyelitis in accordance with
Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
B. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
E. 12 months, 6 years
238. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against hepatitis B in accordance with
Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. * The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
E. 12 months, 6 years
239. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against measles, mumps, rubella, in
accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. * 12 months, 6 years
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
E. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
240. At what age is recommended b vaccination and booster vaccine in accordance with Ukrainian
immunization schedule?
A. * since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after complete vaccination
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years, 14 years single dose
C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
E. 12 months, 6 years
241. What is used for active immunization?
A. * Toxoids
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin

D. Antitoxic serum
E. Polyvalent bacteriophage
242. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. * Antitoxic serum
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
243. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A. * Inactivated vaccine
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
244. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should definitely be vaccinated
against all of the following diseases, except:
A. * Varicella
B. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hib
E. Rubella, measles, mumps infection
245. Which of the following is a direct contraindication for prophylactic vaccinations?
A. * Pathologically strong reaction to the earlier introduction of this vaccine
B. Acute infectious disease at the time of routine vaccination
C. Local reaction to previous administration of this vaccine
D. Frequent respiratory infections (more than 6 times per year)
E. All of the above
246. What requirements must have the ideal vaccine?
A. * Have all these requirements
B. Call lifelong immunity in 100% vaccinated by a single dose
C. Being polyvalent
D. Be safe
E. Be oral vaccine
247. What is the recommended method to enter DPT vaccine?
A. * Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
248. What is the recommended method to enter the vaccine against measles?
A. * Subcutaneously
B. Intravenously
C. Intramuscular
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
249. What is the recommended method to enter BCG vaccine?

A. * Intradermally
B. Intravenously
C. Intramuscular
D. Subcutaneously
E. Through mouth
250. What is the recommended method to enter polio vaccine (live vaccine)?
A. * Through a mouth
B. Intravenously
C. Intramuscular
D. Subcutaneously
E. Intradermally
251. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. * Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
252. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae?
A. * Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
253. At what age is the human body begins to possess immunological activity (producing their own
antibodies in sufficient quantity)?
A. * From 6 months
B. In utero
C. From birth
D. From 1 month
E. From 3 months

(): : 11
Oncology
:
6. . 1
:
1. Which of the metastasis is not typical for gastric cancer?
A. Krukenberg's metastasis
B. * Sorgius's metastasis
C. Shnitsler's metastasis
D. Virchov's metastasis
E. Sister Joseph's metastasis
2. What is localization of the Shnitslers metastasis?
A. Umbilicus
B. Ovaries
C. Left supraclavicular area
D. * Douglas space
E. Rectum
3. ?What type of bone metastases has a breast cancer?
A. * Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
4. What type of bone metastases has a lung cancer?
A. * Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
5. What type of bone metastases has a prostate cancer?
A. Osteolytic
B. * Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
6. What type of bone metastases has hypernephroma?
A. * Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed
7. What type of bone metastases has a thyroid cancer?
A. * Osteolytic
B. Osteoblastic
C. Retention
D. Consolidating
E. Mixed

8. Which malignant tumour has osteoblastic metastases?

A. Hypernephroma
B. Lung cancer
C. * Prostate cancer
D. Thyroid cancer
E. Breast cancer
9. What is the most effective method of diagnosis of bone metastases in case of follicular thyroid
carcinoma?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Computed tomography
C. Digital radiography
D. * Scintigraphy by J-131
E. Thermography
10. Which type of radiation therapy is preferred in case of multiple skeletal metastases?
A. Gamma radiation
B. X-ray
C. Alpha-particles radiation
D. * Systemic radiotherapy
E. Neutron radiation
11. Which radiopharmaceutical radionuclide does not apply to therapy of bone metastases?
A. Phosphorus-32 (32P)
B. Strontium-89 chloride (89Sr)
C. * Colloidal gold-198 (198Au)
D. Samarium-153 (153Sm)
E. Rhenium-186 (186Re)
12. What is the most effective method for early diagnosis of bone metastases?
A. Radiography
B. * Radioisotope diagnosis (bone scan)
C. Determination of tumor markers
D. Immunohistochemistry
E. Bone biopsy
13. Which of the drugs most effective in adjuvant therapy of pain syndrome caused by bone metastases?
A. * Bisphosphonates
B. Adrenergic agonists ?2-receptor
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Antagonists of exciting amino acids
E. Spasmolytics
14. Which of the drug does not belong to bisphosphonates?
A. * Nifedipin
B. Bonefos
C. Aredia
D. Zometa
E. Miacalcik
15. Which of the drugs does not belong to a group of calcium channel blockers?
A. Nifedipin
B. Verapamil

C. Izoptin
D. Falikard
E. * Sirdalud
16. Which of these diuretics is kalium sparing?
A. Hypothiazid
B. Diakarb
C. Mannit
D. * Spironolactone
E. Furosemide
17. What drug is not used topically to stop bleeding from wounds or tumors?
A. Tahokomb
B. Beryplast
C. Helaspon
D. * Vikasol
E. Gelfoum
18. Which drug is not antihemorrhagic?
A. Etamzilat
B. * Tardiferon
C. Vikasol
D. Pamba
E. Dicinon
19. What way is mainly metastasizing skin cancer?
A. * Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Contact
20. What is localization of the Krukenbergs metastases?
A. Umbilicus
B. * Ovaries
C. Left supraclavicular area
D. Douglas space
E. Interpectoral spaces
21. What is localization of the Virchovs metastasis?
A. * Left supraclavicular area
B. Interpectoral spaces
C. Ovaries
D. Rectum
E. Douglas space
22. Atelectasis, as a complication, is most common to following lung cancer:
A. * Central
B. Peripheral
C. Lung carcinomatosis
D. Pancoast lung cancer
E. Non-small lung cancer
23. What is the cause of lung atelectasis?

A. Compression of lungs outside the pleural fluid

B. Depressurization pleural cavity
C. Fibrosis of lung tissue
D. * Bronchial obstruction
E. Lung tissue ischemia due to occlusion of arteries
24. What is the main difference between atelectasis and lung collapse?
A. Collapse captures the whole of lung and atelectasis may develop in some parts
B. * Atelectasis resulting from bronchial obstruction and collapse no
C. Atelectasis develops gradually, and the collapse a sudden
D. Atelectasis has tumor aetiology, and collapse the inflammatory
E. The basis of atelectasis is organic changes, and collapse functional
25. Which of the following tumours often leads to pneumothorax?
A. Central lung cancer
B. * Peripheral lung cancer
C. Mediastinal form of lung cancer
D. Pleural mesothelioma
E. Mediastinal tumor
26. Which types of pneumothorax is the most dangerous to the patient's life?
A. Open
B. Closed
C. * Valvular
D. Combined
E. All are equally dangerous
27. Which symptom does not occur with pneumothorax?
A. Absent of breath on the side of lesion
B. Dyspnea
C. Pulsion of intercostal spaces
D. Bandbox percussion sound on the side of lesion
E. * Dull percussion sound on the side of lesion
28. Specify the location of pleural puncture in case of pneumothorax.
A. * 2nd intercostals space by mid-clavicular line
B. 4th intercostals space by the anterior axilla line
C. 6th intercostals space by the mid axilla line
D. 8th intercostals space by the posterior axilla line
E. 9th intercostals space by the scapular line
29. Which of the following symptoms are not found in pleural effusion?
A. Dyspnea
B. Cough
C. Absence or weakening of breathing on the side of lesion
D. * Bandbox percussion sound on the side of lesion
E. Dull percussion sound on the side of lesion
30. What cancer may cause pleural effusion at least?
A. Breast cancer
B. * Cancer of lower lip
C. Lung cancer
D. Ovarian cancer
E. Malignant lymphoma
31. Specify the location of pleural puncture in case of pleural effusion.
A. 2nd intercostals space by mid-clavicular line
B. 4th intercostals space by the anterior axilla line
C. 6th intercostals space by the mid axilla line
D. * 7-9th intercostals space by the posterior axilla line
E. 10th intercostals space by the scapular line
32. What treatment is preferable in case of malignant pleural effusion?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation
C. * Cytostatic
D. Hormonal
E. Photodynamic laser therapy
33. What clinical sign not included in the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cyanosis scalp and neck
B. Dyspnea
C. * Descent of angle of mouth
D. Dilatation of subcutaneous veins of the neck and chest
E. Dizziness
34. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Swelling of the face and neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Dilatation neck and chest veins
D. * Varicose veins of oesophagus
E. Dizziness
35. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. * Increased blood pressure
D. Neck veins
E. Drowsiness
36. What sign is not part of the superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Cough
B. Dyspnea
C. * Compensatory veins dilatation of the lower torso
D. Hypotension
E. Swelling face
37. What tumor frequently cause superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Thyroid gland cancer
B. Larynx cancer
C. Oesophagus cancer
D. * Lungs cancer
E. Liver cancer
38. What medications are not used in symptomatic treatment of superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Bronchodilatators
B. * Hypotensive

C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Diuretics
E. Corticosteroids
39. What specific treatment should be applied first in the case of superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Surgical
B. * Chemotherapy or radiation therapy
C. Immunotherapy
D. Photodynamic therapy
E. Symptomatic treatment
40. When should be special treatment of patient with superior vena cava syndrome?
A. Preceding to symptomatic treatment
B. After successful symptomatic treatment
C. * In parallel with the symptomatic treatment
D. Not indicated due to high risk of complications
E. Only after morphological confirmation of malignant tumor
41. What clinical symptoms not typical for cardiac tamponade?
A. Dyspnea
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Pale skin
D. Reducing blood pressure
E. * Increased blood pressure
42. What changes in instrumental diagnostics do not indicate cardiac tamponade?
A. Reduced P wave on ECG
B. Reducing the height of QRS-T on ECG
C. * Increased central venous pressure to 120-140 mm water column
D. Increased heart shadow on chest X-ray
E. Presence of liquid level in the pericardial cavity
43. Where is the most common localization of primary thrombi which cause the pulmonary embolism?
A. Pulmonary vein
B. * Veins of the pelvis and lower extremities
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Veins of the upper half of body
E. Heart ventricles
44. Which of the listed pathologies not increase the risk of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Varicose disease
B. * Obliterating endarteritis
C. Malignant tumor
D. Diabetes
E. Adiposity
45. Which clinical forms of pulmonary artery embolism cause the developing of infarct-pneumonia?
A. Fulminant
B. Acute
C. * Subacute
D. Chronic
E. Syncopal
46. How long does the acute form of pulmonary artery embolism last?

A. 1-10 min
B. * Several hours
C. 3-5 days
D. 7 days
E. Several weeks
47. How long last the fulminant form of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. * 1-10 min
B. Several hours
C. 1 day
D. 3-5 days
E. Several weeks
48. How long last the subacute form of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. 1-10 min
B. Several hours
C. 1 day
D. * 3-5 days
E. Several weeks
49. What clinical symptom is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Chest pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypotension
D. * Increased blood pressure
E. Tachycardia
50. What symptom is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Haemoptysis
B. * Pericardial rubbing sound
C. Noise pleural friction
D. Swelling of neck veins
E. Increased venous pressure
51. What sign is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Expanding the right border of heart
B. Triple (gallop) cardiac rhythm
C. Collapse
D. Pale cyanosis
E. * Reduction of alveolar-arterial pCO2 gradient
52. What auscultation sign is typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Systolic noise over the aorta
B. Diastolic noise over the tip of heart
C. Accent of 2nd tone over the aorta
D. Diastolic noise over the pulmonary artery
E. * Accent of 2nd tone over the pulmonary artery
53. What ECG sign is not typical for pulmonary artery embolism?
A. Wide negative T-wave in the 1-4 chest positions
B. Deep S-wave in the first chest position
C. Increase Q-wave in the third chest position
D. Displacement of interval S-T

E. * Narrow negative T-wave

54. What is not typical radiological sign of pulmonary artery embolism?
A. * Increased pulmonary vascular network on the side of lesion
B. Dilatation of right heart
C. Elevation dome of diaphragm on the side of lesion
D. Depleted pulmonary vascular network on the side of lesion
E. Triangular shadow in the lung
55. Which of these drugs effectively reduces intracranial pressure?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hipothiazyd
D. * Mannitol
E. Acid etakryn
56. Which of these diuretics is refers as potassium saving?
A. Hipotiazyd
B. Diakarb
C. Mannitol
D. * Spironolactone
E. Furosemide
57. Which of these symptoms is not specific for spinal cord compression?
A. Pain
B. Paraplegia
C. * Vestibular ataxia
D. Quadriplegia
E. Paresthesia
58. Which of these methods is effective in specific treatment of spinal cord compression caused by
metastatic vertebral destruction?
A. Photodynamic therapy
B. * Radiation therapy
C. Cytostatic therapy
D. Hormonal therapy
E. Symptomatic treatment (narcotic analgesics, corticosteroids, bisphosphonates)
59. Identify complications of bone metastases.
A. Pain
B. * Dysfunction of adjacent joints
C. Presence of tumor in the area of bone destruction
D. Change of the bone structure of beams
E. Fever
60. Which of the pathological processes is not a complication of bone metastases?
A. * Pain
B. Dysfunction of adjacent joints
C. Intoxication
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Pathological fracture
61. Which radioisotope does not apply to radionuclide therapy of bone metastases?
A. Phosphorus-32 (32P)

B. Strontium-89 chloride (89Sr)

C. * Colloidal gold-198 (198Au)
D. Samarium-153 (153Sm)
E. Rhenium-186 (186Rh)
62. Which of these drugs does not belong to bisphosphonates?
A. Bonefos
B. Zometa
C. Pamidronat
D. Zoledronic acid
E. * Ondansetron
63. Which of these drugs does not belong to bisphosphonates?
A. * Nifedipin
B. Bonefos
C. Aredia
D. Zometa
E. Myacalcik
64. What mechanism of action of bisphosphonates is not typical?
A. * Cytostatic effect
B. Inhibition of osteoclast activity
C. Prevention of pathological fractures
D. Stabilization of calcium content in blood
E. Inhibition of osteoblasts resorption
65. Which type of radiation therapy is preferred when present the multiple osteoblastic skeletal
A. metastases?
Gamma radiotherapy
B. Roentgenotherapy
C. Alpha-particles radiotherapy
D. * System radiotherapy
E. Irradiation by betatron
66. Which metastatic way is more often for cancer of the lower lip?
A. * Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Perineural
67. Which metastatic way is more often for the follicular thyroid cancer?
A. Lymphogenous
B. * Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Perineural
68. Which metastatic way is more often for the papillary thyroid cancer?
A. * Lymphogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Implantation
D. Retrograde
E. Perineural

69. What is the basic metastatic way of endometrial cancer?

A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
70. What is the main metastatic way of the gastric cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
71. What is the primary metastatic way of oesophageal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination of pleura
E. Retrograde
72. What is the main metastatic way of colon cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
73. What is the basic metastatic way of colorectal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
74. What is the main metastatic way of rectal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Dissemination to peritoneum
E. Retrograde
75. Which way is most metastasizing of ovarian cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. * Dissemination to peritoneum
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
76. What is the preferred metastatic way of chorionepithelioma?
A. * Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Contact
D. Implantation
E. Perineural
77. What is the preferred metastatic way of soft tissue sarcoma?
A. * Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
78. What is the preferred metastatic way of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. * Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
79. What is the preferred metastatic way of Ewing's sarcoma?
A. * Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
80. What is the preferred metastatic way of laryngeal cancer?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Perineural
D. Implantation
E. Retrograde
81. Cancer of what part of larynx has a highest metastatic rate?
A. * Supraglottis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Anterior commissure
E. Posterior commissure
82. Cancer of what part of larynx has a lowest metastatic rate?
A. Supraglottis
B. * Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Ventricular bands
E. Infrahyoid epiglottis
83. Satellite metastasis is:
A. Metastasis in adjacent organs
B. * Metastasis within 2 sm of the primary tumour
C. Metastasis in symmetrical areas of the body
D. Regional lymph node metastasis
E. Metastases which locate more than 2 sm from the primary tumour
84. What is the preferable method of treatment of neck lymph node metastases?
A. * Surgical

B. Radiation therapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Immunotherapy
E. Photodynamic therapy
85. What operation is used in case when metastatic lymph nodes on the neck extending beyond the
fascial sheath or invades the internal jugular vein?
A. * Radical neck dissection (Crile operation)
B. Supraomohyoid selective neck dissection
C. Modified radical neck dissection
D. Lateral selective neck dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
86. What operation is used in case when metastatic lymph nodes on the neck not extending beyond the
fascial sheaths?
A. Radical neck dissection (Crile operation)
B. Supraomohyoid selective neck dissection
C. * Modified radical neck dissection
D. Lateral selective neck dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
87. What operation is used when melanoma metastases present in inguinal lymph nodes?
A. Superficial groin dissection
B. * Radical ilioinguinal dissection
C. Crile operation
D. Axillary dissection
E. Sentinel lymph node biopsy
88. What is the name by author the submandibular lymphadenectomy?
A. Madden operation
B. Crile operation
C. * Vanakh operation
D. Billroth operation
E. Halstead operation
89. What anatomical structures are subject to removal at radical neck dissection (Crile operation)?
A. Lymph nodes and neck fatty tissue within the fascial space
B. * Lymph nodes, fatty tissue, sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, and accessory nerve
C. Lymph nodes, ligation of external carotid artery and resection of hyoid bone
D. Lymph nodes and resection of lower lip
E. Cervical lymphadenectomy and resection of thyroid gland
90. What is localization of the Sorgius metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Navel
C. Ovaries
D. * Lymph node at the lateral border of pectoralis major
E. Douglas space
91. What is localization of Sister Josephs metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. * Umbilicus
C. Ovaries
D. Interpectoral spaces

E. Douglas space
92. What is localization of the Rotters metastasis?
A. Left supraclavicular area
B. Umbilicus
C. Ovaries
D. * Interpectoral spaces
E. Douglas space
93. Where is most often hematogenous metastatic way of colon cancer?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. * In liver
D. In regional lymph nodes
E. In lung
94. Where is most often hematogenous metastatic way of the rectal cancer of lower third of rectum?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. In liver
D. In the regional lymph nodes
E. * In lung
95. Where is the most often hematogenous metastatic way of the rectal cancer of upper rectum?
A. In pelvic bone
B. In brain
C. * In liver
D. In the regional lymph nodes
E. In lung
96. What is name by author the metastatic ovarian cancer?
A. * Krukenberg metastasis
B. Sorgius metastasis
C. Shnitsler metastasis
D. Virchov metastasis
E. Sister Joseph metastasis
97. Where most developing chorionepithelioma metastases?
A. Bones
B. * Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
98. Where most developing hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer?
A. * Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. Regional lymph nodes
99. Where most developing lymphogenous metastasis of prostate cancer?
A. Bones
B. Lungs

C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. * Regional lymph nodes
100. Where most metastasizing cancer of the cervix?
A. Bones
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Cerebrum
E. * Regional lymph nodes
101. What is the origin of Virchovs metastasis?
A. * Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
102. What is origin of the Shnitslers metastasis?
A. Hematogenous
B. Lymphogenous
C. * Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
103. What is origin of the Sorgius metastasis?
A. Hematogenous
B. * Lymphogenous
C. Implantation
D. Contact
E. Retrograde
104. From what primary cancer the Sorgius metastasis develops?
A. Lungs
B. Stomach
C. Colon
D. * Breast
E. Pancreas
105. Which parameters characterizing the quality of life of cancer patients?
A. Dow Jones index
B. * Index Karnofsky
C. Index Guskova
D. Visual-analogues scale (VAS)
E. Verbal ratings scale
106. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient who stays in bed more than 50 % of daily time?
A. 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. * 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
107. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient who stays in bed less than 50 % of daily time?

A. 90-100 %
B. * 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
108. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient with normal life activity or minimal symptoms of
disease?
A. * 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
109. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient who constantly stays in bed and requires medical
treatment?
A. 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. * 30-40 %
E. 10-20 %
110. What is Karnofsky index (quality of life) in patient whose general condition is very bad or agonal?
A. 90-100 %
B. 70-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 30-40 %
E. * 10-20 %
111. What type of pain is most common in cancer patients?
A. Neuropathic
B. * Nociceptive
C. Psychogenic
D. Idiopathic
E. Causalgia
112. Which symptom is not typical for causalgia?
A. Hyperesthesia
B. * Hypoesthesia
C. Hypoalgesia
D. Hyperhidrosis
E. Hyperpathia
113. How many degrees has pain syndrome according to verbal scale ratings (VSR)?
A. 4
B. * 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 10
114. Which of the side effect is not inherent to nonnarcotic analgesics?
A. Erosion of gastric mucosa
B. Haemorrhage
C. Granulocytopenia

D. Skin allergic reaction

E. * Respiratory depression
115. Which of the side effect is not inherent to narcotic analgesics?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Drowsiness
C. * Granulocytopenia
D. Constipation
E. Hallucinations
116. How many points correspond to mild pain according to pain assessment scale?
A. 0 point
B. * 1 point
C. 2 points
D. 3 points
E. 4 points
117. How many points correspond to severe pain according to pain assessment scale?
A. 1 point
B. 2 points
C. * 3 points
D. 4 points
E. 5 points
118. How many points correspond to disabling pain according to pain assessment scale?
A. 1 point
B. 2 points
C. 3 points
D. * 4 points
E. 5 points

(): : 11
Clinical questions-Oncology
:
6. . 1
:
1. 63 years old patient underwent abdominal-perineal extirpation of rectum due to cancer T4N1M0. 2
years later in patient developed significant pain syndrome in back with irradiation in the lower
extremities and urinary disorders. X-ray revealed metastatic destruction of the sacrum with
pathologic fracture. Palliative radiotherapy (72 Gy) on sacrum gave a temporary reduction of pain
intensity. However after 3 months the backache dramatically increased, walking became impossible,
again urinary disorders. Patient was hospitalized and permanent urinary catheter was set. Select the
best method of anaesthesia in this case.
A. Repeated course of palliative radiotherapy
B. Palliative chemotherapy
C. Surgery resection of the sacrum
D. * Catheterization of the epidural space with a long-term administration of local anaesthetics
E. Electroanalgesia
2. In 70 years old patient a small tissue mass was detected in umbilicus area. Patient notes the difficult
passage of solid food. Objectively: peripheral lymph nodes are not enlarged, abdomen soft,
moderately painful in epigastria in soft tissue of navel area is tumour 1,5 cm with thick consistency.
Digital examination of rectum revealed hyperplasia of prostate. What examination should be a first?
A. Barium irrigoscopy
B. Ultrasound of prostate
C. Sigmoidoscopy
D. Consultation of proctologist
E. * Fibergastroscopy
3. 55 years old patient was admitted in oncology department with complaints of pain in the epigastrium,
decreased appetite, periodical nausea and vomiting. Fibergastroscopy found malignant tumour in the
stomach body. Digital rectal examination revealed tumour mass on the anterior rectal wall. What is
most likely changes was found during digital exam?
A. Simultaneous prostate cancer
B. Prostate adenoma
C. * Shnitslers metastasis
D. Virchows metastasis
E. Prostatitis
4. In 72 years old patient who complained of dysphagia, discomfort in the epigastrium, and nausea in
the soft tissue of umbilicus area was revealed a dense tumour (2 cm) like metastatic. What is it most
A. likely?
Omphalitis
B. Shnitslers metastasis
C. * Sister Joseph metastasis
D. Virchows metastasis
E. Cyst of urachus
5. 70 years old patient was received treatment for prostate cancer (radiotherapy + hormonal therapy +
bilateral orchiectomy). 6 months later the swelling of lower extremities and scrotum appeared chronic
pelvic pain. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Metastases in the pelvic bone
B. Metastasis in the Douglas space
C. Late radiation reaction
D. * Pelvic lymph nodes metastases
E. Prostate cancer recurrence

6. In 57 years old patient was carried out subtotal proximal gastrectomy. Cancer locates in gastro-
oesophageal junction. In which lymphatic collector by A. Melnikov should expect the development
of lymph node metastases?
A. Collector I
B. Collector II
C. * Collector III
D. Collector IV
E. Collector V
7. In 58 years old patient made was carried out subtotal distal gastrectomy. Tumour 4x4 cm localized at
lesser curvature of the stomach. In which lymphatic collector by A. Melnikov should expect the
development of lymph node metastases?
A. Collector I
B. * Collector II
C. Collector III
D. Collector IV
E. Collector V
8. In 62 years old patient total gastrectomy was carried out. Ulcerous infiltrative cancer was located at
the great curvature. In which lymphatic collector by A. Melnikov should expect the development of
lymph node metastases?
A. * Collector I
B. Collector II
C. Collector III
D. Collector IV
E. Collector V
9. In 65 years old patient gastrectomy was carried out. Ulcerative cancer 6x5 cm was located at the
proximal part of great curvature. In which lymphatic collector by A. Melnikov should expect the
development of lymph node metastases?
A. Collector I
B. Collector II
C. Collector III
D. * Collector IV
E. Collector V
10. In 50 years old cancer patient the abdominal-perineal extirpation of rectum was carried out. 10
months later the solitary lung metastasis (3 cm) was revealed during CT examination of chest. What
treatment tactics in this case?
A. * Palliative lung lobectomy
B. Palliative radiotherapy
C. Palliative chemotherapy
D. Symptomatic treatment
E. Photodynamic therapy
11. In 46 years old cancer patient the anterior resection of rectum was carried out. 18 months later
solitary liver metastasis 2,5 cm was revealed on CT scan. What treatment tactics in this case?
A. * Palliative liver segmentectomy + chemotherapy
B. Palliative radiotherapy
C. Palliative chemotherapy
D. Symptomatic treatment
E. Bypass anastomosis
12. In 54 years old patients the metastatic tumour (3x4 cm) in liver was revealed on ultrasound
examination. Which method could help to obtain the morphological confirmation of metastatic
cancer?

A. * Ultrasound guided needle aspiration biopsy of the liver tumour

B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
C. Radionuclide scanning of liver
D. Angiography of liver
E. Laparoscopy
13. In 56 years old female patient who underwent left mastectomy due to breast cancer (T3N2M0) 4
years ago on CT scan was diagnosed metastases in the spine with compression of Th10-11 and
pathological fracture of the vertebra body. What kind of palliative treatment is advisable in this case?
A. Palliative surgery (immobilization of metal plates)
B. Palliative chemo-hormonal therapy
C. Local pharmacotherapy
D. Electroanalgesia
E. * Palliative radiotherapy in combination with bisphosphonates
14. 57 years old female patient who underwent total strumectomy due to thyroid cancer four years ago on
CT scan was diagnosed metastases in the spine Th7, L3 and L5. Scintigraphy found multiple bone
metastases in ribs, scapulae, and pelvis. What is the optimal treatment plan for the patient?
A. * Systemic radionuclide radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment
B. Gamma radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment
C. Laminectomy + symptomatic treatment
D. Intensive chemotherapy + symptomatic treatment
E. Bisphosphonate therapy + symptomatic treatment
15. In female patient who 6 years ago underwent total strumectomy due to papillary thyroid carcinoma
T3N0M0 in blood analysis was recorded high level of thyroglobulin. What it means?
A. Low dose of hormonal replacement therapy
B. Excessive dose of hormonal replacement therapy
C. The development of alternative sources of production of protein
D. Slowdown thyroglobulin utilization in liver
E. * The development of cancer metastases or recurrences
16. In 57 years old cancer patient who three years ago underwent left pulmonectomy and 4 cycles of
chemotherapy on CT scans was revealed the lumbar spine compression in L2 vertebra with
displacement due to its metastatic destruction. Patient has severe pain syndrome and lower
paraplegia. Corticosteroid therapy is not effective. What is the optimal treatment plan for the patient?
A. Radionuclide radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment
B. Distant gamma-therapy + symptomatic treatment
C. * Laminektomiya + gamma-therapy + symptomatic treatment
D. Intensive chemotherapy + symptomatic treatment
E. Bisphosphonate therapy + symptomatic treatment
17. In 42 years old female patient who 3 years ago underwent total strumectomy due to follicular thyroid
carcinoma T3N0M0 in blood analysis was recorded high level of thyroglobulin. What is the
instrumental method should be applied to confirm or exclude the appearance of metastases?
A. MRI of thoracic and abdominal cavities, and the brain
B. CT of the chest, abdomen and brain
C. Determination of calcitonin in blood
D. Determination of carcinoembryonic antigen in blood
E. * Total body scintigraphy by J-131
18. In 47 years old patient with gastric cancer was diagnosed the Virchows metastasis. Metastasis of
what organ or system is present in patient?
A. * Supraclavicular lymph nodes metastases
B. Metastasis in umbilicus
C. Metastasis in Douglas space
D. Metastasis in the ovary
E. Metastasis in the spleen
19. In 38 years old female patient who 4 years ago underwent total strumectomy due to follicular thyroid
carcinoma T3N0M0 in blood analysis was recorded high level of thyroglobulin. J-131 scintigraphy
revealed asymptomatic metastases in the vertebra bodies Th5 and Th9. What is the best method of
treatment in this case?
A. Surgical removal of metastatic foci
B. Systemic palliative chemotherapy
C. Gamma-ray radiotherapy
D. * Radioiodotherapy
E. Symptomatic treatment
20. 66 years old patient was admitted to hospital with severe vomiting and weight loss. CT scan and
fibergastroscopy found pyloric adenocarcinoma T4NXM1 with liver metastasis. What type of
treatment should be taken at first?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. * Bypass gastroenterostomy
D. Gastrostomy
E. Total gastrectomy
21. 65 years old patient was admitted to hospital with severe dysphagia and weight loss. CT scan,
fibergastroscopy and barium X-ray examination found gastroesophageal junction cancer T4NXM1
with liver metastasis (3 cm). What type of treatment should be taken at first?
A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Combined chemo-radiotherapy
D. * Gastrostomy
E. Total gastrectomy
22. 69 years old patient was admitted to hospital with breathlessness and rough breathing. Laryngoscopy
revealed glottis carcinoma with 3rd grade laryngeal stenosis. What type of treatment should be taken
at first?
A. Total laryngectomy
B. Partial laryngectomy
C. Gastrostomy
D. * Tracheostomy
E. Laryngeal stenting
23. 67 years old patient was admitted to hospital with severe anemia (Hb 50) and weight loss.
Fibergastroscopy found ulcerative cancer 5x6 cm in the stomach great curvature, acute bleeding of
cancer surface which couldnt stop by endoscopic diathermy coagulation. On CT scan liver
metastasis (3 cm) was diagnosed. What type of treatment should be taken at first?
A. Ligature of left gastric artery
B. * Partial gastric resection with tumour
C. Bypass gastroenterostomy
D. Gastrostomy
E. Total gastrectomy
24. 68 years old patient was admitted to hospital with severe pain in epigastrium, which began suddenly.
X-ray and CT scan found air in abdomen and liver metastases. Fibergastroscopy found ulcerative
cancer 5x6 cm in the stomach great curvature with perforation. What type of treatment should be
taken at first?

A. Endoscopic clipping of gastric wall

B. * Partial gastric resection with tumour
C. Bypass gastroenterostomy
D. Gastrostomy
E. Total gastrectomy
25. 63 years old female patient urgently submitted to hospital with increasing stenosis of larynx due to
large thyroid tumour. Objectively: on the neck large size (12x10x8 cm) immobile thyroid cancer,
which spread into larynx and cause life threatening stenosis. What type of treatment should be taken
immediately?
A. * Transtumoral tracheostomy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Partial strumectomy
D. Total thyroidectomy
E. Regional chemotherapy
26. 72 years old patient complains on considerable difficulty in breathing, hoarseness. He is smoker of 40
years. Objectively: the patient is forced to a sitting position, skin pale with acrocyanosis, shallow
breathing 32 per min, PS 102 per min, BP 90/60 mm Hg. What complication present in the patient?
A. Vena cava syndrome
B. * Laryngeal stenosis
C. Subacute pulmonary artery embolism
D. Acute asthma
E. Emphysema
27. 70 years old patient complains on considerable difficulty in breathing, hoarseness. He is smoker of 40
years. Objectively: the patient is forced to a sitting position, skin pale with acrocyanosis, shallow
breathing 32 per min, PS 102 per min, BP 90/60 mm Hg. What type of treatment should be taken at
first?
A. Gamma radiation therapy
B. Intensive chemotherapy
C. Laryngectomy
D. * Tracheostomy
E. Laryngeal stenting
28. 64 years old patient was admitted to hospital with severe dysphagia an d weight loss. The cancer of
low-thoracic oesophagus with complete lumen obstruction was detected by fiberoesophagoscopy. The
laboratory parameters are anemia, hypoproteinosis, accelerated ESR. What treatment tactics should
be taken?
A. Intensive infusion therapy + Lewis operation
B. Intensive infusion therapy + Garlock operation
C. Intensive infusion therapy + radiotherapy
D. * Intensive infusion therapy + gastrostomy + radiotherapy
E. Intensive infusion therapy + polychemotherapy
29. 75 years old patient complains of dysphagia and weight loss for last 6 months. CT scans of chest and
abdomen, oesophagoscopy with tumour biopsy are diagnosed the oesophageal cancer T4N1M1. What
operation should be taken in this case?
A. Nissens fundoplication
B. Bypass esophago-gastrostomy
C. Lewisoperation
D. * Gastrostomy
E. Esophagostomy

30. 62 years old patient complains of abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and absence of stool.
Objectively: swollen abdomen, increased peristalsis, tympany, positive Val and Sklyarov symptoms.
What is a preliminary clinical diagnosis?
A. * Acute small intestinal obstruction
B. Mesenteric thrombosis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Sigmoid colon cancer
E. Acute peritonitis
31. 56 years old patient was urgently operated due to intestinal perforation within 2 hours. After
laparotomy the tumour of cecum 10 cm with wall perforation 1.5 cm were revealed. Cytology
confirms adenocarcinoma. What is the optimal surgery in this case?
A. * Right hemicolectomy
B. Resection of cecum
C. Stitching the perforation with omentopexy
D. Ileotransversostomy and abdominal drainage
E. Stitching the perforation and bypass ileotransverse anastomosis
32. 48 years old patient was urgently operated due to acute colon obstruction. After laparotomy the
cancer of ascending colon was revealed. Cecum filled with liquid feces, small intestine expanded
moderately, in abdominal cavity about 100 ml effusions. What is the optimal surgery in this case?
A. Bypass ileotransverse anastomosis
B. Cecostomy
C. Ileostomy
D. * Right hemicolectomy
E. Transversostomy
33. 82 years old patient was urgently operated due to acute colon obstruction. After laparotomy the large
cancer of supraampular part of rectum was revealed. Proximal colon filled with feces and gases, in
abdominal cavity moderate amount of serous transudate, lymph nodes 2 cm along superior rectal
artery. Distant metastases were not found. What is the optimal surgery in this case?
A. Sigmoidostomy
B. * Obstructive resection of rectum
C. Anterior resection of rectum
D. Abdominal-perineal extirpation of rectum
E. Bypass sigmoido-rectal anastomosis
34. On the plain X-ray chest film determined homogeneous darkening in the lower lobe of left lung. On
the lateral-side X-ray film is particularly clearly seen that damaged a whole lower lobe, and it
reduced, and its sharp front shape and rectified. What diagnosis corresponds to this X-ray picture?
A. * Atelectasis of the lower lobe of left lung
B. Pleural effusion
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Echinococcus granulosus of left lung
35. In patient with peripheral lung cancer suddenly appeared pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnoea,
dizziness, cough. Objective: pale skin covered with cold sweat, shallow breathing, PS 110 per min,
BP 80/50 mm Hg, no breathing in right lung and bandbox percussion sound. What complication
developed in the patient?
A. * Pneumothorax
B. Hydrothorax
C. Right pulmonary embolism
D. Atypical pneumonia

E. Atelectasis
36. In 52 years old patient, who had year ago chemo-radiation treatment due to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
(NHL), gradually appeared short of breath, intermittent cough, and few days later appeared fever
37.5-38 C. Objective: pale skin, acrocyanosis, breathing shallow 28 per min, PS 98 per min, no
breathing in right lung and dull percussion sound. What complication developed in the patient?
A. Right pneumothorax
B. * Right hydrothorax
C. Right pulmonary embolism
D. Right atypical pneumonia
E. Right atelectasis
37. In patient with small cell lung cancer appeared right hydrothorax up to 5th rib. What treatment is
preferable in this case?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation
C. * Cytostatic
D. Hormonal
E. Immunotherapy
38. Female patient three years ago received combined treatment due to left side breast cancer T3N2M0.
A month ago gradually appeared malaise, dyspnea, recurrent cough, episodes of dizziness. On the
chest X-ray was revealed free fluid to level of 4th rib in left pleural cavity. 1500 ml pleural fluid was
evacuated during pleurocentesis. Cytological examination of fluid revealed poorly differentiated
adenocarcinoma cells. What treatment is preferable in this case?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation
C. * Cytostatic
D. Hormonal
E. Photodynamic laser therapy
39. In 62 years old male, who smokes and often suffering from pneumonia, at chest radiograph in the
projection of the lower part of right lung showing a shadow with triangular shape directed to the lung
hilus. Indicate the most likely diagnosis.
A. Abscess of the lower lobe of right lung
B. Central carcinoma of the right lung with atelectasis
C. Limited right hydrothorax
D. Peripheral right lung cancer with atelectasis
E. * Cancer of the lower-right bronchus with atelectasis
40. In patient with Hodgkins disease on the chest X-ray was found homogeneous triangular shadow in
right lung, which directed to the lung hilus. Indicate the most likely complication?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hydrothorax
C. Abscess
D. * Atelectasis
E. Atypical pneumonia
41. 62 years old man entered the hospital with complaints of shortness of breath, palpitations and general
weakness. Objective: PS 102 per min, breathe rate 32 per min, breathing shallow, swelling of face,
acrocyanosis, dilatation of neck and chest veins. On the chest X-ray extended mediastinal shadow,
thickened mediastinal pleura the signs of tumor compression of superior vena cava. What is the
treatment option?
A. Emergency surgery: removal of mediastinal tumor
B. Chemotherapy + symptomatic treatment

C. * Radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment

D. Emergency surgery: cardiac-subclavian bypass
E. Method of treatment will be determined after morphological confirmation of cancer
42. Patient was hospitalized in the cancer clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, dizziness,
headache, coughing. Objective: acrocyanosis, swelling of the upper torso and face, dilated veins of
the neck and chest, breathing shallow (30 per min). On chest X-ray film were found polycyclic large
mediastinal shadow. What clinical syndrome occurred in patient?
A. * Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Functional syndrome
C. Common signs syndrome
D. Paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Syndrome of portal hypertension
43. 59 years old man with lung cancer was entered the hospital with complaints of shortness of breath,
palpitations and general weakness. Objective: PS 104 per min, breathe rate 30 per min, breathing
shallow, swelling of face, acrocyanosis, dilatation of neck and chest veins. On the chest X-ray
extended mediastinal shadow, thickened mediastinal pleura the signs of tumor compression of
superior vena cava. What form of lung cancer match to these data?
A. * Mediastinal form
B. Central form
C. Peripheral form
D. Penkost cancer
E. Carcinomatosis of the lungs
44. The 45 years old patient complained of shortness of breath, cough, sleepiness, periodic dizziness.
Objective: swelling of face, neck and upper limbs, acrocyanosis, sign caput Medusae on chest.
Indicate the most likely diagnosis.
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Pulmonary embolism of small arteries
D. Morgagni-Adams-Stokes syndrome
E. * Superior vena cava syndrome
45. 59 years old patient with small-sell lung cancer completed course of chemo-radiation therapy. Three
weeks later the sharp pain and a sense of pressure in the heart area appeared, shortness of breath and
anxiety. Objectively: pale skin, acrocyanosis, PS 100 per min, blood pressure 85/50 mm Hg. The
significant reduction of electrical activity of the heart was marked on ECG. On chest X-ray increased
the shade of heart. What is preliminary diagnosis?
A. Compression syndrome of superior vena cava
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Exudative pleuritis
D. * Cardiac tamponade
E. Pulmonary artery embolism
46. Patient of 39 years old complained of acute pain and pressure sensation in the heart area, shortness of
breath and anxiety. Objectively: acrocyanosis, neck veins bulging, pale skin, hypotension,
tachycardia and weakening of heart tones. ECG: significant reduction of electrical activity of the
heart (low voltage, lower P-wave and QRS-T). What is preliminary diagnosis?
A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Cardiac angina
D. * Cardiac tamponade
E. Subacute form of pulmonary artery embolism

47. In 63 years old patient the lung cancer complicated by cardiac tamponade. Prescribed: inhalation of
oxygen, infusion therapy with cardiac glycosides, spasmolytics and tranquilizers. What urgent action
is necessary to do?
A. * Pericardiocentesis and evacuation of liquid from pericardium
B. Set pleural drainage from a side of tumor lesion
C. Radiotherapy on the tumor and the area of heart
D. Emergency chemotherapy
E. Transthoracic puncture of the lung tumor
48. In cancer patient on the fifth day after nephrectomy, after woke up of bed suddenly appeared chest
pain, dyspnoea, face cyanosis; PS 116 per min, BP 60/30 mm Hg. Indicate the most likely
complication in a patient?
A. * Pulmonary artery embolism
B. Pneumothorax
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Metastasis to the brain
E. Acute adrenal insufficiency
49. Patient with Hodgkins disease complained on shortness of breath, pain under right ribs, swelling of
the feet. Objectively: swollen neck veins, PS 120 per min, heart tones sharply weakened, ECG
lower voltage, chest X-ray round hearts shadow. What complication of Hodgkins disease emerged
in the patient?
A. Metabolic postinflammatory myocardiopaty
B. Small myocardial infarction
C. Postinfarction cardiosclerosis
D. * Pericardial effusion
E. Primary rheumatic heart disease
50. In patient with rectal cancer in a week after the resection suddenly appeared pain in the chest,
dyspnoea, palpitations, weakness. Objectively: heavy condition, diffusion acrocyanosis, breathes rate
38 per min, tachycardia 124 per min, BP 80/40 mm Hg, neck veins are swollen. ECG: signs of
blockade of the right His bundle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Pulmonary artery embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Dissecting aorta aneurysm
D. Cardiac asthma
E. Acute pneumonia
51. 65 years old patient 5 days after gastrectomy due to cancer complains on cough with phlegm pink
highlighting that sparkle, sense of lack of air, the fear of death. Objectively: orthopnea, pale skin,
acrocyanosis, cold clammy sweat, hard breathing, in the lower lobes wet crepitation, breathe rate 40
per min. Cardiac tones sharply weakened, triple (gallop) cardiac rhythm. What is the most likely
A. * diagnosis? oedema
Pulmonary
B. Asthmatic status
C. Caseous pneumonia
D. Infarct-pneumonia
E. Pulmonary artery embolism
52. In patients with breast cancer suddenly appeared severe headache, dizziness, nausea and occasional
vomiting, irregular breathing, occipital muscular rigidity. What complications developed in patients?
A. * Wet brain
B. Migraine
C. Vascular dystonia
D. Metastasis to the brain
E. Stroke
53. In patient with gastric cancer and metastases in vertebra the spine compression arose and pathological
fracture of the Th11 body. What kind of palliative therapy is advisable in this case?
A. Palliative surgery (immobilization of metal plates)
B. Palliative chemo-hormonal therapy
C. Local pharmacotherapy
D. Electromyoanalgesia
E. * Palliative radiotherapy in combination with bisphosphonates
54. Female patient underwent strumectomy on follicular thyroid carcinoma T3N0M0. 4 years later was
recorded increasing of thyroglobulin in the blood. Bone scan with 131-J revealed asymptomatic
metastases in Th5-Th9. What is the best method of treatment in this case?
A. Surgical removal of foci with replacement cavities with "bone cement"
B. Systemic palliative chemotherapy
C. Distant gamma-ray therapy
D. * Radioiodine therapy
E. Symptomatic treatment
55. Female patient of 56 years old, four years ago underwent thyroidectomy of follicular carcinoma.
Patient suffers by bone pain for last month. Bone scan revealed multiple skeletal metastases with
signs of spinal cord compression. What is the optimal treatment tactics?
A. * Radionuclide radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment
B. Gamma-ray therapy + symptomatic treatment
C. Laminectomy + symptomatic treatment
D. Intensive chemotherapy + symptomatic treatment
E. Bisphosphonate therapy + symptomatic treatment
56. 57 years old patient three years ago underwent the combined treatment due to lung cancer (right
bilobectomy + 4 courses of chemotherapy). A week ago because of the pain syndrome, which
appeared suddenly in the lumbar spine revealed compression fracture of L2 vertebra due to its
metastatic destruction. Corticosteroid therapy did not lead to better, and lower paraplegia developed.
What is the optimal treatment approach?
A. Radionuclide radiotherapy + symptomatic treatment
B. Gamma-ray therapy + symptomatic treatment
C. * Operation laminectomy + gamma-ray therapy + symptomatic therapy
D. Intensive chemotherapy + symptomatic treatment
E. Bisphosphonate therapy + symptomatic treatment
57. Female patient was hospitalized in neurological hospital in very serious condition: sopor, moderate
anisocoria D>S, smooth left nasolabial folds, no moves of left bodys part, periosteal reflexes S>D,
positive Babinskys symptom on the left. Relatives reported that woman was healthy, only headaches
were for last two months. This morning the patient suddenly lost consciousness. Set a preliminary
diagnosis.
A. Arachnoiditis of brain
B. Atherosclerosis of cerebral vessels
C. Ischemic stroke
D. * Brain tumour
E. Traumatic brain injury
58. The 47 years old patient urgently admitted to hospital in stupor. A year ago he underwent operation
for lung cancer. According to relatives for the last 3 days he had repeated vomiting, hiccups.
Objectively: stridulous breathing, hypertension, occipital muscular rigidity. What previous diagnosis?
A. * Wet brain
B. Subacute form of pulmonary artery embolism

C. Superior vena cava syndrome

D. Toxic syndrome
E. Paraneoplastic syndrome
59. Man of 57 years old was urgently hospitalized with progressive shortness of breath. Objectively:
patient in sitting position, skin acrocyanosis, shallow breathing with 32 rates per min, PS 106 per
min. Mirror laryngoscopy: tumour in vestibular part of larynx with invasion into vocal cords, glottis
narrowed to 3 mm, rigid fold. Regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. What is a primary treatment
A. option? therapy
Radiation
B. Chemotherapy
C. * Tracheostomy
D. Laryngectomy
E. Lymphadenectomy
60. 57 years old patient was urgently hospitalized with progressive shortness of breath. Objectively:
patient in sitting position, skin acrocyanosis, shallow breathing with 32 rates per min, PS 106 per
min. Mirror laryngoscopy: tumour in vestibular part of larynx with invasion into vocal cords, glottis
narrowed to 3 mm, rigid folds and bleeding during instrumental palpation. Neck lymph nodes are not
enlarged. What complications developed in a patient?
A. * Laryngeal stenosis
B. Inflammation
C. Glottal-oesophageal fistula
D. Laryngeal paralysis
E. Laryngeal bleeding

(): : 11
Pediatric Surgery-tests questions
:
6c-med. Final control
:
1. A pediatrician has diagnosed a newborn baby of having right-sided cryptorchidism (undescended
testis). The testis may have been trapped in any site EXCEPT:
A. At the deep inguinal ring
B. Just outside the superficial inguinal ring
C. Pelvic brim
D. * Perineum
E. Somewhere in the inguinal canal
2. Congenital absence of one of the testes is known as:
A. cryptorchidism
B. anorchia
C. * monorchism
D. ectopia
E. dystopia
3. Which of the following is not a risk factor for development of an inguinal hernia?
A. Presence of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B. * Congenital heart disease
C. Prematurity
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Family history of inguinal hernias
4. Which of the following hernias follows the path of the spermatic cord within the cremaster muscle?
A. Femoral
B. Direct inguinal
C. * Indirect inguinal
D. Spigelian
E. Interparietal
5. The earliest way to diagnose an anterior abdominal wall defect is:
A. by physical exam
B. by history
C. * by fetal ultrasound
D. by fetal CT scan
E. None of the above
6. Gastroschisis:
A. is usually associated with other anomalies
B. is usually associated with chromosomal disorders
C. is located on the left of the umbilical cord
D. * repair is followed by prolonged ileus
E. none of the above
7. Gastroschisis is associated with an increased risk of:
A. hepatomegaly
B. * intestinal atresia
C. microcephaly
D. cardiac anomalies

E. all of the above

8. The test with the highest diagnostic yield for detecting a colovesical fistula is:
A. Barium enema.
B. Colonoscopy.
C. Computed tomography (CT).
D. Cystography.
E. * Cystoscopy.
9. Duodenal atresia:
A. is caused by intrauterine mesenteric vascular accident
B. commonly exhibits normal muscular wall with a mucosal web
C. is seldom associated with normal passage of meconium at birth
D. * is rarely associated with other congenital anomalies
E. is often associated with nonbileus vomiting
10. A positive Farbers test is indicative of which pathological state?
A. Ladds syndrome
B. Ileal stenosis
C. Duodenal stenosis
D. Pancreatic cystic fibrosis
E. * Duodenal atresia
11. How is CF inherited?
A. Autosomal Dominant
B. * Autosomal Recessive
C. Sex-linked Recessive
D. Sex-linked Dominant
E. None of the above
12. The treatment of choice for neonates with uncomplicated meconium ileus is:
A. Observation.
B. Emergency laparotomy, bowel resection, and Bishop-Koop enterostomy.
C. * Intravenous hydration and a gastrograffin enema.
D. Emergency laparotomy, bowel resection, and anastomosis.
E. Sweat chloride test and pancreatic enzyme therapy.
13. The conservative method of meconium ileus management is:
A. * Gastrografin enema
B. Antibacterial therapy
C. Spasmolytic drugs
D. Intravenous infusion
E. Ultrasound therapy
14. The carrier rate for the CF gene in the white population is:
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 15
C. * 1 in 25
D. 1 in 50
E. 1 in 5
15. At what age is surgical orchiopexy recommended for a child with a unilateral undescended testis?
A. Promptly upon discovery, regardless of age
B. * 1 year

C. 5 to 6 years
D. Any time prior to puberty
E. 6 to 7 years
16. Cryptorchidism is most frequently found:
A. on the left side
B. bilaterally
C. * on the right side
D. retroperitoneally
E. in the abdomen
17. All are possible complications of an undescended testis except:
A. malignization
B. * acute scrotum
C. torsion and trauma
D. hypoplasia
E. sterility
18. Which of the following is not part of the differential diagnosis of an inguinal-scrotal swelling in
children?
A. Varicocele
B. Undescended or retracted testis
C. * Volvulus
D. Testicular torsion
E. Testicular cancer
19. Upon further imaging, what associated finding would be expected?
A. * posterior urethral valves on a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
B. hydrocephalus on head ultrasound
C. cardiomegaly on chest x-ray (CXR)
D. bilateral adrenal enlargement on abdominal ultrasound
E. tracheoesophageal fistula on an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series
20. A 17 year old patient presents for the first time with a small palpable testis in the inguinal region.
Orchidectomy is performed. The histological appearances of these testis are most likely to show:
A. Germ cell hyperplasia
B. * 'Sertoli cell only' appearances
C. Normal appearances
D. Well-differentiated seminoma
E. Ley dig cell hyperplasia
21. A three year old boy is referred with a unilateral impalpable testis. The most reliable means of
confirming the presence or absence of the testis is:
A. Abdominal ultrasonography
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. Retrograde venography
E. * Laparoscopy
22. Which of the following statements is false?
A. * Each testis descends through the inguinal canal into the scrotum within the processus vaginalis.
B. A hydrocele can result from incomplete fusion of the processus vaginalis.
C. A scrotal hydrocele, or simple hydrocele, is a type of non-communicating hydrocele.

D. A communicating hydrocele can develop into an inguinal-scrotal hernia. Some use the terms
interchangeably.
E. A hernia sac can contain intestine, omentum, testis/ovary or fallopian tube.
23. An undescended testis that remains in the pelvic cavity or somewhere in the inguinal canal is known
as which of the following?
A. a hydrocele
B. hypospadias
C. epispadias
D. * cryptorchidism
E. hermaphroditism
24. A 17 year old patient presents for the first time with a small palpable testis in the inguinal region.
Orchidectomy is performed. The histological appearances of these testis are most likely to show:
A. Germ cell hyperplasia
B. * 'Sertoli cell only" appearances
C. Normal appearances
D. Well-differentiated seminoma
E. Leydig cell hyperplasia
25. A three year old boy is referred with a unilateral impalpable testis. The most reliable means of
confirming the presence or absence of the testis is:
A. Abdominal ultrasonography
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. Retrograde venography
E. * Laparoscopy
26. Which structure passes through the deep inguinal ring?
A. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Inferior epigastric artery
D. Medial umbilical ligament
E. * Round ligament of the uterus
27. To maximize fertility potential, orchidopexy for cryptorchidism should be done before:
A. Age 15 years.
B. Age 12 years.
C. Marriage.
D. * Age 2 years.
E. Age 5 years
28. If one were to make an incision parallel to and 2 inches above the inguinal ligament, one would find
the inferior epigastric vessels between which layers of the abdominal wall?
A. Camper's and Scarpa's fascias
B. External abdominal oblique and internal abdominal oblique muscles
C. Internal abdominal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
D. Skin and deep fascia of the abdominal wall
E. * Tranversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum
29. A loop of bowel protrudes through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia; viewed from
the abdominal side, the hernial sac would be found in which region?
A. Deep inguinal ring
B. Lateral inguinal fossa

C. * Medial inguinal fossa

D. Superficial inguinal ring
E. Supravesical fossa
30. A patient presents with a hernia that is palpable at the superficial inguinal ring. The hernia was
diagnosed as:
A. Obdurator hernia
B. A direct inguinal hernia
C. A femoral hernia
D. An incisional hernia
E. * An indirect inguinal hernia
31. In a female with an indirect inguinal hernia, the herniated mass lies along side of which structure as it
traverses the inguinal canal?
A. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Inferior epigastric artery
C. Ovarian artery and vein
D. Pectineal ligament
E. * Round ligament of the uterus
32. During your peer presentation of the inguinal region dissection, you would indicate the position of
the deep inguinal ring to be
A. Above the anterior superior iliac spine
B. * Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament
C. Above the pubic tubercle
D. In the supravesical fossa
E. Medial to the inferior epigastric artery
33. An elderly patient with a large indirect inguinal hernia came to your clinic complaining of pain in the
scrotum. You conclude that the hernial sac is compressing the following nerve
A. Femoral branch of the genitofemoral
B. Femoral
C. Iliohypogastric
D. * Ilioinguinal
E. Subcostal
34. What is the best diagnostic test for the assessment of inguinal hernia in children?
A. Ultrasonography
B. Plain radiography
C. CT
D. MRI
E. * None of the above
35. The boundaries of the inguinal triangle include all except:
A. * Arcuate line
B. Inferior epigastric vessels
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Lateral border of rectus abdominus muscle
E. Pubis.
36. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?
A. * External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
B. Falx inguinalis
C. Internal abdominal oblique muscle

D. Scarpa's fascia
E. Transversalis fascia
37. If a hernia enters into the scrotum, it is most likely a:
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. * Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Obdurator hernia
E. An incisional hernia
38. Which nerve passes through the superficial inguinal ring and may therefore be endangered during
inguinal hernia repair?
A. Femoral branch of the genitofemoral
B. * Ilioinguinal
C. Iliohypogastric
D. Obturator
E. Subcostal
39. What is the most likely diagnosis in an infant or young child with a history of intermittent swelling in
the groin region?
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. * Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Varicocele
D. Adenopathy
E. None of the above
40. During inguinal herniotomy in a 12 year old the testis was found in the hernia sac. What type of
hernia is this?
A. Richters hernia
B. * Congenital indirect hernia
C. Acquired direct hernia
D. Direct hernia
E. Femoral hernia
41. A hernia containing the vermiform appendix in its sac is known as:
A. Richters hernia
B. * Amyands hernia
C. Littres hernia
D. Omentocele
E. Indirect hernia
42. A patent processus vaginalis can lead to all of the following, except:
A. Funiculocele
B. * Omphalocele
C. Bubonocele
D. Scrotal hernia
E. Hydrocele
43. Which of the following statements is false?
A. * Each testis descends through the inguinal canal into the scrotum within the processus vaginalis.
B. A hydrocele can result from incomplete fusion of the processus vaginalis.
C. A scrotal hydrocele, or simple hydrocele, is a type of non-communicating hydrocele.
D. A communicating hydrocele can develop into an inguinal-scrotal hernia. Some use the terms
interchangeably.

E. A hernia sac can contain intestine, omentum, testis/ovary or fallopian tube.

44. Which of the following is not part of the differential diagnosis of an inguinal-scrotal swelling in
children?
A. Varicocele
B. Undescended or retracted testis
C. * Volvulus
D. Testicular torsion
E. Testicular cancer
45. Which of the following is not a risk factor for development of an inguinal hernia?
A. Presence of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B. * Congenital heart disease
C. Prematurity
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Family history of inguinal hernias
46. The most common hernia in females is:
A. Femoral hernia.
B. Direct inguinal hernia.
C. * Indirect inguinal hernia.
D. Obturator hernia.
E. Umbilical hernia.
47. Which of the following statements regarding unusual hernias is incorrect?
A. An obturator hernia may produce nerve compression diagnosed by a positive Howship-Romberg
sign.
B. Grynfeltt's hernia appears through the superior lumbar triangle, whereas Petit's hernia occurs through
the inferior lumbar triangle.
C. * Sciatic hernias usually present with a painful groin mass below the inguinal ligament.
D. Littre's hernia is defined by a Meckel's diverticulum presenting as the sole component of the hernia
sac.
E. Richter's hernia involves the antimesenteric surface of the intestine within the hernia sac and may
present with partial intestinal obstruction.
48. Staples may safely be placed during laparoscopic hernia repair in each of the following structures
except:
A. Cooper's ligament.
B. Tissues superior to the lateral iliopubic tract.
C. The transversus abdominis aponeurotic arch.
D. * Tissues inferior to the lateral iliopubic tract.
E. The iliopubic tract at its insertion onto Cooper's ligament.
49. The following Nyhus classification of hernias is correct except for:
A. Recurrent direct inguinal herniaType IVa.
B. Indirect inguinal hernia with a normal internal inguinal ringType I.
C. Femoral herniaType IIIc.
D. Direct inguinal herniaType IIIa.
E. * Indirect inguinal hernia with destruction of the transversalis fascia of Hesselbach's triangleType II.
50. Which of the following statements about the causes of inguinal hernia is correct?
A. Excessive hydroxyproline has been demonstrated in the aponeuroses of hernia patients.
B. Obliteration of the processus vaginalis is a contributing factor for the development of an indirect
inguinal hernia.

C. Physical activity and athletics have been shown to have a protective effect toward the development of
inguinal hernias.
D. * Elevated levels of circulating serum elastalytic activity have been demonstrated in patients with
direct herniation who smoke.
E. The majority of inguinal hernias are acquired.
51. The following statements about the repair of inguinal hernias are true except:
A. * The conjoined tendon is sutured to Cooper's ligament in the Bassini hernia repair.
B. The McVay repair is a suitable option for the repair of femoral hernias.
C. The Shouldice repair involves a multilayer, imbricated repair of the floor of the inguinal canal.
D. The Lichtenstein repair is accomplished by prosthetic mesh repair of the inguinal canal floor in a
tension-free manner.
E. The laparoscopic transabdominal preperitoneal (TAPP) and totally extraperitoneal approach (TEPA)
repairs are based on the preperitoneal repairs of Cheattle, Henry, Nyhus, and Stoppa.
52. Which of the following congenital abnormalities are correctly defined?
A. Omphalocele represents a defect in the abdominal wall lateral to the umbilical cord.
B. * The herniated viscera associated with omphaloceles are usually covered with a membranous sac.
C. In case of gastroschisis primary fascial closure can be achieved in only about 25% of these infants.
D. Omphalocele represents a defect in the abdominal wall lateral to the umbilical cord.
E. The herniated viscera associated with are usually covered with a membranous sac.
53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of
epigastric hernias?
A. A large peritoneal sac containing abdominal viscera is common
B. * At the time of surgical repair, a careful search for other defects should be performed
C. Recurrent epigastric hernias after simple closure is uncommon
D. Patients with symptoms of a painful midline abdominal mass frequently will contain incarcerated
small bowel
E. Patients with symptoms of a painful midline abdominal mass frequently will contain incarcerated
large bowel
54. Which statement is true concerning neurovascular structures in the inguinal region.
A. The inferior epigastric artery and vein run upward in the preperitoneal fat posterior to the
transversalis fascia close to the lateral margin of the internal inguinal ring
B. * The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal are motor and sensory nerves in the inguinal region which lie
beneath the external oblique aponeurosis
C. The ilioinguinal nerve runs posterior to the spermatic cord in the inguinal canal and at the superficial
inguinal ring, branches into the sensory supply to the pubic region and the upper scrotum or labium
majoris
D. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve is a sensory nerve only to the upper thigh and genital
area
E. All of the above
55. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning the epidemiology of inguinal hernias.
A. Inguinal hernias occur with a male-to-female ratio of about 1:1
B. Femoral and umbilical hernias are more common in women, with a female-to-male ratio of 4:1
C. * The frequency of inguinal hernias increases with age
D. Almost all umbilical hernias occur in the pediatric age group
E. All of the above
56. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning umbilical hernias in adults.
A. Most umbilical hernias in adults are the result of a congenital defect carried into adulthood
B. * A paraumbilical hernia typically occurs in multiparous females
C. The presence of ascites is a contraindication to elective umbilical hernia repair.
D. Incarceration is uncommon with umbilical hernias
E. All of the above
57. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning the anterior abdominal wall musculature.
A. The lateral musculature of the abdominal wall consists of three muscle layers. These are, from
external to internal, the external oblique, the transversus abdominis, and the internal oblique muscles
B. * The transversalis fascia lies on the deep side of the transversus muscle and extends to form an
essentially complete fascial envelope of the abdominal cavity
C. Below the semicircular line, the internal oblique aponeurosis splits into posterior and anterior laminae

D. The rectus abdominis muscles originate on the ribs superiorly and on the pubis inferiorly and are
clearly distinct throughout their entire length
E. All of the above
58. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning incarceration of an inguinal hernia.
A. All incarcerated hernias are surgical emergencies and require prompt surgical intervention
B. Attempt at reduction of an incarcerated symptomatic hernia is generally considered safe
C. Vigorous attempts at reduction of an incarcerated hernia may result in reduction en masse with
continued entrapment and possible progression to obstruction or strangulation
D. All incarcerated hernias are surgical emergencies and require prompt surgical intervention & Attempt
at reduction of an incarcerated symptomatic hernia is generally considered safe
E. * Attempt at reduction of an incarcerated symptomatic hernia is generally considered safe & Vigorous
attempts at reduction of an incarcerated hernia may result in reduction en masse with continued
entrapment and possible progression to obstruction or strangulation
59. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning abdominal incisional hernias.
A. Large incisional hernias are associated with a high recurrence rate when closed primarily
B. A large potential space remains anterior to the abdominal wall closure in most patients indicating a
need for postoperative wound drainage
C. Incisional hernias are frequently associated with a tissue deficit either due to chronic retraction and
scarring or the result of tissue necrosis from either infection or tension at the initial closure
D. * All of the above
E. None of the above
60. Which of the following structures are derived from the external oblique muscle and its aponeurosis?
A. The inguinal or Pouparts ligament
B. The lacunar ligament
C. The conjoined tendon
D. * The inguinal or Pouparts ligament & The lacunar ligament
E. The lacunar ligament & The conjoined tendon
61. A number of special circumstances exist in the repair of inguinal hernias. The following statement(s)
is/are correct.
A. Simultaneous repair of bilateral direct inguinal hernias can be performed with no significant
increased risk of recurrence
B. * The preperitoneal approach may be appropriate for repair of a multiple recurrent hernia
C. A femoral hernia repair can best be accomplished using a Bassini or Shouldice repair
D. Management of an incarcerated inguinal hernia with obstruction is best approached via laparotomy
incision
E. All of the above
62. Which of the following structures can be found outside of the spermatic cord during a hernia repair?
A. * direct hernia sac
B. indirect hernia sac

C. vas deferens
D. testicular artery
E. ovary
63. Which of the following is not part of the differential diagnosis of an inguinal-scrotal swelling in
children?
A. Varicocele
B. Undescended or retracted testis
C. * Volvulus
D. Testicular torsion
E. Testicular cancer
64. The most common source of bacteria in wound infection after groin hernia repair is:
A. * the patients skin
B. the patients nasopharynx
C. operating room air
D. surgical instruments
E. operating room staff
65. Howship-Romberg sign is characteristic of:
A. femoral hernia
B. Spigelian hernia
C. * obturator hernia
D. lumbar hernia
E. epigastric hernia
66. The most common hernia in women is:
A. femoral hernia
B. obturator hernia
C. * inguinal hernia
D. umbilical hernia
E. spigelian hernia
67. Spontaneous closure of which of the following congenital abnormalities of the abdominal wall
generally occurs by the age of 4?
A. * Umbilical hernia
B. Patent urachus
C. Patent omphalomesenteric duct
D. Omphalocele
E. Gastroschisis
68. Which of the following statements regarding direct inguinal hernias is true?
A. They are the most common inguinal hernias in women
B. * They protrude medially to the inferior epigastric vessels
C. They should be opened and ligated at the internal ring
D. They commonly protrude into the scrotal sac in men
E. They incarcerate more commonly than indirect hernias
69. Upon delivery of a baby with a small intact omphalocele and an enlarged tongue, which of the
following is foremost in the physicians mind in the management of this infant?
A. Cover the omphalocele membrane with plastic wrap to prevent loss of body warmth and fluid.
B. Insert an orogastric tube to decompress the intestinal tract.
C. Promptly arrange consultation with a pediatric surgeon to repair the omphalocele and assess the
baby's airway.

D. Insert an IV to correct fluid and electrolyte losses.

E. * Insert an IV to provide glucose.
70. A maternal ultrasound reveals a baby with gastroschisis. What should the physician recommend to
the parents regarding the baby's management?
A. Amniocentesis and elective cesarean section once lung maturity is verified
B. * Serial ultrasound exams with induction of labor and vaginal delivery if polyhydramnios develops or
if the intestine appears increasingly dilated
C. Amniocentesis to determine presence of associated genetic defect
D. Fetal echocardiography to determine presence of associated cardiac defect
E. Serial ultrasound exams with delivery by cesarean section if polyhydramnios develops or if the
intestine appears increasingly dilated
71. Which of the following statements is true of infants with gastroschisis?
A. It is not associated with malrotation.
B. There is a high incidence of associated anomalies.
C. There is not prolonged adynamic ileus following repair.
D. * It is complicated by intestinal atresia in 10% to 12% of cases.
E. It is associated with chromosomal syndromes.
72. The pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following except:
A. Epigastric omphalocele.
B. Sternal cleft.
C. Intracardiac defect.
D. * Pericardial cyst.
E. Ectopia cordis.
73. Which of the following statements regarding gastroschisis are true?
A. Primary fascial closure can be achieved in only about 25% of these infants
B. These infants have an incidence of approximately 40% to 50% of associated anomalies
C. * Overall survival is approximately 80% to 90%
D. When the diagnosis is known prenatally, planned cesarean section is the safest method of delivery
E. It is associated with chromosomal syndromes.
74. Which clinical feature is not present in cloacal exstrophy?
A. Spinal abnormality
B. Hemibladders adjacent to exposed cecum
C. * Gastroschisis
D. Omphalocele
E. None of the above
75. An exomphalos is:
A. A strangulated umbilical hernia
B. * Synonymous with an omphalocele
C. A strangulated femoral hernia
D. A strangulated inguinal hernia
E. A sliding hernia
76. A patent processus vaginalis can lead to all of the following, except:
A. Funiculocele
B. * Omphalocele
C. Bubonocele
D. Scrotal hernia
E. Hydrocele

77. The following are correct regarding omphaloceles except:

A. is usually covered by a translucent membrane
B. is frequently associated with other congenital malformations
C. * is lateral to the umbilical stump
D. is within the umbilical ring
E. It is a congenital disease
78. The following are true about gastroschisis:
A. occurs lateral to the umbilical stump
B. can be diagnosed antenatally
C. at birth often have edematous matted intestinal loops
D. * all of the above
E. none of the above
79. Treatment of abdominal wall defects includes:
A. immediate surgical repair
B. pushing the intestines back into the abdominal cavity while still in the delivery room
C. * provide immediate optimal resuscitation and stabilization first, and then surgery
D. always do primary closure in both lesions
E. conservative treatment only
80. The closure of the distal parts of the umbilical arteries after birth forms which of the following
structures?
A. the ligamentum venosum
B. * the medial umbilical ligaments
C. the ligamentum teres hepatis
D. the ligamentum arteriosus
E. the urachus
81. Whenever the intestinal midgut loop fails to return from the umbilical cord into the abdominal cavity,
the defect is known as which of the following?
A. gastroschisis
B. * an omphalocele
C. Meckels diverticulum
D. a vitelline fistula
E. a left-sided colon
82. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to neonatal abdominal wall defects?
A. * The bowel in omphalocele is covered by a sac.
B. Gastroschisis is frequently associated with other anomalies.
C. A Silastic silo is rarely employed in management of these defects.
D. Mortality is higher in gastroschisis.
E. Operative management of omphalocele usually requires bowel resection.
83. A mother of a newborn complains of her baby's constant belching with undigested milk. Which
developmental anomaly is it an evidence of?
A. * Esophageal atresia
B. Faux lupinum
C. Labium leporium
D. Anal atresia
E. Esophageal fistula
84. A neonate in whom the anus was noted to be absent was observed to be occasionally passing urine
with traces of meconium, and clear urine on other occasions. Which type of anomaly is present?

A. Anal atresia
B. * Anal atresia with rectourethral fistula
C. Anal atresia with rectovesical fistula
D. Rectal atresia
E. Cloacal malformation
85. A male infant weighing 3 kg is born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at 37 weeks gestation. His
Apgar score is 6/9 at 1 and 5 minutes. The patient is in no apparent distress. Physical examination
reveals no anus. What is the most appropriate initial step in this patients management?
A. Colostomy
B. * Continued observation for 24 hours
C. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Posterior sagittal anorectoplasty
86. Which of the following statements concerning imperforate anus is true?
A. Imperforate anus affects males more frequently than females
B. In 90% of males, but only 50% of females, the rectum ends below the level of the levator ani
complex
C. The rectum usually ends in a blind pouch
D. * The chance for eventual continence is greater when the rectum has descended to below the levator ani
muscles
E. Immediate definitive repair of the anatomic defect is required to maximize the chance of eventual
continence
87. What percentage of children with anorectal malformations have co-existing anomalies of the urinary
tract?
A. 15-25%
B. 25-35%
C. 35-15%
D. 45-55%
E. * 55-65%
88. A newborn male infant has a low anorectal anomaly. What imaging modality is currently
recommended for initial imaging of his spine?
A. MRT
B. CT
C. * Spinal x-ray and ultrasound
D. Bone scan
E. Contrast myelography
89. Which of the following is not a recognized feature of the VACTERL association?
A. Vertebral anomalies
B. Anorectal anomalies
C. * Eye anomalies (coloboma)
D. Renal anomalies
E. Limb anomalies
90. Which of the following statements about surgical anatomy of the colon and rectum is/are correct?
A. The cecum has the largest inner diameter of all segments of the colon (13 to 15 cm.).
B. The rectosigmoid junction is situated at approximately 1,5 to 1,8 cm. from the anus.
C. The rectum is entirely an intraperitoneal organ.
D. The ileocolic, right colic, and middle colic arteries are branches from the inferior mesenteric artery.

E. * The arterial arcade created by communicating vessels at 1 to 2 cm. from the mesenteric is called the
artery of Drummond.
91. Which of the following does not cause bilious vomiting in an infant or child?
A. Intestinal malrotation and volvulus
B. * Pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Small bowel obstruction
E. Ulcerative colitis with colonic obstruction
92. Infants with anorectal anomalies tend to have other congenital anomalies. Associated abnormalities
include which of the following?
A. Abnormalities of the cervical spine
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Duodenal atresia
D. * Heart disease
E. Corneal opacities
93. Anal incontinence in a patient with rectal prolapse is primarily due to
A. loss of anal rectal angle
B. weakness of endopelvic fascia
C. * stretching of pudendal nerves
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
94. Which type of neonatal obstruction is the most likely to be linked to an associated anomaly?
A. Colonic
B. Ileal
C. Jejunal
D. * Duodenal
E. All of the above
95. In infants with duodenal atresia all the following statements are true except:
A. There is an increased incidence of Down syndrome.
B. Duodenal atresia can be detected by prenatal ultrasound examination.
C. It may occur in infants with situs inversus, malrotation, annular pancreas, and anterior portal vein.
D. * It is best treated by gastroenterostomy.
E. There is a high incidence of associated cardiac defects.
96. Which of the following statements regarding duodenal atresia are true?
A. Reconstruction is best achieved with duodenocolonostomy
B. When associated with an annular pancreas, division of the pancreas at the site of obstruction is
curative
C. * Bilious vomiting is typical because the obstruction is usually distal to the ampulla of Vater
D. Reconstruction is best achieved with Roux-en-Y duodenojejunostomy
E. All of the above
97. Which of the following signs and symptoms warrant surgical intervention for patients with small
bowel obstruction?
A. abdominal tenderness
B. air-fluid levels on abdominal x-ray
C. * worsening abdominal pain
D. feculent vomitus
E. air in the colon and rectum on abdominal x-ray

98. On a plain abdominal radiograph two liquid levels were visible. This testifies to the child having:
A. Pyloric atresia
B. Ileal atresia
C. Hirschsprungs disease
D. Ladds syndrome
E. * Duodenal atresia
99. A positive Farbers test is indicative of which pathological state?
A. Ladds syndrome
B. Ileal stenosis
C. Duodenal stenosis
D. Pancreatic cystic fibrosis
E. * Duodenal atresia
100. The infant begins to have progressively large amounts of bilious emesis. The infant feeds well and
has only a small amount of abdominal distention. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. pyloric stenosis
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. biliary atresia
D. * duodenal atresia
E. milk protein allergy
101. The infant have duodenal atresia. If you were to perform an abdominal x-ray, what is the most likely
finding that would be seen?
A. * double-bubble sign
B. scimitar sign
C. normal gas patterns
D. free fluid in the abdomen
E. pneumatosis intestinalis
102. An infant begins to vomit shortly after birth and his abdomen becomes distended. A radiograph of the
abdomen shows a "double-bubble" gas shadow. The infant's problem most likely is
A. congenital megacolon
B. malrotation
C. * duodenal atresia
D. esophageal atresia
E. tracheoesophageal fistula
103. A neonate has bilious vomiting and a doublebubble sign on plain x-ray. The most appropriate
operation is:
A. division of annular pancreas
B. gastroenterostomy
C. * duodenoduodenostomy
D. duodenal resection
E. duodenojejunostomy
104. For a symptomatic partial duodenal obstruction secondary to an annular pancreas, the operative
treatment of choice is
A. A Whipple procedure
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
D. Partial resection of the annular pancreas
E. * Duodenojejunostomy

105. A neonate has persistent vomiting of bilestained material. A two-way abdominal roentgenogram
shows double bubble sign. The most likely diagnosis is
A. annular pancreas
B. * duodenal atresia
C. congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
D. Meckels diverticulum
E. none of the above
106. Maternal polyhydramnios is associated with
A. esophageal atresia
B. duodenal atresia
C. jejunal atresia
D. * all of the above
E. none of the above
107. Which of the following is TRUE regarding duodenal atresia?
A. It is associated with trisomy 21 in 10% cases.
B. Abdominal X-ray is usually normal.
C. Results from disruption of fetal blood supply.
D. Operative repair involves duodenal resection.
E. * Concomitant abnormalities can include annular pancreas, esophageal atresia, or VACTERL lesions.
108. Polyhydramnios is frequently observed in all of the following conditions except:
A. Esophageal atresia.
B. Duodenal atresia.
C. Pyloric atresia.
D. * Hirschsprung's disease.
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia.
109. Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung's disease is false?
A. There are no ganglion cells seen in Auerbach's plexus.
B. There is an increased incidence of Down syndrome.
C. * It is more common in girls.
D. It may be associated with enterocolitis.
E. It may involve the small intestine.
110. Which of the followings statement regarding Hirschprungs disease are true?
A. * Suction rectal biopsy is virtually always diagnostic if the specimen includes submucosa
B. Hirschprungs disease is the result of a sex linked dominant gene
C. The endorectal pullthrough is demonstrably superior to other forms of surgical construction
D. Ten percent or more of patients have an excellent or good functional result following reconstructive
surgery
E. The important cause of mortality in contemporary practice is bleeding
111. Which of the following are typical causes of neonatal intestinal obstruction?
A. Intussusception
B. Tumors
C. * Hirschprungs disease
D. Meckels diverticulum
E. Incarcerated hernia
112. A newborn presents with a scaphoid abdomen and bilious emesis. Massive intestinal loss could occur
if which one of the following causes of neonatal bowel obstruction is not quickly identified and
treated?

A. Pyloric stenosis
B. * Malrotation with volvulus
C. Meconium ileus
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
113. Thirty-six hours after delivery, an otherwise healthy term infant has not yet passed meconium (has
not yet had a bowel movement). Which one of these modalities would not be an appropriate step in
the child's workup?
A. Suction rectal biopsy
B. Contrast enema
C. * Colonoscopy
D. Chromosomes for delta F-508
E. Plain abdominal radiography
114. All of the following are associated with an increased incidence of abdominal wound dehiscence
EXCEPT
A. bringing a stoma through the incision
B. * closure of the wound with a continuous suture
C. presence of ascites
D. presence of jaundice
E. use of braided sutures
115. The most effective method of treating Ladds syndrome is:
A. Conservative management
B. * Ladds operation
C. Soaves operation
D. Colostomy
E. Hirschsprungs operation
116. Which of the following is the most informative in diagnosis of HD?
A. * Biopsy
B. Plain radiography
C. Contrast enema
D. Endoscopy
E. Ultrasonography
117. Which of the following is not a method of surgical management in HD?
A. Duhamels operation
B. Swensons operation
C. Soaves operation
D. * Ladds operation
E. Rehbeins operation
118. Which is not indicative of HD?
A. Aganglionic bowel on biopsy
B. Abnormal recto-anal inhibitory reflex
C. Abdominal distention
D. * Abdominal pain
E. Constipation
119. All the following statements concerning Hirschsprung's disease in children are true EXCEPT
A. * an absence of ganglion cells in a dilated segment of the colon is the underlying problem
B. constipation is a classic symptom and almost always begins in the early days of life

C. fecal incontinence is unusual in older affected children

D. rectal examination of affected patients usually reveals an empty rectal ampulla
E. temporary colostomy prior to definitive surgical correction is frequently the treatment of choice
120. Trisomy 21 is associated with wich diseases:
A. malrotation
B. * endocardial cushion defect
C. c cleft palate
D. renal disease
E. sensorineural hearing loss
121. The nurse points out a two day old healthy term infant who is otherwise ready for discharge who still
has not passed meconium. Your next step is:
A. Order a suppository prior to discharge.
B. Careful physical examination, including digital rectal examination.
C. Give a normal saline enema to prep for a barium enema.
D. * Call radiologist to discuss an unprepped barium enema
E. Rectal biopsy.
122. Which of the following is characteristic of Hirschsprungs disease?
A. * Constipation is the most frequent presenting feature.
B. Severity of the symptoms corresponds with the extent of bowel involvement.
C. Acetylcholinesterase activity is decreased in the aganglionic segment.
D. The proximal colon is most commonly affected.
E. It presents most commonly in young adults.
123. The nurse points out a two day old healthy term infant who is otherwise ready for discharge who still
has not passed meconium. Your next step is:
A. Order a suppository prior to discharge.
B. Careful physical examination, including digital rectal examination.
C. Give a normal saline enema to prep for a barium enema.
D. * Call radiologist to discuss an unprepped barium enema
E. Rectal biopsy.
124. Regarding neonatal Hirschsprungs disease:
A. diagnosis is confirmed by barium enema
B. * enterocolitis is the leading cause of death
C. mainly affects females
D. shows absent nerve trunks in the aganglionic segments
E. It is associated with a high incidence of genitourinary tract anomalies
125. What is the most common serious complication of an end colostomy?
A. Bleeding
B. Skin breakdown
C. * Parastomal hernia
D. Colonic perforation during irrigation
E. Stomal prolapsed
126. Which of the following statements concerning Hirschsprungs disease is true?
A. * It is initially treated by colostomy
B. It is best diagnosed in the newborn period by barium enema
C. It is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the transverse colon
D. It is associated with a high incidence of genitourinary tract anomalies
E. It is the congenital disease that most commonly leads to subsequent fecal incontinence

127. All of the following statements concerning Hirschsprungs disease are correct EXCEPT that
A. constipation is the most frequent presenting feature
B. enterocolitis is the major cause of death
C. severity of the symptoms corresponds with the extent of bowel involvement
D. * acetylcholinesterase activity is increased in the aganglionic segment of the bowel
E. serum and erythrocyte acetylcholinesterase activity is increased
128. Which of the following findings is considered diagnostic of Hirschsprungs disease on histologic
examination of a rectal biopsy specimen?
A. hypertrophy of the muscle coat of the wall of the rectum
B. atrophy of the mucosal lining of the wall of the rectum
C. absence of the nerve fibers that innervate the wall of the rectum
D. * absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexus
E. presence of multiple small polyps along the mucosal surface of the rectal wall
129. A full-term newborn has not passed meconuim by DOL 2. Which of the following is FALSE
regarding his likely diagnosis?
A. It is more common in males.
B. * Suction rectal biopsy is rarely adequate for diagnosis.
C. Enterocolitis is a significant cause of mortality.
D. Disease is most often confined to the distal colon.
E. Barium enema may be normal.
130. The initial treatment of choice for a 2.5-kg. infant with a 20.0-cm. long proximal jejunal atresia and
8.0 cm. of distal ileum is:
A. Laparotomy, nasogastric suction, proximal dilatation to lengthen the atretic jejunum, total parenteral
nutrition, and delayed anastomosis.
B. Laparotomy and proximal end-jejunostomy.
C. Laparotomy and immediate small bowel transplantation.
D. Laparotomy and double-barrel enterostomy (jejunum and ileum), with refeeding of jejunal contents
into distal ileum and delayed anastomosis.
E. * Laparotomy, tapering jejunoplasty, and end-to-oblique jejunoileal anastomosis.
131. Which of the following is the cause of predisposition for midgut volvulus in patients with
malrotation?
A. Twisting of the bowel on itself while the bowel is returning to the abdominal cavity from physiologic
herniation
B. * Formation of a narrow-base mesentery as the gut lengthens on the superior mesenteric artery without
rotation
C. Improperly formed peritoneal bands that pull the bowel into a twisted position
D. Arrest in development at stage III of normal embryological gastrointestinal development
E. None of the above
132. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. At the fourth week of gestation, the GI tract is a straight tube centrally located in the fetal abdomen.
B. During the fifth week of gestation, the first stage of rotation begins and lasts until the tenth week.
C. The superior mesenteric artery has its axis in line with the omphalomesenteric duct, and the primitive
gut normally rotates in a counterclockwise direction.
D. The second stage of rotation occurs between the tenth and twelfth weeks of gestation and involves the
return of the intestine to the fetal abdominal cavity.
E. * At the completion of the normal rotation, the duodenojejunal junction is not fixed to the left of the
aorta and the cecum has loose attachments to the right abdominal wall.
133. Which of the following is the most informative in diagnosing Ladds syndrome?

A. Complete blood count

B. Plain thoracic radiography
C. Bronchoscopy
D. * Contrast radiography
E. Plain abdominal radiography
134. On a plain abdominal radiograph two liquid levels were visible. This testifies to the child having:
A. Pyloric atresia
B. Ileal atresia
C. Hirschsprungs disease
D. Ladds syndrome
E. * Duodenal atresia
135. The most effective method of treating Ladds syndrome is:
A. Conservative management
B. * Ladds operation
C. Soaves operation
D. Colostomy
E. Hirschsprungs operation
136. Which of the following signs and symptoms warrant surgical intervention for patients with small
bowel obstruction?
A. abdominal tenderness
B. air-fluid levels on abdominal x-ray
C. * worsening abdominal pain
D. feculent vomitus
E. air in the colon and rectum on abdominal x-ray
137. Which of the following does not cause bilious vomiting in an infant or child?
A. Intestinal malrotation and volvulus
B. * Pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Small bowel obstruction
E. Ulcerative colitis with colonic obstruction
138. The primitive intestinal loop rotates around an axis formed by which of the following arteries?
A. the inferior epigastric
B. the superior epigastric
C. the obturator
D. the inferior mesenteric
E. * the superior mesenteric
139. Malrotation with volvulus is most likely to be present in which of the following patients?
A. A healthy 15-month-old with severe paroxysmal abdominal pain and vomiting
B. A 15-year-old sexually active girl with lower abdominal pain
C. * A 3-day-old term infant with bilious emesis, lethargy, and abdominal distension
D. A 4-day-old premature baby (33-week gestation) who has recently started nasogastric feeds; he now
has abdominal distention, bloody stools, and thrombocytopenia
E. A 7-year-old girl with abdominal pain, vomiting, fever, and diarrhea
140. A 3-day-old boy presents with 12 hours of bilious vomiting, abdominal pain, and abdominal
distension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Order an abdominal ultrasonography.
B. Order a computerized tomography scan of the abdomen.

C. * Order a upper GI contrast series.

D. Order a barium enema.
E. Order a chest radiograph.
141. A 3-wk-old baby, previously well, presents with sudden onset of bilious vomiting. What study is
most appropriate?
A. Abdominal X-ray.
B. CT scan.
C. * Upper GI series.
D. Barium enema.
E. Esophageal pH studies.
142. What organ systems are affected by CF and what are the clinical manifestations?
A. Pulmonary
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Hepatic
D. Reproductive
E. * All of the above
143. Which of the following are typical causes of neonatal intestinal obstruction?
A. Intussusception
B. * Meconium ileus
C. Tumors
D. Meckels diverticulum
E. Incarcerated hernia
144. Which of the following is not a component of meconium disease of infancy?
A. Meconium ileus
B. Meconium peritonitis
C. Meconium plug syndrome
D. Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE)
E. * Meconium stenosis syndrome
145. Which of the following is the pathogenetic basis for meconium ileus?
A. Congenital hepatitis
B. Ileal stenosis
C. * Pancreatic cystic fibrosis
D. Portal hypertension
E. Volvulus neonatorum
146. A positive Farbers test is indicative of which pathological state?
A. Ladds syndrome
B. Ileal stenosis
C. Duodenal stenosis
D. Pancreatic cystic fibrosis
E. * Duodenal atresia
147. The percentage of CF patients with pancreatic exocrine dysfunction (decreased lipase, amylase, etc.)
is:
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. * 85%
E. 5%

148. An abnormal sweat test is:

A. supportive of the diagnosis of duodenal atresia
B. diagnostic of cystic fibrosis
C. * supportive of the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
D. has been replaced by genetic testing
E. an abnormal sodium value
149. The most common CF gene is:
A. R1066C
B. * Delta F508
C. Not detected by genetic screening
D. Present in less than 40% of patients
E. none of the above
150. The percentage of CF patients with sinus opacification and/or infection is:
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. * 95%
151. What percentage of CF male patients have azoospermia
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. * 95%
152. The CFTR gene is located on chromosome:
A. 5
B. * 7
C. 9
D. 11
E. 13
153. The life expectancy of newly diagnosed patients with cystic fibrosis is:
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
E. * 30 years
154. Organisms characteristically isolated from the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis includes all the
following except:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. * Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Burkholderia cepacia
155. Regarding meconium ileus
A. * Is a rare cause of neonatal intestinal obstruction
B. Less than 5% of cases are associated with cystic fibrosis

C. Obstruction usually occurs in the distal ileum

D. Presents with neonatal bile-stained vomiting and abdominal distension
E. A plain x-ray may show an intra-luminal 'ground glass' appearance
156. All the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT
A. the incidence in whites is about 1 in 2000
B. it may present in the newborn period with meconium ileus
C. * it is an autosomal dominant disease
D. hepatic involvement is due to inspissated biliary secretions
E. chronic hypoxia, hypercapnia, and acidosis produce pulmonary hypertension
157. Which of the following is FALSE regarding meconium ileus?
A. Underlying diagnosis is usually cystic fibrosis.
B. * Most often requires operative intervention.
C. Presents as a neonatal bowel obstruction.
D. X-rays may reveal a stippled pattern in the RLQ (soap bubble sign).
E. May be relieved by water-soluble contrast enema.
158. The most important ion to replace in a patient dehydrated after several days of emesis from an pyloric
stenosis is
A. bicarbonate
B. * chloride
C. hydrogen
D. potassium
E. sodium
159. All of the following are associated with an increased incidence of abdominal wound dehiscence
EXCEPT
A. bringing a stoma through the incision
B. * closure of the wound with a continuous suture
C. presence of ascites
D. presence of jaundice
E. use of braided sutures
160. Which of the following does not cause bilious vomiting in an infant or child?
A. Intestinal malrotation and volvulus
B. * Pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Small bowel obstruction
E. Ulcerative colitis with colonic obstruction
161. Persistent vomiting with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis usually causes what electrolyte imbalance?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. * Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. None of the above
162. A mother of a newborn complains of her baby's constant belching with undigested milk. Which
developmental anomaly is it an evidence of?
A. * Esophageal atresia
B. Faux lupinum
C. Labium leporium
D. Anal atresia

E. Esophageal fistula
163. On a plain abdominal radiograph two liquid levels were visible. This testifies to the child having:
A. Pyloric atresia
B. Ileal atresia
C. Hirschsprungs disease
D. Ladds syndrome
E. * Duodenal atresia
164. What developes in cases with decompensated pyloric stenosis:
A. * Isotonic dehydration.
B. Hypertonic dehydration [eksikosis].
C. Hypotonic dehydration.
D. Intoxication.
E. Renal insufficiency.
165. Which of the following does not cause bilious vomiting in an infant or child?
A. Intestinal malrotation and volvulus
B. * Pyloric stenosis
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Small bowel obstruction
E. Ulcerative colitis with colonic obstruction
166. The patient undergoes pyloromyotomy. During the procedure, a deep mucosal injury is noted at the
distal aspect of the incision. How should this patients mucosal injury be managed?
A. Closure of the mucosal defect with the myotomy intact
B. Closure of the mucosal and muscular defects with repeat myotomy at a later date
C. * Closure of the mucosal and muscular defects with repeat myotomy on another side of the pylorus
D. Wide local drainage and antibiotics
E. Wide local drainage, antibiotics, and 10 to 14 days of postpyloric tube feeding
167. Which of the following sets of electrolytes could be seen with HPS (Na, K, Cl, bicarb):
A. 130, 2.7, 90, 28
B. 130, 5.8, 94, 22
C. * 130, 3.9, 98, 17
D. 148, 4.1, 108, 13
E. 148, 2.7, 90, 13
168. The most important element in the history of an infant with vomiting is:
A. the frequency of vomiting
B. the amount of vomiting
C. the presence of fever
D. if vomiting is projectile
E. * if vomiting is bile stained
169. Regarding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. * more common in males
B. most commonly presents in the first week of life
C. vomit is typically bile stained
D. diagnosis should be confirmed with upper gastrointestinal contrast study
E. most commonly presents in the first year of life
170. Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is consistent with pyloric stenosis?
A. Na 134, K 4.8, C1 114, bicarb 9, glucose 101

B. * Na 135, K 3.5, CI 86, bicarb 37, glucose 69

C. Na 130, K 5.0, C1 102, bicarb 14, glucose 400
D. Na 128, K 6.0, CI 95, bicarb 21, glucose 59
E. Na 150, K 6.0, C1 110, bicarb 25, glucose 75
171. A 6-week-old male infant has projectile emesis after feeding. He has an olive-shaped abdominal mass
on abdominal examination. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. * He likely has hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.
B. He likely has metabolic acidosis.
C. This condition is more common in female infants.
D. He should be restarted on feeds when the vomiting resolves.
E. He likely will develop diarrhea.
172. A 5-week-old boy presents with 3 days of non-bilious projectile vomiting and dehydration. Which of
the following is TRUE about his condition?
A. Immediate laparotomy is warranted.
B. UGI series is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
C. Delay in diagnosis leads to metabolic acidosis.
D. Most commonly seen in females.
E. * Fluid replacement consists of ? NS + KCL
173. All of the following conditions are derived from the primitive embryonic foregut except:
A. Bronchogenic cyst.
B. Cystic adenomatoid malformation.
C. Gastric duplication.
D. * Mesenteric cyst.
E. Pulmonary sequestration.
174. Of the following cystic malformations of the tracheobronchial tree, which is most likely to be
asymptomatic when discovered?
A. Intralobar pulmonary sequestration
B. * Extralobar pulmonary sequestration
C. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
D. Congenital lobar emphysema
E. None of the above
175. The definitive evaluation of a child with a suspected congenital cystic abnormality of the
tracheobronchial tree is best done using which of the following?
A. Rigid bronchoscopy
B. * Computerized tomography or magnetic resonance imaging
C. Chest x-ray
D. Angiography
E. Barium esophagogram
176. Which of the following lesions contain no cartilage?
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. * Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
C. Congenital lobar emphysema
D. Both of the above
E. Neither of the above
177. Which of the following lesions is a form of foregut cyst?
A. * Bronchogenic cyst
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

C. Congenital lobar emphysema

D. Both of the above
E. Neither of the above
178. Which of the following lesions is usually associated (has a direct connection or communication) with
the tracheobronchial tree?
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. * Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
C. Congenital lobar emphysema
D. Both of the above
E. Neither of the above
179. In symptomatic lesions, both CCAM and bronchogenic cysts should be resected. In which of the
following, can asymptomatic lesions be followed clinically?
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
C. Congenital lobar emphysema
D. Both of the above
E. * Neither of the above
180. Which of the following lesions frequently cause symptoms by mass effect?
A. Bronchogenic cyst
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
C. Congenital lobar emphysema
D. * Bronchogenic cyst & Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
E. Neither of the above
181. Which type of CCAM has the best prognosis?
A. Type 0
B. * Type I
C. Type II
D. Type III
E. Type IV
182. Which type of CCAM is most common?
A. Type 0
B. * Type I
C. Type II
D. Type III
E. Type IV
183. A 9-year-old girl has had recurrent pulmonary infections. Chest roentgenography reveals an anterior
mediastinal mass. All the following conditions could result in an anterior mediastinal mass EXCEPT
A. teratoma
B. thymoma
C. lymphoma
D. thymic cyst
E. * bronchogenic cyst
184. Which statement is false regarding extrapulmonary sequestration?
A. The parenchyma is not connected to the tracheobronchial tree
B. Arterial blood supply is systemic
C. * Venous blood supply is pulmonary
D. Most frequently in males

E. Commonly associated with other anomalies

185. In neonates with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which of the following statements is true?
A. The defect is more common on the right side.
B. Survival is significantly improved by administration of pulmonary vasodilators.
C. An oxygen index of 20 is an indication for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO).
D. Oligohydramnios is a frequent occurrence.
E. * Mortality is the result of pulmonary hypoplasia.
186. The most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is caused by:
A. A defect in the central tendon.
B. Eventration of the diaphragm in the fetus.
C. A defect through the space of Larrey.
D. An abnormally wide esophageal hiatus.
E. * A defect through the pleuroperitoneal fold.
187. Which of the following statements regarding congenital diaphragmatic hernia are true?
A. The incidence of right and left-sided lesions is equal
B. Malrotation is not to be expected
C. Left-to-right shunting via a patent ductus arteriosus is a serious but expected physiologic
consequence of pulmonary hypoplasia
D. Survival rates of 5% are reported in several contemporary series
E. * Congenital heart disease is present in approximately 20% of these infants
188. There is an emerging consensus that the surgical repair for congenital diaphragmatic hernia is best
done:
A. Emergently at the bedside, eliminating the risks of transporting an unstable neonate
B. * While on extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
C. When the infant is potentially extubatable
D. Within the first 48 to 72 hours of life
E. All of the above
189. Which of the following hernias is diaphragmatic?
A. Richters hernia
B. * Bogdalechs hernia
C. Amyands hernia
D. Littres hernia
E. None of the above
190. In congenital diaphragmatic hernia all are seen exept-
A. Common on left side
B. * Abdominal distension
C. Can be detected antenatally
D. Heart beat shifted to right
E. Bowel sound in the chest
191. The earliest way to diagnose a diaphragmatic hernia is:
A. by physical exam
B. by history
C. * by fetal ultrasound
D. by fetal CT scan
E. by fetal MRI
192. The following are correct regarding diaphragmatic hernia except:
A. is usually on the left side

B. is frequently associated with hypoplastic lungs

C. can present similar to a tension pneumothorax
D. bowel sound in the chest
E. * is frequently asymptomatic at birth
193. The following are true about diaphragmatic hernias:
A. often have scaphoid abdomen on exam
B. can be diagnosed antenatally by ultrasound
C. at birth often have persistent cyanosis and respiratory distress
D. * all of the above
E. none of the above
194. Treatment of diaphragmatic hernia includes:
A. immediate surgical repair
B. pulling the intestines back into the abdominal cavity while still in the delivery room
C. * provide immediate optimal resuscitation and stabilization first, and then surgery
D. always do primary closure of the diaphragm
E. all of the above
195. The true statement for diaphragmatic hernia below is:
A. The surgeon does not need to worry about medical problems as the neonatologist will already have
treated them.
B. There are essentially no medical problems after surgical repair.
C. * Improved ultrasound diagnosis has resulted in some women seeking termination of pregnancy.
D. The long term outcome of survivors reveals no significant chronic pulmonary problems.
E. All enumarated
196. You are assisting in the nursery and are the first to examine a newborn. On your examination you find
a palpable abdominal mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * hydronephrosis
B. neuroblastoma
C. Wilms tumor
D. hepatoma
E. diaphragmatic hernia
197. The main cause of postoperative death in children with chronic diaphragmatic hernia is:
A. increased intra-abdominal pressure
B. persistent lung collapse
C. patent ductus arteriosus
D. * abnormal pulmonary microvasculature
E. all of the above
198. In determining the proper treatment for a sliding hiatal hernia, the most useful step would be
A. Barium swallow with cinefluoroscopy during Valsalva maneuver
B. * Flexible endoscopy
C. 24-h monitoring of esophageal pH
D. Measuring the size of the hernia
E. Assessing the patients smoking and drinking history
199. Which of the following is most common after primary esophagostomy for esophageal atresia with a
distal tracheoesophageal fistula?
A. Anastomotic leak
B. Esophageal stricture
C. Recurrent tracheoesophageal fistula

D. * Gastroesophageal reflux
E. Tracheomalacia requiring aortopexy
200. A mother of a newborn complains of her baby's constant belching with undigested milk. Which
developmental anomaly is it an evidence of?
A. * Esophageal atresia
B. Faux lupinum
C. Labium leporium
D. Anal atresia
E. Esophageal fistula
201. Esophageal atresia is diagnosed immediately after birth on the basis of:
A. Excessive salivation and foaming at the mouth
B. Excessive vomiting on feeding
C. * Esophageal catheterization
D. Respiratory distress
E. Abdominal distention
202. Which of the following statements about the anatomic course of the esophagus is correct?
A. The cervical esophagus passes behind and to the right of the trachea.
B. The thoracic esophagus enters the posterior mediastinum anterior to the aortic arch.
C. The thoracic esophagus passes behind the right mainstem bronchus and the pericardium.
D. The esophagus enters the diaphragmatic hiatus at the level of T8.
E. * The esophagus deviates anteriorly and to the left as it enters the abdomen.
203. Which of the following statements about esophageal anatomy is correct?
A. The esophagus has a poor blood supply, which is segmental in distribution and accounts for the high
incidence of anastomotic leakage.
B. The esophageal serosa consists of a thin layer of fibroareolar tissue.
C. * The esophagus has two distinct muscle layers, an outer, longitudinal one and an inner, circular one,
which are striated in the upper third and smooth in the distal two thirds.
D. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve results in vocal cord dysfunction but does not affect
swallowing.
E. The lymphatic drainage of the esophagus is relatively sparse, localized primarily to adjacent
paraesophageal lymph nodes.
204. Which of the following statements about the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) mechanism, or high-
pressure zone (HPZ), is true?
A. The LES is a circular smooth muscle ring that is 3 to 5 cm. long.
B. * In assessing esophageal manometric data, mean HPZ pressure less than 6 mm. Hg or overall length
less than 2 cm. is more likely to be associated with incompetence of the LES and gastroesophageal
reflux.
C. Esophageal manometry and the acid perfusion (Bernstein) test reliably identify the patient with an
incompetent LES mechanism.
D. Distal HPZ relaxation occurs within 5 to 8 seconds of initiating a swallow.
E. Twenty-fourhour distal esophageal pH monitoring is achieved with an intraesophageal pH electrode
positioned at the esophagogastric junction.
205. The best management for a 48-hour-old distal esophageal perforation is:
A. Antibiotics and drainage.
B. Division of the esophagus and exclusion of the perforation.
C. * Primary repair with buttressing.
D. Resection with cervical esophagostomy, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy.
E. T-tube fistula and drainage.

206. When a stricture is present in association with gastroesophageal reflux, each of the following is an
acceptable repair for reflux control except one. Identify the poorest repair.
A. Intrathoracic total fundoplication.
B. Lengthening gastroplasty with total fundoplication.
C. Total fundoplication.
D. Lengthening gastroplasty with partial fundoplication.
E. * Partial fundoplication.
207. Which of the following is most reliable for confirming the occurrence of a significant esophageal
caustic injury?
A. History of the event.
B. Physical examination of the patient.
C. Barium esophagraphy.
D. * CT scaning
E. Endoscopy.
208. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the blood supply and lymphatic drainage
of the esophagus?
A. The thoracic esophagus receives no direct branches from the aorta therefore allowing the technique of
transhiatal (blunt) esophagectomy
B. Bleeding esophageal varices are most prominent in the mid-esophagus
C. Lymphatic drainage of the lower third of the esophagus goes entirely to the abdominal lymphatic
system
D. * Nodal involvement in esophageal cancer is quite common even if the tumor is limited to the level of
the submucosa
E. All of the above
209. Regarding the anatomy of the esophagus:
A. the cervical esophagus lies to the right of the midline
B. the thoracic esophagus is anterior to the aortic arch
C. the left vagus nerve passes posterior to the esophagus
D. * the cervical esophagus is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery
E. the abdominal esophagus is supplied by the right gastric artery
210. Which of the following contributes to the arterial supply of the thoracic esophagus?
A. right gastric artery
B. * bronchial artery
C. pulmonary artery
D. innominate artery
E. inferior thyroid artery
211. An infant with a history of recurrent pneumonia is diagnosed with TEF at 8 months of age. Which of
the following statements is correct?
A. * The infant most likely has a H-type TEF.
B. The infant most likely has proximal esophageal atresia with distal fistula.
C. The infant likely has a previously undetected, associated finding of imperforate anus.
D. The infant is unlikely to have gastroesophageal reflux.
E. The infant is likely to have cystic fibrosis.
212. A 2-year-old girl with a history of esophageal atresia and a ventricular septal defect is hospitalized
with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Her immunodeficiency is likely a result of which of the
following?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. Chronic granulomatous disease

C. * DiGeorge syndrome
D. Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome
E. Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
213. A 2-year-old boy, living with new foster parents for 3 weeks, has become progressively short of
breath. When he first arrived at their home, he was active and playful, but now he is too tired to play.
They have few details, but they know that he had neonatal surgery for a problem with his esophagus
being connected to his lungs and that he takes no medications. On examination, he is afebrile,
diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. His symptoms can most likely be attributed to which of the
following?
A. Adjustment disorder
B. * Heart failure secondary to ventricular septal defect
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Reactive airway disease
E. Rheumatic heart disease

(): : 11
Pediatric Surgery-situation tasks
:
6c-med. Final control
:
1. ?A newborn male is brought to you in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). On physical
examination, you notice that the infant has deficient abdominal musculature and undescended testes.
Your suspicion is high for a certain condition. You presumptively diagnose the child with which of
the following?
A. VATER association
B. Cushings triad
C. Potters syndrome
D. Jones criteria
E. * Eagle-Barrett syndrome
2. While performing a routine digital examination of the inguinal region in a healthy child, the
physician felt a walnut-sized lump protruding from the superficial inguinal ring. She correctly
concluded that it was :
A. * definitely an indirect inguinal herniapossibly an unusual femoral hernia
B. definitely a direct inguinal hernia
C. possibly an enlarged superficial inguinal lymph node
D. either a direct or an indirect inguinal hernia
E. definitely a femoral hernia
3. A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the emergency room for having large bowel obstruction resulting
from a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia. The most likely intestinal segment involved in this
obstruction is the:
A. ascending colon
B. cecum
C. descending colon
D. rectum
E. * sigmoid colon
4. A 15-year-old man had developed a direct inguinal hernia several months after having an emergency
appendectomy. The examining doctor linked the cause of hernia to accidental nerve injury that
happened during appendectomy and weakened the falx inguinalis. Which nerve had been injured?
A. Femoral branch of the genitofemoral
B. Genital branch of the genitofemoral
C. * Ilioinguinal
D. Subcostal
E. Ventral primary ramus of T10
5. During exploratory surgery of the abdomen, an incidental finding was a herniation of bowel between
the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis muscle, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric
vessels. These boundaries defined the hernia as a(n)
A. Congenital inguinal hernia
B. * Direct inguinal hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Indirect inguinal hernia
E. Umbilical hernia
6. A7-month-old baby presents with a history of constipation for 1 month. He has one hard stool every
week. He has been well otherwise. His physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of his problem?

A. hypothyroidism
B. lead poisoning
C. * functional constipation
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. hypocalcemia
7. A previously healthy 16-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after the sudden
onset of abdominal and scrotal pain. There is severe tenderness in the region of the inguinal canal on
the right; the right side of the scrotum is empty. Urinalysis shows normal findings. Which of the
following is the most effective initial management?
A. Administration of analgesics and observation
B. Administration of gonadotropic hormones
C. Insertion of a nasogastric tube
D. Cystoscopy
E. * Immediate operation
8. A 18-year-old school basketball player comes to the physician because of a left-sided scrotal mass; he
first noticed the mass 2 weeks ago after he was hit with the ball in the left groin during a game.
Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. A 3-cm nontender mass is palpated near the
superior pole of the left testis; the mass is nontender and does not transilluminate. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Hematoma
C. Hernia
D. Hydrocele
E. * Tumor
9. A 17-year-old boy comes to the physician because of right groin pain for 2 hours; elevation of the
scrotum does not relieve the pain. There is no history of trauma. He is sexually active and has had
multiple sexual partners over the past 3 years. He does not use condoms regularly. He had chlamydial
urethritis 1 year ago treated with doxycycline. Examination shows an enlarged, swollen,
erythematous, and acutely tender right scrotum. The left testis is found in a horizontal position; the
cremasteric reflex is absent on the right. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Hemorrhagic tumor
C. Incarcerated hernia
D. * Torsion of the testicle
E. Torsion of the testicular appendix
10. A 6-month-old Latino infant is brought to the office by his parents because of intermittent swelling in
his right scrotum. They say the swelling is more pronounced when he cries. The swelling has never
been red or "stuck." A right inguinal hernia is confirmed on physical examination. In discussing
repair of the hernia with the parents, you should inform them which of the following?
A. Herniorrhaphy can be postponed until age 2 years because many hernias close spontaneously
B. Herniorrhaphy can be postponed until age 12 years because oligospermia does not develop before age
12
C. * Herniorrhaphy should be scheduled at the earliest convenient time
D. Herniorrhaphy should be scheduled as an emergency
E. There is no need to repair a hernia in childhood unless incarceration occurs
11. A careful history is necessary in all patients being considered for inguinal hernia repair. Symptoms
which deserve investigation and appropriate treatment prior to proceeding with inguinal hernia repair
include:
A. Chronic cough

B. Urinary hesitancy and straining

C. Change in bowel habit
D. * All of the above
E. None of the above
12. A patient complains of pathological lump, appearing in the right inguinal region on exercise. The
lump is round-shaped. 4 cm in diameter, on palpation: soft elastic consistency; positions near the
medial part of Poupart's ligament. The lump is situated inwards from the spermatic cord. What is the
most probable preliminary diagnosis?
A. Lipoma of the right inguinal area
B. Right-sided femoral hernia
C. Right-sided oblique inguinal hernia
D. Varicose veins of the right hip
E. * Right-sided direct inguinal hernia
13. A 17-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of nausea, vomiting, crampy
abdominal pain and abdominal distention. Her medical history includes cholecystectomy and
appendectomy 5 years ago. X-ray film of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of her symptoms?
A. * Adhesive band
B. Femoral hernia
C. Gallstone ileus
D. Perforated diverticulum
E. Sigmoid colon carcinoma
14. An African American woman brings her 2-month-oId son to the clinic because she is worried about a
lump on his abdomen. "That thing sticks out whenever he cries and strains" says the mother as she
points to the infant's abdomen. The child has not had any symptoms since birth and has been gaining
weight and height along the 80th percentile. On physical examination you notice a mass located at
the site of the umbilicus that protrudes as the child begins crying. It is reducible. At this time the most
appropriate management is
A. * observation on an outpatient basis
B. strapping
C. surgical reduction
D. transcutaneous nerve stimulation of the rectus abdominis
E. ultrasound of the abdomen
15. A previously healthy 18-year-old man comes to the office complaining of a 1-week history of left
scrotal swelling. He initially noticed it shortly after moving furniture for his new living room. He
denies any nausea, vomiting, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or urinary tract symptoms. On
examination, he has an enlarged left hemi-scrotum with a reducible mass that is clearly distinct from
the testicle. With the mass reduced, you ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and you
feel a protrusion at the external inguinal ring. Also, the testicles appear normal in size and
consistency when the mass is reduced. The most correct statement regarding this patient's condition
is:
A. Definitive treatment includes an abdominal binder.
B. Emergent surgery is necessary.
C. The mass is caused by compression of his left renal vein.
D. * This mass may become strangulated.
E. Tumor markers should be drawn before surgery.

16. A14-year-old boy presents with sudden onset of pain and swelling of his right testicle. There was no
history of trauma, he is not sexually active, and denies any history of penile discharge. On
examination, the scrotum is swollen and tender. The cremasteric reflex is absent. A testicular flow
scan shows a cold spot or absent flow to the affected side. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. inguinal hernia
B. hydrocele
C. epididymitis
D. * testicular torsion
E. torsion of the appendix testis
17. A 18-year-old previously healthy man is scheduled for elective inguinal hernia repair under general
anesthesia. After induction of anesthesia and initial inguinal incision, the patient develops
tachycardia, muscle rigidity, fever of 38.5C, and elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. pneumonia
B. atelectasis
C. urinary tract infection
D. myocardial infarction
E. * malignant hyperthermia
18. A term infant is born at a small community hospital by cesarean section for failure to progress. The
infant is noted to have the omphalocele.Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. IV antibiotics alone
B. emergency surgery for reduction
C. monitor for spontaneous closure, with surgical intervention for persistent fascial defect
D. * IV fluids, IV antibiotics, warm occlusive dressing, and transfer to a center with a pediatric surgeon
E. elective umbilical exploration
19. A neonate is examined in the nursery and found to have no anal orifice; only a small perineal
fistulous opening is visualized. Decision as to the operative approach necessitates determining how
high or low the anus has descended. Which of the following statements concerning imperforate anus
is true?
A. Imperforate anus affects males more frequently than females
B. In females, a low imperforate anus often occurs with a persistent cloaca
C. The rectum usually ends in a blind pouch
D. * The chance for eventual commence is greater when the rectum has descended to below the levator ani
muscles
E. Immediate definitive repair of the anatomic defect is required to maximize the chance of eventual
continence
20. You are called to the newborn nursery to see a full-term infant who is vomiting at 24 hours of age.
The baby was born to a 40-year-old mother who has no significant past medical history. The initial
physical examination at 4 hours of age revealed findings of mild hypotonia, small, low-set ears, and
Brushfield spots. Taking these findings into consideration, the best initial test to order is
A. * an abdominal x-ray
B. an echocardiogram and electrocardiogram
C. electrolytes, BUN, and creatinine
D. an MRI of the head
E. serum T4 and TS11 levels

21. Marked abdominal distention was noticed in the fifth day of life of a neonate female with intestinal
loops visible on the anterior abdominal wall. Meconium was discharged after an enema. On a plain
abdominal radiograph, the large intestine was found to be distended. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Ladds syndrome
B. Ileal stenosis
C. * Hirschsprungs disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Intususception
22. A full-term baby boy was noted in the immediate neonatal period to fail to pass meconium.
Progressive abdominal distention was noted. Multiple laboratory and clinical tests lead to a decision
to perform a rectal biopsy. What is the most important histologic finding that you expect to see in the
rectal biopsy?
A. ischemic necrosis of the bowel mucosa
B. acute ulcerative colitis
C. granulomatous inflammation
D. * absence of ganglion cells in the rectal mucosa and submucosa
E. a malignant tumor
23. A full-term baby boy was noted in the immediate neonatal period to fail to pass meconium.
Progressive abdominal distention was noted. Multiple laboratory and clinical tests lead to a decision
to perform a rectal biopsy. The treatment of choice for Hirschsprung disease is which of the
following?
A. laxatives
B. colonoscopy with relief of the obstruction
C. * surgical therapy
D. antiperistaltic drugs
E. chemotherapy
24. A full-term baby boy was noted in the immediate neonatal period to fail to pass meconium.
Progressive abdominal distention was noted. Multiple laboratory and clinical tests lead to a decision
to perform a rectal biopsy. What special stains would you use that would be helpful to confirm the
finding of ganglion cells?
A. periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
B. mucicarmine
C. elastic stain
D. trichrome stain
E. * acetylcholinesterase
25. A 2-month-old boy is examined because he has been straining while passing stool and has a distended
abdomen. He is very low on the growth chart for age. A rectal examination and biopsy is performed.
Which of the following statements concerning Hirschsprung's disease is true?
A. * It is initially treated by colostomy
B. It is best diagnosed in the newborn period by barium enema
C. It is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the transverse colon
D. It is associated with a high incidence of genitourinary tract anomalies
E. It is the congenital disease that most commonly leads to subsequent fecal incontinence
26. A newborn infant has delayed passage of stool in the first 2 days of life. The parents are concerned
because they remember that their two other children had "lots of stool in the early days of life." A
workup reveals that he may have Hirschsprung disease. The most appropriate study to confirm this
diagnosis is
A. an abdominal x-ray

B. anorectal manometry
C. a barium enema
D. radionuclide imaging using technetium [99mTc] pertechnetate
E. * a suction biopsy
27. A beekeepers previously healthy 6-month-old son develops gradual onset of lethargy, poor feeding,
constipation, and generalized weakness. On taking a history, you determine that the child has recently
been placed on a homemade formula consisting of evaporated milk, water, and honey. Which of the
following is the most likely explanation for this symptom complex?
A. sodium intoxication
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. hypothyroidism
D. spinal cord tumor
E. * botulism
28. A 2-week-old Caucasian male presents with constipation since birth. He was born full term via a
normal vaginal delivery. He did not pass meconium till his 3rd day of life, after he was given a
glycerin suppository. He has since stooled every 34 days, only with the help of a suppository. The
stools are pellet like. He has had increasing abdominal distention. On rectal examination, tone
appears normal and the ampulla contains no stool. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. cystic fibrosis
B. * Hirschprung disease
C. anal stenosis
D. functional constipation
E. hypothyroidism
29. Marked abdominal distention was noticed in the fifth day of life of a neonate female with intestinal
loops visible on the anterior abdominal wall. Meconium was discharged after an enema. On a plain
abdominal radiograph, the large intestine was found to be distended. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Ladds syndrome
B. Ileal stenosis
C. * Hirschsprungs disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Intususception
30. A newborn presents with a scaphoid abdomen and bilious emesis. Massive intestinal loss could occur
if which one of the following causes of neonatal bowel obstruction is not quickly identified and
treated?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. * Malrotation with volvulus
C. Meconium ileus
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
31. A 1-week-old breastfed male infant is brought to a local emergency department for sudden onset of
vomiting. The parents describe the emesis as forceful and bright yellow to green in color. The infant
appears sleepy and has delayed capillary refill. Abdominal plain radiography shows some gas in the
stomach but none in the bowel. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention at this
time?
A. Administer intravenous fluids and admit the patient for observation in the hospital.
B. Ask the parents to feed the infant an oral rehydration fluid and determine whether he tolerates it.
C. * Stabilize the patient and transfer him to a facility that has pediatric surgical support.
D. Reassure the parents and allow the mother to continue breastfeeding.
E. Repeat the abdominal radiography because lack of gas in the bowels may have been related to poor
technique.
32. A 3-week old infant has a barium upper gastrointestinal series to evaluate vomiting. The
duodenojejunal flexure is found to be to the right of the midline as well as more caudal and anterior
than a normal ligament of Treitz. The child is seen to reflux barium spontaneously to the level of the
mid-thoracic esophagus. You would recommend which of the following?
A. Barium enema
B. * Emergency laparotomy
C. A trial of H2, blockade and cisapride therapy
D. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
E. Overnight pH probe analysis
33. A 1-month-old male infant is brought to the office with a 5-day history of nonbilious vomiting. He
has been otherwise healthy. Over the last 3 days, his parents have switched formulas twice on the
advice that the child has formula intolerance. The child now vomits 5-15 minutes after every feeding,
usually forcefully. Skin turgor is decreased and the fontanelle is depressed. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Malrotation and midgut volvulus
D. * Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
E. Sepsis
34. You see a 2-month-old infant in the emergency department for vomiting. The mother says that the
baby has been spitting up more over the past few days and has become more irritable. She denies any
fever, diarrhea, or change in formula. The mother tells you that there is a family history of
heartburn and that her other children have all spit up. The infant has some emesis in the emergency
department that seems to be formula mixed with some bile. The infant is intermittently irritable and
sleepy. What is the most concerning diagnosis that this could be?
A. biliary atresia
B. * malrotation
C. pyloric stenosis
D. imperforate anus
E. diaphragmatic hernia
35. You see a 2-month-old infant in the emergency department for vomiting. The mother says that the
baby has been spitting up more over the past few days and has become more irritable. She denies any
fever, diarrhea, or change in formula. The mother tells you that there is a family history of
heartburn and that her other children have all spit up. The infant has some emesis in the emergency
department that seems to be formula mixed with some bile. The infant is intermittently irritable and
sleepy. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial test?
A. abdominal computed tomography (CT)
B. barium enema
C. abdominal ultrasound
D. * UGI series with small bowel follow through
E. radionuclide scan
36. A previously healthy 2-month-old girl is brought to the ED with a 1-day history of abdominal pain
and emesis that developed over the last several hours. The parents describe the vomitus as yellow-
green and nonbloody. Physical examination reveals a fairappearing child with moderate diffuse
tenderness of the abdomen. Vital signs are normal. Laboratory results are unremarkable except for a
white blood cell count of 14,000 cells/mL. What is the next step in this patients management?
A. Empiric antibiotics and observation
B. Immediate appendectomy

C. Immediate exploratory laparotomy

D. Ultrasound of the abdomen
E. * Upper gastrointestinal (GI) contrast study
37. You are seeing a 6-week-old girl in the emergency department because of emesis for 1 day. She has
had no fever or diarrhea. She has vomited five times over the last day; the last episode was bilious.
Her birth history is notable for being born by cesarean section at 38 weeks. She left the hospital after
3 days with her mother. She was slightly jaundiced in her first few days, but this resolved without
therapy. No one else in the household is sick, and she lives at home with her mother, father, and a
well 4-year-old brother. On examination, she is fussy and poorly interactive. Her temperature is 37.3
C (99.2 F), blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 170/min, and respirations are 65/min. Her skin is
somewhat cool and pale, with a capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Her heart sounds are normal, but
her abdomen is somewhat full. Her liver and spleen cannot be felt There are no evident hernias. The
most appropriate next step in the management is to
A. admit her for intravenous rehydration and evaluation for bacterial gastroenteritis
B. * begin fluid resuscitation, and prepare her for an emergent laparotomy
C. begin oral rehydration and give her a close followup
D. order an abdominal CT without contrast
E. order an abdominal ultrasound
38. A neonate born at 28 weeks' gestation is now 2 weeks of age. Nasogastric feeds are started Forty-
eight hours after starting feeds, the neonate develops a distended abdomen, bloody stool, pneumatosis
intestinalis, and free air on abdominal radiograph. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia.The
child becomes persistently hypotensive despite maximal medical therapy. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. sepsis
B. aspiration pneumonia
C. c malrotation
D. * necrotizing enterocolitis
E. jejunal atresia
39. A previously healthy 18-month-old child has vomiting and severe, paroxysmal, writhing abdominal
pain (he prefers to have his knees flexed to the chest) alternating with periods of relative comfort
with a soft, only mildly tender abdomen. On abdominal examination you find a sausagelike mass. He
has not stooled, but you find blood upon digital rectal examination. Which of the following is the best
next step in management?
A. Administer morphine for pain control.
B. Order a computerized tomography of the abdomen.
C. * Obtain an air contrast enema.
D. Obtain serum acetaminophen levels.
E. Begin antibiotics for Escherichia coli 0157:H7.
40. A newborn presents with a scaphoid abdomen and bilious emesis. Massive intestinal loss could occur
if which one of the following causes of neonatal bowel obstruction is not quickly identified and
treated?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. * Malrotation with volvulus
C. Meconium ileus
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
41. Towards the end of the first day of life, the neonate was observed to have bilious emesis after each
feeding, earlier viscous grayish meconium had been discharged. A plain abdominal radiograph
revealed two levels of liquid in the epigastrium and absence of gas in the lower gut. Which is the
most probable diagnosis?

A. Hirschsprungs disease
B. * Meconium ileus
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Diaphragmatic hernia
E. Ladds syndrome
42. A term infant delivered vaginally develops vomiting and abdominal distention at age 10 hours. No
stool passage has been noted. An abdominal radiograph shows distended bowel loops and a bubbly
pattern in a portion of intestine; the colon is narrow. Which of the following should you tell the
parents?
A. You would like to consult a pediatric surgeon because you suspect that their child has Hirschsprung
disease.
B. The child most likely has necrotizing enterocolitis, a condition more commonly seen in premature
infants. Therefore you question the childs supposed gestational age.
C. * You are concerned about the possibility of meconium ileus and would like to obtain some family
history.
D. You believe that the child simply is constipated and would like to change to a soy-based formula to
see whether the baby tolerates this better.
E. The childs symptoms and radiograph findings most likely are normal.
43. You are called to the neonatal intensive care unit to evaluate a small newborn who has not passed
meconium in the first 72 hours of life.There is no evidence of heart or lung disease, and the infant is
feeding appropriately.The surgeon called to consult notes that the anus appears patent You suspect
meconium ileus. What genetic disorder is most consistent with this child's presentation?
A. * cystic fibrosis
B. phenylketonuria
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. d galactosemia
E. Wilsons disease
44. A term infant delivered vaginally develops vomiting and abdominal distention at age 10 hours. No
stool passage has been noted. An abdominal radiograph shows distended bowel loops and a bubbly
pattern in a portion of intestine; the colon is narrow. Appropriate clinical management of the patient
includes which of the following?
A. Change from enteral to intravenous feeds; obtain genetics consultation for the next morning.
B. Change from enteral to intravenous feeds, obtain a blood culture, and initiate antibiotics.
C. * Change from enteral to intravenous feeds and obtain a STAT pediatric surgery consultation.
D. Change from cows milk to soy-based infant formula and continue to observe the infant.
E. Do not change your current management.
45. A 2-month-old infant arrives with bulging of his anterior fontanelle. He is fussy, refuses to nurse or to
take a bottle, and has vomited once en route to the hospital. He has had no fever. Computerized
tomographic (CT) scan of the head is negative for trauma or tumor. In addition to meningitis, your
differential diagnosis should include which of the following?
A. Colic
B. Intussusception
C. Sinusitis
D. Pneumonia
E. * Vitamin A excess
46. A 1-month-old male infant is brought to the office with a 5-day history of nonbilious vomiting. He
has been otherwise healthy. Over the last 3 days, his parents have switched formulas twice on the
advice that the child has formula intolerance. The child now vomits 5-15 minutes after every feeding,
usually forcefully. Skin turgor is decreased and the fontanelle is depressed. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Malrotation and midgut volvulus
D. * Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
E. Sepsis
47. A newborn presents with a scaphoid abdomen and bilious emesis. Massive intestinal loss could occur
if which one of the following causes of neonatal bowel obstruction is not quickly identified and
treated?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. * Malrotation with volvulus
C. Meconium ileus
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
48. A 3-week-old, previously healthy male presents with projectile emesis after feeds. His mother states
that he has had 2 weeks of postprandial emesis, which became projectile in the past 2 days. She states
that it looks like formula and has never been bilious. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Physical examination is almost always normal in patients with this condition.

B. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) contrast study is the best diagnostic option.
C. This patient should be taken emergently to the operating room (OR) once thediagnosis is made.
D. * If uncorrected, these infants will progress to complete obstruction.
E. Surgical therapy involves bypassing the site of obstruction.
49. A1-month-old female presents after an episode of bilious emesis. She became irritable 12 hours ago,
began vomiting 6 hours ago, and is now lethargic. She had one small stool that was somewhat bloody
2 hours ago. Which of the following statements is true?
A. * An upper GI contrast study should be obtained immediately.
B. The most likely explanation is pyloric stenosis.
C. The patient should be admitted for IV fluid resuscitation and observation. If she does not improve
over the next 24 hours, a surgical consultation should be obtained.
D. An air contrast enema is the most appropriate next step.
E. A nasogastric tube should be inserted and IV antibiotics started to treat probable necrotizing
enterocolitis.
50. A previously healthy 5-week-old boy born at 39 weeks gestation following an uncomplicated
pregnancy is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a 3-day history of forceful vomiting
after feeding. The vomitus looks like undigested food. On physical examination, a distinct 1-cm mass
is palpable in the epigastrium. Surgical management is indicated. Which of the following
interventions is the most effective for reducing serious complications associated with the indicated
operation?
A. Concurrent fundoplication
B. Perioperative antibiotics
C. Postoperative food/fluid restriction for 36 hours
D. Postoperative supplemental oxygen
E. * Preoperative fluid resuscitation

51. A 5-week-old, breast-fed, full-term boy is brought to your office by his parents. They state that the
baby was doing well when he came home from the hospital, after an uncomplicated delivery, until
about 3 days ago when he began getting fussy and started to vomit. Over the past 36 hours his
vomiting has become projectile. There is no "green color" to the vomitus. It has now gotten to the
point where the baby can no longer keep down any breast milk and the family is quite concerned. He
had normal bowel movements yesterday but his diaper has been dry for the past 12 hours. This is the
first child for both parents. The patient is afebrile but tachycardic. His anterior fontanelle is sunken
and there is tenting of his skin. His abdomen is nondistended and soft. There is a nontender, . bulging
mass in the mid-epigastric area. Stool is guaiac-negative. Serum electrolytes show a hypokalemic,
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. You should tell the parents that the baby
A. can be managed at home
B. probably has cancer
C. should be admitted to the hospital for observation
D. should be given medication to correct the problem
E. * will need surgery
52. A5-week-old bottle-fed boy presents with persistent and worsening projectile vomiting, poor weight
gain, and hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Of the following diagnostic modalities, which would
most likely reveal the diagnosis?
A. * ultrasound of abdomen
B. barium enema
C. evaluation of stool for ova and parasites
D. testing well water for presence of nitrites
E. serum thyroxine
53. A 5-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of progressive nonbilious emesis, associated with
a 24-hour history of decreased urine output. The infant continues to be active and eager to feed. On
examination, the infant has a sunken fontanelle and decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is scaphoid,
and with a test feed, there is a visible peristaltic wave in the epigastrium. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. viral gastroenteritis
B. gastroesophageal reflux
C. urinary tract sepsis
D. * pyloric stenosis
E. milk protein allergy
54. A 5-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of progressive nonbilious emesis, associated with
a 24-hour history of decreased urine output. The infant continues to be active and eager to feed. On
examination, the infant has a sunken fontanelle and decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is scaphoid,
and with a test feed, there is a visible peristaltic wave in the epigastrium. The diagnosis is best
confirmed by which of the following?
A. abdominal ultrasound
B. * careful clinical examination with palpationof an epigastric mass
C. UGI contrast study
D. surgical exploration
E. endoscopy
55. A 5-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of progressive nonbilious emesis, associated with
a 24-hour history of decreased urine output. The infant continues to be active and eager to feed. On
examination, the infant has a sunken fontanelle and decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is scaphoid,
and with a test feed, there is a visible peristaltic wave in the epigastrium. Electrolytes and a urinalysis
are evaluated. Which of the following laboratory findings are most likely to be seen in this patient?

A. Na 145, K 3.0, Cl 110, CO2 17, urine pH 8.0

B. * Na 130, K 3.0, Cl 80, CO2 36, urine pH 4.0

C. Na 135, K 4.0, Cl 104, CO2 23, urine pH 7.0
D. Na 140, K 5.2, Cl 100, CO2 16, urine pH 4.0
E. Na 132, K 3.2, Cl 96, CO2 25, urine pH 7.0
56. A 5-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of progressive nonbilious emesis, associated with
a 24-hour history of decreased urine output. The infant continues to be active and eager to feed. On
examination, the infant has a sunken fontanelle and decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is scaphoid,
and with a test feed, there is a visible peristaltic wave in the epigastrium. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next step in management of this infant?
A. immediate surgical exploration
B. send the child home with an oral electrolyte rehydration solution
C. change the infants formula and feeding regimen
D. * IV fluid resuscitation, followed by surgical intervention
E. initiate therapy with a prokinetic agent
57. A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 5-day history of progressively worsening vomiting. He has
not had a stool in 2 days. On physical examination, he is dehydrated. Serum electrolytes are: Na 136,
K 3.0, Cl 88, HCO3-1 36. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. gastroesophageal reflux
C. * pyloric stenosis
D. renal tubular acidosis
E. viral gastroenteritis
58. A 2-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department with vomiting for 1 day. On physical
examination, the baby is very lethargic, is poorly perfused, and appears dehydrated. His electrolytes
are sodium, 115; potassium, 6.0; and carbon dioxide, 15. His glucose is 40. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. * congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. duodenal atresia
C. gastroenteritis
D. pyloric stenosis
E. tracheoesophageal fistula
59. A 9-year-old boy has 24 hours of persistent abdominal pain and vomiting. His physical examination
reveals abdominal guarding and right lower quadrant rebound tenderness. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Appendicitis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux
D. Intussusception
E. Pyloric stenosis
60. A 4-week-oId male infant born at full term presents with emesis, dehydration, and poor weight gain.
The pediatrician evaluating the child palpates an olive-sized mass in the child's epigastrium. She
believes the neonate may have pyloric stenosis. Which of the following clinical presentations is
mosr consistent with pyloric stenosis?
A. * projectile nonbilious emesis
B. bilious emesis
C. bloody diarrhea
D. violent episodes of intermittent colicky pain and emesis
E. right lower quadrant abdominal pain

61. A first-born male child develops projectile vomiting at the age of 5 weeks. Vomitus is free of bile.
The child remains hungry and vomits after taking feedings. Examination reveals visible peristalsis in
the upper abdomen along with a palpable nodule in the right upper quadrant. The most likely
diagnosis for the boy described above is
A. esophageal atresia
B. * hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. duodenal web
D. midgut volvulus
E. incarcerated inguinal hernia
62. A first-born male child develops projectile vomiting at the age of 5 weeks. Vomitus is free of bile.
The child remains hungry and vomits after taking feedings. Examination reveals visible peristalsis in
the upper abdomen along with a palpable nodule in the right upper quadrant. Treatment of choice for
the condition described above is
A. Hellers myotomy
B. * pyloromyotomy
C. gastrojejunostomy
D. duodenojejunostomy
E. esophageal dilation
63. At her childs 2-month well baby visit, a mother says she is quite distressed that her baby vomits
after every feeding. The baby, who weighed 3.4 kg (7 lb, 8 oz) at birth, now weighs 6.0 kg (13 lb, 2
oz). The most likely cause of the babys vomiting is
A. pyloric stenosis
B. * overfeeding
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. child abuse
E. inborn error in metabolism
64. Which of the following ventilation strategies is the best initial approach for a neonate with a left
congenital diaphragmatic hernia and the following post ductal arterial blood gases: PaO2 50 mm Hg,
PaCO2 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35?
A. High-frequency jet ventilation
B. * Permissive hypercapnia with convential pressure controlled ventilation
C. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
D. Induced respiratory alkalosis
E. Inhaled nitric oxide with conventional volume controlled ventilation
65. A newborn presents with a scaphoid abdomen and bilious emesis. Massive intestinal loss could occur
if which one of the following causes of neonatal bowel obstruction is not quickly identified and
treated?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. * Malrotation with volvulus
C. Meconium ileus
D. Hirschsprung disease
E. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
66. A4-month-old child presents with a 2-day history of vomiting and intermittent irritability. On
examination, currant jelly stool is noted in the diaper, and a sausage-shaped mass is palpated in the
right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause this?
A. appendicitis
B. diaphragmatic hernia
C. giardiasis
D. * intussusception

E. rotavirus gastroenteritis
67. A term male is delivered vaginally to a 21-year-old mother. Immediately after birth he is noted to
have a scaphoid abdomen, cyanosis, and respiratory distress. Heart sounds are heard on the right side
of the chest, and the breath sounds seem to be diminished on the left side. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next step in his resuscitation?
A. Administer IV bicarbonate.
B. Administer IV naloxone.
C. Initiate bag-and-mask intubation.
D. Initiate chest compressions immediately.
E. * Intubate with an endotracheal tube.
68. A term infant is born vaginally after an uncomplicated pregnancy. She appears normal but has
respiratory distress when she stops crying. When crying she is pink; when not she makes vigorous
respiratory efforts but becomes dusky. Which of the following is the likely explanation for her
symptoms?
A. * Choanal atresia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Meconium aspiration
D. Neonatal narcosis
E. Pneumothorax
69. A term male is born to a 33-year-old woman who had little prenatal care. Immediately after birth he
has cyanosis and respiratory distress. Chest auscultation in the delivery room reveals right-sided heart
sounds and absent left-sided breath sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A. * Assess the abdomen to evaluate for possible congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

B. Order a computerized tomography of the chest.
C. Order ultrasonography of the chest.
D. Perform a needle thoracostomy for possible pneumothorax.
E. Prepare the infant for ECMO.
70. A newborn infant develops coughing, choking and cyanosis with his first feeding. He is noted to have
excessive drooling. What are the important associated anomalies that must be screened for prior to
surgical intervention?
A. Right-sided aortic arch
B. Hydrocephalus
C. * Genitourinary obstruction
D. Congenital heart disease
E. Congenital lungs disease
71. A 2-hour-old term newborn male has coughing, choking, and cyanosis prior to feeding. A nasogastric
tube is placed and meets resistance at 10 cm. Prenatal history is significant for polyhydramnios.
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this infant?
A. Congenital cataracts
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Hepatosplenomegaly
D. Microcephaly
E. * Fusion of two lower thoracic vertebral bodies
72. ?A 10-day old male presents with bilious emesis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Appendicitis
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. * Malrotation with midgut volvulus

D. Feeding intolerance
E. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
73. A 2-week-old-male presents with lethargy and vomiting. His electrolytes reveal sodium of 121
meq/L. potassium of 7.0-meq/l and blood glucose of 40 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dehydration
B. * Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Inborn error of metabolism
D. Pyloric stenosis
E. Malrotation with midgut volvulus
74. The following cause the onset of persistent vomiting in 3 week old child:
A. Disaccharidase intolerance
B. Duodenal atresia
C. * Pyloric stenosis
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Lactose intolerance
75. A 2-day-old female presents with abdominal distension and vomiting. She has not yet passed a
meconium stool. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Hirschsprung Disease
B. Malrotation with midgut volvulus
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Constipation
E. Duodenal atresia
76. A 1-week-old male presents with some mild erythema around his umbilicus extending onto the
abdominal wall. Which of the following is the correct management for this patient?
A. Reassurance and continue with alcohol wipes of umbilicus
B. Topical antibiotic ointment and recheck the patient the next day
C. Discharge on cephalexin and recheck the next day
D. * Perform a full septic workup and admit the patient
E. X-ray examination for the presence of fistula
77. One should be concerned about term infant who has not passed meconium stool:-
A. During the process of birth
B. Within few min of birth
C. By 1-2 hour of life
D. By 6-12 hour of life
E. * By 24 hour of life
78. Infant born to diabetic mothers are at risk of all of the following except:-
A. Polycythemia
B. * Hyperglycemic dehydration
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Congenital malformation
E. Cardiomyopathy
79. Meconium impaction is associated with:-
A. Cretinism
B. * Cystic fibrosis
C. Thrush
D. HMD
E. Trisomy 21 syndromes

80. Persistent jaundice during the first month of life may associated with all of the following except:-
A. Cytomegalic inclusion disease
B. Congenital atresia of the bile duct
C. Galactosemia
D. Rh incompatibility
E. * Penicillin treatment
81. An l,800g preterm infant is recovering from surgery for gastroschisis. Of the following, the MOST
correct statement regarding this infants immediate daily nutritional requirements is that he
A. can meet energy needs from fat through enteral feeding
B. can meet protein needs for growth through enteral feeding
C. requires lysine supplementation to promote protein synthesis
D. * requires more protein per kilogram than a term infant
E. requires 2.5 g/kg per day of protein
82. Feature suggestive of TEF with oesophageal atresia include:-
A. FTT
B. Recurrent pneumonia
C. Oligohydramniose
D. * Large amount of mucus in the pharynx at delivary
E. Slow to establish feed
83. Alpha fetoprotein level from maternal serum may be helpful in diagnosing:-
A. Congenital cardiac malformation
B. Prune-belly syndrome
C. Cleft lip & palate
D. * Down syndrome
E. Fetal alcohol syndrome
84. A 2-week-old infant is jaundiced. Findings include weight and length at the 75th percentile for age;
icterus; with hepatosplenomegaly: total bilirubin. 6.3 mg/dL: direct bilirubin. 5.5 mg/dL: alanine
aminotransferase activity. 130 U/L; aspartate aminotransferase activity. 143 U/L: and gamma-
glutamyl transpeptidase activity. 950 L. Of the following, the BEST study to evaluate the excretion of
bile from the liver is
A. computed tomography of the liver
B. hepatic ultrasonography
C. * hepatobiliary scintigraphy
D. measurement of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase activity
E. measurement of the serum alpha 1-antitrypsin level
85. A 4-hour-old newborn has copious oral secretions and episodes of coughing, choking, and cyanosis.
The pregnancy was complicated by polyhydramnios. You suspect esophageal atresia with
tracheoesophageal fistula. Of the following, the MOST helpful test to confirm the diagnosis is to
A. inject a contrast medium through an orogastric catheter and obtain a neck radiograph
B. obtain computed tomography of the neck
C. perform flexible bronchoscopy
D. place an endotracheal tube and examine the endotracheal fluid
E. * place an orogastric suction catheter and obtain a chest radiograph
86. A 4.3 kg infant is delivered to a woman whose diabetes mellitus is poorly controlled. Of the
following, the MOST likely neonatal manifestation of maternal diabetes is
A. diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. hypercalcemia

D. * polycythemia
E. renal vein thrombosis
87. An 18-hour-old infant of a diabetic mother develops abdominal distension. Physical examination
reveals a protuberant, firm, but nontender abdomen: patent anus; and no grossly visible anomalies.
The infant has passed no meconium stool since birth. A supine abdominal radiograph reveals multiple
dilated loops of intestine. Of the following, a contrast enema would MOST likely confirm a diagnosis
of
A. atresia of the colon
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. * hypoplastic left colon syndrome
D. meconium ileus
E. midgut volvulus with malrotation
88. A 1-day-old infant develops bilious vomiting and gastric distension. She has been afebrile and has
been passing meconium-laden stools. Of the following, the most appropriate INITIAL step in the
management of this infant is
A. abdominal radiography to look for the double-bubble sign
B. B .culture of a catheterized urine specimen
C. C .insertion of a rectal tube for decompression
D. * D .placement of a nasogastric tube and initiation of intravenous fluid therapy
E. upper gastrointestinal radiographic series to look for malrotation of the small bowel
89. A full term neonate is found to have a swollen right scrotom. Gentle persistent pressure easily
reduces an air filled structure back into the abdomen. The condition recurs promptly as the infant
begins to cry. This
A. Mandates immediate surgical repair
B. * Is the same defect as a communicating hydrocoele
C. Should have a tension-free mesh repair
D. Should prompt exploration of the left groin
E. Is generally irreducible in children
90. A 1-month-old infant presents to your office with an umbilical hernia. It is reducible but prolapses
again almost immediately. It is TRUE that this defect
A. * Is present in all children at birth
B. Will not close spontaneously
C. Should be repaired if still present at 3 months of age
D. Should be repaired at this time if it is >1 cm in diameter
E. Is likely to become incarcerated
91. A 7-week-old girl is referred by her pediatrician for projectile vomiting over the past week. Her
weight has remained stable, her fontanelles are not sunken and she sucks avidly. Her abdomen is soft
with visible peristalsis in the epigastrium without evidence of a mass. A diagnosis of pyloric stenosis,
in this case
A. Should lead to immediate surgical pyloromyotomy
B. Should not require any laboratory testing
C. * Should prompt an order for an abdominal ultrasound
D. Should not be entertained until she has been tried on a new formula
E. Would be unlikely in the absence of an "olive"
92. You are called to see a 4-hour-old neonate in the well-baby nursery who has developed bilious
vomiting after taking his first feeding. He was born at 39-week gestation, has not yet passed
meconium and has an unremarkable examination. An upper gastrointestinal (GI) series would be the
study of choice to rule out which of the following clinical conditions?
A. Ileal atresia

B. Meconium ileus
C. Duodenal web
D. Malrotation
E. * Tracheoesophageal fistula
93. A 2-month-old former preemie presents to your office with an easily reducible right inguinal hernia.
He was born at 30-week gestation, was on continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) for 4 days,
was treated for hyperbilirubinemia, and was discharged home after 24 days. Since going home he has
been thriving, eating avidly, and now weighs 3.6 kg. His parents are well informed and although they
want the hernia repaired as quickly as possible; they are concerned about the risks of general
anesthesia. You tell them that
A. * They should wait another 5 1/2 months until he is 60 weeks of gestational age.
B. They should wait until he weighs 5 kg.
C. They should wait another 3 months until he is 50 weeks of gestational age.
D. They can schedule him as soon as possible because he weighs >2.5 kg.
E. They can schedule him in 2 weeks because at that point he will have reached gestational term
age of 40 weeks.
94. A 3-year-old, recently adopted Romanian boy is referred after his initial pediatrician's assessment for
an undescended testicle. On exam his left testicle is normal and in place. He has no evidence of
hernias. However, his right hemiscrotum is empty and there is a testicule sized mass plapable at the
pubic tubercle. The most appropriate next step is
A. Observation until age 5
B. Right orchiopexy
C. * Right orchiopexy and right inguinal hernia repair
D. Right orchiopexy and right testicle biopsy
E. An abdominal ultrasound
95. Clinical symptoms and presentations of malrotation least likely include
A. Volvulus
B. Chronic abdominal pain
C. Failure to thrive
D. * Intestinal atresia
E. Diarrhea
96. A newborn full-term baby boy with diagnosis of imperforate anus (Fig. 13-2) is also at risk to have a
A. Dextrocardia
B. Rib cage anomaly
C. * Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Ulnar skeletal deformity
E. Proximal limb malformation
97. A 3.3 kg, 36-week baby girl was bom prematurely after labor caused by ruptured membranes. The
prenatal ultrasound revealed a polyhydramnion at 26 weeks. Fetal echocardiogram was normal and
amniocentesis was without genetic aberrance. On examination there was a normal anus, an
nasogastric tube (NGT) drained bile stained fluid. The baby passed some mucus from below but no
typical dark meconium. A chest and abdominal x-ray showed a double bubble sign". What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Neonatal Hirschsprung's disease
C. * Duodenal atresia
D. Malrotation of midgut
E. Duodenal duplication

98. Which is not a long-term complication of a 1-year-old baby boy having undergone corrective
hepatoportoenterostomy (Kasai procedure) for biliary atresia?
A. Recurrent episodes of cholangitis
B. Hepatic cirrhosis and portal hypertension despite adequate bile drainage
C. Upper GI bleeding episodes from esophageal varices
D. Need for hepatic transplantation after initial Kasai procedure has failed
E. * Anastomotic leakage of portoenterostomy
99. Shortly after an uncomplicated birth a full-term baby boy develops respiratory distress and
excessively spits after an unsuccessful feeding trial, requiring endotracheal intubation. A chest x-ray
is performed and shows signs of aspiration in the right basilar and apical lung fields. There is air in
the stomach, which appears hyperinflated. A trial of NGT placement is unsuccessful. What diagnosis
is suspected?
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia
D. * Distal tracheoesophageal fistula with proximal esophageal atresia
E. Achalasia

(): : 11
Zadachi sur6 part1
:

:
1. Patient R. 38 years old, three years ago underwent appendectomy. After eating abuse 2 hours ago
appeared cramping abdominal pain, flatulence, gas delay. On examination: the patient of moderate
condition, restless, changing body position, had double-pointed vomiting. The tongue is dry. Pulse -
110/min. The abdomen distended, soft, painful. Rectal examination: the rectum is empty, the walls
are soft, not painful. On X-ray: multiple Kloibers cups, pneumatization of small intestine. The
patient was made a diagnosis: adhesive intestinal obstruction. What, in your opinion, should the
treatment start with?
A. No measures required (expectant tactics)
B. With enema and subsequent immediate operation
C. With gastric lavage and subsequent operation
D. With immediate operation
E. * With conservative treatment (decompression of the stomach, cleansing enemas, analgesic and
antispasmodic therapy)
2. The patient aged 55, complains of acute pain in the epigastric region, frequent vomiting, without any
relief, a general weakness. On examination: pale skin, tongue is dry. Pulse rate 110/min. AP - 80/40
mm Hg. The abdomen is hollowed, soft by palpation, moderately tense in the epigastrium, signs of
peritoneal irritation are absent. On X-ray - Kloibers cups in the left half. Has been ill for a day.
What kind of pathology should be suspected?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Perforated duodenal ulcer
D. Large intestine obstruction
E. * High intestinal obstruction
3. Patient K., aged 23, was hospitalized with complaints of nausea, vomiting, cramping pain in the right
half of the abdomen. Appendectomy in anamnesis. Pulse - 96/min. AP - 110/70 mm Hg. Abdomen
distended, asymmetrical due to protrusion of the right half, over which is determined "splashing
sound". The peristalsis strengthened. Signs of peritoneal irritation are absent. Rectal examination:
sphincter tone maintained, ampoule dilated. Your diagnosis?
A. Food poisoning
B. Acute adnexitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Acute obstructive ileus
E. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
4. In patient 18 years old, appeared cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation and gas delay. On
abdominal X-ray revealed "Kloibers cups. What kind of acute abdominal disease can we speak
about?
A. Helminthic invasion
B. Enterocolitis
C. Bad preparation of the patient for examination
D. Flatulence
E. * Intestinal obstruction
5. Patient 55 years complains of severe cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation and
gas delay. Has been ill for 6 hours. Had been operated for traumatic injury of spleen. On examination:
pulse 84/min. The tongue is moderately wet. The abdomen distended with asymmetry due to the
increase in the left half. Defined the "splashing sound". Peristaltic sounds periodically amplified. On
X-ray of the abdominal cavity - Kloibers cups. What is the primary diagnosis?

A. Sigmoid volvulus
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
D. Obstructive ileus (tumor genesis)
E. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
6. The patient complains of cramping pain in the upper abdomen, nausea, vomiting. The tongue is wet.
The abdomen is soft, moderately tense in the epigastrium. Determined dilated intestinal loop, which
peristalses by palpation. By percussion - tympanic sound with a metallic tone. On the X-ray of
abdomen - Kloibers cups. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Acute gastroenterocolitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Food poisoning
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. * Acute intestinal obstruction
7. On abdominal X-ray of the patient is determined several sites of enlightenment of hemispheric shape
with the clear horizontal level. What causes such X-ray picture?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Colon cancer
C. Flatulence
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Intestinal obstruction
8. The patient 74 years old, complains of the severe cramping pain in the left side of the abdomen,
nausea, constipation and gas delay. Has been ill for 8 hours. During the last 20 years is suffering from
constipations. Refuses admixtures of mucus and blood in the stool. Pulse - 82/min. The tongue is
moderately wet. Abdomen greatly distended, asymmetrical due to the increase of the left half.
Determined the splashing sound. On X-ray of the abdominal cavity Kloibers cups in the left
abdomen with a dilatated colon loop over them. On rectal examination the sign Obukhovsky hospital.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
C. Adhesive ileus
D. Obstructive ileus (tumor genesis)
E. * Sigmoid volvulus
9. Patient B, aged 68, entered the University Hospital after 2 days from the onsed of the disease with
signs of acute intestinal obstruction. On X-ray - high Kloibers cups. During enema the fluid flows
back, increasing the pain. Indicate the level of intestinal obstruction.
A. Strangulated ileus
B. Obstruction of the initial part of the colon
C. Low small intestinal obstruction
D. High small intestinal obstruction
E. * Low large intestine obstruction
10. In the patient A., 79 years old, was diagnosed acute intestinal obstruction and concomitant cardiac
pathology. Pulse 103/min AP - 95/60 mm. Hg. After stabilization of hemodynamic parameters the
patient was taken for operation, where. revealed a volvulus of sigmoid colon. After detorsion the
bowel is dark, peristalsis and vascular pulsation is absent. What is the optimal operation should be
done in this case?
A. Colectomy
B. Drainage of the abdominal cavity
C. Transanal intubation of the colon

D. Resection of the sigmoid colon with primary anastomosis

E. * Resection of the sigmoid colon with colostomy
11. Patient M, 66 years old, arrived from the district hospital at 10 o'clock with complaints of severe
abdominal pain, nausea, constipation and gas delay. The disease started suddenly, at 4 o'clock in the
morning, with strong cramping abdominal pain. After one hour of the onset the patient entered to the
district hospital, and after 5 hours transferred to the regional surgical department. After properly
preparing the patient underwent the operation the acute intestinal obstruction. After wide laparotomy,
the nodulus was found out. Intestinal loops in knot of a dark-brown color, peristalsis and vascular
pulsation is absent. What kind of acute intestinal obstruction you deal with?
A. Paralytic
B. Mixed
C. Spastic
D. Obstructive
E. * Strangulated
12. In the clinic entered the patient, aged 72, complaining of severe cramping abdominal pain,
constipation and gas delay. Was a single vomiting. The disease began 5 hours ago. From anamnesis:
last year was suffering from constipation. On examination: skin is pale, pulse -116/min, AP -110/80
mm Hg. Heart sounds are weak. The tongue is dry. The abdomen is asymmetrical. A marked
flatulence in the left iliac region. Positive Sklyarovs, Kivuls signs, "the falling drop sound. Rectal
ampoule is empty, enlarged, with reduced sphincter tone. On X-ray - high Kloibers cups. During the
enema fluid flows back, increasing the pain. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Abscess of Douglas' pouch
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Spastic ileus of large intestine
D. Acute obstructive small intestinal obstruction
E. * Acute obstructive large intestine obstruction
13. In the patient, who underwent the operation for peritonitis of appendicular origin, on the 4th day
appeared flatulence, constipation and gas delay. By percussion tympanitis all over the abdomen, by
auscultation - peristalsis is absent, pain is not determined. What is the cause for this condition.
A. Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
B. Pylephlebitis
C. The abscess of abdominal cavity
D. Strangulated ileus
E. * Paralytic ileus
14. In the university hospital entered the patient with a diagnosis of intestinal obstruction. From
anamnesis: weight loss (10 kg for 3 months), weakness and occasionally blood in the stool. What is
the cause of obstruction?
A. Coprostasis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Helminthic invasion
D. Adhesive disease of peritoneum
E. * Colon cancer
15. After the clinical and instrumental research you have diagnosed acute intestinal obstruction, and
during laparotomy revealed that it is caused by volvulus. The operation is performed after 3 hours of
the disease onset. The incarcerated gut is of dark color, peristalsis is absent. What is the most
appropriate surgical tactics?
A. To perform intestinal detorsion
B. To perform intestinal detorsion with intubation
C. To perform intestinal detorsion with enterostomy

D. To perform intestinal detorsion with intestinoplication

E. * To perform intestinal detorsion, resection of the incarcerated region with anastomosis
16. Patient 43 years old, who had been operated for acute cholecystitis, entered the clinic with complaints
of intense cramping abdominal pain, repeated vomiting and absence of stool. AP - 90/60 mm Hg. The
abdomen is moderately distended, soft, slightly painful. Sklyarovs sign is positive Shchetkin -
Blumberg sign is slightly positive. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Perforation of colon intestine
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Mesenteric thrombosis
D. Perforation of malignant tumor of the stomach
E. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
17. The patient 18 years old, was hospitalized in a university hospital in urgent way with the signs of
acute intestinal obstruction. From anamnesis 1 year ago she was operated for acute destructive
appendicitis. Recently bothered abdominal distension and pain. Which of the following etiological
factors resulted in intestinal obstruction?
A. Helminthic invasion
B. Food disorders
C. Diverticulum of ileum
D. Dolihosigma
E. * Adhesions in the abdominal cavity
18. Patient S., 30 years complains of cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, delay of stool and
gases. Has been ill for 4 hours. A year ago was performed gastric resection for duodenal ulcer. The
patients condition is grave. Pulse -100/min. The tongue is dry. Abdomen distended, asymmetrical,
soft. By percussion - tympanitis. By auscultation - intestinal tones are absent. On the X-ray of
abdominal cavity - the Kloibers cups. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Colon cancer
B. Appendicular infiltrate
C. Malignant tumor of small intestine
D. Strangulated postoperative hernia
E. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
19. Female 50 years old, who had been operated for uterine fibroma (hysterectomy), entered with
complaints of abdominal pain, vomiting. On the X-ray of abdomen revealed the signs of small bowel
obstruction. What is the cause of obstruction?
A. Diverticulitis
B. Cancer of the small intestine
C. Carcinoma of the colon
D. Strangulated inguinal hernia
E. * Adhesive disease
20. The patient entered with complaints of cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, delay of stool and gases.
The patient's condition is severe. Pulse - 105 per 1 min. The tongue is dry. Abdomen distended,
asymmetrical. By percussion - tympanitis, visible by eye peristalsis. Positive Valyas sign. Shchetkin-
Blumberg sign is slightly positive. What is your diagnosis?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Mesenteric thrombosis
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. * Intestinal obstruction

21. In the patient was diagnosed the 3rd phase of acute intestinal obstruction with the signs of multiple
organ failure and lack of volume of circulating fluid to 25 %. Where does the fluid accumulate first of
all?
A. In the intercellular space
B. In the tissues of the body
C. In the pleural cavity
D. In the abdominal cavity
E. * In the lumen of the intestine
22. Patient M., aged 25, was hospitalized with complaints of nausea, vomiting, cramping pain in the right
half of the abdomen. In anamnesis appendectomy. Pulse 96 per minute, AP 110/70 mm Hg. The
abdomen is distended, asymmetrical due to protrusion of the right half, where determined a sign of
intestinal splash. The peristalsis is strengthened. Signs of peritoneal irritation are absent. Rectal
examination: sphincter tone is lowered, ampoule dilated. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Food poisoning
B. Acute adnexitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Acute obstructive ileus
E. * Acute adhesive intestinal obstruction
23. In the surgical department entered the patient with complaints of sudden cramping pain in the
abdomen, its asymmetry, which arose suddenly after a food abuse, delay of stool and gases. By
palpation the abdomen is soft, without signs of peritoneal irritation. In the abdominal cavity in the left
half detected the movable, painful, tumor formation, by elastic consistency. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. Rectal cancer
B. Stomach tumor
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Obstipation syndrome
E. * Sigmoid volvulus
24. The patient 25 years old, complains of cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting. The onset was
sudden, 3 hours ago. Pulse 108 beats/min. The abdomen is asymmetric - right iliac region is
hollowed. By palpation in the right iliac region dense cylindrical formation which is moderately
painful. Rectal examination determined the content, resembling a "raspberry. Diagnosis?
A. Perforated ulcer
B. Rectal polyp
C. Duodenal bleeding ulcer
D. Acute destructive pancreatitis
E. * Acute intestinal obstruction
25. The man 40 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of severe spastic abdominal pain, nausea,
vomiting by intestinal content, abdominal distention, delay of stool and gases. Has been ill for 4
hours. Pulse 110 beats/min. The tongue is dry and furred. The abdomen distended asymmetrically -
increased upper half, soft by palpation, painful. By auscultation determined active peristaltic sounds
with a metallic tone, splashing sound, gurgling. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute non-specific colitis
B. Acute erosive gastritis
C. Acute destructive cholecystitis
D. Acute destructive pancreatitis
E. * Acute intestinal obstruction

26. In the surgical department in urgent way entered the woman 25 years old with the signs of acute
intestinal obstruction. From anamnesis: the patient had operation for ovarian the right apoplexy. The
last 1,5 years after the operation flatulence and pain constantly bothered the patient. What has caused
the intestinal obstruction in the patient.
A. Tumor of the colon
B. Appendicular infiltrate
C. Dolihosigma
D. Diverticulum of ileum
E. * Adhesions in the abdominal cavity
27. The patient 32 years old, who had been operated for perforated ulcer complains of intense cramping
pain in the abdomen. On examination: skin is pale. PS - 98 per 1 min. AP - 100/70 mm Hg. The
abdomen is asymmetric, tense and painful in the epigastrium and the right half. Positive Valyas sign.
By percussion tympanitis, hepatic dullness is preserved. On X-ray: Kloibers cups, pneumatization of
the intestine. What is your primary diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute destructive appendicitis
C. Acute destructive cholecystitis
D. Perforated duodenal ulcer
E. * Adhesive intestinal obstruction
28. In the department of surgery entered the patient who complained of cramping abdominal pain, which
appeared suddenly 3 hours ago, repeated vomiting. 6 hours ago ate a pound of walnuts. On
examination: abdomen is distended symmetrically, on auscultation - strengthening the peristaltic
tones. On X-ray of the abdominal cavity multiple horizontal air-fluid levels (the width of the
horizontal level of the fluid is greater than the height of the gas). What is your primary diagnosis?
A. Chronic paralytic intestinal obstruction
B. Acute large intestine paralytic ileus
C. Acute paralytic intestinal obstruction
D. Acute obstructive large intestine obstruction
E. * Acute obstructive intestinal obstruction
29. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis with a perforated duodenal ulcer you apply?
A. X-ray of the stomach with barium sulfate
B. Laparocentesis, colonoscopy
C. Irrigoscopy, irrigography
D. X-ray of gastrointestinal tract, irrigoscopy
E. * The examination abdominal radiography
30. You suspected acute appendicitis. For the differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis from the righ-
side renal colic you apply:
A. Angiography of renal arteries
B. Fluoroscopy gastrointestinal, irrigoscopy
C. Laparocentesis, laparoscopy
D. Prescription of narcotic analgetics
E. * Prescription of spasmolytics, excretory urography
31. On the 3rd day after appendectomy you made the diagnosis - the diffuse peritonitis. What is your
tactic?
A. To perform laparoscopy
B. To perform angiographic examination
C. To prescribe spasmolytics, analgetics
D. To enhance antibacterial therapy

E. * To perform laparotomy
32. In the patient, who was operated for gangrenous appendicitis, on the 2nd day after the operation
developed paresis of the intestine, jaundice, appeared fever and pain in the right side of abdomen. No
signs of peritoneal irritation. What kind of complication of the disease developed?
A. Subhepatic abscess
B. Intraintestinal abscess
C. Peritonitis
D. Subphrenic abscess
E. * Pylephlebitis
33. In the patient, on the 7th day after appendectomy was developed a pelvic abscess. What is your
tactic?
A. To drain the abscess by right-side extraperitoneal access
B. To drain the abscess by Volkovych-Dyakonov access
C. To drain the abscess by low-median access and drain a small pelvis
D. To prescribe a massive doses of antibiotic
E. * Abscess drainage through the front wall of the rectum
34. You have diagnosed the appendicular infiltrate in the patient. What is the most expedient
conservative treatment in first three days?
A. Parenteral use of proteolytic enzymes
B. The warm on right iliac region
C. U.H.F.-therapy
D. Analgesics
E. * Antibiotics
35. During the operation for acute appendicitis, you revealed a dense appendicular infiltrate. What is
your tactic?
A. All the answers wrong
B. Perform disclosure and drainage of the infiltrate
C. To mobilize the appendix from inflammatory infiltrate and perform appendectomy
D. Under general anesthesia perform a median laparotomy and appendectomy
E. * To close the wound of the abdominal wall and prescribe antibiotics and local cold
36. You suspect in patient the chronic appendicitis. Which of the following methods of investigation can
confirm the diagnosis?
A. X-ray of the abdominal cavity
B. Rectoromanoscopy
C. Laparocentesis
D. Colonoscopy
E. * Irrigoscopy
37. In the patient on the 7th day after the operation for gangrenous appendicitis, was developed a fever,
pain in the rectum, tenesmi, frequent and painful urination. During rectal examination revealed the
infiltrate in pelvis. During 3 days after the treatment, which included warm enemas and antibiotics,
the patient's condition had not improved. Repeat examination revealed a softening of rectal
infiltration. Temperature had hectic nature. What is the treatment?
A. Laparoscopic drainage of abscess
B. Laparotomy, opening abscess
C. Drainage of pelvic abscess through retroperitoneal access
D. Antibiotics, physiotherapy, hyperbaric oxygen therapy
E. * Drainage of pelvic abscess through the rectum

38. You diagnosed and prescribed conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate. What are the signs of
abscessing of appendicular infiltrate?
A. Increase of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, the increase of ESR
B. Signs of peritoneal irritation
C. Restoring or increase of pain
D. Maintaining a high hectic temperature
E. * All answers correct
39. In the patient was diagnosed the retroperitoneal phlegmon as a complication of acute appendicitis.
What is the cause of the phlegmon?
A. Location of appendix laterally from caecum
B. Medial location of appendix
C. Local peritonitis in the right iliac region
D. Subhepatic location of appendix
E. * Retroperitoneal location of appendix
40. In the patient, aged 18, on the 7th day after the appendectomy developed a pelvic abscess. What will
you do?
A. Drain the abscess by a right-side extraperitoneal access
B. Drain the abscess through the right iliac region
C. Drain the abscess by low-median access and drainage of small pelvis
D. Massive antibiotic therapy
E. * Drain the abscess through the front wall of the rectum
41. In the patient, aged 40, on the 2nd day after the appendectomy for gangrenous appendicitis,
developed intestinal paresis, fever, appeared pain in the right half of abdomen, enlarged liver and
jaundice, signs of peritoneal irritation. What complications of acute appendicitis you can think about?

A. Subhepatic abscess
B. Intraintestinal abscess
C. Subphrenic abscess
D. Peritonitis
E. * Pylephlebitis
42. You have diagnosed the gangrenous acute appendicitis in the patient. What symptoms are the basic
for the diagnose?
A. Mayo-Robson's sign in the right iliac region
B. Bradycardia
C. A sudden increase of pain in the right iliac region
D. Increase of pain
E. * Decrease of pain
43. In the patient after appendectomy on the 5th day appeared the hectic fever, leucocytosis. In the depths
of the pelvis appeared moderate pain, disuric phenomenon, tenesmi. What additional method of
investigation you will begin with to diagnose the complication?
A. Repeat irrigoscopy
B. Rectoromanoscopy
C. Repeat tests of blood and urine
D. Cystochromoscopy
E. * A digital rectal examination
44. You suspect the abscess of Douglas' pouch in the patient. What investigations should be carried out
for its diagnosis?
A. Laparocentesis

B. Laparoscopy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Rectoromanoscopy
E. * A digital rectal examination
45. The patient was operated for acute phlegmonous appendicitis and diffuses peritonitis by means of the
access to the right iliac region. On the 20th day after the operation was diagnosed right-side
subphrenic abscess. What could cause its occurrence?
A. Was not performed the tamponade of abdominal cavity
B. Was not used Billroth 's position after the operation
C. Was not used Finsterer's position after the operation
D. Was not used Trendelenburg's position after the operation
E. * Was not used Fovler's position after the operation
46. You suspected acute appendicitis in patient. Diagnostic program includes:
A. Laboratory tests
B. Rectal examination in men and vaginal additional examination in women
C. To exclude all diseases that can simulate acute abdominal pathology
D. Thorough anamnesis
E. * All answers correct
47. The patient, is pregnant for 32 weeks, has stayed in the surgical department for 18 hours. During
dynamic observation it is impossible to rule out acute appendicitis. What is your tactic?
A. To perform laparoscopy and to operate if the diagnosis confirms
B. With gynecologist to perform abortion, and then appendectomy
C. Carry out abdominal ultrasonography
D. Continue to observe the patient
E. * Patient need to undergo the operation
48. The patient, aged 76, with concomitant pneumonia, was diagnosed phlegmonous appendicitis. What
is your tactic?
A. All the answers are wrong
B. Operation if the diagnosis confirms by laparoscopy
C. Prescription of massive doses of broad-spectrum antibiotics and if this therapy is ineffective
operation
D. Monitoring and operation if the peritonitis develops
E. * Urgent operation
49. On examination of the patient, the therapeutist suspected acute appendicitis, but is not confident in
the diagnosis. The disease began six hours ago. What to do?
A. Dynamic observation of patient in outpatient department
B. As for the short time since the beginning of the disease, to recommend conservative treatment. The
calm, local cold, antibiotics
C. Urgently send the patient to the clinic for further laboratory examination
D. To recommend the surgeon consultation
E. * Urgent hospitalization of the patient in the surgical department
50. Patient K. has the diagnosis: diffuse purulent peritonitis of appendicular origin. For the patient is
indicated:
A. Total parenteral nutrition for 1-2 days after operation
B. Antibacterial therapy
C. Correction of fluid and electrolyte disorders
D. Appendectomy and sanation of the abdominal cavity
E. * All mentioned is correct

51. You diagnosed in patient the acute appendicitis. What method of diagnostic is suitable?
A. Thermography
B. Rectal examination
C. Clinical analysis of blood
D. Laparoscopy
E. * All mentioned is correct
52. The patient was diagnosed the diffuse peritonitis of appendicular origin. In this case used:
A. Drainage of the abdominal cavity
B. Abdominal lavage
C. Appendectomy
D. Median laparotomy
E. * All mentioned
53. You have to operate the patient with a typical picture of acute phlegmonous appendicitis. What access
for appendectomy is the most suitable in this case?
A. Transverse laparotomy above navel
B. Right-side transrectal incision
C. Right-side pararectal access
D. Low-median laparotomy
E. * Volkovych-Diakonov's access
54. Patient B. was examined by urgent surgeon, who suspected acute appendicitis. The examination was
prescribed. Which of the following investigations is the least helpful in the diagnosis of acute
appendicitis?
A. The clinical examination to determine protective muscular tension.
B. Axillary and rectal thermometry
C. Rectal examination
D. Laboratory research (especially leukocytes)
E. * Laparocentesis
55. The patient's T, at the ambulatory reception is suspected for acute appendicitis. What is advisable to
do?
A. Observed the patient ambulatory and hospitalized in case of deterioration
B. To prescribe the anti-inflammatory therapy and repeat examination on the next day
C. The control of the dynamics of body temperature and leucocytosis for 12-24 hours
D. To prescribe spasmolytics and repeat examination of the patient in 4-6 hours
E. * Immediately hospitalization of the patient
56. The patient, 76 years old, with myocardial infarction, is suspected for acute destructive appendicitis.
What is your tactic?
A. All the answers are wrong
B. Operation if the diagnosis confirms by laparoscopy
C. Prescription of massive doses of broad-spectrum antibiotics and if this therapy is ineffective
operation
D. Monitoring and operation if the peritonitis develops
E. * Urgent operation
57. The patient was admitted to the surgical department with suspected diffuse peritonitis. Which
diseases should be a differential diagnosis?
A. diencephalic syndrome
B. Horner's syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. hepato-renal syndrome
E. * abdominal ischemic syndrome
58. The patient operated on for acute appendicitis at day 4 after surgery developed peritonitis. Your
tactics?
A. Laparoscopy
B. Laparocentesis
C. Assign analgesics
D. Antibiotic
E. * Operation
59. Patient after surgery for diffuse peritonitis antibiotics. What is the way the drug is best?
A. intraperitoneal
B. intramuscular
C. subcutaneous
D. oral
E. * intravenous
60. The patient operated on for diffuse peritonitis. In the postoperative period appointed metranidazol.
With what's aim was appointed the drug?
A. prevention of disseminated candidiasis
B. prevention of helminthic infestation.
C. elimination of the aerobic microflora.
D. removal of fungal flora.
E. * removal of anaerobic microflora.
61. The patient during surgery revealed fibropurulent peritonitis. What activities should be undertaken?
A. drainage of the abdominal cavity.
B. decompression of the intestine.
C. reorganization of the abdominal cavity.
D. removal or delimitation source of peritonitis.
E. * all answers are correct
62. Patient transported to hospital with a diagnosis: sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What tactics of treatment
is most correct?
A. all of the above is true
B. laparotomy, dissection, and backfilling the cavity
C. extraperitoneal incision and drainage
D. conservative treatment
E. * thick needle puncture of an abscess under ultrasound control
63. Patient transported to hospital with suspected sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What method of research
can clarify the diagnosis?
A. irrigoskopiya
B. contrast fluoroscopy GIT
C. doppler
D. ECG
E. * radiography of the abdominal cavity
64. Patient transported to hospital with suspected sub-diaphragmatic abscess. What method of research
can clarify the diagnosis?
A. irrigoscopy
B. contrast fluoroscopy GIT
C. doppler

D. ECG
E. * ultrasound
65. Patient transported to hospital with a diagnosis: subdiaphragmatic abscess. What access to the
abscess should be used?
A. Fedorovs laparotomy
B. two-stage transpleural approach
C. lumbotomy
D. thoracolaparotomy
E. * Extrapleural extraperitoneal method
66. Patient transported to hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse peritonitis. Which surgical approach should
be used?
A. No right answer
B. Access below the navel
C. Adrectal access to the left
D. Adrectal access right
E. * Median laparotomy
67. Patients 2 hours ago was hit in the stomach. Fetched in emergency hospital in serious condition.
When radiography diagnosed gap cavity body. Your tactics.
A. antibiotic
B. laparoscopy
C. laparocentesis
D. cold on the stomach
E. * operation
68. Patients 2 hours ago was hit in the stomach. Fetched in emergency hospital in serious condition with
a suspected rupture cavity body. What method of research will clarify the diagnosis?
A. irrigoscopy
B. contrast fluoroscopy GIT
C. doppler
D. ECG
E. * laparocentesis
69. Patients 2 hours ago was hit in the stomach. Fetched in emergency hospital in serious condition with
a suspected rupture cavity body. What method of research will clarify the diagnosis?
A. irrigoscopy
B. contrast fluoroscopy GIT
C. Doppler
D. ECG
E. * X-ray abdomen
70. Patients 2 hours ago fell from the second floor. His condition is grave. There are signs of diffuse
peritonitis. What investigation method can eliminate the damage of a hollow organ?
A. thermometry
B. doppler
C. rheovasography
D. ECG
E. * radiography of the abdominal cavity
71. Patients 2 hours ago fell from the second floor. His condition is grave. There are signs of diffuse
peritonitis. Completed radiography abdomen. Which of the radiological signs confirm the diagnosis
of rupture cavity body?
A. infiltration in the abdominal cavity

B. free fluid in the abdominal cavity

C. Kloibers bowls
D. highstand dome of the diaphragm
E. * free gas in the abdominal cavity
72. Patient received an abdominal trauma 3 hours ago. Fetched in emergency clinic complaining of acute
pain in stomach. Positive symptoms irritation of the peritoneum. What method of diagnosis should
be used to refine the diagnosis.
A. thermometry
B. doppler
C. rheovasography
D. ECG
E. * X-rye of the abdominal cavity
73. The patient admitted with blunt abdominal trauma. Examination - positive symptoms of irritation of
the peritoneum. Suspected damage to internal organs. What method of diagnosis should be used?
A. EEG
B. ECG
C. rheovasography
D. angiography
E. * laparocentesis
74. Patient received an abdominal trauma 3 hours ago. Fetched in emergency clinic complaining of acute
pain in stomach. Positive symptoms irritation of the peritoneum. When the review X-rye revealed
free gas under the dome of the diaphragm. Installed diagnosis: breaking the body cavity. Treatment.
A. antibiotic
B. laparoscopy
C. laparocentesis
D. cold on the stomach
E. * operation
75. The patient admitted with blunt abdominal trauma. Examination - positive symptoms irritation of the
peritoneum. Suspected damage to internal organs. What method of diagnosis should be used?
A. EEG
B. ECG
C. rheovasography
D. angiography
E. * ultrasound
76. The patient admitted in emergency hospital in serious condition. Pulse 112 per minute., AP - 110 \ 60,
T - 35, 1 C. Installed diagnosis diffuse peritonitis. Which research method should be used to clarify
the source of peritonitis?
A. Thermometry
B. Doppler
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. * Ultrasound
77. The patient admitted in emergency hospital in serious condition. Pulse 112 per minute., AP - 110 \
60., T-35, 1 C. Installed diagnosis diffuse peritonitis. What treatment is indicated the patient?
A. puncture
B. antibiotic
C. laparoscopy
D. laparocentesis

E. * surgery
78. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 o'clock ago. Installed
diagnosis of peritonitis. Which research method should be used to clarify the source of peritonitis?
A. Thermometry
B. Doppler
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. * Ultrasound
79. The patient complains of severe abdominal pain, which occurred suddenly 6 hourse ago. Installed
diagnosis of peritonitis. Which symptom is most typical for this diagnosis?
A. tension of the muscles of the abdominal wall
B. leukocytosis
C. tachycardia
D. temperature rise
E. * irritation of the peritoneum
80. The patient 47 years old admitted to the clinic with complaints of pain in the right hypochondrium,
nausea, vomiting, body temperature, 38.3. Pain in 3 days ago after receiving a fatty meal. Pulse 112
in 1 min. tongue dry. Skin and sclera subikterichny. In the right hypochondrium defined sharply
painful tense rounded education 12h8h6 see positive symptoms Ortner, Murphy, Kera. Symptom
Shchetkin-Blumberg positive throughout the abdomen. Which research method should be used?
A. Thermometry
B. Doppler
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. * Ultrasound
81. Patient N., aged 45, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: biliary peritonitis.
Treatment.
A. Fluid management
B. Treatment is not required
C. Outpatient care
D. Conservative treatment
E. * Operative treatment
82. Patient D., aged 39, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse peritonitis.
What does determines the severity of peritonitis?
A. All true
B. Body mass index
C. The growth of the patient
D. Patient weight
E. * No right answer
83. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: diffuse peritonitis.
What does determines the severity of peritonitis?
A. All true
B. Body mass index
C. The growth of the patient
D. Patient weight
E. * The degree of intoxication
84. Patient S., aged 35, was admitted to the surgical department with the diagnosis: appendicular
peritonitis. Treatment.

A. Fluid management
B. Treatment is not required
C. Outpatient care
D. Conservative treatment
E. * Operative treatment
85. The patient was diagnosed during surgery iatrogenic injury extrarenal bile ducts. What operation is
indicated?
A. imposition biliodigistiv anastomosis
B. closure of the duct on -shaped drainage
C. suturing of the duct on the T-shaped drainage
D. closure of the injury duct separate atraumatic suture needle
E. * any of the above
86. During surgery at cholelithiasis detected wrinkled gallbladder filled with stones and advanced up to
2.5 cm common bile duct. Patients should
A. duodenotomy make the audit of the major duodenal papilla
B. impose cholecystitis
C. immediately make an audit of cholecystectomy and duct
D. perform cholecystectomy, then holangiography
E. * make cholecystectomy
87. Patient S., 41, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: obstructive jaundice. To diagnose the causes
of jaundice is the subject of a more reliable:
A. direct hepatosplenography
B. liver scintigraphy
C. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
D. oral cholecystography
E. * retrograde cholangiography
88. For patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing of stones in the gallbladder is
indicated:
A. vulvocentesis
B. laparocentesis
C. doppler
D. angiography
E. * intravenous cholecystocholangiography, ERCP, sonography
89. Patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing stones in the gallbladder indicate:
A. vulvocentesis
B. laparocentesis
C. doppler
D. angiography
E. * ultrasound abdominal
90. Patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing stones in the gallbladder indicate:
A. vulvocentesis
B. laparocentesis
C. doppler
D. angiography
E. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
91. Patients with suspected calculous cholecystitis for diagnosing stones in the gallbladder indicate:
A. vulvotsentez

B. celiocentesis
C. Doppler
D. angiography
E. * abdominal X-ray
92. Patients after cholecystectomy in the immediate postoperative period gradually increases jaundice,
these operating cholangiography not indicate the pathology of the bile ducts. The most likely cause of
jaundice
A. All of the above
B. hemolytic jaundice
C. common bile duct stone
D. serum hepatitis
E. * There is no right answer
93. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you must:
A. definition level of blood flow in truncus coeliacus
B. certain fraction of bilirubin
C. laparocentesis
D. echo kardioskopiyu
E. * there is no right answer
94. Patients after cholecystectomy in the immediate postoperative period gradually increases jaundice,
these operating cholangiography not indicate the pathology of the bile ducts. The most likely cause of
jaundice
A. all of the above
B. hemolytic jaundice
C. common bile duct stone
D. serum hepatitis
E. * operating choledochal injury (ligation)
95. The patient with suspected narrowing of the distal common bile duct for diagnosis you must:
A. definition level of blood flow in truncus coeliacus
B. certain fraction of bilirubin
C. laparocentesis
D. echocardioscopy
E. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
96. Patient V., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis. What is a reliable
radiological signs of chronic cholecystitis?
A. shadow of suspicion on concretions in the gall bladder at a reduced by 1 / 3 after the administration
of choleretic breakfast
B. shadow of the gall bladder
C. sharply increased, not reduced by giving choleretic breakfast
D. weak fluoroscopic shadow of the gall bladder
E. * "disconnected" gallbladder
97. . Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal cholecystitis. What
symptoms are not typical for this diagnosis?
A. Mussi symptom
B. lack of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
C. symptom Kera
D. nausea
E. * all true

98. Patient S., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute catarrhal cholecystitis. What
symptoms are not typical for this diagnosis?
A. Mussos sing
B. absence of muscle tension in the right hypochondrium
C. Kers sing
D. nausea
E. * Murphys sing
99. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected choledocolithiasis. What method of diagnosis is not
used in this case?
A. transhepatic holegraphy
B. ERPHG
C. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
D. ultrasound
E. * endoscopy
100. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected choledocolithiasis. What method of diagnosis is not
used in this case?
A. transhepatic holegraphy
B. ERPHG
C. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
D. ultrasound
E. * all answer are right
101. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected choledocolithiasis. What method of diagnosis is not
used in this case?
A. transhepatic holegraphy
B. ERPHG
C. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
D. ultrasound
E. * hypotonic doudenography
102. Patient A., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with jaundice in the background cholelithias. The
patient is shown:
A. plasmapheresis
B. catheterization of the celiac artery
C. conservative treatment
D. emergency surgery
E. * there is no right answer
103. Patient A., aged 45, was admitted to hospital with jaundice in the background cholelithias. The
patient is indicate:
A. plasmapheresis
B. catheterization of the celiac artery
C. conservative treatment
D. emergency surgery
E. * emergency operation after the preoperative
104. Patient D., 63, operated by acute calculouse cholecystitis. Intraoperatively diagnosed gallbladder with
concrements. What operation is indicated the patient?
A. cholecystectomy with drainage choledochitis by Halstead-Pikovsky
B. cholecystitis-enterovirus anastomosis
C. cholecystectomy from the bottom
D. cholecystostomy

E. * cholecystectomy from cervical

105. Patient M., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute gangrenous cholecystitis.
The patient is shown:
A. operation with no effect of conservative treatment
B. decision depends on the age of the patient
C. delayed operation
D. conservative treatment
E. * there is no right answer
106. Patient M., aged 56, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: acute gangrenous cholecystitis.
The patient is shown:
A. operation with no effect of conservative treatment
B. decision depends on the age of the patient
C. delayed operation
D. conservative treatment
E. * Emergency operation
107. Patient A., 43, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: chronic cholecystitis calculary. What is the
main method of research in this patient?
A. computed tomography
B. scanning of the liver,
C. oral cholecystography,
D. infusion holegraphy,
E. * USD
108. Patient S., 42 years old, entered the clinic with a diagnosis: acute calculary cholecystitis. What
analgesics is contraindicated?
A. spazmalgon, baralgin
B. spazgan
C. no-spa
D. omnopon
E. * no right answer
109. Patient S., 42 years old, entered the clinic with a diagnosis: acute calculary cholecystitis. What
analgesics is contraindicated?
A. spazmalgon, baralgin
B. spazgan
C. no-spa
D. omnopon
E. * morphine hydrochloride
110. Patient S., 42 years old, entered the clinic with a diagnosis: acute calculary cholecystitis. What
method is most informativve to clarify the diagnosis in the reception-office?
A. computed tomography
B. scanning of the liver,
C. oral cholecystography,
D. infusion holegraphy,
E. * USD
111. The patient K., 50 years old, six months after cholecystectomy performed at the calculouse chronic
cholecystitis, again began to appear in the right hypochondrium pain, occasionally accompanied by
yellowing of the sclera. Which of the following methods is most informative for diagnosis in this
case?
A. computed tomography

B. scanning of the liver,

C. oral cholecystography,
D. infusion holegraphy,
E. * USD
112. The patient K., 50 years old, six months after cholecystectomy performed at the calculouse chronic
cholecystitis, again began to appear in the right hypochondrium pain, occasionally accompanied by
yellowing of the sclera. Ultrasound examination of the abdominal cavity obvious pathology of the
extrahepatic bile duct could not be detected. Which of the following methods is most informative for
diagnosis in this case?
A. computed tomography
B. scanning of the liver,
C. oral cholecystography,
D. infusion holegraphy,
E. * endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography,
113. Patient T., age 37, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. For the dektoksikatsii
patient displayed:
A. Using antispasmodics
B. Epidural anesthesia
C. Application antisecretion drugs
D. Perirenal blockade
E. * Lymphsorbtion
114. Patient T., age 37, was admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. For the dektoksikatsii
patient displayed:
A. Using antispasmodics
B. Epidural anesthesia
C. Application antisecretion drugs
D. Perirenal blockade
E. * Plasmapheresis
115. Patient K., aged 39, admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which analgesic should not
be used?
A. Keterolak
B. Ketanov
C. Baralgin
D. Analgin
E. * Can all
116. Patient K., aged 39, admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which analgesic should not
be used?
A. Keterolak
B. Ketanov
C. Baralgin
D. Analgin
E. * Morphine
117. Patient P., aged 68, was admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which complications
might arise?
A. Urination disorders
B. Wrapping Sigma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Thyrotoxicosis

E. * No right answer
118. Patient P., aged 68, was admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which complications
might arise?
A. Urination disorders
B. Wrapping Sigma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Retroperitoneal phlegmon
119. Patient P., aged 68, was admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which complications
might arise?
A. Urination disorders
B. Wrapping Sigma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Enzymatic peritonitis
120. Patient P., aged 68, was admitted to hospital with clinical acute pancreatitis. Which complications
might arise?
A. Urination disorders
B. Wrapping Sigma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Omental abscess
121. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: biliary pancreatitis. What type of treatment is
shown to the patient.
A. Treatment not indicated
B. Observation of the surgeon at home
C. Outpatient
D. Conservative treatment in hospital
E. * No right answer
122. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: biliary pancreatitis. What type of treatment is
shown to the patient.
A. Treatment not indicated
B. Observation of the surgeon at home
C. Outpatient
D. Conservative treatment in hospital
E. * Surgical treatment
123. Patient R., 67 years old, enrolled in urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What
medications is necessary for patient?
A. Hypnotics
B. Peripheral vasodilators
C. Prostaglandins
D. Venotonics
E. * Cytostatics
124. 1Patient R., 67 years old, enrolled in urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What
medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. Hypnotics
B. Peripheral vasodilators
C. Prostaglandins

D. Venotonics
E. * Spasmodicals
125. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. What medications is
necessary to appoint a patient?
A. Hypnotics
B. Peripheral vasodilators
C. prostaglandins
D. Venotonics
E. * H2 - Blockers
126. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. Which disease is
necessary to differentiate this pathology?
A. Cystitis
B. Hernia
C. Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Perforated ulcer
127. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. Which disease is
necessary to differentiate this pathology?
A. Cystitis
B. Hernia
C. Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Thrombosis of mesenteric vessels
128. Patient S., aged 65, went to urgent hospital with a diagnosis: acute pancreatitis. Which disease is
necessary to differentiate this pathology?
A. Cystitis
B. Hernia
C. Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. * Acute cholecystitis
129. Patient K., aged 45, entered the reception room with suspected acute pancreatitis. What kind of
research required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Scintigraphy
B. Doppler
C. MRI
D. CT
E. * there is no right answer
130. Patient K, aged 45, entered the reception room with suspected acute pancreatitis. What kind of
research required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Scintigraphy
B. Doppler
C. MRI
D. CT
E. * Ultrasound
131. The patient with acute pancreatitis during the study revealed the absence of pulsation of the
abdominal aorta in the epigastrium. It is a symptom of the author?
A. Gray Turners
B. Halsteads
C. Mondors
D. Lagermfs
E. * Voskresenky
132. The patient with acute pancreatitis showed a yellow color of the skin near the navel. It is a symptom
of the author?
A. Gray Turners
B. Halsteads
C. Mondors
D. Lagermfs
E. * Kulens
133. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed cyanosis lateral parts of abdominal skin. It is a symptom of
the author?
A. Kulens
B. Halsteads
C. Mondors
D. Lagermfs
E. * Gray Turners
134. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed cyanosis of skin of the abdomen. It is a symptom of the
author?
A. Kulens
B. Gray Turners
C. Mondors
D. Lagermfs
E. * Halsteads
135. Patient with acute pancreatitis revealed a sharp cyanosis of the face. It is a symptom of the author?
A. Kulens
B. Gray Turners
C. Halsteads
D. Mondors
E. * Lagermfs
136. The patient with acute pancreatitis revealed purple spots on the face and body. It is a symptom of the
author?
A. Kulens
B. Gray Turners
C. Halsteads
D. Lagermfs
E. * Mondors
137. In operation for acute abdomen intraoperatively revealed a hemorrhagic effusion and foci of fat
necrosis in the peritoneum. What kind of illness should think?
A. perforated gastric ulcer
B. mesenteric thrombosis
C. hollow organ injury
D. rupture of the liver
E. * there is no right answer
138. In operation for acute abdomen intraoperatively revealed a hemorrhagic effusion and foci of fat
necrosis in the peritoneum. What kind of illness should think?
A. perforated gastric ulcer

B. mesenteric thrombosis
C. hollow organ injury
D. rupture of the liver
E. * acute pancreatitis
139. The patient after intake of alcohol appeared repeated vomiting, epigastric pain of herpes character.
Diagnosis
A. Crohn diseases
B. bleeding from varices of the esophagus
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. * there is no right answer
140. The patient after intake of alcohol appeared repeated vomiting, epigastric pain of herpes character.
Diagnosis
A. Crohn diseases
B. bleeding from varices of the esophagus
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. * acute pancreatitis
141. For a patient ., 44 years., erosive proctitis is diagnosed. What is preparation of choice in treatment
of disease?
A. Vitamins
B. Enzymes preparations
C. Hormonal preparations
D. Antibiotics
E. * Sulphosalaso-drugs
142. Patient M., 42 years, complains for moderate pain in abdomen, frequent stool up to 15 times on
twenty-four hours. Temperature - 38. A abdomen is mildly enlarged, painful in the colon. Rectally:
enlarged, mildly sickly haemorrhoidal knots, dark blood. Rectoscopy: mucous membrane of colon
with hyperaemia, filling out, covered by erosions. In general blood test is anaemia, ESR- a 54
mm/hour. What is drugs is used in treatment of disease?
A. Moriamin
B. Salbutamolum
C. Sulphate of magnesium
D. Anti-diarrhoea preparations
E. * Sulphosalaso-drugs
143. For a patient an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. Prescribed anti-recurrent treatment. What is
preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. Salbutamolum
B. Smecta
C. Lipofundinum
D. NSAID
E. * Sulfasalasin
144. For a patient the unspecific ulcerative colitis of middle weight is diagnosed. It is prescribed
prednisolon. What most optimal dose can be used in treatment of disease?
A. 100 mg.
B. 35 mg.
C. 30-40 mg
D. 10-20 mg

E. * 60-80 mg
145. The patient of B., 47 years, entered to surgical department with complaints for pain in the left
inguinal area, weight lost. Objectively: - 38 . Stomach troubles, painful at palpation in the left
inguinal area. At rectoscopy hyperaemia and deep cracks of mucous membrane, ulcer, stenosis is
founded. What is preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. Smecta, Imodium.
B. mercaptopurine
C. NSAID
D. Anticoagulants
E. * 5-ASK, sulfasalasin, NSAID
146. The patient ., 38 years, entered to surgical department with complaints for periodic pain in a right
inguinal area, which arises up after the reception of meal, weight lost. Objectively: - 38 . Stomach
is subinflated, painful at palpation in the left inguinal area. At rectoscopy is hyperaemia and deep
cracks of mucous membrane, ulcer, stenosis. What is the diagnosis of patient?
A. Salmonellas
B. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Disease of Hirshprung.
D. Dysentery
E. * Crohns disease
147. Patient of . in 35, complain for periodic pain in a right inguinal area, increase of to 38., general
weakness, diarrhoea with the admixtures of blood. At a rectoscopy is a "symptom of roadway". What
is the most credible diagnosis for a patient?
A. Enterocolitis
B. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Dysentery
D. Disease of Hirshprung
E. * Crohns disease
148. For a patient ., 45., it is diagnosed unspecific ulcerative colitis, phase of remission. What is
preparation of choice in treatment of disease?
A. hormones
B. vitamins of group In
C. cytostatics
D. antiagregant
E. * preparations of 5-aminosalicile acid
149. For a patient ., 45., a unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. It is conducted irrigography. On a
sciagram the characteristic sign of this disease is founded. It is a symptom:
A. "niches"
B. "half of month"
C. "roadways"
D. "index finger"
E. * "water-pipe"
150. For a patient ., 37 years, an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. Prescribe conservative
treatment:
A. Desintoxication therapy
B. Sulphanilamide
C. Vitamin therapy
D. Diet therapy (exception of milk and dairies)
E. * All listed are true

151. Patient . 32 years, complains for periodic pain in a right inguinal area, increase of temperature to
38., general weakness, diarrhoea with the admixtures of blood. At a rectoscopy an edema,
hyperaemia, plural erosions, ulcers, festering and necrotizing raid of mucous membrane of intestine,
is founded. What possible diagnosis?
A. Diverticulitis.
B. Crohns disease
C. Poliposis
D. Enterocolitis
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
152. Patient, 70 years, during the last 3 months disturb constipation. During the last 2 weeks was absent of
stool during 3-4 days. Patient is used purgative drugs. One week ago was bleeding from rectum up
to 200 ml of the fresh blood. Lost of weight up to 10 kg, an appetite is bad. At examination the
general state is middle weight. During palpation of abdomen tumour-like formation is palpated in the
left iliac area by size 68 cm. At percussion - tympanitis. It is not founded any pathology at digital
examination of rectum. What previous diagnosis?
A. No right answer.
B. Volvulus of sigmoid bowel
C. Megacolon
D. Diverticulitis of sigmoid bowel
E. * Tumour of the left half of colon
153. Patient of ., 66 years, became ill suddenly: pain in the left inguinal area, temperature 38 . At
examination insignificant tension of muscle and pain in the left inguinal area. Specify the diagnosis.
A. Crohns disease
B. Volvulus of sigmoid bowel
C. Poliposis of colon
D. Stenosis of sigmoid bowel
E. * Diverticulitis of sigmoid bowel
154. The patient ., in 46 years, entered with complaints of pain in the left inguinal area, diarrhoea up to
20-30 times on twenty-four hours, with the admixtures of blood and mucus. - 38 . Per rectum is
a mucous with hyperaemia, swelling, covered by the ulcers of different size, with bleeding. What
disease?
A. Diverticulosis
B. Poliposis
C. Polyps
D. Diverticulums
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
155. To the patient ., 62 years, roentgenologically and on colonoscopy is diagnosed unspecific ulcerative
colitis. What method of treatment of this patient?
A. enemas with a celandine
B. enemas with cytostatics
C. enemas with NSAID
D. enemas with smecta
E. * enemas with sulfasalasin
156. For a patient ., 45 years, poliposis of colon and rectum is diagnosed. A diagnosis is confirmed by
irrigography. What symptom is characteristic for the indicated disease?
A. "roadways".
B. "cockades"
C. a specific symptom is absent
D. "water-pipe"

E. * " shot through target"

157. Patient of B., 38 years, entered with complaints of moderate stomach-ache, diarrhoea up to 17 times
on twenty-four hours with blood, pus, mucus. Temperature of body is 38 . Stomach is inflated,
painful in the colon projection. Per rectum: dark blood is founded. It is anaemia, ESR - a 42
mm/hour. What is diagnosis?
A. Specific ulcerative colitis
B. Diverticulosis
C. Crohns disease.
D. Enterocolitis
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
158. Patient of ., 30 years, a previous diagnosis is: Poliposis of colon. What most reliable method of
diagnostics of polypuss of colon is indicated to the patient?:
A. Laparoscopy
B. Examination of excrement
C. Irrigoscopy
D. X-Ray with sulphate of barium
E. * Colonoscopy
159. For a patient ., 67., the perforation of bowel came on a background of unspecific ulcerative colitis.
What operative treatment is indicated for the patient?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Resection of segment of bowel with perforation
C. Total colectomy and ileostomy
D. Proximal colostomy
E. * Suturing of perforation and ileostomy
160. For a patient, 39., an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. In the case of development of
complications, which complication does not need operative treatment?
A. Perforation
B. Malignancy
C. Toxic megacolon
D. Bleeding
E. * Water-electrolyte changes
161. Patient of , 45 years, diagnosis: unspecific ulcerative colitis. What treatment is indicated to the
patient?
A. All are false
B. Subtotal colectomy with ileostomy
C. Total colectomy with an ileostomy
D. Complete parenterally feed
E. * All are true
162. For a patient ., 37., an unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. What does not prescribed at
unspecific ulcerative colitis for treatment?
A. Hormonal preparations
B. Desintoxication therapy
C. Vitamins
D. Antibiotics
E. * Purgatives

163. A patient ., 35 years, complaints for a periodic pain in abdomen, frequent (up to 16 - 18 on twenty-
four hours) unexecuted stool with mucus and blood. An unspecific ulcerative colitis is diagnosed. The
sudden stopping of diarrhoea came on a background of heavy intoxication. The indicated changes of
signs of disease means:
A. hypovolemia
B. perforation
C. misdiagnosis
D. efficiency of conservative therapy
E. * toxic dilatation
164. Patient ., 45 years, passed irrigography. Clinically and on the sciagram a toxic megacolon is
founded. For what disease these changes is characteristic?
A. To the syndrome of Paits-Egers
B. To the syndrome of Gardner
C. Disease of Hirshprung
D. Crohns disease
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
165. For the patient of 60 year during last 5 years it is diagnosed fall-out of rectum. On this time it is
degree. Quality of life of patient is severe. What operation is indicated?
A. Operation Blinnichev.
B. Habriel.
C. Kenu-Mailce.
D. Milligan-Morgan.
E. * Kumel-Zerenin.
166. A patient 38 years complain for pain in the area of anus, fever. He is ill a 5 days. A disease began
acutely. In anamnesis an operation is concerning a acute paraproctitis 2 years ago. At a examination
on the left from anus slight swelling, turning, pain at palpation. In the area of scar of 2cm from anus
point opening with festering excretions. What diagnosis?
A. thrombosis
B. submucous paraproctitis
C. pelviorectal paraproctitis
D. ishiorectal paraproctitis
E. * recrudescent paraproctitis
167. A patient 38 years complain for pain in the area of anus, fever. He is ill a 5 days. A disease began
acutely. In anamnesis an operation is concerning a acute paraproctitis 2 years ago. At a examination
on the left from anus slight swelling, turning, pain at palpation. In the area of scar of 2cm from anus
point opening with festering excretions. What treatment is indicated to the patient?
A. an operation is after Kenu-Mailce
B. operation after Ryzhykh- 1
C. conservative
D. opening of paraproctitis
E. * operation after Habriel
168. A patient 36 years complain for pain in a crotch, fever, high temperature. He is ill a 5 days. A disease
began acutely. State of middle weight. At a examination slight swelling of buttock on the right, pain
at palpation. At the finger inspection of rectum acutely sickly compression, that swelling in a rectum.
What treatment is indicated to the patient?
A. an operation is after Kenu-Mailce
B. operation after Ryzhykh- 1
C. conservative
D. operation after Habriel
E. * opening of paraproctitis
169. A patient 60 years complain for pain in an anal area, high temperature of body, diarrhoea with
constipations, periodically appearance of blood in incandescence. What sign testify in behalf on a
acute paraproctitis in this case ?
A. only pain
B. constipations
C. diarrhoea
D. enterorrhagia
E. * pain, high temperature of body
170. A patient 36 years complain for pain in a crotch, fever, high temperature. He is ill a 5 days. A disease
began acutely. State of middle weight. At a examination slight swelling of buttock on the right, pain
at palpation. At the finger inspection of rectum acutely sickly compression, that swelling in a rectum.
What is the ?
A. thrombosis
B. extrasphincteric fistula
C. acute pelviorectal paraproctitis
D. acute submucous paraproctitis
E. * a acute ishiorectal paraproctitis
171. The patient of 33 complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic bleeding at
the end of act of defecation, fall off haemorrhoidal knots at defecation. He is ill a few years. The state
is satisfactory. At anoscopy are enlarged haemorrhoidal knots and opening of incomplete
intersphincteric fistula determined. What operation is radical in this case?
A. Operation Ryzhykh- 1.
B. Operation Blinnichev.
C. For Habriel.
D. For Milligan-Morgan.
E. * After Milligan-Morgan and Habriel.
172. The patient of 33 years complain for the expressed pains in the area of anus, that arise up at the end
of act of defecation, admixtures of blood in incandescence. He is ill for a year. Pains were intensive at
first, intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of anal ring longitudinal
linear wound a 2*1 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller. On a 2 cm higher line of comb
polypus on a narrow leg diameter by 0.5 cm. What operations at posterior anal fissure with polypus?
A. Operation Blinnichev.
B. For Habriel.
C. For Milligan-Morgan.
D. Cut off of fissure.
E. * Cut off of fissure and removal of polypus
173. The patient 32 years complain for the expressed pain in the area of anus, which arises up at the end of
act of defecation, admixtures of blood in incandescence. He is ill for a year. Pains were intensive at
first, intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of anal ring longitudinal
linear wound a 2*1 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller. Operation, that indicated to the
patient?
A. Operation Noblja.
B. Operation Habriel.
C. Operation Milligan-Morgan.
D. Suturing of fissure.
E. * Cut off the fissure with dosed sphincterotomy.

174. The patient 32 years complain for the expressed pain in the area of anus, which arises up at the end of
act of defecation, admixtures of blood in stool. He is ill for a year. Pains were intensive at first,
intensity diminished then. At a examination on the back commissure of anal ring longitudinal linear
wound 2*1 cm, pale-grey, with the hypertrophied roller. Your diagnosis?
A. hemorroids
B. cancer of rectum
C. unspecific ulcerative colitis
D. proctopolypus
E. * Posterior anal fissure
175. A patient 30 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic bleeding at
the end of act of defecation, fall off haemorrhoidal knots at defecation. He is ill a few years. The state
is satisfactory. At anoscopy enlarged haemorrhoidal knots are determined at 11 hour. What operation
is radical in this case?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Sclerosing injections
C. Operation of Habriel
D. Ligation of haemorrhoidal knots
E. * Operation of Milligan-Morgan
176. For a patient 29 years a chronic extrasphincteric paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is
indicated ?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Excision of fistula is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
C. Excision of fistula (as Habriel)
D. Excision of fistula is with imposition of deaf sutures
E. * Excision of fistula is with realization of ligature
177. For a patient 28 years a chronic transsphincteric paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is
indicated ?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Excision of fistula is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
C. Excision of fistula is with realization of ligature
D. Excision of fistula (as Habriel)
E. * Excision of fistula is with the partial suturing of bottom of wound
178. For a patient 27 years a acute subcutaneus paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is indicated?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Excision of abscess is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
C. Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature
D. Excision of abscess is with imposition of sutures
E. * Excision of abscess (as Habriel)
179. For a patient 26 years a acute ishiorectal paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is indicated ?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Excision of abscess is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
C. Excision of abscess (by Habriel)
D. Excision of abscess is with imposition of sutures
E. * Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature
180. For a patient 25 years acute horseshoe paraproctitis is diagnosed. What operation is indicated ?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Excision of abscess is with moving of mucous membrane of distal part of rectum
C. Excision of abscess is with imposition of sutures

D. Excision of abscess is with realization of ligature

E. * Excision of abscess (as Habriel)
181. For the patient of 24 years on posterior anal is founded fissure of mucous rectum. Pregnancy of 16
weeks. Tactic of surgeon.
A. operation after Kenu-Mailce
B. cut off fissure
C. operation after Habriel
D. operation after Milligan-Morgan
E. * Cut off fissure after birth of child
182. For a patient a 23 combined hemorroids became complicated by bleeding. Pregnancy of 9 weeks.
Tactic?
A. for Kenu-Mailce
B. after Ryzhykh- 1
C. to conduct operative intervention of after birth of child
D. operation after Habriel
E. * operation after Milligan-Morgan
183. For the patient of 22 during 2 years it is diagnosed combined haemorrhoid. On this time - pregnancy
8 weeks. Tactic?
A. for Kenu-Mailce
B. after Ryzhykh- 1
C. operation after Milligan-Morgan
D. operation after Habriel
E. * to conduct operative treatment after birth of child
184. For a patient 25 years three month ago the ulcer of rectum is diagnosed. At a complex examination
Wassermann test is positive. What is diagnosis
A. crack of rectum
B. fistula
C. paraproctitis
D. hemorroids
E. * venereal limphogranuloma
185. The patient of 43 after the operation of haemorrhoidectomy had cicatricle stricture of anus. What
operation is indicated?
A. colostomy
B. hemorrhoidectomy
C. dosed sphincterotomy
D. bougie of rectum from suturing of mucous rectum to perianal skin
E. * dosed sphincterotomy and suturing of mucous rectum to perianal skin
186. Patient 40 years complines for pain during time of defecation, spasm of sphincter, bleeding. These
symptoms are characteristic for ?
A. a right answer is not
B. shrine of rectum
C. unspecific ulcerative colitis
D. proctopolypus
E. * anal fissure
187. For a patient the combined hemorroids, complicated by a thrombosis, is diagnosed. A patient is
disturbed by pain, discomfort, itch. What is the indication to the operation in this case
A. discomfort
B. itch

C. pain
D. age
E. * thrombosis of haemorrhoidal nodes
188. For a patient intersphincteric fistula of i is 30 years diagnosed external hemorroids. He is ill about 5
years. What operation is indicated?
A. Operation Ryzhykh- 1.
B. Operation Blinnichev.
C. By Habriel.
D. By Milligan-Morgan.
E. * After Milligan-Morgan and Habriel
189. For a patient R. 58 years diagnosed fall-out of rectum of II stage. A capacity and quality of life of
patient is bad. What is operation in this case?
A. Operation Blinnichev.
B. Habriel.
C. Kenu-Mailce.
D. Milligan-Morgan.
E. * Kumel-Zerenin.
190. The patient of 28 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic
bleeding at the end of act of defecation. He is ill a few years. The state is satisfactory. Palpation of
stomach - without pathology. At anoscopy the haemorrhoidal knot are determined at 11 hour, blood
with the edema of mucous membrane. Haemoglobin is 100 /L, red corpuscles 2,7 * 1012.What is a
diagnosis?
A. Poliposis, bleeding, anaemia.
B. Unspecific ulcerative colitis, bleeding, anaemia.
C. Cancer of rectum, bleeding, anaemia.
D. Gastric ulcer, bleeding, anaemia.
E. * Internal haemorrhoid, bleeding, anaemia.
191. The patient of 29 years complain for the unpleasant feeling in the area of rectum and periodic
bleeding at the end of act of defecation. He is ill a few years. The state is satisfactory. Palpation of
stomach - without pathology. It is not founded at the examination of anus and finger inspection of
pathological structure. At anoscopy the haemorrhoidal knot are determined at 11 hour, blood with the
edema of mucous membrane. Haemoglobin is 100 /L; red corpuscles 2,7 * 1012. Treatment?
A. Operation Blinnichev.
B. Operation Habriel.
C. Ryzhykh- 2.
D. Ryzhykh- 1.
E. * Operation Milligan-Morgan.
192. Patient has swelling from an anal channel during the act of defecation, without paine, with fresh
blood after defecation. Previous diagnosis?
A. Proctopolypus
B. Cancer of rectum
C. Acute paraproctitis
D. Anal fissure
E. * Haemorrhoids
193. Patient during the act of defecation has pain in anal channel, red blood in the stool. What disease?
A. Proctopolypus
B. Cancer of rectum
C. Acute paraproctitis

D. Haemorrhoids
E. * Anal fissure
194. A patient with 10-years anamnesis of unspecific ulcerative colitis has periodic swelling of abdomen,
feeling of the incomplete emptying, worsening of the general state. On irrigography is absent
haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What operation is prescribed?
A. Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Sigmoidostomy
C. Left-side hemicolectomy
D. Resection of sigmoid bowel
E. * Colproctectomy
195. Patient has diarrhea up to 25-30 times per days with blood, has weight lost, general weakness,
periodic stomach-ache. He is ill during 1,5 month. What diagnosis?
A. Spastic colitis
B. Diverticulosis
C. Pseudopoliposis
D. colitis
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
196. On irrigography is found the symptoms of water-pipe, shot through target. What is diagnosis?
A. Food toxicoinfection
B. Salmonellosis
C. Dysentery
D. Crohn disease
E. * Unspecific ulcerative colitis
197. Patient 72 years old has acute pain in the left half of abdomeb, nausea, delay of stool and gases. He is
ill 6 hours. No mucus and blood in stool, not weight lost . Pulse 84 per 1 min. Peristaltic noises is
increased periodically. On the X-Ray of organs of abdominal region is present the Kloyber's cup in
the left half of abdomen. What diagnosis ?
A. Diverticulosis
B. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Poliposis
D. Crohn disease
E. * Invagination of sigmoid bowel
198. A patient with 10-years anamnesis of unspecific ulcerative colitis has periodic swelling of abdomen,
feeling of the incomplete emptying, worsening of the general state. On irrigography is absent
haustration with circular narrowing in sigmoid bowel. What complication patient has?
A. Nothing
B. Perforation
C. Bleeding
D. Toxic dilatation
E. * A regeneration to the cancer
199. Patient 27 years old has stomach-ache, liquid stool up to 10 times per days with mucus and blood,
weakness, weight lost. On the irrigigraphy is narrowing of transvers colon. What diagnosis?
A. Unspecific ulcerative colitis
B. Spastic colitis.
C. Polypus of small intestine.
D. Dysentery.
E. * Cancer of transvers colon.

200. Patient 50 years old has permanent pain in the anus, frequent defecation with blood, lost of appetite,
weight lost, weakness. What examination is prescribed?
A. Sonography
B. Doplerography
C. Selective angiography
D. Radio-active scan
E. * A biopsy with histological examination
201. At colonoscopy for a patient 60 years old was removed the polypus of sigmoid bowel in the distance
35 cm from anus. Histologically was found a microinvasive cancer an it apex. On it basis it is not
found the cancer's cell. What is tactic of doctor?
A. Nothing
B. Chemotherapy
C. The resection of sigmoid bowel
D. Radial therapy
E. * Repeated colonoscopies every 3 months
202. Patient has a general weakness, presence of dark blood in the stool. At a rectoscopy on 11 cm from
anus is found the circular narrowing of rectum. What diagnosis?
A. Acute proctitis
B. Chronic paraproctitis
C. Acute paraproctitis
D. Proctopolypus
E. * Cancer of rectum
203. Patient 59 years old has suspicion of the tumor of ascending part of colon. What method of
examination is the best?
A. Endoscopy
B. Sonography
C. Survey sciagraphy
D. Irrigography
E. * A colonoscopy with a biopsy
204. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre?
A. improving the social life of the population
B. iodine
C. vaccination
D. merkasalil
E. * iodination salt
205. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland. What is the
optimal treatment option.
A. conservative treatment thyroidin
B. subtotal thyroidectomy
C. enucleation site
D. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
E. * hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
206. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic of the III degree
of increase in thyroid gland?
A. determined only on ultrasound
B. visible only when swallowing
C. determined only by palpation

D. giant goiter
E. * visible swallowing
207. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic of the III degree
of increase in thyroid gland?
A. determined only on ultrasound
B. visible only when swallowing
C. determined only by palpation
D. giant goiter
E. * visible without swallowing
208. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. radioiodine
B. subtotal thyroidectomy
C. propylthiouracil
D. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
E. * only observation
209. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study
be done.
A. There is no correct answer
B. Doppler
C. Rheovasography
D. EFGDS
E. * Scanning of the thyroid gland
210. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study be
done.
A. Doppler
B. Rheovasography
C. Is no right answer
D. EFGDS
E. * Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
211. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What
study be done.
A. Is no right answer
B. Doppler
C. Rheovasography
D. EFGDS
E. * Thyroid gland
212. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most likely diagnosis.

A. Is no right answer
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Tireodit
D. Goiter
E. * Strumil
213. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter.
A. all wrong
B. all true
C. atypical location of the thyroid gland

D. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver

E. * is a cancer of the thyroid gland
214. Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with complaints
of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. mass thyrotoxicosis
B. epidemic goiter
C. sporadic goiter
D. acute strumitis
E. * there is no right answer
215. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with complaints
of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. mass thyrotoxicosis
B. epidemic goiter
C. sporadic goiter
D. acute strumitis
E. * goiter
216. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment. Your tactics.
A. Is no right answer
B. Treatment is not required
C. Outpatient
D. Continue medical treatment
E. * Surgical treatment
217. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When scanning in
this region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. non-toxic nodular goiter
B. multinodular toxic goiter
C. toxic goiter
D. diffuse non-toxic goiter
E. * nodular toxic goiter
218. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in the left lobe of
the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan revealed a cold junction.
Preliminary diagnosis
A. thyroid cyst
B. metastasis of lung cancer
C. cyst
D. lipoma of the thyroid gland
E. * thyroid cancer
219. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular goiter. Choose
the correct treatment option.
A. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
B. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
C. medication
D. enucleation
E. * resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and routine histological
examination
220. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau.
What a complication arose in a patient?
A. hypothyroidism

B. thyrotoxic crisis
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. laryngeal nerve injury
E. * there is no right answer
221. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau.
What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. hypothyroidism
B. thyrotoxic crisis
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. laryngeal nerve injury
E. * hypoparathyreosis
222. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node.
What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. EEG
B. Rheovasography
C. Doppler
D. X-ray of the neck
E. * scanning with radioactive iodine
223. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node. On
scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable cause of this condition
A. hemorrhage site
B. all true
C. autoimmune
D. cystic degeneration of the node
E. * node malignancy
224. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid gland
size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. EEG
B. Rheovasography
C. Doppler
D. Radiography of the neck
E. * Thyroid gland
225. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid gland
size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the
diagnosis?
A. Protein fraction
B. Immunogram
C. Urinalysis
D. Total blood
E. * Thyroid hormones
226. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One
day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands.
What mated complication of surgery?
A. Increased parathyroid hormone
B. Increased thyroid hormone
C. Lack of thyroid tissue
D. Iodine deficiency
E. * Removal of parathyroid glands

227. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One
day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands.
Treatment.
A. introduction of calcium chloride oral
B. infusion therapy
C. introduction of iodine
D. introduction Seduxen
E. * the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
228. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Immunogram
B. Protein fraction
C. Urinalysis
D. Total blood
E. * Thyroid hormones
229. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. EEG
B. Reovazogrfiyu
C. Doppler
D. Radiography of the neck
E. * Thyroid gland
230. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely
diagnosis
A. goiter De Quervain
B. nodular goiter
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
E. * there is no right answer
231. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely
diagnosis
A. goiter De Quervain
B. nodular goiter
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. Hashimoto struma
E. * toxic goiter
232. 3 hours before admission, the patient appeared "stabbing" pain in the epigastric region. After 1 hour
epigastric pain had decreased slightly, but the patient notes that there were sharp pains in the right
iliac region. What kind of complications of peptic ulcer can think of?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Pyloristenosis
D. Malignancy ulcers

E. * Perforation of gastric ulcer

233. The patient, aged 39, suffering from stomach ulcer, recently had a feeling of heaviness in the
epigastric region, which is usually only after vomiting. The patient has lost much weight. What is the
treatment in this patient?
A. Translate patient infectious disease clinic
B. Transfer the patient in therapy department
C. Conservative treatment
D. Outpatient
E. * Surgical treatment
234. The patient, aged 39, suffering from stomach ulcer, recently had a feeling of heaviness in the
epigastric region, which is usually only after vomiting. The patient has lost much weight. What
method of diagnosis should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. Ultrasound
D. ECG
E. * X-ray study of the abdominal cavity with the passage of barium
235. The patient, aged 39, suffering from stomach ulcer, recently had a feeling of heaviness in the
epigastric region, which is usually only after vomiting. The patient has lost much weight. What kind
of complications of peptic ulcer can think of?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Malignancy ulcers
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Pyloristenosis
236. The patient, aged 48, suffering for years with stomach ulcer. Diagnosed malignancy ulcers. Tactics.
A. Translate patient infectious disease clinic
B. Transfer the patient in therapy department
C. Conservative treatment
D. Outpatient
E. * Surgical treatment
237. The patient, aged 48, suffering for years with stomach ulcer, said that the pain had not become
dependent on food intake, have become permanent and less intense. Noted weakness, malaise,
fatigue. Lost 5 kg. ESR 40 mm / hour. What method of diagnosis should be used to refine the
diagnosis?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-ray study
D. ECG
E. * EFGDS
238. The patient, aged 48, suffering for years with stomach ulcer, said that the pain had not become
dependent on food intake, have become permanent and less intense. Noted weakness, malaise,
fatigue. Lost 5 kg. ESR 40 mm / hour. What kind of complications the peptic ulcer can think of?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Pyloristenosis
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Malignancy ulcers

239. In the ward the patient brought in an unconscious state, with periodic bouts of clonic seizures.
According to relatives, the patient for many years suffered from a disease of the stomach. Last month
the patient had copious vomiting every day, and he lost considerable weight. On examination, the
patient exhausted, dehydrated, in the epigastric region has pigmentation, is determined by the
splashing. What method of research to clarify the diagnosis shows the patient after stabilization of the
state?
A. Ultrasound
B. MRI
C. CT
D. ECG
E. * X-ray study of the abdominal cavity with the passage of barium
240. In the ward the patient brought in an unconscious state, with periodic bouts of clonic seizures.
According to relatives, the patient for many years suffered from a disease of the stomach. Last month
the patient had copious vomiting every day, and he lost considerable weight. On examination, the
patient exhausted, dehydrated, in the epigastric region has pigmentation, is determined by the
splashing. What is the diagnosis can be made sick?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Malignancy ulcers
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Pyloristenosis
241. The patient, 30 years old, was admitted to the surgical department after 2 hours from the moment of
perforation of gastric ulcer. The diagnosis beyond doubt, but the patient categorically refused the
operation. Your tactics.
A. Translate patient infectious disease clinic
B. Transfer the patient in therapy department
C. Forced to operate on a patient
D. Outpatient
E. * No right answer
242. The patient, 30 years old, admitted to the surgical department after 2 hours from the moment of
perforation of gastric ulcer. The diagnosis beyond doubt, but the patient categorically refused the
operation. Your tactics.
A. Translate patient infectious disease clinic
B. Transfer the patient in therapy department
C. Forced to operate on a patient
D. Outpatient
E. * Taylors method
243. The patient, 35 years old, was admitted to the surgical department with ulcerative gastric
hemorrhage. What medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. Veintonics
B. Prostaglandins
C. Vasodilators
D. Antibiotics
E. * Preparations of blood
244. The patient, 33 years old, with no ulcer history admitted to the surgical department with the
diagnosis: perforated gastric ulcer. In the operation revealed perforation hole 0,5 ? 0,5 cm on the
lesser curvature of the stomach, without inflammatory infiltration around. What should be the
volume of transactions?
A. Gastrostomy
B. The operation is not shown
C. Resection of gastric Billroth II
D. Resection of gastric Billroth I
E. * No right answer
245. The patient, 33 years old, with no ulcer history admitted to the surgical department with the
diagnosis: perforated gastric ulcer. In the operation revealed perforation hole 0,5 ? 0,5 cm on the
lesser curvature of the stomach, without inflammatory infiltration around. What should be the volume
of transactions?
A. Gastrostomy
B. The operation is not shown
C. Resection of gastric Billroth II
D. Resection of gastric Billroth I
E. * Suturing of perforated holes
246. The patient, 35 years old, was admitted to the surgical department with ulcerative gastric
hemorrhage. What medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. Veintonics
B. Prostaglandins
C. Vasodilators
D. Antibiotics
E. * Saline infusion solutions
247. The patient, 35 years old, was admitted to the surgical department with ulcerative gastric
hemorrhage. What medications is necessary to appoint a patient?
A. Veintonics
B. Prostaglandins
C. Vasodilators
D. Antibiotics
E. * H2 blockers
248. The patient with a history of ulcerative while examining the abdomen indicated the disappearance of
liver dullness. What is the diagnosis should be suspected in a patient?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Malignancy ulcers
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Ulcer bleeding
249. The patient, 35 years old, admitted to emergency room, diagnosed a bleeding stomach ulcer. Where
the patient must treatment?
A. Day hospital
B. Orthopedics
C. Surgery
D. Therapeutic department
E. * Intensive Care Unit
250. The patient, 40 years old, long-suffering with stomach ulcer, said that the last 2 days the pain had
become less intense, but at the same time it has been increasing weakness, dizziness. In morning for a
few seconds to lose consciousness. On examination, pulse 100 in 1 min. The patient was pale. In the
epigastric region is very little pain. No symptoms of irritation of the peritoneum. Where You sent for
treatment patient?
A. Day hospital
B. Orthopedics

C. Surgery
D. Therapeutic department
E. * Intensive Care Unit
251. The patient, 40 years old, long-suffering with stomach ulcer, said that the last 2 days the pain had
become less intense, but at the same time it has been increasing weakness, dizziness. In morning for a
few seconds to lose consciousness. On examination, pulse 100 in 1 min. The patient was pale. In the
epigastric region is very little pain. No symptoms of irritation of the peritoneum. What additional
research you can apply for further diagnosis?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-ray study
D. ECG
E. * EFGDS
252. The patient, 40 years old, long-suffering with stomach ulcer, said that the last 2 days the pain had
become less intense, but at the same time it has been increasing weakness, dizziness. In morning for a
few seconds to lose consciousness. On examination, pulse 100 in 1 min. The patient was pale. In the
epigastric region is very little pain. No symptoms of irritation of the peritoneum. What complication
of peptic ulcer you can suspect?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer Penetration
C. Malignancy ulcers
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Ulcer bleeding
253. The patient with a history of ulcerative with X-ray determined by a deep niche, located on the back
wall near the small curvature of the antrum. What diagnoses are in the patient?
A. All answers are correct
B. Ulcer bleeding
C. Malignancy ulcers
D. Perforated ulcer
E. * Penetration ulcers
254. The patient, 42 years old, gastric ulcer in existence for 10 years. After treatment in hospital advanced
remission. Three months ago, the patient appeared pain in the lumbar region, sometimes wearing
herpes character. What study should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. Doppler
B. Rheovasography
C. Urinalysis
D. Total blood
E. * No right answer
255. The patient, 42 years old, gastric ulcer in existence for 10 years. After treatment in hospital advanced
remission. Three months ago, the patient appeared pain in the lumbar region, sometimes wearing
herpes character. What study should be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. Doppler
B. Rheovasography
C. Urinalysis
D. Total blood
E. * X-ray study of the digestive tract with barium
256. Patient S., 27 years old admitted to clinic with the diagnosis: perforated ulcer. What study should be
carried out in the first place?
A. Ultrasound

B. MRI
C. CT
D. ECG
E. * Survey radiography of the abdominal cavity
257. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer Conservative treatment is not effective. What
tactics are indicating for treating a patient?
A. Not require treatment
B. Infusion therapy
C. Outpatient
D. Continue medical treatment
E. * No right answer
258. The patient, 34 years old, 6 years ago was silent ulcer perforation duodenum. Two years after this the
patient felt well and do not appealed. Then came the pain, typical of peptic diseases. What method of
research is the most informative?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-ray
D. ECG
E. * Endoscopy
259. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer. Conservative treatment is not effective. What
tactics are indicating for treating a patient?
A. Not require treatment
B. Infusion therapy
C. Outpatient
D. Continue medical treatment
E. * Surgical treatment
260. The patient, 36 years old, 12 years suffer stomach ulcer. It is treated routinely in the clinic. What
method of research is most informative?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. X-rye
D. ECG
E. * EFGDS

(): : 11
Zadachi sur6 part2
:

:
1. Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray examination with v/v
injection of cardiotrast is conducted. At the end of injection the state of patient acutely became worse,
the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch appeared. BP 60/20 mm of merc. item, Ps
132/min. A similar research was conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not observed. What most
reliable diagnosis?
A. * Medicinal anaphylactic shock
B. Acute kidney insufficiency
C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
D. Stress on the conducted manipulation
E. Heart attack miocardium
2. Patient 47 years old transferred to the clinic with the diagnosis: acute myocardial infarction. In the
first period of observation suddenly lost consciousness. Pulse and blood pressure are not detected. On
ECG is sinus rhythm with the transition to ventricular asystole. Your actions regarding the treatment?

A. defibrillation
B. ganglioblockers
C. indirect heart massage
D. inderal iv
E. * sympatomimetics iv
3. Which of the enumerated psychotropic substances is non acceptable to use in psychomotor excitation
in patients?
A. droperidol
B. oxybutyrat sodium
C. diazepam
D. aminasin
E. * ditylin
4. of patient 7,49, BE - +6, PaCO2 - 42. Your diagnosis:
A. * subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
5. of patient 7,55, BE - + 8, PaCO2 40. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
6. of patient 7,48, BE - - 1,5, PaCO2 30. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. * subcompensated respiratory alkalosis

7. of patient 7,52, BE - + 4, PaCO2 30. Your diagnosis:

A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * is mixed the subcompensated alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
8. of patient 7,49, BE - - 4, PaCO2 31. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator alkalosis with metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
9. of patient 7,2, BE - - 10, PaCO2 36. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * decompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
10. of patient 7,3, BE - - 5, PaCO2 - 33. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. * subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. decompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
11. of patient 7,3, BE - + 3, PaCO2 49. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
12. of patient 7,3, BE - - 5, PaCO2 48. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * is mixed the subcompensated acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
13. of patient 7,3, BE - + 5, PaCO2 50. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator acidosis with a metabolic alkalosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
14. Distribute water on the water sectors of organism for a woman with mass 50 kg (general water -
intracellular - extra cellular):
A. * 30 20 - 10
B. 70 40 30

C. 50 30 20
D. 40 20 20
E. 55 30 25
15. Specify what norm of loss of water with urine for days for a woman with mass 50 kg:
A. 2400 ml
B. * 1200 of ml
C. 1000 of ml
D. 1500 of ml
E. 1600 of ml
16. Specify what norm of perspirations losses for a woman with mass 50 kg:
A. 2400 of ml
B. * 600 of ml
C. 1000 of ml
D. 1500 of ml
E. 1600 of ml
17. Hematokrit 0,55, Sodium 160 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. * hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. isotonic hypohydration
D. hypertensive overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
18. Hematokrit 0,5, Sodium 138 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. * isotonic hypohydration
D. hypertensive overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
19. Hematokrit 0,28, Sodium 160 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. isotonic hypohydration
D. * hypertensive to the overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
20. of patient 7,5, BE - + 7, PaCO2 - 44. Your diagnosis:
A. * subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
21. of patient 7,55, BE - + 11, PaCO2 46. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
22. of patient 7,5, BE - - 1,0, PaCO2 31. Your diagnosis:

A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis

B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. * subcompensated respiratory alkalosis
23. of patient 7,5, BE - + 5, PaCO2 28. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * is mixed the subcompensated alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
24. of patient 7,5, BE - - 5, PaCO2 28. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator alkalosis with metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
25. of patient 7,5, BE - + 2, PaCO2 - 40. Your diagnosis:
A. * subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
26. of patient 7,6, BE - + 2, PaCO2 40. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
27. of patient 7,5, BE - + 1,5, PaCO2 32. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. * subcompensated respirator alkalosis
28. of patient 7,5, BE - + 2, PaCO2 32. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * is mixed the subcompensated alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
29. of patient 7,5, BE - - 2, PaCO2 32. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator alkalosis with metabolic acidosis

E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis

30. of patient 7,2, BE - - 8, PaCO2 40. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * decompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
31. of patient 7,3, BE - - 2, PaCO2 - 40. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. * subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. decompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
32. of patient 7,3, BE - + 1, PaCO2 48. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
33. of patient 7,3, BE - - 2, PaCO2 48. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * is mixed the subcompensated acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
34. of patient 7,3, BE - + 2, PaCO2 48. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator acidosis with a metabolic alkalosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
35. Distribute water on the water sectors of organism for a man with mass 100 kg (general water -
intracellular - extracellular):
A. * 60 40 - 20
B. 70 40 30
C. 50 30 20
D. 40 20 20
E. 55 30 25
36. Specify what norm of loss of water with urine for days for a man with mass 100 kg:
A. * 2400 ml
B. 1200 of ml
C. 1000 of ml
D. 1500 of ml
E. 1600 of ml
37. Specify what norm of perspirations losses for a man with mass 100 kg:
A. 2400 of ml
B. * 1200 of ml
C. 1000 of ml
D. 1500 of ml
E. 1600 of ml
38. Hematokrit 0,5, Sodium 155 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. * hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. isotonic hypohydration
D. hypertensive overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
39. Hematokrit 0,5, Sodium 140 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. * isotonic hypohydration
D. hypertensive overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
40. Hematokrit 0,3, Sodium 155 mmol/l. Specify the type of Violation of homoeostasis:
A. hypertensive hypohydration
B. hypotonic hypohydration
C. isotonic hypohydration
D. * hypertensive to the overhydratation
E. hypotonic overhydratation
41. of patient 7,5, BE - + 2, PaCO2 - 40. Your diagnosis:
A. * subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
42. of patient 7,55, BE - + 5, PaCO2 46. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
43. of patient 7,5, BE - - 1,5, PaCO2 30. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. * subcompensated respiratory alkalosis
44. of patient 7,5, BE - + 3, PaCO2 30. Your diagnosis:
A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. * is mixed the subcompensated alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. noncompensated metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis

45. of patient 7,5, BE - - 3, PaCO2 30. Your diagnosis:

A. subcompensated metabolic alkalosis
B. decompensated metabolic alkalosis
C. subcompensated metabolic acidosis
D. * subcompensated respirator alkalosis with metabolic acidosis
E. subcompensated respirator alkalosis
46. A patient, 28 years, 2 hours ago fell down from the ground floor of house. Sopor, pale, there are the
plural scratches of face, the lacerated hemorrhagic wounds on the left forearm. The closed break of
the left shoulder and thigh. Pulse 110, Hb 100 g/l, BP 90/40 mm of Hg. Item. In the blood test:
red corpuscles 3,5 g/l. What infusion remedy can not be used for medical treatment of shock?
A. * 5% solution of glucose
B. Solution of crystalloids
C. Solutions gelatin
D. Solutions of calcium
E. Solution of albumen
47. . A patient with a traumatic shock BP 50/0 mm Hg, Ps 160 /1 min. Define a shock index:
A. 2,5
B. 1,5
C. 0,5
D. 0,3
E. * 3,2
48. . On a 4 day after incompatible (on a group) blood transfusion at a patient acutely reduced diuresis,
anuria developed, the common state became worse acutely, arterial pressure rose. At laboratory
research: creatinin plasma 680 mlmol/l, urea of plasma - 24 mmol/l. What illness and what stage of
illness it follows to think about in the first place?
A. * Acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
B. Anaphylactic shock, acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
C. Hemotransfusion shock, postrenal acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
D. Posthemoragic acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
E. acute interstitsial nephritis, postrenal anuria
49. A patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the surgical department with
complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarrhea, moderately expressed thirst. Objectively: a
skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a tongue is dry, AP 80/60 mm Hg, Ps 120/min., BF
28/min., diuresis 25 ml/h. Blood test: Er. - 2,8* 1012/l, Hb 98 g/l. What will be most expedient in
medical treatment:(
A. * solutions of colloid
B. 5% solution of glucose
C. Whole blood
D. Red corpuscles mass
E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass
50. . The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a diagnosis: bite of bee,
anaphylactic shock. Which medicine will be primary and most effective?
A. * Adrenalin
B. Calcium the chloride
C. Prednizolon
D. Dimedrol
E. Suprastin

51. . A patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis: penetrable wound of
abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and visible mucous shells are pale;
peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, BP 110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom of
desolation of peripheral hypodermic veins. Diuresis is lowered. How to characterize this state?
A. * The compensated shock
B. Preagonia
C. Circulating shock
D. Agony
E. Irreversible shock
52. . Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray examination with v/v
injection of cardiotrast is conducted. At the end of injection the state of patient acutely became worse,
the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch appeared. BP 60/20 mm of merc. item, Ps
132/min. A similar research was conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not observed. What most
reliable diagnosis?
A. * Medicinal anaphylactic shock
B. Acute kidney insufficiency
C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
D. Stress on the conducted manipulation
E. Heart attack miocardium
53. . Patient N., 40 years. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. After
injection of antytetanus serum on a method Besredco concerning the hammered wound of right shin,
through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, laboring breath, through 10 mines, loss of
consciousness. What mechanism of development of anaphylactic form of illness?
A. * Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
54. . In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of knee-
joints is delivered. A patient is extremely inert, languid, pale, pulse 160 b\min, threadlike, BP 60\0.
On both lower extremities there are the imposed plaits. Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From
the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of
heavy of the state of patient?
A. * Acute hemorrhage.
B. Pain shock.
C. . Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
55. . Patient N has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/80=1,5
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
56. Patient N has BP - 90/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/90=1,3
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3

E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown

57. Patient N has BP - 60/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/60=2
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
58. Patient N has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 140 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 140/80=1,75
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
59. Patient N has BP - 50/20 mm mercury, pulse - 140 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 140/50=2,8
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
60. Patient N has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 160 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 160/80=2
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
61. Patient N has BP -100/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/100=1,2
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
62. Patient N has BP - 40/0 mm mercury, pulse - 130 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 130/40=3,25
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
63. Patient N has BP - 70/40 mm mercury, pulse - 140 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 140/70=2
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
64. Patient N has BP - 110/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/110=1,09
B. (80+40)120=1

C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
65. Patient N has BP -120/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/120=1
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
66. Patient N has BP - 100/40 mm mercury, pulse - 100 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 100/100=1
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
67. Patient N has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 100 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 100/80=1,25
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
68. Patient N has BP - 110/40 mm Hg, pulse - 100 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 100/110=0,9
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
69. Patient N has BP - 100/40 mm Hg, pulse - 80 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 80/100=0,8
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
70. Patient N has BP - 70/0 mm mercury, pulse - 125 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 125/70=1,78
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
71. Patient N has BP - 120/40 mm mercury, pulse - 90 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 90/120=0,75
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
72. Patient N has BP - 90/50 mm mercury, pulse - 60 per min, shock index for him:

A. * 60/90=0,66
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
73. Patient N has BP - 120/60 mm mercury, pulse - 60 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 60/120=0,5
B. (80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
74. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: aneurysm of the thoracic aorta. What is the most
likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * Atherosclerosis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
75. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: aneurysm of the thoracic aorta. What is the most
likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * Marfan's syndrome
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
76. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: aneurysm of the thoracic aorta. What is the most
likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * Syphilis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
77. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: aneurysm of the thoracic aorta. What is the most
likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
78. The patient admitted to hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta. What is
the most likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * Nonspecific aortoarteriitis
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis

79. The patient admitted to hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta. What is
the most likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * No right answer
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
80. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: diffuse enlargement of the thoracic aorta. What is
the most likely cause of the aneurysm?
A. * Morfan syndrome
B. Fibrosis
C. Mycosis
D. Endarteritis
E. Chronic bronchitis
81. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. What early complications can occur in the postoperative
period?
A. * Thrombosis segment reconstruction
B. Aneurysm segment reconstruction
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Suppurating wounds
E. All true
82. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. In the early postoperative period for what should make an
observation?
A. * Blood pressure monitoring
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement of torso
E. All true
83. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. In the early postoperative period for what should make an
observation?
A. * The postoperative wound
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement of torso
E. All true
84. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. In the early postoperative period for what should make an
observation?
A. * Neurological status
B. The muscle of the upper extremities
C. The muscle of the upper extremities
D. Possibility of movement of torso
E. All true
85. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. Which of the drugs should appoint a patient to prevent
thrombosis segment reconstruction?
A. * Heparin
B. Actovegin
C. Atenolol
D. Klaritn

E. Cyphran
86. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. Which of the drugs should appoint a patient to prevent
thrombosis segment reconstruction?
A. * Clexane
B. Actovegin
C. Atenolol
D. Klaritn
E. Cyphran
87. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. Which of the drugs should appoint a patient to prevent
thrombosis segment reconstruction?
A. * Fraxiparine
B. Actovegin
C. Atenolol
D. Klaritn
E. Cyphran
88. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. Which of the drugs should appoint a patient to improve
the rheological properties of blood?
A. * Rheosorbilact
B. Heparin
C. Atenolol
D. Klaritn
E. Cyphran
89. Patients underwent carotid endarterectomy. Which of the drugs should appoint a patient to improve
blood rheology?
A. * Ringer-Locke
B. Heparin
C. Atenolol
D. Klaritn
E. Cyphran
90. The patient was scheduled carotid endarterectomy surgery. What type of anesthesia is optimal for this
operation?
A. * Local
B. Epidural
C. Cerebrospinal
D. Anesthesia is not required
E. All true
91. The patient was scheduled carotid endarterectomy surgery under local anesthesia. What are the
advantages of this type anesthesia?
A. * Precise control of the state of consciousness of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
92. The patient was scheduled carotid endarterectomy surgery under local anesthesia. What are the
advantages of this type anesthesia?
A. * Precise control of the neurological status of the patient
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient

D. The possibility of movements

E. All true
93. The patient was scheduled carotid endarterectomy surgery under local anesthesia. What are the
advantages of this type anesthesia?
A. * Ability to maintain spontaneous respiration
B. Muscle relaxation
C. Lack of consciousness of the patient
D. The possibility of movements
E. All true
94. In the patient diagnosed stenosis of the internal carotid artery 80 - 85%. What operation are need to
perform?
A. * Carotid endarterectomy
B. Subclavicular-axellary bypass
C. Axillaries-femoral bypass
D. Operation is not required
E. All true
95. The patient diagnosed stenosis of the internal carotid artery 80 - 85%. What operation are need to
perform?
A. * No right answer
B. Subclavicular-axellary bypass
C. Axillaries-femoral bypass
D. Operation is not required
E. All true
96. The patient plan carotid endarterectomy surgery. Which of the following is a contraindication to this
operation?
A. * 6 weeks after stroke
B. 8 weeks after stroke
C. 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
97. The patient plane carotid endarterectomy surgery. Which of the following is a contraindication to this
operation?
A. * The presence of gross neurological disorders after stroke
B. 8 weeks after stroke
C. 10 weeks after stroke
D. Contraindications No
E. All true
98. A Patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * Ultrasound examination
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
99. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * Arteriography
B. Rheovasography

C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
100. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * No right answer
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
101. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of more than
1000 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. * I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
102. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 300 - 400
m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. * II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
103. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 200 m.
What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency is the patient?
A. * II B
B. I
C. II A
D. III
E. IV
104. A patient admitted with complaints of pain at rest. What stage of chronic arterial insufficiency has the
patient?
A. * III
B. I
C. II A
D. II B
E. IV
105. A patient admitted with complaints of pain from intermittent claudication, and impotence. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
106. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the muscles of the buttocks and waist. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome

B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
107. At examination the patient was diagnosedthe absence pulse on femoral arteries. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
108. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
109. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Diabetic angiopathy
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
110. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Sciatica
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Thrombosis of iliac vein
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
111. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Epidural block
B. No-shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucin
E. Solcoseryl
112. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Paravertebral sympathetic blockade
B. No shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucine
E. Solcoseryl
113. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Rheopoliglucin
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
114. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic
arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
115. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm should be used:
A. * Papaverine
B. Rheopoliglikin
C. Seduksen
D. Actovegin
E. Niacin
116. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Oppel
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
117. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Goldflam
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
118. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Panchenko
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
119. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking. What is this
symptom:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Troyanov
C. Oppel
D. Panchenko
E. Kokket
120. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method
of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. * Arteriography
B. Thermometry

C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
121. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic
arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
122. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
123. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Diabetic angiopathy
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
124. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. Sciatica
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Thrombosis of iliac vein
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
125. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Epidural block
B. No-shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucin
E. Solcoseryl
126. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Paravertebral sympathetic blockade
B. No shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucine
E. Solcoseryl
127. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Rheopoliglucin
B. Seduksen

C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
128. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic
arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
129. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm should be used:
A. * Papaverine
B. Rheopoliglikin
C. Seduksen
D. Actovegin
E. Niacin
130. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Oppel
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
131. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Goldflam
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
132. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Panchenko
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
133. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking. What is this
symptom:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Troyanov
C. Oppel
D. Panchenko
E. Kokket
134. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method
of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. * Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs

D. Radiography of the chest cavity

E. ECG
135. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method
of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. * No right answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
136. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method
of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. * Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
137. In patient suspected abdominal angina. What method of diagnosis should be used?
A. * Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
138. In the patient was diagnosed segmental atherosclerotic occlusion of superficial femoral artery. What
operation is indicated the patient?
A. * Femoro-femoral autovenous bypass
B. Endarterectomy of the common femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass
D. Aorto-femoral bypass
E. Aortic prosthesis
139. In the patient diagnosed long atherosclerotic occlusion of the superficial femoral artery. What
operation is indicated the patient?
A. * No right answer
B. Endarterectomy of the common femoral artery
C. Iliac-femoral bypass
D. Aorto-femoral bypass
E. Aortic prosthesis
140. In the patient diagnosed local stenosis of the common femoral artery. What operation is indicated
the patient?
A. * Endarterectomy of the common femoral artery
B. Femoropopliteal bypass autovenous
C. Iliac-femoral bypass
D. Aorto-femoral bypass
E. Aortic prosthesis
141. In the patient was diagnosed occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency
of II degree. What do need to appoint for improve blood circulation?
A. * Alprostan
B. Dikloberl

C. Vasilip
D. Ciprinol
E. Atenolol
142. In the patient was diagnosed occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic arterial insufficiency
of II degree. What do need to appoint for improve blood circulation?
A. * Vazoprostan
B. Dikloberl
C. Vasilip
D. Ciprinol
E. Atenolol
143. In the patient diagnosed obliterative atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial
insufficiency of the I degree. What do need to appoint for improve blood circulation?
A. * Ultrahigh frequency therapy
B. Dikloberl
C. Vasilip
D. Ciprinol
E. Atenolol
144. In the patient diagnosed obliterative atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial
insufficiency of the I century. What do need to appoint for improve blood circulation?
A. * Plasmapheresis
B. Dikloberl
C. Vasilip
D. Ciprinol
E. Atenolol
145. In the patient diagnosed obliterative atherosclerosis of lower extremities, chronic arterial
insufficiency III degree. Therapeutic strategy
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Spa treatment
C. Physiotherapy treatment
D. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
E. Balneotherapy
146. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins the left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed only varicose saphenous veins of legs without edema. What stage of varicose
veins is in a patient?
A. * I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
147. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins of lower leg with swelling and pasty. What stage of
varicose veins is in a patient?
A. * II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV

148. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins with leg edema, pasty, and induration of the skin
ulcer in the lower third of the leg. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. * III
B. II A
C. I
D. II B
E. IV
149. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency I degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Elastic compression
B. Surgical treatment
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
150. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
151. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency III degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
152. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. What drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
153. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Phlebodia
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
154. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
155. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated?
A. * Aspirin
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
156. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins, right lower extremity, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated?
A. * Cardimagnil
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksiphilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
157. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate
information about the state of the venous system?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
158. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of the venous system?
A. * Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
159. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of communicative veins?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
160. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of communicative veins?
A. * No right answer
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG

161. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of the venous system?
A. * Flebotonometry
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
162. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of Article III. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate
information about the state of the venous system?
A. * Functional Tests
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
163. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III drgree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Congenital arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
164. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Obtained arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
165. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Venous angiodysplasias
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
166. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * No right answer
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
167. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II drgree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Obstruction of deep veins
B. Chronic bronchitis

C. Past history of pneumonia

D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
168. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Angina
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
169. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Heart failure
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
170. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, lung sounds by percussion, by auscultation crackling rales over the lower
lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with areas of
enlightenment in the center. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Abscessing pneumonia.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
171. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest expressed
infiltration of lung tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. * Acute lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Abscessing pneumonia.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
172. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction cavity with the
fibrous capsule in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of lung tissue is not
determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.

173. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction cavity with the fluid
level, with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of the left lung. Infiltration
of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Suppurative cyst of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
174. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, over the left lobe a dull percussion sound, by auscultation the breathing is
absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with an oblique upper
level along Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Pleural empyema.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
175. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing. On X-ray of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the projection of the left
lower lobe of the lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Limited empyema.
B. Wide-spread pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Chronic lung abscess.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
176. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower
lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are
the best for the patient?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
177. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by
auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left
lung with a horizontal fluid level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of collapsed lung.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Limited pyopneumothorax.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Pleural empyema.
E. Total pyopneumothorax.

178. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the
onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On X-
ray of the chest expressed infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. * Gangrene of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
179. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the
onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe of the
left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant cavity in the
lower lobe with the level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Gangrenous abscess of lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Gangrene of the lung.
180. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the
chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By
auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100
beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
181. In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in the chest, severe
cough, fever to 39C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's condition remains grave, with
expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum, and hectic fever. On X-ray on the
background of the heterogeneous shadow of the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with a
horizontal level of fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Abscess of the right lung
B. Gangrene of the right lung
C. Acute abscess of the right lung
D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung
E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern
182. The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150 ml per day,
pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38C. Has been ill for two weeks. The day before the
entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to 300 ml of purulent bad-smell sputum. On
examination: a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound under the right scapula, and the
weakening of vesicular breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Acute lung abscess
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess
D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease

E. Pleural empyema
183. Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper lobe of right
lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of antibiotics, sulfanilamidns
drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100 ml per day, fever (37,6C). What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute abscess of the right lung
C. Tuberculous cavern
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Suppurative cyst of lung
184. The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest, coughing, with
daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2C. The X-rays of the lower lobe of right lung
revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and outside spicules with minor infiltration around.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Periferal form of lung cancer
B. Chronic lung abscess
C. Suppuration cyst of lung
D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Limited empyema
185. The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated bleeding., The patient is
undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the most suitable for preoperative
prophylaxis?
A. * Cephalosporins.
B. Penicillin.
C. Macrolides.
D. Aminoglycosides.
E. Fluorohinolones.
186. The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are
the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. * Vitamin K.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antibiotics.
D. Antiaggregants.
E. Prostaglandins.
187. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How this bleeding is
classified?
A. * I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
188. The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of both sides. After
the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest. Therapeutist on the next day during
pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus. What is the mechanism of acute right-side empyema?
A. * Contact-aspirating.
B. Lymphogenous.
C. Hematogenous.
D. Implantation.

E. Airborne.
189. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are the most
suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. * Dicynon.
B. Heparin.
C. Penicillin.
D. Courantil.
E. Alprostan.
190. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Esophagotraheal fistula
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Stenosis of the esophagus
E. Esophageal achalasia
191. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What complication is probable for this disease?
A. * Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
192. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the typical treatment of this disease?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
193. On X-ray of the esophagus in the right lateral projection in the middle third on the front wall was
found out the additional shadow, of round shape with smooth contours to 2 cm in diameter. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Achalasia of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Chemical burn of the esophagus
E. Diaphragmatic hernia
194. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What operation is performed in this disease?
A. * Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy

C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
195. To the hospital entered a man in the critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea, subcutaneous
emphysema on the neck and upper part of body. Complains of severe pain behind the breastbone and
epigastrium. The body temperature of 38,9C, pulse 130 beats/min, blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg.
From anamnesis 6 years ago after drinking appeared the vomit, which resulted in the signatic. What
is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous rupture of esophagus
B. Incarceration of paraesophageal hernia
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Perforated ulcer
196. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Achalasia of esophagus
B. Peptic stenosis of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Diverticulum of the esophagus
E. Sliding esophageal hernia
197. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What stage of dysphagia relates to such manifestations?
A. * II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
198. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the roentgenological sign of this disease in contrast X-ray
with barium?
A. * "Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
199. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the main method of diagnostic of this disease?
A. * X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest

E. Irrigoscopy
200. The tool dilation of burn and peptic stricture of the esophagus has a risk of perforation with the
development of purulent mediastinitis and pleural empyema. What is the least dangerous method for
perforation should be applied in the first attempt of dilation of the stricture?
A. * Dilatation of the stricture by balloon dilatator with a stable diameter of the cylinder.
B. Bouginage under the control of esophagoscope.
C. Bouginage along the metal conductor.
D. The blind bouginage under local anesthesia.
E. Bouginage under the control of X-ray
201. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia
of esophagus of the IV stage with S-shaped deformation. What is the optimal treatment?
A. * Operation esophagocardiomyotomy with plastic by the stomach fundus.
B. Cardiodilatation by hard probe.
C. Cardiodilatation balloon probe.
D. Operation esophago-fundoanastomosis by Heyrovsky.
E. Resection of the cardia with esophageal anastomosis.
202. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia
of esophagus of the IV stage. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of this disease?
A. * Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
203. Patient 52 entered the clinic with complaints of complete obstruction of the esophagus, salivation,
weakness, t-38,7C. Dysphagia has been for 8 days, after the swallowing of piece of the meat with
bone. On X-ray the barium delays at the middle third of the esophagus. On fibroesophagoscopy was
found a wedged bone with hyperemia and edema of the mucous membrane, covered by fibrin. What
is the optimal treatment strategy in this case?
A. * Surgical treatment: thoracotomy, esophagotomy, removal of foreign body (bone), suturing of the
esophagus + gastrostomy.
B. Endoscopic removal of foreign body by rigid esophagoscope
C. Pushing of foreign body in the stomach by bougie.
D. Removal of foreign body by the Fogarty's probe
E. Removal of foreign body by fiberoptic endoscope.
204. Among the methods of esophageal plastic the most physiologic and safe modern method is:
A. * Isoperistaltic plastic by tube of the greater curvature of the stomach after the extirpation of the
esophagus through a cervical-laparotomy access.
B. Large intestine plastic in antiperistaltic position of the transplant.
C. Large intestine plastic in isoperistaltic position of the transplant.
D. Large intestine plastic with a skin flap.
E. Large intestine plastic by ileocecal segment.
205. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever,
tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior
mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.

D. Acute pleural empyema.

E. Paraesophageal hernia.
206. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone, loss of weight. Has been ill for 7 months. Last 2
weeks noticed difficult passing of solid food. On contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: filling defect of
lower thoracic part of the esophagus, a "niche" sign of the lesser curvature of stomach. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. * Gastric ulcer
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
D. Sliding esophageal hernia
E. Peptic duodenal ulcer
207. Complaints of the pain behind the breastbone, difficult passage of solid food, weight loss, dizziness.
Has been ill for 3 months. Last 2 days disturbs the vomiting after fluid food, the stagnation of fluid
food. On EGDS severe narrowing of the esophagus, rigidity of the walls, hyperemic mucosa without
folds. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Esophageal cancer
B. Sliding esophageal hernia
C. Paraesophageal hernia
D. Reflux esophagitis
E. Varicose veins of the esophagus
208. The woman aged 52 complains of pain behind the breastbone, difficult passing of solid food through
esophagus, increased salivation. The doctor advised 0,1 % solution of atropine before eating. After 3
days on X-rays no pathology was revealed. The doctor should do for this patient:
A. * Send to fibroesophagoscopy
B. Allow the job
C. Control visit after 2 months
D. Treatment by spasmolytics
E. Send to ECG
209. In the patient six months ago appeared the complaints of pain behind the sternum and a strong
burning sensation in the esophagus. Sometimes observed dysphagia. On X-ray examination found
the presence of diverticulum of the left wall of esophagus at the level of tracheal bifurcation 3?4 cm,
just below the aortic arch. The patient was not treated. What tactics of treatment should be choused?
A. * Right-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
B. Left-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
C. Right-side thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus.
D. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
E. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
210. The woman, 38 years old, complains of difficulty passage of solid meal on esophagus, vomiting by
undigested food, night regurgitation (sign of ,,wet pillow"), loss of weight. Has been ill for 10 years.
On X-ray examination with barium the sign of "rat tail", dilation of the esophagus to 6 cm with
maintained peristalsis. What stage of achalasia is there in this patient?
A. * II
B. I
C. 0
D. III
E. IV

211. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
B. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
C. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic subcutaneous
emphysema.
E. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic complicated hemothorax.
212. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. What additional examination is the most suitable?
A. * Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
213. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the typical treatment of rib fracture?
A. * Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
214. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the treatment of pneumothorax?
A. * Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
215. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is
performed?
A. * II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line

E. VII intercostal space, scapular line

216. The patient received chest trauma 14 days ago. Complains of a moderate pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea, fever up to 38,5C. Lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, narrowing of
the intercostal spaces. By percussion - a shortening of the percussion sound over the right lung, by
auscultation - weakening of breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Right-side suppurative hemothorax.
B. Right-side posttraumatic pneumonia.
C. Right-side hemothorax.
D. Right-side pyopneumothorax.
E. Consolidated rib fractures.
217. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
218. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
219. Female patient, 62 years old, was got in accident. On examination was detected the region of the right
half of the chest, which disengages during inspiration. What are the most appropriate therapeutic
measures?
A. * External fixation of a floating area
B. Introduction of narcotic analgetics
C. Vagosympathetic block by Vishnevsky
D. Tight chest bandage
E. Paravertebral blockade
220. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours

221. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. * Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
222. In the patient after the accident with multiple rib fracture during the puncture of pleural cavity
received the gastric content. What additional examination is the most suitable?
A. * Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
223. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower
lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are
the best for the patient?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
224. In the patient after blunt chest trauma with a sternum fracture appeared the weakness, hypotension,
cyanosis of the upper half of the body, distension of the neck veins. By pleural puncture the content is
absent. Pulse 120 beats.per min, rhythmic, weakened. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Cardiac tamponade
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Contusion of the heart
D. Acute myocardial infarction
E. Coagulated hemopericardium
225. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. What is the first aid?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Intravenous infusion
C. Oxygenotherapy
D. Intubation
E. Analgesics
226. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper
half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found
out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the first aid?
A. * Drainage of the anterior mediastinum
B. Puncture of the pleural cavity
C. Drainage of the pleural cavity
D. Thoracoscopy
E. Thoracotomy

227. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper
half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found
out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
228. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space
in pneumothorax is performed?
A. * II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
229. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in
hemothorax is performed?
A. * VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
230. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What method is the most informative in the
diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. * Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
231. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What test is used to determine the continuity of
pleural bleeding?
A. * Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
232. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the
chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By
auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100
beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy

E. Pneumonia
233. In postoperating period of patient T.,conducted post-natal metroendometriosis complication appeared
with sudden increasing of AP to 80/50 mmHg., breathing rate 42 per min, Pulse is 110 per min. Skin
is pale, covered with sticky death-damp. The uterine bleeding absent. What should we begin the first
aid from ?
A. * artificial ventilation of lungs
B. infusion therapy
C. Antibacterial therapy
D. Support of cardiac extrass
E. Laparotomii with next extraction of uterus
234. . Patient C. complain on pain in the heart during 40 min. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the
left ventricle at a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium, are not included
A. nitroglycerine
B. fentolamin
C. nitroproussid sodium
D. * esmolol (brevibloc)
E. nifedipinum
235. Patient N., 28 years old. 6 day after the complicated births. The clinical hematological signs of sub
acute disseminate intravascular coagulation syndrome developed after skin hemorrhage and uterine
bleeding. The state of patient is very bad. blood: Er-2,7 of T/l, Hb-78 of gm/l, thrombocytes-
88*104 /l, time of blood cloating - 16 min, prothrombin time - 25 sec, ethanol test +, fibrinogen-1,4
gm/l, What preparations should be prescribed ?
A. * freezed plasma
B. Heparinum
C. Reopoliglycin
D. Cryoprecipitate
E. U-aminokapric acid
236. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39 degrees C, with
complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea . Criminal abortion have been done 4
days before. AP 80/60, breathing is difficult, psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of Schotkin-
Blumberg is positive. Uterus is enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile, painless. Pus
with blood appeared. Your Diagnosis?
A. * septic shock
B. Perforation of uterus
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute adnexia inflammation
237. . In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of knee-
joints is delivered. A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 b\min, threadlike, AP 50\0.
On both lower extremities there are the imposed plaits. Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From
the words of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of
heavy of the state of Patient?
A. * . acute hemorrhage.
B. . Pain shock.
C. . Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. . Fatty embolism
E. . acute kidney insufficiency

238. . Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding. A volume of transfused blood is 400 ml
after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of patient became
worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles (the temperature of body rose to 38,8 C. What can
we explain the state of patient?
A. Pirogenic reaction of middle heavy
B. * By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. Alergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
239. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute decline of
cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of myocardium . Actions of
anaesthesiologist must include:
A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG
B. * injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion therapy under the control
CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take the ECG
C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of lidocainum, increase of
dose of analgetics
D. correctly A) and C)
E. all answers are faithful
240. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition on a 5th day after the
brief episode of loss of consciousness. Pulse is 32 per minute. BP - 80/40 mm. Consciousness at the
level of sopor. He immediately needs :
A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni, tserebrolizin
B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta
C. * to conduct urgent cardio stimulation
D. all answers are faithful
E. there is no right answer
241. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn relapsing fibrillation of
ventricles with:
A. Cordaronum
B. Lidocainum
C. Ornidinum
D. * electrocardiostimulation
E. there is no right answer
242. At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision, microwave
fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death developed. It is necessary to do:
A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor
B. * to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation
C. to inject solution of atropine in cor
D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor
E. there is no right answer
243. A doctor decided to perform the defibrillation to patient with arrhythmia, using a synchronizer. The
defibrillator must be synchronized:
A. * with wave Q
B. with the descending phase of R
C. by an T
D. consideration of phase of ECG-complex not important
E. there is no right answer

244. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of myocardium, suddenly lost consciousness, breathing
and palpitation. On ECG of high wave fibrillation of ventricles. Conducted defibrillation. Did not
pick up normal cordial activity. What medicine needs to be entered for the rise of sensuality to
defibrillation?
A. * Amiodaron
B. Propranolon
C. Lidocain
D. Strofantin
E. Atropini sulfati
245. . At a patient 60 years the third day after an exterpation uterus acute insufficiency of breathing
developed suddenly, a skin became at first cyanotic, and then ash-colored color. Tachypnoe, cough
with bloody sputum, retrosternal pain. BP 100/70 mm. mercury, HR 120, BR 32 in 1 min., CVP
300 mm wt.col. What most reliable reason of worsening of the state of patient ?
A. * Tromboemboliya of pulmonary artery
B. Bleeding
C. Pain shock
D. Hypostatic pneumonia
E. Heart attack of myocardium
246. Patient C. complain on pain in the heart during 40 min. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the
left ventricle at a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium, are not included
A. Nitroglycerine
B. fentolamin
C. nitroproussid sodium
D. * esmolol (brevibloc)
E. nifedipinum
247. A patient entered to the department with a diagnosis: acute intestinal impassability. Complaints:
insignificant thirst, dizziness at an attempt to get up from a bed. At a review: patient apathetical,
turgor is lowered, eyeballs are soft, tongue is dry with cracks. Pulse 110 min., BP 80 /60 mm of
merc. item, diuresis 25 ml /h. Electrolyte composition: Na+ - 142 mmol/l, K+ - 4 mmol/l, glucose
6 mmol/l, urea 7 mmol/l. What variant of infusion is most expedient during operation?
A. * Transfusion of crystalloids.
B. Transfusion of solution of glucose.
C. Transfusion of albumen.
D. Transfusion of native plasma.
E. Transfusion of poliglucin.
248. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39 degrees C, with
complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea . Criminal abortion have been done 4
days before. AP 80/60, breathing is difficult, psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of Schotkin-
Blumberg is positive. Uterus is enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile, painless. Pus
with blood appeared. Your Diagnosis?
A. * septic shock
B. Perforation of uterus
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute adnexia inflammation
249. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute decline of
cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of myocardium . Actions of
anaesthesiologist must include:
A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG

B. * injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion therapy under the control
CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take the ECG
C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of lidocainum, increase of
dose of analgetics
D. correctly A) and C)
E. all answers are faithful
250. . At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition on a 5th day after
the brief episode of loss of consciousness. Pulse is 32 per minute. BP - 80/40 mm. Consciousness at
the level of sopor. He immediately needs :
A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni, tserebrolizin
B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta
C. * to conduct urgent cardio stimulation
D. all answers are faithful
E. there is no right answer
251. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn relapsing fibrillation of
ventricles with:
A. Cordaronum
B. Lidocainum
C. Ornidinum
D. * electrocardiostimulation
E. there is no right answer
252. . At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision, microwave
fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death developed. It is necessary to do:
A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor
B. * to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation
C. to inject solution of atropine in cor
D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor
E. there is no right answer
253. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of myocardium, suddenly lost consciousness, breathing
and palpitation. On ECG of high wave fibrillation of ventricles. Conducted defibrillation. Did not
pick up normal cordial activity. What medicine needs to be entered for the rise of sensuality to
defibrillation?
A. * Amiodaron
B. Propranolon
C. C. Lidocain
D. Strofantin
E. Atropini sulfati
254. A patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis: penetrable wound of
abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and visible mucous shells are pale;
peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, BP 110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom of
desolation of peripheral hypodermic veins. Diuresis is lowered. How to characterize this state?
A. * The compensated shock
B. Preagonia
C. Circulating shock
D. Agony
E. Irreversible shock
255. The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a diagnosis: bite of bee,
anaphylactic shock. Which medicine will be primary and most effective?

A. * Adrenalin
B. Calcium the chloride
C. Prednizolon
D. Dimedrol
E. Suprastin
256. A patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the surgical department with
complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarrhea, moderately expressed thirst. Objectively: a
skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a tongue is dry, AP 80/60 mm Hg, Ps 120/min., BF
28/min., diuresis 25 ml/h. Blood test: Er. - 2,8* 1012/l, Hb 98 g/l. What will be most expedient in
medical treatment:(
A. * solutions of colloid
B. 5% solution of glucose
C. Whole blood
D. Red corpuscles mass
E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass

(): : 11
General questions in surgery 6 course
:

:
1. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. plasma; Mr. casein hydrolysates;
B. albumin;
C. * Mr. casein hydrolysates
D. protein;
E. polivinilpirrolidon
2. In preparations for parenteral nutrition do not include:
A. * dextran
B. protein hydrolysates;
C. 10% glucose;
D. 20% glucose;
E. lipomays
3. In preparations for parenteral nutrition do not include:
A. * salt
B. hidrolizyn;
C. casein hydrolysates;
D. 10% glucose;
E. lipofundin
4. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using ditylinu:
A. laryngism;
B. inhibition of the respiratory center;
C. collapse;
D. * zapadinnya root of the tongue
E. Arrhythmia
5. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using Arduan:
A. * zapadinnya root of the tongue
B. inhibition of the respiratory center;
C. dehydration;
D. laryngism;
E. bronhiolospazm
6. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using mononarkozu ketaminom:
A. laryngism;
B. violations heart rate;
C. collapse;
D. * halyutsynoz, inadequate behavior
E. breathing "anarchy"
7. Frequently the cause of early complications after surgery using the central analgesia:
A. * depressed respiration
B. bronhiolospazm;
C. hypotension;
D. cardiac arrest;
E. acute liver failure

8. Immediately after the operation under anesthesia prozeryn vykorystovuyut to:

A. restore tone respiratory center;
B. removing the residual after applying kuraryzatsiyi depolyaryzuyuchyh muscle relaxants;
C. * removing the residual after applying kuraryzatsiyi antydepolyaryzuyuchyh muscle relaxants
D. stimulation of intestinal peristalsis;
E. Prevention bronhiolospazmu
9. Please list the required corrective surgery therapy
A. narcotic analgesics, antibiotics, cardiovascular drugs, electrolytes, vitamins;
B. correction of hemostasis, anesthesia, parenteral nutrition, exercise;
C. Correction pain, external respiration, volume hidremiyi, stimulation of peristalsis;
D. anesthesia, the use of central respiratory stimulants, antibiotics, drugs for parenteral breathing;
E. * correction of homeostasis, pain, antibacterial therapy, exercise therapy
10. Peritonitis is divided into:
A. * reactive, toxic, terminal
B. compensated, subkompensovanyy, terminal;
C. stage (I; II; III);
D. upper and lower half of the abdomen;
E. Early and late
11. In a nakrkozu in patients with peritonitis significantly increases the risk of such complications:
A. respiratory depression due to pulmonary edema;
B. bronhiolospazmu;
C. acute heart failure due to mediastinal shift raised diaphragm;
D. * regurgitation and aspiration
E. hiperkaliyemichnoyi cardiac arrest
12. The most frequent disorders of homeostasis in peritonitis are:
A. * metabolic acidosis
B. respiratory acidosis;
C. deep vein thrombosis of lower extremities, thromboembolism
D. respiratory alkalosis;
E. metabolic alkalosis
13. When jet peritonitis hemodynamics often seen:
A. collapse;
B. hipodynamichnym regime;
C. * hiperdynamichnym regime
D. hypovolemic shock;
E. depends on initial blood pressure
14. When toxic peritonitis Cardiac Output:
A. depends on the value of blood pressure;
B. increases;
C. does not change significantly;
D. * reduced
E. depends on the total peripheral vascular resistance
15. Duration of preoperative preparation of patients with peritonitis limited:
A. conduct necessary surveys;
B. stabilization of homeostasis;
C. Willingness of Surgeons;

D. their preparation for anesthesia;

E. * established ongoing all causes
16. The optimal anesthetic during the operation y of patients with peritonitis are:
A. * with intravenous mioplehiyeyu and ventilation
B. Maskovyy inhalant;
C. epidural anesthesia;
D. spinal anesthesia;
E. conductor and infiltrative anesthesia
17. Acute intestinal obstruction causes are primarily disorders of homeostasis:
A. intoksykatsiynyy syndrome;
B. respiratory violations;
C. * hipohidratatsiya, dyzelektrolitemiya
D. acute hepatic, kidney failure;
E. septic state due to the phenomenon of translocation
18. Decompensated pilorostenoz especially dangerous:
A. intoksykatsiynym syndrome;
B. hiponatriyemiyeyu and hipohidratatsiyeyu;
C. Respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis;
D. * Hypokalemia, hipohloremiyeyu, metabolic alkalosis
E. acute adrenal insufficiency
19. Intestinal obstruction significantly increased risk:
A. * regurgitation and aspiration
B. septic state;
C. multiple organ failure;
D. liver failure;
E. painful shock
20. How to change hemokontsentratsiyni indices in acute intestinal obstruction?
A. hematocrit increases due to thickening of blood, but the level of hemoglobin and protein gets lower
as a result of intoxication;
B. ponyzhuyutsya;
C. essentially does not react;
D. sharply due to intoxication gets lower hemoglobin and electrolyte polrushen;
E. * grow
21. The best operational solution for decompensated pilorostenozi are:
A. * overlay hastoenteroanastomozu
B. resection of the stomach by Billroth II;
C. resection of the stomach by Billroth I;
D. of radical surgery, which amount will be determined on the operating table;
E. overlay or hastrostomy yeyunostomy
22. What is characterized by acute destructive pancreatitis?
A. drop intoksykatsiynoho cardiac output due to myocardial lesions;
B. metabolic and respiratory acidosis;
C. * hipohidratatsiyeyu, hypotension
D. compensatory hipertenziynym syndrome;
E. Injuring hepatocytes
23. The most desirable preparation for infusion therapy of pancreatitis are:

A. reosorbilakt;
B. polihlyukin;
C. starch derivatives;
D. izotonichnymy Mr. sodium chloride;
E. * glucose solution
24. The most frequent complication of pancreatic necrosis are:
A. * pankreatohennyy shock
B. acute heart failure;
C. sepsis;
D. acute liver failure;
E. pulmonary edema
25. What is under ICE - Syndrome?
A. primary, consumption coagulopathy, anemia;
B. hypercoagulation, consumption coagulopathy, abnormal fibrinolysis, resolution;
C. hypercoagulation, hipokoahulyatsiyi;
D. * hypercoagulation, consumption coagulopathy, abnormal fibrinolysis, pixels
E. offset, subkompensated, decompensated
26. The most reasonable treatment for drug-ICE syndrome are:
A. Kriopretsipitat;
B. erytrotsytna weight;
C. whole blood;
D. Refortan;
E. * quick-frozen plasma
27. When expressed anemia caused by acute massive hemorrhage in obstetric practice, primarily to:
A. * eliminate hypovolemia
B. pour erytrotsytnu mass;
C. enter hemostatyky;
D. Kriopretsipitat apply;
E. ensure the infusion of fibrinogen
28. To be carried out by blood tests?
A. now the whole blood transfusion is therefore not necessary to conduct tests;
B. determining blood type, biological samples;
C. to save time and Rh blood group-membership can be estimated by documented data (in passport), to
conduct a biological sample;
D. blood group O (I) Rh (-) is universal for transfusions for any recipient;
E. * blood grouping, Rh accessories, group and individual compatibility of biological samples
29. Which of the following belong to the mullion components of blood?
A. antystafilokokova plasma antyhemofilna plasma erytrotsytna mass, fibrinogen, Kriopretsipitat;
B. native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed erythrocytes, Kriopretsipitat, polibiolin;
C. All types of plasma fibrinogen, washed erythrocytes, leykotsytna weight, albumin;
D. * native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed red cells, platelet mass
E. native plasma mass erytrotsytna, washed erythrocytes, aminokrovin, polibiolin, thrombus and
leykomasa
30. Which of the symptoms characteristic for diagnosis hemotransfuziynoho complications due to
incompatible system AB (0) during anesthesia?
A. znobinnya patient;
B. sudden pulmonary edema;

C. expressed hyperthermia;
D. acute anuria;
E. * motiveless sudden hypotension
31. What happens in the bloodstream of the patient with an incompatible blood transfusion him?
A. thrombus;
B. * hemolysis
C. arteriospazm acute;
D. hypertension due hiperkateholaminemiyi;
E. Go beyond the liquid part of blood vessel wall
32. Severe anemia occurs when a massive loss of blood volume:
A. 30% of bcc;
B. * 40% of the bcc
C. 50% of bcc;
D. 60% of bcc;
E. 70% of the bcc
33. Bcc in adults is:
A. 1 / 10 of body weight;
B. 5-6% of body weight;
C. 5000 ml;
D. * 7% of body weight
E. 1 / 20 on body weight
34. The reason for ICE - Syndrome can be:
A. incompatible blood transfusion;
B. massive hemorrhage;
C. septic state;
D. amniotic fluid embolism;
E. * All listed conditions
35. Laboratory features of 1-under ICE - syndrome are:
A. decrease in fibrinogen;
B. reduce the clotting time by Lee-White;
C. reduction of bleeding by Dyuk'om;
D. reduction in prothrombin time;
E. * all listed features
36. How is the diagnosis of the general peritonitis set to the operation?
A. roentgenologic
B. anamnestetic
C. * by laboratory determination the signs of inflammatory reaction
D. on clinical signs
E. on the level secretion the gastric juice
37. For the late stage of peritonitis all is characteristic, except for:
A. swelling of stomach
B. hypovolemia
C. disappearance of intestinal noises
D. * hypoproteinemia
E. increased peristalsis
38. Diffusive festering peritonitis can be investigation of all transferred diseases, except for:

A. perforations Meckel's diverticulum

B. destructive appendicitis
C. * stenosis of large duodenal nipple
D. Richter strangulation of hernia
E. acute intestinal impassability
39. Fibrinogenous impositions on a peritoneum are not at peritonitis:
A. * fibrinogenous
B. festering
C. putrid
D. excrement
E. serosal
40. The exsudate painted blood in an abdominal region is observed always, except for:
A. * tubercular peritonitis
B. violations of extra-uterine pregnancy
C. mesenteric ischemia
D. acute pancreatitis
E. twisted oothecoma
41. Middle laparotomy must be conducted at:
A. * diffusive peritonitis
B. local unlimited peritonitis
C. abscess of Duglas space
D. periappendiceal infiltration
E. acute appendicitis
42. . The best method of treatment the subhepatic abscess is:
A. thoracolaparotomy
B. lumbotomy
C. double-stage transpleural approach
D. laparotomy by Fedorov
E. * extrapleural extra-peritoneal method
43. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
44. For the acute appendicitis, complicated by appendicular infiltrate, in contrast to the tumour of
caecum, is characteristic:
A. * Tendency to diminishing of the tumour in the process of supervision
B. Long-term anamnesis
C. Excretion of blood from rectum
D. Curvuasier's sign
E. Frequent partial intestinal obstruction in anamnesis
45. The conditions, which contribute to the formation of appendicular infiltrate include:
A. * Phlegmonous changes of appendix
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Meckel's diverticulum

D. Pylephlebitis
E. Perforation of appendix
46. Only during the operation is possible the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with:
A. * terminal ileitis
B. renal colic
C. acute pyelonephritis
D. acute paraproctitis
E. acute pancreatitis
47. After appendectomy for pregnant is recommended
A. * Application of abortion prophylaxis.
B. More frequent use of peritoneal dialysis
C. Active postoperative period
D. More rare use of peritoneal dialysis
E. More prolonged draining of the abdominal cavity
48. The distinctive peculiarities of acute appendicitis in the second half of pregnancy are:
A. * Weak express of pain syndrome, similar to the ligamentary tension of uterus
B. Absence of Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
C. Expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. The express local muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Expressed of Obraztsov's sign
49. For the differential diagnostics of acute appendicitis with the urology diseases is not used
A. * Irrigoscopy
B. Urography
C. Cystochromoscopy
D. X-ray of kidneys
E. Urine analysis
50. In the diagnostics of pelvic appendicitis the most valuable is:
A. * rectal and vaginal examination
B. laboratory analyses
C. laparocentesis
D. laparoscopy
E. colonoscopy
51. For the retrocaecal appendicitis is not typical:
A. * Volkovcha-Kocher's sign
B. delayed diagnostics
C. late entrance of patients in the hospital
D. frequent development of destructive forms
E. weak expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
52. For the perforation of appendix is not characteristic:
A. * Decrease of body temperature
B. Acute pain in a right iliac area, especially expressed after false improvement
C. Tension of the abdominal wall at first in a right iliac area, and then spreading on other departments
D. Increasing swelling of abdomen
E. Leucocytosis
53. Initially-gangrenous appendicitis differs from inflammatory-gangrenous form mostly developing in
persons:

A. * of elderly age
B. children of early age
C. pregnant in the first half of pregnancy
D. pregnant in the second half of pregnancy
E. with concomitant diseases
54. What does the Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign mean?
A. * The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the left
side.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
55. What does the Blumberg's sign mean?
A. * The sharp increase of pain quick taking off the hand during palpation of anterior abdominal wall.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
56. What does the Voskresenkys sign mean?
A. * The increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from epigastric to right
iliac area.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
57. What does the Rozdolskys sign mean?
A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion.
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
58. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. * Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
59. What does the Gabays sign mean?
A. * Blumbergs sign in Petit triangle
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
60. What does the psoas sign mean?
A. * Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant

D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
61. The sign of gas migration is called:
A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Kochers sign
C. Sitkovskys sign
D. Bartomiers sign
E. Dunphy's sign
62. The Rovsing's sign is typical for:
A. * Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
63. The Sitkovskys sign is typical for:
A. * Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
64. The Bartomiers sign is typical for:
A. * Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
65. The Dunphy's sign is typical for:
A. * Simple appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
D. Pelvic appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis
66. The Blumbergs sign is typical for:
A. * Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
67. The Voskresenkys sign is typical for:
A. * Phlegmonous appendicitis
B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
68. The Rozdolskys sign is typical for:
A. * Phlegmonous appendicitis

B. Simple appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Retroperitoneal appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
69. The Yaure-Rozanov sign is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
70. The Gabays sign is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
71. The Pasternatskys sign is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
72. The psoas sign is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
73. The expressed pain in a right lumbar area is typical for:
A. * Retrocecal appendicitis
B. Phlegmonous appendicitis
C. Simple appendicitis
D. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
E. Pelvic appendicitis
74. The dysuria is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
75. The pulling rectal pain is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis

76. The tenesmi are typical for:

A. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
B. * Pelvic appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Phlegmonous appendicitis
E. Simple appendicitis
77. The absence of muscular tenderness is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
78. The painfulness of anterior rectal wall is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
79. Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault is typical for:
A. * Pelvic appendicitis
B. Retrocecal appendicitis
C. Phlegmonous appendicitis
D. Simple appendicitis
E. Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
80. The painfulness of the left iliac region is typical for:
A. * Left-side appendicitis appendicitis
B. Pelvic appendicitis
C. Retrocecal appendicitis
D. Phlegmonous appendicitis
E. Simple appendicitis
81. For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
82. For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. * Sitkovskys sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
83. For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. * Bartomiers sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign

D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
84. For the simple appendicitis is typical:
A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Blumberg's sign
C. Yaure-Rozanov sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
85. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
86. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Gabays sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
87. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Pasternatskys sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
88. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Blumberg's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
89. For the retrocecal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
B. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
90. For the retroperitoneal appendicitis is typical:
A. * Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
B. Peritoneal signs
C. The painfulness of the left iliac region
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
91. For the left-side appendicitis is typical:
A. * The painfulness of the left iliac region

B. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area

C. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
D. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
E. Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
92. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
93. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. * Painfulness of anterior rectal wall
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
94. For the pelvic appendicitis is typical:
A. * Painfulness of posterior vaginal vault
B. The painfulness of the left iliac region
C. Expressed pain in a right lumbar area
D. Flank tenderness in right lower quadrant
E. Peritoneal signs
95. Characteristic changes in the general blood analysis in appendicitis:
A. * neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
B. neutrophil lymphocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
C. neutrophil eosonophilia with deviation of the differential count to the left
D. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the right
E. white cells neutrophilia with deviation of the differential count to the right
96. The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. * tomography
B. esophagogastroscopy
C. colonoscopy
D. gastroscopy
E. contrasting roentgenoscopy
97. The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. * ultrasound examination
B. contrasting roentgenoscopy
C. gastroscopy
D. esophagogastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
98. Acute appendicitis in the 1st phase is necessary to differentiate from:
A. * gastric ulcer
B. pancreatitis
C. cholecystitis
D. intestinal obstruction
E. strangulated hernia

99. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:

A. * conservative therapy, then surgery
B. only conservative therapy
C. puncture
D. drainage
E. only surgical treatment
100. Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. * antibiotics, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
B. antiseptics, analgesia, antibiotics, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. antibiotics, diuretics, antispasmodic, anti-inflammatory therapy
D. analgesia, antibiotics, diuretics, anti-inflammatory therapy
E. anti-inflammatory drugs, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
101. Appendicular infiltrate appears after:
A. * 3-5 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 7-8 days
E. 8-10 days
102. Conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate is going on:
A. * 1-2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 2-4 months
103. Appendectomy after the treatment of appendicular infiltrate performed after:
A. * 2-4 months
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 months
E. 3-5 days
104. For appendectomy the most suitable surgical access is:
A. * Volkovich-Dyakonov
B. McBurney
C. Lenander
D. Sprengel
E. Kocher
105. The removal of appendix from apex - is :
A. * antegrade appendectomy
B. retrograde appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
106. The removal of appendix from the base is:
A. * Retrograde appendectomy
B. antegrade appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy

D. antececal appendectomy
E. laparoscopic appendectomy
107. On the line between the anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus located the point:
A. * McBurney's
B. Kalk's
C. Kehr's
D. Lenander's
E. Volkovich-Dyakonov
108. The point through which the Volkovich-Dyakonov access is performed located on the line between
anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus:
A. * between external and middle third
B. between external and internal third
C. in the internal third
D. in the middle
E. in external third
109. Which method of appendectomy is used in children before age 3?
A. * ligation
B. amputation
C. retrograde
D. antegrade
E. laparoscopic
110. Modern method of appendectomy is:
A. * laparoscopic
B. microlaparotomy
C. laparocentesis
D. laparotomy
E. ligation
111. After appendectomy the patient stands out of bed on:
A. * first day
B. second day
C. third day
D. fourth day
E. fifth day
112. During appendectomy the most frequent complication is:
A. * bleeding
B. infiltrate
C. leak of the sutures
D. infecting
E. peritonitis
113. After appendectomy to early postoperative complications belongs:
A. * peritonitis
B. intestinal fistula
C. ventral hernia
D. ligature fistula
E. colitis
114. Appendectomy, as a rule, is performed under such anaesthesia:

A. * intravenous anaesthesia
B. local anaesthesia
C. ether anaesthesia
D. conducting anaesthesia
E. endotracheal anaesthesia
115. Pain during palpation in a lumbar region - is the sign:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
116. Pain during palpation in the Petit triangle - is the sign:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
117. Pain during palpation in a lumbar region after taking away of the hand is the sign:
A. * Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
118. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
119. For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. * Gabay's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
120. For retroperitoneal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. * Pasternatsky's
B. Sitkovsky's
C. Yaure-Rozanov
D. Rovzing's
E. Koer's
121. Microhematuria is typical for such kind of appendicitis:
A. * retroperitoneal
B. retrocecal
C. pelvic
D. subhepatic
E. left-side
122. The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. * dysurination
B. dyspepsia
C. hyperthermia
D. hematuria
E. dystrophy
123. The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. * tenesmi
B. spasms
C. myalgia
D. paresis
E. enuresis
124. For pelvic appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. * Kulenkampf's sign
B. Yaure-Rozanov sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
125. The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. * diarrhea
B. vomiting
C. constipation
D. nausea
E. colicks
126. The undiagnosed destructive appendicitis complicated by:
A. * infiltrate
B. fistula
C. adhesions
D. bleeding
E. colic
127. Causes of the appendicular infiltrate development:
A. * late hospitalisation, misdiagnosed appendicitis
B. aggressive infection, impaired immunity
C. adhesions, increased immunity
D. peritonitis, abscessing
E. surgical trauma, infection
128. The clinical manifestation of appendicular infiltrate is:
A. * swelling
B. the signs of peritoneal irritation
C. muscular tension
D. high temperature
E. leucocytosis
129. Tumour with fluctuation are the main clinical manifestation of:
A. * appendicular abscess
B. appendicular peritonitis

C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular mesadenitis
E. appendicular typhlitis
130. The most frequent complications of appendicitis are:
A. * infiltrate, abscess, pilephlebitis, peritonitis
B. infiltrate, abscess, thrombophlebitis, hepatitis
C. conglomerate, adhesions, cystitis, peritonitis
D. infiltrate, conglomerate, hepatitis
E. abscess, peritonitis, adhesions, phlebitis
131. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. * by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
132. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
133. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
134. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
135. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
136. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients

137. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis
in:
A. * elderly patients
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
138. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * elderly patients
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
139. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. Children
B. * elderly patients
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
140. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
141. Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * elderly patients
B. females
C. children
D. pregnant
E. males
142. The expressed deviation of the differential leukocyte count to the left in acute appendicitis is
characteristic for persons :
A. females
B. * elderly patients
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
143. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis does not relate to destructive changes in the appendix
in:
A. children
B. * elderly patients
C. females
D. males
E. pregnant
144. The destructive changes in the appendix don't relate to the clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis
in:

A. children
B. females
C. males
D. * elderly patients
E. pregnant
145. The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy depends on:
A. * the term of pregnancy
B. degree of inflammatory changes
C. the relation of appendix to peritoneum
D. the duration of appendicitis
E. the form of appendicitis
146. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the first trimester of the pregnancy are:
A. * typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
147. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the second trimester of the pregnancy are:
A. * typical
B. atypical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
148. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the third trimester of the pregnancy are:
A. * atypical
B. typical
C. expressed
D. unexpressed
E. absent
149. The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are characterised by the changes of:
A. * localization of pain
B. severity of pain
C. irradiation of pain
D. duration of pain
E. character of pain
150. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * distension of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
B. inflammation of uterus
C. irritation of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
D. compression of appendix by uterus
E. inflammation of the right ovarium
151. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by:
A. * absence of muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall
B. absence of tension of the uterus
C. presence of tension of the uterus
D. expressed muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall

E. presence of tension of peritoneum of anterior abdominal wall

152. The changes in clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy is characterized :
A. * by the absence of signs of peritoneal irritation
B. by the presence of signs of peritoneal irritation
C. by the presence of expressed signs of peritoneal irritation
D. by displacement of the signs of peritoneal irritation
E. by the change of the character of signs of peritoneal irritation
153. What is the medical tactic of the acute appendicitis in pregnant:
A. * to operate
B. to prescribe antibiotics
C. to prescribe conservative therapy
D. to observe
E. to interrupt pregnancy
154. The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused by the
displacement of appendix in relation to cecum:
A. * upword
B. lateral
C. downword
D. medial
E. retroperitoneal
155. What is the lethality in acute appendicitis caused by?
A. * late hospitalization
B. tactical errors
C. concomitant diseases
D. technical errors during an operation
E. severity of disease
156. The bailer form of appendix is characteristic for:
A. * new-born
B. males
C. females
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
157. The appendix ends its formation at the age of:
A. * 7 years
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. 3 months
158. The purulent inflammation of portal vein as the complication of acute appendicitis - is:
A. * pilephlebitis
B. mesadenitis
C. tiphlitis
D. thrombophlebitis
E. adnexitis
159. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with a basal pleurisy is:
A. * X-ray film

B. percussion
C. tomography
D. auscultation
E. bronchoscopy
160. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with an epigastric form of myocardial
infarction are the changes in:
A. * ECG
B. hemodynamic disturbances
C. expressed shortness of breath
D. auscultation
E. tachycardia
161. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with intercostal neuralgia is:
A. * paravertebral blockade
B. laparoscopy
C. microlaparotomy
D. laparocentesis
E. peridural blockades
162. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with food poisoning is:
A. * frequent vomit
B. single vomit
C. nausea
D. increased peristalsis
E. slow peristalsis
163. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with gastric phlegmon is:
A. * esophagogastroscopy
B. roentgenoscopy
C. palpation
D. laparocentesis
E. ultrasound examination
164. The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with perforative ulcer of duodenum is:
A. * absence of hepatic dullness
B. presence of hepatic dullness by percussion
C. absence of the splenic dullness
D. presence of a high tympanic sound by percussion
E. absence of the gastric dullness
165. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with cholecystitis is:
A. * ultrasound examination
B. X-ray film
C. anamnesis
D. laparocentesis
E. laparoscopy
166. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with pancreatitis is:
A. * ultrasound examination
B. blockades
C. laparostomy
D. laparoscopy
E. X-ray film
167. The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with intestinal obstruction is:
A. * X-ray film
B. ultrasound examination
C. blockade
D. laparotomy
E. laparoscopy
168. What form of the appendicitis results in the developing of fibrosis of the appendix?
A. * chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
169. What form of the appendicitis results in the obliteration of the appendix??
A. * chronic
B. phlegmonous
C. catarrhal
D. gangrenous
E. perforative
170. Chronic primary appendicitis - is the development of pathological changes in appendix after:
A. * without the signs of acute appendicitis in anamnesis
B. acute appendicitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular abscess
E. pilephlebitis
171. To the chronic secondary appendicitis belongs:
A. * residual
B. catarrhal
C. empyema
D. phlegmonous
E. gangrenous
172. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. chronic appendicitis
C. colicks
D. recurrent appendicitis
E. primary chronic appendicitis
173. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. * appendicular infiltrate
B. chronic appendicitis
C. recurrent appendicitis
D. colicks
E. primary chronic appendicitis
174. Chronic residual appendicitis arises up after:
A. * appendicular abscess
B. colicks

C. chronic appendicitis
D. recurrent appendicitis
E. primary chronic appendicitis
175. The most prominent clinical sign of chronic appendicitis is:
A. * pain by deep palpation
B. pain by percussion
C. pain by superficial palpation
D. skin hyperesthesia
E. pain by bimanual palpation
176. What form of appendicitis the signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in?
A. * chronic
B. calculous
C. perforative
D. appendicular infiltrate
E. appendicular abscess
177. Hyperaemia, thickening, oedema of appendix are the signs of:
A. * catarrhal appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforating appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
178. Hyperemia, fibrino-purulent fur, pus the lumen are the signs of:
A. * phlegmonous appendicitis
B. catarrhal appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
179. Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, perforation are the signs of:
A. * gangreno-perforative appendicitis
B. phlegmonous appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. catarrhal appendicitis
E. dystrophic appendicitis
180. The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. * by the bailer form of appendix
B. by the tubular form of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by atrophy of appendix
E. by the spherical form of appendix
181. Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. elderly patients
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
182. The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:

A. * children
B. females
C. pregnant
D. males
E. elderly patients
183. The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
184. Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
185. For acute appendicitis typical t is:
A. * 38
B. 37
C. subfebrile
D. 37-39
E. 38-40
186. The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * children
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. elderly patients
187. Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute appendicitis
in:
A. * elderly patients
B. females
C. males
D. pregnant
E. children
188. Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. * elderly patients
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. females
189. Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. children
B. females
C. males

D. pregnant
E. * elderly patients
190. Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. females
B. children
C. pregnant
D. males
E. * elderly patients
191. What kind of acute intestinal obstruction the invagination belongs to?
A. * Mixed
B. Paralytic
C. Volvulus
D. Strangulation
E. Dynamic
192. Invagination much more frequent in:
A. * Children
B. Pregnant
C. Elderly people
D. Teenagers
E. Does not depend on age
193. What is the most frequent localization of invagination:
A. * The region of cecum
B. Splenic angle
C. Hepatic angle
D. Rectosygmoid angle
E. Patients with the Led's syndrome
194. The most frequent cause of the large intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Tumours
B. Invagination
C. Volvulus
D. Hemorrhoids of IV degree
E. Errors in the diet
195. The first phase of the clinical course of acute intestinal obstruction lasts:
A. * To 12 hours
B. To 2 hours
C. To 1 days
D. More than 1 day
E. To 1 hour
196. The leading signs in acute intestinal obstruction are:
A. * Wave-like pain, vomiting, delay of gases and stool
B. Knife-like pain, wooden abdomen, proper anamnesis
C. Knife-like pain, wooden abdomen, vomiting
D. Wave-like pain, anaemia
E. Nausea, loss of appetite, metallic taste in the mouth
197. Name the character of peristalsis in the onset of the acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Hyperperistalsis

B. Normal peristalsis
C. Absent
D. Variable
E. Heard only in regions upper the obstruction
198. The Sklyarov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Noise of splash
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Gaping of anus
199. The Grekov's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Gaping of anus
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Sound of falling drop
E. Noise of splash
200. In acute intestinal obstruction the basic X-ray sign is:
A. * Air-fluid levels, Kloiber's cups
B. Expressed limitation of mobility of the right dome of diaphragm
C. Diffusely dilated loops of bowels
D. Free gas in the abdomen
E. Sklyarov's sign
201. The Spasokukotsky's sign in acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Sound of falling drop
B. Good heard cardiac tones during auscultation of the abdomen
C. Dullness in the lower regions
D. Noise of splash
E. Gaping of anus
202. What are the Kloiber's cups?
A. * Horizontal air-fluid levels
B. Gas bubble of the stomach
C. Folds of intestine
D. Gas sickles under the domes of diaphragm
E. None of mentioned
203. Name the method of examination which is not obligatory in acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * All are obligatory
B. General blood analysis
C. General urine analysis
D. Coagulogramm
E. Electrolytes
204. Is obligatory the X-ray examination at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children and pregnant

205. Is obligatory the digital examination of rectum at suspicion on acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Yes
B. No, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
C. Yes, if you know that acute intestinal obstruction is of obturative origin
D. No
E. Yes, except for children, pregnant
206. The purpose of conservative therapy in compensated acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * All mentioned
B. Preoperative preparation
C. Treating
D. Detoxication
E. Diagnostic
207. The purpose of conservative therapy in decompensated acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Preoperative preparation
B. Treating
C. Detoxication
D. All mentioned
E. None of mentioned
208. What does not belong to conservative therapy of acute intestinal obstruction?
A. * Liquidation of hypervolemia
B. Decompression of gastrointestinal tract
C. The struggle against abdominal-pain shock
D. Detoxication
E. Correction of microcirculation
209. What does not belong to the fight against abdominal-pain shock?
A. * Performing of siphon enema
B. Paranephral novocaine blockade
C. Neuroleptanalgesia
D. Peridural anaesthesia
E. Spasmolytic therapy
210. The decompression of gastrointestinal tract includess everything, except:
A. * Lavage of abdominal cavity
B. Endoscopic intubation
C. Enterotomy with aspiration
D. Washing of the stomach
E. Performing of siphon enema
211. Name duration of conservative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction in the stage of compensation?

A. * 5-7 days
B. 1-2 days
C. 12-24 hours
D. To 12 hours
E. Not less than 2 weeks
212. Treatment of patients with acute intestinal obstruction in the stage of decompensation must be:
A. * 2-4 hours of conservative, then operative
B. To 24 hours of conservative, then operative

C. Immediately operative
D. During the first days conservative treatment with the gradual increase of volume of infusion
E. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
213. The treatment of patients with strangulation acute intestinal obstruction which accompanied by the
manifestations of peritonitis must include:
A. * 2 hours of conservative treatment, then operative
B. To 12 hours conservative treatment, then operative
C. Immediately operative without conservative
D. Conservative in ambulatory conditions
E. During the first days conservative with the gradual increase of volume infusion
214. The criteria of the efficiency of gastrointestinal tract passage renewal during conservative therapy of
acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Pulling of gases and stool
B. Normalization of rectal temperature
C. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
D. Feeling of heartburn
E. None of mentioned
215. To the criteria of permanent renewal of the gastrointestinal tract passage as efficiency of conservative
treatment belongs:
A. * Absence of stagnant content in the stomach
B. Absence of Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
C. Normalization of rectal temperature
D. Feeling of heartburn
E. None of mentioned
216. The absolute indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * III phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
B. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Dynamic acute intestinal obstruction
217. The indication for operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction in inefficient conservative treatment
B. I phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
C. II phase of the course of acute intestinal obstruction
D. The prolonged anamnesis of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Mechanical acute intestinal obstruction
218. In what case the drainage of the abdominal cavity is inadvisable in operative treatment of acute
intestinal obstruction?
A. * None of mentioned cases
B. In formation of anastomosis
C. In formation of haematoma
D. In formation of stoma
E. In all these cases
219. When is the operative intervention for acute intestinal obstruction accompanied by the drainage of
abdominal cavity?
A. * In all mentioned cases
B. In formation of stoma

C. In increased bleeding during dissecting of adhesions

D. In formation of anastomosis
E. None of mentioned cases
220. Is the programmable laparostomy suitable in the treatment of - stage of acute intestinal
obstruction?
A. * No
B. Yes
C. Only in the case of formation of anastomosis
D. Only in strangulation acute intestinal obstruction
E. Only in obturation acute intestinal obstruction
221. Optimal access in the operative treatment of acute intestinal obstruction is:
A. * Middle laparotomy
B. Phanenstil's
C. Vinkelman's
D. Fedorov's
E. Right pararectal
222. Choose the correct algorithm of the operative intervation for the II stage of acute intestinal
obstruction :
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing
of the abdomen
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the
abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,
laparostomy
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal intubation,
sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing of the abdomen
223. Choose the correct algorithm of operative intervation for the III stage of acute intestinal obstruction:
A. * Laparotomy, liquidation of the source of peritonitis, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal
cavity, suturing of the abdomen or laparostomy
B. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing
of the abdomen
C. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity,
laparostomy
D. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, intestinal intubation, sanation of abdominal cavity, suturing
of the abdomen
E. Laparotomy, liquidation of obstruction, liquidation of peritonitis, sanation of abdominal cavity,
suturing of the abdomen
224. Arterial mesenteric acute intestinal obstruction belongs to:
A. * Obturation
B. Strangulation
C. Paralytic
D. Spastic
E. Mixed
225. What is the essence of arterial mesenteric intestinal obstruction?
A. * Superior mesenteric artery compresses the duodenum
B. Duodenum compresses the superior mesenteric artery
C. Acute intestinal obstruction on the background of mesenteric thrombosis

D. Mesenteric thrombosis caused by obstruction

E. Duodenum compresses inferior mesenteric artery
226. What treatment is indicated in gall-stones intestinal obturation?
A. * Only operative
B. Only conservative
C. Operative in the case of the development of peritonitis
D. Treatment is not required
E. Tactic depends on the size of stone
227. The tumour obturation of cecum requires:
A. * Right-side hemicolectomy
B. Resection of cecum
C. Cecostomy
D. Only ileostomy
E. Only intubation of small intestine
228. What treatment tactic of acute intestinal obstruction, caused by a tumour obturation is required?
A. * Operative intervation
B. Liquidation of tumour by a chemotherapy
C. Liquidations of tumour by radiotherapy
D. Operative intervation only after chemotherapy
E. Only symptomatic treatment
229. What is the volvulus?
A. * Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along longitudinal axis
B. Torsion of the bowel with the mesentery of another loop
C. Invagination of one part of the bowel in another
D. Obturation of the bowel lumen
E. Torsion of the bowel with its mesentery along transverse axis
230. The most frequently the sygmoid volvulus arises in:
A. * Elderly patients with frequent constipations
B. Females with menstrual arrest
C. Children
D. Elderly patients people with permanent diarrhea
E. New-borns
231. What is the aim of the operative treatment of volvulus if the bowel alive?
A. * Detorsion, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
B. Detorsion, resection, fixing to the abdominal wall
C. Detorsion, dilation, decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
D. Detorsion, dilation, decompression
E. Decompression, fixing to the abdominal wall
232. The nodulus requires:
A. * Untie the knot, if impossible resection of the bowel
B. Resection of the bowel
C. Untie the knot
D. To perform the stoma. The second stage the resection of the bowel
E. None of mentioned
233. A typical sign for invagination in irrigoscopy is:
A. * Cockades

B. Candles
C. Rat tail
D. Spizharny's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
234. The indication for cecopexia in the operative treatment of invagination is:
A. * For the prophylaxis of relapses
B. For self desinvagination
C. For better desinvagination
D. Is not indicated
E. Not performed
235. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of gastric ulcer is characterised by such type of obstruction:
A. * Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
236. The peritonitis, caused by perforation of duodenal ulcer is characterised by such type of obstruction:
A. * Paralytic
B. Spastic
C. Strangulation
D. There is no characteristic type
E. The obstruction can not develop in this case
237. Describe the Kloiber's cups in small intestinal obstruction:
A. * Wide, not high, maltiple
B. Not wide, high, single
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
238. Describe the Kloiber's cups in large intestinal obstruction:
A. * Not wide, high, single
B. Wide, not high, maltiple
C. Not characteristic
D. Wide, not high, with folds
E. Of different size, localization
239. The air-fluid levels (Kloiber's cups) are not characteristic for such type of acute intestinal obstruction,
as:
A. * Spastic
B. Paralytic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
240. The "trident", "crescent" signs are characteristic for such type of acute intestinal obstruction, as:
A. * Invagination
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Strangulation

E. All kinds
241. Which type of acute intestinal obstruction is connected with previous operations:
A. * Strangulation
B. Spastic
C. Obturation
D. Invagination
E. All kinds
242. For strangulation is not typical:
A. * Normal body temperature
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Leucocytosis
D. Frequent vomit
E. Wahl's symptom
243. For strangulation is not typical:
A. * Leucopenia
B. Tension of abdominal wall
C. Frequent vomit
D. Body temperature 37,5C and higher
E. Wahl's symptom
244. The contributory factor of the development of strangulation is:
A. * Long intestinal mesentery
B. Stool stones
C. Gall-stones
D. Tumour
E. None of mentioned
245. The contributory factor of the development of obturation is:
A. * Stool stones
B. Long intestinal mesentery
C. Adhesions in abdominal cavity
D. All of mentioned
E. None of mentioned
246. Where is the pain localized in acute appendicitis?
A. * Right iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Left iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
247. Where does the pain arise in the onset of acute appendicitis?
A. * Epigastric region
B. Left iliac region
C. Right iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
248. Where does the pain irradiate in acute appendicitis?
A. * Not irradiate
B. Lumbar region

C. Left iliac region

D. Right scapular
E. Perineum
249. What dyspeptic manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. * Single nausea and vomiting
B. Constant vomiting and nausea without any relief
C. Vomiting by bile without any relief
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Constant diarrhea
250. What objective manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. * Muscular tension in a right iliac area
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Absence of peristalsis
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
251. What signs are typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Peritoneal signs
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Signs of pain migration
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Nausea and vomiting
252. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Blumberg's sign
B. Kochers sign
C. Bartomiers sign
D. Sitkovskys sign
E. Dunphy's sign
253. What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Voskresenky's sign
B. Sitkovskys sign
C. Bartomiers sign
D. Kochers sign
E. Dunphy's sign
254. What does the Voskresenky's sign mean?
A. * Increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from epigastric to right iliac
area
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
255. What does the Rozdolskys sign mean?
A. * Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric

256. What signs are typical for gangrenous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Signs of intoxication
B. Signs of gas migration
C. Retention of stool or single diarrhea
D. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
E. Single nausea and vomiting
257. Who usually suffer from gangrenous appendicitis?
A. People of old age
B. * Newborns
C. Children
D. Pregnant women
E. Young men
258. Where is the pain localized in retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. * Right lumbar region
B. Right iliac region
C. Epigastric region
D. Left iliac region
E. Left subcostal region
259. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. * Pain and muscular rigidity in a right iliac area during palpation
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
260. What sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Pasternatskys sign
B. Kochers sign
C. Bartomiers sign
D. Sitkovskys sign
E. Dunphy's sign
261. What sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. * Psoas sign
B. Sitkovskys sign
C. Bartomiers sign
D. Kochers sign
E. Dunphy's sign
262. What does the Pasternatskys sign mean?
A. * Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
263. What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. * Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
264. What does the Gabays sign mean?
A. * Blumbergs sign in Petit triangle
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
265. What does the psoas-sign mean?
A. * Pain on extension of right thigh
B. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
266. What manifestation is predominant for retroperitoneal appendicitis?
A. * Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Dyspeptic syndrome
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
267. What manifestation is predominant for pelvic appendicitis?
A. * Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs (dysuria, pulling rectal pain, tenesmi)
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
D. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
268. What manifestation is typical for pelvic appendicitis?
A. * Absence of muscular tenderness
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
D. Clinic of acute abdomen
E. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
269. What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. * Painfulness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
270. Where is the pain localized in left-side appendicitis?
A. * Left iliac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Right iliac region
D. Left subcostal region
E. Right lumbar region
271. What clinical picture is typical for appendicitis in children?
A. * Clinic of destructive forms of appendicitis and intoxication

B. Abdominal distension
C. Absence of dyspeptic manifestation
D. Absence of muscular tenderness
E. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
272. What does the examination of infant children in acute appendicitis require to use?
A. * Chloralhydrate enema
B. Contrast enema
C. Siphon enema
D. Cleaning enema
E. X-ray with barium swallow
273. What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. * Appendicular infiltrate
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
274. What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. * Appendicular abscess
B. Appendicular bleeding
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
E. Malignization
275. What is the treatment of appendicular infiltrate?
A. * Conservative treatment
B. Draining operation
C. Appendectomy
D. Hemicolectomy
E. Caecostomy
276. Typical complications of the appendicitis are:
A. * infiltrate, abscess, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
B. abscess, phlegmon, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
C. infiltrate, gangrene, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
D. abscess, phlegmon, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
E. infiltrate, abscess, osteomyelitis, pilephlebitis
277. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
278. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign

279. For acute appendicitis is typical:

A. * Sitkovskys sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
280. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Bartomiers sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
281. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
282. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Blumbergs sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
283. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Voskresenkys sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
284. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Rozdolskys sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
285. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
286. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Gabays sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign

D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
287. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Psoas sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
288. For acute appendicitis is typical:
A. * Obrastsow's sign
B. Ortner's sign
C. Homans sign
D. Sklyarov's sign
E. Meyo-Robson sign
289. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
290. Rovsing's sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
291. Sitkovskys sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
292. Bartomiers sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
293. Dunphy's sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute cholecystitis
C. acute intestinal obstruction
D. food poisoning
E. acute pancreatitis
294. Blumbergs sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis

B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
295. Rozdolskys sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
296. Voskresenkys sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
297. Yaure-Rozanov's sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
298. Gabays sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
299. Psoas sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
300. Obrastsow's sign is typical for:
A. * acute appendicitis
B. acute thrombophlebitis
C. pneumothorax
D. food poisoning
E. bleeding ulcer
301. Pain in the iliac region during elevation of the leg - is:
A. * Obrastsow's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
D. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign

302. Pain during sliding of hand on abdominal wall - is:

A. * Voskresensky's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
303. Strengthening of pain in right iliac region on the left side - is:
A. * Sitkovsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
304. Pain in the right iliac region during palpation of the iliac region on the left side - is:
A. * Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
305. Pain during digital examination of rectum - is:
A. * Kulenkampf's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
E. Sitkovsky's sign
306. Pain during percussion by fingers of anterior abdominal wall - is:
A. * Rozdolsky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
307. Pain in the right iliac region by pushing of the left - is:
A. * Rovsing's sign
B. Sitkovsky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
308. Pain during removing of the hand from abdominal wall after its pressing - is:
A. * Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
309. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric is:
A. * Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
310. Increased pain with coughing is:
A. * Dunphy's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
311. Painfulness during palpation of Petit triangle is:
A. * Yaure-Rozanov's sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
312. Blumbergs sign in Petit triangle is:
A. * Gabays sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
313. Pain on extension of right thigh is:
A. * Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
314. What does the Kochers sign mean?
A. * Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the left
side.
E. Increased pain with coughing
315. What does the Rovsing's sign mean?
A. * Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
B. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the left
side.
D. Increased pain with coughing
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
316. What does the Dunphy's sign mean?
A. * Increased pain with coughing
B. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the patient lies on the left
side.
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric

317. In what vein is a venous outflow carried out in from a stomach?

A. * V. Portae;
B. V. odd;
C. V. pair;
D. V. overhead hollow;
E. V. lower hollow;
318. What time urgent operations are executed at acute bleeding
A. * 6 12 hours;
B. 6 10 hours;
C. 6 8 hours
D. 6 14 hours;
E. 6 20 hours
319. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy can find out next changes in a stomach, except for
A. tumours
B. ulcers
C. bleeding polypuses
D. erosions
E. * changes of evacuation function
320. Hemobilia is
A. * all answers are correct;
B. bleeding the bilious ways and liver;
C. bleeding the general bilious channel;
D. bloody clot in the big duodenal papilla;
E. all answers are not correct.
321. Giant ulcer is an ulcer measuring
A. over 4,5 cm
B. * over 3 cm
C. over 4 cm
D. over 5 cm
E. over 3,5 cm
322. Duration the period of primary shock at a perforeted ulcer
A. * 3-6 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 1-3 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. 24-36 hours
323. For bleeding ulcer characteristically
A. * melena
B. tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
C. Spazarskiys sing
D. sickliness the back vault of vagina
E. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
324. For bleeding ulcer characteristic sign is
A. pain in an epigastrium;
B. knife-like pain;
C. signs irritation of peritoneum;

D. presence fresh blood in incandescence

E. * melena;
325. For perforeted ulcer characteristically
A. * tension the muscles of front abdominal wall
B. melena
C. vomiting by coffee-grounds
D. high intestinal impassability
E. vomiting stagnant gastric maintenance
326. For pneumoperitoneum is characteristic symptom
A. * Zhobers;
B. Khelatids;
C. Podlags;
D. Vigatss;
E. Udins.
327. For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically
A. 2 and anymore relapses on a year
B. * 3 and anymore relapses on a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 6 and more relapses are on a year
328. For the heavy flow of ulcerous illness characteristically
A. * development of complications
B. seasonal exacerbation more not frequent 1-2 times per a year
C. 1-2 relapse on a year
D. liquid, but protracted exacerbation
E. exacerbation duration more than 10 days
329. For motion of disease ulcerous illness of middle weight characteristically
A. development of complications
B. * relapses 1-2 times per a year
C. 4 and anymore relapses on a year
D. 5 and more relapses are on a year
E. 3 and anymore relapses on a year
330. To absolute indication to operative interference at ulcerous illness does not belong
A. * scarry-ulcerous stenosis
B. perforation of ulcer
C. profuse bleeding
D. diameter ulcer a more than 3 cm
E. bleeding what does not stopped with conservative
331. Diet at bleeding gastric and duodenum ulcers
A. * Meulengracht's
B. 1 by Pevznerom
C. 5 by Pevznerom
D. 15 by Pevznerom
E. 7 by Pevznerom
332. From what department degestyive tract developmentp more frequent than all the bleeding at the
Mallory-Weiss syndrome

A. gastric fundus
B. * cardial pert;
C. pyloric department;
D. from duodenal;
E. from a thick intestine
333. At ulcerous illness can a bleeding source be
A. artery;
B. veins;
C. shallow vessels and ulcers;
D. all answers are not correct.
E. * all answers are correct
334. Disappearance or diminishing the pain with beginning of bleeding from an ulcer is
A. * Bergmans sing
B. Spazarskiys sing
C. Mendels suing
D. De Kevens sing
E. Elekers sing
335. To the gastric intestinal bleeding of unulcerous etiology belong
A. * Mallory-Weiss syndrome;
B. hemorragic erosive gastritis;
C. diseases by Randyu Oslera Vebera;
D. Menetrie's sing;
E. all answers are correct.
336. What from the transferred operations on the stomach organ protective is
A. * selective proximal vagotomy
B. resection by Bilrot I
C. resection by Bilrot II
D. gastrectomy
E. all are transferred
337. What from the transferred operations does not belong to organ protective
A. trunk vagotomy
B. * resection by Bilrot II
C. selective vagotomy
D. selective proximal vagotomy
E. the all transferred does not belong
338. What localization of ulcer is most characteristic for the patients of elderly and senile age
A. * cardial department of stomach
B. overhead third of gullet
C. lower third of gullet
D. bulb of duodewnum
E. small curvature
339. What colouring of chair is most characteristic for bleeding from the ulcer of stomach and
duodwnum?
A. * Tarry excrement
B. Presence on the formed excrement of strokes of red blood
C. Littlechanged blood in an excrement

D. Excrement of the raspberry colouring with the admixtures of mucus

E. Acholic excrement
340. What external signs are characteristic for the profuse bleeding from a gastric ulcer?
A. Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, excrement of the raspberry colouring
B. * Vomiting by the littlechanged blood, tarry darkly-cherry chair
C. Vomiting by a complete mouth by dark blood with clots, black formed excrement
D. Vomiting on the type of "coffee-grounds", presence on the formed incandescence of strokes of red
blood
E. Tarry darkly-cherry chair
341. What preparations, except for other properties, own yet and a bacteriostatic effect on Hlbtr
lrs
A. * all are transferred preparations
B. Almagel
C. Vinylin
D. De-nol
E. Claritromycin
342. What products are recommended in the diet of 1?
A. * hen in a steam kind
B. pancakes
C. raw egg-white
D. bread rye fresh
E. acute cheeses
343. What violation of mineral exchange is characteristic for patients with ulcerous illness of stomach and
intestine
A. hypocalcemia
B. * hypokaliemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcinemia
E. hyperkaliemia
344. What complication the ulcerous illness of stomach is most characteristically for the patients of elderly
and senile age
A. perforation
B. * perforation bleeding
C. pylorus stenosis
D. * malignization penetration
E. * bleeding
345. What from preparations has the expressed bacteriostatic action on Hlbtr lrs
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
346. What method diagnostics hte ulcerous illness most informing
A. * esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. analysis of excrement on the hidden blood
C. X-rye
D. global analysis of blood

E. research of gastric secretion

347. What preparation does behave to blocker H2-retseptors?
A. tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. * oraza
348. What syndrome is characteristic for hemorragic erosive gastritis?
A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct.
349. When apply Teylors method at ulcerous illness
A. * at conservative treatment perforeted ulcers
B. at conservative treatment sanguifluous ulcers
C. at conservative treatment penetration ulcers
D. at conservative treatment malignization ulcers
E. at conservative treatment of cicatrical pyloristenosis
350. Blood loos I stage characterized such indexes
A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110 /e
351. Blood loos II stage characterized
A. * Ht 23 and below,
B. Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
352. Blood loos III stage characterized a degree such indexes
A. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
353. At perforated ulcer the pulled wooden belly is determined in the stage of peritonitis
A. terminal
B. toxic
C. * reactive
D. terminal-toxic
E. there is not a right answer
354. At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
A. expansion of percusion border of liver
B. * dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
C. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
D. expansion of percusion border the spleen
E. there is not a right answer
355. For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer useful:
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region
B. survey X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
C. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
D. X-rye of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
E. * X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
356. Ulcerous diaeases behaves to the diseases
A. because of alcoholism
B. because of the broken circulation of blood
C. * hronic recurrent
D. innate
E. traumatic
357. Hepatic dullness is not determined at
A. * perforations of gastric ulcer
B. break of bud
C. break of spleen
D. volvulus of stomach
E. mesenterial ishemia
358. Penetration of gastric content in an abdominal region possibly at
A. stenosis
B. penetration
C. bleeding
D. malignixation
E. * perforations
359. Hectic fever is possible at
A. bleeding from an ulcer
B. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
C. * penetration
D. the uncomplicated ulcer
E. cicatricle-ulcerous stenosis
360. For clarification diagnosis of perforete ulcer used
A. X-rye of abdominal region
B. * X-rye of abdominal region, after gastroscopy, then X-rye of abdominal region
C. Gastroscopy
D. CT
E. There is not a right answer
361. At operations on a stomach sometimes by mistake bandage an additional hepatic artery, that, in same
queue, can result to necrosis the segment, sectors or even stakes of liver. An additional hepatic artery
more frequent walks away from an artery
A. splenic
B. general hepatic
C. overhead mesenteric
D. all answers are faithful
E. * left stomach

362. Most guarantee against the recedive of ulcer during an operation concerning ulcerous diseases of
duodenum gives
A. trunks vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
B. * resection no less than a 2/3 stomach
C. selective-proximal vagotomy
D. antrumectomy with selective vagotomy
E. veritable antrumectomy
363. Direct sign of ulcer at x-ray research
A. violation of evacuation from a stomach
B. change of tone of stomach
C. form the stomach as "sand-glasses"
D. * symptom of "niche"
E. defect of filling
364. Hectic fever is possible at
A. to the uncomplicated ulcer
B. cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis
C. * penetration
D. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
E. bleeding from an ulcer
365. Tactic of family doctor during the covered perforation of ulcer
A. * urgent hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
B. planned hospitalization in surgical permanent establishment
C. supervision on to the house
D. hospitalization in therapeutic permanent establishment
E. there is not a right answer
366. Change in the analysis of blood at a perforete ulcer
A. leucopenia
B. anaemia
C. eosinophilia
D. * leucocytosis with a neutrophilic change
E. there is not a right answer
367. In treatment of ulcerous illness the stomach and duodenum executed only on urgent indications
A. stomach resection by Bilrot-II
B. * sewing up of the perforete opening
C. selective-proximal vagotomy
D. trunk vagotomy with a pyloroplasty
E. stomach resection by Bilrot-I
368. At the perforete ulcer of duodenum used more frequent
A. * sewing up gastroenteroanastomosis
B. resection of stomach
C. sewing up of the perforate opening
D. resection of stomach for a shutdown
E. different types of vagotomy in combination with the economy resection of stomach and other
draining operations
369. The ways distribution of gastroenteric content during the perforation of ulcer depend on
A. anatomic structure of the lateral ductings
B. locations of stomach

C. localizations of the perforate opening

D. * only transferred
E. forms and locations of transversal rim bowel
370. Sudden and painful pain with localization in the middle departments of stomach with an irradiation in
the back more characteristic for
A. heart attack the myocardium
B. * break aneurysm the aorta
C. bilious colic
D. perforate ulcers
E. nephrocolic
371. In the moment of perforation the gastric or duodenum ulcer meets most often
A. * suddenly arising up megalgia
B. cramp-like pain
C. noncommunicative, moderate pain
D. liquid chair
E. tachycardia
372. Numbers of complications the ulcerous illness
A. * 5
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
E. 2
373. A stomach-ache develops suddenly at (complication of ulcerous illness)
A. bleeding
B. malignization
C. stenosis
D. penetration
E. * perforations
374. For a perforete gastric ulcer in the first six clock typical
A. great sudden pains in a stomach, frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach, disappearance the hepatic
dullness, "sickle" under the right dome of diaphragm
B. frequent vomiting, swelling of stomach, disappearance the hepatic dullness, "sickle" under the right
dome of diaphragm
C. great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, swelling of stomach
D. * great sudden pains in a stomach, wooden belly, disappearance the hepatic dullness, "sickle" under the
right dome of diaphragm
E. combinations of signs are equivalent
375. Most informing method diagnostics the perforate ulcers
A. X-rye examination
B. USD
C. EGDS
D. * laparoscopy
E. laparocentezis
376. Tension the muscles of stomach in an initial period of perforation ulcer
A. absents
B. * visible
C. sickliness under the left shoulder-blade

D. appears at palpation
E. there is not a right answer
377. Rational operation at the subcompensated ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
A. antrumectomy
B. * resection 2/3 stomach
C. front gastroenteroanastomosis
D. gastrectomy
E. selective proximal vagotomy
378. At suspicion on a duodenal ulcer conduct above all things
A. research of gastric secretion
B. * EGDS
C. X-rye examination organs of abdominal region
D. determination the level of gastrin the whey blood
E. cholecystography
379. At a perforation gastric ulcer, vomiting blood is
A. often
B. very often
C. it is never
D. * rarely
E. there is not a right answer
380. What basic method the treatment of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Surgical
B. * Conservative
C. Homoeopathic
D. Physical therapy
E. A right answer is not present
381. Acute pancreatitis with a heavy flow treat in terms:
A. Ambulatory
B. Permanent establishment
C. * Department of intensive therapy
D. All answers are faithful
E. A faithful answer is not present
382. Conservative treatment the acute pancreatitis includes:
A. * Hunger
B. Povzners diet 5
C. Povzners diet 15
D. Moderation in a meal
E. Morning gymnastics
383. Early complications the acute pancreatitis is not:
A. * Fistula of pancreas
B. Pancreatic shock
C. Collapse
D. Ferment peritonitis
E. Pancreatic delirious syndrome
384. Name principal reason the acute pancreatitis:
A. Trauma the pancreas

B. * Bile-stone diseases
C. Alimentary factor
D. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
E. Cardiospasm
385. What operation on a pancreas is indicated at the oedematous form the acute pancreatitis:
A. * Interference on a pancreas is not needed
B. Pancreatectomy
C. Omentopankreatopeksy
D. Abdominisation pancreas
E. Marsupialization
386. At a frequent fat chair with disseminations of undigested meat and permanent thirst, it is foremost
necessary to think about:
A. * Chronic pancreatitis
B. Chronic duodenitis
C. Chronic hepatocholecystitis
D. Ulcerous diseases of duodenum
E. Hepatocirrhosis
387. Name most frequent complication after ERDPH:
A. * Pancreatitis
B. Cholangitis
C. Pancreatic sepsis
D. Reactive cholecystitis
E. Obstructing papillitis
388. How often does the pancreatitis department the general bilious channel pass through the head of
pancreas?:
A. * 80-90 %
B. 90-100 %
C. 75-85 %
D. 50-60 %
E. 40-50 %
389. What primary purpose treatment the patients with the heavy form of hemorragic pancreatonecrosis to
the operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. * Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
390. What primary purpose treatment the patient with fatty pancreatonecrosisto the operation is:
A. Liquidations the pain
B. * Disintoxication the organism
C. Liquidations crampy the big duodenal papilla
D. Declines secretory activity the pancreas
E. Improvements microcirculation
391. What most optimum resort is which used for pathology the pancreas:
A. Pyatigorsk
B. * Morshin
C. Kuyal'nik

D. Truskavets
E. Nemirov
392. Name the optimum volume of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from an abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining the bilious ways
E. Draining the chanel of pancreas
393. Name the optimum lines the operative interference concerning a acute pancreatitis after the beginning
of disease:
A. 7-8 days
B. 1-3 days
C. 1-5 days
D. 3-5 days
E. * Surgical treatment is not indicate
394. Among acute surgical diseases acute pancreatitis occupies:
A. First place
B. * Third place
C. Fifth place
D. Second - third place
E. Most widespread
395. What is condition hematomesis at acute pancreatitis:
A. Presence concomitant gastric ulcer
B. Presence concomitant gastritis
C. * Formation erosions in a stomach
D. Violation of microcirculation
E. Enzymes in blood
396. ERCP apply at:
A. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
B. Stenosing papillitis
C. * Stenosis the supraduodenal department of choledoch
D. Stricture the terminal department of choledoch
E. Mechanical icterus
397. What preparation is attributed to the proteases inhibitors:
A. Garamycin
B. Gaviskon
C. * Gordox
D. Halidor
E. Gramicidin
398. What preparation is attributed to the proteases inhibitors:
A. Tocopherol
B. Triampur
C. Tagamet
D. * Trasylol
E. Trypsin
399. What preparation is not attributed to the inhibitors proteases:

A. Pantripin
B. Kontrikal
C. Gordox
D. Trasylol
E. * Trypsin
400. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function of pancreas at a chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
401. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. * External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
402. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its forming:
A. * Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
403. What operation is most often used for localization the formed pseudocyst in the area of tail the
pancreas:
A. Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. * Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
404. What preparations from the cytostatic group use for intensifying the chronic pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Methyluracil
C. * 5-fluorouracil
D. Furadolizon
E. Mezimforte
405. What most effective blocker secretion of pancreas at acute pancreatitis:
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ubretid
C. Arginine
D. * Sandostatin
E. Benzogeksoniy
406. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
B. Acute pancreatolysis
C. * Acute biliary pancreatitis

D. Acute fatty pancreatitis

E. Forming of pseudocyst
407. Indication to early operative interference at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute pancreatolysis
B. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
C. * Progressive multiple organ failure what not added conservative therapy during 48-72 hours
D. Acute fatty pancreatitis
E. Forming of pseudocyst
408. What from operations does not execute at surgical treatment complicated acute pancreatitis:
A. Through draining the stuffing-box bag
B. Abdominisation the pancreas
C. Omentopankreatopeksiy
D. Left-side resection of gland
E. * Pancreatojejunostomy
409. At pancreatitis abscesses and infected necrosises execute such operations, except for:
A. Opening of abscess with draining
B. Pancreaticnecrsekvestrektomy
C. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy
D. Pancreaticsekvestrektomy with laparostomy
E. * Total pancreatotomy
410. What most effective treatment the unformed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. * Conservative treatment
B. External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
411. What most effective treatment the unformed complicated cyst is:
A. Conservative treatment
B. * External draining cyst
C. Resection cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
412. What most effective treatment the formed uncomplicated cyst is:
A. External draining the cyst
B. Marsupialization
C. Resection the cyst within the limits of the unchanged gland
D. * Cysticenterostomy
E. Cystogastrostomy
413. What nosotropic conditionality Voscresenckys sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Reflex paresis of colon
B. Thrombosis of abdominal aorta
C. * Inflammatory edema of pancreas
D. Embolism of abdominal aorta
E. Development of peritonitis
414. All surgical interferences at the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis divide on:
A. * Early, late, deferred operations

B. Primary, second, repeated operations

C. Invasion, not invasion operations
D. Complicated, operations are not complicated
E. Not divided
415. What is sequestrotomy:
A. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
416. What is necrectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
417. What is resection the pancreas:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. * Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
418. What is pancreatectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. * Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
419. What is pancreas located in relation to a peritoneum:
A. * Retroperitoneal
B. Mesoperitoneal
C. Intraperitoneal
D. All answers are incorrect
E. Variously
420. What is blood supply the body and tail pancreas:
A. * Splenic artery
B. A.gastroduodenalis
C. A.gastrica sinistra
D. A.cystica
E. Variously
421. Mondors sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands

422. Turners sing at acute pancreatitis:

A. * Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
423. Holsteds sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. * Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
424. Kulens sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Violet spots on face and trunk
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. * Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
425. Bondes sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Swelling the stomach only in epigastrium
B. Cyanosis sides of stomach and trunk
C. Cyanosis skin of stomach
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Cyanosys of hands
426. Voskresenskiys sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. * Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
427. Kertes sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. * Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
428. Meyo-Robsons sing at acute pancreatitis:
A. Absence pulsation the abdominal aorta
B. * Sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal
C. Sickliness and proof tension the muscles in an epigastrium with passing to left subcostal area
D. Icteritiousness round a belly-button
E. Skin hyperesthesia in projection the gland
429. How many is the period of haemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock lasts:
A. * 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. More 7 days

D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
430. How many is the period of functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. * 3-7 days
C. More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
431. How many is the period of degenerative and festerings complications lasts:
A. 1-3 days
B. 3-7 days
C. * More 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 2 hour
432. What hormone of pancreas has influences on metabolism glucose:
A. * Insulin
B. Vasopressin
C. Adrenalin
D. Somatotropin
E. Tiroksin
433. What cages of pancreas are make insulin:
A. ?
B. * ?
C. ? -
D. None of cages
E. D-
434. What hormone of pancreas has influences on the exchange of fats:
A. Insulin
B. Glyukagon
C. * Lipocainu
D. Adrenalin
E. Somatotropin
435. At what disease pain of girdle character is characteristic:
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Intestinal impassability
D. * Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute cystitis
436. The leading clinical symptoms the acute pancreatitis is:
A. * Stomach-ache
B. Vomiting by coffee-grounds
C. Disuria
D. Febrile temperature of body
E. Lock
437. pathognomonic symptom at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Pasternatskiys sing

B. * Kulens sing
C. Kers sing
D. Lenanders sing
E. Rovsings sing
438. Characteristic complication the acute pancreatitis is:
A. Paranephritis
B. Duglass abscess
C. Pylephlebitis
D. * Pancreonecrosis
E. Cyst of pancreas
439. The laboratory signs of total pancreonecrosis is:
A. Growth glucose concentration
B. Diminishing maintenance fibrinogenum
C. * Growth activity diastase
D. Diminishing activity diastase
E. Growth index AST
440. For diagnostics of acute pancreatitis most informing is:
A. * USD
B. CT
C. Cholangiography
D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
E. Colonoscopy
441. What norm diastase is:
A. * To 160
B. To 50
C. To 200
D. To 300
E. To 1200
442. What level diastase answers a chronic pancreatitis:
A. * 200-500
B. 100-160
C. 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
443. What level diastase answers a acute pancreatitis:
A. 100-160
B. 200-500
C. * 600-1000
D. 1000-1500
E. 10-20
444. What level diastase answers pancreonecrosis:
A. 600-1000
B. 200-500
C. 100-160
D. * 1000-1500
E. 10-20

445. For what pathology appearance of violet spots on the skin of person and trunk is characteristic:
A. Perforated ulcer
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. * Acute pancreatitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
446. At what pathology is absence pulsation of abdominal aorta
A. * Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
447. At what pathology is appearance cyanosys the sides of stomach:
A. * Acute pancreatitis
B. Perforated ulcer
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Acute appendicitis
448. At what pathology is appearance of sickliness in left costal-vertebral coal:
A. * Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Perforated ulcer
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. A right answer is not present
449. As the first period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. * Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
450. As the second period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. * Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
451. As the third period flowing of acute pancreatitis is named:
A. Haemodynamic violations and pancretic shock
B. * To functional insufficiency of parenchymatous organs
C. Degenerative and festerings complications
D. All answers are faithful
E. A right answer is not present
452. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to early:
A. * Peritonitis
B. Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts

D. Development of saccharine diabetes

E. Intestinal impassability
453. What complications at a acute pancreatitis is behave to late:
A. Peritonitis
B. * Phlegmon retroperitoneum space
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Development of saccharine diabetes
E. Intestinal impassability
454. What a clinical flow can be at acute pancreatitis:
A. Easy, middle, heavy
B. Acute, chronic
C. * Abortive, making progress
D. Edema, necrosis
E. Any variant
455. For the abortive flowing characteristically:
A. * A process limited to the acute edema with convalescence in 7-8 days
B. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically changed gland
C. A process limited to tearing away of the pathologically unchanged gland
D. A disease completed so not attaining clinical displays
E. Changes from the side of organ are not present
456. Specify the optimum volume operation at acute biliar pancreatitis:
A. Deleting exsudate from abdominal region
B. Decapsulation pancreas
C. Pancreatectomy
D. * Sanitization and draining bilious ways
E. Draining pancreas channel
457. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function pancreas at a chronic pancreatitis:

A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Mezim-forte
E. Panthenol
458. In obedience to classification complications of acute pancreatitis, after etiology and pathogeny,
distinguish such complications, except for:
A. Infectiously inflammatory
B. Enzymic
C. * Allergic
D. Mixed
E. Trombogemoragic
459. Characteristic complication acute pancreatitis is:
A. * Pancreonecrosis
B. Pylephlebitis
C. Hepatocirrhosis
D. Veritable pancreas cyst
E. Hepatitis
460. After time of origin complications acute pancreatitis select:

A. Premature and remote

B. Urgent and deferred
C. Primary and second
D. * Early and late
E. Any of variants faithful
461. To early complications acute pancreatitis attribute:
A. Shock
B. Acute hepatic-kidney insufficiency
C. Poured out peritonitis
D. Icterus
E. * All answers are faithful
462. In the postoperative period the patient must be treated with volume infusion likely for:
A. 50 ml / kg;
B. 10 ml / kg;
C. 20 ml / kg;
D. * 40 ml / kg
E. 30 ml / kg
463. Vital body functions:
A. hemodynamic state of consciousness;
B. respiration, activity of kidney, liver, gastrointestinal tract;
C. hemodynamics, somatic and autonomic nervous system;
D. breathing, heart activity, liver;
E. * respiratory, hemodynamic, central nervous system activity
464. Please provide optimal kalorazh during postoperative parenteral nutrition patients:
A. * 40 kcal / kg
B. 10 kcal / kg;
C. 20 kcal / kg;
D. 30 kcal / kg;
E. 50 kcal / kg
465. Parenteral nutrition patients displayed:
A. * if you can not enteral
B. All patients who are treated in VAITi;
C. all terminally ill;
D. with disorders of vital functions;
E. in the postoperative period
466. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. polihlyukin;
B. albumin;
C. plasma;
D. starch derivatives;
E. * lipofundin
467. In preparations for parenteral nutrition include:
A. * 10% glucose solution
B. albumin;
C. plasma;
D. starch derivatives;

E. karbikarb

(): : 11
General questions in surgery (situational task) 6 course
:

:
1. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, lung sounds by percussion, by auscultation crackling rales over the lower
lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with areas of
enlightenment in the center. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Abscessing pneumonia.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
2. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest expressed
infiltration of lung tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. * Acute lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Abscessing pneumonia.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
3. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction cavity with the
fibrous capsule in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of lung tissue is not
determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
4. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing with amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction cavity with the fluid
level, with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of the left lung. Infiltration
of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Suppurative cyst of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.

5. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, over the left lobe a dull percussion sound, by auscultation the breathing is
absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with an oblique upper
level along Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Pleural empyema.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
6. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the
left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by
auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left
lung with a horizontal fluid level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of collapsed lung.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Limited pyopneumothorax.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Pleural empyema.
E. Total pyopneumothorax.
7. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the
onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On X-
ray of the chest expressed infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. * Gangrene of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
8. Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood, increased body
temperature to 40C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the
onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, with a
shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound, by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe of the
left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant cavity in the
lower lobe with the level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Gangrenous abscess of lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Gangrene of the lung.
9. Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39C, pain in the left half
of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half of
the chest during breathing, the shortening of percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation
weakened breathing. On X-ray of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the projection of the left
lower lobe of the lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Limited empyema.
B. Wide-spread pleural empyema.

C. Acute lung abscess

D. Chronic lung abscess.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
10. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower
lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are
the best for the patient?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
11. In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in the chest, severe
cough, fever to 39C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's condition remains grave, with
expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum, and hectic fever. On X-ray on the
background of the heterogeneous shadow of the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with a
horizontal level of fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Abscess of the right lung
B. Gangrene of the right lung
C. Acute abscess of the right lung
D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung
E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern
12. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the
chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By
auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100
beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
13. The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150 ml per day,
pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38C. Has been ill for two weeks. The day before the
entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to 300 ml of purulent bad-smell sputum. On
examination: a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound under the right scapula, and the
weakening of vesicular breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Acute lung abscess
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess
D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease
E. Pleural empyema
14. Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper lobe of right
lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of antibiotics, sulfanilamidns
drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100 ml per day, fever (37,6C). What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. * Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute abscess of the right lung
C. Tuberculous cavern
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Suppurative cyst of lung
15. The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest, coughing, with
daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2C. The X-rays of the lower lobe of right lung
revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and outside spicules with minor infiltration around.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Hollow form of lung cancer
B. Chronic lung abscess
C. Suppuration cyst of lung
D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Limited empyema
16. The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated bleeding., The patient is
undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the most suitable for preoperative
prophylaxis?
A. * Cephalosporins.
B. Penicillin.
C. Macrolides.
D. Aminoglycosides.
E. Fluorohinolones.
17. The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of both sides. After
the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest. Therapeutist on the next day during
pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus. What is the mechanism of acute right-side empyema?
A. * Contact-aspirating.
B. Lymphogenous.
C. Hematogenous.
D. Implantation.
E. Airborne.
18. The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are
the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. * Vitamin K.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antibiotics.
D. Antiaggregants.
E. Prostaglandins.
19. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What medicines are the most
suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. * Dicynon.
B. Heparin.
C. Penicillin.
D. Courantil.
E. Alprostan.
20. The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How this bleeding is
classified?
A. * I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree

21. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
B. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side.
C. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic subcutaneous
emphysema.
E. Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right side. Posttraumatic complicated hemothorax.

22. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the typical treatment of rib fracture?
A. * Novocaine block
B. External fixation of ribs
C. Intrmedullary costal osteosynthesis;
D. Mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure
E. Thoracotomy
23. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. What is the treatment of pneumothorax?
A. * Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
24. The patient received chest trauma 2 hours ago. Complains of the severe pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea at rest. On examination: the lag of the right half of the chest during breathing,
crepitation along the V-VI ribs on the right side, by percussion - tympanic sound, by auscultation -
breathing is absent. The primary diagnosis: Closed chest trauma. Fractures of V-VI ribs on the right
side. Posttraumatic pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is
performed?
A. * II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
25. The patient received chest trauma 14 days ago. Complains of a moderate pain in the right half of the
chest, dyspnea, fever up to 38,5C. Lag of the right half of the chest during breathing, narrowing of
the intercostal spaces. By percussion - a shortening of the percussion sound over the right lung, by
auscultation - weakening of breathing. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Right-side suppurative hemothorax.
B. Right-side posttraumatic pneumonia.
C. Right-side hemothorax.
D. Right-side pyopneumothorax.

E. Consolidated rib fractures.

26. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
27. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What is the treatment of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Drainage of anterior mediastinum
B. Conservative treatment
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Novocaine block
E. Pericardial puncture
28. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What is the main cause of mediastinal emphysema?
A. * Disruptions of trachea, bronchi
B. Rib fracture
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
E. Mediastinal tumours
29. Was pressed by the truck to the wall. Complains of the expressed dyspnea, difficult breathing, chest
pain. On examination the expressed cyanosis. The frequency of respiratory movements - 26-28 per 1
min. Unstable hemodynamics. The chest is deformed, abnormal mobility of the front wall. The
swelling of soft tissues of the neck with crepitation. The primary diagnosis: Mediastinal emphysema.
What does the mediastinal emphysema result in?
A. * Cardiac tamponade
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleural empyema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung atelectasis
30. Female patient, 62 years old, was got in accident. On examination was detected the region of the right
half of the chest, which disengages during inspiration. What are the most appropriate therapeutic
measures?
A. * External fixation of a floating area
B. Introduction of narcotic analgetics
C. Vagosympathetic block by Vishnevsky
D. Tight chest bandage
E. Paravertebral blockade

31. In the patient after the accident with multiple rib fracture during the puncture of pleural cavity
received the gastric content. What additional examination is the most suitable?
A. * Chest X-ray with contrast of the stomach
B. Plain X-ray of abdominal cavity
C. Esophagogastroscopy
D. Computer tomography
E. Tomography of the chest
32. In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous shadow in the lower
lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid with blood clots. What treatment are
the best for the patient?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
33. In the patient after blunt chest trauma with a sternum fracture appeared the weakness, hypotension,
cyanosis of the upper half of the body, distension of the neck veins. By pleural puncture the content is
absent. Pulse 120 beats.per min, rhythmic, weakened. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Cardiac tamponade
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Contusion of the heart
D. Acute myocardial infarction
E. Coagulated hemopericardium
34. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper
half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found
out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the first aid?
A. * Drainage of the anterior mediastinum
B. Puncture of the pleural cavity
C. Drainage of the pleural cavity
D. Thoracoscopy
E. Thoracotomy
35. The patient entered in 3 hours after the injury with expressed subcutaneous emphysema of the upper
half of the body, dyspnea, tachycardia, pulse - 120 beats/min. On X-ray the pneumothorax was found
out with significantly enlargement of the mediastinum in both sides. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Mediastinal emphysema.
B. Posttraumatic pneumothorax.
C. Posttraumatic hemothorax.
D. Posttraumatic pneumonia
E. Subcutaneous emphysema.
36. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. What is the first aid?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Intravenous infusion
C. Oxygenotherapy
D. Intubation
E. Analgesics

37. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side tension pneumothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space
in pneumothorax is performed?
A. * II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
38. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. Where the drainage of pleural space in
hemothorax is performed?
A. * VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
39. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What method is the most informative in the
diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. * Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
40. Patient S., 35 years old, entered the hospital after the chest trauma. During clinical and X-ray
examination was diagnosed the left-side hemothorax. What test is used to determine the continuity of
pleural bleeding?
A. * Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
41. In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the left half of the
chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea, pain during inspiration. By
auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100
beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
42. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Esophagotraheal fistula
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Stenosis of the esophagus

E. Esophageal achalasia
43. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What complication is probable for this disease?
A. * Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
44. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What is the typical treatment of this disease?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
45. 54 years old patient complains of dysphagia. Two years ago noticed on the left side of neck the
appearance of protrusion after eating, vomiting by food, night cough. Began to lose his weight. On
X-ray of esophagus with barium at the level of the clavicle was revealed the depot of barium like
chicken egg by the size and shape. What operation is performed in this disease?
A. * Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
46. To the hospital entered a man in the critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea, subcutaneous
emphysema on the neck and upper part of body. Complains of severe pain behind the breastbone and
epigastrium. The body temperature of 38,9C, pulse 130 beats/min, blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg.
From anamnesis 6 years ago after drinking appeared the vomit, which resulted in the signatic. What
is the primary diagnosis?
A. * Spontaneous rupture of esophagus
B. Incarceration of paraesophageal hernia
C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Perforated ulcer
47. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What stage of dysphagia relates to such manifestations?
A. * II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
48. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the roentgenological sign of this disease in contrast X-ray
with barium?
A. * "Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
49. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulty passing of food through esophagus, periodic vomiting.
Has been ill for 1,5 years. Last 6 months notes appearance of food on the pillow during sleep. Lost 15
kg of body weight. There were constipations, stool once in 3-4 days. On plain X-ray film the absence
of the gas bubble of the stomach. What is the main method of diagnostic of this disease?
A. * X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
50. On X-ray of the esophagus in the right lateral projection in the middle third on the front wall was
found out the additional shadow, of round shape with smooth contours to 2 cm in diameter. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Diverticulum of the esophagus
B. Achalasia of the esophagus
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Chemical burn of the esophagus
E. Diaphragmatic hernia
51. The tool dilation of burn and peptic stricture of the esophagus has a risk of perforation with the
development of purulent mediastinitis and pleural empyema. What is the least dangerous method for
perforation should be applied in the first attempt of dilation of the stricture?
A. * Dilatation of the stricture by balloon dilatator with a stable diameter of the cylinder.
B. Bouginage under the control of esophagoscope.
C. Bouginage along the metal conductor.
D. The blind bouginage under local anesthesia.
E. Bouginage under the control of X-ray
52. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia
of esophagus of the IV stage with S-shaped deformation. What is the optimal treatment?
A. * Operation esophagocardiomyotomy with plastic by the stomach fundus.
B. Cardiodilatation by hard probe.
C. Cardiodilatation balloon probe.
D. Operation esophago-fundoanastomosis by Heyrovsky.
E. Resection of the cardia with esophageal anastomosis.
53. Female complains of difficult passing of food through esophagus, vomiting by unchanged food,
regurgitation in night and weight loss. Anamnesis about 10 years. On X-ray study revealed achalasia
of esophagus of the IV stage. What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of this disease?
A. * Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic

D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation

E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
54. Patient 52 entered the clinic with complaints of complete obstruction of the esophagus, salivation,
weakness, t-38,7C. Dysphagia has been for 8 days, after the swallowing of piece of the meat with
bone. On X-ray the barium delays at the middle third of the esophagus. On fibroesophagoscopy was
found a wedged bone with hyperemia and edema of the mucous membrane, covered by fibrin. What
is the optimal treatment strategy in this case?
A. * Surgical treatment: thoracotomy, esophagotomy, removal of foreign body (bone), suturing of the
esophagus + gastrostomy.
B. Endoscopic removal of foreign body by rigid esophagoscope
C. Pushing of foreign body in the stomach by bougie.
D. Removal of foreign body by the Fogarty's probe
E. Removal of foreign body by fiberoptic endoscope.
55. Among the methods of esophageal plastic the most physiologic and safe modern method is:
A. * Isoperistaltic plastic by tube of the greater curvature of the stomach after the extirpation of the
esophagus through a cervical-laparotomy access.
B. Large intestine plastic in antiperistaltic position of the transplant.
C. Large intestine plastic in isoperistaltic position of the transplant.
D. Large intestine plastic with a skin flap.
E. Large intestine plastic by ileocecal segment.
56. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever,
tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior
mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
57. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone, loss of weight. Has been ill for 7 months. Last 2
weeks noticed difficult passing of solid food. On contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: filling defect of
lower thoracic part of the esophagus, a "niche" sign of the lesser curvature of stomach. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. * Gastric ulcer
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
D. Sliding esophageal hernia
E. Peptic duodenal ulcer
58. Complaints of the pain behind the breastbone, difficult passage of solid food, weight loss, dizziness.
Has been ill for 3 months. Last 2 days disturbs the vomiting after fluid food, the stagnation of fluid
food. On EGDS severe narrowing of the esophagus, rigidity of the walls, hyperemic mucosa without
folds. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Esophageal cancer
B. Sliding esophageal hernia
C. Paraesophageal hernia
D. Reflux esophagitis
E. Varicose veins of the esophagus

59. In the patient six months ago appeared the complaints of pain behind the sternum and a strong
burning sensation in the esophagus. Sometimes observed dysphagia. On X-ray examination found
the presence of diverticulum of the left wall of esophagus at the level of tracheal bifurcation 3?4 cm,
just below the aortic arch. The patient was not treated. What tactics of treatment should be choused?
A. * Right-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
B. Left-side thoracotomy, diverticulectomy.
C. Right-side thoracotomy, resection of the esophagus.
D. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
E. Large intestine plastic of esophagus
60. The woman aged 52 complains of pain behind the breastbone, difficult passing of solid food through
esophagus, increased salivation. The doctor advised 0,1 % solution of atropine before eating. After 3
days on X-rays no pathology was revealed. The doctor should do for this patient:
A. * Send to fibroesophagoscopy
B. Allow the job
C. Control visit after 2 months
D. Treatment by spasmolytics
E. Send to ECG
61. The woman, 38 years old, complains of difficulty passage of solid meal on esophagus, vomiting by
undigested food, night regurgitation (sign of ,,wet pillow"), loss of weight. Has been ill for 10 years.
On X-ray examination with barium the sign of "rat tail", dilation of the esophagus to 6 cm with
maintained peristalsis. What stage of achalasia is there in this patient?
A. * II
B. I
C. 0
D. III
E. IV
62. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
63. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What roentgenological sign confirms the pathology?
A. * "Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
64. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What drugs are used for the treatment of this pathology?
A. * Blockers of proton pomp

B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
65. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What disease should be this pathology differentiated from?
A. * Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
66. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What is the main treatment of this pathology?
A. * Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
67. 53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, especially in the
horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum occurs after hot or spicy food.
Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of consciousness. Has entered the hospital after
repeated gastric bleeding. What type of operation is used for treatment of this pathology?
A. * Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
68. After the birth of the child appeared the signs of respiratory failure. By auscultation on the left side
the breathing is absent. On X-ray expressed mediastinal shift to the right, the presence of protrusion
on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Left-sided diaphragmatic hernia
B. Hypoplasia of right lung
C. Polycistosis of the left lung
D. Relaxation of the diaphragm
E. Esophageal stricture
69. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn, belching.
Has been ill for 4 months. What research is the most appropriate?
A. * X-ray contrast study in Trendelenburg's position.
B. Plain chest X-ray
C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Plain X-ray of the abdominal cavity.
E. Computer tomography
70. The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night, heartburn, belching.
Has been ill for 4 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. * Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis

B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
71. What is the most wide-spread cause of the peptic stricture of esophagus associated with reflux-
esophagitis?
A. * Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Prolonged nasogastric intubation in the esophagus.
C. Short stay nasogastric intubation.
D. Frequent vomiting of pregnancy.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
72. X-ray signs: the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach are characteristic
for:
A. * Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraesophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
73. The patient has the pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, which increases after the meal. Has been
ill for 6 months. For 5 days has a black chair. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt
Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
74. Complaints of heaviness in the epigastric region, nagging pain after eating. When EGDS pathology
identified. On X-ray examination pronounced gas bubble of the stomach is is visible the to the level
III intercostal space on the left. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Relaxation of the diaphragm.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Sliding esophageal hernia.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus.
75. The patients with sliding esophageal hernia mostly complain of:
A. * Heartburn, pain behind the breastbone.
B. Difficult passage of food, loss of weight.
C. The pain behind the breastbone, difficulty in food passage.
D. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the right hypochondrium.
E. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the back.
76. Complications paraesophageal hernias of esophagus:
A. * Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflux esophagitis.

77. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6 months ago
was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What complication arose?
A. * Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflex esophagitis.
78. In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea, vomiting. 6 months ago
was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What type of operation is is indicated for this patient?
A. * Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
79. Complaints of heartburn, pain behind the breastbone, outpour of food. Has been ill for 2 months. On
X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach.
Your tactics?
A. * Conservative therapy.
B. Bouginage of esophagus.
C. Surgical intervention.
D. Large-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
E. Small-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
80. The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt the fever,
tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of fluid in the posterior
mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
81. Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone. Has been ill for 4 months. On contrasting X-ray
was diagnosed: the "bell" sign, the absence of gas bubble of the stomach, blunt Hiss angle. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Sliding esophageal hernia
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Peptic duodenal ulcer
E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
82. 5 hours ago, after the bouginage of esophageal cicatricle stricture appeared the pain behind the
breastbone, a feeling of compression, subcutaneous crepitation on the neck, fever to 38,5C. On
examination the weakening of the heart tones by auscultation. On plain X-ray of chest mediastinal
emphysema, mediastinal extension of the shadows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute mediastinitis
B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Sliding esophageal hernia
D. Paraesophageal hernia
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
83. A 34-year-old female with hypertension is considering to become a pregnant. Which of the following
medications would be absolutely contraindicated to control her BP during pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. * Captopril
E. Nifedipine
84. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high BP of
180/100 mm Hg after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. * Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
85. A 34-year-old male with isolated essential hypertension came to clinic and it was found high BP of
180/100 mm Hg item after failure of behavioral modifications. What is the most appropriate next
step?
A. Start hydrochlorothiazide
B. * Start hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril
C. Repeat BP in 4 weeks
D. Start amlodipine
E. Start doxazozin
86. A 40-year-old diabetic patient with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and proteinuria.
Which BP profile represents the best therapeutic goal for this patient?
A. 160/90
B. 140/90
C. 130/85
D. * 125/75
E. 140/85
87. A 40-year-old diabetic patient presents with a blood pressure (BP) of 145/90 mm Hg item and
proteinuria. What is the best medication for the initial management of this patients hypertension?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta blockers
C. * ACE-inhibitors / angiotensin receptor blockers
D. Alpha blockers
E. Diuretics
88. A 42-year-old female with chronic obsctructive pulmonary disease is found on multiple office visits
to have elevated BP measurements. Which of the following medications is contraindicated?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Metoprolol
C. Lisinopril
D. * None of above
E. All of the above
89. A 42-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired
glucose methabolism, and a BP of 135/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this individual?
A. * Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time

D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
90. A 45-year-old male comes in for a routine physical examination. He is noted to have impaired
glucose methabolism, and a BP of 140/85 mmHg. What is the best treatment plan for this individual?
A. * Aggressive lifestyle modification
B. Institute thiazide diuretic regimen
C. No treatment at this time
D. Initiate an ACE-inhibitor
E. Initiate a beta-blocker
91. A 48-year-old male with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia has a hypertensive
emergency. His arterial pressure is 150/100 mmHg item. Which medications would be most
appropriate therapy for this patient?
A. * Nitroprusside
B. Enteral metoprolol
C. Fenoldopam
D. Intravenous nitroglycerine
E. Any of the above
92. ?A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to the
outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is willing to
consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant
for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications would be the most
appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. * Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
93. A 48-year-old obese male with hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes mellitus presents to the
outpatient clinic for his yearly physical. He has refused medications in the past, but now is willing to
consider treatment. His BP is 145/95 mmHg with a HR of 80 bpm. His laboratory data are significant
for the presence of microalbuminuria. Which of the following medications would be the most
appropriate?
A. Carvedilol
B. Methyldopa
C. * Lisinopril
D. Chlorthalidone
E. Terazozin
94. A 56-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to develop
a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to cause drug-
induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. * Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
95. A 53-year-old male on hydralazine, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and metoprolol begins to develop
a malar rash and arthralgias. Which of the above antihypertensive agents is known to cause drug-
induced lupus?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide

B. Lisinopril
C. * Hydralazine
D. Metoprolol
E. None of the above
96. A 60-year old white man consults you with a headache. Examination data are unremarkable, except
that the blood pressure is raised and subsequent measurements confirm readings of 170/106 mmHg.
He is obese, smokes 15 cigarettes per day and drinks 2 pints of beer per day. His investigations reveal
a cholesterol of 6 mmol/l with a normal blood sugar and electrolyte profile and normal renal function.
There is no evidence of target organ damage.
A. This man needs immediate treatment with antihypertensive drugs, aspirin and a statin
B. * Initiate antihypertensive therapy with two-drug combination
C. At this age it is far more important to control the hyperlipidaemia than the BP
D. This mans blood pressure could be wholly ascribed to his alcohol intake
E. This patient can be observed and counseled on maintaining a reasonable BMI
97. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg
PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP at home is always less than
140/80 mmHg, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. * Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
98. A 62-year-old man with isolated essential hypertension, currently taking hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg
PO daily, comes to you for his first clinic visit. He notes that his BP at home is always less than
140/80 mmHg item, but in clinic it is always at least 155/95 mmHg. What is the next step?
A. Increase dose of thiazide
B. Addition of second antihypertensive medication
C. * Do nothing as he has white coat hypertension
D. Evaluate for secondary causes of hypertension
E. Start metoprolol
99. At a routine examination, an asymptomatic 46-year-old man is found to have a BP of 150/110 mmHg
item, but no other abnormalities are present. What do you do next?
A. Reassure the patient and repeat the physical examination in 12 months
B. Initiate antihypertensive therapy
C. * Obtain repeated BP recordings in your office and/or the patients home or work site
D. Hospitalize patient for renal arteriography
E. Order a 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring
100. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or cardiac
agent in question: a 45-year old female has been on diuretic, but BP remains elevated at 145/95,
leading to the proposed addition of lisinopril. Which key potential adverse effect should be
discussed?
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Peripheral edema
C. Lupus-like syndrome
D. * Cough
E. Gynecomastia

101. For the case below, select the most significant adverse effect of the antihypertensive and/or cardiac
agent in question: a 58-year old male truck driver has significant hypertension, still not controlled on
a diuretic plus calcium channel blocker. Clonidine is being considered as the next medication, but in
this patients is concerned by sedation, sexual dysfunction.
A. Increased triglyceride levels
B. Cough
C. Gynecomastia
D. * Rebound hypertension
E. Urinary retention
102. In patients with a history of stroke or TIA the preferred drug combination is:
A. * ACE-inhibitor and diuretic
B. Calcium-channel blocker and beta-blocker
C. Beta-blocker and diuretic
D. Angiotensin receptor blocker and beta blocker
E. Beta- and alpha blocker
103. The initial antihypertensive medication recommended for patients who have no compelling
indications or contraindications is
A. ACE-inhibitor
B. Calcium-channel blocker
C. Diuretics
D. Beta blocker
E. * Any of the above
104. To reduce the patients cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, which therapy would you prescribe?
A. Hydralazine
B. Atenolol
C. * Losartan
D. Doxazosin
E. Clonidine
105. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the patients antihypertensive therapy?
A. Advise a low-sodium diet
B. * Finish doxazosin therapy and consider an alternative agent
C. Advise high dietary intake of calcium and potassium
D. Increase the doxazosin to 4 mg a day
E. Advise magnesium supplements
106. You see a diabetic patient presents with BP readings that are 155/95 or higher. All of the following
statements about the treatment of this patient's hypertension are correct EXCEPT:
A. Pharmacologic blocade of the renin-angiotensin system reduces the risk of both microvascular and
macrovascular events
B. Aggressive BP control reduces cardiovascular events more in diabetics than in nondiabetics
C. * Calcium channel blockers show no benefit in reducing cardiovascular events
D. The goal BP for this patient is <130/80 mmHg
E. All the above statements are correct
107. During the operation concerning strangular impassability of bowels, which conducted under general
anaesthesia of i/v with ALV, at a patient the stop of cardiac diyal-nosti happened 50 years in the
moment of mesenretium streching by the surgeon. What would prevent the stop of heart in this case?
A. * i/v injection atropin
B. i/v injection of cardiac glycozidis
C. Deepening of general anaesthesi

D. Additional injection of relaxants

E. Additional injection droperidol
108. Patient 30 years after a road-transport failure complaints of the acute tahypno Ob-ly: a skin is pale,
cyanosi Hypodermic emphysema in the region of thorax, stomach, right side of the neck.
Auscultative: breathing on the right side is not conducted; pulse 130/min., AP 80/60
mm.mercury., CVP 140 mm wt., FB 30 /min., Ht 0,27, Hb 90 g/l. Subsequent therapy must
include above all things:
A. * punction of pleura cavity.
B. Urgent ALV
C. Massive infusion therapy of the crystalloid solutions
D. Infusion of dofamin, 2-5 mcg/cg/min
E. 100% oxygen
109. Patient has BP - 80/40 mm mercury, pulse - 120 per min, shock index for him:
A. * 120/80=1,5
B. 80+40)120=1
C. 80/120=0,67
D. 120/40=3
E. Not determined, as blood loss is unknown
110. Patient N., 47 years, treated in the hospital with the diagnosis: carbuncle of right kidney. Suddenly
general condition deteriorated, body temperature 39.50 C, skin cold, humid, consciousness kept,
expressed choking. Breath deep, noisy, 26/min. Pulse - 110/min., SC - 90/60 mm.mercury., oliguri
Which complications we can think about?
A. * Infectious-toxic shock
B. Vascular dystonia
C. Epilepsy
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Orthostatic collapse
111. Patient, 40 years, with the trauma of both thighs is delivered from the scene of accident by a passing
transport. Objectively: cyanosys, rubor of the lower half of the neck, tahypnoe, AP 60/40 mm mer
st., HBA=120 /min, in lungs moist wheezes, diuresis 20 ml/h., Nb 100 g/l. Which from the offered
diagnoses most reliable?
A. * Fatty embolism
B. Traumatic shock
C. Hemorhagic shock
D. Pain shock
E. Tromboembolism
112. The patient 60 years is delivered in the department of intensive therapy with a diagnosis: bite of bee,
anafilactic shock.. Which medicine will be primary and most effective?
A. Adrenalin
B. Calcium the chloride
C. * Prednizolon
D. Dimedrol
E. Suprastin
113. The patient 25 years is hospitalized in the surgical department with a diagnosis: penetrable wound of
abdominal region. Objectively: it is excited, skin covers and visible mucous shells are pale;
peripheral pulse of the weak filling, frequent, AP 110/60 mm mercury Positive symptom of
desolation of peripheral hypodermic vein Diuresis is lowere How to characterize this state?
A. * The compensated shock
B. Preagonia

C. Circulating shock
D. Agony
E. Irreversible shock
114. The patient 36 years with ulcerous of gaster in anamnesis is hospitalized in the surgical department
with complaints on vomiting by "coffee-grounds", diarhea, moderately expressed thirst. Objectively:
a skin is pale, covered by a death-damp, a tongue is dry, AP 80/60 mm rt.st., HBA 120/min., BF
28/min., diuresis 25 ml/h. Blood test: Era - 2,8 1012/l, Hb 98 g/l. What will be most expedient in
medical treatment:
A. * solutions with colloid
B. 5% solution of glucose
C. Whole blood
D. Red corpuscles mass
E. Colloid solutions with red corpuscles mass
115. 118. Patient 48 years the second day in dpartment of intensive therapy concerning the acute front-
partition heart attack of myocardium. During a review wheezing suddenly, non-permanent tonic
constricting of muscles is marked, pupils are extended, pulse on carotis not palpitat What doctor
have to do in the first place?
A. * Triple Safar method
B. Record of ECG
C. Cardial hit in the area of heart
D. Artificial respiration by the method of Silvester
E. Intracardial injection of adrenalin with an atropine
116. The patient entered the department with a diagnosis: acute intestinal impassability. Complaints:
insignificant thirst, dizziness at an attempt to get up from a be At a review: patient apathetical, turgor
is lowered, eyeballs are soft, tongue is dry with crack Pulse 110 min., AP 80 /60 mm of mer
item, diuresis 25 ml /h. Electrolyte composition: Na+ - 142 mmol/l, C+ - 4 mmol/l, glucose 6
mmol/l, urea 7 mmol/l. What variant of infusion is most expedient during operation?
A. * Transfusion of crystalloid
B. Transfusion of solution of glucos
C. Transfusion of albumen.
D. Transfusion of native plasm
E. Transfusion of poliglucin.
117. The patient, 28 years, 2 hours ago fell down from the ground floor of hous Sopor, pale, there are the
plural scratches of face, the lacerated hemorhagic wounds on the left forearm. The closed break of the
left shoulder and thigh. Pulse 110, Lc-10T/l, Hb 100, AP 90/40 mm of rt. item In the blood test:
red corpuscles 3,5 g/l. What infouziyniy serednic does not need to be used for medical treatment of
shock?
A. * 5% solution of glucose
B. Solution of crystalloids
C. Solutions gelatin
D. Solutions of calcium
E. Solution of albumen
118. Anafilactic shock appeared at a patient. The state heavy and progressively gets wors HBA 110 in a
1 minute, AP 60/30 mm mercury. Prescribe medicine for the rescue of life of patient above all
things?
A. * Adrenalin.
B. Chloride of calcium.
C. Prednizolon.
D. Dofamin.

E. Suprastin.
119. At a patient 20 years on a background the injection of vitamin B1 suddenly there was excitation, fear
of death, falling of AP to 50 mm rt.st., hard breathing. Which of medicine it is necessary to inject
firstly?
A. * Adrenalin
B. Prednizolon
C. Calcium
D. Dimedrol
E. Eufilin
120. At a patient 60 years with the third day after an exterpation uterus acute insufficiency of breathing
developed suddenly, a skin became at first cyanotic, and then ash-colored color. Tachypnoe, cough
with bloody sputum, retrosternal pain. BP 100/70 mm. mercury, HR 120, BR 32 in 1 min., CVP
300 mm wt.col. What most reliable reason of worsening of the state of patient ?
A. * Tromboemboliya of pulmonary artery
B. Bleeding
C. Pain shock
D. Hypostatic pneumonia
E. Heart attack of myocardium
121. At a patient in the ward of intensive therapy you marked appearance on the monitor of fibrillation of
ventricule Your first actions?
A. * To conduct defibrillation three times
B. To inject adrenalin
C. To inject a chloride
D. To begin the closed massage of heart
E. To inject lidocain
122. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium best of all to warn relapsing fibrillation of
ventricles with :
A. cordaronum
B. lidocainum
C. ornidinum
D. * electrocardiostimulation
E. there is no right answer
123. At a patient with the acute heart attack of myocardium in the region of partition on a 5th day after the
brief episode of loss of consciousness there is reduction of frequency of pulse to 32 in a minut BP -
80/40 mm Consciousness at the level of sopor. He immediately needs :
A. to put right a craniotserebral hypothermia, to enter lasics, prednisoloni, tserebrolizin
B. to enter an atropine, eoufilin, to begin infouziyo of aloupenta
C. * to conduct urgent cardiostimoulation
D. all answers are faithful
E. there is no right answer
124. At a patient, carried to a 2 year ago the heart attack of myocardium, the acute decline of
cholecystyties planned cholecystectomy, signs of electric instability of myocardium . Actions of
anaesthesiologist must include:
A. injection of prednisoloni, lidocaini, hyperventilation, take the ECG
B. * injection of dopamini, after stabilisation of BP - nitroglycerine + infusion therapy under the control
CVP, conducting of neurovegetative defence, take the ECG
C. injection of streptodecasol, stream infusion of reopoliglyocinum, injection of lidocainum, increase of
dose of analgetics

D. correctly A) and C)
E. all answers are faithful
125. At a patient, that is found on medical treatment in the therapeutic department, the sudden stopping of
circulation of blood happene Medical personnel begun the reanimation measure Define the most
rational way of injection of adrenalin for renewal of heart abbreviations in default of vein access:
A. * To enter to a 3 ml solution of adrenalin in a trachea
B. To enter to a 1 ml solution of adrenalin in muscle
C. To enter adrenalin in muscle, multiplying a dose in 3 time
D. The intracardial injection.
E. Adrenalin can be not enterea
126. At a patient, that is found under the permanent electrocardioscopic supervision, microwave
fibrillation of myocardium and diagnosed clinical death develope It is necessary to do:
A. to inject the solution of calcium in cor
B. * to conduct high-voltage electric defibrillation
C. to inject solution of atropine in cor
D. to inject solution of adrenalin in cor
E. All answers are wrong
127. At the patient operated concerning the festering peritonitis coused by perforation of gastric ulcer, in a
postoperation period appeared: high temperature, frequency of breathing 35/min., AP 70/40 mm of
mer item, diuresis -20 ml/h temperature of body to 39 , leucocitosi Transfusion during 12 hours 1,8
of a 0,9% solution of chlorous sodium and 0,8 of solution of reopoliglucin did not improve general
condition. Central vein pressure 130 mm wt.st. For stabilization of hemodinamics will be optimum
infusion:
A. * Dopamin
B. Mezaton
C. Adrenalin
D. Noradrenalin
E. Ephedrine
128. At the ventilated patient with the edema of lungs at low pressure and septic shock intravenous
infusion 7,5 mcg/kg/min dopamini will increase
A. RaO2, saturation of oxygen of the mixed vein blood, consumption of oxygen
B. diuresis
C. * cardiac systolic volume
D. right A) and B)
E. faithful all answers
129. In 2 hours after renewal of cardial activity at a patient, that carried the sudden stop of heart on a
background hemorhagic shock (blood lost near 2,5 l) and is found on ALV, unstable hemorhagia (AP
80/40 90/60 mm of mer item, tahycardia)is marked, central vein pressure 5 mm wt.st. It is
related to:
A. * By Hypovolume syndrome
B. By cardia insufficiency
C. By the inadequate interchange of gases
D. Vasoplegia
E. By the inadequate anaesthetizing
130. In a clinic a patient with the traumatic tearing of both lower extremities off at the level of knee-joints
is delivere A patient is extremly inert, languid, pale, pulse 140 bmin, threadlike, AP 500. On both
lower extremities there are the imposed plait Bleeding at the receipt is not present. From the words
of doctor of first-aid, lost about 3 litres of blood in place of event. What principal reason of heavy of
the state of Patient?

A. * acute hemorrhag
B. Pain shock.
C. Ishemia of extremities as a result of application of tourniquet
D. Fatty embolism
E. acute kidney insufficiency
131. On a 4 day after incompatible (on a group) blood transfusion at a patient acutely reduced diouresis,
anuria developed, the common state became worse acutely, arterial pressure ros At laboratory
research: creatinin plasma 680 mlmol/l, urea of plasma - 24 mmol/l. What illness and what stage of
illness it follows to think about in the first place?
A. * Acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
B. Anaphylactic shock, acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
C. Hemotransfusion shock, postrenal acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
D. Posthemoragic acute kidney insufficiency, anuria
E. acute interstitsial nephritis, postrenal anuria
132. Patient 20 years for verification of the functional state of kidneys the X- ray examination with v/v
injection of cardiotrast is conducte At the end of injection the state of patient acutely became worse,
the shortness of breath, hyperemia of skin, itch appeare AP 60/20 mm of mer item, HBA
132/min. A similar research was conducted 3 months ago, such effects were not observe What most
reliable diagnosis?
A. * Medicinal anafilactic shock
B. Acute kidney insufficiency
C. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
D. Stress on the conducted manipulation
E. Heart attack miocardium
133. Patient 38 years, native plasma was poure At the end of infusion the state became worse: Patient
confused, excited, cyanosys, hypersalivation. Breathing frequency 36 on 1 min., AP 70/40 mm of
mer item, whistling dry wheeze Which from the following mediceni must be injected firstly?
A. * Adrenalin.
B. Eufilin.
C. Suprastin.
D. Noradrenalin.
E. Prednizolon.
134. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a volume
400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of patient
became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8
What can explaine the state of patient?
A. Pyroxene reaction of middle heavy
B. By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. * Allergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock
E. By air embolism
135. Patient 40 years with the acute gastro - intestinal bleeding a canned blood was poured in a volume
400 ml after conducting of all tests on compatibility. After hemotransfusion the state of patient
became worse, appeared head pains and pains in muscles athe temperature of body rose to 38,8
What can explaine the state of patient?
A. Pirogenic reaction of middle heavy
B. * By development of hemotransfusion shock
C. Alergic reaction
D. By development of bacterial-toxic shock

E. By air embolism
136. Patient 62 years the third day of presense in department of intensive therapy concerning the acute
transmural heart attack of myocardium of front-partition localization. At night woked up from a
suffocating cough, feeling of fear and troubl At a review: cyanosys, FB 30 after 1 min., HBA
132/ min., a rhythm is correct, tones of heart are deaf, accent tone above a pulmonary artery, AP
180/110 mm mercury. There is the loosened breathing above lungs with the far of moist wheezes in
lower fate What probably became the reason of worsening of the state?
A. * Edema of lungs
B. Embolism of pulmonary artery
C. The repeated heart attack miocardium
D. Hypertensive crisis
E. Attack of bronchial asthma
137. Patient L is hospitalized in gynecological department with the temperature of 39 degrees C, with
complaints of pain in the bottom of stomach, vomit, diarrhea . Criminal abortion have been done 4
days befor AP 80/60, breathing is difficult, psychosomatic excitation. Symptom of Schotkin-
blumberg is positiv Uterus is enlarged as on 9 weeks of pregnancy, limitedly mobile, painles Pus
with blood appeare Your Diagnosis?
A. * septic shock
B. Perforation of uterus
C. Pelvic peritonitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute adnexia inflammation
138. Patient N., 28 years ol 6 day after the complicated birth The clinical hematological signs of subacute
disseminate intravascular coagulation syndrome developed after skin hemorrhage and uterine
bleeding. The state of patient is very ba blood: Er-2,7 of T/l, Hb-78 of gm/l, CI - 0,93, L-4,7 of Gm/l,
thrombocytes-88 of gm/l, time of blood cloating - 16 min, prothrombin time - 25 sec, ethanol test +,
fibrinogen-1,4 gramme/l, What preparations should be prescribed ?
A. * freezed plasma
B. Heparinum
C. Reopoliglycin
D. Cryoprecipitate
E. U-aminokapric acid
139. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteriidal antiinflammatory. After
injection of antitetanus on a method Besredco concerning the hammered wound of right shin, through
20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of consciousnes
What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of illness?
A. * Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy
E. Infection of whey
140. Patient N., 40 years, groom. In anamnesis there is an allergy to nonsteroidal antyinflammatory. After
injection of antytetanus on a method Besredco concerning the hammered wound of right shin,
through 20 mines, there was a acute weakness, labouring breath, through 10 mines, loss of
consciousnes What mechanism of development of anafilactic form of illness?
A. * Sensitization to the albumen of horse whey
B. Low quality of horse whey
C. Breach of the technique of PPS injection
D. Presence in anamnesis of medical allergy

E. Infection of whey
141. Persons 48 years, patient by the heart attack of miocardium, suddenly lost consciousness, breathing
and palpitation. On ECG of highwave fibrilation of ventricule Conducted defibrilation. Did not pick
up normal cardial activity. What medicine needs to be entered for the rise of sensuality to
defibrillation?
A. * Amiodaron
B. Propranolon
C. Lidocain
D. Strofantin
E. Atropini sulfati
142. Pharmacological medicine, that diminish the (afterload) left ventricle at a patient with the acute heart
attack of myocardium, are not included
A. nitroglycerine
B. * strophantine
C. nitroproussid sodium
D. esmolol (brevibloc)
E. nifedipinum
143. Sick 46 years treated oneself in a therapeutic department with pneumonia of lower dole of right
lung. Planned antibacterial therapy - amoxiklav. After 40 min after intramuscular injection of duty
dose, the patients feeled dizziness, pain behind a breastbon AT 60/40 mm mer , pulse, - 120 a min.,
rhythmical. During examination of lungs: wheezes under both lung Temperature is 38,5 What is
worsening of the condition related to?
A. * Anaphylactic shock
B. Infectious toxic shock
C. Collapse
D. Tromboembolia of pulmonary artery
E. Infectious shock
144. The patient 20 years old, delivered to ambulance department on the 2nd day of illness in a grave
condition: temperature of body 39c, symptoms of intoxication are expresse On extremities, trunk,
buttocks, present hemorrhagic rash as eczema with necrosis in the center. One day before cut his leg.
Now has the wound in that plac In 2 hours the decline of AP is registered from 100/70 to 60/30 mm
of Hg, diffused cyanosi Application of prednisolon of 120 mg and reopolyglucin did not give any
effect. What complication does it follow to think about?
A. acute sub renal failure
B. * Septic shock
C. hypovolemic shock
D. Hemorragic shock
E. Respirator distress syndrom of adults
145. The patient 32 years have infusion of native plasm At the end of infusion the state became worse:
disorientation, cyanosys, excitation, appeared hypersalivation, tahypnoe, AP =70/40 mm mer st., in
lungs the dissipated dry wheeze What medicine must be injected firstly?
A. * Adrenalin.
B. Suprastin.
C. Gidrocortizon.
D. Dopamin.
E. Eufilin.

146. To patient P., 50 years, with an unspecific ulcerous colitis with the purpose of correction of anaemia
transfusion of selfgroup blood 500 ml A() the Rh(-) was conducte A doctor went out from a
chamber after conducting of necessary tests before hemotransfusion. In 20 minutes he was quickly
asked to the patient. Patient without consciousnes The cyanosys of upper body part. Irregular
breathing with the selection of a plenty of foamy, with the admixtures of blood, phlegm. Pulse on
peripheries and arterial pressure are not determine Tones of heart are deaf, unrhythmical. An
ampoule and transfusion system is empty. What complication arose up as a result of
hemotransfusion?
A. * Air embolism of pulmonary artery
B. Tromboembolism of pulmonary artery
C. Edema of lungs
D. Heart attack of myocardium
E. Syndrome of massive hemotransfusion
147. To the patient 45 years with suspicion on holecystitis the rentgencontrast i/v is quickly injecte
Tahycardiya, arterial hypotension, cyanosys, shortness of breath appeared, acute swelling of veins of
neck, extension of liver, CVT to 200 mm wt.st. acute insufficiency of what part of the cardial-
vascular system is observed at a patient?
A. * Right ventricle of heart
B. The left ventricle of heart
C. Both ventricles of heart
D. Vessels
E. Uneffective heart

(): : 11
Clinical manifestations of surgical diseases (situational task) 6 course
:

:
1. A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. * only observation
B. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
C. propylthiouracil
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. radioiodine
2. In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment. Your tactics.
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Continue medical treatment
C. Outpatient
D. Treatment is not required
E. Is no right answer
3. 1n patients after operations on the thyroid gland have complaints about the shortness of breath,
lethargy, convulsions. What is the cause of these clinical manifestations?
A. * lower calcium concentration
B. lower content of iodothyronine
C. increasing concentrations of glucose
D. increasing concentration of potassium
E. no right answer
4. On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the thyroid gland
size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the
diagnosis?
A. * Thyroid hormones
B. Total blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Immunogram
E. Protein fraction
5. Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study be
done.
A. * Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
B. EFGDS
C. Is no right answer
D. Rheovasography
E. Doppler
6. Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular goiter. Choose
the correct treatment option.
A. * resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and routine histological
examination
B. enucleation
C. medication
D. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination

7. Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What study
be done.
A. * Scanning of the thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. There is no correct answer
8. Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic with complaints
of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * goiter
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
9. Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What
study be done.
A. * Thyroid gland
B. EFGDS
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Is no right answer
10. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One
day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands.
Treatment.
A. * the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
B. introduction Seduxen
C. introduction of iodine
D. infusion therapy
E. introduction of calcium chloride oral
11. Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the thyroid gland. One
day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles appeared convulsive reduction of hands.
What mated complication of surgery?
A. * Removal of parathyroid glands
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Lack of thyroid tissue
D. Increased thyroid hormone
E. Increased parathyroid hormone
12. ?Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely
diagnosis
A. * Toxic goiter
B. Hashimoto struma
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain

13. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely
diagnosis
A. * there is no right answer
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
14. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. What additional diagnostic method to assign?
A. * Thyroid gland
B. Radiography of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Reovazography
E. EEG
15. Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue, progressive weight loss.
On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class., painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular,
blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Thyroid hormones
D. Protein fraction
E. Immunogram
16. Patients after resection of the thyroid gland have cramps, Hvostek and Trousseau symptoms. What
complication is the patient?
A. * gipoparatireosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of thyrotoxicosis
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
17. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau.
What a complication arose in a patient?
A. * there is no right answer
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
18. Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and Trousseau.
What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. * hypoparathyreosis
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
19. The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most likely diagnosis.

A. * Strumit
B. Goiter
C. Tireodit
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Is no right answer
20. The patient diagnosed nodular nontoxic goiter. What operation is indicated the patient?
A. * resection of the affected lobe with histological examination
B. conservative treatment of thyroxine
C. removal of the affected lobe, isthmus and central lymph node dissection
D. enucleation site
E. subtotal thyroidectomy
21. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology?
A. * Exophthalmos
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
22. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology?
A. * Graefe symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
23. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology?
A. * Mobius symptom
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
24. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology?
A. * Tachycardia
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
25. The patient diagnosed thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following symptoms suggests the pathology?
A. * Tremor of the upper limbs
B. Peritoneal signs
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
26. The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter.
A. * cancer of the thyroid gland
B. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver
C. atypical location of the thyroid gland
D. all true

E. all wrong
27. The patient diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. Which of the following symptoms characteristic
of this disease?
A. * increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism
B. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, fever
C. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland, hypothyroidism, fever
D. increase and thickening of the thyroid gland,
E. thyrotoxicosis, fever
28. The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland. What is the
optimal treatment option.
A. * hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
B. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
C. enucleation site
D. subtotal thyroidectomy
E. conservative treatment thyroidin
29. The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre?
A. merkasalil
B. vaccination
C. iodine
D. improving the social life of the population
E. * iodination salt
30. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient?
A. * Pneumathemia
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
31. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient?
A. * Damage to the trachea
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
32. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient?
A. * Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
33. The patient made thyreoidectomy. Which of the following complications may occur in a patient?
A. * Bleeding from the wound
B. Onychomycosis
C. Trophic ulcer
D. Limb gangrene
E. No right answer
34. The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic of the III degree
of increase in thyroid gland?

A. * visible swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
35. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node. On
scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable cause of this condition
A. * node malignancy
B. cystic degeneration of the node
C. autoimmune
D. all true
E. hemorrhage site
36. The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase in the node.
What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. * scanning with radioactive iodine
B. X-ray of the neck
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
37. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following post-operative
complications can sports a patient?
A. * No right answer
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
38. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. * Hypocalcemia
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
39. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. * Paresis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric
40. The patient underwent surgery on the thyroid gland. Which of the following postoperative
complications may be sports in the patient?
A. * Thyrotoxic crisis
B. Ischemia of the upper extremities
C. Ischemia of lower extremities
D. Ileus
E. Gastric

41. The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic of the III degree
of increase in thyroid gland?
A. * visible without swallowing
B. giant goiter
C. determined only by palpation
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
42. The patient was admitted with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter. What operation is indicated the
patient?
A. * subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
B. thyroidectomy
C. hemistrumectomy
D. strumectomy
E. no right answer
43. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much time
should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. * 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
44. The patient was planned to study the thyroid gland with radioactive iodine-131. How much time
should not use iodine and thyreostatics?
A. * No right answer
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 10 days
E. 20 days
45. The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When scanning in this
region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. * nodular toxic goiter
B. diffuse non-toxic goiter
C. toxic goiter
D. multinodular toxic goiter
E. non-toxic nodular goiter
46. The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in the left lobe of
the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan revealed a cold junction.
Preliminary diagnosis
A. * thyroid cancer
B. lipoma of the thyroid gland
C. cyst
D. metastasis of lung cancer
E. thyroid cyst
47. A Patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * Ultrasound examination
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry

D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation

E. Venogram
48. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * Arteriography
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
49. A patient admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of lower extremities,
chronic arterial ischemia I stage. The most informative type of research vessels are:
A. * No right answer
B. Rheovasography
C. Thermometry
D. Palpation identification of artery pulsation
E. Venogram
50. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of more than
1000 m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. * I
B. II A
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
51. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 300 - 400
m. What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency in the patient?
A. * II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
52. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the lower extremities during the passage of 200 m.
What is the stage of chronic arterial insufficiency is the patient?
A. * II B
B. I
C. II A
D. III
E. IV
53. A patient admitted with complaints of pain at rest. What stage of chronic arterial insufficiency has the
patient?
A. * III
B. I
C. II A
D. II B
E. IV
54. A patient admitted with complaints of pain from intermittent claudication, and impotence. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis

C. Deep vein thrombosis leg

D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
55. A patient admitted with complaints of pain in the muscles of the buttocks and waist. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
56. At examination the patient was diagnosedthe absence pulse on femoral arteries. What is the
diagnosis can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Leriche syndrome
B. Obliterating endarteritis
C. Deep vein thrombosis leg
D. Iliacfemoral thrombosis
E. Coarctation of aorta
57. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
58. The patient 53 years old admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Diabetic angiopathy
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Iliac vein thrombosis
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
59. The patient aged 53 years admitted to hospital with suspected atherosclerosis of arteries of lower
extremities. Differential diagnosis should be with:
A. * Sciatica
B. Deep vein thrombosis of lower leg
C. Thrombosis of iliac vein
D. Varicosity
E. Thrombophlebitis superficial veins
60. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Epidural block
B. No-shpa
C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucin
E. Solcosery
61. The patient admitted to hospital with complaints of pain at rest. What should be used to block pain?
A. * Paravertebral sympathetic blockade
B. No shpa

C. Trental
D. Rheopolyglucine
E. Solcoseryl
62. Patient is in hospital with diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities, chronic
arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Rheopoliglucin
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
63. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: arterial occlusive disease of the lower extremities, chronic
arterial insufficiency II stage. To improve the rheological properties of blood should be used:
A. * Trental
B. Seduksen
C. Actovegin
D. Niacin
E. Papaverine
64. Patient is in hospital with a diagnosis: obliterating atherosclerosis of arteries lower extremities,
chronic arterial insufficiency II stage. To remove vasospasm should be used:
A. * Papaverine
B. Rheopoliglikin
C. Seduksen
D. Actovegin
E. Niacin
65. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Oppel
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
66. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Goldflam
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
67. Patient to detect arterial ischemia need to be functional tests:
A. * Panchenko
B. Troyanov
C. Sidorenko
D. Stepanova
E. Kokket
68. The patient 47 years old complained on pain in the calf muscles during walking. What is this
symptom:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Troyanov
C. Oppel

D. Panchenko
E. Kokket
69. At doppler ultrasound study in the patients revealed atherosclerotic changes in arteries. What method
of diagnosis must be pursued to clarify the localization process?
A. * Arteriography
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of limbs
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
70. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery. What diseases
can cause embolism?
A. * Rheumatic heart disease
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
71. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is the
most probable cause of embolism?
A. * Myocardial infarction
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
72. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What is the
most probable cause of embolism?
A. * Cardiac aneurysm
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
73. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the right popliteal artery . What is the
most probable cause of embolism?
A. * Aneurysm of femoral artery
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
74. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: embolism the left popliteal artery . What is the
most probable cause of embolism?
A. * Septic endocarditis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Ulcer
E. Obliterate endarteritis
75. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the left popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Severe pain in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins

C. Trophic ulcer leg

D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
76. *The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism right popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Cold extremities
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
77. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Acute weakness in the limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
78. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism left popliteal artery. What is the symptom
will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Pale skin limbs
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
79. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism, right femoral artery. What is the symptom
will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * The deterioration of the picture subcutaneous veins of the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
80. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Changing the surface sensitivity on the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
81. The patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * Changing a deep sensitivity to the affected limb
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
82. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right femoral artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the femoral artery

B. Filling saphenous veins

C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
83. In the patient admitted to hospital with suspected embolism the right popliteal artery. What is the
symptom will testify in favor of embolism?
A. * The disappearance of pulsation with the level of the popliteal artery
B. Filling saphenous veins
C. Trophic ulcer leg
D. Varicose saphenous veins
E. Reticular varicose
84. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs both legs and lower abdomen. What are level of occlusion?
A. * Bifurcation of the aorta
B. Iliac arteries
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
85. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the inguinal ligament. What are level
of occlusion?
A. * Iliac arteries
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Femoral artery
D. Popliteal artery
E. Arteries foot
86. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the lower extremity to the knee joint. What are level of
occlusion?
A. * Popliteal artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Arteries foot
87. In the patient zone of ischemia captures the whole hand. What are level of occlusion?
A. * Subclavian artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
88. The patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the upper third of the shoulder. What are level of
occlusion?
A. * Axillary artery
B. Subclavian artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
89. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the middle third of the shoulder. What are level of
occlusion?
A. * Brachial artery

B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Ulnar artery
E. Arteries hand
90. In the patient zone of ischemia grabs his hand to the elbow joint. What are level of occlusion?
A. * Ulnar artery
B. Axillary artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Brachial artery
E. Arteries hand
91. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of a sharp intense pain in the limbs. This symptom is
typical for
A. * Embolism
B. Thrombosis
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
92. A patient admitted to hospital complaining of pain in the limbs with a gradual increase in intensity.
This symptom is typical for
A. * Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Varicose
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
93. The patient admitted to hospital with a stab wound femoral artery. Which type of injury is this
damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
94. The patient was admitted to hospital with a knife wound femoral artery. Which type of injury is this
damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
95. The patient admitted to hospital with chopped wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Fire damage
96. The patient admitted to hospital with a shattered wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?

A. * Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
97. The patient admitted to hospital with a gunshot wound in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
98. The patient admitted to hospital with external bleeding in the femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?
A. * Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
99. The patient was admitted to hospital in a state of shock and damage in the femoral artery in history.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. * Fresh wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
100. The patient admitted to hospital pulsating hematoma and injuries to the femoral artery in history.
Which type of injury is this damage?
A. * Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
101. The patient was admitted to hospital with bruising and damage to suppuration in the femoral artery in
history. Which type of injury is this damage?
A. * Complicated wounds
B. Closed injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
102. The patient admitted to hospital with a blunt injury in the femoral artery in history. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. * Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage

103. The patient admitted to hospital with a compression of the femoral artery in history. Which type of
injury is this damage?
A. * Closed injury
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
104. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to only the femoral artery. Which type of injury is
this damage?
A. * Isolated damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
105. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the femoral artery and internal organs. Which
type of injury is this damage?
A. * Combined injuries
B. Joint damage
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
106. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the first day after injury. To
what this type of injury is damage?
A. * Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
107. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the second day after injury.
To what this type of injury is damage?
A. * Recent damage
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
108. The patient admitted to hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the fourth day after injury. To
what this type of injury is damage?
A. * Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
109. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery on the seventh day after
injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. * Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
110. The patient admitted to the hospital with damage to the popliteal artery in the second week after
injury. To what this type of injury is damage?
A. * Complicated injuries
B. Open injury
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
111. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery. To
whom this type of injury is damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
112. A patient admitted to hospital with clinical symptoms of external bleeding in axillary artery. To
whom this type of injury is damage?
A. * Open injury
B. Complicated injuries
C. Mixed damage
D. Combined damage
E. Through damage
113. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which research
method can give the most accurate information?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
114. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the superficial femoral artery. Which research
method can give the most accurate information?
A. * Angioraphy
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
115. A patient admitted to hospital with knife wounds in the femoral artery. Which research method can
give the most accurate information?
A. * There is no correct answer
B. Thermometry
C. Radiography of the lower extremity
D. Radiography of abdominal
E. Rheovasography
116. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins the left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed only varicose saphenous veins of legs without edema. What stage of varicose
veins is in a patient?
A. * I
B. II A

C. II B
D. III
E. IV
117. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins of lower leg with swelling and pasty. What stage of
varicose veins is in a patient?
A. * II A
B. I
C. II B
D. III
E. IV
118. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. At the
examination revealed varicose saphenous veins with leg edema, pasty, and induration of the skin
ulcer in the lower third of the leg. What stage of varicose veins is in a patient?
A. * III
B. II A
C. I
D. II B
E. IV
119. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency I degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Elastic compression
B. Surgical treatment
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
120. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
121. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency III degree. What kind of treatment the patient is the best?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Elastic compression
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Anticoagulant therapy
E. Anticholesterol therapy
122. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. What drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin

123. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Phlebodia
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
124. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with venotonics properties should be appoint?
A. * Detralex
B. Aspirin
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
125. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated?
A. * Aspirin
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksifilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
126. A patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins, right lower extremity, chronic venous
insufficiency of II degree. Which drug with antiplatelet properties should be designated?
A. * Cardimagnil
B. Detralex
C. Pentoksiphilin
D. Heparin
E. Warphrin
127. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb,
chronic venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate
information about the state of the venous system?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
128. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of the venous system?
A. * Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
129. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of communicative veins?
A. * Vascular ultrasound

B. Radiography of the affected limb

C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
130. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of communicative veins?
A. * No right answer
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
131. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the right lower limb chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate information
about the state of the venous system?
A. * Flebotonometry
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
132. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease of the left lower limb, chronic
venous insufficiency of Article III. Which of the following methods gives the most accurate
information about the state of the venous system?
A. * Functional Tests
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Rheovasography
D. Thermometry
E. ECG
133. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III drgree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Congenital arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
134. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Obtained arteriovenous fistula
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
135. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * Venous angiodysplasias
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis

E. Raynaud's disease
136. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease, right lower extremity, chronic
venous insufficiency III degree. Which diseases should be differentiate this disease?
A. * No right answer
B. Diabetic angiopathy
C. Atherosclerosis obliterans
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Raynaud's disease
137. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II drgree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Obstruction of deep veins
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
138. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Angina
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
E. Cholelithiasis
139. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose disease left lower limb, chronic venous
insufficiency II degree. What is a contraindication to surgical treatment?
A. * Heart failure
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Past history of pneumonia
D. Past history of angina
140. The patient complains on burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of
progress varicose veins in the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * Thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
141. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of
progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower third of the thigh. What is the most
likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
142. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of
progress varicose veins in the leg with the transition to the lower and middle third of the thigh. What
is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * Ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Deep vein thrombosis

C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
143. The patient complains of burning pain in the limbs and the presence of painful dense strand of
progress varicose veins on the back of the tibia. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient?
A. * Small saphenous vein thrombophlebitis
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterating atherosclerosis
D. Occlusive disease
E. Diabetic angiopathy
144. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous vein.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Migrating thrombophlebitis
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
145. The patient complains on frequent thrombophlebitis in the zone of varicose great saphenous vein.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * No right answer
B. Ascending thrombophlebitis
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Erysipelas
146. 304. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose veins left lower extremity. Acute
ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics?
A. * Surgical treatment
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
147. The patient admitted to hospital with a diagnosis: Varicose saphenous veins left lower extremity.
Acute ascending thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Tactics?
A. * No right answer
B. Conservative treatment
C. Physiotherapy
D. Sanatorium treatment
E. Treatment is not required
148. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the
following drugs should be appoint after surgery?
A. * Ciprinol
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
149. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the
following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. * Dikloberl
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
150. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. Which of the
following drugs should appoint after surgery?
A. * Detralex
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin
D. Atenolol
E. Vasilip
151. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long a patient
should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. * 3 months.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
152. The patient underwent surgery for acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins. How long a patient
should be advised to use elastic compression?
A. * There is no correct answer.
B. 1 month.
C. 1 year
D. 6 months.
E. 2 weeks
153. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What is most likely
diagnosis?
A. * Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
B. Thrombosis of the femoral vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Vein thrombosis aksilyarnoy
154. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What research method
is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
155. The patient complains on pain in the right leg, increases with foot movements. What research method
is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. * Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
156. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
What is most likely diagnosis?

A. * Thrombosis of superficial femoral vein

B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the vena cava inferior
E. Thrombosis Axillary vein
157. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and the knee
joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
158. The patient complains on pain in the right leg hip, increases with movements in the foot and the knee
joint. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. * Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
159. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What is most likely diagnosis?
A. * Thrombosis of common femoral vein
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
160. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?

A. * Phlebography
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
161. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. What research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?

A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
162. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the buttocks What is
most likely diagnosis?
A. * Thrombosis of the iliac-femoral segment
B. Thrombosis of the popliteal vein
C. Thrombosis of the iliac vein

D. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava

E. Thrombosis Axyllary vein
163. The patient complains on pain in the right leg and thigh, reinforced at moving foot and the knee joint.
There is hypercyanotic color skin limbs. Swelling of limbs throughout and on the buttocks. What
research method is most reliable for further diagnosis?
A. * Vascular ultrasound
B. Radiography of the affected limb
C. Ultrasonography of the abdomen
D. Radiography of the chest cavity
E. ECG
164. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The
patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What complication can be
suspected in a patient?
A. * Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
165. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The
patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What method diagnosis should
be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. * ECG
B. Reovazography
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
166. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The
patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, pain with localized behind the breastbone, a
feeling of fear. What complication can be suspected in a patient?
A. * Pulmonary embolism
B. Superficial thrombophlebitis
C. Ulcer
D. Pharyngitis
E. Pleurisy
167. The patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis deep vein thrombosis left lower extremity. The
patient suddenly began to worry shortness of breath, retrosternal pain. What method diagnosis should
be used to refine the diagnosis?
A. * Radiography of the chest
B. Reovazogrfiya
C. Densitometry
D. Ultrasound of internal organs
E. Ultrasound vascular limb
168. The patient suddenly appeared retrosternal pain, dyspnea, collapse with increased sweating, and a
sharp V neck veins. Which version of PE is in this patient?
A. * Acute course
B. Subacute course
C. Recidivism during
D. Mixed

E. Combined
169. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
170. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * ECG
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
171. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Radiography of the chest cavity
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
172. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Angiopulmonography
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
173. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Lung scintigraphy
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Confirmation is not required
174. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following methods investigation is
required to clarify the diagnosis?
A. * Study of blood coagulation
B. Complete blood
C. Urinalysis
D. Determine the level of uric acid
E. Echocardiography
175. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * The rise of the dome diaphragm
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates

D. Increased vascular pattern

E. No right answer
176. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Pleural effusion in the sinuses
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
177. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * The wedge-shaped shadow atelectases
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
178. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Breaking vessels near the root of the lungs
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
179. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Hyperperfusion of the contralateral lung
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
180. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Done radiography of the chest cavity. Which of the
following symptoms are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Dilation of the right ventricle
B. Pulmonary fibrosis root
C. Availability Calcinates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. No right answer
181. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Advanced, hypokinetic right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
182. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Increased ratio of right ventricle / left ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle

C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries

D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
183. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Dilation of proximal pulmonary arteries
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
184. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Increasing the speed of blood tricuspid regurgitation> 3.7 m / s
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
185. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
are indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Violation of blood flow from the right ventricle
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
186. In the patient suspected pulmonary embolism. Echocardiography. Which of the following symptoms
indicate pulmonary embolism?
A. * Advanced vena cava inferior, which has persisted for inspiration
B. Normal right ventricle
C. Spasm of the proximal pulmonary arteries
D. Relationships right ventricle / left ventricle is not broken
E. No right answer
187. Patients with suspected pulmonary embolism made angiopulmonography. Which of the following
symptoms is direct?
A. * Vascular filling defects
B. Asymmetry of vascular contrast material filling
C. Slow progress or stasis of contrast
D. Increased pulmonary artery trunk and its major branches
E. No right answer
188. A patient complains of a pain in a right iliac area. At first pain appeared in epigastrium, then relocated
in a right iliac area. During examination muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall and symptoms
of peritoneal irritation are detected in a right iliac area. Leucocytes-8?109. General urine analysis
within norm. Your diagnosis.
A. * Acute appendicitis
B. Right-side renal colic
C. Appendicular infiltrate
D. Meckel's diverticulum
E. Perforative ulcer

189. In the patient, aged of 72, 14 hours ago appeared a permanent pain in a right iliac area. For last 2
hours the pain diminished. Acute appendicitis is diagnosed. What morphological form of acute
appendicitis would result in diminishing of pain intensity?
A. * Gangrenous
B. Phlegmonous
C. Catarrhal
D. Perforative
E. Empyema of appendix
190. A patient was operated 9 days ago for destructive appendicitis with pelvic position. As a complication
the abscess of Duglas space was developed. At digital rectal examination the infiltrate was detected
with softening in center. Tactic of surgeon?
A. * Punction of the abscess with draining
B. Relaparotomy, draining of the abscess
C. Presacral antibiotic-novocaine blockade
D. Warm small enemas, suppositories with antibiotics
E. Electrophoresis with antibiotics on abdomen
191. A patient complains of a pain in the lower abdomen, mostly on the right side, dizziness. The
mentioned signs appeared suddenly, at night. Last menstruation 2 weeks ago. During examination the
skin is pale, pulse 92 /min., t -36C, AP 100/60 mm Hg. The abdomen is slightly tense, painful in
lower areas. The signs of peritoneal irritation are insignificant. -98 g/l. Your diagnosis?
A. * Ovarian apoplexy
B. Renal colic
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Bleeding gastric ulcer
192. In what location of appendix the rectal examination is the most informing?
A. * Pelvic
B. Retrocaecal
C. Madian
D. Subhepatic
E. Retroperitoneal
193. In patient during the operation for acute destructive appendicitis the appendicular infiltrate was
diagnosed. What the further tactic of surgeon?
A. * Appendectomy not performed, draining the abdominal cavity
B. Appendectomy not performed, to suit the wound
C. Performed appendectomy
D. Performed a cystostomy
E. To remove the infiltrate
194. Among the ways of penetration of infection in appendix in acute appendicitis the most frequent is
enterogenic. What microorganisms are revealed more frequent?
A. * Colli
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Bacteroids
E. Koch's mycobacterii
195. A patient was operated for acute appendicitis. The condition deteriorated. An abdominal pain
appeared, a temperature rose to 39C. The signs of peritoneal irritation are absent. A jaundice joined.
What complication is need to think about?

A. * Pylephlebitis
B. Diffuse peritonitis
C. Subphrenic abscess
D. Cholecystitis
E. Appendicular infiltrate
196. A diarrhea is not obligatory, but possible in acute appendicitis. In what cases diarrhea confirms the
inflammation of appendix?
A. * In pelvic appendicitis
B. On the first day of the disease
C. In fever
D. In retrocaecal appendicitis
E. In retroperitoneal appendicitis
197. The pregnant woman (22 weeks) is delivered in urgent clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. The
onset was acute, a day ago. Pain appeared in epigastrium, then in the right half of abdomen. There
was a single vomiting. The abdomen painful above the right iliac area. Signs of peritoneal irritation
are insignificant. Leucocytosis 21?109. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Acute appendicitis
B. Toxemia of pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Mesenteric thrombosis
198. In patient who underwent the operation of appendectomy on the 5th day at rectal examination was
found the inflammatory infiltrate in small pelvis without the signs of abscessing. Choose the
necessary medical tactic:
A. * Conservative treatment
B. Punction of infiltrate
C. Punction of infiltrate and draining.
D. Discharging of infiltrate
E. Operative treatment.

(): : 11
 (): : 12
2. . Clinical manifestations of surgical diseases
:

:
1. A 3 hours ago a 65-year-old female patient felt sharp abdominal pain irradiating to the right scapula,
there was a single vomiting. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Objectively: pale skin, AP-
100/60 mm Hg, Ps- 60/min. Abdomen is significantly painful and tense in the epigastrium and right
subcostal areat, there are positive symptoms of parietal peritoneum irritation over the right costal
arch, that is tympanitis. What is the tactics of an emergency doctor?
A. * To take the patient to the surgical hospital
B. To inject pain-killers and watch the dynamics
C. To perform gastric lavage
D. To inject spasmolytics
E. To inject anafgetics
2. A patient complains about pyrosis and permanent pain behind his breastbone. When he bends
forward after eating there appears regurgitation. Roentgenological examination revealed
extrasaccular cardiofunctional hernia of esophageal opening of diaphragm. Esophagoscopy revealed
signs of reflux-esophagitis. What is the necessary tretment tactics?
A. * Operation in a surgical department
B. Conservative treatment in an outpatients' clinic
C. Conservative treatment in the therapeutic hospital
D. Conservative treatment in a surgical department
3. A patient, aged 25, suffering from stomach ulcer. Had a course of treatment in the
gastroenterological unit. 2 weeks later developed constant pain, increasing and resistant to
medication. The abdomen is painful in epigastric area, moderate defence in pyloroduodenal area.
Which complication development aggravated the patient's state?
A. * Malignisation
B. Penetration
C. Perforation
D. Haemorrhage
E. -
4. A victim of a road accident, aged 44, is operated on account of intraperitoneal haemorrhage. In
which case can the patient's blood from the abdominal cavity be used for autotransfusion?
A. * Stomach rupture
B. Bladder rupture
C. Liver rupture
D. Splenic rupture
E. -
5. A 19 year old boy was admitted to a hospital with closed abdominal trauma. In course of operation
multiple ruptures of spleen and small intestine were revealed. AP is falling rapidly, it is necessary to
perform hemotransfusion. Who can specify the patient's blood group and rhesus compatibility?
A. * A doctor of any speciality
B. A laboratory physician
C. A surgeon
D. A traumatologist
E. Atherapentist
6. A 32-year-old patient lives in an area endemic for echinococcosis. In the last 6 months he reports of
pain in the right subcostal area, fever. He is suspected to have liver echinococcosis. What study
would be the most informative in this case?

A. * USI
B. Survey radiography of abdominal cavity
C. Biochemical laboratory examination
D. Angiography
E. X-ray
7. 3 days ago a 29-year-old patient presented with pulsating pain in the region of rectum, fever, general
weakness. Objectively: local tenderness in the anal region in the 6 o'clock position. Digital
investigation of rectum revealed a painful infiltration reaching the pectinate line. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute periproctitis
B. Acute anal fissure
C. Acute haemorrhoids
D. Rectum tumour
E. Acute prostatitis
8. 43 year old patient had cholecystectomy 6 years ago because of chronic calculous cholecystitis.
Lately he has been suffering from pain in the right subcostal area and recurrent jaundice. Jaundice
hasn't gone for the last 2 weeks. Stenosing papillitis 0,5 cm long has been revealed. What is the best
way of treatment?
A. * To perform endocsopic papillosphincterotomy
B. To treat conservatively: antibiotics, spasmolytics, antiinflammatory drugs
C. To perform external choledoch drainage
D. To perform transduodenal papillosphincterotomy
E. To perform choledochoduodenostomy
9. A 65-year-old patient complains of dull pain in the rectum during and after defecation, discharge of
mucus and small amount of blood mixed up with mucus and faeces. The discharged blood is of dark
red color, sometimes with small amount of clots. The patient is sick for 8 months, has lost some
weight. On digital examination, there is a round constriction of the rectum with infiltrate at a height
of 4-5 cm from the anus. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Cancer of the medium-ampullar section of the rectum
B. Cicatricial stenosis of the rectum
C. Chronic paraproctitis
D. Crohn's disease
E. Non-specific ulcer colitis
10. A female patient has been suffering from pain in the right subcostal area, bitter taste in the mouth,
periodical bile vomiting for a month. The patient put off 12 kg. Body temperature in the evening is
$37,6^oC$. Sonography revealed that bile bladder was 5,52,7 cm large, its wall - 0,4 cm,
choledochus - 0,8 cm in diameter. Anterior liver segment contains a roundish hypoechoic formation
up to 5 cm in diameter and another two up to 1,5 cm each, walls of these formations are up to 0,3 cm
thick. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Alveolar echinococcus of liver
B. Liver cancer
C. Liver abscess
D. Cystous liver cancer
E. Paravesical liver abscesses
11. What preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection?
A. * Fluconozol, Orungol, Nisoral
B. Rubomycin, Bleomycin, Mytomycin C
C. Cytosar, Cormyctin, Lomycitin
D. Captopril, Enalapril

E. Isoniazid, Ftibazid, Pyrazinamid

12. A patient has restrained umbilateral hernia complicated by phlegmon hernia, it is necessary to take
following actions:
A. * Herniotomy by Mayo-Sapezhko
B. Herniotomy by Mayo
C. Herniotomy by Sapezhko
D. Herniotomy by Lekser
E. Herniotomy by Grenov
13. It is suspected that a 34 year old patient has an abscess of Douglas pouches. What diagnostic method
is to be chosen?
A. * Digital examination of rectum
B. Rectoromanoscopy
C. Laparoscopy
D. Percussion and auscultation of stomach
E. R-scopy of abdominal cavity
14. A 16 year old patient with complaints of frequent pain in the abdomen was diagnosed with
melanoma, examination revealed also pigmentation of the mucosa and skin, polyp in the stomach and
large intestine. It is know that the patient's mother has an analogous pigmentation and has been often
treated for anemia. What disease is suspected?
A. * Peytz-Egers's polyposis
B. Chron's disease
C. Tuberculosis of the intestine
D. Adolescent polyposis
E. Hirschprung's disease
15. A 37-year-old patient has come to clinic being wounded in the area of umbilicus an hour ago.On
physical exam, there is a prick and cut painful wound of about 0,5x1 cm around umbilicus on the
abdominal skin with slight bleeding.How would you help this patient?
A. * Laparotomy, abdominal cavity organs inspection. Primary surgical processing of the wound
B. Drainage of the wound with rubber strip
C. Inspection of the wound with canal probe
D. Aseptic bandage
E. Suture on the wound
16. Name a statistical observation unit for determination of influence amount of bloodsugar on the
healing of wound's surface in a postoperative period:
A. * The patient in a postoperative period
B. An amount of bloodsugar
C. Blood analysis
D. The patient who has a wound surface
E. The patient who was discharged on an after-care
17. During investigation for chronic, severe, epigastric pain, a 40 year old alcoholic man is found to have
multiple areas of narrowing alternating with dilatation ("chain of lakes" appearance) of the main
pancreatic duct. The operation of choice is:
A. * Lateral pancreaticojejunostomy
B. Distal pancreaticojejunostomy
C. Sphincterotomy
D. Distal pancreatectomy
E. Total pancreatectomy

18. A 76 y.o. woman complains of progressing swallowing disorder, mostly she has had problems with
solid food for the last 6 weeks. Sometimes she has regurgitation of solid masses. Swallowing is not
painful. She lost 6 kg. 10 years ago she had myocardiac infarction, she takes constantly aspirine and
prolonged nitrates. She consumes alcochol in moderate proportions, smokes. Objectively: icteric
skin, neck has no pecularities, lymph nodes are not enlarged. Thorax has no changes, cardiovascular
system has no evident changes. Liver is +3 cm. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Cancer of esophagus
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Diffuse constriction of esophagus
D. Myasthenia
E. Esophageal achalasia
19. A patient was delivered to a surgical department after a road accident with a closed trauma of chest
and right-sided rib fracture. The patient was diagnosed with right-sided pneumothorax, it is indicated
to perform drainage of pleural cavity. Pleural puncture should be made in:
A. * In the 2nd intercostal space along the middle clavicular line
B. In the 6th intercostal space along the posterior axillary line
C. In the 7th intercostal space along the scapular line
D. In the projection of pleural sinus
E. In the point of the greatest dullness on percussion
20. Purulent mediastinitis is diagnosed at a 63-year-old patient. What diseases from the stated below
\textbf{CANNOT} cause the purulent mediastinitis?
A. * Cervical lymphadenitis
B. Deep neck phlegmon
C. Perforation of the cervical part of the easophagus
D. Perforation of the thoracic part of the easophagus
E. Iatrogenic injury of the trachea
21. Purulent mediastinitis is diagnosed at a 63-year-old patient. What diseases from the stated below
CANNOT cause the purulent mediastinitis?
A. * Cervical lymphadenitis
B. Deep neck phlegmon
C. Perforation of the cervical part of the easophagus
D. Perforation of the thoracic part of the easophagus
E. Iatrogenic injury of the trachea
22. A 63 year old patient was diagnosed with purulent mediastinitis. What of the below listed diseases
are NOT the cause of purulent mediastinitis?
A. * Cervical lymphadenitis
B. Deep neck phlegmon
C. Perforation of the cervical part of the oesophagus
D. Perforation of the thoracic part of the oesophagus
E. Iatrogenic injury of the trachea
23. A 36 year old patient was diagnosed with right-sided pneumothorax. What method of treatment is
indicated to the patient?
A. * Surgical treatment: drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Antiinflammation therapy
C. Symptomatic therapy
D. Pleural puncture
E. Thoracotomy

24. The diagnosis of a right-sided pneumothorax is made to a 36- year-old patient. What method of
treatment is indicated to the patient?
A. * Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Antiinflammation therapy
C. Symptomatic therapy
D. Pleural puncture
E. Thoracotomy
25. A rounded well-defined shadow was found in the costo-vertebral angle on the chest roentgenogram of
an otherwise healthy 9 year old girl. Make a preliminary diagnosis:
A. * Ganglioneuroma
B. Sympatoblastoma
C. Ganglioneuroblastoma
D. Sympatogonioma
E. Sarcoma of the vertebra
26. A 19 year old girl was admitted to emergency department: unconsciousness, cyanosis, myotic pupils
are present, superficial breathing is 12/min. BP is 90/60 mm Hg, Ps- 78/min. Choose the action
necessary in this clinical situation:
A. * Controlled respiration
B. Gastric lavage
C. Oxygen inhalation
D. Caffeine injection
E. Cordiamine injection
27. A 36 y.o. patient is diagnosed with right sided pneumothorax. What method of treatment is indicated
to the patient?
A. * Surgical drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Antiinflammation therapy
C. Symptomatic therapy
D. Pleural puncture
E. Thoracotomy
28. Survey radiograph of chest of a 62 year old smoker who often suffers from "pneumonias" showed a
triangle shadow in the right lung, its vertex is pointing towards the lung root. It also showed deviation
of heart and mediastinum shadows towards the lesion. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. * Cenral cancer of lung

B. Lung abscess
C. Lung cyst
D. Peripheral cancer of lung
E. Atelectasis
29. A 62-year-old patient complains of the pain behind the sternum, bad passing of solid and liquid food,
bad breath, increased salivation weight, loss of 15 kg during the period of 2 months. Appetite is
retained. On physical exam: face features are sharpened. The skin is pale, with sallow tint, its turgor
is decreased. The liver is not enlarged. Blood Hb - 86g/L. Gregersen reaction is positive. What kind
of pathology caused the given clinical situation?
A. * Esophagus cancer
B. Benign growth of esophagus
C. Cicatricial constriction of esophagus
D. Achalasia of esophagus
E. Chronic non-specific esophagitis

30. A 36 y.o. patient was admitted to the hospital with sharp pain in substernal area following occasional
swallowing of a fish bone. On esophagoscopy the foreign body wasn't revealed. The pain increased
and localized between scapulas. In a day temperature elevated, condition became worse, dysphagia
intensified. What complication has developed?
A. * Perforation of esophagus with mediastinitis
B. Esophageal hemorrhage
C. Obstruction of esophagus
D. Pulmonary atelectasis
E. Aspirative pneumonia
31. On the 4th day after recovering from a cold a patient was hospitalized with complaints of solitary
spittings of mucoid sputum. On the 2nd day there was a single discharge of about 250 ml of purulent
blood-streaked sputum. Objectively: the patient's condition is moderately severe. Respiratory rate -
28-30/min, Ps- 96 bpm, AP- 110/70 mm Hg. Respiration above the left lung is vesicular, weak above
the right lung. There are moist rales of different types above the lower lobe and amphoric breath near
the angle of scapula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Acute pulmonary abscess
B. Exudative pleuritis
C. Acute focal pneumonia
D. Pleural empyema
E. Pyopneumothorax
32. A 24 y.o. male patient was transferred to the chest surgery department from general surgical
department with acute post-traumatic empyema of pleura. On the X-ray: wide level horizontal of
fluid on the right. What method of treatment should be prescribed?
A. * Punction and drainage of pleural cavity
B. Decortication of pleura
C. Pneumoectomy
D. Thoracoplasty
E. Lobectomy
33. A 47-year-old patient complains about cough with purulent sputum, pain in the lower part of the left
chest, periodical body temperature rise. She has been suffering from these presentations for about 10
years. Objectively: "drumstick" distal phalanges. What examination would be the most informative
for making a diagnosis?
A. * Bronchography
B. Bronchoscopy
C. Survey radiograph of lungs
D. Pleural puncture
E. -
34. A 67 y.o. patient complains of dyspnea, breast pain, common weakness. He has been ill for 5
months. Objectively: 0- 37,3, Ps- 96/min. Vocal tremor over the right lung cannot be determined,
percussion sound is dull, breathing cannot be auscultated. In sputum: blood diffusively mixed with
mucus. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Lung cancer
B. Macrofocal pneumonia
C. Bronchoectatic disease
D. Focal pulmonary tuberculosis
E. Pleural empyema
35. A 72-year-old patient complains of pain and bleeding during defecation. Digital rectal investigation
revealed a tumour of the anal canal. After verification of the diagnosis the patient was diagnosed
with squamous cell carcinoma. The secondary (metastatic) tumour will be most probably found in:
A. * Lungs
B. Liver
C. Pelvic bones
D. Mediastinum
E. column
36. A 25-year-old victim of a road accient complains of chest pain, dyspnea. Objectively: the patient is
in a grave condition, Ps- 120/min, AP- 90/70 mm Hg.There is pathological mobility of fragments of
III-V ribs on the right. Percussion reveals a box sound over the right lung, breathing sounds cannot
be auscultated on the right. What examination should be administered in the first place?
A. * X-ray of chest organs
B. Bronchoscopy
C. Pleural puncture
D. USI of chest organs
E. -
37. Esophagus wall of a 72 year old patient with severe concomitant pathology was injured during
urgent fibroesophagogastroscopy. This resulted in progressing of acute respiratory failure and
collapse of the left lung. What aid should be rendered?
A. * Drainage of pleural cavity by Bullaux method, mediastinum drainage, antibacterial therapy
B. Buelau's drainage of pleural cavity, antibacterial therapy
C. Left-sided thoracotomy, closure of esophagus and mediastinum wound
D. Left-sided thoracotomy, closure of esophagus wound
E. -
38. A 19 y.o. man was admitted to the reception department in 20 minutes after being wounded with the
knife to the left chest. The patient is confused. The heart rate is 96 bpm and BP- 80/60 mm Hg. There
are the dilated neck veins, sharply diminished apical beat and evident heart enlargement What kind of
penetrative chest wound complications has developed in patient?
A. * Pericardium tamponade
B. Massive hemothorax
C. Open pneumothorax
D. Closed pneumothorax
E. Valve-likes pneumothorax
39. A 35 y.o. patient complains of a difficult swallowing, pain behind the breastbone. He can eat only
liquid food. While swallowing sometimes he has attacks of cough and dyspnea. Above mentioned
complaints are progressing. It is known that the patient has had a chemical burn of esophagus one
month ago. What complication does the patient have?
A. * Corrosive esophagitis and stricture
B. Esophagitis
C. Esophageal diverticula
D. Cardiac achalasia
E. Cardiac insufficiency
40. For the persons who live in a hot area after an accident at a nuclear object, the greatest risk within the
first decade is represented by cancer of:
A. * Thyroid gland
B. Skin
C. Reproduction system organs
D. Breast
E. Lungs

41. A 50 year old woman with a 2-year history of mild, diffuse, tender thyroid enlargement complains of
10 pound weight gain and fatigue. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. Riedel's thyroiditis
C. Subacute thyroiditis
D. Suppurative thyroiditis
E. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
42. A 39-year-old patient complains of a tumour on the anterior surface of her neck. The tumour has
been observed for 2 years. It is nonmobile and has enlarged recently. The patient has a changed tone
of voice, a sense of pressure. Objectively: in the left lobe of the thyroid gland a 3 cm node is
palpable; it is very dense, tuberous, painless. Cervical lymph nodes are enlarged. Functional status of
the thyroid gland is unchanged. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Thyroid gland cancer
B. Nodular euthyroid goiter
C. Nodular hyperthyroid goiter
D. Chronic lymphomatous Hashimoto's thyroiditis
E. -
43. A 20-year-old patient was delivered to the hospital in summer from the street with haemorrage from
the brachial artery. First medical aid involved application of a tourniquet for provisional arrest of
bleeding. What is the maximal exposure of the tourniquet?
A. * 120 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
E. 180 minutes
44. A 52 year old man has recurrent transient ischemic attacks. Auscultation of the carotid arteries
detected murmur. What diagnostic method is to be applied in the first place?
A. * Ultrasound dopplerography
B. CT of the brain
C. MRI of the brain
D. Cerebral angiography
E. Electroencephalography
45. A 28 year old woman was admitted to the emergency room with a slightly reddened, painful "knot" 8
cm above the medial malleolus. Examination in the standing position demonstrates a distended vein
above and below the mass. There are no other abnormalities on physical examination. The most
likely diagnosis is:
A. * Superficial venous thrombosis
B. Early deep vein thrombosis
C. Insect bite
D. Cellulitis
E. Subcutaneous hematoma
46. A 48-year-old patient got a job-related injury of a hypodermic varicose vein on his shin that was
accompanied by the intensive phleborrhagia. Choose the optimal variant of first aid:
A. * Pressure bandage and limb strapping
B. Application of Esmarch's tourniquet above the injury
C. Application of Esmarch's tourniquet beneath the injury
D. Occlusion of femoral artery in a typical place
E. Maximal limb flexion in knee joint

47. A 62-year-old patient has been delivered to the surgical department with complaints of sudden pain in
the umbilical region irradiating to the back and groin, which was accompanied by a syncope.
Objectively: the patient is in grave condition, umbilical region is tender on palpation, bowel sounds
are diminished. AP drop is present. USI reveals: free fluid in the abdomen, thickening of the wall of
the abdominal aorta. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. * Rupture of abdominal aortic aneurism
B. Stomach ulcer perforation
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Peritonitis
E. Acute appendicitis
48. A 30-year-old patient complains of pain, hyperemia along subcutaneous veins, rise in body
temperature. While examining the large shin subcutaneous vein, there is hyperemia, pain by pressing.
Homanss and Luses's symptoms are negative. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Acute thrombophlebitis of subcutaneous veins
B. Acute ileophemoral phlebothrombosis
C. Lymphostasis
D. Embolism of aorta
E. Thrombosis of aorta
49. In a 65 y.o. female patient a tumor 138 m in size in the umbilical area and above is palpated, mild
tenderness on palpation, unmovable, pulsates. On ausculation: systolic murmur. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. * Abdominal aortic aneurism
B. Stomach tumor
C. Arterio-venous aneurism
D. Tricuspid valve insufficiency
E. Diphtheria
50. Development of chronic venous insufficiency of lower extremities depends on the functional
condition of so-called musculovenous pump. This term refers to the following group of muscles:
A. * Shin muscles
B. Abdominal wall muscles
C. Buttock region muscles
D. Thigh muscles
E. diaphragma
51. A 43 year old patient had right-sided deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral segment 3 years ago. Now
he is suffering from the sense of heaviness, edema of the lower right extremity. Objectively:
moderate edema of shin, brown induration of skin in the lower third of shin, varix dilatation of
superficial shin veins are present. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Postthrombophlebitic syndrome, varicose form
B. Acute thrombosis of right veins
C. Lymphedema of lower right extremity
D. Parkes-Weber syndrome
E. Diphtheria
52. A 98 y.o. male patient complains of pain in the left lower limb which intensifies on walking, feeling
of cold and numbness in both feet. He has been ill for 6 years. On examination: pale dry skin,
hyperkeratosis. Hairy covering is poorly developed on the left shin. "Furrow symptom " is positive
on the left. Pulse on foot arteries and popliteal artery isn't palpated, on the femoral artery it's weak.
On the right limb the artery pulsation is reserved. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Arteriosclerosis obliterans
B. Obliterating endarteritis

C. Hemoral arthery thombosis

D. Raynauld's disease
E. Diphteria
53. A 52 year old patient complains about headache, weakness of his upper left extremity. Neurological
symptoms become more intense during physical stress of the left extremity. Pulsation on the arteries
of the left extremity is sharply dampened but it remains unchanged on the carotid arteries. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Occlusion of the left subclavicular artery, steal syndrome
B. Thoracal outlet syndrome
C. Raynaud's syndrome
D. Takayasu's disease
E. -

(): : 12
Clinical manifestations of surgical diseases 2 6 course
:
 :
1. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. * Passing deep vein
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
2. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. * Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
3. Most subcutaneous thrombophlebitis is caused by:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Lymphedema of the lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
4. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
5. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. * Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
C. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
6. What is the main method diagnosis venous angiodysplasia?
A. * Phlebography
B. oagulogramm
C. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
7. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. * Arteriovenous fistula
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterate endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology

8. Phlebography is used to diagnose:

A. * Venous angiodysplasia
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
9. What method is used for the diagnosis the valvular insufficiency communicative and deep veins?
A. * Duplex ultrasound
B. oagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasonic Doppler
E. Arteriography
10. What method is used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Ultrasound
B. oagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
11. What operation is carried out at varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Intimectomy
E. Femoropopliteal bypass
12. What treatment is indicated at varicose II A stage?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
13. What treatment is indicated for uncomplicated varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
14. For reason recurrence of varicose veins include:
A. * Leaving the main trunk, the long stump of the great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Lack ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
15. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency of superficial veins are :
A. * Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
B. Homenss test,
C. Panchenko test,

D. Schwarzs test
E. Schotkin-Blumberg test
16. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency communicative veins include:
A. * Thalmanns, Sheiniss
B. Panchenko test
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
D. Mosess test
E. Hekenburg test
17. Functional tests for the detection of valvular insufficiency of deep veins include:
A. * Mayo-Pratts test
B. Hakkenbrgs test
C. Pratts test
D. Mosess test
E. Levenbergs test
18. In what sequence being saphenectomy
A. * Operation Troyanov-Trendelenburgs, Babcocks, Naraths
B. Operation Lintons. Cocketts, Babcocks
C. Operation Naraths, Babcocks, Cocketts
D. Operation Babcocks, Lintons, Troyanov-Trendelenburgs
E. Operation Babcocks, Naraths, Cokkets
19. Maximum number communicative vein is:
A. * The lower third of tibia
B. The upper third of tibia
C. The middle third of tibia
D. Land thigh
E. The bottom third of the thigh
20. Contraindication to saphenectomy with varicose veins are:
A. * Obstruction deep veins
B. Incompetence of venous valves communicative vein
C. Incompetence ostial valve
D. Loose type of the great saphenous vein
E. Valvular insufficiency sural veins
21. The operation saphenectomy used:
A. * Babcocs probe
B. Blekmors probe
C. Fogarty probe
D. Nelatona Catheters
E. Levins tube
22. At operations on the communicative veins of the lower extremities used operations:
A. * Linton, Kokket
B. Babcock, Narath
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg
D. Modelung
E. Felder
23. Indirect anticoagulant drugs include:
A. * Phenilin.

B. Tiklid.
C. Papaverine.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Miskleron.
24. The direct anticoagulant is
A. * Heparin.
B. Phenilin.
C. Nicotinic acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
25. Saphenectomy performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
26. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation is performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
27. Corossectomy operation performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
28. Linton's operation is performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
29. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation is:
A. * Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
B. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
C. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
E. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
30. Naraths operation is:
A. * Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
B. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
C. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins

31. Babcocks operation is:

A. * Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
32. Coccets operation is:
A. * Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
33. Linton's operation is:
A. * Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Extrafascial ligation of perforating veins
34. Naraths operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
35. Babcocks operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
36. Coccets operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
37. Indications to sclerotherapy is:
A. * Reticular varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
38. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Telangiectasia
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease

D. Deep vein thrombosis

E. Extremity lymphedema
39. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Recurrence of varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
40. The method of choice in treating varicose reticulum is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
41. The method of choice in treating telangiectasia is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
42. The method of choice in treating recurrent varicose veins are:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
43. For sclerotherapy used:
A. * Fibroveyn
B. Triumbrast
C. Verografin
D. Seabar
E. Bilignost
44. After Saphenectomy elastic compression is applied:
A. * 2-3 months
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 3-4 weeks
45. For the treatment of varicose veins I st. used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * I compression
B. II compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
46. For the treatment of varicose II degree used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * II compression

B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
47. After saphenectomy used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
48. In patients with trophic ulcers using elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * III compression
B. II compression
C. I compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
49. *Endotelon used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
50. Detralex used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
51. Phlebodia used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
52. Troxevasin used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
53. Why saphenectomy is always starts ligation safeno-femoral ejection?
A. * To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent safeno-femoral reflux
D. To easily insert a venous extractor
E. To perform sclerotherapy

54. What is the main feature of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?

A. * Painful bundle along the saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Gangrene fingers on the lower extremity
D. No pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
55. Painful bundle along the saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. * Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
56. The development of limb edema in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis indicates:
A. * The defeat of the deep veins
B. Infection
C. Heart failure
D. Renal failure
E. Development lymphostasis
57. What group of drugs is heparin?
A. * Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
58. What group of drugs is Clexane?
A. * Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
59. What group of drugs is ?
A. * Indirect anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
60. What group of drugs is phenilin?
A. * Irreducible anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
61. What group of drugs is Detralex?
A. * Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants

D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
62. What group of drugs is venoplant?
A. * Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
63. Which medicinal products belong to the direct anticoagulant?
A. * Heparin
B. Syncumar, phenilin
C. Streptokinase, urokinase
D. Trental, Pentoksiphylin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
64. Which medicinal products are venotonics?
A. * Detralex, Phlebodia
B. Heparin
C. Syncumar, phenilin
D. Papaverine, no-shpa
E. Diclophenac, Naklophen
65. What had normal prothrombin index?
A. * 85-100%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-60%
D. 50-70%
E. 100-120%
66. What indicators prothrombin index should be in the treatment of venous thrombosis?
A. * 50-70%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 85-100%
E. 100-120%
67. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?
A. * Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
68. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. * 2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 g / l
69. What is the basis of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Valvular insufficiency

B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nerve damage
E. Limb gangrene
70. What is the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome does not exist?
A. * Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Oedema
E. Peptic
71. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. * Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
72. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
73. Which clinical sign characteristic of the postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Edema
B. No pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Lack of sensitivity
74. What is the typical sign for stage I postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Transient edema
B. Permanent edema
C. Polychromia
D. Trophic ulcer
E. Gangrene
75. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
76. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers

77. What is the typical sign for stage III postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
78. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by the absence of varicose veins?

A. * Sclerotic
B. Varicose
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
79. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by secondary varicose veins?
A. * Varicose
B. Sclerotic
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
80. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is caused by venous obstruction?
A. * Oedema
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
81. What method is used for the diagnosis of valvular insufficiency at postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Duplex ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasound doplerography
E. Arteriography
82. What is the method used to assess the passage of deep veins in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
83. What treatment is indicated in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
84. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. * Postthrombotic syndrome
B. Deep vein thrombosis

C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Femoral artery embolism
85. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Milder form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
86. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Solid form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
87. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Mixed form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
88. Form Elephantiasis:
A. * Congenital
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
89. Form Elephantiasis:
A. * Purchased
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
90. Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. * Sporadic form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
91. Form of congenital elephantiasis:
A. * Family form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
92. Form of congenital elephantiasis:

A. * Syndrome Maigue
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
93. The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. * Noninflammatory form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
94. The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. * Inflammatory form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
95. The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. * Blastomatous form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
96. The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. * Cardiac
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
97. The form acquired elephantiasis:
A. * Renal form
B. Mixed form
C. Hereditary form
D. Combined form
E. No right answer
98. I degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. * Intermittent swelling
B. Permanent edema
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
99. II degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. * Permanent edema
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Fibrosclerotic changes
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
100. III level lymph edema corresponds to:
A. * Fibrosclerotic changes
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Elephantiasis
E. No right answer
101. IV degree of lymphatic edema corresponds to:
A. * Elephantiasis
B. Intermittent swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Fibrosclerotic changes
E. No right answer
102. In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. * Detralex
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
103. In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. * Nicotinic acid
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
104. In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. * Aspirin
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
105. In the treatment of lymphedema using:
A. * Wobenzym
B. Atenolol
C. Barboval
D. Preductal
E. Seduksen
106. How much blood are flows through the superficial veins?
A. * 10-15%
B. 5%
C. 30-40%
D. 70-80%
E. 90%
107. Where are falls the great saphenous vein?
A. * Thigh Vienna
B. Calf veins

C. Popliteal vein
D. External iliac vein
E. vein
108. Where are runs a small subcutaneous vein?
A. * Popliteal vein
B. Vena cava inferior
C. External iliac vein
D. Thigh vein
E. Calf veins
109. Localization relapsing great saphenous vein are
A. * 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the popliteal fossa
D. In the lower third of the thigh
E. In the lumbar region
110. Localization relapsing small saphenous vein are
A. * In the popliteal fossa
B. In the upper third of the lower extremity
C. In the lower third of the thigh
D. 2-3 cm below the inguinal ligament
E. In the lumbar region
111. What veins belong to a surface system?
A. * Small and large subcutaneous vein
B. Veins
C. Superficial and deep femoral vein
D. Humeral vein
E. Elbow and radial veins
112. What vein belong to the deep vein system?
A. * V. radals
B. There was subcutaneous Vienna
C. Large subcutaneous Vienna
D. V. baslca
E. V. cehalca
113. Which factor are dominates in the development of primary varicose veins?
A. * The weakness of the connective tissue blood vessels
B. Arteriovenous fistula
C. Venous hypoplasia
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Obliterating atherosclerosis
114. What are the hormonal changes contribute to the development of varicose veins?
A. * Pregnancy
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Myxedema
E. Adrenal insufficiency
115. What is the pathological basis for the development of chronic venous insufficiency?

A. * Venous hypertension
B. Block lymph drainage
C. Arterial ischemia
D. Arterial hypertension
E. Innervation
116. What is the cause of hypertension in the venous system of lower limbs?
A. * Venous valvular insufficiency
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Block lymph drainage
E. Innervation
117. What are causes venous valve insufficiency?
A. * Venous hypertension
B. Arterial ischemia
C. Arterial hypertension
D. Innervation
E. Violation of lymph drainage
118. Indirect anticoagulant drugs include:
A. * Phenilin.
B. Tiklid.
C. Papaverine.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Miskleron.
119. The direct anticoagulant is
A. * Heparin.
B. Phenilin.
C. Nicotinic acid.
D. Streptokinase.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
120. Saphenectomy performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
121. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation is performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
122. Corossectomy operation performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans

E. Occlusive disease
123. Linton's operation is performed at:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
124. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation is:
A. * Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
B. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
C. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
D. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
E. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
125. Naraths operation is:
A. * Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
B. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
C. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
126. Babcocks operation is:
A. * Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
E. Subfascial ligation perforating veins
127. Coccets operation is:
A. * Extrafascial ligation perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
128. Linton's operation is:
A. * Subfascial ligation of perforating veins
B. Treatment of saphenous vein collaterals
C. Ligation sapheno-femoral ejection
D. Removal of the main stem saphenous vein
E. Extrafascial ligation of perforating veins
129. Naraths operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
130. Babcocks operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis

C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
131. Coccets operation is performed at :
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Lymphedema
D. Atherosclerosis obliterans
E. Occlusive disease
132. Indications to sclerotherapy is:
A. * Reticular varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
133. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Telangiectasia
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
134. Indications for sclerotherapy is:
A. * Recurrence of varicose
B. Obliterating atherosclerosis
C. Occlusive disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
135. The method of choice in treating varicose reticulum is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
136. The method of choice in treating telangiectasia is:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
137. The method of choice in treating recurrent varicose veins are:
A. * Sclerotherapy
B. Operation Linton
C. Saphenectomy
D. Intimectomy
E. Autogenous vein bypass
138. For sclerotherapy used:

A. * Fibroveyn
B. Triumbrast
C. Verografin
D. Seabar
E. Bilignost
139. After Saphenectomy elastic compression is applied:
A. * 2-3 months
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 2 weeks
E. 3-4 weeks
140. For the treatment of varicose veins I st. used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * I compression
B. II compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
141. For the treatment of varicose II degree used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
142. After saphenectomy used elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * II compression
B. I compression
C. III compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
143. In patients with trophic ulcers using elastic hosiery and bandages:
A. * III compression
B. II compression
C. I compression
D. IV compression
E. Compression hosiery is available
144. Endotelon used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
145. Detralex used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
146. Phlebodia used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
147. Troxevasin used to treat:
A. * Varicose
B. Ulcer
C. Uterine bleeding
D. Atherosclerotic lesions
E. Hypertension
148. Why saphenectomy is always starts ligation safeno-femoral ejection?
A. * To prevent pulmonary embolism
B. To prevent bleeding
C. To prevent safeno-femoral reflux
D. To easily insert a venous extractor
E. To perform sclerotherapy
149. What is the main feature of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis?
A. * Painful bundle along the saphenous vein
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Gangrene fingers on the lower extremity
D. No pulsation
E. Edema of the lower extremity
150. Painful bundle along the saphenous vein is characteristic for:
A. * Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Lymphedema
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Obliterative endarteritis
E. Deep vein thrombosis
151. The development of limb edema in the case of subcutaneous thrombophlebitis indicates:
A. * The defeat of the deep veins
B. Infection
C. Heart failure
D. Renal failure
E. Development lymphostasis
152. What group of drugs is heparin?
A. * Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
153. What group of drugs is Clexane?
A. * Direct anticoagulants
B. Indirect anticoagulants

C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agent
154. What group of drugs is phenilin?
A. * Irreducible anticoagulants
B. Direct anticoagulants
C. Thrombolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
E. Antiinflammatory agen
155. What group of drugs is Detralex?
A. * Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
156. What group of drugs is venoplant?
A. * Venotonics
B. Thrombolytic
C. Indirect anticoagulants
D. Direct anticoagulants
E. Antiinflammatory agen
157. Which medicinal products belong to the direct anticoagulant?
A. * Heparin
B. Syncumar, phenilin
C. Streptokinase, urokinase
D. Trental, Pentoksiphylin
E. Diclofenac, Naklofen
158. Which medicinal products are venotonics?
A. * Detralex, Phlebodia
B. Heparin
C. Syncumar, phenilin
D. Papaverine, no-shpa
E. Diclophenac, Naklophen
159. What had normal prothrombin index?
A. * 85-100%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-60%
D. 50-70%
E. 100-120%
160. What indicators prothrombin index should be in the treatment of venous thrombosis?
A. * 50-70%
B. 10-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 85-100%
E. 100-120%
161. What are the indicators of coagulation control dosing of anticoagulants?

A. * Prothrombin index
B. The number of platelets in the blood
C. The level of plasma fibrinogen
D. Trombotest
E. Recalcification time
162. What is the normal level of plasma fibrinogen?
A. * 2-4 g / l
B. 6-8 g / l
C. 10-16 grams / liter
D. 30-50 grams / liter
E. 75-100 g / l
163. What is the basis of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Valvular insufficiency
B. Venous occlusion
C. Arterial occlusion
D. Nerve damage
E. Limb gangrene
164. What is the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome does not exist?
A. * Gangrenous
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Oedema
E. Peptic
165. What is the typical consequence of deep venous thrombosis?
A. * Recanalization of thrombus from the valve insufficiency
B. Complete obliteration of the veins
C. Partial obliteration of the veins
D. Varicose
E. Arteriovenous fistula
166. What are the clinical manifestations of postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Symptoms of venous insufficiency
B. Symptoms of nerve damage
C. Symptoms of vascular dystony
D. Signs of arterial insufficiency
E. Restriction of movement of the lower extremity
167. Which clinical sign characteristic of the postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Edema
B. No pulsation
C. Paralysis
D. Gangrene
E. Lack of sensitivity
168. What is the typical sign for stage I postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Transient edema
B. Permanent edema
C. Polychromia
D. Trophic ulcer

E. Gangrene
169. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
170. What is the typical sign for stage II postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Healing of trophic ulcers
171. What is the typical sign for stage III postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Transient edema
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
172. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by the absence of varicose veins?

A. * Sclerotic
B. Varicose
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
173. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by secondary varicose veins?
A. * Varicose
B. Sclerotic
C. Oedema
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
174. What the clinical form of postthrombotic syndrome is caused by venous obstruction?
A. * Oedema
B. Sclerotic
C. Varicose
D. Peptic
E. Necrotizing
175. What method is used for the diagnosis of valvular insufficiency at postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Duplex ultrasound
B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasound doplerography
E. Arteriography
176. What is the method used to assess the passage of deep veins in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Ultrasound

B. Coagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
177. What treatment is indicated in postthrombotic syndrome?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
178. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. * Postthrombotic syndrome
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Femoral artery embolism
179. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Milder form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
180. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Solid form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
181. In the classification of lymphedema distinguished:
A. * Mixed form
B. Elastic form
C. Subelasticheskuyu form
D. Fibrous form
E. Soft form
182. Form Elephantiasis:
A. * Congenital
B. Mixed
C. Hereditary
D. Combined
E. No right answer
183. Intermittent claudication is characterized by:
A. * Pain in the lower extremities
B. Heartache
C. Arthralgia
D. Dizziness
E. Edema of lower extremities

184. Intermittent claudication is characterized for:

A. * Atherosclerosis of the lower extremities
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Varicose
E. Cholecystitis
185. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication up to 1000 meters?
A. * II
B.
C. B
D. III
E. IV
186. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic intermittent claudication before 500 meters?
A. *
B. I
C. III
D. B
E. IV
187. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic of intermittent claudication before 200 meters?
A. * B
B. I
C.
D. IV
E. III
188. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic of intermittent claudication 25-50 meters?
A. * III
B. I
C.
D. IV
E. B
189. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the pain at rest?
A. * III
B. I
C.
D. IV
E. B
190. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions characteristic dry trophic ulcer?
A. * III
B. I
C.
D. IV
E. B
191. To what stage of atherosclerotic lesions is characteristic the necrosis and gangrene?
A. * IV
B. III
C. I
D.
E. II B
192. What is the main cause of limb swelling in patients with atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. * Permanent seating position to relieve pain
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Infection, abscess
D. Arterial thrombosis
E. Heart failure
193. Where is the most frequent location of venous ulcers with obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. * At the tip of the toes
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
194. Leriche syndrome is:
A. * Occlusion the bifurcation of abdominal aorta
B. Stenosis the brachiocephalic trunk
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Stenosis of the abdominal trunk
E. Stenosis of pulmonary artery
195. Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Obliterative endarteritis
C. Varicose
D. Phlebemphraxis
E. Lymphedema
196. Leriche is characterized by:
A. * Atherosclerotic lesions
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Ileus
E. Appendicular infiltrate
197. For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
198. For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. * The absence of pulsations in the lower extremities
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
199. For Leriche syndrome is characterized by:
A. * Hypercholesterolemia

B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Increased blood amylase
D. Leukocytosis
E. Anemia
200. For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. * Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Dysplasia veins
201. For Leriche syndrome is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. * Occlusion of the terminal aorta
B. Cloibers bowls
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
E. Detelectasis
202. At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
203. At Leriche syndrome patient has complains on:
A. * Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
204. At what level is absent arterial pulsation at the Leriche syndrome?
A. * Femoral artery
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Dorsal artery of foot
D. Popliteal artery
E. Common carotid artery
205. What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. * Acute arterial thrombosis
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis
206. What complication is caused by atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. * Aneurysm
B. Arteriorrhexis
C. Acute venous thrombosis
D. Phlegmon
E. Superficial thrombophlebitis

207. Which clinical sign is typical for abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. * Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
B. Abdominal pain
C. Leukopenia
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
208. Which clinical sign is typical for the rupture abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. * Hemorrhagic shock
B. Leukopenia
C. Systolic noise over a pulsating formation in the abdominal cavity
D. Diarrhea
E. Tension of abdominal wall
209. Which clinical sign is typical bundle abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. * They expressed the pain radiating to the loin
B. Pukes bile
C. Systolic noise over the formation of a pulsating abdominal
D. Diarrhea
E. Voltage anterior abdominal wall
210. What is the treatment of uncomplicated aortic aneurysm?
A. * Aortic prosthesis
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
211. What is the treatment gap abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. * Endovascular prostheses
B. Saphenectomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. Ligation of the aorta
E. Profundoplastic
212. Which of the instrumental methods of investigation is the most informative at obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. * Ultrasound
B. ECG
C. Spirography
D. Urography
E. Target biopsy
213. In obliterating atherosclerosis determined by:
A. * Lenel-Lavestins symptom
B. Homans symptom
C. Ortners symptom
D. Rovzings symptom
E. Babinski symptom
214. The pulsation of the femoral artery is determined by:
A. * By the middle of the inguinal ligament;
B. By the middle line above the stomach and the navel;

C. By the mid-popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;

D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
215. The pulsation of the abdominal aorta is determined by:
A. * On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
B. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
216. The pulsation of the popliteal artery is defined:
A. * On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
B. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
C. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
D. Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
217. The pulsation of the posterior tibial artery is determined by:
A. * Between the back-bottom edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
B. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
C. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
D. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
E. Between I and II metatarsals.
218. Ripple dorsal artery of foot is determined by:
A. * Between I and II metatarsals.
B. Between lowback edge of the medial bone and Achilles tendon;
C. On the middle popliteal fossa with slightly bent limbs in the knee;
D. On the middle line above the stomach and the navel;
E. On the middle of the inguinal ligament;
219. What kind of ankle pressure is characterize the critical ischemia?
A. * Less than 50 mm Hg.
B. Less than 140 mm Hg.
C. Less than 70 mm Hg.
D. Less than 90 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
220. What kind of ankle pressure is characterized the II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. * Less than 90 mm Hg.
B. Less than 50 mm Hg.
C. Less than 140 mm Hg.
D. Less than 70 mm Hg.
E. Less than 110 mm Hg.
221. What kind of ankle index corresponds to II stage of the chronic ischemia?
A. * Less than 0,9.
B. Less than 0,5.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
222. What kind of ankle index corresponds to III stage of the chronic ischemia?

A. * Less than 0,5.

B. Less than 0,9.
C. 1,0.
D. More than 1,0.
E. More than 1,5.
223. Which of the X-ray methods is the most informative at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. * Arteriography
B. Abdominal radiography
C. Chest radiography
D. Radiography limb
E. Phlebography
224. For atherosclerotic lesions at arteriography is characterized by:
A. * Segmental occlusion of the arteries
B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava
C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Dysplasia arteries
E. Diffuse stenosis of small arteries
225. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and endarteritis obliterans?
A. * The level of arterial pulsation
B. Pain syndrome
C. Trophic ulcers
D. Changes in coagulation
E. Skin color
226. What method of research is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between atherosclerosis
and endarteritis obliterans?
A. * Angiography
B. ECG
C. Biochemical analysis of blood
D. Complete blood
E. Target biopsy
227. What is the main distinctive feature between atherosclerosis and lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. * Arterial pulsation in the lower extremities
B. Pain syndrome of the lower extremities
C. The color of the skin of the lower extremities
D. Cold extremities
E. Paresthesias of lower extremities
228. At what level is no ripple at lumbosacral radiculitis?
A. * Stored at all levels of
B. Calf arteries
C. Popliteal artery
D. Femoral artery
E. Aorta
229. Which method to study is the most informative in the differential diagnosis between atherosclerosis
and diabetic angiopathy?
A. * Biochemical analysis of blood
B. Complete blood
C. Koagulograme

D. Imunogramma
E. Urinalysis
230. Which clinical sign is not typical for diabetic angiopathy?
A. * No pulsation of femoral artery
B. Necrosis of the fingers on the lower extremity
C. Trophic ulcers on the foot
D. Phlegmon of the foot
E. Paresthesias
231. What are the indications for conservative therapy of obliterative atherosclerosis?
A. * I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. Not shown at all
C. III-IV stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Leriche syndrome
E. Arterial thrombosis
232. Which drugs has affect on atherogenesis?
A. * Cholestyramine
B. Trental
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Aspirin
233. Which drug does belongs to antiaggregants?
A. * Pentoksiphilin
B. Cholestyramine
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Papaverine
234. What are the indications for surgical arterial reconstruction?
A. * II-III stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
B. No evidence
C. I-II stage of chronic arterial insufficiency
D. Gangrene of the lower extremity
E. Phlegmon of the lower extremity
235. Which operation is performed with Leriche syndrome?
A. * Aorto-femoral bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
236. Which operation is performed at Leriche syndrome?
A. * Right answer is absent
B. Bypass thick intestinal anastomosis
C. Gastrectomy
D. Cholecystectomy
E. Saphenectomy
237. What are the indications for endarterectomy:
A. * Isolated segmental occlusion of the artery
B. Leriche syndrome
C. Multi-storey artery occlusion
D. Calcinosis artery
E. Occlusive disease
238. What is the most common operation at atherosclerotic occlusion of the femoral artery?
A. * Autogenous vein bypass
B. Lumbar sympathectomy
C. Intimectomy
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation
239. What is the localization of arterial occlusion requires prophundoplastic?
A. * Bifurcation of the common femoral artery
B. Bifurcation of the aorta
C. Bifurcation of common iliac artery
D. Trifurcation popliteal artery
E. Bifurcation carotid artery
240. What is the complication of arterial reconstruction does not require repeated surgical intervention?
A. * Deep vein thrombosis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Arterial bleeding
D. Injection of synthetic graft
E. The increase in lower limb ischemia
241. What are indication to amputation at obliterating atherosclerosis?
A. * Gangrene of the lower extremity
B. Leriche
C. I-II stage of ischemia
D. II-III stage of ischemia
E. Arterial bleeding
242. Which artery are usually affects occlusive endarteritis?
A. * Calf arteries
B. Aorta
C. Iliac arteries
D. Femoral artery
E. Deep femoral artery
243. What factors play a very significant role in pathogenesis the obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Chronic intoxication
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Triglitseridemia
D. Vascular injury
E. Thrombophlebitis
244. What is the morphological basis of obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Intimal hyperplasia
B. Atheroma
C. Embolism
D. Aneurysm
E. Arteriovenous fistula

245. What is the fourth stage of obliterating endarteritis?

A. * Ulcer-necrotic
B. Asymptomatic
C. Coronary
D. Trophic changes
E. Gangrenous
246. What is the main feature of obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Muscle contraction
C. Fever
D. Arthritic pain
E. Ishalgia
247. What is the cause of intermittent claudication?
A. * Muscle ischemia
B. Trauma
C. Ishalgia
D. Muscle contraction
E. Arthritic pain
248. The most typical localization of intermittent claudication at occlusive disease is?
A. * Foot
B. Stifle
C. Hip
D. Hip
E. Stomach
249. Cooling stop is characteristic:
A. * Surface thrombophlebitis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Postthrombotic syndrome
250. Blanching of the skin foot is characteristic:
A. * Obliterative endarteritis
B. Deep thrombophlebitis
C. Surface thrombophlebitis
D. Postthrombotic syndrome
E. Phlegmon of the foot
251. What is the typical location the venous ulcers at occlusive disease?
A. * At fingertips
B. In the lower third of the lower extremities
C. In the upper third of the lower extremities
D. On the back of the knee
E. At the hip
252. What is the typical sign for the I stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Cooling of the lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Fever

D. Pain at rest
E. Gangrene
253. What is the typical sign for II stage the obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Fever
C. Cooling of the lower extremities
D. Gangrene
E. Pain at rest
254. What is the typical sign for the III stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Pain at rest
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Intermittent claudication
E. Gangrene
255. What is the typical sign for the IV stage of obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Gangrene
B. Cooling of the lower extremities
C. Fever
D. Pain at rest
E. Intermittent claudication
256. What is the most frequent complication the obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Arterial thrombosis and gangrene of the extremities
B. Bleeding
C. Blindness
D. Chylorrhea
E. Aneurysm
257. What is the main goal of therapy at obliterating endarteritis?
A. * Renewal or improvement of capillary circulation
B. Resumption pass vein
C. Resumption of the entrance of lymph
D. Resumption pass arteries
E. Improving the innervation of the lower extremity
258. For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Angina
C. Dizziness
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
259. For obliterative endarteritis is characterized by:
A. * The pulse absent on the feet
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Ascites
D. Oedema of lower extremities
E. Extension of saphenous veins
260. For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. * Diffuse stenosis of small arteries

B. Occlusion of terminal part of the inferior vena cava

C. Occlusion of the superior vena cava
D. Arteries dysplasia
E. Veins dysplasia
261. For obliterative endarteritis is characteristic X-ray symptoms:
A. * No right answer
B. Bowls Kloiber
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. The symptom of "niche"
E. Detelectasis
262. At occlusive disease patient complains on:
A. * Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in the heart
C. Oedema of lower extremities
D. Extension of saphenous veins
E. Dizziness
263. At obliterating endarteritis patient complains of:
A. * Melosalgia
B. Pain in the heart
C. Pain during urination
D. Tenesmus
E. Pain in the epigastric area
264. At what level is absent arterial pulsation at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. * Arteries foot
B. Femoral artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. Common carotid artery
E. Abdominal aorta
265. Which group of drugs are pentoxifyllinum?
A. * Antiagrigant
B. Antispasmodic
C. Antihistamines
D. Stimulants metabolism
E. Narcotic analgesics
266. Which group of drugs are vasaprostan?
A. * Prostaglandins
B. Antiagrigant
C. Antispasmodic
D. Antihistamines
E. Stimulants metabolism
267. Which operation is performed at obliterative endarteritis ?
A. * Lumbar sympathectomy
B. Intimectomy
C. Bypass grafting
D. Resection of the arteries
E. Artery ligation

268. Which factor is the leader in the development of atherosclerosis?

A. * Dyslipoproteinemia.
B. Diabetes.
C. Suprarenalism.
D. Frequent hypothermia.
E. Smoking.
269. Which factor is the leader in the development of obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Hypothermia, intoxication.
B. Hypercholesterolemia.
C. Diabetes.
D. Violations electrolytic exchange.
E. Suprarenalism.
270. At what age is the greatest risk of ill atherosclerosis obliterans?
A. * Older than 40 years.
B. In 20 - 60 years.
C. In 19 - 25 years.
D. In 30 - 35 years.
E. In 35 - 39 years.
271. At what age is the greatest risk of ill obliterative endarteritis?
A. * Up to 40 years.
B. 41 - 50 years.
C. 51 - 60 years.
D. In 10 - 15 years.
E. Over 60 years.
272. At atherosclerosis obliterans first affected:
A. * Arteries, aorta.
B. Arteriovenous shunt vessels.
C. Capillaries.
D. Arteries of medium diameter.
E. Small arteries.
273. At obliterative endarteritis first affected:
A. * Peripheral arteries.
B. Inguinal artery.
C. Aorta.
D. Ventral trunk.
E. The upper and lower mesenteric artery.
274. At what disease you can auscultated systolic murmur on the major arteries?
A. * In obliterating atherosclerosis.
B. When occlusive disease.
C. With varicose veins.
D. In acute venous thrombosis shins.
E. When ileofemoralnom venous thrombosis.
275. With the defeat of what artery atherosclerosis can develops Leriche syndrome?
A. * Bifurcation of the aorta, common iliac arteries.
B. Popliteal artery.
C. Arteries of the lower leg.

D. Ventral trunk.
E. Inferior mesenteric artery.
276. What kind of reconstructive operations on the vessels are carried out with Leriche syndrome?
A. * Aorto-femoral prosthesis or bypass surgery.
B. Operation Linton or Kokkett.
C. Leriche's operation.
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation, Babcock s operation.
E. Embolectomy
277. What kind of reconstructive operations on the major arteries are carried out with obliterating
atherosclerosis?
A. * Endarterectomy, bypass surgery or prosthetic arteries.
B. Leriche's operation.
C. Lumbar sympathectomy.
D. Palms operation .
E. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation.
278. . What operations are conducted in obliterating endartereite lower extremities?
A. * Lumbar sympathectomy, Leriche's operation.
B. Embolectomy
C. Saphenectomy.
D. Thrombectomy.
E. Intimectomy
279. What kind of manipulation to be done vascular prostheses ifection?
A. * Remove the prosthesis.
B. Catheterization subclavian vein.
C. Catheterization great saphenous vein.
D. Fasciotomy.
E. Necrectomy.
280. Named the arteries that catheterization for aortography with bilateral Leriche syndrome?
A. * Brachial artery.
B. Total n artery.
C. Thigh iliac artery.
D. Subclavian artery.
E. Rear leg artery
281. Aorto-occlusive disease at arteriogram characterized by:
A. * Uniform narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
B. Occlusion of peripheral arteries.
C. Uneven narrowing of the lumen of the arteries of the lower extremities.
D. Occlusion of collateral arteries.
E. Occlusion of capillaries.
282. Lumbar sympathectomy is accompanied by:
A. * Removing the spasm of precapillary sphincter .
B. Decrease in prothrombin index.
C. Normalization of glucose.
D. Increased protein content in blood serum.
E. Normalization of bilirubin in the blood serum.
283. To improve the microcirculation provide drugs:
A. * Nicotinic acid, reopolyglukine.
B. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
C. Anaprilin, lineotol.
D. Cytitone, lobeline.
E. Amidopyrine, analgin.
284. What drugs have antisclerotic action?
A. * Clofibrate, linetol, parmidin.
B. Cytitone, lobeline.
C. Fenilin, Omefin.
D. Nicotinic acid.
E. Diphenhydramine, suprastin.
285. What methods are used to reduce the concentration of cholesterol and lipoproteins in the blood
serum?
A. * Plasmapheresis, hemosorption.
B. Artificial diuresis.
C. Hemodilution.
D. Transfusion of blood
E. Introduction vasorostana
286. At what level are removed ganglia at the lumbar sympathectomy?
A. * L3 - L4.
B. S2 - S3.
C. L1.
D. Th 10-17
E. Th 8-9.
287. How soon after the appointment of showing its effect indirect anticoagulants?
A. * After 12 - 48 hours.
B. After 4 hours.
C. After 72 hours.
D. After 56 hours.
E. 46-56 hours.
288. Specify non-pharmacological methods of correcting blood coagulation system.
A. * Hemodilution.
B. Hemodialysis.
C. Hemosorption.
D. Artificial diuresis.
E. Limfosorbtsiya.
289. What is the typical sign for stage I varicose veins?
A. * Feeling gravity
B. Temporary swelling
C. Permanent edema
D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
290. What is the typical sign for IIA stage of varicose veins?
A. * Transient edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Permanent edema

D. Polychromia
E. Trophic ulcer
291. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. * Polychromia
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
292. What is the typical sign for IIB stage of varicose veins?
A. * Permanent edema
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Open trophic ulcer
E. Repairer trophic ulcer
293. What is the typical sign for the Third Stage varicose veins?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Feeling gravity
C. Temporary swelling
D. Permanent edema
E. Polychromia
294. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is the "heavy feeling"?
A. * I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
295. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of transient edema?
A. * IIA
B. 0
C. II
D. IIB
E. III
296. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is a permanent swelling?
A. * IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
297. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature is hyperpigmentation?
A. * IIB
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
298. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency is the main feature of lipodermatosclerosis?
A. * IIB

B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. III
299. At what stage of chronic venous insufficiency the main feature of opened trophic ulcer?
A. * III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
300. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency is responsible healing of trophic ulcers?
A. * III
B. 0
C. I
D. IIA
E. IIB
301. What stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular insufficiency of superficial
veins?
A. * I
B. 0
C. IIA
D. IIB
E. III
302. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency are characteristic valvular insufficiency of surface and
communicative veins?
A. * II
B. 0
C. I
D. III
E. IV
303. To what stage of chronic venous insufficiency of the characteristic valvular insufficiency of
superficial, communicative and deep vein ?
A. * IIB-III
B. 0
C. I
D. IA
E. IV
304. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized :
A. * Feeling gravity
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
305. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Transient edema of lower extremities
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Pain at rest

D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
306. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Extension of saphenous veins
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
307. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Lipodermatosklerosis shin
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
308. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Trophic ulcer leg
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
309. For varicose veins of the lower extremities is characterized:
A. * Hyperpigmentation
B. Cyanosis of lower limb
C. The pallor of the lower extremity
D. Loss of sensitivity
E. Loss of movement
310. Feeling the gravity of the lower extremities is characteristic for:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
311. Transient edema of lower limbs is characteristic for:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
312. Lipodermatosklerosis lower third of the leg is characteristic for:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
313. Hyperpigmentation of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. * Varicose

B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
314. Trophic ulcers of the lower third of the leg is characteristic:
A. * Varicose
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Leriche
E. Femoral artery embolism
315. What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency superficial veins?
A. * Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
B. Thalmans test
C. Pratts test
D. Mayo Pratts test
E. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
316. What is the test used to determine valvular insufficiency communacative veins?
A. * Pratts test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
C. Hakenbruhs test
D. Homanss test
E. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
317. What is the test used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
C. Hakenbruhs test
D. Pratts test
E. Thalmanns test
318. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test used in the diagnosis:
A. * Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
319. Thalmanns test used in the diagnosis :
A. * Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Passing deep vein
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
320. Pratt test used in the diagnosis of :
A. * Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
B. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
C. Patency of deep veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema

321. Mayo Pratts test used in the diagnosis:

A. * Patency of deep veins
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
322. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test) is used in the diagnosis:
A. * Passing deep vein
B. Valvular insufficiency communicative veins
C. Valvular insufficiency of superficial veins
D. Deep phlebothrombosis
E. Extremity lymphedema
323. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. * Subcutaneous thrombophlebitis
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Lymphostasis
E. Gangrene
324. Most subcutaneous thrombophlebitis is caused by:
A. * Varicose
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Lymphedema of the lower extremities
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Acute cholecystitis
325. What is typical complication of varicose veins?
A. * Trophic ulcer
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Paresis
D. Plegia
E. Gangrene
326. What is the main method of diagnosis of arteriovenous fistulas?
A. * Phlebography
B. Koagulograme
C. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
327. What is the main method diagnosis venous angiodysplasia?
A. * Phlebography
B. oagulogramm
C. Delba Perthess test (sustainer test)
D. Ultrasound
E. Arteriography
328. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. * Arteriovenous fistula
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterate endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
329. Phlebography is used to diagnose:
A. * Venous angiodysplasia
B. Atherosclerotic lesions
C. Obliterative endarteritis
D. Lymphedema
E. Gynecology
330. What method is used for the diagnosis the valvular insufficiency communicative and deep veins?
A. * Duplex ultrasound
B. oagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. Ultrasonic Doppler
E. Arteriography
331. What method is used to assess the patency of deep veins?
A. * Ultrasound
B. oagulogramm
C. Rheovasography
D. ECG
E. Arteriography
332. What operation is carried out at varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Thrombectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Intimectomy
E. Femoropopliteal bypass
333. What treatment is indicated at varicose II A stage?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
334. What treatment is indicated for uncomplicated varicose veins?
A. * Saphenectomy
B. Conservative treatment
C. Sclerotherapy
D. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs operation
E. Saphenectomy with subfascial ligation communicative veins (Lintons operation)
335. For reason recurrence of varicose veins include:
A. * Leaving the main trunk, the long stump of the great saphenous vein
B. Thrombosis of the inferior vena cava
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Lack ostial valve
E. Thrombosis of the iliac vein
336. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency of superficial veins are :
A. * Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test

B. Homenss test,
C. Panchenko test,
D. Schwarzs test
E. Schotkin-Blumberg test
337. Functional tests for the detection valvular insufficiency communicative veins include:
A. * Thalmanns, Sheiniss
B. Panchenko test
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburgs test
D. Mosess test
E. Hekenburg test
338. Functional tests for the detection of valvular insufficiency of deep veins include:
A. * Mayo-Pratts test
B. Hakkenbrgs test
C. Pratts test
D. Mosess test
E. Levenbergs test
339. In what sequence being saphenectomy
A. * Operation Troyanov-Trendelenburgs, Babcocks, Naraths
B. Operation Lintons. Cocketts, Babcocks
C. Operation Naraths, Babcocks, Cocketts
D. Operation Babcocks, Lintons, Troyanov-Trendelenburgs
E. Operation Babcocks, Naraths, Cokkets
340. Maximum number communicative vein is:
A. * The lower third of tibia
B. The upper third of tibia
C. The middle third of tibia
D. Land thigh
E. The bottom third of the thigh
341. Contraindication to saphenectomy with varicose veins are:
A. * Obstruction deep veins
B. Incompetence of venous valves communicative vein
C. Incompetence ostial valve
D. Loose type of the great saphenous vein
E. Valvular insufficiency sural veins
342. The operation saphenectomy used:
A. * Babcocs probe
B. Blekmors probe
C. Fogarty probe
D. Nelatona Catheters
E. Levins tube
343. At operations on the communicative veins of the lower extremities used operations:
A. * Linton, Kokket
B. Babcock, Narath
C. Troyanov-Trendelenburg
D. Modelung
E. Felder

344. The amount of hemoglobin less than 50-60 g/l is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. * III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
345. What is the main method of lung abscess sanation?
A. * Microtracheostomy
B. Transpleural
C. Transesophageal
D. Endovascular
E. Thoracotomy
346. What is the main treatment of noncomplicated acute lung abscess?
A. * Conservative treatment
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy
E. Pleural puncture
347. Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
B. The site of crossing with left bronchus
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
348. Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of crossing with left bronchus
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
349. Where is located the third anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of passing through diaphragm
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of cardia
350. Where is located the first physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of crossing with aorta
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with left bronchus
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
351. Where is located the second physiological narrowing of esophagus?
A. * The site of cardia
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction

C. The site of crossing with aorta

D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of passing through diaphragm
352. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction is:
A. * The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
353. The site of crossing with left bronchus is:
A. * The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
354. The site of passing through diaphragm is:
A. * The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
355. The site of crossing with aorta is:
A. * The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
356. The site of cardia is:
A. * The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
357. What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?
A. * Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
358. What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?
A. * Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
359. What sign is not typical for Zenker's diverticula?

A. * Dyspnea
B. Salivation
C. Cervical dysphagia
D. Difficult swallowing
E. Cough
360. Zenker's diverticulum is:
A. * Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum
B. Bifurcational diverticulum
C. Epiphrenic diverticulum
D. Paraaortal diverticulum
E. Multiple diverticula
361. What is the main objective manifestation of Zenker's diverticula?
A. * Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
362. What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. * Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
363. What is the I degree of esophageal burns?
A. * Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
364. What is the II degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
365. What is the III degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
366. What is the IV degree of esophageal burns?
A. * The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;

E. Asymptomatic
367. Acute cholecystitis usually begins with
A. Increases the temperature
B. Appearances the vomiting
C. * Pains under a rib on the right
D. Disorders of chair
E. Weights are in a epigastria area
368. The attack of hepatic (bilious) colic development
A. * Suddenly, acutely
B. After a initial period
C. Gradually, gradually
D. After the protracted starvation
E. After supercooling
369. Characteristic laboratory sign of the acute uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Diastasuria
B. * Leykocytosis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Glucosuria
E. Hyperbillirubinemia
370. An intravenous cholecystography are indicated and informing at
A. Gall-bladder is palpated
B. To the icterus
C. Peritonitis
D. * Calming down attack of the acute cholecystitis
E. Cholangitis
371. At an acute and chronic cholecystitis application is contra-indicated
A. Omnoponum
B. * Morphine hydrochloride
C. No-spa
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Spazmalgon
372. Basic method examination the patients with the uncomplicated cholecystitis
A. Infusion cholegraphy
B. ERPCG
C. * USD
D. Laparoskopy
E. Gastroduodenoscopy
373. Normal width of the common bile duct
A. To 0,4 cm
B. * 0,5-0,7 cm
C. 0,8-1,3 cm
D. 1,4-2,0 cm
E. Over 2,0 cm
374. The index litogenic bile is determined correlation
A. Cholesterol, billirubine and lecithin
B. Billirubine, bilious acids and lecithin
C. Cholesterol, bilious acids and bilirubine
D. * Cholesterol, bilious acids and lecithin
E. Billirubine and lecithin
375. What preparation is applied at violation the extrasecretory function of pancreas at a chronic
pancreatitis:
A. Pyracetam
B. Papaverin
C. Pantocrin
D. * Panzinorm
E. Panthenol
376. What operation is used for suppuration the pseudocysts of pancreas:
A. * Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
377. What operation is used for the pseudocyst of pancreas in the 3th stage of its forming:
A. * Cystojejunostomy on the eliminated loop
B. External draining the cyst
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoduodenostomy
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
378. What is necrectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
379. What is resection the pancreas:
A. * Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
380. What is pancreatectomy:
A. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of nonviable fabrics
B. Delete the necrotic area within the limits of healthy fabrics
C. Delete part of organ with his transversal cutting within the limits of the changed fabrics
D. * Total delete of organ
E. There is not a faithful answer
381. What complication the ulcerous illness of stomach is most characteristically for the patients of elderly
and senile age
A. perforation
B. perforation
C. pylorus stenosis
D. malignization
E. * bleeding

382. What from preparations has the expressed bacteriostatic action on Hlbtr lrs
A. * trichopol
B. Licviroton
C. oxiferiskorbon
D. atropine
E. pirinzsipin
383. What method diagnostics hte ulcerous illness most informing
A. * esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. analysis of excrement on the hidden blood
C. X-rye
D. global analysis of blood
E. research of gastric secretion
384. What preparation does behave to blocker of muscarine receptors of coating cages?
A. cymetidin
B. eglonin
C. * gastocepini
D. etimsiloli
E. vinylin
385. What preparation does behave to blocker H2-retseptors?
A. tavegil
B. obzidan
C. hystdol
D. cerucal
E. * oraza
386. What syndrome is characteristic for hemorragic erosive gastritis?
A. * ulcerous
B. hemorragic;
C. pain;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct.
387. When apply Teylors method at ulcerous illness
A. * at conservative treatment perforeted ulcers
B. at conservative treatment sanguifluous ulcers
C. at conservative treatment penetration ulcers
D. at conservative treatment malignization ulcers
E. at conservative treatment of cicatrical pyloristenosis
388. Blood loos I stage characterized such indexes
A. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
D. * Ht 38-32, Hb 100
E. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
389. Blood loos II stage characterized
A. * Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
B. Ht 31-23, Hb 80
C. Ht 44-40, Hb 110

D. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
E. Ht 55 60
390. Blood loos III stage characterized a degree such indexes
A. * Ht 31-23, Hb 80
B. Ht 23 and below, Hb 50 and below
C. Ht 38-32, Hb 100
D. Ht 44-40, Hb 110
E. Ht 48-44, Hb 120
391. At perforated ulcer the pulled wooden belly is determined in the stage of peritonitis
A. * reactive
B. terminal
C. toxic
D. terminal-toxic
E. there is not a right answer
392. Pain in the left shoulder can be rather at
A. acute cholecystitis
B. perforations the ulcer of duodenum
C. * perforations the gastric ulcer
D. mesenteric lymphadenitis
E. there is not a right answer
393. At percusion in the first clock after perforation the ulcer more possibly
A. * dulling in the gently sloping places of stomach
B. expansion of percusion border of liver
C. tympanitis in left subcosctal area
D. expansion of percusion border the spleen
E. there is not a right answer
394. For differentiation of acute appendicitis with the covered perforete ulcer useful
A. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
B. gastroduodenoscopy, X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region
C. survey X-rye of abdominal region, USD of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
D. X-rye of abdominal region, irrigoscopy
E. * X-rye of abdominal region, laparoscopy
395. Ulcerous diaeases behaves to the diseases
A. innate
B. because of alcoholism
C. because of the broken circulation of blood
D. * hronic recurrent
E. traumatic
396. Hepatic dullness is not determined at
A. break of spleen
B. * perforations of gastric ulcer
C. break of bud
D. volvulus of stomach
E. mesenterial ishemia
397. Penetration of gastric content in an abdominal region possibly at
A. bleeding

B. stenosis
C. penetration
D. malignixation
E. * perforations
398. Hectic fever is possible at
A. the uncomplicated ulcer
B. bleeding from an ulcer
C. perforations of ulcer in the first clock
D. * penetration
E. cicatricle-ulcerous stenosis
399. For clarification diagnosis of perforete ulcer used
A. Gastroscopy
B. X-rye of abdominal region
C. * X-rye of abdominal region, after gastroscopy, then X-rye of abdominal region
D. CT
E. There is not a right answer
400. At operations on a stomach sometimes by mistake bandage an additional hepatic artery, that, in same
queue, can result to necrosis the segment, sectors or even stakes of liver. An additional hepatic artery
more frequent walks away from an artery
A. general hepatic
B. left stomach
C. splenic
D. overhead mesenteric
E. * all answers are faithful
401. Symptom of the toxic scissors at peritonitis it:
A. increase of temperature and pulse
B. diminishing of temperature and pulse
C. * diminishing of temperature and increase of pulse
D. increase of temperature and diminishing of pulse
E. increase of temperature and diminishing of breathing frequency
402. Postoperative peritonitis is characterized a flow:
A. Typical
B. * atypical
C. stormy
D. with the expressed pain reaction
E. with the expressed intoxication
403. Atipical clinical motion of postoperative peritonitis is conditioned setting in a postoperative period:
A. spasmolytic
B. anticoagulant
C. anaesthetic
D. analeptics
E. * cardiac
404. What must be done in the case of development the posoperative peritonitis?
A. to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. * to execute laparocenthezis
D. to execute lasparoscopy

E. to execute laparotomy
405. The most informing method the instrumental diagnostics of peritonitis is:
A. * survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
B. lasparoscopy
C. angiography
D. gastroscopy
E. colonoscopy
406. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
D. * acute vascular purpura
E. endotoxicosis
407. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. bronchitis
B. enterorrhagia
C. anaemia
D. coarctation of aorta
E. * dissecting aneurysm of aorta
408. With what disease above all things is it necessary to differentiate the acute peritonitis?
A. Hepar-kidney syndrome
B. * ischemic abdominal syndrome
C. adrenogenital syndrome
D. Horners syndrome
E. diencephalic syndrome
409. Decision role in differential diagnostics the peritonitis and dissecting aneurysm of aorta , there is a
symptom:
A. aperistalsis
B. acute pain in a stomach
C. * systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
D. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
E. melena at rectal research
410. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and acute vascular purpura is a symptom:
A. acute pain in a stomach
B. systole noise above the abdominal department of aorta
C. absence of pulsation of abdominal department of aorta
D. * hemorragic rash on a skin
E. melena at rectal research
411. Decision role in differential diagnostics of peritonitis and break the bone of pelvis is:
A. * to appoint antibiotics
B. to appoint anaesthetic
C. to execute laparocenthezis
D. to execute laparoscopy
E. to execute survey sciagraphy of abdominal region
412. There is vomiting at peritonitis, as a rule:
A. single

B. episodic
C. * frequent
D. abundant
E. scanty
413. At peritonitis intestinal impassability develops, as a rule:
A. mechanical
B. dynamic
C. spastic
D. * paralytic
E. mixed
414. Tactic of surgeon at periappendiceal mas:
A. * operative treatment
B. conservative treatment, systematic looking after a patient
C. there is not a right answer
D. supervision
E. punction
415. Draining the abdominal region is conducted at:
A. phlegmonous appendicitis without exudation
B. * gangrenous appendicitis with exudation
C. phlegmonous appendicitis with serosal exudation odourless
D. there is not a right answer
E. catarrhal appendicitis
416. For a patient, suffering ulcerous illness, sudden great pain in an epigastrium and unclear symptoms of
peritonitis appeared. During subsequent days the display of these symptoms diminished, the state of
patient had become better. It is possible to suppose at such clinic
A. typical perforation the ulcer
B. covered perforation
C. preperforative state
D. intensifying of ulcerous illness
E. * there is not a right answer
417. Preoperated complication of acute appendicitis
A. intra-abdominal bleeding
B. suppuration of wound
C. eventeration wounds
D. * there are not a right answer
E. diffusive peritonitis
418. Tension of muscles the right iliac area at the perforation of duodenal ulcer is explained
A. * by development of the diffusive peritonitis
B. by reflex connections through medullispinal nerves
C. flowing down of gastric content in a right lateral channel
D. entering of air abdominal region
E. viscero0visceral connections with a vermicular appendix
419. To the late stage of peritonitis of appendicle origin does not behave
A. dehydration
B. * swelling of stomach
C. increased peristalsis
D. hypoproteinemia
E. disappearance of intestinal noises
420. Relative absolute indication to operative treatment ulcerous illness is
A. * penetration of ulcer
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 15 years
C. malignization ulcers
D. perforation of ulcer
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
421. Udins sing at a perforated ulcer is
A. * feeling at palpation shove the gases which penetrate through the perforated opening
B. dulling perforated sound in the lateral departments of stomach
C. disappearance of hepatic dullness
D. irradiation pain in a shoulder or shoulder-blade
E. sickliness the back vault of vagina
422. Absolute sign of unstable hemostasis
A. * profluvium blood from a vessel;
B. absence blood in a stomach and bulb of duodenum;
C. presence light blood and faltungs of blood in a stomach;
D. all answers are correct;
E. all answers are not correct
423. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. heavy pain syndrome
B. * perforation of ulcer
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. giant ulcers
424. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. * voluminous bleeding
B. callous ulcers
C. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
D. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
E. heavy pain syndrome
425. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
B. * bleeding what do not stopped with conservative
C. perforation ulcer in anamnesis
D. heavy pain syndrome
E. relapses more than 3 times per a year
426. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years
C. relapse ulcer after the resection of stomach
D. relapses more than 3 times per a year
E. * cicatrical-ulcerous stenosis of pylorus
427. Absolute indication to operative treatment the ulcerous illness is
A. relapses more than 2 one time per a year
B. * malignization ulcers

C. ulcerous anamnesis more than 10 years

D. heavy pain syndrome, proof heartburn
E. relapse ulcer after vagotomy
428. Patient which the gastroenteric bleeding in house is necessary
A. * To send a patient in surgical permanent establishment
B. To appoint rest, enter Cacl, vicasol
C. To wash a stomach, appoint a cold, rest of supervision
D. To send a patient in a therapeutic gastroenterology separation
E. A right answer absents
429. Large ulcer is an ulcer measuring
A. 1-4 cm
B. 1-3 cm
C. 3-5 cm
D. 2- 6 cm
E. * 2-3 cm
430. In what area of stomach practically never is not origin of ulcers, or it is extraordinarily rarely?
A. small curvature of stomach;
B. back wall of stomach, nearer to small curvature;
C. large curvature of stomach
D. * cardiac part of stomach;
E. pylorus.

():
Endoscopic surgery tests
:

:
1. ?
A. empyema of pleural cavity
B. * subdiaphragmatic abscess
C. abscess omentobursitis
D. purulent peritonitis
E. hepatic bronchial fistula
2. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Nissen surgery one uses 30% to 45% of
reverse Trendelenburg to displace the transverse colon and small bowel inferiorly,
A. * keeping them from obstructing the view of the video camera
B. keeping them from obstructing the view of the hiatus
C. keeping them from obstructing the view of liver
D. keeping them from obstructing the view of the stomach
E. it is traditional
3. Who had first time in medical practice performed cholecystectomy
A. Courvoisier L.
B. * Lanhenbuh K.
C. The monastic ND
D. Fedorov SP
E. Coeur G.
4. With the patient lying on his back at the closed end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
5. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Stomach
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
6. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * The left lobe of the liver
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
7. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Abdominal esophagus
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus

E. Spleen
8. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Sigmoid
D. * Omentum
E. Spleen
9. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * small intestine
D. sigmoid
E. Spleen
10. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Appendix
B. Pancreas
C. * transverse colon
D. sigmoid
E. Spleen
11. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * Uterus
E. Spleen
12. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * utero-rectal space
E. Spleen
13. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * bladder
E. Spleen
14. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * uterine-bladder space
E. Spleen
15. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas

C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle

D. * Fallopian tubes
E. Spleen
16. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Nissen surgery one uses to displace the
transverse colon and small bowel inferiorly, keeping them from obstructing the view of the video
camera
A. * 30% to 45% of reverse Trendelenburg
B. 30% to 45% of direct Trendelenburg
C. 30% to 40% of reverse Trendelenburg
D. 15% to 45% of reverse Trendelenburg
E. 30% to 60% of direct Trendelenburg
17. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * Ovaries
E. Spleen
18. With the patient lying on his right side with horizontal table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * the downturn colon
19. With the patient lying on his right side with horizontal table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * Left side channel
20. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet fundoplication
A. * Initial retraction is accomplished with exposure of the esophageal hiatus.
B. Initial retraction is accomplished with exposure of the esophagus.
C. Initial retraction is accomplished with exposure of the stomach.
D. Initial retraction is accomplished with exposure of the liver.
E. Initial retraction is accomplished with exposure of the paraesophageal hiatus.
21. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Sigmoid
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen
22. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Left ovary
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen

23. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen
24. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
25. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * Gallbladder
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
26. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * duodenum
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
27. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * Hepatic flexure of colon
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
28. With the patient lying on the left side in the horizontal position of the table is well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * The ascending colon
29. With the patient lying on the left side in the horizontal position of the table is well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * Right side channel
30. With the patient lying on the right side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. * Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys

D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
31. With the patient lying on the right side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. * greater curvature of the stomach
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
32. With the patient lying on the right side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. * Left dome of diaphragm
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
33. With the patient lying on the right side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. * splenic flexure of the colon
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
34. In the middle fold there is:
A. Hepatic artery
B. * portal vein
C. choledochus
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Obliterated umbilical artery
35. What diameter of trocar is used in most surgeries in modern laparoscopy?
A. 2 and 4 mm
B. 4 and 8 mm
C. * 5 and 10 mm
D. 15 and 20 mm
E. 10 and 15 mm
36. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute cholecystitis, preparing
the port typically spend
A. * Epigastrium midline of the abdomen 2-3 cm below the xiphoid processus
B. At Kerr point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
37. What group of instruments does Babcock clamp belong?
A. surgical clamp
B. * atraumatic clamp
C. dissector
D. instrument for bipolar coagulation
E. for applying continuous sutures
38. What is arthroscopy?

A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope

B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. * Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
39. What is culdoscopy?
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. * Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
40. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute salpingal disorders,
setting the working port is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
41. What is laparoscopy?
A. * Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
42. What is mediastinoscopy ?
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. * Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
43. What is needed to perform arthroscopy?
A. Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. Intubation of main bronchi
C. The introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. The introduction of air into the joint cavity
E. * The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
44. What is needed to perform thoracoscopy?
A. Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. * Intubation of main bronchi
C. The introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. Introduction of fluid in the chest cavity
E. The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
45. What is the caliber of vessels which allowes monopolar coagulation?
A. The diameter of not more than 4 mm
B. The diameter of not more than 2 mm
C. diameter not exceeding 5 mm

D. diameter not exceeding 6 mm

E. * diameter not exceeding 1 mm
46. What is the caliber of vessels which allows bipolar coagulation?
A. The diameter of not more than 4 mm
B. * The diameter of not more than 2 mm
C. diameter not exceeding 5 mm
D. diameter not exceeding 6 mm
E. diameter not exceeding 1 mm
47. What is the maximum allowable presterilization temperature in the oven to dry laparoscopic
instruments?
A. 50 C
B. * 85 C
C. 30 C.
D. 100 C
E. 120 C
48. What is the maximum angle allowed for bending fiber-optic cable?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. * 90
E. 120
49. What is the maximum flow rate of gas through the needle of Veresh?
A. 1 L / min
B. 5 L / min
C. 7 L/ min
D. * 3 L / min
E. 9 L / min
50. What is the maximum pressure of carbon dioxide in the abdomen during diagnostic laparoscopy?
A. 10-11 mm. Hg. Art.
B. No right answer
C. 15-16 mm. Hg.
D. * 13-14 mm. Hg.
E. 14-15 mm. Hg.
51. What is the maximum pressure of carbon dioxide in the abdominal cavity during laparoscopic
cholecystectomy?
A. 10-11 mm. Hg.
B. 11-12 mm. Hg.
C. 15-16 mm. Hg.
D. * 13-14 mm. Hg.
E. 14-15 mm. Hg.
52. What is the number of channels available in Hopkins-I laparoscope?
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 0
53. What is the number of channels available in Hopkins-II laparoscope?

A. 1
B. * 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 0
54. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cirrhosis, a second input port
site is
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
55. What is the pressure of carbon dioxide in the abdominal cavity using technology of laparolifting?
A. 10-11 mm. Hg.
B. 11-12 mm. Hg.
C. * gas is not needed
D. 13-14 mm. Hg.
E. 14-15 mm. Hg.
56. What is the solution used in the suction-irrigator?
A. Glucose
B. Furacillinum
C. * Physiological
D. Solution with antibiotic
E. Chlorhexidine
57. What is the speed of the gas flow is considered optimal when creating carboxyperitoneum?
A. 1 L / min
B. 2,5 l / min
C. * 1,3 l / min
D. 3 l / min
E. 0,8 l / min
58. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cirrhosis, setting
instrumental port typically is made
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
59. What is thoracoscopy?
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. * Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
60. What kind of monopolar electrode does not exist?
A. L-shaped
B. straight
C. electrode "sphere"
D. electrode "ring"
E. * electrode "square"
61. What kind of trocar valve mechanism does not exist?
A. Piston
B. Window
C. Magnetic
D. * Contact
E. Single
62. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of liver echinococcosis, the
introduction of instrumental port is made
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
63. What method of sterilization is used for rubber valves and seals?
A. liquid
B. * gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
64. What method of sterilization is used for single instruments?
A. liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. * None of the listed
65. What method of sterilization is used for stylets?
A. liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. * dry-air
E. all of the listed
66. What type of stylet does not exist?
A. atraumatic
B. cone
C. pyramidal
D. * trapezoidal
E. mixed
67. What year did Lee first perform laparoscopic cholecystcholangiography:
A. In 1933
B. * In 1941
C. In 1942
D. In 1945
E. In 1947
68. What year did Ott first apply the visualization of the abdominal cavity:

A. * In 1901
B. In 1902
C. In 1921
D. In 1910
E. In 1924
69. What year did Veresh design a special needle that is used for pneumoperitoneum:
A. In 1927
B. In 1929
C. In 1930
D. In 1937
E. * In 1938
70. What year did Yakobeus introduce into clinical practice laparoscopic method of research:
A. In 1901
B. * In 1910
C. In 1927
D. In 1929
E. In 1929
71. What year did Yakobeus write the first monograph on laparoscopy:
A. In 1924
B. * In 1921
C. In 1925
D. In 1932
E. In 1936
72. What year Kelling first applied optical device to perform laparoscopy:
A. * In 1901
B. In 1902
C. In 1909
D. In 1926
E. In 1932
73. What year special vellum laparoscope optics and lighting was the first time to be designed?
A. In 1927
B. * In 1929
C. In 1930
D. In 1937
E. In 1945
74. When creating carboxyperitoneum what speed of the gas flow is considered optimal?
A. 1 L / min
B. 2,5 l / min
C. * 1,3 l / min
D. 3 l / min
E. 0,8 l / min
75. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute pancreatitis, setting the
second port is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium

D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
76. Which methods of sterilization is the most economical for laparoscopic equipment?
A. liquid
B. * gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
77. Which of the following stylets is more secure than others?
A. cone
B. pyramidal
C. * atraumatic
D. mixed
E. trapezoidal
78. 1. A basal temperature in the first phase of menstrual cycle must be?
A. 36.
B. 36,2-36,5.
C. 37.
D. 36,6-36,8.
E. * 37,1-37,4.
79. Which solution is used for sterilization of instruments with dielectric coating?
A. alcohol
B. hydrogen peroxide
C. iodine
D. * Sadex"
E. Plivasept"
80. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of abscess of Douglas space,
the second port input is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
81. Who first applied the visualization of the abdominal cavity:
A. * Ott in 1901
B. Kelling in 1901
C. Korbsh in 1921
D. Yakobeus in 1910
E. Steiner in 1924
82. Why do surgeons use fiber optic cable?
A. * To transfer the "cold" light
B. For gas supply
C. For the signal from the camera
D. To apply liquid
E. For coagulation
83. Why do surgeons use Luer cannula?

A. For the transmission of light

B. To connect the electrode
C. To connect the tube to the gas supply
D. * For traction of anterior abdominal wall
E. For a camcorder
84. Why do surgeons use monopolar coagulation?
A. Only for coagulation
B. To separate the tissues and coagulation of large vessels
C. Only for the dissection
D. * To separate tissues and coagulation of parenchymal organs
E. Only for coagulation of small vessels
85. Why do surgeons use reduction in carbon dioxide supply system?
A. To calculate the amount gas spent
B. * To safeguard insuflators of excessive gas pressure in the cylinder
C. To establish the rate of flow of gas into the abdominal cavity
D. To determine the quality of carbon dioxide
E. To clean the carbon impurities
86. Why use monopolar coagulation?
A. Only for coagulation
B. To separate the tissues and coagulation of large vessels
C. Only for the dissection
D. * None of the listed
E. Only for coagulation of small vessels
87. A reference to view the lower pole of the left kidney is:
A. The lower pole of the spleen
B. The greater curvature of the stomach body
C. * The lower edge of splenic angle of the colon
D. The outer edge of the descending colon
E. The medial edge of the descending colon
88. After the Veres needle introduction one must perform tests that indicate:
A. The pressure in the abdomen
B. * Location of the distal end of the needle
C. Depth of anesthesia
D. all answerss are correct
E. There is no right answer
89. As a preparation for laparoscopic aspiration biopsy one must wash syringe with:
A. saline
B. novocaine
C. formalin solution
D. solution of chlorhexidine
E. * no need to wash the syringe
90. Aspiration biopsy during laparoscopy is contraindicated in suspected:
A. Dermoid ovarian
B. Syphilis of liver
C. lymphoma of the spleen
D. * liver hemangiomas

E. Tuberculosis abscess
91. Aspiration biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated:
A. To clarify the nature of retroperitoneal tumors
B. To clarify the nature of retroperitoneal infiltration
C. To clarify the nature of changes in the pancreas
D. To clarify the nature of the diseases of the spleen
E. * for the differential diagnosis of adipose liver from its other diffuse diseases
92. Aspiration biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated:
A. When tumor formations anterior abdominal wall
B. If you suspect a tumor of retroperitoneal fat
C. tumors of bowel mesentery
D. If you suspect a pancreatic pseudocyst
E. * At external forms of endometriosis
93. Biopsy at laparoscopy is feasible in the study of all these tissues, except:
A. liver tissue
B. granular nodules of parietal peritoneum
C. * tumors of gallbladder
D. gallbladder lymph nodes
E. ovarian tissue
94. Biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated at all these issues, except:
A. Morphological differentiation of jaundice
B. selecting the type of chemotherapy
C. Specification of nosology
D. * Clarification of activity of liver cirrhosis
E. The differential diagnosis of benign tumors
95. Biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated at:
A. parasitic cyst of the liver
B. * chronic active hepatitis
C. metastatic liver
D. ovarian sclerosis
E. insuloma of pancreas
96. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cyst of the left lobe of the
liver, entering of the working port typically is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
97. Biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated when all of the following diseases except:
A. focal liver non-cyst diseases
B. diffuse liver diseases
C. lymphadenitis of unknown origin
D. ovarian tumors
E. * tumors of the spleen
98. Diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated routine for all these diseases, except:
A. Ascites of unknown origin

B. * Diverticulitis colon 12-finger

C. Diffuse liver disease
D. Female infertility
E. Splenomegaly
99. Diagnostic laparoscopy is scheduled in all these diseases, except:
A. ascites of unknown origin
B. * Cancer of the rectum
C. Diffuse liver disease
D. Female infertility
E. splenomegaly
100. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy to identify sources of limited peritonitis,
staging port for laparoscope typically is placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
101. Emergency diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated for all these states, except:
A. the patient with pain in the abdomen of unknown origin
B. suspected acute appendicitis
C. suspected perforation
D. suspected trophic disorders in fat suspenders colon
E. * jaundice of unknown origin
102. Emergency Diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated for all these states, except:
A. abdominal pain of unknown origin
B. suspected acute appendicitis
C. suspected perforation of the genitals
D. suspected trophic disorders in fat suspenders of colon
E. * Exacerbation of hemorrhoids
103. Emergency diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated:
A. To clarify the forms of acute pancreatitis
B. For the differential diagnosis between inflammatory diseases and ectopic pregnancy
C. to remove ascites at liver cirrhosis
D. to clarify the forms and prevalence of venous disorders with suspected mesenteric thrombosis
E. * all is right, except for to remove ascites at liver cirrhosis
104. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy to identify sources of limited peritonitis,
setting the second port is typically carried out
A. * Depending on the location
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
105. Emergency Diagnostic laparoscopy is indicated:
A. To clarify the forms of acute pancreatitis
B. For the differential diagnosis between inflammatory genital diseases and ectopic pregnancy
C. for the diagnosis of gastric ulcer
D. To clarify the forms and prevalence of venous disorders with suspected mesenteric thrombosis
E. * all right, except for for the diagnosis of gastric ulcer
106. For a better view of the spleen additional Trocar is introducted
A. * left upper quadrant
B. umbilical area
C. the left side
D. the right upper quadrant
E. above the vagina
107. For a better view of the stomach additional Trocar is introduced in
A. left upper quadrant
B. umbilical area
C. * the left side area
D. the right upper quadrant
E. above the vagina
108. For the view of the general bile duct one must:
A. Place the patient at reverse Trendelenburg position
B. Move the gallbladder toward the anterior abdominal wall
C. Bring the bottom edge of the 4th segment of the liver
D. shift the antrum distal
E. * all right, except for B
109. Gall bladder is easily accessible at the patient's view:
A. On the back at the horizontal position of the table
B. On the back with the head end of the table lowered
C. On the right side with painted head end table
D. * On the left side with the announced end of the table
E. The left side with lowered head end of the table
110. How many plots anterior abdominal wall is divided on:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 6
D. 7
E. * 9
111. If the optics at the distal end of the laparoscope is stained with blood or ascites, it is necessary:
A. Wipe the laparoscope to the greater omentum or liver
B. Rinse with saline
C. Wipe with cloth
D. * All of the listed
E. None of the listed
112. If the optics at the distal end of the laparoscope stained by ascites, it is necessary to:
A. Wipe the laparoscope to the greater omentum or liver
B. wash with physiologic solution
C. Wipe with cloth
D. * All of the above
E. None of the above
113. If the patient at laparoscopy had vomiting, you should not:
A. * Raise the head end of the table
B. Depress the head end of the table

C. To turn Head of the patient to the right

D. Get air off abdominal cavity
E. Stop study to cessation of vomiting
114. If the patient's left side with a lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Sigmoid
D. * appendix
E. Spleen
115. If the patient's left side with a lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Sigmoid
D. * the cecum
E. Spleen
116. If the patient's left side with a lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Sigmoid
D. * The right ovary
E. Spleen
117. When diagnostic laparoscopy for acute appendicitis abscess, optical input ports is placed
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel at the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovich point
E. At Kerr point
118. In a laparoscopic study can see all of the above, except:
A. liver
B. Spleen
C. Stomach
D. uterine appendages
E. * Lower ampullar rectum
119. In a laparoscopic study one can see all of the listed, except:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Stomach
D. Uterine appendages
E. * Adrenal gland
120. In the lateral fold there is:
A. Hepatic artery
B. portal vein
C. choledochus
D. * Inferior epigastric vessels
E. Obliterated umbilical artery

121. When diagnostic laparoscopy for acute appendicitis abscess, the second input port is
carried out
A. * In hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel on the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At Volkovich point
E. At Kerr point
122. In view of contours of the common bile duct duct must:
A. Put the patient into reverse Trendelenburg position
B. Increasing the pressure in the abdomen to 20 mmHg
C. Bring the bottom edge of the 4th segment of the liver
D. shift the gastric antrum distal
E. * all right, except for B.
123. Laparolifting - is:
A. * way to create space between the abdominal wall and the abdominal cavity without introducing
carbon dioxide
B. Method of fixing abdominal wall
C. Review of the abdominal cavity
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
124. Laparolifting - is:
A. * way to create space between the abdominal wall and the abdominal cavity without introducing
carbon dioxide
B. Method of cutting abdominal wall
C. Review of the abdominal cavity
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
125. Abdomen during laparoscopy is examined
A. * in the Trendelenburg position and a horizontal position on the right and left side
B. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, on the right side
C. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, on the left side
D. horizontally on the right and left side
E. in the Trendelenburg position, on the right and left side
126. Laparolifting is indicated when contraindications to insufflation:
A. because of the liver
B. * because of the cardiac system
C. because of the urinary system
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
127. Laparolifting is performed with contraindications to insufflation:
A. On the part of the liver
B. * On the part of the cardio-vascular system
C. On the part of the urinary system
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
128. Laparoscopic gable biopsy is contraindicated in all these diseases, except:
A. problematic blood coagulation system

B. cystic diseases of the liver

C. * polycystic ovaries
D. expressed cholestasis
E. focal diseases of the spleen
129. Laparoscopic research is contraindicated in all these cases, except:
A. Hemophilia
B. * intoxication
C. total adhesions in the abdominal cavity
D. a terminal state patient
E. pronounced flatulence
130. Laparoscopic research is contraindicated in all these cases, except:
A. Hemophilia
B. * Mild Anemia
C. total adhesions in the abdominal cavity
D. a terminal state patient
E. pronounced flatulence
131. Laparoscopy at low pressure - is:
A. pressure below 20 mm Hg. Art.
B. * pressure below 12 mm Hg. Art.
C. pressure below 15 mm Hg. Art.
D. pressure below 25 mm Hg. Art.
E. The pressure below 30 mm Hg. Art.
132. Liver biopsy under laparoscopic visual control was first performed by:
A. Henning
B. * Tracing
C. Naranho
D. Verhub
E. Lenz
133. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:
A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * Control of CO2 supply
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
134. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:
A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * Palmer
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
135. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:
A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * Aspiration
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov

136. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:

A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * negative pressure
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
137. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:
A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * Pressure insufflation
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
138. Location of Veres needle in abdominal is confirmed by test:
A. Stange
B. DeBakey
C. * gas flow
D. Pirogov
E. Shalimov
139. Acute biliary pancreatitis is characterized by
A. * visual picture of acute cholecystitis together with characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
D. dark red, brown or black pancreatic cancer, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal
cavity, the presence of "stearic plaques"
E. There is no specific signs
140. Low pressure laparoscopy is at:
A. pressure below 20 mm Hg.
B. * pressure below 12 mm Hg.
C. pressure below 15 mm Hg.
D. pressure below 25 mm Hg.
E. The pressure below 30 mm Hg.
141. Most safely trocars are administered in
A. Point of McBurney
B. * Point of Calc
C. above the vagina
D. In the middle between the navel and the symphysis
E. in the right upper quadrant
142. What process represents the IV type of smear at oncocytological examination?
A. the unchanged epithelium.
B. mild or moderate dysplasia.
C. cancer.
D. inflammatory process.
E. * intraepithelial cancer.
143. Needle biopsy during laparoscopy is indicated when:
A. cirrhosis
B. suspected thrombosis of the hepatic veins

C. * suspected liver amyloidosis

D. suspected lymphoma of the spleen
E. suspected tumor of the kidney
144. At diagnostic laparoscopy
A. * You can change the position of the patient
B. You can not change the position of the patient
C. You can change the position of the patient in the sagittal plane
D. You can change the position of the patient in the frontal plane
E. preferably is not to confuse the patient
145. Optimal for review of retrouterine-rectal space is the situation:
A. On the back of the horizontal position of the operating table
B. Reverse Trendelenburg
C. Trendelenburg position
D. Trendelenburg position and turn the patient on the right side
E. * Trendelenburg position and turn the patient on the left side
146. Pelvis should be examined with the patient:
A. On the back of the horizontal position of the table
B. On the back of the head at the lowered end of the table
C. On the right side of the raised head end of table
D. * On the left side of the raised head end of table
E. on the left side of the horizontal position of the table
147. Planned laparoscopy is indicated for all of the states except:
A. pain caused by adhesions in the abdominal cavity
B. cirrhosis
C. retention of ovarian cysts
D. pancreatic pseudocyst
E. * Renal colic
148. At diagnostic laparoscopy dark red, brown or black pancreas, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid
"stearic plaques" indicates
A. * Mixed pancreatic necrosis
B. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis
C. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
149. Planned laparoscopy is indicated when all of the following diseases, except
A. Small form of external endometriosis
B. ovarian sclerocystosis
C. subserous uterine myoma node
D. Syndrome of Elen - Master
E. * Peptic ulcer of duodenum
150. Planned therapeutic laparoscopy is indicated for all of the states except:
A. pain caused by adhesions in the abdominal cavity
B. cirrhosis
C. retention of ovarian cysts
D. pancreatic pseudocyst
E. * papillary serous ovarian cysts

151. Preparing the patient for emergency laparoscopy includes all of the above except:
A. decompression of the stomach
B. Identify the blood group and Rh
C. * Conduct siphon enema
D. Explain to the patient what help is needed from him during the investigation
E. Enter the intra-muscular 1 ml of 0.1% solution of atropine and 2% promedol
152. Preparing the patient for emergency laparoscopy includes all of the listed except:
A. Placing stomach tube
B. Identifying the blood group and Rh
C. * drink methylene blue
D. Explain to the patient that help is needed from him during the investigation
E. Enter the intra-muscular 1 ml of 0.1% solution of atropine sulfate and 2% promedol
153. Preparing the patient for routine laparoscopy includes all of the above except:
A. Do cleansing enemas the day before
B. On the night before the study to assign sedatives
C. Teach the patient to "inflate" the abdomen
D. Before the study to empty the bladder
E. * On the eve perform siphon enema
154. Preparing the patient for routine laparoscopy includes all of the listed except:
A. cleansing enemas
B. sedatives
C. teaching the patient to "inflate" the abdomen
D. emptying the bladder
E. * abdominal X-rays
155. Review of the appendix is performed trough:
A. upper right point of Calc
B. upper left point of Calc
C. * lower left point of Calc
D. the white line of the abdomen above the pubis
E. At the point of McBurney
156. Round ligament of the liver is projected onto the line connecting:
A. * Navel and right upper quadrant
B. Navel and the left upper quadrant
C. Navel and xyphoid
D. Umbilicus and symphysis
E. Navel and left inguinal quadrant
157. Routine therapeutic laparoscopy is indicated for all of the following diseases except:
A. Small form of external endometriosis
B. Ovarian sclerosis
C. subserous uterine myoma
D. Elena - Masters Syndrome
E. * Ulcerative Colitis
158. Sigmoid colon is available to view when the patient is:
A. On the back of the horizontal position of the table
B. On the back of the head end of the table lowered
C. On the left side of the horizontal position of the table

D. On the left side of the head at the closed end of the table
E. * on the right side with slightly lowered head end of the table
159. Stomach is easily accessible at the patient's view:
A. * On the back with head end of the table upwards
B. On the back at the horizontal position of the table
C. On the back with the head end of the table lowered
D. On the right side with painted head end table
E. On the left side with the announced end of the table
160. Survey of appendix should be at the position of the patient:
A. On the back of the horizontal position of the table
B. On the back of the head end of the table announced
C. On the right side of the lowered head end of table
D. * On the left side of the lowered head end of table
E. on the right side
161. At diagnostic laparoscopy focal fatty pancreatic necrosis is characterized by
A. * presence of "stearic plaques"
B. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
E. gland lobules clearly displays
162. The following areas of the abdomen are not neighboring:
A. mesogastrium and epigastrium
B. mesogastrium and hypogastrium
C. * hypogastrium and epigastrium
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
163. The line connecting the lower edges of the 10th ribs, divides abdomen on
A. * mesogastrium and epigastrium
B. mesogastrium and hypogastrium
C. hypogastrium and epigastrium
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
164. The line connecting the pelvic spines divides abdomen on
A. mesogastrium and epigastrium
B. * mesogastrium and hypogastrium
C. hypogastrium and epigastrium
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
165. At diagnostic laparoscopy hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis is characterized by
A. * presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the abdomen
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
E. gland lobules clearly displays
166. The right kidney can be easily seen when:
A. * summing the lower edge of the right lobe of the liver

B. shifting down transverse angle of the colon

C. shifting upwards hepatic angle of the colon
D. shifted laterally ascending colon
E. shifted medially ascending colon
167. The spleen is easily accessible at the patient's view:
A. On the back at the horizontal position of the table
B. On the back with the head end of the table lowered
C. * On the right side with painted head end table
D. On the left side with the announced end of the table
E. The left side with lowered head end of the table
168. To better view the gallbladder additional trocar introduced in
A. left upper quadrant
B. umbilical area
C. the left side of the area
D. * the right upper quadrant
E. above the vagina
169. At diagnostic laparoscopy intact pancreas is characterized by
A. * gland lobules clearly displayed
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
D. dark red, brown or black pancreas
E. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
170. To view appendix the additional trocar is injected into the peritoneal cavity in
A. the upper right point of Tracing
B. the upper left point of Tracing
C. * in the suprapubic area
D. the white line of the abdomen 5 cm above the umbilicus
E. At the point Mc BURNEO
171. Trocar deeply entered in the left iliac area may damage:
A. The left iliac vessels
B. * liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
172. Trocar deeply entered in the left iliac area may damage:
A. The left fallopian tube
B. * liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
173. At diagnostic laparoscopy lobular structure of pancreas indicates
A. * Intact pancreas
B. Biliary pancreatitis
C. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis
D. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
E. Mixed pancreatic necrosis

174. Trocar deeply entered in the left iliac area may damage:
A. Left ovary
B. * liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
175. Trocar deeply entered in the left iliac area may damage:
A. sigmoid
B. * liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
176. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. * Stomach
D. Uterus
E. bladder
177. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. * Spleen
D. Uterus
E. bladder
178. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. * The tail of the pancreas
D. Uterus
E. bladder
179. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. Liver
C. * Colon
D. Uterus
E. bladder
180. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. * Left adrenal
D. Uterus
E. bladder
181. Trocar deeply entered in the left subcostal area may damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. * The upper pole of the left kidney

D. Uterus
E. bladder
182. Trocar deeply entered the left side of the area can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * the descending colon
E. bladder
183. At diagnostic laparoscopy mixed biliary pancreatic necrosis is characterized by
A. * all specified
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
D. dark red, brown or black pancreas
E. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
184. Trocar deeply entered the left upper quadrant can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * small intestine
E. bladder
185. Trocar deeply entered the left upper quadrant can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * The left kidney
E. bladder
186. Trocar deeply introduced in suprapubic area may damage:
A. The left iliac vessels
B. liver
C. * bladder
D. The ascending colon
E. Stomach
187. At diagnostic laparoscopy presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity indicates
A. * Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
B. Focal necrotizing pancreatitis
C. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
188. Trocar deeply introduced in suprapubic area may damage:
A. The left iliac vessels
B. liver
C. * the uterus
D. The ascending colon
E. Stomach
189. Trocar deeply introduced in suprapubic area may damage:
A. The left iliac vessels

B. liver
C. * small intestine
D. The ascending colon
E. Stomach
190. Trocar deeply introduced in the epigastric region may damage:
A. * Stomach
B. Spleen
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. bladder
191. At diagnostic laparoscopy scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic
plaques" indicates
A. * Fatty pancreatic necrosis
B. Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
C. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
192. Trocar deeply introduced in the epigastric region may damage:
A. * pancreas
B. Spleen
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. bladder
193. Trocar deeply introduced in the epigastric region may damage:
A. * transverse colon
B. Spleen
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. bladder
194. Trocar deeply introduced in the epigastric region may damage:
A. * The left lobe of the liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. bladder
195. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * liver
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
E. bladder
196. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * Gallbladder
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus

E. bladder
197. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * 12-duodenum
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
E. bladder
198. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * The structures of hepato-duodenal links
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
E. bladder
199. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * Right kidney
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
E. bladder
200. Trocar deeply introduced in the right subcostal area may damage:
A. Stomach
B. * The upper pole of the right kidney
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus
E. bladder
201. Trocar deeply introduced in the umbilical area may damage:
A. Kidneys
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * omentum
E. bladder
202. Trocar deeply introduced in the umbilical area may damage:
A. Kidneys
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * small intestine
E. bladder
203. Trocar deeply introduced in the umbilical area may damage:
A. Kidneys
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * Aorta
E. bladder
204. At diagnostic laparoscopy with a picture of acute cholecystitis there are signs of inflammation of the
pancreas at such state as
A. * Biliary acute pancreatitis

B. Focal necrotizing pancreatitis

C. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
D. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
E. Intact pancreas
205. Trocar deeply introduced in the umbilical area may damage:
A. Kidneys
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * the inferior vena cava
E. bladder
206. Trocar deeply put into the right iliac area may damage:
A. * Right ovary
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
207. Trocar deeply put into the right iliac area may damage:
A. * The right fallopian tube
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
208. At initial stages liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge. This statement is
typical for laparoscopy at
A. * Hemochromatosis of liver
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
209. Trocar deeply put into the right iliac area may damage:
A. * Cecum
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
210. Trocar deeply put into the right iliac area may damage:
A. * Right iliac vessels
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. The ascending colon
E. bladder
211. Trocar deeply put into the right side of the area can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * The ascending colon

E. bladder
212. At laparoscopic examination
A. * You can change the position of the patient
B. You can not change the position of the patient
C. You can change the position of the patient in the sagittal plane
D. You can change the position of the patient in the frontal plane
E. No need to change the position of the patient
213. Trocar deeply put into the right side of the area can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * small intestine
E. bladder
214. Trocar deeply put into the right side of the area can damage:
A. Ovaries
B. liver
C. Stomach
D. * the right kidney
E. bladder
215. Trocar introduced along the linea alba above the navel is on its way passes the following layers of the
abdominal wall:
A. skin, straight muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum
D. skin, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
E. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
216. Trocar introduced along the linea alba below the umbilicus on its way passes the following layers of
the abdominal wall:
A. The skin, the front piece aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, anterior leaflet aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum
D. skin, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
E. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, anterior leaflet aponeurosis, rectus abdominis muscle, posterior leaflet
aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
217. Trocar introduced in the umbilical area is on its way passes the following layers of the abdominal
wall:
A. skin, rectus abdominal muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum
D. skin, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
E. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
218. Trocar put on the left or right iliac areas is on its way passes the following layers of the abdominal
wall:
A. The skin, the front piece aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, anterior leaflet aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum

D. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis of external oblique muscle, the internal oblique and
transverse muscles preperitoneal tissue, peritoneum
E. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
219. Trocar put on the left or right lateral parts is on its way passes the following layers of the abdominal
wall:
A. The skin, the front piece aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, anterior leaflet aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum
D. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, external, internal oblique and transverse muscles preperitoneal tissue,
peritoneum
E. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
220. Trocar put on the left or right subcostal areas on its way passes the following layers of the abdominal
wall:
A. The skin, the front piece aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
B. The skin, subcutaneous tissue, anterior leaflet aponeurosis, rectus muscle, peritoneum
C. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis and peritoneum
D. * The skin, subcutaneous fat, external, internal oblique and transverse muscles preperitoneal tissue,
peritoneum
E. The skin, subcutaneous fat, aponeurosis, preperitoneal fat and peritoneum
221. Upper and lower epigastric vessels are assigned to:
A. abdominal midline
B. Spigel line
C. The inner edge of the rectus abdominis muscle
D. On abdominal perianal line
E. * The medium of the rectus abdominis muscle
222. Urgent Care laparoscopy is indicated for all these states, except:
A. mesenteric thrombosis
B. * hepatic subcapsular hematoma
C. acute pancreatitis
D. acute cholecystitis
E. jaundice
223. Urgent laparoscopy is indicated for all these states, except:
A. mesenteric thrombosis
B. * Acute cystitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. jaundice
224. At laparoscopic examination enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder can be seen at
A. * acute simple cholecystitis
B. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
C. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous perforated cholecystitis
E. perforated cholecystitis
225. Vertical lines running along the outer edge of the rectus abdominis muscle separate epigastrium on
following areas:
A. The left and right side
B. The left and right iliac

C. * The left and right subcostal

D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
226. Vertical lines running along the outer edge of the rectus abdominis muscle separate mesogastrium on
following areas:
A. * The left and right side
B. The left and right iliac
C. The left and right subcostal
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
227. Vertical lines running along the outer edge of the rectus abdominis muscle separate hypogastrium on
following areas:
A. The left and right side
B. * The left and right iliac
C. The left and right subcostal
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
228. At laparoscopic examination on the background of hyperemia fibrin layers can be observed at
A. * acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated
E. perforated cholecystitis
229. What year did Calc first perform liver biopsy under laparoscopic visual control:
A. In 1941
B. * In 1943
C. In 1945
D. In 1946
E. In 1950
230. When planning therapeutic manipulation at acute pancreatitis laparoscope should be introduced into
the abdominal cavity through a:
A. upper right point of Calc
B. upper left point of Calc
C. * lower left point of Calc
D. the white line of the abdomen above the pubis
E. at the point of McBurney
231. When planning therapeutic manipulation in acute pancreatitis the additional trocars should be
introduced into the abdominal cavity in
A. The upper right point of Tracing
B. The upper left point of Tracing
C. * on the left and right side sections
D. on the outer edge of the rectus abdominis muscle in the left upper quadrant
E. on the outer edge of the rectus abdominis muscle in the right upper quadrant
232. At laparoscopic examination at acute gangrenous cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the
gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder

C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings

D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
233. With the patient lying on his back at the closed end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
234. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Stomach
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
235. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * The left lobe of the liver
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
236. With the patient lying on his back at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. * Abdominal esophagus
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. Spleen
237. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Sigmoid
D. * Omentum
E. Spleen
238. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * small intestine
D. sigmoid
E. Spleen
239. With the patient lying on his back in a horizontal position table well to examine:
A. Appendix
B. Pancreas
C. * transverse colon
D. sigmoid
E. Spleen
240. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:

A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * Uterus
E. Spleen
241. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * utero-rectal space
E. Spleen
242. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * bladder
E. Spleen
243. At laparoscopic examination at acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated characteristic appearance
of the gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
D. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
E. tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
244. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * uterine-bladder space
E. Spleen
245. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * Fallopian tubes
E. Spleen
246. With the patient lying on his back with lowered head end of the table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. * Ovaries
E. Spleen
247. At laparoscopic examination at acute phlegmonous cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the
gallbladder is following
A. * hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
248. With the patient lying on his right side with horizontal table well to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * Left side channel
249. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Sigmoid
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen
250. At laparoscopic examination at acute simple cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the gallbladder
is following
A. * enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
B. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
251. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Left ovary
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen
252. With the patient lying on his right side with lowered head end table well to examine:
A. Gallbladder
B. Pancreas
C. * Recto-sigmoid colon angle
D. The right ovary
E. Spleen
253. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table helps to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * Gallbladder
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
254. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table helps to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * duodenum
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
255. With the patient lying on the left side at the lowered terminal end of the table helps to examine:

A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. * Hepatic flexure of colon
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
256. With the patient lying on the left side in the horizontal position of the table helps to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * The ascending colon
257. With the patient lying on the left side in the horizontal position of the table helps to examine:
A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. the right lobe of the liver
D. Uterus
E. * Right side channel
258. With the patient lying on the right side at the lowered terminal end of the table well to examine:
A. * Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus
E. Ovaries
259. At laparoscopy on suspicion of extrahepatic bile duct cancer, the first port input is carried
out
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
260. At laparoscopy on suspicion of extrahepatic bile duct cancer, the second port input is
carried out
A. * In the midline epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
261. At laparoscopy on suspicion of liver cancer, entering the first port is carried out
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
262. At laparoscopy on suspicion of liver cancer, the introduction of instrumental port is
performed
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line

C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
263. At laparoscopy on suspicion of liver cysts, optical port input site is
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
264. At laparoscopy on suspicion of liver cysts, the second input port is carried out at
A. * Epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
265. At laparoscopy on suspicion of right adnexitis, second port input site is
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
266. At laparoscopy on suspicion of right adnexitis, the first port site is
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
267. For laparoscopy at perforated ulcers, optical ports site is
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
268. For laparoscopy for acute pancreatitis second port input is made
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
269. For laparoscopy for acute pancreatitis, enter of the first port is carried out
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel at the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
270. For laparoscopy for acute simple appendicitis, instrumental port is set

A. * Below the navel in hypogastrium

B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. At midline abdominal epigastrium 5 cm above the umbilicus
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovich point
271. What smear is obligatory at routine gynecological examination before laparoscopy?
A. on hormonal cytology.
B. on microflora.
C. on the degree of cleanness.
D. on a hormonal mirror.
E. * on oncocytology.
272. For laparoscopy for acute simple appendicitis, setting the port to perform laparoscopy is
conducted
A. At McBurney point
B. At Volkovich point
C. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel at the median line
D. At midline abdominal epigastrium 5 cm above the umbilicus
E. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 5 cm below the navel
273. At laparoscopic examination hemochromatosis of liver is characterized by
A. * liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh lymphatic vessels
C. during laparoscopy liver is enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is smooth gray-
brown.
D. intense brownish-green color
E. moderate greenish tint
274. A specific antyamebic medicine is:
A. amynoglicozides
B. metronidazol
C. * emetine, chloroquine, diphosphate
D. quinine
E. cephalosporines
275. At laparoscopic examination of the greater omentum tightly wraps gallbladder and prevents
observation at
A. * perforated cholecystitis
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
E. none of listed
276. What solution is used for conducting of liquid hysteroscopy?
A. a 5% solution of glucose.
B. a 10% solution of chloride of sodium.
C. gemodez.
D. a 40% glucose solution.
E. * polygluin.
277. At laparoscopic examination of the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal
cavity can be seen at
A. * acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated

B. acute cholecystitis simple

C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
E. perforated cholecystitis
278. At laparoscopic examination of the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers can be observed in
A. * acute gangrenous cholecystitis
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated
E. perforated cholecystitis
279. Black spots with fibrinous layers can be observed in
A. * acute gangrenous cholecystitis
B. normal
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute perforation
E. perforated cholecystitis
280. What sounding of uterine cavity is not used for?
A. for determination of permeability of cervical canal.
B. for determination straight of cervical canal.
C. for determination of length of uterine cavity.
D. for the exposure of tumors in the uterine cavity.
E. * for the exposure of tumors of ovaries.
281. Brownish-green color characteristic of the liver at laparoscopy
A. * Obstructive jaundice
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Norm
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Viral hepatitis
282. Cancer of the gallbladder under review is characterized by the following features
A. * the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
E. none of the listed
283. Change in position during laparoscopic examination is achieved by
A. * manipulation of table, to which the patient is fixed
B. manipulation of patient
C. manipulation of table, to which the patient is fixed sagittally
D. manipulation of table, to which the patient is fixed frontally
E. manipulation of table, to which the patient is fixed by height
284. Chronic calculous cholecystitis under review is characterized by the following features
A. * gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface

E. none of the listed

285. Dark red, brown or black pancreatic cancer, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal
cavity, "stearic plaques" indicates
A. * Mixed pancreatic necrosis
B. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis
C. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
286. During laparoscopic examination, surgeon pays attention to
A. * shape and size of organs, their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumor, metastasis and
free fluid in the abdomen
B. shape and size of organs, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in
the abdomen
C. shape and size of their color, signs of inflammation, tumor, metastasis and free fluid in the abdomen

D. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, free fluid in the abdomen
E. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumors
287. During laparoscopy, the liver is enlarged, thick consistency, the surface of the liver is smooth gray-
brown. This statement is typical for laparoscopy at
A. * Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
288. Edema of the gallbladder under viewed characterized by the following features
A. * the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
289. Empyema of the gallbladder under review is characterized by the following features
A. * the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
290. Enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder can be seen at
A. * acute simple cholecystitis
B. normal gallbladder
C. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated
E. perforated cholecystitis
291. What test is not taken into account at determination of cervix index before hysteroscopy?
A. quantity of mucus.
B. mucus tension.
C. symptom of pupil.
D. symptom of fern.
E. * basal temperature.
292. Fibrinous layers can be observed in
A. * acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. norm
D. acute perforated gangrenous cholecystitis
E. perforated cholecystitis
293. Fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish net of hepatic lymph vessels is characteristic for
laparoscopy at
A. * Viral hepatitis B
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Obstructive jaundice
294. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis is characterized by
A. * presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
B. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity,
the presence of "stearic plaques"
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis together with characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas
E. There is no specific sign
295. What examination of gynecological patient before laparoscopy one begins with?
A. the life history taking.
B. the illness history taking.
C. an external inspection.
D. gynecological examination.
E. * finding out passport data.
296. For hemochromatosis of liver during laparoscopy is typical
A. * liver surface smooth, dark brown
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels
C. liver is smooth gray-brown.
D. intense brownish-green color
E. moderate greenish tint
297. For liver in obstructive cholangitis following is typical
A. * moderate greenish tint
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh lymphatic vessels
C. during laparoscopy liver is enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is brown
D. intense green color
E. liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
298. Greenish tint of liver is characteristic for laparoscopy at
A. * Obstructive cholangitis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Normally

299. Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis is characterized by

A. * presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity,
the presence of "stearic plaques"
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis together with characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas
E. There is no specific sign
300. In acute gangrenous cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
301. In acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
D. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
302. In acute phlegmonous cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
303. In liver thin capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels. This statement
is typical for laparoscopy at
A. * Viral hepatitis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Obstructive jaundice
304. In obstructive cholangitis liver characterized
A. * moderate greenish tint
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh lymphatic vessels
C. during laparoscopy liver is enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is smooth gray-
brown
D. intense brownish-green color
E. at early stages of liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
305. In obstructive jaundice in laparoscopic examination liver has
A. * intense brownish-green color
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels
C. liver enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is smooth gray-brown
D. moderate greenish tint
E. at the initial stages liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
306. In viral hepatitis for liver during laparoscopy most characteristic is

A. * fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels
B. liver enlarged, thick consistency, liver is smooth gray-brown.
C. intense brownish-green color
D. moderate greenish tint
E. liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
307. Intact gallbladder under review is characterized by the following features
A. * none of the listed
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
E. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
308. Intact pancreas is characterized by
A. * lobular gland structure
B. at the surface "of stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
D. dark red pancreas
E. none of the listed
309. Intense brownish-green color is the characteristic data of the liver at laparoscopy when
A. * Obstructive jaundice
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Viral hepatitis
310. Laparoscopic diagnostic review is conducted
A. * consistently better from right to left and top to bottom
B. consistently better left to right and top to bottom
C. not consistently better from right to left and from top to bottom
D. consistently better from right to left
E. consistently better from top to bottom
311. Liver is granular and nodular. This statement is typical for laparoscopy at
A. * Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Norm
E. Viral hepatitis
312. After the Veres needle introduction one must perform tests that indicate:
A. The pressure in the abdomen
B. * Location of the distal end of the needle
C. Depth of anesthesia
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
313. Lobular structure of pancreas suggests
A. * Normal pancreas
B. Biliary pancreatitis
C. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis

D. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis

E. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
314. Mixed pancreatic necrosis is characterized by
A. * dark red, brown or black pancreas, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity,
the presence of "stearic plaques"
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis together with characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas
E. There is no specific signs
315. Moderate greenish hue of liver is characteristic data at laparoscopy at
A. * Obstructive cholangitis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
316. Overview laparoscopy is conducted
A. * sequentially from left to right and top to bottom
B. consistently better left to right and top to bottom
C. not consistently better from right to left and from top to bottom
D. not consistently better from right to left
E. consistently better from top to bottom
317. Primary biliary cirrhosis is characterized by the following
A. * liver enlarged, thick consistency, smooth surface of the liver gray-brown
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels
C. intense brownish-green color
D. moderate greenish tint
E. surface of the liver is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
318. Primary biliary cirrhosis is characterized by the following at review
A. * during laparoscopy liver is enlarged, thick consistency, the surface of the liver is smooth gray-brown
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh lymphatic vessels
C. intense brownish-green color
D. moderate greenish tint
E. surface of the liver is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
319. Scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques" indicates
A. * Fatty pancreatic necrosis
B. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
C. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
320. Surface of liver is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge. This statement is typical for
laparoscopy at
A. * Hemochromatosis of liver
B. Norm
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis

321. The gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface in such pathology as
A. * Cancer of the gallbladder
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
E. None of the
322. The gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries is in such pathologies as
A. * Empyema of the gallbladder
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
323. The gallbladder is enlarged, streched, whitish and blue color in such disease as
A. * Edema of the gallbladder
B. Empyema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
324. Where is a smear taken for oncocytology before hysteroscopy?
A. from the lateral fornix of vagina and cervical canal.
B. from vaginal part of uterine cervix.
C. from the back fornix of vagina and cervical canal.
D. from a cervical canal.
E. * from vaginal part of uterine cervix and cervical canal.
325. The liver is enlarged, thick consistency, the surface of the liver is smooth gray-brown. This statement
is typical for laparoscopy at
A. * Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
326. The presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity can be seen at
A. * acute perforated gangrenous cholecystitis
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. norm
E. perforated cholecystitis
327. The presence of connections of gallbladder with surrounding organs, constriction scars or sclerosis is
observed in such pathology as
A. * Chronic calculous cholecystitis
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
328. The presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity indicates
A. * Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis

B. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis

C. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
329. The surface of liver is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge. This statement is typical for
laparoscopy at
A. * Pigmentary cirrhosis of liver
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Norm
E. Viral hepatitis
330. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder can prevent overview at
A. * probable bladder perforation
B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
E. acute gangrenous cholecystitis, perforated
331. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy for intra-tumor staging, the first port input is typically carried
out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
332. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspected perforated ulcer, input of optical port is typically
carried out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
333. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute adnexitis, enter of the first port is typically
made
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. At Kerr point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
334. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute appendicitis, port for laparoscope is
typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At midline of abdominal wall 10 cm upwards the navel
D. At midline in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
335. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of hepatitis input of optical port is typically carried
out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
336. Together with visual picture of acute cholecystitis characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas indicate
A. * Biliary pancreatitis
B. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis
C. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
D. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
E. Intact pancreas
337. Usually abdominal organs during laparoscopy are examined
A. * in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, and the right and left side
B. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, and on the right side
C. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, and the left side
D. horizontal, and the right and left side
E. in the Trendelenburg position, and the right and left side
338. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute cholecystitis, input of optical port
is typically carried out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. At Kerr point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
339. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute salpingitis, staging port for
laparoscope is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
340. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cirrhosis, enter of the first port is
conducted
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
341. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cirrhosis, staging port for laparoscope
typically is placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
342. When diagnostic laparoscopic examination in obstructive jaundice liver has

A. * brownish-green intensive color

B. soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels
C. liver enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is smooth gray-brown
D. moderate greenish tint
E. liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
343. When diagnostic laparoscopy at hepatitis to liver most characteristic is
A. * fine capillary net of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels whitish net
B. liver enlarged, thick consistency, surface of liver is smooth gray-brown.
C. intense brownish-green color
D. moderate greenish tint
E. at the initial stages liver surface is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
344. When diagnostic laparoscopy attention is always payed to
A. * signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in the abdominal cavity, the shape and size
of their color, vascular pattern
B. shape and size of organs, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in
the abdomen
C. shape and size of their color, signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in the abdomen

D. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, free fluid in the abdomen
E. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumors
345. When diagnostic laparoscopy availability of connections gallbladder with surrounding organs,
bladder constriction scar or sclerosis observed at
A. * Chronic calculous cholecystitis
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Cancer
E. Normal gallbladder
346. When diagnostic laparoscopy body surface is smooth, the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and
blue color at
A. * Edema of the gallbladder
B. Empyema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic non-calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer
E. Norm
347. When diagnostic laparoscopy chronic calculous cholecystitis is characterized by the following
A. * availability of connections of gallbladder with surrounding organs
B. body surface is smooth, the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. dark purple color, gallbladder is enlarged
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
348. When diagnostic laparoscopy gallbladder empyema under review is as follows
A. * the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through serous membrane there is translucent mesh of
blood vessels and capillaries
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed

349. When diagnostic laparoscopy gallbladder cancer during the inspection is as follows
A. * the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. all of the listed
E. none of the listed
350. When diagnostic laparoscopy gallbladder edema during the inspection is visualized as follows
A. * The gallbladder is enlarged, streched, whitish and blue color
B. Gallbladder of dark purple color extensive vascular net shines through the serosa
C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
351. When diagnostic laparoscopy intact gallbladder at the review is as follows
A. * none of the listed
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. availability of connections of gallbladder with surrounding organs
D. on the surface of the bubble whitish mark nodes
E. Everything mentioned
352. When diagnostic laparoscopy, overview is achieved by
A. * manipulation of table the patient is fixed to
B. manipulation of patient
C. manipulation of table to which the patient is fixed only sagittally
D. manipulation of table to which the patient is fixed only frontally
E. manipulation of table to which the patient is fixed only by height
353. At diagnostic laparoscopy the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface at
A. * Cancer
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Chronic non-calculous cholecystitis
E. Normal gallbladder
354. At diagnostic laparoscopy the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous
membrane translucent mesh of blood vessels and capillaries. It characterizes
A. * Empyema of the gallbladder
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic non-calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer
E. Normal gallbladder
355. At perforated cholecystitis characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
D. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
E. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
356. Antibiotic therapy of liver abscesses should be based on the following principles
A. the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. a combination of antibiotics

C. antibiotics only after determining the nature of its flora

D. degree in accounting bile excretion of antibiotics
E. * all listed
357. Choose the most common cause of liver abscess:
A. * suppurative cholangitis
B. acute calculous cholecystitis
C. Hepatitis C.
D. pancreatic head cancer obturation of the common bile duct
E. primary liver cancer
358. Clinic extrahepatic portal hypertension does not include:
A. Splenomegaly with hypersplenism or without
B. Splenomegaly with hypersplenism
C. varicose veins of the esophagus
D. * ascites
E. cholesterosis of gallbladder

(): : 12
Endoscopic surgery situational
:

:
1. ? Patient M., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. o perform a diagnostic laparoscopy
on suspicion of cyst of the right lobe of the liver, staging port for laparoscope is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
2. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of abscess of Douglas space, the second port input is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
3. Patient K., 52 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in abdomen, nausea,
general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy to
identify sources of limited peritonitis, setting the second port is typically carried out
A. * Depending on the location
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
4. Patient K., 59 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. To perform a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of acute appendicitis, setting the working port is typically carried out
A. * On The median line below the umbilicus in hypogastrium
B. On the midline of the abdomen in mesogastrium
C. At midline abdominal
D. Epigastrium midline of the abdomen 2-3 cm below the xiphoid processus
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
5. Patient S., 25 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of abscess of Douglas space, the first port is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
6. Patient M., 30 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of acute cholecystitis, second port is typically inserted
A. * Epigastrium midline of the abdomen 2-3 cm below the xiphoid processus

B. At Kerr point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
7. Patient Z., 38 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. To perform a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of acute adnexitis, instrumental port typically is placed
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. At Kerr point
C. In the periumbilical area
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
8. Patient J., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspicion of acute salpingal disorders, setting the working port is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
9. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy for acute simple
appendicitis, instrumental port is set
A. * Below the navel in hypogastrium
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. At midline abdominal epigastrium 5 cm above the umbilicus
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovich point
10. Patient K., 40 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. To perform a diagnostic
laparoscopy on suspected perforated ulcer, the introduction of instrumental conducting port is done
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
11. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When diagnostic laparoscopy for
acute appendicitis abscess, the second input port is carried out
A. * In hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel on the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At Volkovich point
E. At Kerr point
12. Patient L., 27 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. In the implementation of
laparoscopy over suspected salpingitis, preparing the second port site is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen below the navel in hypogastrium

B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line

C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
13. Patient A., 36 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy on suspicion of
hepatitis, input of the second port is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the umbilicus
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel in the midline
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
14. Patient R., 45 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. At laparoscopy on suspicion of
extrahepatic bile duct cancer, the second port input is carried out
A. * In the midline epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
15. Patient E., 67 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy on perforated
ulcer a second port input is carried out
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel on the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
16. Patient M., 55 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy on suspicion of
liver echinococcosis, setting the second port is carried out
A. * Epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
17. Patient N., 34 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. At laparoscopy on suspicion of
liver cysts, the second input port is carried out at
A. * Epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
18. Patient R., 78 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy on limited local
peritonitis, instrumental port setting is done
A. * Depending on the localization of process

B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel

C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
19. Patient F., 24 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. At laparoscopy on suspicion of
right adnexitis, second port input site is
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
20. After laparoscopic surgery for cholelithiasis, the whole set of equipment requires laparoscopic
sterilization. What method of sterilization is used for video cameras?
A. * liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
21. During the performance of diagnostic laparoscopy surgeon decided to perform a gable biopsy. What
tool do a biopsy in this case?
A. Veresha Needle
B. Deschamps Needle
C. Biopsy Needle
D. Plain needle
E. * biopsy forceps
22. Female, 28 years old, complains of increasing abdominal weakness over the last year. OBJECTIVE:
abdomen is enlarged symmetrically, with percussion of the abdomen in lateral canals and above the
pubis - obtuse sound, slight pain at all abdomen, no muscle tension and signs of peritoneal irritation.
According to ultrasound there is a free fluid in the abdomen in a large quantity. Recommended to
diagnostic laparoscopy. Endovideosurgical complex consists of:
A. Videocomplex
B. Systems of aspiration and irrigation
C. Systems of insufflation
D. Coagulation Systems
E. * All answers are correct
23. For the gynecological endoscopic surgery nurse should prepare hysteroscopic set. What method of
sterilization used for the hysteroscope?
A. * liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
24. Patient I., 46 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. In the implementation of laparoscopy
on suspicion of pelvic tumor, setting the working port is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line

C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel

D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
25. Male, 28 years old, complains o increasing of abdomen, weakness during the last year.
OBJECTIVE: abdomen is enlarged symmetrically, at percussion of the abdomen in lateral canals and
above the pubis appears the obtuse sound, slight pain at all abdominal parts, muscle tension and no
signs of peritoneal irritation. According to ultrasound there is a free fluid in the abdomen in a large
quantity. What is the recommended diameter of laparoscope for the diagnostic laparoscopy?
A. 2 mm
B. 4 mm
C. * 5 mm
D. 10 mm
E. 20 mm
26. Patient '47 entered complaining of mild abdominal pain. Based on the review, the results of clinical
tests and examinations exhibited a preliminary diagnosis - liver disease. The surgeon plans to perform
aspiration biopsy of the liver. What tool use to do a liver biopsy in this case?
A. Veresha Needle
B. Deschamps Needle
C. * Biopsy Needle
D. Plain needle
E. biopsy forceps
27. Patient '52 delivered in urgent order with complaints of persistent pain in the right upper quadrant
during the day. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of fatty foods. On examination
the abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Ortner. For
ultrasound data of the gallbladder its wall has a double contour, containing the calculus in the lumen.
What instrument is used to dissect the gallbladder from his bed?
A. retractors
B. Surgical clamp
C. Anatomical clamp
D. * monopolar electrode
E. clipator
28. Patient '67 arrived with complaints of frequent constipation, bloating. When performing colonoscopy
the endoscopist failed to pass the rectal-sigmoid angle of colon. Was decided to perform the
diagnostic laparoscopy. What tool should impose the Colon-Colon anastomosis?
A. Linear stapler
B. * Circular stapler
C. System of electrocoagulation Ligasure
D. Morselator
E. There is no right answer
29. Patient '23 entered complaining on severe abdominal pain, which originally appeared in the
epigastrium and after 2 hours migrated to the right iliac area. The patient exhibited the diagnosis of
acute appendicitis. To view the appendix is optimal to use laparoscope:
A. * 0 laparoscope 5 mm
B. laparoscope 30 5 mm
C. 45 C. laparoscope 5 mm
D. 0 laparoscope 10mm
E. 45 laparoscope 10mm

30. Patient '33 entered complaining on severe abdominal pain, which originally appeared in the
epigastrium and in 2 hours migrated to the right iliac area. The patient exhibited the diagnosis of
acute appendicitis. What laparoscopic instrument the surgeon may apply to ligate the appendix?
A. clipsator
B. Anatomical clamp
C. monopolar coagulation
D. Needle of Deschamps
E. * Instrument for loading of needles
31. Patient '42 delivered in urgent order with complaints of persistent pain in the epigastrium and right
hypochondrium within hours. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of spicy food. On
examination the abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant and right side. Positive
symptom of Blumberg. Was suspected the perforated ulcer. What instrument in this case it will be
possible to conduct for closure of ulcer?
A. Circular stapler
B. Linear stapler
C. * The standard laparoscopic needle holder
D. clipastor
E. dissector
32. Patient '42 delivered in urgent order with complaints on pain epigastricm area during the last 10
hours. Complaints appeared after the initiation of diet and alcohol abuse. On examination, the
abdomen is slightly swollen, involved in breathing, during palpation he feeels the acute pain in the
epigastrium and left upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Mayo-Robson. According to ultrasound
there is a liquid in the omental bag. Which tool is recommended to disconnect the tissues?
A. L-shaped monopolar electrode
B. "universal" Clip
C. * dissector
D. curved scissors
E. bipolar forceps
33. Patient A., 36 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When diagnostic laparoscopy the gallbladder
is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh of blood vessels
and capillaries. It characterizes
A. * Empyema of the gallbladder
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic non-calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer
E. Normal gallbladder
34. Patient '43, is prepared for the diagnostic laparoscopy to clarify the diagnosis. What is considered to
be the least traumatic tool for capturing intestine?
A. dissector
B. * Babcock clamp type
C. Anatomical clip
D. 5-petaled Retractor
E. None of the above
35. Patient '47 admitted with complaints of mild abdominal pain. Based on the review, the results of
clinical tests and examinations exhibited a preliminary diagnosis - a benign tumor of the left ovary.
What tool do fixing the uterus in this case?
A. retainer of the "corkscrew"
B. Morselator
C. * uterine manipulator
D. clamp type "crocodile"
E. The correct answer is missing
36. 32 year old patient during the recent week marks fever, pain in the chest. preliminary diagnosis
abscess of the right lung. Differential diagnosis of chronic lung abscess is made with:
A. * atelectasis
B. bronchiectasis
C. pneumonia
D. lymphadenitis
E. emphisema
37. Patient '47 entered complaining of mild abdominal pain. Based on the review, the results of clinical
tests and examinations exhibited a preliminary diagnosis - liver disease. What tool is used for a liver
biopsy?
A. Veres Needle
B. Deschamps Needle
C. Biopsy Needle
D. Plain needle
E. * biopsy forceps
38. Patient B., 64 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Chronic calculous cholecystitis under review
is characterized by the following features
A. * gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
39. Patient '60 entered the hospital with suspected of chronic active hepatitis and echinococcosis. What
kind of endoscope may see the diaphragmatic surface of the liver?
A. 0 laparoscope
B. 30 laparoscope
C. 0 C. Toracoscope
D. Toracoscope 30
E. * 45 laparoscope
40. Patient '62 delivered to the hospital complaining on persistent pain in the left upper quadrant for 6
months. On examination, the abdomen is moderately tender in the left upper quadrant. Symptoms of
peritoneal irritation are absent. When a routine splenectomy which of these methods are allowed for
coagulation of splenic artery?
A. monopolar coagulation
B. Bipolar coagulation
C. System "Harmonica"
D. * System Ligasure
E. monopolar coagulation using endoloop
41. Patient 33 yearsold admitted with complaints on severe abdominal pain, which originally appeared in
the epigastrium and left upper quadrant. The patient exhibited a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. What
type of coagulation is safer?
A. monopolar coagulation
B. * monocoagulastion using endoloop

C. Bipolar coagulation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
42. Patient 53 years old, taken to hospital with complaints of abdominal pain, radiating to the rectum,
weakness, significant bleeding during menstruation, during the last 2 years. The abdomen is tense,
slightly painful in the lower regions, negative symptoms of peritoneal irritation, palpable round lesion
above the vagina. What tool is used to do fixing the uterus in its laparoscopic extirpation?
A. retainer of the "corkscrew"
B. Morselator
C. * uterine manipulator
D. clamp type "crocodile"
E. The correct answer is missing
43. Patient B., '27, was operated on adhesive disease. The main tool for this type of transaction is a
monopolar electrode of L-type. What method of sterilization of the tool is the best?
A. * liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
44. Patient B., 56years old, admitted with complaints of persistent pain in the right upper quadrant during
the day. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of fatty foods. On examination the
abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Ortner. The laparoscopic
cholecystectomy is performed to patient. To stop bleeding from the liver during the allocation of the
gallbladder can use this tool:
A. * monopolar electrode type "scoop"
B. Surgical clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. Bipolar Forceps
E. clip of the "universal"
45. Patient B., 75 years old, was admitted with complaints of frequent constipation, bloating. When
performing colonoscopy the endoscopist failed to pass the rectal-sigmoid angle. Was prescribed the
diagnostic laparoscopy. Before puncture by Veres needle it is need to:
A. * Fix the abdominal cavity
B. press the epigastric
C. press the left and right side
D. Add the liquid into the urinary catheter
E. Ask permission from the anesthesiologist
46. Patient B., 65 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Chronic calculous cholecystitis under review
is characterized by the following features
A. * gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
C. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed

47. Patient H., '29, who entered with complaints on icteric skin and sclera, and pain in the right upper
quadrant. After the survey was diagnosed calculous cholecystitis and laparoscopic cholecystectomy
performed using: dissector, 2 anatomical clips, surgical clamp of crocodile type and monopolar
electrode. At what temperature of sterilization of laparoscopic instruments allowed in drying case?
A. 100-120 C
B. 140-160 C
C. 170-180 C
D. 190-200 C
E. * this type of sterilization is not available C
48. Patient H., '29, who entered with complaints on icteric skin and sclera, and pain in the right upper
quadrant. After the survey was diagnosed calculous cholecystitis and laparoscopic cholecystectomy
performed using laparoscopic trocar and plastic tools. What method of sterilization is used for this
type of instrument?
A. liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. * None of the above
49. patient is scheduled to perform diagnostic laparoscopy. On examination, abdominal surgeon found
scar from lower-middle laparotomy. Which option of setting the optical trocar is safest in this case?
A. With the creation of the carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of
pyramidal trocar stylet
B. With the creation of the carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of
noninvasive trocar stylet
C. With the creation of the carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and trocar followed by administration of
Visiport type
D. * Hasson trocar setting by the open way
E. None of the above options is safe
50. Patient K. '43, after the surgery the on chronic calculous cholecystitis was used dissector, 2
anatomical clips, surgical clamp crocodile type and monopolar electrode. At what temperature is for
the presterilizing processing of the laparoscopic instruments?
A. * 50 C
B. 20 C
C. 30 C.
D. 90 C
E. 120 C
51. Patient K. '43, after the surgery the on chronic calculous cholecystitis was used dissector, 2
anatomical clips, surgical clamp crocodile type and monopolar electrode. What is the maximum
allowable temperature in the drying case to dry the laparoscopic instruments after the
presterilization?
A. 50 C
B. * 85 C
C. 30 C.
D. 100 C
E. 120 C
52. Patient K. '43, after the surgery the on chronic calculous cholecystitis was used dissector, 2
anatomical clips, surgical clamp crocodile type and monopolar electrode. It is necessary to conduct
sterilization of used instruments. Which solution is carried out for sterilization of instruments with
dielectric coating?

A. alcohol
B. hydrogen peroxide
C. iodine
D. * Saydeks"
E. Plivasept"
53. Patient K., 35 years old, admitted with complaints of persistent pain in the right upper quadrant
during the day. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of fatty foods. On examination
the abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Ortner. The
laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed to patient. Which tool is used to overlay clips on cystic
duct?
A. Circular Stapler
B. Linear stapler
C. * clipator
D. System Ligasure
E. All answers are correct
54. Patient C., 23 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. The gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple
color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh of blood vessels and capillaries is in such
pathologies as
A. * Empyema of the gallbladder
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
55. Patient K., 35 years old, admitted with complaints of persistent pain in the right upper quadrant
during the day. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of fatty foods. On examination
the abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Ortner. The patient
was prescribed for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the operation the gear failed. What is the
purpose of gear?
A. To calculate the amount spent gas
B. * To safeguard the insuflators of excessive gas pressure in the cylinder
C. To establish the rate of flow of gas into the abdominal cavity
D. To determine the quality of carbon dioxide
E. For purification of carbon impurities from impurities
56. Patient K., 43 years old, was admitted with complaints of persistent pain in the right upper quadrant
during the day. The complaints came after a diet violation and abuse of fatty foods. On examination
the abdomen is sharply painful in the right upper quadrant. Positive symptom of Ortner. The
laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed to patient. Which tool is used to overlay clips on cystic
artery?
A. System Ligasure
B. Linear stapler
C. Circular Stapler
D. * clipator
E. All answers are correct
57. Patient K., 45 years old, was admitted with complaints of frequent constipation, bloating. When
performing colonoscopy endoscopist failed to pass the rectal-sigmoid angle. Was prescribed the
diagnostic laparoscopy. During surgical manipulation surgeon asked the nurse to give the Veres
needle. What is this tool?
A. Tool for puncture the tissue

B. * Tool for puncture of the abdominal cavity

C. Tool for insertion the aponeurosis
D. tool for applying the intracorporalsutures
E. Tool for insertion the stomach
58. Patient M., '42 was performed arthroscopic surgery for meniscal injury of the knee joint. After the
surgery instruments require sterilization. What method of sterilization is used for fiber optic cable?
A. liquid
B. * gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. All of the above
59. Patient M., '51 was held laparoscopic surgery on ovarian apoplexy. The operation was conducted
using 4 multiple use access tools. What method of sterilization for trocar is used?
A. liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. * dry-air
E. All of the above
60. Patient P., '48, when performing laparoscopic surgery on chronic calculous cholecystitis
complications arose such as perforation gallbladder. There was a need to wash the abdominal cavity.
What is the solution used in the suction-irrigator?
A. 5% glucose
B. furatsillina
C. * Physiological soloution
D. A solution with using antibiotic
E. chlorhexidine
61. Patient R., 58r., Appealed with complaints on violations of urination, hematuria. After a physical and
MRI study was diagnosed the prostate cancer with Mts to the regional lymph nodes. What method of
laparoscopic surgery is the leading in the treatment of this pathology?
A. multiportal laparoscopy
B. Robot-assisted laparoscopy
C. * one-port laparoscopy
D. laparoscopy through natural openings
E. Laparolifting
62. Patient R., 58r., Appealed with complaints on violations of urination, hematuria. After a physical and
MRI study was diagnosed the prostate cancer with Mts to the regional lymph nodes. There was a
robot-assisted laparoscopy. What method of sterilization of instruments used for laparoscopic robot
da Vinci?
A. liquid
B. gas
C. autoclaving
D. dry-air
E. * no correct answer
63. Patient C., 25 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. The gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple
color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh of blood vessels and capillaries is in such
pathologies as
A. * Empyema of the gallbladder

B. Edema of the gallbladder

C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
64. Patient, 23 years old, was taken to hospital urgently, complaining on pain in the abdomen, more to the
right, radiating to the rectum, dizziness. The above symptoms appeared suddenly at night. Last
menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Objectively: skin is pale, pulse - 92 for 1 min, body temperature -
36.6 0C, blood pressure - 100/60 mm Hg. Art. Abdomen is slightly tense, slightly painful in the lower
regions, the symptoms of peritoneal irritation are weakly-positive. Analysis of blood: hemoglobin -
98 g / l. By which of these models of laparoscopes is the best to perform the observing laparoscopy in
this case?
A. 0 laparoscope 5 mm
B. * laparoscope 30 5 mm
C. 45 laparoscope 5 mm
D. 0 laparoscope 10mm
E. 45 laparoscope 10mm
65. 33 year old patient during the recent week marks fever, pain in the chest. The preliminary diagnosis -
an abscess of the right lung. Differential diagnosis of chronic lung abscess is made with:
A. atelectasis
B. bronchiectasis
C. pneumonia
D. * tumors of the lung
E. lymphadenitis
66. patient, 43 years old, taken to hospital with complaints of abdominal pain, radiating to the rectum,
weakness, significant bleeding during menstruation, during the last 2 years. The abdomen is tense,
slightly painful in the lower regions, negative symptoms of peritoneal irritation, palpable round lesion
above the vagina. Which tool is used to remove the uterus when its laparoscopic extirpation?
A. Lock type "corkscrew"
B. * Mortelator
C. uterine manipulator
D. Clamp type "crocodile"
E. The correct answer is missing
67. Patient, 45 years old, was taken to the hospital in urgent order in state of alcohol inabriation with
complaints on cramping abdominal pain, bloating. Complains during the last 6 hours. In the
anamnesis he had three operations: for acute appendicitis, perforated gastric ulcer and postoperative
ventral hernia. Which option of setting the optical trocar is safest in this case?
A. With the creation of carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of pyramidal
trocar stylet
B. With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of noninvasive
trocar stylet
C. With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and followed by administration of trocar of
Visiport type
D. * Hasson trocar setting by the open way
E. None of the above options is safe
68. patient, 53 years old, taken to hospital with complaints of abdominal pain, radiating to the rectum,
weakness, significant bleeding during menstruation, during the last 2 years. The abdomen is tense,
slightly painful in the lower regions, negative symptoms of peritoneal irritation, palpable round lesion
above the vagina. What tool is used for fixation of the fibromatous node?
A. Morselyatom

B. * retainer of the "corkscrew"

C. scissors
D. monopolar electrode endoloop
E. dissector
69. Patient, 53 years old, taken to hospital with complaints on abdominal pain, radiating to the rectum,
weakness, significant bleeding during menstruation, during the last 2 years. Last menstrual period
lasted 8 days. Objectively: skin is pale, pulse - 102 for 1 min, body temperature - 36.6 0C, blood
pressure - 100/60 mm Hg. Art. The abdomen is tense, slightly painful in the lower regions, negative
symptoms of peritoneal irritation, during palpation is observed the lesion formation above the vagina.
Analysis of blood: hemoglobin - 88 g / l. Which option of setting the optical trocar is safest in this
situation?
A. With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of pyramidal
trocar stylet
B. With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of noninvasive
trocar stylet
C. * With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and followed by administration of trocar of
Visiport type
D. With the creation carboxyperitoneum by Veres needle and subsequent introduction of conical trocar
stylet
E. None of the above options is safe
70. patients, 53 years old, taken to hospital with complaints on abdominal pain, radiating to the rectum,
weakness, significant bleeding during menstruation, during the last 2 years. Last menstrual period
lasted 8 days. Objectively: skin is pale, pulse - 102 for 1 min, body temperature - 36.6 0C, blood
pressure - 100/60 mm Hg. Art. The abdomen is tense, slightly painful in the lower regions, negative
symptoms of peritoneal irritation, palpable the round lesion above the vagina. Analysis of blood:
hemoglobin - 88 g / l. What tool should perform removal of fibromatous site?
A. * Moselator
B. retainer of the "corkscrew"
C. scissors
D. monopolar electrode endoloop
E. dissector
71. The patient 35 years old with pain of unknown origin is prepared for the emergency laparoscopy.
Which version laparoscopic equipment should be chosen?
A. Minimum
B. * Gynaecological
C. Total
D. Advanced
E. Mixed
72. The patient, '22, that works as model, complained of abdominal pain in the right iliac region during
the last 2-years. Symptoms of peritoneal irritation are weakly positive. After the observing
laparoscopy revealed the inflammation of the appendix. What method of laparoscopic surgery is the
best in this case?
A. multiportal laparoscopy
B. Robot-assisted laparoscopy
C. * one-port laparoscopy
D. laparoscopy through natural openings
E. Laparolifting
73. Patient G., 47 years old, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Liver is
enlarged, of thick consistency, the surface of liver is smooth gray-brown. These characteristics
indicate
A. * Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
74. The patient, '22, that works as model, complained of abdominal pain in the right iliac region during
the last 2-years. Symptoms of peritoneal irritation are weakly positive. Using clinical and laboratory
studies were diagnosed catarrhal appendicitis. What method of laparoscopic surgery is the best?
A. multiportal laparoscopy
B. Robot-assisted laparoscopy
C. one-port laparoscopy
D. * laparoscopy through natural openings
E. Laparolifting
75. The patient, 63 years old, was urgently taken to the hospital with complaints on severe abdominal
pain, dizziness. The above symptoms appeared suddenly in the night. From the history of life was
found that the last 3 years she suffering from atrial fibrillation. Objectively: skin is pale, pulse - 92
for 1 min, body temperature - 36.6 0C, blood pressure - 140/90 mm Hg. Abdomen is somewhat
stressful, painful in all parts, symptoms of peritoneal irritation are weakly positive, peristalsis is
flabby. What is the name endoscope for the examination of the abdomen:
A. hysteroscope
B. arthroscope
C. * laparoscope
D. Torakoskop
E. Ureteroskop
76. The surgeon performs a diagnostic laparoscopy to the patient with unclear diagnosis. What kit of
laparoscope should prepare for surgery?
A. * 5 mm 0 and 30 5 mm
B. 10 mm 0 and 45 5 mm
C. 30 C. and 5 mm 5 mm 45
D. 5 mm 0 and 0 10 mm
E. 10 mm 0 and 45 10 mm
77. Patient K., 26 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When diagnostic laparoscopy body surface is
smooth, the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color at
A. * Edema of the gallbladder
B. Empyema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic non-calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer
E. Norm
78. To patient F., '43, was performed the diagnostic laparoscopy with suspected ovarian apoplexy, the
gynecologist diagnosed the catarrhal appendicitis and performed laparoscopic surgery. What is the
name of the doctor and in what year was the first in the world laparoscopic appendectomy?
A. * Zemm in 1983
B. Tracing in 1929
C. Frederick in 1930

D. Hes in 1937
E. tapes in 1945
79. When performing diagnostic laparoscopy surgeon damaged the small intestine during the
introduction of Veres needle. What tool is used to impose the extracorporeal knots?
A. Circular stapler
B. Linear stapler
C. The standard laparoscopic needle holder
D. clipator
E. * sticks for loading of nodes
80. When performing diagnostic laparoscopy surgeon damaged the small intestine during trocar
introduction. By which the tool is applied the seam?
A. * Instrument for applying continuous suture
B. Linear stapler
C. The standard laparoscopic needle holder
D. clipator
E. sticks for loading of nodes
81. Patient K., 38 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. At diagnostic laparoscopy mixed biliary
pancreatic necrosis is characterized by
A. * all specified
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
D. dark red, brown or black pancreas
E. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
82. Patient K., 40 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right lower quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on
suspicion of acute appendicitis, port for laparoscope is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At midline of abdominal wall 10 cm upwards the navel
D. At midline in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
83. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Laparoscopy observation is performed
A. * sequentially from left to right and top to bottom
B. consistently better left to right and top to bottom
C. not consistently better from right to left and from top to bottom
D. not consistently better from right to left
E. consistently better from top to bottom
84. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. For additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. In diagnostic
laparoscopy surgeon pays attention to
A. * signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in the abdominal cavity, the shape and size
of their color, vascular pattern
B. shape and size of organs, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in
the abdomen
C. shape and size of their color, signs of inflammation, tumor metastasis and free fluid in the abdomen

D. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, free fluid in the abdomen
E. shape and size of their color, vascular pattern, signs of inflammation, tumors
85. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. In acute gangrenous cholecystitis
characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
86. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Liver is granular and nodular. This
characteristic of laparoscopy picture indicates
A. * Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Norm
E. Viral hepatitis
87. Patient K., 53 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of nausea, general
weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of
cirrhosis, enter of the first port is conducted
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
88. Patient K., 60 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Diagnostic review is conducted
A. * in the Trendelenburg position and horizontal position on the right and left side
B. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, on the right side
C. in a horizontal position and the Trendelenburg position, on the left side
D. horizontally on the right and left side
E. in the Trendelenburg position, on the right and left side
89. Patient K., 60 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right lower quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. For additional examination conducted laparoscopy. diagnostic laparoscopy
for execution on suspicion of acute appendicitis, staging port for laparoscope typically is placed

A. * In the periumbilical area

B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At midline abdominal
D. At midline in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
90. Patient K., 60 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. The surface of liver is smooth, dark brown in
color with a greenish tinge. This is characteristic for laparoscopy at
A. * Pigmentary cirrhosis of liver
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Obstructive cholangitis

D. Norm
E. Viral hepatitis
91. Patient K., 60 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Brownish-green color of liver characterizes
A. * Obstructive jaundice
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Norm
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Viral hepatitis
92. Patient L., 55 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the both upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on
suspected perforated ulcer, input of optical port is typically carried out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
93. 38-year-old woman complains of difficulties of food passage through the esophagus, recurrent
vomiting. Ill for 1.5 years. Last 6 months during sleep notes the appearance of food on the pillow.
Lost 15 kg of body weight. Appeared constipation, stool 1 every 3-4 days. Plain radiographs - no gas
bubble of the stomach. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. peptic stenosis
B. Cancer of the esophagus
C. Diverticulum of esophagus
D. * achalasia of cardia
E. Sliding hiatal hernia
94. Patient M., 46 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Edema of the gallbladder under viewed
characterized by the following features
A. * the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis
D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
95. Patient M., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. In acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * hyperemia on the background and fibrinous layerings
B. enlarged and streched by contents gallbladder
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots and leak of bile contents into abdominal cavity
E. Tightly wrapped bigger omentum around gallbladder
96. Patient N., 32 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Empyema of the gallbladder under review is
characterized by the following features
A. * the gallbladder is enlarged, dark purple color, through extensive serous membrane translucent mesh
of blood vessels and capillaries
B. the gallbladder is enlarged, streched, white and blue color

C. gallbladder glued with surrounding organs, constricted, scars or sclerosis

D. the gallbladder has whitish dense bulbs on the surface
E. none of the listed
97. From prison was taken a patient with suspected abscess of the right lung of the considerable size.
With significant amounts abscess cavity it is heard:
A. Dry wheezing;
B. moist rales
C. vesicular breathing.
D. breathing is heard;
E. * amphoric breathing;
98. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. At
diagnostic laparoscopy
A. * You can change the position of the patient
B. You can not change the position of the patient
C. You can change the position of the patient in the sagittal plane
D. You can change the position of the patient in the frontal plane
E. preferably not to confuse the patient
99. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. For additional examination conducted laparoscopy. Liver in obstructive
cholangitis was characterized by the following
A. * moderate greenish
B. fine capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish mesh of lymphatic vessels
C. during laparoscopy liver is enlarged, thick consistency. The surface of the liver is brown
D. intense green color
E. BC and the early stages of liver surface smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge
100. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. The surface
of liver is smooth, dark brown in color with a greenish tinge. This characteristic of laparoscopy in
A. * Hemochromatosis of liver
B. Norm
C. Obstructive cholangitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Viral hepatitis
101. In a contrast X ray picture in a patient 46 years diagnosed epiphrenal diverticulus . Epiphrenal
diverticulus is:
A. * Pulsional
B. paraesophageal;
C. cervical;
D. slider;
E. bifurcational.
102. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Greenish tint
in the liver characterized
A. * Obstructive cholangitis
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive jaundice

E. Norm
103. Patient S., 37 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. When diagnostic laparoscopy availability of
connections gallbladder with surrounding organs, bladder constriction scar or sclerosis observed at
A. * Chronic calculous cholecystitis
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Cancer
E. Normal gallbladder
104. Patient S., aged 49, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Thin
capillary net of blood vessels and soft whitish net of hepatic lymph vessels is characteristic for
A. * Viral hepatitis B
B. Hemochromatosis of liver
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis
D. Obstructive cholangitis
E. Obstructive jaundice
105. In a patient with a contrast radiograph was diagnosed Zenker diverticulum. Zenker Diverticulum is
localized in the area:
A. epibronchial;
B. epiphrenal;
C. * pharyngeal-esophageal;
D. intra-thoracic;
E. intra-abdominal.
106. Patient S., aged 49, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Diagnostic
laparoscopy with regulations is performed by means of
A. * move table to which the patient is fixed
B. manipulation of patients , not the table
C. manipulation by table to which the patient is fixed only sagittally
D. move table to which the patient is fixed only frontally
E. move table to which the patient is fixed only by height
107. Patient W., 35 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. The presence of connections of gallbladder
with surrounding organs, constriction scars or sclerosis is observed in such pathology as
A. * Chronic calculous cholecystitis
B. Edema of the gallbladder
C. Empyema of the gallbladder
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the
108. In the surgical ward 82 yrs old patient enrolled. An examination showed suspected acute cholecystitis
abscess. What research method should be used primarily for further diagnosis?
A. * An ultrasound scan of the abdominal cavity
B. Infusion cholecystography
C. Laparoscopy
D. Retrograde panctreatocholangiography
E. Percutaneous cholecystography
109. In clinic was hospitalized patient of 41 year old. Complex examination diagnosed achalasia of the
esophagus III.The third stage of achalasia of esophagus is characterized by:
A. * Cicatricial stenosis
B. functional spasm;
C. persistent spasm;
D. S-shaped esophagus;
E. reflux esophagitis.
110. In hospital delivered Male 42 years in critical condition: acrocyanosis, dyspnea, subcutaneous
emphysema in the neck and upper torso. Complains of severe chest pain, epigastric pain. The body
temperature of 38.9 (C, pulse 130 beats / min, blood pressure = 80/50 mm Hg. Known that 6 hours
ago after meals and alcohol appeared vomiting and began to grow above mentioned phenomenon.
Which is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. * Pinching paraesophageal hernia
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary artery trombemboly
D. Spontaneous rupture of the esophagus
E. perforated ulcers of the stomach
111. In patients with acute abscess of the left lung during cough appeared sharp pain in chest, pail skin
with a bluish tint. On examination, the patient's left side of the chest slowes down in the act of
breathing. Auscultation of the left side - bronchial breathing with amphoric shade, with percussion is
defined the box sound. Pulse 120 bpm. in 1 min., BP - 70/30 mmHg What complication arose in the
patient?
A. Left-side pneumothorax
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Breakthrough of acute abscess into bronchus
D. * Left-side pneumoempyema
E. Breakthrough of chronic abscess into bronchus
112. In the department of thoracic surgery was hospitalized 43 year old patient with a preliminary
diagnosis of piotoraks. The fluid level reaches the bifurcation of the trachea. Define standard
Skeletopy of bifurcation of the trachea at the thoracic vertebrae in adults:
A. * IV vertebra
B. III vertebra
C. V vertebra
D. VI vertebra
E. VII vertebra
113. In the department of thoracic surgerythere is a patient of 56 years of age with diagnosed gangrene of
the right lung. When gangrene of the lung can be observed:
A. * Provided unexpectedly large (200 - 600 ml) amount of mucus, often with a putrid odor
B. Sputum is sticky-viscous, thick, with a reddish or brownish tint
C. Sputum is often purulent or muco-purulent, profuse,
D. with blood, often with a putrid odor
E. No Answer
114. In the surgical ward taken patient of 38 years with stab wounds of the chest. Patient's condition is
serious. Consciousness confused, pale skin, cardiac deaf. Pulse 120 for 1 min., BP 70/40 mm Hg.
Breathing - 32 for 1 min. On the front surface of the chest in the third intercostal space on the left
parasternal line a stab wound with the length of 3cm. covered with blood clots is observed.
Percussion the border of cardiac dullness is extended. What complication does occur?
A. * Pericardial tamponade
B. Traumatic shock

C. Pulmonary artery
D. Acute cerebrovascular accident
E. Acute myocardial infarction
115. In thoracic department is a 62 year old patient with diagnosed abscess of the right lung. Chronic lung
abscess is considered if the healing does not come within (weeks):
A. 1
B. * 6
C. 2.5
D. 2
E. 4
116. Patient B., 54 years old, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. During
conducting diagnostic laparoscopy surgeon diagnosed hemorrhagic pancreonecrosis characterized by
A. * presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the abdomen
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
E. gland lobules are displayed clearly
117. In thoracic department was hospitalized 34 year old patient with diagnosed esophageal burns. burns
received as a result of the use of caustic alkali. Complications of burns of the esophagus:
A. functional spasm;
B. persistent spasm;
C. * mediastinitis
D. S-shaped esophagus;
E. reflux esophagitis.
118. In thoracic surgery there is patient of 37 years old with an abscess of the right lung. For the second
period, lung abscess characteristic such X ray picture:
A. eclipse of lung tissue without clear contours;
B. enlightenment of lung tissue without clear contours;
C. * enlightenment of lung tissue with clear contours;
D. enlightenment of lung tissue specific cells;
E. lung tissue blackout with clear contours.
119. Male '53 complains of recurrent chest pain, heartburn, especially in the horizontal position of the
body when the body torso. Sometimes burning pain behind the breastbone arising from the use of hot
or spicy dishes. Two weeks ago was vomiting with blood, fainted. With re-applied after gastric
bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. * Sliding hiatal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease
120. Patient B., 56 years old, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was appointed. For
the question of urgency of surgery for acute cholecystitis the most important is:
A. * The presence of peritonitis
B. The intensity of pain
C. Duration of disease
D. The number of attacks in history

E. The presence of gallstones

121. Male 34 years with complaints of pain in the left side of the chest, shortness of breath. Got sick
suddenly, 40 minutes ago after having received a blow to the left side. Respiratory rate 32 per minute.
Pulse 86 beats/min. BP 120/80 mm. hg During the respiratory movements of the chest left side is
behind. Percussion over the left half of the chest tympanic, auscultation breath is sharply weakened.
Diagnosis?
A. * Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Pneumohemothorax
D. Hemopericard
E. Hydrothorax
122. Male 40 years with complaints of dizziness, pain in the left side of the chest, shortness of breath. Got
sick for 1 hour ago after hitting the left side on the edge of the table. Pulse 122 beats/min. Respiratory
rate 38 per minute. BP 90/60 mm Hg The left half of the chest is behind during breathing, percussion
over the lower part to 8 intercostal space (determined the dull sound, above tympanic sound,
auscultation - breath sharply weakened. Diagnosis?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Hemopericard
D. * Hemopneumothorax
E. Pneumoempyema
123. Male 40 years, brought an ambulance after the accident complaining of pronounced shortness of
breath, pain in the right half of the chest and sternum, cough with a small amount of bright frothy
blood. OBJECTIVE: condition of the patient is extremely difficult, cyanosis of the face, severe
subcutaneous emphysema of the chest wall, neck and face. pulse - the rhythmic, 110 for 1 min., AT
90/60 mm Auscultation of the lungs - is breathing rapidly weakened throughout, left - satisfactory.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. * Rupture of the right main bronchus
B. Traumatic pneumonitis
C. Right-side pneumothorax
D. total right-sided hemothorax
E. Rupture of the diaphragm
124. Male 40 years, delivered by an ambulance after the accident, complaining of pronounced shortness of
breath, pain in the right half of the chest and sternum, cough with a small amount of bright frothy
blood. OBJECTIVE: condition of the patient is extremely difficult, cyanosis of the face, severe
subcutaneous emphysema of the chest wall, neck and face. pulse - rhythmic, 110 for 1 min., BP -
90/60 mm Auscultation of the lungs - breathing is rapidly weakened throughout, left side -
satisfactory. What method of examination is necessary to diagnose pathology for this patient?
A. * Radiography of the chest and fibrobronchoscopy
B. Electrocardiography
C. Computed tomography of the brain
D. EFGDS
E. Ultrasound
125. On treatment in the thoracic department is patient of 53 years old, that for 8 years is suffering from
Zenker diverticulum. On its mechanism Zenker diverticulum is:
A. paraesophageal;
B. * Pulsional
C. cervical;
D. false;
E. bifurcational

126. Patient B., 56 years old, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. During the day after laparoscopic drainage of choledochus bile in average is measured
A. * Up to 700 -1000ml
B. Up to 5 ml
C. Up to 10 ml
D. Up to 15ml
E. Up to 2-3l
127. Patient '25 delivered in thoracic department with a diagnosis of closed chest trauma, fracture IV, V,
VI ribs on the right. Plain radiographs revealed the level of fluid in the pleural cavity of the right edge
to the IV. If you received blood from the puncture rolls. Which patient management?
A. pleural puncture
B. thoracocentesis and thoracostomy
C. * Emergency thoracotomy
D. hemostatic therapy
E. Thoracoscopy
128. Patient '32 entered the surgical department within 6 hours from the time of disease diagnosis:
spontaneous pneumothorax. Treatment with passive drainage of the pleural cavity for 3 days gave no
effect. What is the most reliable studies will reveal the cause of no effect of treatment?
A. Bronchography
B. Plain radiography of the chest
C. * Thoracoscopy
D. Bronchoscopy
E. Ultrasound
129. Patient '35 suffered from the destructive pneumonia which developed into multiple lung abscesses.
Postpneumonic abscesses resulting from:
A. * virulence of infecti
B. increased reactivity
C. decrease pulmonary ventilation and blood flow
D. inadequate treatment
E. reduced reactivity
130. Patient '39 hospitalized in thoracic surgery, complaining of chest pain, hard breathing, fever.
Diagnosed pulmonary gangrene. Gangrene of the lungs accompanied by sputum:
A. * Color of meat slops
B. light color
C. dark color
D. the blood
E. foam
131. Patient '39 transferred to the Surgical Clinic from the Internal Medicine Department, where was
treated for 4 days over the drain pneumonia case in serious condition. The body temperature of 39.6
(p Breath of right lung is weakened, sharply expressed blunting percussion. Sputum is purulent,
dirty-gray color, with an unpleasant odor. Radiological - against the backdrop of a massive blackout
that covers the upper, middle and apical segment of the lower lobe of right lung is seen the multiple
places of destruction with different sizes, with horizontal levels and without such. your diagnosis?
A. abscessed pneumonia
B. Bronchiectasis
C. * gangrene of the lungs
D. Gangrenous lung abscess

E. Empyema
132. Patient '40. Suddenly appeared pain in the left half of the chest, choking. State of moderate severity,
pulse - 110 per minute, blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. Breathing in the left side does not listen. When
radiography of the chest - the collapse of the left lung on one half. What treatment you want to assign
to the patient?
A. rest, resolution therapy
B. Pleural puncture
C. Surgical treatment
D. * Passive drainage of the pleural cavity
E. Active thoracostomy
133. Patient '42 arrived 3 hours after trauma with severe subcutaneous emphysema of the upper half of the
body, shortness of breath, tachycardia, heart rate - 120 bpm. Radiological pneumothorax was not
found, significantly enhanced mediastinum in both sides side. What is first aid?
A. * Drainage of anterior mediastinal
B. puncture of pleural cavity
C. Drainage of pleural cavity
D. Thoracoscopy
E. Thoracotomy
134. Patient G., 37 years old, was admitted to hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Laparoscopy
observation is carried out
A. * sequentially from left to right and top to bottom
B. consistently better left to right and top to bottom
C. not consistently better from right to left and from top to bottom
D. not consistently better from right to left
E. consistently better from top to bottom
135. Patient '45 complaints of dysphagia, pain when swallowing in the left side of the neck, increased
body temperature to 39 in the evening. Shortness of breath. From history we know that dysphagia
occurred after eating fish. Came to the hospital only after 2 days, when the temperature of the body
risen, began to increase symptoms of dysphagia. When X ray examination of the chest the expansion
of shadow of mediastinum to left is diagnosed, mediastinal emphysema. What disease must assume:
A. * Foreign body of the cervical esophagus (fish bone) with perforation of the esophagus and the
development of mediastinitis
B. Esophagitis
C. retrosternal goiter
D. Foreign body of the cervical esophagus
E. left-sided pleuropneumonia
136. Patient '47 treated in thoracic surgery on an abscess of the right lung. Available respiratory failure. In
the I degree of dyspnea the respiratory failure is:
A. * under load
B. in calm state
C. constant;
D. in horizontal body position
E. in upright body position
137. Patient '58 is being treated in the thoracic department with a diagnosis of acute lung abscess. Ways of
infection in the lung tissue due to:
A. * Lymphatics
B. Skin
C. parietal pleura
D. larynx
E. visceral pleura
138. Patient '59 for a long time suffers from the lung abscess, available repeated pulmonary hemorrhages.
Repeated pulmonary hemorrhage in chronic abscesses is treated:
A. Blood Transfusion
B. transfusion of blood products
C. * Surgically
D. input coagulants
E. entering antycoagulants
139. Patient '72 with severe concomitant diseases during urgent EFGDS was damaged wall of the
esophagus. Began to grow progressively symptoms of acute respiratory failure and collapse of the
left lung. What is the treating tactic?
A. * Drainage of pleural cavity by Byullau, mediastinal drainage, antibiotic therapy
B. Drainage of pleural cavity by Byullau, antibiotic therapy
C. left-sided thoracotomy, suture of mediastinum and esophagus
D. left-sided thoracotomy with suture of the esophagus
E. Endoscopic suturing of wounds of the esophagus, drainage
140. Patient 23 years old held X-ray with contrast. Diagnosed esophageal diverticulum. Radiographic
evidence of esophageal diverticulum is:
A. * symptom of "wet bag"
B. symptom of bell
C. symptom of "shoe laces "
D. obtuse angle of His;
E. lack of gas bubble of the stomach
141. Patient 25, with stab wounds to the chest on the left. Pulse 120 for 1 min. determined only on the
carotid arteries, poor volume, blood pressure 50/20 mm Hg. Dyspnea, auscultatory cardiac tone is
deaf, breathing on both sides of vesicular is weakened. Put the correct diagnosis.
A. * stab wounds of the heart
B. stabbed right lung
C. stab wounds of the left lung
D. incised wound of the chest wall
E. Left-side hemothorax
142. Patient 28 years old, accidentally drank acid solution. Got burns of the esophagus. First aid for burns
of the esophagus by concentrated acid (gastric lavage):
A. 0,25% solution of novocaine
B. 0,9% solution of sodium chlorid
C. 5% glucose solution
D. * 2% sodium bicarbonate
E. 1: 1000 solution of potassium manganese
143. Patient 36 years old, about 3 hours ago got stabbed penetrating the left of the chest. Delivered in
serious condition: euphoria, skin pale. Cardiac deaf, tachycardia 130 bpm. BP - 80/70 mmHg Pulse at
the wrist barely defined. The wound of the chest 2 cm. Located on the left parasternal line at the third
intercostal spaces. Breath of the left lung is weakened in the lower regions of the back-shortened
percussion sound. What treatments are most appropriate?
A. Emergency thoracotomy.
B. * pleural puncture.
C. Puncture of the pericardium.
D. Blood.

E. Complex resuscitation.
144. Patient 37 years, the clinic delivered in 50 minutes. after receiving stab wounds, the wound is located
in the heart area. The patient is pale, sharply inhibited, BP 60/20 mm Hg. century. expanded the
boundaries of the heart, auscultation - warm tone deaf. Your actions?
A. Conducting intensive antishock therapy
B. * Emergency thoracotomy with excision and suture haemopericardium heart.
C. Conducting intensive antishock therapy followed by surgery
D. Conduct antishock therapy with simultaneous execution thoracoscopy
E. X-ray of the chest
145. Patient K., 30 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Additional examination found a previous diagnosis of bile-stone
disease. A laparoscopy was held. Gallbladder has smooth surface, white with blue color, enlarged and
stretched. There is a
A. * Edema of the gallbladder
B. Empyema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the listed
146. Patient 40 years is treated within two weeks due to an acute abscess of the upper right lung. The
treatment: antibiotics, sulfanilamide preparations, vitamin, calcium chloride, infusion therapy.
However, the patient continued the high fever, cough it bother with the periodic discharge of large
number of purulent sputum. What treatment can effectively complement the rehabilitation of an
abscess?
A. * Microtracheostomy
B. Tracheostomy
C. Therapeutic bronchoscopy
D. Postural drainage
E. Drainage of pleural cavity
147. Patient 43 years old has kakosmia symptom, lacing symptom, wet bag symptom. suspected
esophageal diverticulum. Diverticula of the esophagus arise when:
A. injury;
B. * underdevelopment of muscle layer.
C. esophagitis;
D. neoplasms;
E. achalasia;
148. Patient 48 years old was hospitalized in thoracic surgery with a diagnosis of Zenker diverticulum.
Being prepared for surgery. Access for Zenker diverticulum?
A. * cervical access;
B. lateral thoracotomy in the third intercostal space
C. lateral thoracotomy in the fourth intercostal space
D. lateral thoracotomy in the seventh intercostal space
E. Upper midline laparotomy
149. Patient 56 years old was planning hospitalized in thoracic department. diagnosed bifurcational
diverticulum. Gets ready for the surgery. Access to the bifurcation diverticulum?
A. left-sided lateral thoracotomy in IV intercostal space;
B. * right-lateral thoracotomy in IV intercostal space;
C. left-sided thoracotomy in the lateral VII intercostal space;
D. right-lateral thoracotomy in VII intercostal space;

E. Upper midline laparotomy.

150. Patient 58 years old after the X-ray contrast the epiphrenal diverticulum was diagnosed. The
proposed surgery. Access to the epiphrenal diverticulum?
A. * right-lateral thoracotomy in IV intercostal space;
B. left-sided lateral thoracotomy in IV intercostal space; l
C. eft-sided thoracotomy in the lateral VII intercostal space;
D. right-lateral thoracotomy in VII intercostal space;
E. Upper midline laparotomy.
151. Patient 59 years old is H\hospitalized in thoracic surgery with diagnosed an abscess of the right lung.
Improved drainage of the abscess cavity is achieved by:
A. * Introduction of proteolytic enzymes to the bronchial tree
B. Antibiotics
C. Vitamin C
D. transfusion of blood plasma
E. bracing means
152. Patient 62 years old, who chronically abused ba alcohol delivered to the thoracic department with a
diagnosis of esophageal burns. The need for gastrostomy in case of burns of the esophagus occurs
when:
A. * esophageal perforation
B. First degree;
C. Second degree;
D. the third degree;
E. burns of the mouth.
153. Patient B., 40 years old, complained of pain in the right side of the chest, shortness of breath, cough,
dizziness. An hour ago he fell from the motorcycle and hit right side of the chest. Skin and visible
mucous membranes are pale, blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, Ps 100 for 1 min. right chest breathing
is weakened, percussion - dullness in the lower divisions. Your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Right-side closed pneumothorax
B. Fracture of ribs on the right
C. right-sided busy pneumothorax
D. * right-sided hemothorax
E. Right-side pneumoempyema
154. Patient complains of discomfort behind the breastbone. Available symptom of wet bag. Symptom
"wet bag" is characteristic for:
A. * diverticulum of the esophagus
B. sliding hiatal hernia
C. paraesophageal hiatal hernia
D. iatrogenic perforation of the esophagus
E. relaxation of the diaphragm
155. Patient independently addressed in thoracic department with the diagnosis of achalasia of the
esophagus of the IV stage. The IV stage og achalasia of esophagus characterized by:
A. * S-shaped esophagus;
B. functional spasm;
C. persistent spasm
D. Cicatricial stenosis
E. reflux esophagitis

156. Patient K., 30 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Additional examination found a previous diagnosis of bile-stone
disease. Laparoscopy was prescribed. Gallbladder has smooth surface, white with blue color,
enlarged and stretched. In this case surgeon has to conduct
A. * Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. Complete diagnostic laparoscopy
C. open cholecystectomy
D. Cholecystostomy
E. None of the listed
157. Patient is hospitalized in the department of thoracic surgery with multiple lung abscesses. Numerous
abscesses resulting from:
A. * spread pneumonia
B. nonspecific infection
C. hyperventilation of the lungs
D. pneumothorax
E. hemopleura
158. Patient K. '34 was hospitalized in serious condition with a wound to the left of the chest. Patient's
condition is severe, skin pale, his face is bluish-purple, swollen neck veins. Percussion notes
expanding the boundaries of the heart, auscultation - voiceless heart tones. Your diagnosis?
A. * Injury to the heart with the development of tamponade
B. Injuries of the left lung with the development of hemopleura
C. Injury of the left lung with the development of pneumothorax
D. Injury of the left lung with the development of stump-hemopleura
E. Injury of chest, bleeding from intercostal arteries
159. Patient of 44 years old hospitalized in thoracic surgery. Diagnosis - abscess of the right lung. For the
first period of lung abscess is characteristic X-ray:
A. * eclipse of lung tissue without clear contours;
B. enlightenment of lung tissue without clear contours;
C. enlightenment of lung tissue with clear contours;
D. allocating a significant amount of pus;
E. decrease in body temperature.
160. Patient of 64 years of age was hospitalized in the department of thoracic surgery patient with a
second period of lung abscess. The second period of lung abscess is characterized by:
A. * increase toxicity
B. deterioration of the general condition of the patien
C. fever
D. allocating a significant amount of pus
E. hectic body temperature
161. Patient S., 19 years old, was taken to the ER 20 minutes after stab wound of the left half of the chest.
Consciousness, the pulse 96 per minute., BP 80/60 mm, dilated neck veins, sharply attenuated apex
beat, expanding existing boundaries of the heart. What kind of wound complications in question?
A. Massive hemothorax
B. Open pneumothorax
C. Closed pneumothorax
D. * cardiac tamponade
E. valve pneumothorax

162. Patient S., 27 years old, went to hospital in serious condition, 50 minutes after receiving penetrating
wounds of the chest to the left. OBJECTIVE: consciousness - stupor, pale skin, acrocyanosis. Pulse
120 beats per minute, poor volume and tension. BP - mm 80/40 Cardiac tone is deaf, dramatically
expanded boundaries. In the III intercostal space on the left parasternal line is the stab wound. On
plain film chest expansion is defined shadows and smoothing the waist of the heart, left hemothorax
to V edges. What is the most possible reason of severity of the patient?
A. * cardiac tamponade
B. Acute heart failure
C. cardiac arrhythmias
D. loss
E. hemothorax and acute respiratory failure.
163. Patient who is chronically abused to alcohol in the morning mistakenly drank alkaline solution. First
aid for burns of the esophagus by the concentrated caustic alkali (gastric lavage):
A. 0,9% solution of sodium chloride
B. 0,25% solution novocaine;
C. * 0,1% solution of hydrochloric acid;
D. 5% glucose solution;
E. 1: 1000 solution of potassium manganese.
164. Patient, taken after the accident, complaining of pain in the left chest, cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea.
Subcutaneous emphysema, cyanosis of the skin, heart rate 98 per 1 min. Auscultation - breath
weakened in the left. Rib hull damage is not detected, radiographically observed air strip along the
trachea, left-sided pneumothorax. Your diagnosis?
A. Rupture of esophagus
B. Lung abscess with perforation
C. * Rupture of the left main bronchus
D. Rupture of the left dome of the diaphragm
E. Pneumoempyema
165. The patient '58 was diagnosed the lung abscess. It is noted selection of specimens. What is the
character of lung sputum an abscess:
A. jellylike, colorless, with 4 levels
B. * It may be different depending on the localization of process and period prevalence
C. With mixed scraps of chitinous shell
D. Does not have any characteristic features, except for specific separation upon standing
E. No Answer
166. The patient complains on heartburn, feeling of bitterness in the mouth. Diagnosed reflux esophagitis.
Reflux esophagitis is a manifestation of:
A. diverticulum of the esophagus
B. paraesophageal hiatal hernia
C. iatrogenic perforation of the esophagus
D. Relaxation of the diaphragm
E. * sliding hiatal hernia
167. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was appointed. To
perform laparoscopic cholecystectomy, enter of the first port is typically carried out
A. * In the area of the navel
B. At Mayo point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. In mesogastrium on the affected side

E. At Volkovych- Kocher point

168. The patient delivered unconscious. Skin and mucous membranes are pale, cyanotic, breathing is
weakened, in the lower regions does not listened, at the level of 6 rib on the anterior axillary line
there is a wound hole with moderate bleeding and passage of air to insufficiently. Radiological
findings: a bullet in the pleural cavity. What medical tactic?
A. * Emergency thoracotomy
B. Thoracoscopy with removal of bullet
C. Transfer valve into open pneumothorax
D. Drainage of pleural cavity
E. Tosca bandage on a wound
169. The patient in '32 with a closed chest trauma subcutaneous emphysema appeared in the region of the
jugular fossa, which quickly spread to the neck, face, upper torso. What is the mechanism of the
development of subcutaneous emphysema?
A. Fracture of ribs
B. Rupture of the diaphragm
C. Closed pneumothorax
D. * Damage to the respiratory tract with the development of mediastinal emphysema
E. Slaughter heart
170. The patient is being treated in the thoracic surgery on empyema. existing respiratory failure. The
number of respiratory movements during the first stage of respiratory failure (choose the wrong
answer):
A. 14-15
B. 16-18
C. 19-20
D. * 23-24
E. 21-22
171. The patient of '35 complains on fever, sweating, pain in the projection of the right lung. Diagnosed an
abscess of the right lung. Pain in the chest with lung abscess is caused by:
A. progressive necrosis of bronchi and vessels in the area of abscess
B. Reaction regional bronchopulmonary lymph nodes
C. * involvement of parietal pleura and musculoskeletal structures
D. paradoxical mobility aperture
E. No Answer
172. The patient of '54 complains on poor passage of food through the esophagus. The last two years saw
the neck protrusion in the left after eating, vomiting with food. He began to lose weight. At night,
during sleep there is cough. When X-ray contrast study of the esophagus at the level of the collarbone
appears a depot of barium, size and shape of an egg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Esophagic-tracheal fistula
B. Cancer of the esophagus
C. * diverticulum of the esophagus
D. Stenosis
E. Esophagic spasm
173. The patient of '62 complains on fever, malaise, pain in the chest. Simultaneous separation of large
quantities of sputum with odor indicates:
A. In a breakthrough encysted purulent pleurisy through bronchus
B. In a breakthrough echinococcal cysts
C. In a breakthrough posttraumatic cysts in the first days after injury
D. * The breakthrough lung abscess

E. No Answer
174. The patient received a wound in the chest spot in the projection of the heart. Patient's condition is
serious, complaining of shortness of breath, a tendency to hypotension, muffled heart tones. The
boundaries of the heart with percussion extended to the left. In Plain radiography of the chest cavity
expanding of hearts shadow to the left, reducing the oscillation amplitude contour of the heart.
According to electrocardiography - reduced voltage complex QRS. Set the diagnosis?
A. * Pericardial tamponade
B. Pneumonia
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pneumothorax
E. Hemothorax
175. The woman in 57 years old during contrast X ray was found Zenker diverticulum. Zenker
diverticulum is:
A. bifurcational
B. paraesophageal;
C. False;
D. jammed.
E. * cervical;
176. To the toracal surgery was hospitalised a patient with suspected pulmonary gangrene. When
percussion in case of gangrene of lung is determined:
A. clear lung sounds
B. The box sound
C. * wide area of dull sound
D. tympanic sound
E. The narrow plot of dull sound
177. When contrast X-ray of the patient of 32 years old was diagnosed esophageal achalasia of the second
stage. The second stage of ahalasia of esophagus is characterized by:
A. functional spasm;
B. Cicatricial stenosis
C. S-shaped esophagus;
D. * persistent spasm;
E. reflux esophagitis.
178. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination for treatment of pancreatitis laparoscopy was
appointed. During conducting laparoscopic drainage of the abdominal cavity of the patient with acute
pancreatitis, port for laparoscope typically is placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. In mesogastrium on the affected side
E. At Volkovych- Kocher point
179. For laparoscopy on limited local peritonitis, instrumental port setting is done
A. * Depending on the localization of process
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point

180. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination for traetment for acute pancreatitis
laparoscopy was appointed. For laparoscopy for the treatment of acute pancreatitis, the second port
input is carried out
A. * For midline epigastrium
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Mayo point
181. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. Examination of extrahepatic bile ducts during surgery is performed in the following cases:
1 When the stones in the common bile duct 2 If you suspect a duodenal papilla stenosis 3 In the
presence of jaundice 4 In chronic pancreatitis 5 If there is a history of jaundice. Choose the correct
answer:
A. * 1, 2, 3, 5
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 5
E. 3, 4, 5
182. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. Which among these is the final stage in laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A. * subserose extraction of gallbladder
B. ligation of cystic duct and artery
C. removal of the gall bladder
D. Removal of calculus
E. suturing the gallbladder bed
183. For laparoscopy on limited local peritonitis, setting the port to perform laparoscopy is
made
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel on the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
184. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the left and right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. During conducting diagnostic
laparoscopy mixed biliary pancreatic necrosis was diagnosed characterized by
A. * all specified
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
D. dark red, brown or black pancreas
E. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
185. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. During conducting diagnostic
laparoscopy dark red, brown or black pancreas, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid "stearic plaques"
indicates
A. * Mixed pancreatic necrosis
B. Focal pancreatic necrosis

C. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis

D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
186. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis is
characterized by
A. * presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. dark red, brown or black pancreatic cancer, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal
cavity, the presence of "stearic plaques"
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis plus characteristic signs of inflammation of the pancreas
E. There is no specific sign
187. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. In acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
gallbladder looks like
A. * hyperemia on the background, fibrinous layerings can be observed
B. enlarged stretched gallbladder
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots with bile contents in the free abdominal cavity
E. omentum tightly wrapped around gallbladder, as a result-poor visualization
188. Patient K., 50 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Streched enlarged gallbladder characterizes
A. * acute simple cholecystitis
B. normal gallbladder
C. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous perforated cholecystitis
E. perforated cholecystitis
189. Patient K., 52 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Laparoscopy was appointed. Greater omentum tightly wraps gallbladder
and prevents observation which is typical for
A. * gallbladder perforation
B. acute simple cholecystitis
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute gangrenous cholecystitis
E. acute gangrenous perforated cholecystitis
190. Patient K., 54 years old, came to the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. During conducting therapeutic laparoscopy for acute obstructive cholecystitis, operational
port is carried out
A. * Epigastrium 2-3 cm below the xiphoid processus
B. At Mayo point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych- Kocher point
191. For laparoscopy on suspicion of hepatitis input of the first port is done
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point

D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
192. Patient K., 54 years old, entered the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. Retrograde cholecystectomy is performed in one of the following cases:
A. * In the presence of inflammatory infiltrate in the cervical region of the gallbladder
B. In elderly patients
C. In the presence of phenomena of cholangitis
D. When contracted gallbladder
E. When stone in cervix of the gallbladder
193. Patient K., 54 years old, entered the department complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. When surgens conduct external drainage of the bile duct?
A. * In the accompanying cholangitis, billiary pancreatitis
B. After diagnostic choledochotomy
C. After choledocholitotomy
D. All answers are valid
E. All options are not correct
194. Patient K., 54 years old, entered the department complaining of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Was laparoscopy was appointed. During conducting diagnostic
laparoscopy focal fatty pancreatic necrosis was diagnosed characterized by
A. * presence of "stearic plaques"
B. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
C. dark red, brown or black pancreas
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis
E. gland lobules are displayed clearly
195. For laparoscopy on suspicion of hepatitis, input of the second port is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the umbilicus
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel in the midline
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
196. Patient K., 54 years old, entered the department complaining of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. During conducting diagnostic
laparoscopy scattering on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere of "stearic plaques"
indicates
A. * Fatty pancreatic necrosis
B. Hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
C. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
D. Biliary pancreatitis
E. Intact pancreas
197. Patient K., 70 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. He has a pronounced respiratory failure. Additional examination found a
previous diagnosis of bile-stone disease. Laparoscopy was prescribed. . Gallbladder has smooth
surface, white with blue color, enlarged and stretched. One of the complications of acute cholecystitis
was diagnosed. In this case surgeon has to conduct
A. * Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. Complete diagnostic laparoscopy

C. open cholecystectomy
D. do nothing
E. None of the listed
198. Patient K., 70 years old, entered the hospital with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. It has a pronounced respiratory failure. Additional examination found a
previous diagnosis of bile-stone disease. Laparoscopy was prescribed. Gallbladder has smooth
surface, white with blue color, enlarged and stretched. One of the complications of acute cholecystitis
was diagnosed. It is
A. * Edema of the gallbladder
B. Empyema of the gallbladder
C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis
D. Cancer of the gallbladder
E. None of the listed
199. Patient K., 74 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Was laparoscopy was appointed. During conducting diagnostic
laparoscopy lobular structure of pancreas indicates
A. * Intact pancreas
B. Biliary pancreatitis
C. Focal fatty pancreatic necrosis
D. Focal hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
E. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
200. Patient K., 74 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. Acute biliary pancreatitis in a patient is
characterized by
A. * visual picture of acute cholecystitis accompanying characteristic signs of inflammation of the
pancreas
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
D. dark red, brown or black pancreatic cancer, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal
cavity, the presence of "stearic plaques"
E. There is no specific sign
201. For laparoscopy on suspicion of liver echinococcosis, setting the port to perform
laparoscopy is made
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
202. Patient K., 74 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. Llaparoscopy was appointed. In acute gangrenous perforated cholecystitis,
characteristic appearance of the gallbladder is following
A. * the presence of black spots with bile contents in the free abdominal cavity
B. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
C. hyperemia on the background, fibrinous layerings can be observed
D. enlarged stretched gallbladder
E. omentum tightly wrapped around gallbladder, as a result-poor visualization
203. Patient K., 74 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. The laparoscopy was appointed. Black spots with fibrinous layers on the
gallbladder can be seen at

A. * acute gangrenous cholecystitis

B. intact gallbladder
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. acute perforated gangrenous cholecystitis
E. perforated cholecystitis
204. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to hospital complaining of marked pain in the right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy.
The characteristic appearance of the gallbladder at perforated cholecystitis is following
A. * omentum tightly wrapped around gallbladder, as a result-poor visualization
B. the presence of black spots with bile contents in the free abdominal cavity
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. hyperemia on the background, fibrinous layerings can be observed
E. enlarged stretched gallbladder
205. For laparoscopy on suspicion of liver echinococcosis, setting the second port is carried
out
A. * Epigastrium
B. At Volkovych-Kocher point
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
206. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was appointed. In
conducting laparoscopic cholecystectomy, port for laparoscope is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. In mesogastrium on the affected side
E. At Volkovych- Kocher point
207. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination for treatment of pancreatitis laparoscopy was
appointed. During conducting laparoscopy for the treatment of patients with acute pancreatitis setting
the second port is typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych- Kocher point
208. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was appointed. For
diagnosis of uncomplicated cholelithiasis surgeon should prefer:
A. * Ultrasonography
B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
C. Laparoscopy
D. Percutaneous cholangiography
E. Fractional duodenal intubation
209. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. Which among these is the first stage in laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A. * ligation of cystic duct and artery

B. removal of the gall bladder
C. Removal of calculus
D. suturing the gallbladder bed
E. subserose extraction of gallbladder
210. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination laparoscopy for treatment was
appointed. Stages of laparoscopic cholecystostomy are:
A. * puncture of the gallbladder, cholecystostomy, fixing drainage tube into the gall bladder and the
parietal peritoneum
B. blending metal clip on cystic duct, recutting artery, suturing the gallbladder bed
C. ligation of cystic duct, gallbladder removal, drainage of subhepatic space
D. allocation subserously , gallbladder puncture of the gallbladder, cystic duct transection
E. puncture of the gallbladder, holetsystostomy
211. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the left and right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted
laparoscopy.During conducting diagnostic laparoscopy acute biliary pancreatitis is characterized by
A. * visual picture of also acute cholecystitis
B. presence of "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid
D. dark red, brown or black pancreas
E. gland lobules are displayed clearly
212. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the left and right upper
quadrant, nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy.
During conducting diagnostic laparoscopy with a picture of acute cholecystitis there are signs of
inflammation of the pancreas that occurs in this state as
A. * Biliary acute pancreatitis
B. Focal necrotizing pancreatitis
C. Focal hemorrhagic pancreatitis
D. Mixed pancreatic necrosis
E. Intact pancreas
213. For laparoscopy on suspicion of pancreatic cancer staging port for laparoscope is placed
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
214. Patient N., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination doctor conducted laparoscopy. Acute
catharral cholecystitis appearance is characterized by
A. * enlarged stretched gallbladder
B. hyperemia on the background, fibrinous layering can be observed
C. the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
D. the presence of black spots with bile contents in the free abdominal cavity
E. omentum tightly wrapped around gallbladder, as a result-poor visualization
215. Patient S., 52 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination doctor conducted laparoscopy. Black spots
with leaks of contents into the free abdominal cavity can be seen at

A. * acute gangrenous perforated cholecystitis

B. acute cholecystitis simple
C. acute phlegmonous cholecystitis
D. intact gallbladder
E. perforated cholecystitis
216. Patient S., 57 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the left upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. Mixed
necrotizing pancreatitis in a patient is characterized by
A. * dark red, brown or black pancreatic cancer, the presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal
cavity, the presence of "stearic plaques"
B. presence of scattered on the surface of large and small omentum or elsewhere "stearic plaques"
C. presence of hemorrhagic fluid in the free abdominal cavity
D. visual picture of acute cholecystitis andcharacteristic signs of inflammation of the pancreas
E. There is no specific sign
217. For laparoscopy on suspicion of pancreatic cancer, the second port is set
A. * At midline abdominal epigastrium above the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
218. Patient S., 57 years old, entered the department with complaints of pain in the right upper quadrant,
nausea, general weakness. After additional examination surgeon conducted laparoscopy. In acute
gangrenous cholecystitis gallbladder looks as
A. * the presence of black spots with fibrinous layers
B. hyperemia on the background, fibrinous layerings can be observed
C. enlarged stretched gallbladder
D. the presence of black spots with bile contents in the free abdominal cavity
E. omentum tightly wrapped around gallbladder, as a result-poor visualization
219. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery
A. * Five 10-mm ports are utilized; 5-mm ports may be substituted in the subxiphoid and right subcostal
access sites.
B. Five 10-mm ports are utilized; 5-mm ports may be substituted in the subxiphoid access sites.
C. Five 10-mm ports are utilized; 5-mm ports may be substituted in the right subcostal access sites.
D. Five 10-mm ports are utilized.
E. Five 5-mm ports are utilized.
220. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery
A. * Place the camera above the umbilicus, one third of the distance to the xiphoid process.
B. Place the camera above the umbilicus, one half of the distance to the xiphoid process.
C. Place the camera under the umbilicus, one third of the distance to the pubis.
D. Place the camera above the xiphoid process.
E. Place the camera aside the umbilicus.
221. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery
A. * In most patients, if the camera is placed in the umbilicus, it will be too low to allow adequate
visualization of the hiatal strictures once dissected. A transrectus location is preferable to midline to
minimize the prevalence of port site hernia formation.
B. In most patients, if the camera is placed in the umbilicus, it will be too high to allow adequate
visualization of the hiatal strictures once dissected.

C. A transrectus location is not preferable to midline to minimize the prevalence of port site hernia
formation.
D. In most patients, the camera is placed in the umbilicus.
E. In most patients, a transrectus location is preferable.
222. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery
A. * Place two lateral retracting ports in the right and left anterior axillary lines, respectively.
B. Place two lateral retracting ports in the right and left posterior axillary lines, respectively.
C. Place two lateral retracting ports in the right and left middle axillary lines, respectively.
D. Place two lateral retracting ports in the right and left clavicular lines, respectively.
E. Place two lateral retracting ports in the right and left pararectal lines, respectively.
223. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery
A. * The left-sided operating port (surgeons right hand) is placed 1 to 2 in. below the costal margin
approximately at the lateral rectus border.
B. The left-sided operating port (surgeons right hand) is placed 1 to 2 in. below the costal margin
approximately at the lateral right rectus border.
C. The left-sided operating port (surgeons right hand) is placed 1 to 2 in. above the costal margin
approximately at the lateral rectus border.
D. The left-sided operating port (surgeons right hand) is placed 3 to 4 in. below the costal margin
approximately at the lateral rectus border.
E. The left-sided operating port (surgeons right hand) is placed 4 to 5 in. below the costal margin
approximately at the lateral rectus border.
224. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery one uses 30% to 45% of
reverse Trendelenburg to displace the transverse colon and small bowel inferiorly,
A. * keeping them from obstructing the view of the video camera
B. keeping them from obstructing the view of the hiatus
C. keeping them from obstructing the view of liver
D. keeping them from obstructing the view of the stomach
E. it is traditional
225. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. At Toupet surgery one uses to displace the
transverse colon and small bowel inferiorly, keeping them from obstructing the view of the video
camera
A. * 30% to 45% of reverse Trendelenburg
B. 30% to 45% of direct Trendelenburg
C. 30% to 40% of reverse Trendelenburg
D. 15% to 45% of reverse Trendelenburg
E. 30% to 60% of direct Trendelenburg
226. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Laparoscopic fundoplication is indicated for
A. * the treatment of objectively documented, relatively severe gastroesophageal re?ux disease
B. the treatment of relatively severe gastroesophageal re?ux disease
C. the treatment of appendicitis
D. the treatment of objectively severe gastroesophageal re?ux disease
E. the treatment of re?ux
227. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patient position at GERD surgery is
A. * patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed
B. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 75 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed

C. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 15 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed
D. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly extended
E. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position
228. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patient position at GERD surgery is
A. * patient is placed supine, the knees only slightly ?exed
B. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 75 degrees
C. patient is placed with the head elevated 15 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position
D. patient is placed with the head elevated 45 degrees, the knees only slightly extended
E. patient is placed
229. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patient position at fundoplication is
A. * patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed
B. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 75 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed
C. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 15 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly ?exed
D. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position, the
knees only slightly extended
E. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 45 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position
230. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patient position at Nissen procedure is
A. * patient is placed supine, the knees only slightly ?exed
B. patient is placed supine with the head elevated 75 degrees
C. patient is placed with the head elevated 15 degrees in the modi?ed lithotomy position
D. patient is placed with the head elevated 45 degrees, the knees only slightly extended
E. patient is placed
231. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux and
any of the following may be considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication:
A. * All of the listed
B. Esophageal complications such as erosive esophagitis, stricture, and/or Barretts esophagus
C. Respiratory complications such as recurrent pneumonia or bronchiectasis
D. Dependence upon proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for relief of symptoms, particularly if dose
escalation is required, and in the young
E. Laryngeal and/or respiratory symptoms with a good response to PPI therapy
232. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Esophageal complications such as erosive esophagitis, stricture, and/or Barretts esophagus
B. Non-Respiratory complications
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
233. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Erosive esophagitis
B. Non-Respiratory complications
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet

E. None of the listed

234. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Esophageal stricture
B. Non-Respiratory complications
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
235. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Barretts esophagus
B. Non-Respiratory complications
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
236. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Respiratory complication such as bronchiectasis
B. Non-erosive esophagitis
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
237. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Respiratory complication such as recurrent pneumonia
B. Non-erosive esophagitis
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
238. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Dependence upon proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for relief of symptoms, particularly if dose
escalation is required
B. Non-erosive esophagitis
C. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
D. Laryngeal symptoms with a good response to diet
E. None of the listed
239. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. Patients with gastroesophageal re?ux may be
considered candidates for the procedure of laparoscopic fundoplication at:
A. * Laryngeal and/or respiratory symptoms with a good response to PPI therapy
B. Respiratory complication such as bronchitis
C. Non-erosive esophagitis
D. Dependence upon diet for relief of symptoms
E. None of the listed
240. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The surgeon stands at Nissen fundoplication
A. * between the patients legs
B. to the right of the patient
C. to the left of the patient
D. either side of the patient
E. at the patients head
241. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The surgeon stands at Dor fundoplication
A. * between the patients legs
B. to the right of the patient
C. to the left of the patient
D. either side of the patient
E. at the patients head
242. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The surgeon stands at Toupet fundoplication
A. * between the patients legs
B. to the right of the patient
C. to the left of the patient
D. either side of the patient
E. at the patients head
243. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The surgeon stands at GERD surgery
A. * between the patients legs
B. to the right of the patient
C. to the left of the patient
D. either side of the patient
E. at the patients head
244. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The surgeon stands at GERD surgery
A. * The surgeon stands between the legs and works with both hands. This allows the rightand left-
handed instruments to approach the hiatus from the respective upper abdominal quadrants.
B. The surgeon stands between the legs and works with right hand.
C. The surgeon stands between the legs and works with left hand. This allows the right and left-handed
instruments to approach the hiatus from the respective upper abdominal quadrants.
D. The surgeon stands aside the patient and works with both hands. This allows the rightand left-handed
instruments to approach the hiatus from the respective upper abdominal quadrants.
E. The surgeon stands between the legs and works with left hand. This allows the left-handed
instruments to approach the hiatus.
245. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of the following stages.
A. * 24-hour pH monitoring
B. Manometric examination
C. Assessment of esophageal length to exclude esophageal shortening.
D. Selection of a partial versus complete fundoplication
E. All of the listed
246. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of one of the following stages.
A. * 24-hour pH monitoring
B. Manometric ultrasound
C. Assessment of esophageal width
D. Selection of a partial fundoplication technique
E. None of the listed
247. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of one of the following stages.
A. * Manometric examination
B. Manometric ultrasound

C. Assessment of esophageal width

D. Selection of a partial fundoplication technique
E. None of the listed
248. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of one of the following stages.
A. * Assessment of esophageal length to exclude esophageal shortening.
B. Manometric ultrasound
C. Assessment of esophageal width
D. Selection of a partial fundoplication technique
E. None of the listed
249. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of one of the following stages.
A. * Selection of a partial versus complete fundoplication
B. Manometric ultrasound
C. Assessment of esophageal width
D. Selection of a partial fundoplication technique
E. None of the listed
250. The patient K., 40 yrs.old is undergoing GERD surgery. The workup for laparoscopic treatment of
GERD consists of one of the following stages.
A. * None of the listed
B. Manometric ultrasound
C. Assessment of esophageal width
D. Selection of a partial fundoplication technique
E. None of the listed

(): : 12
Endoscopic surgery krok
:

:
1. ?"Blind" trocar is:
A. first (optical) Trocar
B. Surgical Trocar
C. Assistant Trocar
D. * Trocar type Visiport
E. all answers are correct
2. "Minimally invasive surgery" means:
A. * perform operations at minimum access
B. perform the operation as quickly as possible
C. perform operations using laser
D. executing operation in only one anatomic site
E. perform operations after prior chemotherapy
3. Arthroscopy is:
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. * Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
4. Aspirator-irrigator is:
A. The device that provides a supply of fluid into the abdominal cavity
B. The device that ensures removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity
C. The device that maintains pressure in the abdomen
D. There is no right answer
E. * Answers A, B are right
5. At laparoscopy one can figure out all of the listed except:
A. Color of tumor
B. * The morphological structure of the tumor
C. The presence of metastases
D. The consistency of the tumor
E. The mobility of tumor
6. At what temperature presterilization of laparoscopic instruments is performed?
A. * 50 C
B. 20 C
C. 30 C.
D. 90 C
E. 120 C
7. At what temperature sterilization of laparoscopic instruments in dry-air camera is performed?
A. 100-120 C
B. 140-160 C
C. * 170-180 C
D. 190-200 C
E. 80-90 C

8. Before the needle of Veresh puncture one must:

A. * Fix the abdominal wall
B. Press the epigastrium
C. Press the left and right sides
D. Add the liquid into the urinary catheter
E. Ask permission from the anesthesiologist
9. For of laparoscopy on perforated ulcer, a second port input is carried out
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel on the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. At Volkovych-Kocher point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
10. Benefits of operations performed by laparoscopic method over traditional:
A. More quick
B. More effective
C. Short postoperative period
D. Cosmetic effect
E. * Answers C and D are correct
11. Camcorder is:
A. Apparatus for coagulation
B. * Apparatus for recording image
C. Tools for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity
12. Culdoscopy is:
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. * Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
13. In the implementation of laparoscopy for suspected salpingal disorder, optical port input
is done
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
14. Diagnostic laparoscopy is informative at:
A. Vesico-ureteric reflux
B. * Acute appendicitis
C. Adrenal tumor
D. Hemophilia
E. Femoral hernia
15. Diagnostic laparoscopy is performed for:
A. * Confirmation of the diagnosis
B. Removal of the gallbladder

C. Removal of fluid at ascites

D. Appendectomy
E. There is no right answer
16. Directly into the abdominal cavity carbon dioxide is supplied through:
A. Laparoscope
B. Insuflator
C. Coagulator
D. * Trocar
E. Light
17. In the implementation of laparoscopy on suspicion of pelvic tumor, staging port for
laparoscope is put
A. * In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
18. Duomat - is:
A. Tool for the aspiration out of the abdominal cavity
B. The apparatus for performing hemostasis
C. The apparatus for supplying carbon dioxide into the peritoneal cavity
D. Tool for sutures
E. * Apparatus for aeration and aspiration of abdominal contents
19. During laparoscopy abdominal pressure is maintained within:
A. 20 mm Hg.
B. 5 mm Hg.
C. * 12 mm Hg.
D. 25 mm Hg.
E. 8 mm Hg.
20. During laparoscopy abdominal pressure supports device called:
A. Duomat
B. Infusion pump
C. * Insuflator
D. Aspirator
E. Respirator
21. Endosurgical complex consists of:
A. Videocomplex
B. Systems of aspiration and irrigation
C. Systems of insufflation
D. Coagulation Systems
E. * All answers are correct
22. Endovideosurgery complex consists of:
A. Videocomplex
B. Systems of aspiration and irrigation
C. Systems of insufflation
D. Coagulation system
E. * All answers are correct

23. For aspiration biopsy instruments are sterilized by:

A. boiling
B. autoclaving
C. * dry high temperature camera
D. In formaline camera
E. In the antiseptic solution
24. For imposing pneumoperitoneum by needle of Veresh into the abdominal cavity one must not enter:
A. * Above the pubis of the white line of the abdomen
B. In the right iliac region
C. In the left iliac region
D. Below the navel on the white line of the abdomen
E. Above the navel on the white line of the abdomen
25. For imposing pneumoperitoneum needle puncture into the abdominal cavity can be made through:
A. * above the pubis in linea alba
B. In the right iliac region
C. In the left iliac region
D. below the navel on linea alba
E. above the navel on linea alba
26. For laparoscopy one can apply all of the listed, except:
A. Air
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Narbon dioxide
D. Oxygen
E. * Furatsilin
27. For the creation of pneumoperitoneum in modern laparoscopy mostly is used:
A. Air
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. * Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen
E. Saline
28. For traction of gallbladder surgeon should use this tool:
A. dissector
B. surgical clamp
C. * anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. monopolar electrode
29. Furrier needle is used to:
A. continuous suture of the intestine
B. knot suture of the intestine
C. for the closure of parenchymal organs
D. * for stitching wounds
E. for suturing the stomach wall
30. Hasson Trocar is used for:
A. * open method of setting the optical trocar
B. after a needle of Veresh for carboxyperitoneum
C. as a surgical port for working tools

D. as an additional assistant trocar

E. in all these cases
31. How is the first trocar, which is introduced into the abdominal cavity after carboxyperitoneum
overlay with a needle of Veresh?
A. Hasson Trocar
B. Valve Trocar
C. Trocar-plunger
D. Disposable Trocar
E. * blind Trocar
32. In the implementation of laparoscopy on suspicion of pelvic tumor, setting the working
port is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium 10 cm below the navel
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At Volkovych-Kocher point
E. At Kerr point
33. How many stages of processing and sterilization of laparoscopic instruments do you know?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. * 4
E. 1
34. How much time is spent for sterilization of laparoscopic instruments in dry-air closet?
A. 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 2 h 30 min
D. 3 hours
E. * 1 hour
35. How much time is spent on presterilization processing of laparoscopic instruments?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. * 15 minutes
E. 1 hour
36. In the implementation of laparoscopy over suspected salpingitis, preparing the second
port site is carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen below the navel in hypogastrium
B. In mesogastrium 1 cm above or below the navel the median line
C. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium 10 cm above the navel
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
37. In some of these cases using monopolar coagulation is prohibited?
A. At the presence titanium plates
B. At the presence of adrenal lesions
C. * At the presence of pacemaker
D. At the presence of echinococcal liver disease
E. At the presence of bladder damage

38. In the medial fold there is:

A. Hepatic artery
B. portal vein
C. choledochus
D. Inferior vena cava
E. * Obliterated umbilical artery
39. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on intra-tumor staging, the second port typically is
placed
A. * Depending on the tumor site
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
40. In the round ligament of liver there is:
A. Hepatic artery
B. portal vein
C. choledochus
D. Inferior vena cava
E. * Obliterated hepatic vein
41. Insuflator is:
A. The device that provides air flow in the abdominal cavity
B. The device, which provides creating space in the abdominal cavity
C. The device that maintains pressure in the abdomen
D. There is no right answer
E. * Listed answers are right
42. Into clinical practice laparoscopic method of examination was introduced by:
A. Kelling in 1901
B. * Yakobeus in 1910
C. Schmidt in 1927.
D. Tracking in 1929
E. Raddok in 1929
43. Into the abdomen laparoscope is introduced:
A. Rotary motion
B. * Under eye supervision
C. Slowly
D. Quickly
E. At an angle to the anterior abdominal wall
44. Into the abdomen the laparoscope is introduced:
A. Botary motion
B. * Under the vision control
C. Slowly
D. Quickly
E. At angle to the anterior abdominal wall
45. Into the abdominal cavity during laparoscopy is used
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrous Oxide

C. * Carbon dioxide
D. Air
E. There is no right answer
46. Laparoscope is sterilized:
A. In a solution of carbolic acid
B. In Furacilinum
C. In a solution of formic acid
D. Autoclaving
E. * In a solution of chlorhexidine
47. Laparoscope is:
A. Apparatus for coagulation
B. * Tool for inspection of the abdominal cavity
C. Tool for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity
48. Laparoscopic cholecystcholangiography was first performed by
A. Fervers
B. * Li
C. Royer
D. Tracing
E. Henning
49. Laparoscopic scissors are:
A. One-branch straight and curved
B. Two-branch straight and curved
C. One-branch curved
D. * all of the above listed
E. One-branch straight
50. Laparoscopic trocar not be introduced into the abdominal cavity:
A. below and to the right of the navel
B. below and to the left on the navel
C. for the white line of the abdomen below the navel
D. * above the pubis
E. above and to the left of the navel
51. Laparoscopy is:
A. * Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
52. Lightcomplex is:
A. Apparatus for coagulation
B. * The apparatus for creating light that is passed into the abdominal cavity
C. Tools for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity

53. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspected perforated ulcer, the introduction of

instrumental conducting port is done
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. At Kerr point
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
54. Luer cannula. What is it for?
A. For the transmission of light
B. To connect the electrode
C. To connect the tube to the gas supply
D. * For traction of anterior abdominal wall
E. For a camcorder
55. Mediastinoscopy - is:
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. * Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
56. Method of thoracoscopy first time in the world was offered by:
A. Kussmaul in 1868
B. * Yakobeus in 1910
C. Taylor in 1914
D. Friedel in 1956.
E. Karlensa in 1959
57. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of hepatitis, the second input port is
typically carried out
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Kerr point
58. Monitor is:
A. Apparatus for coagulation
B. * The apparatus for image retranslation
C. Tool for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity
59. Morcelator - is:
A. tool for fixing tissues
B. tool for the selection of tissues
C. tool for tissue coagulation
D. * tool to remove tissues
E. tool for biopsy
60. Most of laparoscopically performed operations are:
A. Appendectomy
B. * Cholecystectomy
C. Nephrectomy
D. Herniotomiya
E. All answers are correct
61. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute appendicitis, setting the
working port is typically carried out
A. * On The median line below the umbilicus in hypogastrium
B. On the midline of the abdomen in mesogastrium
C. At midline abdominal
D. Epigastrium midline of the abdomen 2-3 cm below the xiphoid processus
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
62. Name the type of stylet which does not exist
A. atraumatic
B. cone
C. pyramidal
D. * trapezoidal
E. mixed
63. Needle of Veresh is a:
A. Tool to puncture tissues
B. * Tool to puncture the abdominal cavity
C. Tool for insertion into aponeurosis
D. Tool for applying sutures
E. Tool for insertion into stomach
64. Optical fiber is:
A. Apparatus for coagulation
B. * Optical cable to transmit light into the abdominal cavity
C. Tools for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity
65. Presterilization processing is carried out in solution of:
A. * 3% hydrogen peroxide and detergent
B. iodine with detergents
C. alcohol
D. Sydex"
E. Verkon"
66. Special laparoscope optics and light were designed for the first time by:
A. Boller in 1927.
B. * Tracing in 1929
C. Frederick in 1930
D. Hes in 1937
E. Tapes in 1945
67. Special needle for pneumoperitoneum was first constructed by:
A. Tapes in 1927.
B. Tracing in 1929
C. Frederick in 1930
D. Hes in 1937
E. * Veresh in 1938.

68. Surgeons use reduction in carbon dioxide supply system. Why?

A. To calculate the amount gas spent
B. * To safeguard insuflators of excessive gas pressure in the cylinder
C. To establish the rate of flow of gas into the abdominal cavity
D. To determine the quality of carbon dioxide
E. To clean the carbon impurities
69. The author of the first monograph on laparoscopy is:
A. Kelling in 1924
B. * Yakobeus in 1921
C. Korbsh in 1921
D. Steiner in 1924
E. Tsollikofer in 1924
70. The best type of anesthesia during diagnostic laparoscopy:
A. * Endotracheal anesthesia
B. Spinal anesthesia
C. Inhalation anesthesia
D. Intravenous anesthesia
E. Rausch-anesthesia
71. The diameter of trocar used mostly in modern laparoscopy
A. 2 and 4 mm
B. 4 and 8 mm
C. * 5 and 10 mm
D. 15 and 20 mm
E. 10 and 15 mm
72. The following stylet is more secure than others
A. cone
B. pyramidal
C. * atraumatic
D. mixed
E. trapezoidal
73. The introduction of laparoscopic trocar into the abdominal cavity is facilitated by all listed except:
A. Incision of the skin
B. Dissection of aponeurosis
C. * Incision of peritoneum
D. Trocar rotational motion around its axis
E. Suturing anterior abdominal wall up to the aponeurosis
74. The kind of trocar valve mechanism which does not exist
A. Piston
B. Window
C. Magnetic
D. * Contact
E. Single
75. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute adnexitis, instrumental port
typically is placed
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
B. At Kerr point

C. In the periumbilical area

D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
76. The least dangerous to make celiocentesis for laparoscopy is:
A. 2 cm above the umbilicus and 2 cm to the right of the linea alba
B. 2 cm above the umbilicus and 2 cm to the left of the linea alba
C. 2 cm below the umbilicus and 2 cm to the left of the linea alba
D. 2 cm below the umbilicus and 2 cm to the right of the linea alba
E. * 2 cm below the umbilicus and 1 cm to the right of the linea alba
77. The least dangerous to make celiocentesis for laparoscopy is:
A. 2 cm above the umbilicus and 2 cm to the right of the linea alba
B. 2 cm above the umbilicus and 2 cm left of the linea alba
C. 2 cm below the umbilicus and 2 cm left of the linea alba
D. 2 cm below the umbilicus and 2 cm to the right of the linea alba
E. * 2 cm below the umbilicus and 1 cm to the right of the linea alba
78. The maximum angle allowed for bending fiber-optic cable?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. * 90
E. 120
79. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cyst of the right lobe of the liver,
staging port for laparoscope is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
80. The maximum flow rate of gas through the needle of Veresh?
A. 1 L / min
B. 5 L / min
C. 7 L/ min
D. * 3 L / min
E. 9 L / min
81. The parts of tools for connecting tissues are
A. Handless and inserts without cremaliers
B. Cremaliers without handles, inserts and tube
C. With handles and inserts with cremaliers
D. Tools are solid
E. * Cremalier handles, inserts and tube
82. The phrase "Minimally invasive surgery" means:
A. * perform operations at minimum access
B. perform the operation as quickly as possible
C. perform operations using laser
D. executing operation in only one anatomic site
E. perform operations after prior chemotherapy

83. To perform a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cyst of the right lobe of the liver,
staging second port typically is placed
A. * On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
B. In the periumbilical area
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
84. The reason why surgeons use fiber optic cable is
A. * To transfer the "cold" light
B. For gas supply
C. For the signal from the camera
D. To apply liquid
E. For coagulation
85. The solution used in the suction-irrigator is
A. Glucose
B. Furacillinum
C. * Physiological
D. Solution with antibiotic
E. Chlorhexidine
86. The three main groups of instruments for laparoscopy are
A. For access, basic and supportable
B. For access, general and special purpose
C. General, special, utility
D. * For separation of tissues, specific, for connection of tissues
E. Tools for laparoscopy are not divided into groups
87. The three main indicators of apparatus for insufflation important for the surgeon during surgery are
A. The pressure in the abdomen, gas temperature and carbon dioxide level in the tank
B. Pressure in the abdomen, the rate of gas supply and gas temperature
C. The pressure in the abdominal cavity, the gas flow rate and the level of carbon dioxide in the tank
D. * The pressure in the abdominal cavity, the gas flow rate and the amount of gas spent
E. The rate of gas supply, the amount of spent gas and gas temperature
88. The three main types of laparoscopes by angle?
A. 0 , 15 , 45
B. 0 , 45 , 60
C. 10 , 25 , 50
D. * 0 , 30 , 45
E. 0 , 5 , 10
89. The tools that are used in preparing and applying pneumoperitoneum include all of these except:
A. Janet Syringe
B. Scalpel
C. Puncture needle
D. Clamp
E. * Needle clamp
90. The tools that are used when preparing and applying the pneumoperitoneum include all of these,
except:
A. Janet Syringe
B. Scalpel

C. Puncture needle
D. Clamp
E. * Dressing
91. The tools used in the performance of laparoscopic cholecystocholangiography include all of these
except:
A. "Record"Syringe
B. Iversen - Roholm Needle
C. Scalpel
D. * Soft clip
E. Metal palpator
92. Thoracoscopy - is:
A. Overview of the abdominal cavity using a special endoscope
B. * Overview of the chest cavity using a special endoscope
C. Review of the mediastinum using a special endoscope
D. Review the joint cavity using a special endoscope
E. Pelvic exam using a special endoscope
93. To dissect cancer node surgeon should use this tool:
A. monopolar electrode
B. * surgical "crocodile" clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. "universal" clamp
94. To isolate gallbladder surgeon can use this tool:
A. * monopolar "scoop" electrode
B. surgical clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. monopolar electrode
95. To isolate the cystic artery surgeon should use this tool:
A. * dissector
B. surgical clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. "universal" clamp
96. To isolate the cystic duct surgeon should use this tool:
A. * dissector
B. surgical clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. "universal" clamp
97. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of liver echinococcosis, optical
port input is typically carried out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point

98. To perform arthroscopy there is necessity of:

A. Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. Intubation of main bronchi
C. The introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. The introduction of air into the joint cavity
E. * The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
99. To perform laparoscopy one needs all of the listed, except:
A. Sharp-pointed scalpel
B. Trocar
C. Gas transition rubber tube
D. * Wound retractor
E. laparoscope
100. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of acute pancreatitis, port for
laparoscope typically is placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
101. To perform laparoscopy surgeon needs:
A. * Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. Introduction of fluid in the abdominal cavity
C. Introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. Introduction of fluid in the chest cavity
E. The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
102. To perform laparoscopy there is necessity of:
A. * Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. Introduction of fluid in the abdominal cavity
C. The introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. Introduction of fluid in the chest cavity
E. The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
103. To perform thoracoscopy there is necessity of:
A. Introduction of air into the abdominal cavity
B. * Intubation of main bronchi
C. The introduction of air into the chest cavity
D. Introduction of fluid in the chest cavity
E. The introduction of fluid into the joint cavity
104. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of abscess of Douglas space,
the first port is typically placed
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
105. To stop the bleeding from the liver surgeon can use this tool:
A. * monopolar electrode "scoop"
B. surgical clamp
C. anatomical clip
D. bipolar forceps
E. "universal" clamp
106. Trocar - is:
A. * Special toos, consisting of shell and stylet
B. Kind of scalpel
C. A special tool used to stop bleeding
D. Variety of clips
E. Stapler
107. Trocar type Visiport - is:
A. Assistant 5mm Trocar
B. Surgical 5mm Trocar
C. * Optical Trocar
D. 10 mm assistant Trocar
E. 10mm Surgical Trocar
108. Trocar used in laparoscopy differs from the classic by:
A. No valve
B. Always disposable
C. * The presence of a special valve
D. Has a length of 10 cm
E. Similar to other trocars
109. Trocar used in performance of laparoscopic thoracoscopy is special because of the next reason:
A. * No valve
B. Always disposable
C. The presence of a special valve
D. Has a length of 10 cm
E. Similar to other trocars
110. Trocars for laparoscopy are:
A. 5 and 10 mm with channel for gas supply
B. 5 and 10 mm without channel for gas supply
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
E. * all of the above listed
111. Videocomplex consists in:
A. * video camera, monitor, DVR, laparoscopy, illuminator, fiber
B. camera, DVR, laparoscopy, illuminator, fiber
C. camera, monitor, laparoscopy, illuminator, fiber
D. video camera, monitor, DVR, illuminator, fiber
E. Monitor, DVR, laparoscopy, illuminator, fiber
112. Videocomplex for laparoscopy has the following components:
A. The monitor
B. Camcorder
C. Light
D. Laparoscope
E. * All answers are correct
113. VideoRS is:

A. Apparatus for coagulation

B. * Apparatus for recording video
C. Tools for fixation of the abdominal cavity
D. Apparatus for recording image
E. The device for the aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity
114. Visual laparoscopy was first applied by:
A. * Kelling in 1901
B. Ott in 1901
C. Caroli in 1909
D. Bergman in 1926
E. Rumann in 1932
115. What are the parts of tools for connecting tissues?
A. Handless and inserts without cremaliers
B. Cremaliers without handles, inserts and tube
C. With handles and inserts with cremaliers
D. Tools are solid
E. * Cremalier handles, inserts and tube
116. What are the parts of tools for tissue separation?
A. Handles and inserts without cremaliers
B. cremaliers without handles, inserts and tube
C. with handles and inserts with cremaliers
D. tools for dissection are solid
E. * Handles with cremaliers, inserts and tube
117. What are the three main groups of instruments for laparoscopy?
A. For access, basic and supportable
B. For access, general and special purpose
C. General, special, utility
D. * For separation of tissues, specific, for connection of tissues
E. Tools for laparoscopy are not divided into groups
118. When carrying out a diagnostic laparoscopy on suspicion of cyst of the left lobe of the
liver, entering the first port is typically carried out
A. * In the periumbilical area
B. On the midline of the abdomen in the epigastrium
C. On the midline of the abdomen in hypogastrium
D. At McBurney point
E. At Volkovych-Kocher point
119. What are the three main indicators of apparatus for insufflation important for the surgeon during
surgery?
A. The pressure in the abdomen, gas temperature and carbon dioxide level in the tank
B. Pressure in the abdomen, the rate of gas supply and gas temperature
C. The pressure in the abdominal cavity, the gas flow rate and the level of carbon dioxide in the tank
D. * The pressure in the abdominal cavity, the gas flow rate and the amount of gas spent
E. The rate of gas supply, the amount of spent gas and gas temperature
120. What are the three main types of laparoscopes in the classification of angle?
A. 0 , 15 , 45
B. 0 , 45 , 60
C. 10 , 25 , 50

D. * 0 , 30 , 45
E. 0 , 5 , 10

():
Step. Social Medicine and Health Care Organization. Module 1.
:
11-12 terms, 6 course med
:
1. ?A number of viable fetuses per 1000 women at the age between 15 and 44 is determined by:
A. * Reproductive level
B. Genital index
C. Birth rate
D. Perinatal rate
E. Obstetric rate
2. Point out the unit for statistical observation for the determination of blood sugar level influence on a
wound surface healing during postoperative period.
A. * The patient in a postoperative period
B. Blood sugar level
C. Blood test
D. The patient who has a wound surface
E. The patient who was discharged to outpatient treatment
3. What information gathering method is preferable to study housing conditions of medical students
during training period?
A. * Questionaire
B. Interviewing
C. Materials selection
D. Directed selection method
E. Statistical
4. What method of the collecting of the information is preferable for study of housing conditions of
students of medical HIGH SCHOOL for a training period?
A. * Selecting of materials
B. Questioning
C. Interviewing
D. A method of the directed selection
E. Statistical
5. Choose a method of a graphic representation of monthly information about number of the registered
cases of acute intestinal infection and their comparisons to the average monthly values, obtained for 5
previous years:
A. * The linear diagram
B. The radial diagram
C. The sector diagram
D. The figured diagram
E. The curvilinear diagram
6. The parameter of infantile mortality for the last year was - 16,3, in present year - 15,7. Name a kind
of the diagram that can be used for a graphic representation of it:
A. * Linear
B. Stylar
C. Intrastylar
D. Sector
E. Radial

7. The average body lenth of newborn boys is 50,9 cm at a sigma 1,66; and average mass - 3432 at a
sigma 5,00. What criterion is necessary in order to compare degree of variability of these signs?
A. * Coefficient of variation
B. Sigma
C. Limit
D. Amplitude
E. Coefficient of association
8. What method is applied to establish rate of correlation between age of men and their mortality due to
myocardial infarction?
A. * Method of grade correlation (Spirman)
B. Correlation ratio
C. The quadrate method (Pirson)
D. The Indirect method (Student)
E. Method of graduated correlation (Armler)
9. Indicate the registration medical document for the patient, who 21.02. was addressed to the
doctor with diagnosis ARVD for the first time in this year:
A. * The statistical coupon is to be filled in and it is necessary to deliver on a sign (+)
B. The statistical coupon for registration of final diagnosis is not necessary
C. The statistical coupon is to be filled in, but a sign (+) is not necessary to be put in
D. It is necessary to fill in the emergency notice on a case of a contagion
E. The necessary registration form is not indicated
10. Define the basic registration document at the profound study of a case rate with temporary lost labor
ability at the industrial enterprise:
A. * A card of the personal account of a case rate
B. "The Report on reasons of a temporary lost labor ability"
C. The sick-leave certificate
D. A ambulatory medical card
E. The inpatient medical record
11. Head of a department and a trade-union group have appealed to the head of a hospital about
dismissal of the senior nurse who has 17 year record of service. The facts of charge were
confirmed and recognized by the nurse herself. This nurse lives with a daughter (who is divorced and
unemployed) and a 9-month-old grandson. Make an administrative decision:
A. * To continue the worker in office with a warning of dismissal in case of repeated violation of labor
discipline
B. To discharge the worker, i.e. to satisfy demands of the collective
C. To issue the sick list
D. To shift the solution of this problem on other officials or public organizations
E. No dismissed without trial
12. 25 unorganized children in the age 2 years will be observed on a pediatric district it in the current
year. What scheduled number of initial visitations will make to this group of children?
A. * 100
B. 50
C. 20
D. 40
E. 200
13. 25 unorganized children in the age 3 years will be observed on a pediatric district it in the current
year. What scheduled number of initial visitations will make to this group of children?
A. * 50

B. 100
C. 20
D. 40
E. 200
14. A child is 6 years old. Within one year of observation he had URI that lasted 8 days. Physical state is
satisfactory. Specify his health group:
A. * I
B. II
C. III (a)
D. III (b)
E. III (c)
15. A 38 year old man was admitted to a hospital from his working place on July 19 because of hip
fracture. He was invalid till November 19. Requires prolongation of treatment. Who decides on the
issue of further temporary invalidity?
A. * Specialized (traumatologic) MSEC
B. DCC
C. The head physician of a polyclinic
D. Interregional general MSEC
E. Regional MSEC
16. What is the maximum duration of medical certificate of disability in case of professional diseases?
A. * 1 year
B. 2 months
C. Week
D. 2 weeks
E. Month
17. An engineer-chemist at the age of 47 often fells ill with an occupational skin disease. Who
makes a decision to transfer him to other job accepts?
A. * DCC
B. A head physician
C. The attending physician
D. The chief of shop
E. MSEC
18. A patient with high temperature came to a first-aid post in the evening. The fact of temporary
disability was established. Indicate the order of examination in this case:
A. * The night duty doctor should issue a medical certificate of disability, which will be subsequently used
for issuing a sick list from the date of the previous day
B. The sick list for 1 day should be issued
C. The sick list for up to 3 days should be issued
D. The sick list for 3 days should be issued
E. Any document shouldn't be issued
19. A 9 y.o. girl has an average height and harmonic growth development. She was ill with acute
respiratory infection for five times. Define the group of her health.
A. * 3rd group
B. 2nd group
C. 1st group
D. 4th group
E. 5th group

20. A 30-year-old patient with complaints of occipital headache, disturbed sleep with nightmares came
to a policlinic. BP was 150/95 mm Hg. He was diagnosed with hypertensic crisis. The patient
should be registered in the following dispensary group for arterial hypertension surveillance:
A. * In the third
B. In the second
C. In the first
D. In the fourth
E. In the fifth
21. A young patient who came to a policlinic was diagnosed with the 1 stage of hypertension. How often
should he undergo the medical check-up?
A. * Twice a year
B. Once a year
C. 3 times a year
D. 4 times a year
E. 5 times a year
22. 25 children at the age of 4 years who don't attend any child welfare institutions should be observed
by a district pediatrician within the current year. How many initial visits of this group of children
should be planned?
A. * 25
B. 20
C. 40
D. 100
E. 200
23. Studying of pulmonary tuberculosis incidence provided data about patients' socioeconomic living
conditions and bad habits. What method allows to estimate the impact of these factors on tuberculosis
incidence?
A. * Calculation of correlation coefficient
B. Calculation of correspondence index
C. Calculation of regression coefficient
D. Standardized index calculation
E. Calculation of reliability coefficient
24. A teacher of a secondary school was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. What is the maximum
duration of his medical certificate of disability?
A. * Ten months
B. Five months
C. Four months
D. Two months
E. A month
25. An employee of a private company was ill with acute respiratory viral infection. Consulted a
district doctor, who determined the fact of temporary loss of working ability, but refused to
issue a sick-list, arguing that the patient worked in the private and not state-owned company. Should
the sick-list be issued to the employees of private companies?
A. * Issued regardless of company's ownership
B. Issued only to empties of state-owned companies
C. Issued only on condition of payment guarantee by the company's proprietor
D. Issued a medical certificate of a set form
E. Issued a medical certificate of a free form

26. Clinic of a research institute for occupational diseases examined a worker who works at a
concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. The case is investigated by a
commission including the representatives of: the plant, clinic, territorial SES, department of Social
Insurance Fund, trade union. According to the "regulation on investigation of", the commission
should be headed by the representative of the following authority:
A. * Territorial SES
B. Plant
C. Social Insurance Fund
D. Trade union
E. Clinic
27. A maternity hospital registered 616 live births, 1 stillbirth, 1 death on the 5th day of life over a 1 year
period. What index allows the most precise estimation of this situation?
A. * Perinatal mortality
B. Crude mortality rate
C. Natality
D. Neonatal mortality
E. Natural increase
28. A 37 year old patient applied to a local therapeutist. As a result of exacerbation of chronic obstructive
bronchitis the patient had been temporarily disabled for 117 days within 1 year. What tactics will be
legally correct?
A. * The patient should be referred to the medicosocial expertise
B. The therapeutist should extend a medical certificate
C. The patient should be referred to the medical consultation comission for extension of medical
certificate
D. The therapeutist should issue a new medical certificate
E. The patient shoul be referred to the sanatorium-and-spa treatment
29. A district doctor was commisioned with a task to work out a plan of treatment-and-prophylaxis
actions for the population of his district. What actions of secondary prophylaxis must he
include into this plan?
A. * Prevention of disease complications
B. Disease prevention
C. Elimination of disease causes
D. Improvement of population's living conditions
E. Rehabilitation actions
30. The district pediatrician is charged with the analysis of infant mortality. What is taken for the unit
of observation in infant mortality investigation?
A. * A baby dead at the age up to 12 months
B. A baby dead at the age up to 1 months
C. A baby dead at the age over 28 days
D. A baby dead at the age up to 6 days
E. A baby dead at birth
31. Chief district pediatrician has to carry out analysis of infant mortality rate. What should he take as a
unit of the observation?
A. * Child death case at the age up to 1 year
B. Child death case at the age up to the first month
C. Child death case after 28 days of life
D. Child death case during first 7 days of life
E. Child death case on labor

32. Deputy of chief medical officer carried out a study of morbidity rate for population which had been
served at the polyclinics. What statistical values can help in calculation of morbidity rates?
A. * Relative values
B. Standard values
C. Average values
D. Absolute values
E. Dynamic series
33. There were registered 500 cases of urolithiasis per 10000 inhabitants. What kind of statictical indices
is presented?
A. * Prevalence rate
B. Correlation coefficient
C. Index of visualization
D. Incidence rate
E. Index of compliance
34. At year-end hospital administration has obtained the following data: annual number of treated
patients and average annual number of beds used for patients' treatment. What index of hospital work
can be calculated on the base of this data?
A. * Bed turnover
B. Bed resources of the hospital
C. Average annual bed occupancy
D. Average duration of patients' presence in the hospital
E. Average bed idle time
35. An outpatient hospital made record of 11600 diseases within one year. Among them influenza and
ARD make up 5800, circulatory system diseases - 3480, digestion diseases - 1300, other diseases -
1020. What relative index can be calculated according this data?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Visualization
D. Correlation
E. Average
36. Prevalence of a disease in region N amounted 1156 occurences per 1000 of inhabitants. What of the
mentioned indices characterizes the disease prevalence?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Ratio
D. Visual index
E. Standardized
37. District physician was charged with plan drafting concerning medical and preventive measures
among the population in the area he is assigned to. What measures must he include in this plan as
regards primary prevention of illness?
A. * Prevention of disease onset
B. Referral of patients to sanatorium
C. Measures to increase patients' life quality
D. Measures to improve patients' life conditions
E. Prevention of disease complications
38. A therapeutist needs to analyze adult health in the area of service. Which groups of indicators will be
included into this analysis?
A. * Demographic, sickness rates, disability

B. Demographic, sickness rates, physical development

C. Sickness rates, disability, death rates
D. Birth rates, sickness rates, disability
E. Sickness rates, death rates, physical development
39. A district pediarician has carried out neonatal mortality rate analysis in his area. What data has been
used?
A. * Mortality of children under 1 months of life
B. Mortality of children under 1 y.o., natimortality
C. Hospital mortality of children, structured by age
D. Mortality of district adolescents
E. Mortality of district newborn
40. A local doctor has to prepare a report about the health condition of the population of his region. What
medical indexes of population health condition should he use?
A. * Morbidity, disabilities, demographic, physical development
B. Social welfare, satisfaction of life quality
C. Way of life, genetic, pollution
D. Average treatment duration, complications
E. Average longevity
41. Study of morbidity with temporary disability among workers of a machine building plant revealed
that average duration of a case was 20 days. What diseases influenced upon the index value?
A. * Chronic
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Preexisting diseases
E. Hard to determine
42. A patient consulted a doctor about acure respiratory viral infection. The patient was acknowledged to
be off work. The doctor issued him a certificate of disability for 5 days. The patient is not recovering.
What measures should the doctor take in order to legalize the further disability of patient?
A. * To prolong the medical certificate at his own discretion but no more than for 10 days in total
B. To prolong the medical certificate at his own discretion but no more than for 6 days in total
C. To prolong the medical certificate together with department superintendent
D. To send the patient to the medical consultative commission
E. To send the patient to the medical social expert comission
43. A patient is on the sick leave for 4 months continuously from the date of injury. The treatment is
going to last for 1-2 months more. Who has the right to extend the duration of medical
certificate for this patient?
A. * Medical advisory commission after medico-social expert commission examination
B. Medical superintendent
C. Medical advisory commission after inpatient treatment
D. District doctor by agreement with a department chief
E. Medico-social expert commission
44. It is determined that 30 of a 100 women with risk factor had preterm labor, and of a 100 women
without risk factor 5 women had preterm labor. What method of statistic data processing should the
doctor use in order to estimate reliability of differences between the compared groups?
A. * Student's criterion calculation
B. Average computing
C. Relative numbers calculation
D. Standardization method

E. Correlation analysis
45. 350 workers of a metalurgical plant had to undergo a yearly preventive examination. A territorial
polyclinic carried out preventive examination of 325 workers. As a result of it, 1 worker was
recognized as temporarily disabled, 15 workers underwent further rehabilitation at an after-work
sanatorium, 10 workers were provided with diet meal. What index characterizing the tertiary
preventive work of the polyclinic should be applied in this case?
A. * Percentage of people who underwent rehabilitation at an after-work sanatorium
B. Coverage of preventive medical examinations
C. Frequency of case detection during examinations
D. Percentage of people who were provided with diet meal
E. Percentage of temporarily disabled people
46. District doctor of rural medical department was called to a 42-year-old patient. While examining the
patient, the doctor suspected the dysentery. What document must the doctor issue?
A. * Urgent notification of infectious disease
B. Statistical coupon of final (precise) diagnosis
C. Infectious disease report
D. Abstract of outpatient medical card
E. Report addressed to Head of the village
47. A district doctor keeps the record of reconvalescents after infectious diseases, people who are
disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases, patients with chronic pathologies. What category of
patients should belong to the III health group?
A. * People with chronic diseases
B. People disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases
C. People with acute pathologies and disposed to frequent and long-lasting diseases
D. Reconvalescents after infectious diseases and patients with chronic pathologies
E. All above mentioned categories
48. Over a current year among workers of an institution 10\% haven't been ill a single time, 30 % have
been ill once, 15 % - twice, 5 % - 4 times, the rest - 5 and more times. What is the percentage
of workers relating to the I health group?
A. * 40 %
B. 55 %
C. 10 %
D. 60 %
E. 22 %
49. Chief physician of a polyclinic encharged a district doctor with a task to determine the pathological
prevalence of disease N in his district. What document allows to estimate the disease prevalence in
the population of a medical district?
A. * Prophylactic examinations register
B. Statistic coupons (+)
C. Statistic coupons (-)
D. Statistic coupons (+) and (-)
E. Vouchers for medical appointments
50. 200 patients suffering from essential hypertension were examined in order to obtain data about
patients' arterial pressure and age. What statistic value should be applied in order to measure relation
between these characteristics?
A. * Correlation coefficient
B. Student's coefficient
C. Coefficient of variation

D. Representation error
E. Sygmal deviation
51. A doctor of the general practice has registered the following death causes for the previous year: the
first place was taken by cardiovascular diseases (60 %), the second - by tumors (18 %), then -
traumas (8,3 %) etc. What diagrams will provide the most substantial information about the
registered ocurrences?
A. * Intra column diagram
B. Pie diagram
C. Cartogram
D. Line diagram
E. Circle diagram
52. Study of morbidity rate in a city N revealed that population of different administrative districts
differed in age structure. What statistic method allows eliminating influence of this factor upon
morbidity indices?
A. * Standardization
B. Wilcoxon's t-criterion
C. Correlative regressive analysis
D. Analysis of dynamic series
E. Calculation of average values
53. A worker who undergoes regular medical check-up for duodenal ulcer received a subsidized 24-day
sanatorium voucher from his plant. The term of annual leave of a worker is 24 calender days, it will
take 4 days more to get to the sanatorium and back home. What is the procedure of obtaining a 4-day
sick-leave?
A. * DCC issues a 4-day sick list
B. Medical Expert Commission issues a 28-day sick list
C. The doctor in charge issues a 4-day sick list
D. The doctor in charge issues a health certificate and sanatorium patient's file for 28 days
E. Medical Expert Commission issues a 4-day health certificate
54. The institutions which take part in medical examinations can be prevention and treatment facilities,
medical board of Ministry of Defense, medical board of Ministry of Home Affairs, medico-social
expert commissions, forensic medical boards etc. What institutions are responsible for temporary
disability examination?
A. * Prevention and treatment facilities
B. Sanitary-and-prophylactic institutions
C. Medico-social expert commissions
D. Medical boards of Ministry of Defense
E. Medical boards of Ministry of Home Affairs
55. A mother who is on partially paid maternity leave got sick and was hospitalized. What document is to
be issued to a working father who will be taking care of a child during his mother's illness?
A. * Sick-leave
B. Certificate of mother's illness
C. Certificate of child's care necessity
D. Extract from the medical card of out- or in-patient
E. Free-form certificate
56. Clinical and statistical study was devoted to the effect of a new pharmacological medication upon the
patients with coronary heart disease. What parametric criterion (coefficient) can be used for
estimation of results validity?
A. * Student's coefficient (t)
B. Sign criterion

C. Conformity coefficient
D. Wilcoxon's t-criterion
E. Kolmogorov-Smirnov's criterion
57. Indices that characterize population health include demographic indices. What environment is used
for calculation of these indices?
A. * Population number
B. Employment number
C. Number of hospitalized people
D. Number of patients
E. Number of population being liable to preventive examination
58. The results of 5 year monitoring allowed estimating the level of environmental influence upon health
indices of population. What statistic method should be chosen?
A. * Calculation of correlation coefficient
B. Calculation of conformity coefficient
C. Calculation of coefficient of difference validity
D. Calculation of regression coefficient
E. Calculation of dynamic indices
59. An emergency situation at a chemical plant caused acute occupational intoxication. A doctor who
revealed the case of "acute occupational disease (intoxication)" must notify the following authority:
A. * Sanitary and epidemiological station
B. Plant administration
C. Trade union committee of the plant
D. Medical unit of the plant
E. Ministry of Health of Ukraine
60. In a city with population 400000 people 5600 fatal cases were recorded, including 3300 cases
because of blood circulation diseases, 730 - because of tumors. What index will allow characterizing
level of mortality from blood circulation diseases in this city?
A. * Intensive index
B. Extensive index
C. Relative intensity index
D. Visuality index
E. Correlation index
61. A selective population research study was aimed at exploring the effect of air emissions from a
metallurgical plant on the obstructive bronchitis morbidity in a city. The calculated correlation
coefficient was +0,79. Evaluate the strength and direction of the relationship:
A. * Direct, strong
B. Inverse, strong
C. Direct, average
D. Inverse, average
E. Direct, weak
62. Statistic of patients of common medical practice displays constant increase in elderly and old people
number. What kind of pathology is expected to prevail in the morbidity structure of population in
question?
A. * Chronic pathology
B. Occupational pathology
C. Non-epidemic pathology
D. Acute pathology
E. Infectious pathology

63. In the current year general practitioners of the municipal polyclinic have referred 11 patients with
coronary artery disease to the in-patient hospital. In 3 cases the diagnosis wasn't confirmed. What
managerial decision should be made in such case?
A. * Analysis of each case of diagnostic divergence
B. Analysis of medical check-up quality
C. Analysis of diagnostic examination quality
D. Analysis of doctors' skill level
E. Analysis of material and technical basis of the polyclinic
64. A factory's sectorial doctor selects a group of persons who often fall ill for thorough monitoring.
At the same time he takes into consideration the number of etiologically related cases with
temporary disability in each of the employees over the last year. An employee falls into this
group if the number of sickness cases is:
A. * 4 or more
B. 1 or more
C. 2 or more
D. 3 or more
E. 6 or more
65. A factory worker has ARD complicated by acute bronchitis. He receives treatment in the outpatient
setting. The attending doctor has issued him a medical certificate of disability for 5 days and then
extended its duration by 5 more days. Patient can't get down to work because of his health status.
Who should extend the duration of medical certificate of disability for this patient?
A. * Chief of department with a doctor
B. Medical superintendent
C. Deputy medical superintendent in charge of temporary disability examination
D. Deputy medical superintendent in charge of medical treatment
E. Medical advisory commission
66. A 2 year old child has been ill with acute respiratory viral infection of upper thrice a year - in
February, in April and in December. How should these occurences be recorded?
A. * It is necessary to fill in 3 statistic talons signed (+)
B. It is necessary to fill in 3 statistic talons signed (-)
C. It is necessary to fill in 1 statistic talon signed (+)
D. It is necessary to fill in 1 statistic talon signed (+) and 2 statistic talons signed (-)
E. It is necessary to fill in 1 statistic talon signed (-)
67. A worker diagnosed with "acute dysentery" was sent to the infectious department by a doctor of aid
post. What document should be used for registration of this disease?
A. * Urgent report on infectious disease
B. Statistic coupon for registration of final diagnoses
C. Outpatient's card
D. Inpatient's card
E. Statistic card of the patient who left in-patient hospital
68. Researchers studied disease incidence of influenza and acute respiratory viral infection within the last
5 years. What kind of graphic presentation should be used for the best visualization of this data?
A. * Linear diagram
B. Pie diagram
C. Bar diagram
D. Histogram
E. Radial diagram

69. The correlation between the service record and eosinophil concentration in blood was studied in
workers at dyeing shops of textile factories. What index will be the most informative for the analysis
of this data?
A. * Correlation factor
B. Student's criterion
C. Standardized index
D. Fitting criterion
E. Sign index
70. The objective of a statistical study was to find out the extent of seeking medical care by the
population. For this purpose 300 residents of the area were interviewed. Information was collected by
means of a special questionnaire. What method of collecting information was used by researchers?

A. * Anamnestic
B. Immediate registration
C. Immediate examination
D. Doing extracts
E. Expert assessments
71. Analysis of organization of medical care in a regional centre has shown that every year about 12 % of
patients receive inpatient care for diseases that don't require round-the-clock monitoring and
intensive care. What are the most appropriate organizational changes required to address this
problem?
A. * Development of medical care forms replacing the in-patient care
B. Changes to the statute of outpatient clinics
C. Development of primary care
D. Restructuring of specialized care
E. Upgrading of hospital facilities
72. A city's population is 400000 inhabitants in 2005 there were registered 5600 deaths, including 3300
cases caused by cardiovascular diseases, 730 - by tumours. Which of the following indicators allows
characterizing the share of the circulatory system diseases as the cause of death in the city?
A. * Extensive index
B. Intensive index
C. Index of relative intensity
D. Demonstrativeness index
E. Ratio
73. It is planned to organize a rural outpatient clinic. The patients will be able to visit the doctors of the
following specialities:
A. * Therapeutist, dentist, pediatrician
B. Therapeutist, pediatrician, neurologist
C. Pediatrician, obstetrician-gynaecologist, ophthalmologist
D. Pediatrician, therapeutist, ophthalmologist
E. Obstetrician-gynaecologist, therapeutist
74. In a rural health district a child died in the first month of life. In order to analyze this situation it was
necessary to complete expert evaluation of medical records. Which medical document was analyzed
in the first place?
A. * Child developmental history record
B. Neonatal record
C. Record of vaccinations
D. Medical record of an outpatient

E. Child's medical record

75. A department chief of an in-patient hospital is going to inspect resident doctors as to observation of
medical-technological standards of patient service. What documentation should be checked for this
purpose?
A. * Statistic cards of discharged patients
B. Health cards of in-patients
C. Treatment sheets
D. Registry of operative interventions
E. Annual report of a patient care institution
76. The head of prenatal care department intends to complete expert evaluation of compliance with
medical and technological standards of pregnancy follow-up. What documents must be verified for
this purpose?
A. * Individual records of pregnant and postpartum women
B. Prenatal records
C. Medical records of outpatients
D. Labour and delivery record
E. Neonatal record
77. While asessing the health status of graduates of a secondary school, the doctor found one of them to
have grade 3 tonsillar hypertrophy, chronic rhinitis and vegetative-vascular dystonia. The organism
functionality is reduced. This student belongs to the following health group:
A. * III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
78. At first appointment with an obstetrician-gynaecologist a pregnant woman is referred to other
medical specialists. She must be obligatory examined by the following specialists:
A. * Therapeutist and dentist
B. Therapeutist and endocrinologist
C. Dentist and phthisiatricia
D. ENT and ophthalmologist
E. Dentist and cardiologist
79. Estimation of community health level involved analysis of a report on diseases registered among the
population of district under charge (reporting form 12). What index is calculated on the grounds of
this report?
A. * Common morbidity rate
B. Index of pathological affection
C. Index of morbidity with temporary disability
D. Index of hospitalized morbidity
E. Index of basic non-epidemic morbidity
80. A 50-year-old male suburbanite underwent treatment in rural outpatient clinic for pneumonia. The
treatment didn't have effect and the disease got complicated by exudative pleuritis. What prevention
and treatment facility should the patient be referred to for further aid?
A. * Central district hospital
B. Regional hospital
C. Phthisio-pulmonological dispensary
D. Municipal hospital
E. Tuberculosis dispensary

81. A 46-year-old patient was issued a 10-day sick list because of exacerbation of chronic cholecystitis.
The patient's general condition got better, but the clinical manifestations of the disease are still
present. What authority is entitled to extend the sick list?
A. * Chief of the department and doctor
B. Family doctor
C. Deputy head doctor for terapeutic management
D. Deputy head doctor for medical-labour expertise
E. Head doctor
82. A 59-year-old male patient with essential hypertension of stage II is registered with the dispensary
department of a polyclinic. The patient regularly takes ACE inhibitors and calcium antagonists. How
often should a therapeutist examine this patient (except for exacerbation periods)?
A. * Every 3 months
B. Every 6 months
C. Every 4 months
D. Once a year
E. Every 9 months
83. A municipal hospital reported on the number of operated patients including fatal outcomes following
the operations. Which index of hospital work can be calculated on the ground of this data?
A. * Postoperative lethality
B. Total lethality
C. Index of late hospitalization since a disease incursion
D. Standardized lethality
E. Index of evident
84. ?For the study of morbidity of rural population of certain area for the study of habitants of the
medical station villages have been selected. What method of collection of statistical material based
on volume is it necessary to use in research?
A. Combined
B. Selective
C. Wholistic
D. Monographic description
E. * Basic array
85. A district paediatrician is to conduct the analysis of death rate in babies. What must he take for a unit
of supervision in the study?
A. Child who died after 28 days of life
B. Child who died on the first month of life
C. * Child who died under age 1
D. Child who died in the first 6 days
E. Child who died during labors
86. In the D. region for the last 5 years there was growth of lethality from heart attack of myocardium.
The situation requires estimations of efficiency of medicare to the patients. Define the unit of
supervision:
A. Cardiological hospital
B. * Case of hospitalization in cardiological hospital concerning the heart attack of myocardium
C. Timeliness of appeals for medical help in cardiologic hospital
D. Availability of cardiologists
E. Availability in cardiologic hospital of diagnostic equipment
87. Work of cardiologic cabinets of policlinics of city C. was studied. Define unit of supervision.
A. Every case of cardiologic pathology

B. * Cardiological cabinet
C. Every case of appeal in the cabinet
D. Every type of result of cardiovascular disease
E. Impossible to define
88. Deputy to the head doctor for medical work conducted research of level of morbidity of population
aided in policlinic for the last 5 years. Through what statistical values, can he calculate the levels of
prevalence of diseases?
A. Absolute values
B. Standardized values
C. Average values
D. * Relative values
E. Dynamic line values
89. Among the population of city A. 500 cases of urolithiasis are registered per 10,000 population. What
statistical index is morbidity of population in urolithiasis represented by?
A. Relation
B. * Intensive
C. Visualization
D. Extensive
E. Relative intensity
90. In the H. district morbidity among a population made 1156 cases on 1000 population. What of the
below indexes characterizes prevalence of diseases among population?
A. Relation
B. Extensive
C. * Intensive
D. Visualization
E. Standardized
91. From report data on work of policlinic information is got about distributing of diseases on the classes
of diseases, specific gravity and levels of separate diseases, and also about the 5% decline of general
morbidity. Which of the below indexes are intensive?
A. * Levels of separate diseases
B. Spread of diseases by classes
C. Fall of general morbidity by 5 %
D. Specific gravity of separate diseases
E. Structure of morbidity
92. Demographic indicators belong to the indexes characterizing health of population. Which of the
below is an environment for calculation of these indexes?
A. Number of population subject to medical examination
B. Number of workers
C. Number of hospitalized
D. Number of patients
E. * Number of population
93. At the study of structure of morbidity of population of A. city diseases of breathing organs were 45,0
%. What statistical index represents specific gravity of diseases of breathing organs?
A. Relation
B. Intensive
C. Visualization
D. * Extensive
E. Relative intensity
94. During a year 11,600 cases of diseases were registered in a policlinic of the C. city. Among them: flu
and acute respiratory diseases - 5800, diseases of the system of blood circulation - 3480, diseases of
organs of digestion - 1300, other diseases - 1020. What relative index can be calculated on the basis
of this information?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Visualization
D. To relative intensity
E. Relation
95. In a town 100,000 people live. Of 160 cases of infectious diseases for a year 75 are flu. What index
of morbidity on flu is it necessary to use in relation to all infectious diseases?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Visualization
D. Correlations
E. Relative intensity
96. In the total of registered diseases in the B. city, diseases of organs of blood circulation were 23 %.
What statistical index is exemplified?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Visualization
D. Correlation
E. Average value
97. With the purpose of analysis of the state of health of population and level of medicare such indexes
were calculated in a cardiologic dispensary: level of primary morbidity by diseases of the system of
blood circulation - 62 %o; level of general morbidity by diseases of the system of blood circulation -
483,55 %o; level of death rate from diseases of the system of blood circulation - 10,9 %o; specific
gravity of cases of death from diseases of the system of blood circulation among all reasons of death -
67,0 %; level of primary disability from diseases of the system of blood circulation - 16,2 on 10
thousands of population. Which of the below indexes is extensive a size?
A. * Share of cases of death from diseases of the system of blood circulation among all reasons of death
B. Level of primary morbidity by diseases of the system of blood circulation
C. Level of general morbidity by diseases of the system of blood circulation
D. Level of primary disability from diseases of the system of blood circulation
E. Level of death rate from diseases of the system of blood circulation
98. Availability for population of infectionists in Z. town makes 4 doctors per 10,000 population. What
statistical index represents availability to population of infectionists?
A. Extensive
B. Relative intensity
C. * Relation
D. Intensive
E. Visualization
99. If frequency of infectious hepatitis in district A. in 1998 is accepted as 100 %, then in the followings
years this index was: 1999 - increase by 62,5 %, 2000 - increase by 25 %. What index was used for
the analysis of the below data?
A. Extensive
B. * Visualization
C. Intensive
D. Correlation

E. Rate of growth
100. In L. town when compared to the last year the level of morbidity on tuberculosis increased by 12 %.
What index is used for analysis?
A. Standardized
B. Intensive
C. Extensive
D. Correlation
E. * Visualization
101. Concentration of albumen in the blood whey made 10 women which were plugged in one inspection:
42, 41, 44, 47, 38, 40, 35, 38, 43, 41. Which of statistical values or indexes this information does
summarize?
A. Dynamic line
B. Extensive
C. Intensive
D. Visualization
E. * Average
102. At the study of average level and character of variety of some laboratory indexes such information is
got: for the general albumen of blood is standard deviation 4 g/1, coefficient of variation 6 %; for
speed of settling of red corpuscles - accordingly 2 mm/h, 23 %. Which of the indicated signs is
most various?
A. General albumen of blood whey
B. * Speed of settling of red corpuscles
C. Differences in variety of signs absent
D. For the study of variety additional calculations are needed
E. For the study of variety increased number of supervisions is needed
103. In 200 hypertensive disease patients the size of arteriotony and age were studied. What statistical
value is it necessary to use to measure force of connection between the signs indicated?
A. * Index of correlation
B. Student's index
C. Index of variation
D. Error of representativeness
E. Sigma rejection
104. On the representative aggregate of flu patients a study of connection between body temperature and
pulse frequency was conducted. The calculated coefficient of correlation equals +0,5. Estimate force
and direction of correlation between these signs.
A. * Direct average
B. Reverse average
C. Direct strong
D. Reverse strong
E. Direct weak
105. At the study of dependence between the level of air contamination and prevalence of diseases of
breathing organs, it has been found that the coefficient of pair correlation equals + 0,82. Estimate
force and direction of correlation.
A. Direct average
B. * Direct strong
C. Reverse strong
D. Reverse average
E. Direct weak

106. Based on the results of five-year monitoring the influence of factors of" environment on the indexes
of health of population was estimated. What statistical method has to be chosen for the estimation of
correlation between the indicated signs?
A. Calculation of coefficient of probability of differences
B. Calculation of coefficient of accordance
C. * Calculation of coefficient of correlation
D. Calculation of the standardized coefficient
E. Calculation of indexes of a dynamic line
107. At the study of morbidity on pulmonary tuberculosis data about socioeconomic conditions and
harmful habits of patients were acquired. Calculation of which of the below indexes allows to
estimate correlation between those factors and morbidity of tuberculosis?
A. * Index of correlation
B. Index of accordance
C. Index of regressions
D. Standardized index
E. Index of authenticity
108. Index of general death rate in A district makes 11,9 %o, and 15,9 %o in B district. In the age structure
of population of A district a part of people of 50 years and senior makes 30%, and 40% in B district.
It is necessary to check whether heterogeneity of age structure of population influenced on the
difference of indexes of general death rate. What method of medical statistics is it best to use in this
case?
A. * Calculation of standardized indexes
B. Calculation of coefficient of correlation
C. Calculation of Student's confidence coefficient
D. Calculation of averages
E. Calculation of relative values
109. Average daily lethality in the surgical department of city hospital # 1 in 2001 made 0,1%, in 2002 -
0,5%. Predicted reason of growth of lethality in 2002 is untimely hospitalization as a result of work
of first-aid. Indexes calculated on condition of the identical distributing of patients on the conditions
of hospitalization: in 2001 - 15,0, in 2002 - 11,0. What method was used for calculation of these
conditional indexes?
A. * Standardization
B. Correlation
C. Calculation of averages
D. Calculation of relative values
E. Analysis of dynamic lines
110. At an enterprise in the first half-year, 320 out of 2000 working mer had traumas, 280 out of 4000
working women. In the second half-year out of 6000 men 720 had traumas, out of 2000 women 160
had traumas. What method of statistical processing of data is optimum for eliminating differences of
sex and different levels of traumas?
A. Correlation analysis
B. * Method of standardization
C. Regression analysis
D. Calculation of averages
E. Calculation of relative values
111. At the study of morbidity in town N. it was set that the population of different administrative districts
differs in its age structure. Which of the statistical methods allows eliminating influence of this factor
on the indexes of morbidity?
A. Analysis of dynamic lines

B. Vilkokson's T-criterion
C. Correlation-regression analysis
D. * Standardization
E. Calculation of averages
112. Therapeutic efficiency of new method of treatment of acute respiratory-viral infection was studied in
a treatment-prophylactic establishment. In the experimental group (10 people) average duration of
treatment made 5 days, in the control group (10 people) - 7 days. Name the most credible reason that
the differences acquired after the calculation of averages were statistically unreliable (P>0,05).
A. Slight relative difference of indices
B. Short duration of treatment
C. Slight absolute difference of indices
D. * Small number of supervisions
E. Heterogeneous groups
113. It has been found out that out of 100 labours in women with risk factors 30 were premature, and in
women without risk factors 5 out of 100 labours were premature. What method of statistical
processing of data is it best to use for a doctor to estimate essence of differences in the groups
compared?
A. * Calculation of Student's criterion
B. Calculation of averages
C. Calculation of relative values
D. Method of standardization
E. Correlation analysis
114. The method of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was introduced in practice of surgical department of a
hospital. In the total average duration of post-
A. Calculation of standardized indices
B. * Calculation of coefficient of correlation
C. Calculation of Student's confidence coefficient
D. Calculation of averages
E. Calculation of relative values
115. As a result of introduction of new method of treatment average duration of hospitalization in the
experimental group of patients was 12,30,2 days compared to 15,40,4 days in the control group of
patients treated based on the old method. By calculation of what coefficient (criterion) is it possible
to estimate importance of difference of these results?
A. Vilkokson's T-criterion
B. Criterion of signs (z-criterion)
C. Criterion of accordance (^-square)
D. * Coefficient of authenticity (Student's T-criterion)
E. Kolmogorov-Smirnov criterion
116. Clinical-statistic research of action of new medicine on patients with ischemic heart trouble is
conducted. What criterion (coefficient) can be used for estimation of authenticity of results?
A. Index of accordance
B. Criterion of signs
C. * Student's index (t)
D. Vilkokson's T-criterion
E. Kolmogorov-Smirnov criterion
117. Here's morbidity on dysentery in a district by months of the year in absolute numbers: January - 6;
February - 9; March - 11; April - 10; May - 16; June - 23; July - 19; August - 33; September - 58;
October - 19; November - 11; December - 5. The total of 220 cases per year. What type of graphic
image will most evidently show monthly variations of morbidity on dysentery from average level?

A. * Radial diagram
B. Map diagram
C. Cartogram
D. Sector diagram
E. Bar diagram
118. From data of appeals of population to district policlinic it was learned: in January there were 257
cases of flu, February - 222, March - 210, April - 81,
A. Cartogram
B. Sector diagram
C. * Bar diagram
D. Radial diagram
E. Map diagram
119. In January 10 cases of death of patients were registered in hospital, in February - 9, in March and
April - for 7, in May - 8, in June - 5, in July - 3, in August - 2, in September - 4, in October - 6, in
November - 8 and in December are 11 lethal cases. By what type of graphic image is it best to
represent this information?
A. Linear diagram
B. Sector diagram
C. * Radial diagram
D. Column diagram
E. Map diagram
120. Among causes of death of population with general practitioner K in the current year first come
cardiovascular diseases (60%), second - neoplasms (18%), third traumas (8,3%) etc. By what
diagrams will a doctor be able to illustrate most evidently the structure of phenomena studied?
A. Cartogram
B. * Sector
C. Linear
D. Radial
E. Bar
121. Photochronometric research of reception of patients by doctors- internists of policlinic # 1 in town A.
in 2003 showed that preparation and acquaintance with medical documents takes 10,6%, questioning
of patient - 15,1%, examination and inspection - 35,9%, other parts of work - 38,4% of total time of
reception of one patient. By what type of diagram is it possible to evidently illustrate research
results?
A. Bar
B. Map diagram
C. Linear
D. Radial
E. * Sector
122. The structure of primary morbidity of population on the 21st class of diseases was studied. By what
type of diagrams should the results of this research be represented graphically?
A. Radial
B. Bar
C. * Sector
D. Linear
E. Cartogram

123. 70,000 people live in a district. Of them aged 0-14 years - 13,0%, 15- 49 - 52,0%, 50 years and older
- 35,0%. By what type of graphic image is it expedient to represent age structure of district
population?
A. Radial diagram
B. * Sector diagram
C. Linear diagram
D. Column diagram
E. Cartogram
124. The health of population is characterized by a group of indexes. Which of the below belongs to
demographic?
A. Morbidity
B. Lethality
C. Disability
D. * General death rate
E. Physical development
125. District paediatrician conducted analysis of death rate in children on his territory. What indexes did
he use?
A. * Death rate in children up to 1 year old by age, sex, causes
B. Death rate in children up to 1 year old, mortinatality
C. Lethality in children by age, in hospitals
D. Death rate in teenagers in the district
E. Death rate in babies in the district
126. Organizing board of CDH is to study birth-rate on all territory of the district. Head of organizing
board entrusted this task to a doctor-statistician. What document is birth-rate of population studied
on?
A. Card of physical development of a child
B. Birth certificate of maternity hospitals
C. * Medical birth certificate
D. Exchange card of the pregnant
E. Results of censuses
127. In the H region because of favourable natural, climate, ecological and socio-economic conditions
there was increase in number of pensionaries which moved into the region from other parts of the
country. State administration, estimating the reserve capacity of the region, introduced privileges
which caused analogical mass migration from abroad. Estimate motion of population characterizing
this demographic phenomenon.
A. Reimmigration of population
B. Emigration of population
C. Repatriation of population
D. * Immigration of population
E. Reemigration of population
128. Census is taken for studying information about quantity and population structure. What kind and
method of research is this?
A. * Total simultaneous
B. Selective simultaneous
C. Total current
D. Selective current
E. Main array
129. Accidents, poisonings, traumas, malignant neoplasms, diseases of the system of blood circulation,
endocrine system, breathing organs etc. prevail among causes of death of population of Ukraine.
Name the class of diseases, which occupies the first rank.
A. * Diseases of blood circulation system
B. Accidents, poisonings, traumas
C. Diseases of breathing organs
D. Endocrine diseases
E. Malignant neoplasms
130. Population of A city has the following age structure: 0-14 years - 30%; 15-44 years - 50%; 50 and
older - 20%. What is the type of age structure of population of this city?
A. Delayed
B. Stationary
C. Accelerated
D. Regressive
E. * Progressive
131. In the structure of population of a region share of people from 0 to 14 years old is 25%, it is identical
with share of population aged 50 years and older. What concept best characterizes this demographic
situation?
A. Progressive population structure
B. Regressive population structure
C. * Stationary population structure
D. Immigration of population
E. Emigration of population
132. In the structure of population of M region share of people aged 0-14 was 15%, and people aged 50
years and older made 30%. Estimate population structure which best characterizes this demographic
situation.
A. * Regressive population structure
B. Stationary population structure
C. Progressive population structure
D. Accelerated population structure
E. Delayed population structure
133. In the structure of population of N region share of people aged 0 to 14 was 31%, and share of people
aged 50 and older made 20%. Estimate population structure which best characterizes this
demographic situation.
A. Emigration of population
B. Regressive population structure
C. Stationary population structure
D. Immigration of population
E. * Progressive population structure
134. The age structure of population of a district is as follows: share of children of 0-14 years is 15%,
share of population aged 15-49 is 50%, share of population aged 50 and older - 35%. Estimate the
type of age structure of population.
A. Stationary
B. * Regressive
C. Progressive
D. Slow
E. Accelerated

135. A district doctor must give a lecture at a conference about the state of health of population of his
territory. What medical indexes of health of population must he use here?
A. Way of life, environmental pollution
B. Social welfare, satisfaction with quality of life
C. * Morbidity, disability, demographic, physical development
D. Average duration of treatment, share of complications
E. Average life-span
136. A workshop doctor at an enterprise annually is conducts analysis of the state of health of workers.
What clinical groups of health are workers of enterprises divided into in an annual report?
A. Healthy, acute disease patients, subcompensated flow disease patients
B. * Healthy, practically healthy, 3rd stage of compensation patients
C. Healthy, often sick with compensation flow diseases
D. Healthy, important unepidemic diseases patients, practically healthy
E. Healthy, patients with temporal loss of ability to work, diseases with decompensated flow
137. A district internist has reconvalescents after infectious diseases, often and long sick, and people with
chronic pathology on his clinical record. Who of the below patients must be attributed to the 3rd
group of health?
A. All categories of patients listed
B. Often and long sick
C. With chronic pathology in the compensation stage
D. Reconvalescents after infectious diseases and people with chronic pathology
E. * Chronic diseases patients
138. In the current year, 10% were never sick, 30% got sick once, 15% got sick twice, 5% were sick four
times, and the rest fell sick 5 and more times among the office workers of an establishment. What
share of office workers is attributed to the first group of health?
A. * 40 %
B. 10 %
C. 55 %
D. 60 %
E. 22 %
139. An 11 year old boy was sick five times with acute respiratory diseases last year. What group of health
does this boy belong to?
A. 2nd
B. 1st
C. * 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
140. A therapist was ordered to carry out analysis of morbidity of population on his area. What sources of
studying morbidity provide the fullest account of acute diseases?
A. Specially organized research
B. * Calls to out-patient polyclinics
C. Causes of death
D. Population interrogation
E. Routine inspections
141. A shop doctor was ordered to study morbidity with temporal disability at an enterprise. By what
statistical documents it is possible to define indices of morbidity with temporal disability?
A. Report on temporal disability, dispensary observation card
B. Report on temporal disability, general sheet of morbidity of population

C. Medical certificate, card of the discharged patient

D. Medical certificate, death certificate
E. * Report on temporal disability, medical certificate
142. A doctor was ordered to study infectious disease rate in a city. What is basic registration document
for registration and study of infectious diseases?
A. * Spot news
B. Ambulatory medical card
C. Inoculations card
D. Coupon of registration of final diagnoses
E. Dossier of the discharged
143. A patient called for reception, and local doctor of out-patient department diagnoses him with
dysentery. What registration document should the doctor issue?
A. * Spot news
B. Statistical coupon
C. Notice on the most important non-epidemic disease
D. Medical certificate
E. Control card of dispensary observation
144. Local doctor is to describe morbidity of his area for drawing up of annual report on the out-patient
department's activity. What documents are used for registration and study of general morbidity?
A. Control card of dispensary observation
B. History of a child's development, coupon of outpatient
C. Outpatient's medical card, statistical coupon for registration of final diagnosis
D. Medical certificate, statistical card of discharged patient
E. * Outpatient's coupon, statistical coupon for registration of final diagnosis
145. A paediatrician found a case of epidemic parotitis in his area. What document should he fill out for
registration of the infectious disease?
A. Outpatient's medical card
B. History to development of a child
C. * Spot news about the infectious disease
D. Card of inoculations
E. Outpatient's coupon
146. Among workers of an industrial enterprise 1200 cases of disability and 12000 days of disability were
registered. What index of morbidity with temporal disability should be calculated on the basis of the
data?
A. Number of cases of disability per 100 workers
B. * Average duration of one case
C. Number of days of disability per 100 workers
D. Specific gravity of workers who were never sick during the year
E. Specific gravity of those who were sick often and for long
147. A therapist studies level of general morbidity of population. What registration-statistical documents
are used for this purpose?
A. Cards of discharged patients
B. Statistical coupons with the (+) mark
C. Statistical coupons with the (-) mark
D. * Statistical coupons with the (+) and (-) marks
E. Coupons of outpatient with number 1 or 2
148. A local doctor was ordered to carry out morbidity analysis in his area. What kind of morbidity are
those who get sick often and for long?

A. Hospitalised
B. General
C. Acute infectious
D. Most important non-epidemic diseases
E. * Temporal disability
149. At the study of morbidity with temporal disability of workers of machine-building factory average
duration of one case made 20 days. What diseases affected the index?
A. * Chronic
B. Acute
C. With subacute course
D. Premorbidal forms of diseases
E. With grave course
150. Local doctor of rural medical ambulatory was called to a 42 year old patient. At inspection of the
patient the doctor suspected dysentery. What document should the doctor issue in this case?
A. Report addressed to the head of village council
B. Statistical coupon of final (specified) diagnoses
C. Reference on the infectious disease
D. Extract from the outpatient's medical card
E. * Spot news about the infectious disease
151. During medical inspection of population chronic diseases, different pathological states and deviations
were found and registered. What index is suitable for study in the given situation?
A. * Pathologically affected
B. Prevalence
C. General morbidity
D. Primary morbidity
E. Morbidity with temporal disability
152. Head physician of out-patient department ordered local doctor to study N disease cases in the area.
On the basis of what document is primary morbidity of population of the area defined?
A. Statistical coupons with the (+) and (-) marks
B. * Statistical coupons with the (+) mark
C. Journal of medical examinations
D. Outpatient's medical card
E. Coupon of doctor's reception
153. Head physician of out-patient department ordered local doctor to study prevalence of N disease in the
area. On the basis of what document is prevalence of diseases in the medical area defined?
A. * Statistical coupons with the (+) and (-) marks
B. Statistical coupon with the (-) mark
C. Dossier of the discharged
D. Coupon of doctor's reception
E. Journal of medical examinations
154. Head physician of out-patient department ordered local doctor to study population pathologically
affected with N disease in the area. On the basis of what document is pathologically affected
population in the medical area defined?
A. Coupon of doctor's reception
B. Statistical coupon with the (+) mark
C. Statistical coupon with the (-) mark
D. Statistical coupons with (+) and (-) marks

E. * Journal of medical examinations

155. At outpatient reception local therapist diagnosed a patient with acute bronchitis. What registration
document for registration of the disease should the doctor fill out?
A. Medical certificate
B. Case history
C. * Statistical coupon for registration of final diagnosis
D. Statistical card of discharged patient
E. Spot news about the infectious disease
156. For the estimation of health of children's population following indices were used: prevalence of
diseases, primary morbidity, morbidity structure, pathologically affected and disability. Which of the
indices best displays level of morbidity of children in chronic diseases and morphofunctional
abnormalities?
A. Disability
B. General morbidity
C. Prevalence
D. Primary morbidity
E. * Pathologically affected
157. At an enterprise with harmful work conditions a complex of actions was undertaken for the purpose
of decreasing morbidity level. For a better effect the shop doctor allocates a group of people who get
sick often and for long. At what kind of morbidity is the group of often and long sick defined?
A. * With temporal disability
B. Most important non-epidemic diseases
C. General morbidity
D. Acute infectious
E. Hospitalised
158. Within three years M patient is on dispensary record in out-patient department diagnosed with
chronic bronchitis. In the given year he called for medical aid three times concerning exacerbation of
this disease. What statistical documents should be filled out in order to record this disease?
A. For all three calls statistical coupons with the (+) mark
B. * One statistical coupon with the (-) mark on the first call
C. Statistical coupon with the (+) mark on primary call and with the (-) mark on repeated calls
D. One statistical coupon with the (+) mark on the primary call
E. For all three calls statistical coupons with the (-) mark
159. A doctor of rural medical ambulatory was called for twice within a year (in March and November) by
a patient. In two cases the same diagnosis - acute viral respiratory infection - was set. What
documents should be filled out for registration of these diseases?
A. Only for the first case statistical coupon with the (+) mark
B. On each case separate statistical coupon with the (-) mark
C. On the first case statistical coupon with the (+) mark, on the second - with the (-) mark
D. * On each case separate statistical coupon with the (+) mark
E. On none of the cases statistical coupon is filled out
160. A worker with acute respiratory disease called for polyclinic reception to the doctor. He cannot fulfil
his professional duties. During the whole period of disability he had out-patient treatment. For what
period of time can the attending physician issue a disability certificate to the worker?
A. * For 10 calendar days
B. For 5 calendar days
C. For 14 calendar days
D. For 30 calendar days

E. For the whole period of temporal disability

161. A medical-social experts commission studies a patient with both feet amputated. The patient cannot
look after himself, requires constant help and care. To what group of disability do the indices of
health of the patient belong?
A. 2A group
B. 2 group
C. 3 group
D. * 1 group
E. 2B group
162. A working woman has her 5 year old child sick. Diagnosis: pneumonia. The child is not hospitalised.
For what maximum term can a children out-patient department issue a child care medical certificate?
A. * For up to 14 days
B. For up to 5 days
C. For up to 10 days
D. For up to 30 days
E. For the whole duration of disease of the child
163. A patient was hospitalized for three months because of a serious trauma. For what maximum term
can disability certificate be given to the patient at continuous treatment in treatment and prophylactic
institution?
A. 5 months
B. 1 month
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
E. * 4 months
164. An acute viral respiratory infection patient called for doctor's reception. Patient is recognised as
disabled. For how many days can the doctor possibly issue a medical certificate?
A. For 6 days
B. For 8 days
C. For 7 days
D. For 5 days
E. * For 10 days
165. A patient has his disability certificate open because of trauma for 4 months running. Treatment will
last yet 1-2 months more. Who has the right to extend medical certificate for the patient?
A. Head physician of medical institution
B. * Doctor consulting commission upon decision of medical-social experts commission
C. Doctor consulting commission after treatment of the patient in the hospital
D. Local doctor upon coordination with managing units
E. Medical-social experts commission
166. For what maximum term can medical-social experts commission recommend a patient to recover
with open sick-list after acute myocardial infarction?
A. One month
B. * Four months
C. Two months
D. Three months
E. Whole term of treatment
167. While at home, a man fractured his humerus and was delivered to fracture department of out-patient
clinic. At issuing temporal disability the sick is to be given:
A. Medical certificate for 6 days and a reference of any form

B. Reference of established form for 5 days, and a medical certificate after the 6th day
C. Reference of unstated form
D. Disability certificate signed by head physician
E. * Disability certificate since 1 st day for all period of disease
168. A 35 year old factory worker called for a traumatologist. Fracture of right forearm was diagnosed.
Trauma happened during apartment repair. How is disability to be issued?
A. Reference of established form for 5 days, medical certificate - since 6th day
B. * Disability certificate since 1 st day
C. Reference of any form for 5 days, medical certificate - since 6th day
D. Reference of established form for 10 days, medical certificate - since 11th day
E. Reference of any form for 10 days, medical certificate - since 11th day
169. A worker under dispensary observation for duodenum ulcer was given a permit for sanatorium
treatment for 24 days by the enterprise. Duration of annual basic leave of a worker makes 24 calendar
days, a journey to sanatorium and back takes 4 days. How is temporal disability registered in this
case?
A. * Doctor consulting commission gives out a medical certificate for 4 days
B. Doctor consulting commission gives out a medical certificate for 28 days
C. Attending physician gives out a medical certificate for 4 days
D. Attending physician gives out a reference and a sanatorium card for 28 days
E. Doctor consulting commission gives out a reference for 4 days
170. Medical sister went to maternity welfare clinic concerning pregnancy. During labours complication
required surgical intervention. There is a reference from obstetric department. What duration of
antenatal and postnatal leave should be in this case?
A. 70 days before labours and 56 days after labours
B. * 70 days before labours and 70 days after labours
C. 56 days before labours and 70 days after labours
D. 56 days before labours and 56 days after labours
E. 90 days before labours and 90 days after labours
171. A man sprained his ankle on his way for work. At his call for medical aid rupture of ligaments of
right ankle joint has been diagnosed. He was treated as outpatient for 18 days. How is disability to be
issued in this case?
A. * Disability certificate from first day for all period of treatment
B. Reference, from 6th day - medical certificate for 5 days
C. Reference, about 11 days - medical certificate for 10 days
D. Medical certificate for 10 days
E. Medical certificate for 14 days
172. A female worker's 5-year-old child got sick with chicken pox. The disease lasted for 17 days. Out-
patient treatment was carried out under supervision of the mother. How should disability of the
worker be issued in this case?
A. Reference of established form for all time of disease of child
B. Medical certificate for 14 days at most, for other 3 days - reference of any form
C. Medical certificate for 7 days at most, for other 10 days - reference of established form
D. Medical certificate for all time of disease of child
E. * Medical certificate for 14 days at most, for other 3 days - reference of established form
173. At a therapeutic department of a hospital 500 patients were treated, of which 400 employed. Before
being discharged from the hospital, the workers were given disability certificates. Who has the right
to sign disability certificates?
A. Head physician, attending physician

B. Head of department, assistant to the head physician by the medical part

C. * Attending physician, head of department
D. Head physician, head of department
E. Head of department, assistant to the head physician for workers examination
174. Treatment and prophylactic establishments, medical boards of Defence and Internal Affairs
Ministries, medical-social experts commissions, forensic medical examination bureau and so forth
can be establishments which take part in carrying out medical examinations. Define establishments
which carry out medical-social examination of temporal disability.
A. Medical boards of Ministry of Defence
B. Sanitary and prophylactic
C. Medical-social experts commissions
D. * Treatment and prophylactic
E. Medical boards of Ministry of Internal Affairs
175. A mother at partially paid child care leave for 3 years was sick and has been hospitalised. What
document will be given out in this case to the working father who looks after the child during the
mother's sickness?
A. Reference on mother's sickness
B. * Medical certificate
C. Reference on necessity of care of child
D. Extract from the medical card of inpatient
E. Extract from the outpatient's medical card
176. The basic tasks of medical-social experts commissions (MSEC) are known to be revealing reasons
and establishing groups of disability, granting labour calls to invalids. What task is assigned for
MSEC concerning examination of temporal disability?
A. Calls about transfer into other work
B. Revealing and establishment of group of disability
C. Labour calls
D. Establishment of the right for social help
E. * Authorisation of continuation of disability certificate for completion of treatment
177. Duodenum ulcer patient had his medical certificate for 4 months running. Who has the right to
establish disability group?
A. Local therapist
B. * Medical-social experts commission
C. Head of therapeutic department
D. Head physician
E. Doctor consulting commission
178. Insured worker was released from work by his own will on 03.08.2001. The same day he got sick,
called for first aid at 23 and was hospitalised with acute appendicitis. What document is given out by
the doctor of hospital while discharging the patient?
A. Reference on the disease
B. * Disability certificate of 03.08.2001
C. Disability certificate of 04.08.2001
D. Extract from the card of inpatient
E. Direction to the gastroenterologist
179. An employee was at business trip in another city, got sick and was hospitalised in a municipal
hospital. How should disability certificate be given out in this case?
A. * Upon permission of head physician of municipal hospital
B. Upon permission of assistant to the head physician on work capacity examination

C. Upon permission of assistant to the head physician for medical work

D. Upon permission of head of the department of the hospital
E. By attending physician himself
180. A worker was temporarily disabled within 17 days as a result of disease. He was treated as outpatient
under observation of local doctor. For what term the attending physician has the right to give out
medical certificate?
A. For 17 calendar days
B. For up to 5 calendar days
C. For up to 30 calendar days
D. For up to 14 calendar days
E. * For up to 10 calendar days
181. Machine operator of a country union was treated within 18 days in a rural medical ambulatory in
which only one doctor works. For what term this doctor has the right to give out medical certificate?
A. At most up to 6 days with the subsequent direction on the doctor consulting commission (DCC)
B. At most up to 10 days with the subsequent direction on DCC
C. * At most up to 14 days with the subsequent direction on DCC
D. At most up to 5 days with the subsequent direction on DCC
E. For all period of temporal disability
182. Five year old child was treated in a children's hospital for 28 days. At this time he was taken care of
by his mother, an employee of some enterprise. For what term should disability certificate at child
care be given out?
A. At most up to 14 days, for other days - reference
B. * For all period of stay in the hospital with the child
C. At most up to 10 days, for other days - reference
D. At most up to 7 days, for other days - reference
E. Reference for all time of stay in the hospital
183. A working woman was under observation of obstetrician-gynecologist of maternity welfare clinic
concerning pregnancy which has ended with physiologic labours. For what term should disability
certificate be given out to this woman at the place of observation?
A. * For 126 calendar days
B. For 140 calendar days
C. For 90 calendar days
D. For 70 calendar days
E. For 56 calendar days
184. A worker was hospitalized for 16 days for pneumonia. By whom and for how long is medical
certificate given out in this case?
A. * Attending physician and head of department for all period of treatment
B. Attending physician since the first day of stay in the hospital at most up to 5 days
C. Attending physician since the first day of stay in the hospital at most up to 10 days
D. Attending physician since the first day of stay in the hospital at most up to 14 days
E. Head of department for all period of treatment
185. Local therapist diagnosed household trauma in a chemicals plant worker. The worker is temporarily
disabled. How is temporal disability to be registered?
A. Reference of established form
B. Disability certificate from fifth day of call
C. * Disability certificate from first day of call
D. Reference for 5 days, then - medical certificate
E. Reference of any form

186. A patient at an enterprise was given a permit in sanatorium. Local doctor prepares medical documents
necessary for it. Who is to refer the patient for sanatorium treatment?
A. Medical-social experts commission
B. Local doctor
C. Doctor of narrow speciality
D. * Doctor consulting commission
E. Trade-union committee
187. After an extended dispensary observation a local doctor decides on recognizing a patient as disabled.
Who is to refer the patient to medical-social
A. Narrow speciality doctor
B. * Local doctor
C. Doctor consulting commission
D. Head of out-patient department
E. Head of stationary department
188. In the end of the year a hospital received total number of patients treated throughout the year and
average annual number of beds used for treatment of patients. Which of the indices on work of a
hospital can be calculated from the
A. Bed fund of the hospital
B. * Bed turn
C. Average annual use of bed
D. Average duration of stay of patients in the hospital
E. Average bed downtime
189. A therapist was ordered to carry out analysis of health of adult population of his area. What groups of
indices will be used by him in this analysis?
A. Morbidity, disability, mortality of babies
B. Way of life, morbidity, physical development
C. * Demographic, morbidity, disability
D. Birth rate, morbidity, way of life
E. Morbidity, lethality, physical development
190. Conservation of medical cards of population of district is carried out by registry of out-patient
department by designation of their numerical number and under the first letter of surname of patient.
What system of conservation of medical cards is used in the given out-patient department?
A. Address
B. * Alphanumeric
C. Self-preservation
D. Index
E. Admixed
191. After inspecting a 37 year old patient employed in a dining room of an industrial enterprise, a local
therapist of municipal hospital diagnosed him with dysentery. What should the local doctor do first of
all in the given situation?
A. Temporary removal of patient from work
B. Delivery of disability certificate for all days of disease
C. * Hospitalisation of patient to hospital
D. Bacteriological inspection
E. Prophylactic inoculations
192. Which indices should a doctor of therapeutic hospital estimate while analyzing quality of work for
attestative report?
A. Average employment of bed throughout the year, completeness of use of bed fund

B. Completeness of use of bed fund, bed turn

C. * Lethality, frequency of complications, average duration of treatment
D. Structure of hospitalised patients, average annual number of patients
E. Fulfilment of plan of bed-days, work of an intern
193. Throughout the day, therapists of a municipal hospital serve population in 3 places: reception, the
area, and the hospital. Every 2 year for 3-4 months therapists are referred to the hospital. Based on
what specialist-oriented district approach method do doctors work?
A. Territorial
B. Three-place
C. Two-place
D. * Watch
E. System of shopfloor physicians
194. In 12-14 year old girls growth of gynecologic diseases was observed, 20% of patients require
hospitalisation. Choose the most rational combination of stages of organisation of medical aid in this
case.
A. Obstetrician-gynecologist of a polyclinic - gynecologic hospital
B. Paediatrician - children's gynecologist
C. * Paediatrician - children's gynecologist - gynecologic hospital
D. Paediatrician - obstetrician-gynecologist
E. Paediatrician - gynecologic hospital
195. A child is born at a pediatric area. Local medical sister informed a doctor about it. When a
paediatrician should get acquainted with the patient for the first time?
A. In the first 15 days after labours
B. * In the first 3 days after discharging from maternity home
C. In the first month after labours
D. On the eve of discharging of the child from maternity home
E. At the first call for a doctor
196. A pregnant woman got registered in maternity welfare clinic at 11 weeks of pregnancy and was under
observation during all term at the normal course of pregnancy. Which of the below documents should
be given out by doctor to the pregnant woman for hospitalisation in maternity home?
A. Individual card of pregnant
B. Reference for hospitalisation
C. * Exchange card
D. Medical certificate
E. Reference from sanitary-epidemic station
197. A woman got registered in maternity welfare clinic at 10 weeks of pregnancy and was under
observation during all term at the normal course of pregnancy. What duration of pregnancy is
optimum in this case for filling out by the doctor of exchange card of pregnancy?
A. * 32 weeks
B. 28 weeks
C. 30 weeks
D. 34 weeks
E. 36 weeks
198. In N town with population of 250,000 during the year 420 children were born, of which 120 labours
were premature, 200 labours mature and 100 delayed. What analysis of documents allows receiving
the most exact information on terms of labours in the town?
A. Individual card of pregnant
B. Journal of reception of pregnant women and women in childbirth
C. * History of labours
D. Exchange card of maternity home
E. History of development of newborn
199. A woman was registered by maternity welfare clinic at 10 weeks of pregnancy. How many times is it
necessary to advise the woman to visit maternity welfare clinic during pregnancy at its normal
course?
A. 6-8 times
B. * 14-16 times
C. 10-12 times
D. 12-14 times
E. 16-18 times
200. A 43 year old man in grave condition was delivered in a reception of a first aid hospital. Doctor on
duty diagnosed acute myocardial infarction)). Despite medical actions carried out, in 2 hours the
patient died. What expert is it most suitable to entrust with establishing death cause in the given
situation?
A. Pathologist
B. Expert
C. Doctor on duty
D. Ambulance surgeon
E. * Forensic expert
201. At first reception of pregnant woman an obstetrician-gynecologist referred her for consultation to
other experts. What experts should she address?
A. Otolaryngologist, ophthalmologist
B. Therapist, neurologist
C. Dentist, phthisiatrician
D. * Therapist, dentist
E. Dentist, cardiologist
202. One of the factors influencing organisation of treatment and prophylactic help to rural population is
its low density. What feature of its organisation dies this cause?
A. Absence of pre-medical aid
B. No specialist-oriented district approach
C. Highly specialised help on the rural medical area
D. * Stage approach
E. Centralisation of therapeutic aid for rural medical area
203. A patient on dispensary record for stomach ulcer was called three times for medical-diagnostic
purpose and twice concerning prophylactic medical examination within the calendar year. What case
of polyclinic service will be considered primary?
A. First call in the calendar year with the diagnosis registered earlier
B. First call in calendar month
C. First call in calendar year
D. * First call in calendar year with the given purpose
E. First call within last 12 months
204. Within a year, in a maternity hospital there were 616 livebirths, one stillbirth, one infant died on the
5th day of life. What index can most accurately describe this situation?
A. * Perinatal mortality
B. Total mortality
C. Birthrate
D. Infant mortality

E. Natural increase
205. A study of the structure of death causes in the urban population revealed that cardiovascular diseases
accounted for 55,0 % of all deaths. What statistic value represents these data?
A. * Extensive index
B. Intensive index
C. Index of evidence
D. Index of correlation
E. Correspondence index
206. A 12-year-old girl undergoes regular gastroenterological check-ups for duodenal ulcer, biliary
dyskinesia. What is the recommended frequency of anti-relapse treatment?
A. * Twice a year
B. Every two months
C. Every 3 months
D. Once a year
E. Three times a year
207. The institutions which take part in medical examinations can be prevention and
A. Prevention and treatment facilities
B. Sanitary-and-prophylactic institutions
C. Medico-social expert commissions
D. Medical boards of the Ministry of Defense
E. Medical boards of the Ministry of Home Affairs
208. A general practitioner visited a 2-year-old child and diagnosed him with measles. The child attends a
nursery, has a 5-year-old sister. What document must be filled in for the effective antiepidemic
measures in the given health locality?
A. * Emergency notification on infectious disease (form 058/o)
B. Carers leave certificate
C. Infants record (report form 112/o)
D. House call record (form 031/o)
E. Sick leave
209. An employee has been diseased for 4 months, further treatment is necessary, the patient is
incapacitated. Who is authorized to provide further disability examination of this patient?
A. * Medical and social expert board
B. Medical consultative board
C. Physician in charge and chief of department
D. Chief physician of a medical facility
E. Deputy chief responsible for disability examination
210. A factorys sectorial doctor selects a group of persons who often fall ill for thorough monitoring. At
the same time he takes into consideration the number of etiologically related cases with temporary
disability in each of the employees over the last year. An employee falls into this group if the number
of sickness cases is:
A. * 4 or more
B. 1 or more
C. 2 or more
D. 3 or more
E. 6 or more
211. A family lives in the town situated within the zone of radiation pollution. A 6-year-old child had been
ill with ARVI for 19 days. The child was undergoing outpatient treatment and was nursed by his
mother, a cafe worker. Specify the order of disability examination:

A. * Sick leave is granted for the entire period of the childs illness
B. Sick leave is granted for a total of 14 days, and after that period is over, a carers leave certificate is
issued
C. Sick leave is not granted, only a carers leave certificate is issued
D. Sick leave is granted for 14 days, after this period is over, no document is issued
E. Sick leave is granted for 7 days, after this period is over, a carers leave certificate is issued
212. It is planned to organize a rural outpatient clinic. The patients will be able to visit the doctors of the
following specialities:
A. * Therapeutist, dentist, pediatrician, obstetrician-gynecologist
B. Therapeutist, pediatrician, neurologist
C. Pediatrician, obstetrician-gynaecologist, ophthalmologist
D. Pediatrician, therapeutist, ophthalmologist
E. Obstetrician-gynaecologist, therapeutist
213. A 12-year-old girls has minor functional and morphological abnormalities: 1,0 D myopia, reduced
body resistance. The patient has no history of chronic diseases. Over the last year, there were 4 cases
of respiratory diseases. The girl belongs to the following health group:
A. * II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
214. The outpatient department of a city hospital works also as a 60-bed day hospital for somatic patients.
The department operates in a single-shift mode. What specialist selects patients for admission to the
day hospital?
A. * District doctor
B. Resident doctor
C. Chief of the outpatient department
D. Deputy chief of the hospital
E. Chief physician of the hospital
215. Within the structure of the regions population the share of persons aged 0 to 14 years is 25%, the
share of persons aged 50 years and older is 30%. What concept most accurately describes this
demographic situation?
A. * Regressive type of population age structure
B. Progressive type of population age structure
C. Cohort reproduction
D. Stationary type of population age structure
E. Immigration of population
216. A patient with high temperature came to a first-aid post in the evening. The fact of temporary
disability was established. Indicate the measure to be taken in this case:
A. * The night duty doctor should issue a medical certificate, which will be subsequently used for issuing
a sick list from the date of the previous day
B. The sick list for 1 day should be issued
C. The sick list for up to 3 days should be issued
D. The sick list for 3 days should be issued
E. No document should be issued

217. Clinic of a research institute for occupational diseases examined a worker who works at a
concentration plant and diagnosed him with chronic dust bronchitis. The case is investigated by a
commission including the representatives of: the plant, medical unit, territorial sanitation center,
department of Social Insurance Fund, trade union. According to the "regulation on investigation
of...", the commission should be headed by the representative of the following authority:
A. * Territorial sanitation center
B. Plant
C. Social Insurance Fund
D. Trade union
E. Medical unit
218. A patient with cardiac infarction is on sick leave with his medical certificate being continuously
extended for 4 months according to a standard procedure. The disease is progressing. The issue is put
forward to refer the patient to the industrial injury assessment board. Who among the medical staff of
medical and preventive treatment facility is authorized to do this?
A. * Medical expert committee
B. Attending medical doctor
C. Head doctor of hospital department
D. Deputy Head doctor for assessment of temporary disability
E. Head doctor
219. A patient is on sick leave for 4 months continuously from the date of injury. The treatment is going to
last for another 1-2 months. Who is authorized to extend the duration of medical certificate for this
patient?
A. * Medical advisory commission after medico-social expert commission examination
B. Medical superintendent
C. Medical advisory commission after inpatient treatment
D. District doctor by agreement with a department chief
E. Medico-social expert commission
220. Over a current year among workers of an institution 10% have not been ill a single time, 30% have
been ill once, 15% -twice, 5% -4 times, the rest -5 and more times. What is the percentage of workers
belonging to the I health group?
A. * 55 %
B. 10 %
C. 40 %
D. 60 %
E. 22 %
221. Chief physician of a polyclinic tasked a district doctor with determining the pathological prevalence
of disease N in his district. What document allows estimating the disease prevalence in the population
of a medical district?
A. * Prophylactic examinations register
B. Statistic coupons (+)
C. Statistic coupons (?)
D. Statistic coupons (+) and (?)
E. Vouchers for medical appointments
222. Establishments participating in medical examinations include: medical and preventive treatment
facility, hygiene and preventive treatment facility, socio-medical expert committees, Ministry of
Defense medical committees, Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees, forensic medicine
agency, etc. Specify what service deals with socio-medical assessment of temporary disability:
A. * Medical and preventive treatment facility
B. Hygiene and preventive treatment facility

C. Socio-medical expert committees

D. Ministry of Defense medical committees
E. Ministry of Domestic Affairs medical committees
223. Various population groups mortality has been studied for a long time; territorial distribution of
population and resulting changes in mortality trends are considered. What statistical method can be
applied?
A. * Time series analysis
B. Standardized ratio analysis
C. Correlation and regression analysis
D. Assessment of parameter difference reliability
E. Analysis of relative values
224. A workshop resident doctor makes a list of workers, who are often ill, for special supervision. He
takes into account the number of etiologically connected cases resulting in temporary disability that
occurred in the span of a year for each worker. How many such cases should a worker have to be
included in this group?
A. * 4 and more
B. 1 and more
C. 2 and more
D. 3 and more
E. 6 and more
225. The correlation between service record and eosinophils concentration in blood was studied in
workers at dyeing shops of textile factories. What index will be the most informative for the analysis
of this data?
A. * Correlation factor
B. Students criterion
C. Standardized index
D. Fitting criterion
E. Sign index
226. In a rural health care area there is a case of child dying during the first month of his life. To analyze
this situation, among other measures, an expert assessment of medical records is performed. What
medical document should be considered first?
A. * Child development history
B. Infant development history
C. Vaccination card
D. Outpatient medical record
E. Childs medical record
227. Estimation of community health level involved analysis of a report on diseases registered among the
population of catchment area (reporting form 12). What index is calculated basing on this report?
A. * Common morbidity rate
B. Index of pathological affection
C. Index of morbidity with temporary disability
D. Index of hospitalized morbidity
E. Index of basic non-epidemic morbidity

(): : 11
Social medicine, organization and economics of health care
:
11-12 terms, 6 course med
:
1. ?Give the main characteristic of general statistical population.
A. * Includes all observation units
B. Each special case of the phenomenon which is studied
C. Criterion which characterises an observation unit
D. Consists of a part of observation units, it is authentic
E. Scheduling and programs
2. Give the main characteristic of selective statistical population.
A. * Consists of a part of observation units, it is authentic
B. Includes all observation units
C. Each special case of the phenomenon which is studied
D. Criterion which characterises an observation unit
E. Scheduling and programs
3. What is the statistical population?
A. * Big group of homogeneous observation units which are taken together in certain limits of time and
space
B. Organisation of statistical research
C. Public phenomena which are studied taking into account various descriptive registration attributes
D. Each special case of the phenomenon which is studied
E. Set of all attributes subject to study
4. What is a component of statistical population?
A. * Observation unit
B. Registration attribute
C. Purpose and research problems
D. Statistical attribute
E. Attributes subject to studying
5. Population phenomena are studied taking into account a considerable quantity of various registration
attributes which characterise an observation unit. How attributes which have two mutually exclusive
values are called?
A. * Alternative
B. Momentary
C. Attributive
D. Quantitative
E. Discrete
6. On a way of reception of the information statistical research are:
A. * Direct, copying, anamnestic
B. Continuous and selective
C. Flowing and one-stage
D. Combined
E. Official and special
7. What is basic function of the program of statistical research?
A. * Definition of a strategic direction of research
B. Definition of tactics of research (that, where, when also by whom it will be made)
C. Observation unit definition

D. Definition of statistical population

E. Definition of stages of statistical research
8. What basic function of the plan of statistical research?
A. * Definition of tactics of research (that, where, when also by whom it will be made)
B. Definition of a strategic direction of research
C. Observation unit definition
D. Definition of statistical population
E. Definition of stages of statistical research
9. Name kinds of programs of statistical research.
A. * Programs of gathering, working out and the analysis
B. Simple, complicated, combinational
C. Encryption and the control
D. Programs of the logic and technical control
E. Continuous and selective
10. Specify the first stage of statistical research
A. * Scheduling and research programs
B. Material gathering
C. Analysis of results of research
D. Working out of the statistical data and material report
E. Conclusions, offers and introduction in practice
11. Specify the second stage of statistical research
A. * Material gathering
B. Analysis of results of research
C. Working out of the statistical data and material report
D. Conclusions, offers and introduction in practice
E. Scheduling and research programs
12. Specify the third stage of statistical research
A. * Working out of the statistical data and material report
B. Material gathering
C. Analysis of results of research
D. Conclusions, offers and introduction in practice
E. Scheduling and research programs
13. Specify the fourth stage of statistical research
A. * Analysis of results of research
B. Material gathering
C. Working out of the statistical data and material report
D. Conclusions, offers and introduction in practice
E. Scheduling and research programs
14. Specify the fifth stage of statistical research
A. * Conclusions, offers and introduction in practice
B. Material gathering
C. Analysis of results of research
D. Working out of the statistical data and material report
E. Scheduling and research programs
15. What factors most of all influence health of people?
A. * Social and economic

B. Environment
C. Ecological
D. Biological
E. Heredity
16. What does the program of gathering of a material show?
A. * List of registration attributes
B. List of observation units
C. Figure up of breadboard models of tables
D. Use of different methods of the analysis
E. Scheduling and programs
17. What does the program of working out of a material show?
A. * Figure up of breadboard models of tables
B. List of registration attributes
C. List of observation units
D. Use of different methods of the analysis
E. Scheduling and programs
18. To which of the below documents which purpose - studying of the hospitalised disease can serve as
the program of the statistical research?
A. * Statistical card left an in-patient department / f.066/o/
B. Incapacity card
C. History of development of the child / f.112/o/
D. Log-book of movement of patients and in-patient department bed fund/F.007/0/
E. Out-patient card/f./025-7/o/
19. To which of the below documents which purpose studying of primary disease can serve as the
program of the statistical research?
A. * Out-patient card/f.025-7/o/
B. Incapacity card
C. History of development of the child/f. 112/o/
D. Statistical card left an in-patient department/f.066/o/
E. Log-book of movement of patients and in-patient department bed fund/f.007/o/
20. Kinds of statistical values.
A. * Relative, average, absolute
B. Averages, intensive, extensive
C. Relative, intensive, extensive
D. Absolute, an index of standardization, correlation
E. Absolute, relative, a presentation index
21. Intensive indices characterise:
A. * Frequency, level, prevalence of the phenomenon
B. Dynamics of an index for some years
C. Interrelation between the phenomena
D. Structure, distribution, relative density of the phenomenon
E. Relation between a number of values which are compared, to the base level accepted for 100%
22. What values in the medical statistics give generalising characteristic of the phenomenon to a
quantitative attribute?
A. * Averages
B. Correlation
C. Relative

D. Absolute
E. Standardised
23. To what indices of provision of the population doctors, hospital beds belong?
A. * Parities
B. Intensive general
C. Intensive special
D. Extensive
E. Presentation
24. Specify an example of intensive size.
A. * Disease of the population
B. Average life expectancy
C. Availability of the population of average medical staff
D. Bed circulation
E. Particle of preventive visits
25. Which of the below indices are intensive?
A. * Death rate of children
B. Death rate decrease on 10%
C. Relative density of traumas in structure of general death rate
D. Rate of increase
E. Disease structure
26. Specify an example of an index of parity.
A. * Availability of the population of average medical staff
B. Average life expectancy
C. Bed circulation
D. Particle of preventive visits
E. Primary disease
27. Extensive indices characterise:
A. * Structure, distribution, relative density of the phenomenon
B. Frequency, level, prevalence of the phenomenon
C. Dynamics of an index for some years
D. Interrelation between the phenomena
E. Relation between a number of values which are compared, to the base level accepted for 100%
28. What values in the medical statistics give generalising characteristic of the phenomenon to a
qualitative attribute?
A. * Relative
B. Averages
C. Relative, average
D. Absolute
E. Standardised
29. Specify an example of extensive size
A. * Particle of children among all population
B. Average life expectancy
C. Availability of the population of average medical staff
D. Bed circulation
E. Disease of the population
30. Which of the below indices are extensive?

A. * Structure of the hospitalised disease

B. Decrease in the hospitalised disease on 5%
C. Death rate of children from traumas
D. Level of childhood traumatism
E. Bed circulation
31. Presentation index characterises:
A. * Relation between a number of values which are compared, to the base level accepted for 100%
B. Distribution of set to its components
C. Frequency of the phenomenon in the environment in which it occurs
D. Relation between diverse values
E. Relation between homogeneous values
32. What indices give the chance to do a conclusion about prevalence of the phenomenon?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Average values
D. Correlation factor
E. Presentation indices
33. Define the index of distribution of death rate of the population belongs to what kind of statistics
depending on its reasons.
A. * To the extensive
B. To the intensive
C. Parities
D. Presentation
E. To the standardised
34. In the annual report the data about maintenance of the population of district with beds is cited. What
index used in this case?
A. * Parities
B. Intensive
C. Extensive
D. Presentation
E. Standardised
35. Data about relative density of bronchial asthma among all allergic diseases at children is cited. What
index has been used?
A. * Extensive
B. Presentation
C. Intensive
D. Parities
E. Average indexes
36. What index can be calculated, if there is data about a population and number of the deceased?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Presentation
D. Parities
E. Average indexes
37. What index can be calculated, if there is data about a population and number of doctors?
A. * Parities
B. Intensive

C. Extensive
D. Presentation
E. Average indexes
38. What index can be calculated, if there is data about a population, including number of women and
men?
A. * Extensive
B. Parities
C. Intensive
D. Presentation
E. Average indexes
39. If the first index of dynamic number to accept for 100% concerning the others it is possible to
calculate an index:
A. * Presentation
B. Extensive
C. Parities
D. Intensive
E. Average indexes
40. A number of homogeneous statistical values which characterises change of any one phenomenon for
certain time intervals is:
A. * A dynamic number
B. A variation number
C. A correlation number
D. Parity
E. Intensive index
41. What is the pure gain?
A. * Difference between given and previous number levels
B. Ratio of pure gain and previous level ? of 100%
C. Ratio of current level to the former ? 100%
D. Ratio of absolute growth to rate of increase
E. Sum of current and the former levels of the series
42. What is growth rate?
A. * Ratio of current level to the former ? 100%
B. Difference between current and the former levels of the series
C. Ratio of absolute growth to the former level ? 100%
D. Ratio of absolute growth to rate of increase
E. Sum of current and the former levels of the series
43. What is rate of increase?
A. * Ratio of absolute growth to the former level ? 100%
B. Difference between current and the former levels of the series
C. Ratio of current level to the former ? 100%
D. Ratio of absolute growth to rate of increase
E. Sum of current and the former levels of the series
44. Which of the below indices are used for analysis of the dynamic series?
A. * Absolute growth, growth rate, rate of increase
B. Minimum and maximum value of indices of the series
C. Correlation and regression coefficient
D. Mode, median, mean

E. Limit, amplitude, standard deviation, variation coefficient

45. Difference between current level of the dynamic series and the former is:
A. * Absolute growth
B. Rate of increase
C. Growth rate
D. Absolute value of 1% growth
E. Index of visualization
46. Ratio of current level of the dynamic series to base level of the series is:
A. * Index of visualization
B. Absolute growth
C. Rate of increase
D. Growth rate
E. Absolute value of 1% growth
47. Ratio of current level of the dynamic series to the former level in percentage is:
A. * Growth rate
B. Index of visualization
C. Absolute growth
D. Rate of increase
E. Absolute value of 1% growth
48. Ratio of absolute growth of the dynamic series to the former level in percentage is:
A. * Rate of increase
B. Growth rate
C. Index of visualization
D. Absolute growth
E. Absolute value of 1% growth
49. Variation series are made for calculating averages. How is every numeric value of the studied sign
called?
A. * Variant
B. Mode
C. Frequency
D. Average
E. Median
50. Variation set in which every variant occurs only once is called:
A. * Simple
B. Standard
C. Grouped (weighted)
D. Interval
E. Absolute
51. What value can be calculated in a variation series where frequency of every variant equals 1?
A. * Simple mean
B. Growth rate
C. Students coefficient
D. Coefficient of correlation
E. Coefficient of standardization
52. What mean value can be calculated from variation of a series where every variant occurs with certain
frequency?
A. * Weighted mean

B. Growth rate
C. Students coefficient
D. Coefficient of correlation
E. Coefficient of standardization
53. How is a variant that is a midpoint in variation series called?
A. * Median
B. Mean
C. Simple mean
D. Weighted mean
E. Mode
54. A set of homogeneous statistical values characterising a phenomenon that differs by size and location
in range order is:
A. * Variation set
B. Dynamic set
C. Correlation set
D. Growth rate
E. Ratio
55. Quantitative registration attribute is:
A. * Variant
B. Correlation factor
C. Students criterion
D. Arithmetic mean
E. Variation factor
56. Generalising one-number index characterising a phenomenon which can have many individual
manifestations is:
A. * Arithmetic mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Limit
E. Amplitude
57. Size of an attribute which most often occurs in variation series is:
A. * Mode
B. Arithmetic mean
C. Median
D. Limit
E. Amplitude
58. Size of an attribute which occupies middle position in variation series and divides it into two equal
parts is:
A. * Median
B. Mode
C. Arithmetic mean
D. Limit
E. Amplitude
59. Value of extreme variants in variation series is:
A. * Limit
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Arithmetic mean
E. Amplitude
60. Difference between extreme variants in variation series is:
A. * Amplitude
B. Limit
C. Median
D. Mode
E. Arithmetic mean
61. Specify kinds of average values.
A. * Mode, median, arithmetic mean
B. Limit, amplitude, average square deviation, variation factor
C. Variant, frequency
D. Limit, amplitude, arithmetic mean
E. Mode, median, average square deviation
62. What number of supervisions in statistics is considered large?
A. * > 30
B. 10
C. 20
D. <30
E. > 100
63. What number of supervisions in statistics is considered small?
A. * ?30
B. <30
C. > 30
D. 40
E. > 100
64. What is an example of average?
A. * Average duration of stay of ten acute pneumonia patients in an in-patient department.
B. Availability of doctors on 10 thousand people
C. Aggregate number died in an in-patient department throughout the year.
D. Number born in the town A within a month.
E. Number of people subject to prophylactic medical examinations on village medical site.
65. Specify numerical value of mode in following variation series: 24, 25, 26, 27, 27, 27, 28, 28, 28, 28,
29, 29.
A. * 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
E. 29
66. Which of the listed indices of average duration of stay in an in-patient department represents a
complex variation number?
A. * 10, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 12
B. 12, 29, 45, 2, 34, 36, 80
C. 10, 10, 13, 14, 18, 10, 11
D. 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16
E. 2009 12, in 2010 10, in 2011 7

67. What criterion of estimation of degree of heterogeneity of attributes is a relative measure of their
variety?
A. * Variation factor
B. Limit
C. Relative value
D. Amplitude
E. Average square deviation
68. At an estimation of degree of heterogeneity of average growth of schoolboys it is established that the
variation factor has made 9%. Estimate degree of a variation of an investigated attribute:
A. * Low
B. Very low
C. High
D. Average
E. Very high
69. At an estimation of degree of heterogeneity of average growth of schoolboys it is established that the
variation factor has made 17%. Estimate degree of a variation of an investigated attribute:
A. * Average
B. Very low
C. Low
D. High
E. Very high
70. At an estimation of degree of heterogeneity of average growth of schoolboys it is established that the
variation factor has made 28%. Estimate degree of a variation of an attribute:
A. * High
B. Very low
C. Low
D. Average
E. Very high
71. Clinic-statistical research of action of a new pharmacological preparation on patients with an
ischemic heart trouble is conducted. This data was compared to results in control group. What
parametrical criterion (factor) can be used for an estimation of reliability of results?
A. * Factor of Student
B. Conformity factor
C. Criterion of attributes
D. T-criterion of Wilkinson
E. Kolmogorov-Smirnova criterion
72. For an estimation of reliability of results of statistical research it is necessary to define:
A. * Error
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Arithmetic mean
E. Variation factor
73. What is the error of selective research?
A. * Difference between result of selective and continuous research.
B. Difference between the greatest and least value of a variant.
C. Difference between indices in skilled and control groups.
D. Average value of an attribute which is studied.

E. Average square deviation.

74. What criteria of reliability are?
A. * Representativeness error, confidential borders, factor of Student
B. Variation factor, correlation factor, factor of Student
C. Representativeness error, correlation factor, factor of Student
D. Representativeness error, variation factor, factor of Student
E. Representativeness error, factor of Student
75. For an estimation of reliability of average values it is necessary to define:
A. * Error
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Arithmetic mean
E. Variation factor
76. At what value of Students criterion (t) it is possible to consider a difference between relative values
essential?
A. * ?2.00
B. 0.05
C. ?1.00
D. <1.05
E. ?1.55
77. At what value of Students criterion (t) it is possible to consider a difference between average values
essential?
A. * ?2.00
B. 0.05
C. ?1.00
D. <1.05
E. ?1.55
78. With what care of a method it is possible to establish interrelation between a floor of the population
and its death from a myocardium heart attack?
A. * Correlation method
B. Standardization method
C. Method of the dynamic analysis
D. Method of the variation analysis
E. Method of definition of reliability
79. At 200 sick with hypertensive disease the size of arterial pressure and age of the patient was studied.
It is necessary to take advantage of what statistical size to establish force of correlation between these
attributes?
A. * In correlation factor
B. Sigma deviation
C. In variation factor
D. In factor of Student
E. Representativeness error
80. On representative set sick the pneumonia makes correlation studying between a body temperature
and a pulse rate. The calculated factor of correlation equals +0.7. Define an orientation and force of
correlation between attributes which are studied.
A. * Direct strong correlation
B. Direct weak correlation

C. Direct average correlation

D. Full correlation
E. Data about interrelation not the authentic
81. On the basis of the data about disease on flu and monthly average temperature of air the calculated
factor of correlation which made-0.28. Define an orientation and force of correlation between
attributes.
A. * Reverse weak correlation
B. Feedback of average force
C. Direct correlation of average force
D. Reverse strong correlation
E. Direct weak correlation
82. Estimate correlation between attributes, if rxy = +0.31:
A. * Direct, average
B. Direct, weak
C. Direct, strong
D. Reverse, weak
E. Reverse, average
83. Data about disease levels on a diphtheria and number of inoculations is cited. What criteria can be
used for a correlation establishment in this case?
A. * Correlation factor
B. Variation factor
C. Parity factor
D. Criterion of reliability
E. Presentation index
84. What method of statistical processing of results allows to find out influence of heterogeneity of
investigated groups on the investigated phenomenon?
A. * Standardization
B. Correlations
C. Variation analysis
D. Estimations of reliability of results
E. Dynamic analysis
85. A comparative estimation of hospital lethality in two hospitals with different sexual structure of
patients on branches it is possible to make a following method:
A. * Standardization
B. Correlations
C. Dynamic analysis
D. Variation analysis
E. Reliability
86. In the annual report the data about levels of prevalence of diseases among the district population for a
number of years is cited. What kind of a graphic representation should be applied in this case?
A. * Linear diagram
B. Bar chart
C. Pie chart
D. Cartogram
E. Map diagram
87. What kind of a graphic representation can be used to represent change of a body temperature of the
person throughout days?

A. * Radial diagram
B. Bar chart
C. Linear diagram
D. Cartogram
E. Pie chart
88. For the analysis the data about structure of diseases is cited. Define what diagram is necessary for
using in this case.
A. * Intrabar chart
B. Cartogram
C. Radial diagram
D. Bar chart
E. Linear diagram
89. There was a studied structure of primary disease of the population. With the care of what diagram,
results of the given research should be graphically represented?
A. * Pie chart
B. Bar chart
C. Radial diagram
D. Linear diagram
E. Figured diagram
90. Index of death rate of babies for last year in town K has made 9.7 , In town N 9.5 . Define a
kind of the diagram which can be used for a graphic representation of indices.
A. * Bar chart
B. Pie chart
C. Figured diagram
D. Intrabar chart
E. Radial diagram
91. For a graphic representation of the phenomena which are studied, different diagrams are used. In
what cases the intrabar chart is used?
A. * To represent structure of the phenomena
B. To represent dynamics of the phenomena
C. To represent parity of the phenomena
D. To represent variety of the phenomena
E. To represent average values
92. What types of diagrams use for a graphic representation of extensive indices more often?
A. * Sector and intrabar charts
B. Bar and linear diagrams, cartograms, map diagrams
C. Radial (polar) diagrams
D. Figured and intrabar charts
E. Cartograms, linear diagrams
93. With what care of diagrams display regional features of death rate of the population of Ukraine?
A. * Cartograms, map diagrams.
B. Bar and linear diagrams, cartograms, map diagrams.
C. Sector and intrabar charts.
D. Radial (polar) diagrams.
E. Figured and intrabar charts.

94. Index of intranatal death rates for last year in maternity home No 1 has made 4.2 , in maternity
home No 2 5.1 . Define a kind of the diagram which can be used for a graphic representation of
indices.
A. * Bar chart
B. Pie chart
C. Figured diagram
D. Intrabar chart
E. Radial diagram
95. Age structure of the population of district is distributed thus: the part of children (0-14 years) makes
15%, a part of the population at the age of 15-49 years 50%, the part of the population at the age of
50 years and older 35%. Define type of age structure of the population of district.
A. * Regressive type
B. Stationary type
C. Progressive type
D. Depopulation type
E. Retrospective type
96. Child was born with a congenital heart disease. Despite of performed treatment, died for 32nd day of
life. This case will enter into what special index of death rate of babies?
A. * Index of postneonatal death rate
B. Index of intranatal death rates
C. Index of early neonatal death rates
D. Index of late neonatal death rates
E. Index of perinatal death rate
97. At metallurgical industrial complex of the big industrial town of N 230 people living in a countryside
and daily spending 2 hours of time for road to industrial complex and back work. Define what
migration is carried out by workers.
A. * Pendular migration
B. Constant migration
C. Seasonal migration
D. Daily migration
E. Monthly migration
98. In maternity home within a year was born live 616 children, 1 child was born the dead, 1 child died
for 5th day of life. Define with what care of an index it is possible to characterise the given
demographic situation.
A. * Perinatal death rate
B. General death rate
C. Birth rate
D. Death rate of babies
E. Marriage fruitfulness
99. In structure of the population of region N relative density of people at the age from 0 till 14 years
makes 31%, and relative density of people at the age of 50 years and older 20%. Estimate the age
type of the population most neatly characterising the given demographic situation:
A. * Progressive type of the population
B. Population immigration
C. Regressive type of the population
D. Stationary type of the population
E. Population emigration
100. In structure of the population of region M relative density of people at the age of 0-14 years makes
12%, and at the age of 50 years and older 30%. Estimate the age type of the population most
precisely characterising the given demographic situation:
A. * Regressive type of the population
B. Immigration
C. Emigration
D. Stationary type of the population
E. Progressive type of the population
101. In structure of the population of region relative density of people at the age from 0 till 14 years
25%, relative density of the population at the age of 50 years also older same. What concept most
precisely characterises this demographic situation?
A. * Stationary type of the population
B. Progressive type of the population
C. Population emigration
D. Regressive type of the population
E. Population immigration
102. Demographic data is used by system of public health services for a complex estimation of a state of
health of the population, figure up of scientifically well-founded forecasts and the purposeful
organisation of medical care. Define what group of indices most precisely characterises a
demographic situation.
A. * Birth rate, general death rate, natural increase
B. Birth rate and lethality
C. General death rate, natural increase
D. Results of periodic medical examinations
E. Population complete census
103. Throughout the year was born live 500 children, dead 5. In the first 7 days of life 8 children died.
Which of the below indices should be calculated under this data?
A. * Perinatal death rate
B. Birth rate
C. Death rate of babies
D. General death rate
E. Natural movement
104. Migration changes number and age structure of the population in separate settlements. How
migration if workers from other area have arrived for 2 weeks will be called to collect a sugar beet in
a countryside?
A. * Seasonal
B. Uncertain
C. Emigration
D. Immigration
E. Pendular
105. Among indices of death rate of the population on age groups there is a death rate of babies. Which of
the resulted belongs to this death rate?
A. * Death rate till 1 year of life
B. Death rate till 28 days of life
C. Death rate till 56 days of life
D. Death rate till 87 days of life
E. Death rate till 7 days of life

106. For more detailed characteristic of death rate of babies count an index early neonatal death rates.
Which of the resulted belongs to this death rate?
A. * Death rate till 7 days of life
B. Death rate till 28 days of life
C. Death rate till 56 days of life
D. Death rate till 87 days of life
E. Death rate till 1 year of life
107. Neonatal death rates of children influence level different socially-biological factors, unhandy or
uncontrollable (age of mother, a floor, weight of the child and others). What is neonatal death rate?
A. * Death rate till 28 days of life
B. Death rate till 7 days of life
C. Death rate till 56 days of life
D. Death rate till 87 days of life
E. Death rate till 1 year of life
108. Decrease in postneonatal death rate of children is connected with improvement of quality of medical
care by newborn. Which of the resulted belongs to this death rate?
A. * Death from 28 days till 1 year of life
B. Death rate till 28 days of life
C. Death rate till 7 days of life
D. Death from 7 days till 1 year of life
E. Death rate till 1 year of life
109. Mortinatality Decrease is connected with improvement of quality of medical care to women during
pregnancy. For what calculation of a demographic index consider the stillborn?
A. * Perinatal death rate
B. Early neonatal death rates
C. Neonatal
D. Postneonatal
E. In all listed cases
110. Parent death rate an index which characterises quality of the medical care given to women in
pregnancy, at the time of delivery and during the postnatal period. Which of the below-mentioned
belongs to parent death rate?
A. * Death rate during pregnancy, labors or within 42 days after the delivery if the death of the woman is
connected with pregnancy or labors
B. Death rate during pregnancy, labors or within 21 days after the delivery if the death of the woman is
connected with pregnancy or labors
C. Death rate within 21 days after the delivery if the death of the woman is not connected with labors
D. Death rate during pregnancy, labors or within 7 days after the delivery if the death of the woman is
connected with pregnancy or labors
E. Death rate during pregnancy
111. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate how many
died in the postnatal period.
A. * 15 children
B. 6 children
C. 2 children
D. 4 children
E. 20 children

112. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate how many
died in antenatal the period.
A. * 4 children
B. 15 children
C. 6 children
D. 2 children
E. 20 children
113. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate how many
died in early neonatal period.
A. * 15 children
B. 6 children
C. 4 children
D. 2 children
E. 20 children
114. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate the number of
stillborn.
A. * 6 children
B. 4 children
C. 15 children
D. 2 children
E. 20 children
115. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate how many
died in the postneonatal period.
A. * 10 children
B. 15 children
C. 6 children
D. 4 children
E. 20 children
116. During pregnancies of women, 4 foetuses died, during labors 2 children died. In total, 30 died during
the first year of life, including in the first month 20, in the first week 15. Calculate how many
died in neonatal period.
A. * 20 children
B. 10 children
C. 15 children
D. 6 children
E. 4 children
117. Demographic statics studies:
A. * Number, population structure
B. Migratory processes of the population
C. Natural movement of the population
D. Population reproduction
E. Population census
118. What types of reproduction of the population to you are known?
A. * Expanded, narrowed, stationary

B. Migration, natural increase

C. Total, gross - net-reproduction
D. Death rate, birth rate, natural increase
E. Progressive, regressive, population ageing
119. How the medical document registering birth of the person is called?
A. * Health certificate on birth
B. Medical certificate on birth
C. Certificate of registration of birth
D. Log-book of newborn
E. Birth certificate
120. Demographic dynamics studies:
A. * Mechanical and natural movement of the population
B. Population census
C. Number and population structure
D. Population moving on geographical zones of the country
E. Overpopulation and urbanization
121. In town A birth rate makes 14.5 . Estimate birth rate level, according to WHO criteria.
A. * Low
B. Average
C. High
D. Critical
E. Limited
122. In town B birth rate makes 16.0 . Estimate birth rate level, according to WHO criteria.
A. * Average
B. Low
C. High
D. Critical
E. Limited
123. In town T birth rate makes 26.1. Estimate birth rate level, according to WHO criteria.
A. * High
B. Average
C. Low
D. Critical
E. Limited
124. In town A general death rate makes 14.8. Estimate level of general death rate, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * Average
B. Low
C. High
D. Critical
E. Limited
125. In town B general death rate makes 16.6. Estimate level of general death rate, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * High
B. Average
C. Low
D. Critical

E. Limited
126. In town D general death rate makes 8.1. Estimate level of general death rate, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * Low
B. High
C. Average
D. Critical
E. Limited
127. In town A death rate of babies makes 14.2. Estimate a death rate of babies, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * Low
B. Average
C. High
D. Critical
E. Limited
128. In town G death rate of babies makes 26.0. Estimate a death rate of babies, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * Average
B. Low
C. High
D. Critical
E. Limited
129. In town D death rate of babies makes 51.4. Estimate a death rate of babies, according to WHO
criteria.
A. * High
B. Low
C. Average
D. Critical
E. Limited
130. Perinatal period consists of what parts?
A. * Antenatal, intranatal, early neonatal
B. Intranatal, antenatal, neonatal
C. Intranatal, antenatal, mortinatality
D. Antenatal, mortinatality, neonatal
E. Antenatal, neonatal, postneonatal
131. In town birth rate makes 12 people on 1000 people. What level of birth rate of children in the given
town on an existing rating scale?
A. * Low
B. High
C. Above average
D. Average
E. Below average
132. What is the duration of the antenatal period?
A. * 22 week of pregnancy prior to the beginning of labors
B. 28 week of pregnancy prior to the beginning of labors
C. Labors
D. Labors 7 days of life

E. Labors 28 days of life

133. What is the duration of intranatal period?
A. * Labors
B. 22 week of pregnancy labors
C. 28 week of pregnancy labors
D. Labors 7 days of life
E. Labors 28 days of life
134. What is the duration of early neonatal period?
A. * From the moment of birth 7 days of life
B. Labors
C. 22 week of pregnancy labors
D. 28 week of pregnancy labors
E. Labors 28 days of life
135. What is the duration of late neonatal period?
A. * 7 days of life 28 days of life
B. Labors 7 days of life
C. 22 week of pregnancy labors
D. 28 week of pregnancy labors
E. Labors 28 days of life
136. What is the duration of neonatal period?
A. * From the moment of birth 28 days of life
B. From the moment of birth 7 days of life
C. 22 week of pregnancy labors
D. 28 week of pregnancy labors
E. From the moment of birth 30 days of life
137. What is the duration of the postneonatal period?
A. * 29 days 12 months
B. From the moment of birth 7 days of life
C. 7 days 1 month
D. 28 days 6 months
E. From the moment of birth 30 days of life
138. Intensity of influence of a way of life on person's health makes:
A. * 50%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 10%
E. 60%
139. Intensity of influence of biological factors on person's health makes:
A. * 20%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 10%
E. 60%
140. Intensity of influence of exogenous factors on person's health makes:
A. * 20%
B. 50%

C. 30%
D. 10%
E. 60%
141. Intensity of influence of system of medical care on person's health makes:
A. * 10%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 30%
E. 60%
142. What is not included in the concept of "population's health"?
A. * Migration
B. Death rate
C. Natural increase
D. Average life expectancy
E. Disease
143. What is not included in the concept of "population's health"?
A. * Age structure of the population
B. Death rate
C. Natural increase
D. Disability
E. Disease
144. What is not included in the concept of "population's health"?
A. * Sexual structure of the population
B. Death rate
C. Natural increase
D. Disability
E. Disease
145. What is not included in the concept of "population's health"?
A. * Type of age structure of the population
B. Physical development
C. Natural increase
D. Disability
E. Disease
146. Diseases of population are studied by different methods. Define what of methods of studying disease
provides the fullest account of "chronic" diseases.
A. * Medical examinations
B. Calls for medical care
C. Population interrogation
D. Censuses of patients
E. Causes of death
147. Prophylaxis of diseases includes primary, secondary and tertiary prophylaxis. Which of the below
belongs to problems of primary prophylaxis?
A. * Prevention of occurrence of diseases
B. Prevention of subsequent development of diseases
C. Prevention of complications of disease
D. Rehabilitation
E. Prevention of relapse of disease

148. Carrying out of medical routine examinations, active supervision over a population state of health,
immunization carrying out, formation of a healthy way of life, is there are basic actions:
A. * Primary prophylaxis
B. Secondary prophylaxis
C. Tertiary prophylaxis
D. General prophylaxis
E. Special prophylaxis
149. How many classes of diseases does the International statistical classification of diseases and health
problems include?
A. * 21
B. 12
C. 17
D. 7
E. 27
150. Diseases of population are studied by different methods. Which of below-mentioned is a method for
disease studying?
A. * Calls for medical care
B. Census of patients
C. Population census
D. Anthropometrical measurements
E. Household rounds
151. Diseases of population are studied by different methods. Which of below-mentioned is a method for
disease studying?
A. * Medical examinations
B. Household rounds
C. Anthropometrical measurements
D. Population census
E. Census of patients
152. Diseases of population are studied by different methods. Which of below-mentioned it is possible to
use for disease studying?
A. * Causes of death
B. Population census
C. Census of patients
D. Anthropometrical measurements
E. Household rounds
153. Prophylaxis of diseases includes primary, secondary and tertiary prophylaxis. Define what secondary
prophylaxis of diseases provides.
A. * Prevention of subsequent development of diseases
B. Prevention of occurrence of diseases
C. Prevention of disability from diseases
D. Prevention of death from diseases
E. Prevention of distribution of disease
154. Prophylaxis of diseases includes primary, secondary and tertiary prophylaxis. Define what tertiary
prophylaxis of diseases provides.
A. * Prevention of disability and death from diseases
B. Prevention of subsequent development of diseases
C. Prevention of complications of disease
D. Rehabilitation

E. Prevention of relapse of disease

155. What disease is subject to the special account?
A. * Acute infectious diseases
B. Diseases of respiratory organs
C. Diseases of digestive organs
D. Diseases of urinogenital system
E. Diseases of nervous system and sense organs
156. What disease is subject to the special account?
A. * Hospitalised disease
B. Accidents, traumas
C. Diseases of respiratory organs
D. Diseases of urinogenital system
E. Diseases of digestive organs
157. What disease is subject to the special account?
A. * Disease of mental diseases
B. Accidents, traumas
C. Diseases of respiratory organs
D. Diseases of urinogenital system
E. Diseases of digestive organs
158. First stage of provision of the specialised diagnostic medical care sick of diseases of system of blood
circulation belongs to:
A. * Cardiological room of an out-patient clinic
B. Cardiological branch of an in-patient department
C. Local therapist
D. Cardiological room of regional hospital
E. Cardiological clinic
159. Second stage of provision of the specialised diagnostic medical care sick of diseases of system of
blood circulation belongs to:
A. * Cardiological branch of an in-patient department
B. Cardiological room of an out-patient clinic
C. Local therapist
D. Station of the first care
E. Cardiological clinic
160. Third stage of provision of the specialised diagnostic medical care sick of diseases of system of blood
circulation belongs to:
A. * Cardiological clinic
B. Cardiological branch of an in-patient department
C. Cardiological room of an out-patient clinic
D. Local therapist
E. Station of the first care
161. Incomplete account of diseases in cases of insufficient availability of medical care is the main
drawback of studying disease:
A. * Based on calls
B. According to medical examinations
C. Based on questioning
D. By data about causes of death
E. According to special selective research

162. Incomplete account of initial and asymptomatic stages and forms of diseases, chronic diseases, is the
main drawback of studying disease:
A. * Based on calls
B. According to medical examinations
C. Based on questioning
D. By data about causes of death
E. According to special selective research
163. Fullest account of unknown chronic diseases is the main advantage of studying disease:
A. * According to medical examinations
B. Based on calls
C. Based on questioning
D. By data about causes of death
E. According to special selective research
164. Establishment of the most authentic diagnosis of disease is the main advantage of studying disease:
A. * By data about causes of death
B. According to medical examinations
C. Based on calls
D. Based on questioning
E. According to special selective research
165. Traumas which have occurred at performance of donor functions are equated to:
A. * Industrial traumas
B. Household traumas
C. General traumas
D. Non-productive traumas
E. Traumas subject to special account
166. Prevention of occurrence of diseases belongs to:
A. * Primary prophylaxis
B. Secondary prophylaxis
C. Tertiary prophylaxis
D. Quaternary prophylaxis
E. Preventive medical examinations
167. Prevention of subsequent development of diseases belongs to:
A. * Secondary prophylaxis
B. Primary prophylaxis
C. Tertiary prophylaxis
D. Quaternary prophylaxis
E. Preventive medical examinations
168. Prevention of disability and death from diseases belongs to:
A. * Tertiary prophylaxis
B. Secondary prophylaxis
C. Primary prophylaxis
D. Quaternary prophylaxis
E. Preventive medical examinations
169. Relative density of the working population which was not ill within a calendar year, belongs to the
index:
A. * Health index
B. Demographic load

C. Population's health
D. Population distribution by health groups
E. Exhaustive disease
170. People with risk factors of occurrence of diseases belong to:
A. * 2nd health group
B. 1st health group
C. 3rd health group
D. 4th health group
E. 5th health group
171. People with no more of 2-3 cases of acute diseases in year belong to:
A. * 2nd health group
B. 1st health group
C. 3rd health group
D. 4th health group
E. 5th health group
172. People with chronic diseases without aggravations belong to:
A. * 3rd health group
B. 2nd health group
C. 1st health group
D. 4th health group
E. 5th health group
173. People with 4 and more cases of acute diseases during the year belong to:
A. * 3rd health group
B. 2nd health group
C. 1st health group
D. 4th health group
E. 5th health group
174. People with frequent and long aggravations of chronic diseases within a calendar year belong to:
A. * 4th health group
B. 3rd health group
C. 2nd health group
D. 1st health group
E. 5th health group
175. Renewal and development of the broken physiological functions of an organism are included into
concept:
A. * Medical rehabilitation
B. Professional rehabilitation
C. Household rehabilitation
D. Social rehabilitation
E. Legal rehabilitation
176. Renewal of work capacity of the person and its preparation for a certain kind of activity taking into
account its abilities and possibilities are included into concept:
A. * Professional rehabilitation
B. Medical rehabilitation
C. Household rehabilitation
D. Social rehabilitation
E. Legal rehabilitation

177. Complex of the actions directed on development of skills at suffered people which provide self-
service possibility, enters into concept:
A. * Social rehabilitation
B. Professional rehabilitation
C. Medical rehabilitation
D. Psychological rehabilitation
E. Legal rehabilitation
178. Patient's training to use different adaptations and devices to do without assistance is included into:
A. * Social rehabilitation
B. Professional rehabilitation
C. Medical rehabilitation
D. Psychological rehabilitation
E. Legal rehabilitation
179. Worker T was permitted for work, passed the medical routine examination which result has allowed it
to work in the conditions of the given enterprise. Define the kind of medical routine examination
used in the present state of affairs.
A. * Previous
B. Target
C. Planned
D. Periodic
E. Flowing
180. On a town medical site disease on a cancer of a neck of a uterus grows. The decision to carry out
planned examination of women is accepted. What kind of medical examinations will be made?
A. * Target survey
B. Screening survey
C. Previous survey
D. Routine examination
E. Complex survey
181. Qualified medical care which is given by the local or family doctor in an ambulance station or an out-
patient clinic belongs to:
A. * Primary treatment-and-prophylactic care
B. Secondary treatment-and-prophylactic care
C. Tertiary treatment-and-prophylactic care
D. First treatment-and-prophylactic care
E. Pre-medical treatment-and-prophylactic care
182. Specialised medical care which is given by doctors of different specialities in treatment-and-
prophylactic facilities belongs to:
A. * Secondary treatment-and-prophylactic care
B. Primary treatment-and-prophylactic care
C. Tertiary treatment-and-prophylactic care
D. First treatment-and-prophylactic care
E. Pre-medical treatment-and-prophylactic care
183. Highly specialised medical care which is given by doctors of narrow specialities in treatment-and-
prophylactic facilities belongs to:
A. * Tertiary treatment-and-prophylactic care
B. Secondary treatment-and-prophylactic care
C. Primary treatment-and-prophylactic care

D. First treatment-and-prophylactic care

E. Pre-medical treatment-and-prophylactic care
184. What is the number of population on a village therapeutic site?
A. * 1700
B. 2500
C. 2000
D. 1500
E. 2200
185. What is the number of children on a town therapeutic site?
A. * 800
B. 1000
C. 700
D. 500
E. 900
186. What quantity index measures work of the doctor of an out-patient clinic?
A. * Number of cases of polyclinic service
B. In total of reception hours in an out-patient clinic
C. Number of the treated patients
D. In total of reception hours in-home
E. In total of days of work
187. Rural population can receive medical care at different stages of its provision. What facilities belong
to 1st stage of the organisation of medical care?
A. * Village medical site
B. National specialised centres
C. Regional medical facilities
D. District medical facilities
E. Clinics
188. Rural population can receive medical care at different stages of its provision. What facilities belong
to 2nd stage of the organisation of medical care?
A. * District medical facilities
B. Village medical site
C. Village local hospital
D. Regional medical facilities
E. National specialised centres
189. Rural population can receive medical care at different stages of its provision. What facilities belong
to 3rd stage of the organisation of medical care?
A. * Regional medical facilities
B. District medical facilities
C. Village medical site
D. Village local hospital
E. Pre-hospital facilities
190. What medical facilities belong to 4th stage of provision of medical care to rural population?
A. * National and interregional medical facilities
B. Facilities of a village medical site
C. District medical facilities
D. Regional medical facilities
E. Town medical facilities

191. Stationary care is one of kinds of medical care which is given to the population. On the basis of what
capacity of an in-patient department of hospital is defined?
A. * Number of beds
B. Number of the discharged patients within a year
C. Number of those hospitalised within a year
D. Number of references within a day
E. Number of the operated patients within a year
192. Under what formula is bed use calculated?
A. * Number of bed-days spent by patients / average annual number of beds
B. Number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged from an in-patient department
C. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of beds
D. Number of patients who died in an in-patient department / total number of patients, left an in-patient
department x 100
E. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of the
population x 1000
193. Under what formula is bed circulation calculated?
A. * Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of beds
B. Number of bed-days spent by patients / average annual number of beds
C. Number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged from an in-patient department
D. Number of patients who died in an in-patient department / total number of patients, left an in-patient
department x 100
E. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of the
population x 1000
194. Under what formula is average duration of stay of the patient on a bed calculated?
A. * Number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged from an in-patient department
B. Number of bed-days spent by patients / average annual number of beds
C. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of beds
D. Number of patients who died in an in-patient department / total number of patients, left an in-patient
department x 100
E. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of the
population x 100
195. Under what formula is hospital lethality calculated?
A. * Number of patients who died in an in-patient department / total number of patients, left an in-patient
department x 100
B. Number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged from an in-patient department
C. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of beds
D. Number of bed-days spent by patients / average annual number of beds
E. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of the
population x 1000
196. Under what formula level of hospitalisation of the population is calculated?
A. * Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of the
population x 1000
B. Number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged from an in-patient department
C. Number of patients discharged from an in-patient department / average annual number of beds
D. Number of patients who died in an in-patient department / total number of patients, left an in-patient
department x 100
E. Number of bed-days spent by patients / average annual number of beds
197. According to WHO recommendations, newborn are children:

A. * Up to 10 days of life
B. Up to 7 days of life
C. Up to 2 months of life
D. Up to 6 months of life
E. Up to 1 year of life
198. According to WHO recommendations, babies are children:
A. * Up to 1 year of life
B. Up to 10 days of life
C. Up to 7 days of life
D. Up to 2 months of life
E. Up to 6 months of life
199. Basic form of medical supervision over pregnant women is prophylactic medical examination. What
term is early dispensary registration of a pregnant woman?
A. * Till 12 weeks of pregnancy
B. Till 16 weeks of pregnancy
C. Till 20 weeks of pregnancy
D. After 12 weeks of pregnancy
E. After 30 weeks of pregnancy
200. Basic form of medical supervision over pregnant women is prophylactic medical examination. What
term is late dispensary registration of a pregnant woman?
A. * After 30 weeks of pregnancy
B. Till 12 weeks of pregnancy
C. Till 16 weeks of pregnancy
D. Till 20 weeks of pregnancy
E. After 12 weeks of pregnancy
201. Pregnant woman X, 25 years, with normal course of pregnancy, got into a road accident on week 34.
On the third day she died of traumas she received. What type of death rate is this?
A. * General death rate
B. Parent death rate
C. Early neonatal death rate
D. Perinatal death rate
E. Neonatal death rate
202. During childbirth, woman T, 25 years, developed postnatal endometritis on the third day after
Caesarean section which subsequently became complicated with a sepsis. She had intensive therapy
in an in-patient department of maternity home with no effect, and the patient died. What type of death
rate is this?
A. * Parent death rate
B. General death rate
C. Early neonatal death rate
D. Perinatal death rate
E. Neonatal death rate
203. Newborn boy (weight 2800 gr, height 49 cm) died on 5th day of life as a result of expressed
congenital pathology incompatible with life. What type of death rate is this?
A. * Early neonatal death rate
B. Parent death rate
C. General death rate
D. Perinatal death rate

E. Postneonatal death rate

204. Child X, aged 4 months, died in an in-patient department of regional pediatric hospital as a result of
complicated congenital heart disease, incompatible with life. What type of death rate is this?
A. * Death rate of babies
B. Parent death rate
C. Early neonatal death rate
D. General death rate
E. Perinatal death rate
205. Child T, aged 5 years, got sick once during the current year with acute respiratory viral infection, had
no chronic diseases. To what group of health does the patient belong?
A. * Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. Group 5
206. Child N, aged 7 years, got sick 3 times during the current year with acute respiratory viral infection,
had no chronic diseases. To what group of health does the patient belong?
A. * Group 2
B. Group 1
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. Group 5
207. Child G, age 10, got sick once during the current year with flu, 3 times with acute respiratory viral
infection, once with acute otitis, had no chronic diseases. To what group of health does the patient
belong?
A. * Group 3
B. Group 2
C. Group 1
D. Group 4
E. Group 5
208. Child T, aged 13 years, got sick once during the current year with acute respiratory viral infection, is
registered with chronic gastritis, but had no aggravation of disease. To what group of health does the
patient belong?
A. * Group 3
B. Group 2
C. Group 1
D. Group 4
E. Group 5
209. Child O, aged 12 years, is on dispensary account with chronic cholecystitis, aggravation was
observed four times during the current year. To what group of health does the patient belong?
A. * Group 4
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 1
E. Group 5

210. Child X, aged 16 years, is on dispensary account with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes, with
diabetic retino- and angiopathy, had hypoglycemic coma twice during the current year, almost
constantly is on hospitalisation concerning disease aggravations. To what group of health does the
patient belong?
A. * Group 5
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. Group 1
211. Town N has 5120 people, including 1650 children. How do you calculate number of positions of
local pediatrists in an out-patient clinic of the given town?
A. * 1650/800
B. 5120/800
C. 1650/900
D. 1650/1200
E. 1650/1700
212. Village medical site has 3408 people, including 1195 children. How do you calculate number of
positions of local pediatrists in the given territory?
A. * 1195/800
B. 3408/800
C. 1195/900
D. 1195/1000
E. 1195/1200
213. Pregnant woman X, 32nd week of pregnancy, is on registered in maternity clinic. Course of
pregnancy without complications. For what term is it necessary to issue her temporary incapacity due
to pregnancy and labors?
A. * 70 days before and 56 after the delivery
B. 56 days before and 56 after the delivery
C. 70 days before and 70 after the delivery
D. 70 days before and 90 after the delivery
E. 90 days before and 90 after the delivery
214. Pregnant woman X, 38th week of pregnancy, developed weakness of patrimonial activity at time of
delivery. She had Cesarean section. For what term is it necessary to issue her temporary incapacity
due to pregnancy and labors?
A. * 70 days before and 70 after the delivery
B. 70 days before and 56 after the delivery
C. 56 days before and 56 after the delivery
D. 70 days before and 90 after the delivery
E. 90 days before and 90 after the delivery
215. Woman X, aged 23, has given birth to 2 babies. Labors without complications. For what term is it
necessary to issue her temporary incapacity due to pregnancy and labors?
A. * 70 days before and 70 after the delivery
B. 70 days before and 56 after the delivery
C. 56 days before and 56 after the delivery
D. 70 days before and 90 after the delivery
E. 90 days before and 90 after the delivery

216. Woman X, 23 years, living in radioactive pollution zone, has given birth to 2 babies. Labors without
complications. For what term is it necessary to issue her temporary incapacity due to pregnancy and
labors?
A. * 90 days before and 90 after the delivery
B. 70 days before and 70 after the delivery
C. 70 days before and 56 after the delivery
D. 56 days before and 56 after the delivery
E. 70 days before and 90 after the delivery
217. People with partial permanent disability belong to:
A. * 3rd disability group
B. 1st health group
C. 2nd health group
D. 3rd health group
E. 2nd disability group
218. People with full permanent disability belong to:
A. * 2nd disability group
B. 3rd disability group
C. 1st health group
D. 2nd health group
E. 3rd health group
219. People with full permanent disability, and requiring extraneous supervision belong to:
A. * 1st disability group
B. 2nd disability group
C. 1st health group
D. 2nd health group
E. 3rd health group
220. Examination of temporal disability belongs to:
A. * Medical-social examination
B. Medical-therapeutic examination
C. Forensic medical examination
D. Doctors consulting examination
E. Clinical-diagnostic examination
221. Examination of permanent disability belongs to:
A. * Medical-social examination
B. Medical-therapeutic examination
C. Forensic medical examination
D. Doctors consulting examination
E. Clinical-diagnostic examination
222. Who certifies the 3rd disability group?
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Medical-therapeutic experts commission
C. Medicolegal experts commission
D. Doctors consulting commission
E. Clinical-diagnostic experts commission
223. Insignificant functional infringements of functions able to get renewed belong to:
A. * Temporary incapacity
B. Disability

C. Work capacity with time restriction

D. Work capacity with trade restriction
E. Work capacity with work volume restriction
224. Considerable organic infringements of functions at permanent disability belong to:
A. * Invalidity
B. Temporary incapacity
C. 3rd health group
D. Premorbid condition
E. 2nd health group
225. Considerable organic infringements of functions at full disability belong to:
A. * Invalidity
B. Temporary incapacity
C. 3rd health group
D. Premorbid condition
E. 2nd health group
226. Partial disability with possibility of continuation of labor activity during disease belongs to:
A. * 3rd disability group
B. 2nd health group
C. 1st disability group
D. 2nd disability group
E. 3rd health group
227. Who conducts examination of permanent invalidity under preserved possibility of further labor
activity?
A. * MSEC
B. DCC
C. Attending physician
D. Head of department
E. Attending physician and head of department
228. Attending physician is a part of:
A. * Doctors consulting commission
B. Medical-social experts commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
229. Head of department is a part of:
A. * Doctors consulting commission
B. Medical-social experts commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
230. Head physician of treatment-and-prophylactic facility is a part of:
A. * Doctors consulting commission
B. Medical-social experts commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
231. Assistant to the head physician of treatment-and-prophylactic facility on examination is a part of:
A. * Doctors consulting commission
B. Medical-social experts commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
232. Expert-therapist is a part of:
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Doctors consulting commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
233. Expert-surgeon is a part of:
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Doctors consulting commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
234. Expert-neuropathologist is a part of:
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Doctors consulting commission
C. Medical sanitary experts commission
D. Medical-diagnostic commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
235. Head physician of treatment-and-prophylactic facility examines:
A. * Temporary incapacity
B. Permanent invalidity
C. Professional invalidity
D. Social invalidity
E. Medical invalidity
236. Assistant to the head physician of treatment-and-prophylactic facility on examination examines:
A. * Temporary incapacity
B. Permanent invalidity
C. Professional invalidity
D. Social invalidity
E. Medical invalidity
237. Referral of patient for examination of permanent invalidity is carried out by:
A. * DCC
B. MSEC
C. Attending physician
D. Head of department
E. Attending physician and head of department
238. Efficiency of rehabilitation is the basic index of work of:
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Commission for industrial trauma
C. Doctors consulting commission

D. Medical sanitary experts commission

E. Doctors advisory commission
239. Divergences in decisions of DCC and MSEC is the basic index of work of:
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Commission for industrial trauma
C. Doctors consulting commission
D. Medical sanitary experts commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
240. While in custody, joiner T had acute bronchitis. He did not come to work for 14 days. Is incapacity
certified by incapacity card in this case?
A. * No, incapacity card is not issued
B. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 3 days
C. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 5 days
D. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 10 days
E. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 14 days
241. During a call, ambulance surgeon diagnosed hypertensive crisis in a patient. Work is counter-
indicative to the patient. Is incapacity card issued by ambulance surgeon in this case?
A. * No, it is not issued
B. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 5 days
C. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 1 day
D. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 3 days
E. Yes, incapacity card is issued for the whole term of disease
242. As a result of stomach resection, patient X developed permanent full invalidity. To what category of
people does the patient belong?
A. * 2nd disability group
B. 3rd disability group
C. 2nd health group
D. 1st disability group
E. 3rd health group
243. As a result of stomach resection, patient X developed permanent full invalidity. Who conducts
invalidity examination in this case?
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Medical-therapeutic experts commission
C. Attending physician
D. Doctors consulting commission
E. Attending physician and head of department
244. As a result of infectious nonspecific polyarthritis, patient J developed permanent full invalidity. To
what category of people does the patient belong?
A. * 2nd disability group
B. 3rd disability group
C. 2nd health group
D. 1st disability group
E. 3rd health group
245. As a result of infectious nonspecific polyarthritis, patient J developed permanent full invalidity. Who
conducts invalidity examination in this case?
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Medical-therapeutic experts commission

C. Attending physician
D. Doctors consulting commission
E. Attending physician and head of department
246. As a result of infectious nonspecific polyarthritis, functional insufficiency of joints 4th degrees,
distortions of joints, patient X developed permanent full invalidity. The patient requires constant
extraneous help and care. To what category of people does the patient belong?
A. * 1st disability group
B. 2nd disability group
C. 3rd disability group
D. 2nd health group
E. 3rd health group
247. As a result of rheumatism in inactive phase, insufficiency of bicuspid valve, myocardial
cardiosclerosis, patient F developed permanent partial invalidity. To what category of people does the
patient belong?
A. * 3rd disability group
B. 2nd disability group
C. 2nd health group
D. 1st disability group
E. 3rd health group
248. As a result of rheumatism in an inactive phase, bicuspid valve insufficiency, myocardial
cardiosclerosis, patient F developed permanent partial invalidity. Who conducts invalidity
examination in this case?
A. * Medical-social experts commission
B. Medical-therapeutic experts commission
C. Attending physician
D. Doctors consulting commission
E. Attending physician and head of department
249. Worker K came to municipal out-patient clinic for preventive examination. Should temporary
incapacity card be issued in this case?
A. * Yes, incapacity card is issued for 1 calendar day
B. Yes, a certificate is issued for 1 calendar day
C. No, it is not issued
D. Yes, a certificate is issued for 3 calendar days
E. Yes, incapacity card is issued for 3 calendar days
250. Worker X came on polyclinic reception to local doctor with acute bronchitis. He cannot fulfil
professional duties. He was on ambulatory treatment for 16 days. For what period of time can
attending physician issue incapacity card to the worker at the first visit?
A. * For 5 calendar days
B. For 10 calendar days
C. For 14 calendar days
D. For 16 calendar days
E. For 3 calendar days
251. Worker X came on polyclinic reception to local doctor with acute bronchitis. He cannot fulfil
professional duties. He was on ambulatory treatment for 16 days. For what period of time can
attending physician issue incapacity card to the worker at the second visit?
A. * For 5 calendar days
B. For 10 calendar days
C. For 14 calendar days

D. For 16 calendar days

E. For 3 calendar days
252. Worker X came on polyclinic reception to local doctor with acute bronchitis. He cannot fulfil
professional duties. He was on ambulatory treatment for 16 days. For what maximum period of time
in total can attending physician issue incapacity card to the worker?
A. * For 10 calendar days
B. For 5 calendar days
C. For 14 calendar days
D. For 30 calendar days
E. For all period of temporary incapacity
253. Worker X came on polyclinic reception to local doctor with acute bronchitis. He cannot fulfil
professional duties. He was on ambulatory treatment for 16 days. Who issues incapacity card to the
worker for 11 days after the visit?
A. * Attending physician with head of department
B. Attending physician
C. Head of department
D. Doctors consulting commission
E. Doctors advisory commission
254. Worker X came on polyclinic reception to local doctor with acute bronchitis. He cannot fulfil
professional duties. He was on ambulatory treatment for 16 days. In what term does head of
department conduct examination of invalidity of the patient together with attending physician?
A. * From 11th until 16th day
B. From 1st until 16th day
C. From 3rd until 16th day
D. From 5th until 16th day
E. From 10th until 16th day
255. Patient X, aged 47, a woman working at a garment factory, was on ambulatory-polyclinic treatment
with diabetes for 3.5 months continuously throughout the year. What is the type of invalidity in this
case?
A. * Temporary
B. Rack
C. Constant
D. Partial
E. Medical
256. Patient X, aged 47, a woman working at a garment factory, was on ambulatory-polyclinic treatment
with diabetes for 3.5 months continuously throughout the year. In what term does DCC conduct
examination of invalidity of the patient?
A. * From 31st day until 4th month
B. From 1st day until 4th month
C. From 10th day until 4th month
D. From 5th until 30th day
E. From 1st until 11th day
257. Patient X, aged 47, a woman working at a garment factory, was on ambulatory-polyclinic treatment
with diabetes for 3.5 months continuously throughout the year. How often should DCC control the
condition of the patient with respective record in outpatient medical card?
A. * Once in 10 days
B. Once in 7 days
C. Once in 21 day

D. Once a month
E. Once
258. Patient X, aged 47, a woman working at a garment factory, was on ambulatory-polyclinic treatment
with diabetes for 3.5 months continuously throughout the year. Who refers the patient for
examination of permanent invalidity in this case?
A. * Doctors consulting commission
B. Medical-social experts commission
C. Medical-therapeutic experts commission
D. Attending physician
E. Attending physician and head of department
259. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * General disease
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
260. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * Occupational disease
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
261. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * Labor mutilation
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
262. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * From childhood
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
263. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * Due to Chornobyl accident
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
264. One of the established kinds of disability is:
A. * At former military men
B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
265. One of the established kinds of disability is:

A. * Prior to the beginning of labor activity

B. Permanent full invalidity
C. Inefficiency of rehabilitation
D. Hospital lethality
E. Compensation possibilities of an organism
266. In patient T, aged 15, not studying under own initiative for the last two years, permanent full
invalidity is established. To what category of people does he belong?
A. * Invalid since childhood
B. Invalid prior to the beginning of labor activity
C. Temporary incapacity
D. 3rd health group
E. Invalid as a result of general disease
267. At university student, aged 18, permanent full invalidity is established. To what category of people
does he belong?
A. * Invalid prior to the beginning of labor activity
B. Invalid since childhood
C. Temporary incapacity
D. 3rd health group
E. Invalid as a result of general disease
268. During home repairs, seamstress T was traumatised, which led to blindness of one eye. MSEC
established 3rd disability group. State the type of disability.
A. * General disease
B. Disability prior to the beginning of labor activity
C. Occupational disease
D. Disability since childhood
E. Labor mutilation
269. Staff nurse diagnosed elevated arterial pressure in a driver before night shift. The driver was not
allowed to work. Actions of the staff nurse in this case:
A. * A certificate is issued for 1 day
B. Incapacity card is issued for 1 day
C. Incapacity card is issued for 3 days
D. Incapacity card is issued for the whole term of disease
E. Invalidity examination is not conducted
270. Medical assistant of a village first-aid station diagnosed aggravation of chronic gastritis in a cleaner.
The patient is invalid. Actions of the medical assistant:
A. * Incapacity card is issued for 3 days
B. A certificate is issued for 1 day
C. A certificate is issued for 3 days
D. Incapacity card is issued for the whole term of disease
E. Invalidity examination is not conducted
271. For what maximum term can Medical-social experts commission recommend after-care with an open
incapacity card to a patient after acute myocardium attack?
A. * Four months
B. One month
C. Two months
D. Three months
E. For the whole term of treatment

272. In what term after referral to MSEC should a patient pass disability examination?
A. * Not later than 7 days
B. Not later than 10 days
C. Not later than 1 month
D. Not later than 3 months
E. Not later than 6 months
273. What should a producer consider at the pricing stage in health care marketing?
A. * Firstly, the minimum producer price at which this service could still be provided in order to ensure
the greatest possible demand. The more necessary this service is to preserve the life or health of the
patient, the more accessible the price should be.
B. Morbidity, its structure and dynamics
C. Prices of competitors
D. At this stage the producer should consider mainly standards of medical services contained in the case
histories of certain diseases.
E. Solvency of future patients
274. What should the producer consider at the stage of marketing policy in health care marketing?
A. * At this stage he should consider the availability and organization of health services at their fullest
volume to meet the needs of consumers, i.e. patients
B. Levels of morbidity, its structure and dynamics
C. Analysis of performance of health care establishment, indices of morbidity of potential consumers of
the services offered and comparison of this information with regard to standards of providing such
services
D. At this stage mainly standards of providing medical services contained in protocols of treatment of
separate nosologies should be considered.
E. Direct or indirect method of sale
275. First of all, what should a producer consider at the stage of organization and control of marketing
activity in the health care system?
A. * In the health care system this control should be carried out paying particular attention to expedience
of the services offered, not profitability
B. At this stage in the health care system, a producer should first of all consider the possibility of
offering the service
C. Analysis of performance of health care establishment, indices of morbidity of potential consumers of
the services offered and comparison of this information with regard to standards of providing such
services
D. At this stage mainly standards of providing medical services contained in protocols of treatment of
separate nosologies should be considered.
E. Constitution of Ukraine
276. Who plays the role of a producer in the health care system?
A. * Doctor, druggist
B. Only doctor
C. Only druggist
D. Medical equipment
E. Optics, druggist
277. Who plays the role of a consumer in the health care system?
A. * Patient
B. Doctor
C. Trained nurse
D. Druggist

E. Pharmacist
278. Who plays the role of an agent between a patient and a producer in the health care system?
A. * Doctor
B. Druggist
C. Clinical druggist
D. Pharmacist
E. Trained nurse
279. What is a distinguishing marketing feature of the system of medical-sanitary care?
A. * A doctor plays the role of both producer and agent in relation to a patient
B. A product does not need to be promoted
C. Surplus of consumers
D. No competition
E. A doctor plays the role of both producer and consumer
280. What is the primary objective of marketing in the health care system?
A. * Satisfy the needs of people in health
B. Satisfy the needs of consumers
C. Satisfy the needs of producers
D. Satisfy the needs of agents
E. Satisfy the needs of managers
281. What method of market economy can balance the various goals, interests and possibilities of
producers and consumers?
A. * Market segmentation
B. Government intervention
C. Regulated market
D. Tax policy
E. There are not such methods
282. Give an example of market segmentation in the health care system?
A. * Narrow specialization
B. Territorial care
C. Site care
D. Primary and secondary care
E. Secondary and tertiary care
283. What are the current mechanisms of limitation of increase in prices for medical services?
A. * No country in the world has such mechanisms
B. Insurance medicine
C. Budgetary financing of the health care system
D. Limitation of profitability of medical establishments by the state
E. Limitation of profitability of producers of medications and medical appliences by the state
284. What causes demand in the health care system on the part of the society?
A. * The need in health and safety
B. The problem of lack of health
C. Morbidity
D. Fashion
E. The society does not have demand, only individuals do
285. Under what conditions does the health care system have to avoid marketing myopia at any cost?
A. * In the conditions of market economy

B. In the conditions of service industry

C. In the conditions of medical services
D. In the conditions of economy
E. In the conditions of crisis
286. In the health care system market segmentation is:
A. * A part of the activity of private clinics, dental rooms, health-improvement and cosmetology
organizations.
B. A useful activity that does not create financial values, i.e. its main criterion is the elusive and
invisible character of the product of this industry
C. A combination of organizational and economic functions related to sales of medication
D. A complex activity of specialists in organization of production and sale of products
E. A measure or a complex of measures at a disease
287. What is the primary purpose of market segmentation?
A. * Getting profit from a service
B. Maximization of sales reflected in the estimation of activity of a policlinic by number of visits of
patients
C. Realization of certain activity or a combination of certain actions
D. Production and consumption determined by correlation of solvent demand and supply
E. Analysis of the target market for such services
288. Who performs marketing functions?
A. * Marketing service that may have a different organizational structure: functional, regional, product,
market and their various combinations;
B. Marketing service that may have an identical organizational structure: functional, regional, product,
market and their various combinations;
C. Marketing service that does not have an organizational structure;
D. Marketing service that performs one function only;
E. Market for relations;
289. What type of demand is the demand for used syringes?
A. * Absent demand
B. Negative demand
C. Hidden demand
D. Decreasing demand
E. Irregular demand
290. What type of demand is the demand for harmless and effective methods of weight loss?
A. * Hidden demand
B. Absent demand
C. Negative demand
D. Decreasing demand
E. Irregular demand
291. What type of demand is the demand for allergist's services?
A. * Irregular demand
B. Absent demand
C. Hidden demand
D. Decreasing demand
E. Negative demand
292. What type of demand is the demand for traumatologist's services?
A. * Filled demand

B. Absent demand
C. Hidden demand
D. Decreasing demand
E. Irregular demand
293. What type of demand is the demand for liposuction?
A. * Irrational demand
B. Absent demand
C. Hidden demand
D. Decreasing demand
E. Irregular demand
294. What should be used to adjust different types of demand and to achieve market equilibrium?
A. * Marketing measures
B. Management
C. Filled demand
D. Administration
E. Court
295. How does a developed market for medical services influence the increase of life-span, improvement
of health, preservation of the nation's gene pool?
A. * Indirect
B. Directly
C. Does not influence
D. Positively
E. Negatively
296. How is the market for medical services formed in Ukraine?
A. * Spontaneously and chaotically
B. Indirectly and through business groups
C. By the state
D. Its not formed in any way
E. It is forbidden by the Constitution
297. How is the combined influence of factors on demand and supply of medical services estimated?
A. * Based on integral indices
B. Based on logarithms
C. Based on numerous indices
D. Based on integrals
E. As one wishes
298. What is calculation of force of influence of factors on demand and supply of medical services good
for?
A. * Possibility of Development of measures for the increase of efficiency of medical services markets
B. Possibility of increase of efficiency of medical services markets
C. Possibility to find weak medical services markets
D. Possibility to find strong medical services markets
E. Nothing
299. What best illustrates the regional policy of regional medical services markets?
A. * Its functions
B. Financing
C. Fiscal functions
D. Volumes of dotations

E. Lobbying
300. What should be considered in organization and economic mechanisms of realization of regional
policy of development of regional medical services markets?
A. * Self-regulation and government regulation
B. Self-regulation
C. Regulation of treatment-and-prophylactic establishment
D. Government regulation
E. All answers are correct
301. What is the benefit of regional policy of development of regional medical services markets?
A. * Forms a competitive environment, promotes economic motivation
B. Provides self-regulation
C. Provides adjusting treatment-and-prophylactic establishment
D. Provides government regulation
E. Everything
302. What development processes are characteristic of the pharmaceutical market in Ukraine?
A. * Develops dynamically
B. Is in stagnation
C. Regresses
D. Is in crisis
E. Is in depression
303. What do experts say about the prospect of pharmaceutical market in Ukraine?
A. * Market growth in the future
B. Market decrease in the future
C. Market stagnation in the future
D. Market depression in the future
E. Market crisis is expected
304. What specific lines are characteristic for the pharmaceutical market of Ukraine?
A. * Market is badly regulated because of weak legislation
B. Market is regulated by the state
C. Market is controlled by businesses
D. Market has a lot of criminal capital
E. Market is well regulated because of strong legislation
305. What minimizes market risks at introduction of product on pharmaceutical market of Ukraine?
A. * Correct approach to the use of marketing research
B. Getting superprofits
C. Observance of current legislation
D. Maintaining high quality of products
E. Good advertising
306. What are the three effective factors of the purchase of a drug on the pharmaceutical market of
Ukraine?
A. * Doctors prescription, recommendation of pharmacist, price
B. Doctors prescription, state of patient, price
C. Good advertising, recommendation of pharmacist, price
D. Doctors prescription, good advertising, price
E. Doctors prescription, recommendation of pharmacist, good advertising
307. What is the method of conference in a collective search for an enterprise idea?
A. * Creative collaboration of a group of interested people with benevolent criticism

B. Doing vice versa, changing places

C. Initiation of ideal solution of a problem
D. Using something similar
E. Individual proposal of ideas for group evaluation
308. What is the method of morphological analysis in activating search for an enterprise idea?
A. * Use of combinatorics based on the objects morphology
B. Doing vice versa, changing places
C. Creative collaboration of a group of interested people with benevolent criticism
D. Initiation of problem-solving by means of activating questions
E. Individual proposal of ideas for group evaluation
309. What are the types of entrepreneurial activity based on organizations method?
A. * Dependent and independent
B. Organized and unorganized
C. Structured and amorphous
D. Hierarchical and anarchic
E. Any
310. What are the advantages of entrepreneurial activity of the franchising type?
A. * A businessman uses proven methods and is less exposed to risk
B. No need for creativity the firm provides everything
C. The main firm provides all technological process
D. The main firm bears responsibility for your activity
E. All financial reporting is done by the main firm
311. What is the number of employees is foreseen by the current legislation for a small firm of
nonmaterial sphere in Ukraine?
A. * 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
E. 500
312. What is a business plan?
A. * A form of expert estimation of expedience of such activity
B. A form of expert estimation of such activity
C. A form of plan of such activity
D. A form of expert estimation of financial activity
E. A form of expert estimation of business activity
313. What is the direction of business plan?
A. * Strategic
B. Financial
C. Economic
D. Political
E. Inspecting
314. For how long are the expected results of activity predicted in a business plan?
A. * 3-5 years
B. 1-5 years
C. 10 years
D. 15 years
E. 1 year
315. What is the most important strategic part of a business plan?
A. * Correspondence of the tasks and real financial possibilities
B. Correspondence of the tasks and own possibilities
C. Correspondence of the tasks and current legislation
D. Correspondence of financial possibilities and needs
E. Correspondence of financial possibilities and taxes
316. What should a business plan rely on foremost, taking into account realities of the Ukrainian market?
A. * Real production project
B. Current legislation
C. Requirements of the European Union
D. World standards
E. Own experience
317. What is a universal form of business plan in real life?
A. * There isnt any universal form of business plan
B. A set of accounting forms
C. A list of questions for planning of activity
D. A list of questions for prognostication of activity
E. A list of questions for examination of activity
318. What is the section of business plan called resume?
A. * A form of business card for future business
B. A form of business card for future businessman
C. A form of business card for the founder
D. A form of introduction to a business plan
E. A form of contents of a business plan
319. What section should be included in the production plan of your business-project oriented on
providing medical services?
A. * Pharmacological preparations, medical tools, materials
B. Houses and buildings
C. Machines and equipments
D. Raw materials and spare parts
E. Scientific developments
320. What will make your business-project more attractive and persuasive?
A. * Contracts, agreements on collaboration or statements of intentions
B. Presence of bank account
C. Presence of real investor
D. Presence of guarantor of your activity
E. Scientific novelty
321. What possibilities are opened for a young businessman by a marketing plan?
A. * Quick control and reaction to changes
B. Experience of drafting a marketing plan
C. Extra trouble
D. Sure activity
E. Nothing
322. What benefit does a young businessman get from correctly drafting an organizational plan?
A. * Understanding of efficiency of co-operation of the enterprise departments

B. Experience of drafting organizational plan

C. Quick control and reaction to changes
D. Sure activity
E. None
323. What should be the basis for drafting the section of business plan called estimation of risk and
insurance?
A. * Change of activity to decrease risk and losses in the future
B. Spectrum of risks
C. Prognosis of undesirable situations
D. List of insurance companies
E. Potential insurers
324. What is the essence of financial plan of your business-project?
A. * It summarizes all the above components of the plan in value terms
B. It describes financial risks
C. It makes a prognosis of the profits
D. It calculates potential incomes
E. It describes the search for investors
325. In the income part of what fund are the planned volumes of incomes from other sources foreseen by
the respective legal by documents specified?
A. * Special fund
B. General fund
C. Individual fund
D. Children fund
E. Bonus fund
326. What indices are considered while drafting the income part of the special fund?
A. * All answers are correct
B. Volume of paid services;
C. Amount paid per unit of the volume set according to the legislation;
D. Other indices (area of buildings and cost of equipment, other property under lease, seating capacity
in dormitories, number of visits to museums, exhibitions etc.);
E. Estimated collections (obligatory payments to the special fund of the budget;
327. Where are the types of incomes to the special fund specified?
A. * Report on indices of the special fund of the estimate
B. Consolidated budget
C. Separate statement
D. Memorandum to the Head Physician
E. Report to the Chief Accountant
328. What should entities take into account at forming of indices that are the basis of profits of the planned
period?
A. * Level at which they were actually fulfilled in the last financial year
B. Level at which they were actually fulfilled in the previous financial year
C. Level at which they were actually fulfilled in the past three financial years
D. Level at which they will actually be fulfilled in the next financial year
E. Level at which they were actually fulfilled in any financial year
329. What money is allocated for expenditures from the special fund of the draft estimate?
A. * Money planned in the fund for this purpose
B. All money

C. Minimum money
D. Maximum money
E. Optimal money
330. When can money be allocated for non-primary equipment, major repairs etc.?
A. * Only after primary expenditures and in absence of debt
B. Only in absence of debt
C. Only after primary expenditures
D. Only upon permission of authorities
E. Only upon permission of the Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
331. Based on what are expenditures from special funds for payment of wages calculated?
A. * Volume of activity
B. Quality of activity
C. Type of activity
D. License for activity
E. Certification of activity
332. What should indices of expenditures included in the draft estimate be based on?
A. * Proper calculations of every code of economic classification
B. Proper calculations of every article of the estimate
C. Proper calculations for the type of the establishment
D. Proper calculations for the license
E. Proper calculations for the accreditation
333. What is the cause of lack of funding in establishments of the health care system?
A. * Expenditures in the estimate for the planned year are calculated based on activity for previous
periods
B. Scarce funding from the government
C. Irrational use of funding
D. Money is stolen
E. Improper use of money
334. That is to be submitted for approval along with an estimate?
A. * Staffing table of a budgetary establishment
B. Recommendation letter
C. Explanatory message
D. Estimate application
E. Labor agreement
335. How long after approving the estimate do local financial authorities submit the limit statements to the
main managers?
A. * In a week's time
B. In three days
C. In a day
D. In a month
E. In some time
336. What is a limit statement?
A. * A document containing the ratified budgetary expenditures and their monthly distribution
B. A document containing the minimum budgetary expenditures
C. A document containing the limited budgetary expenditures
D. A document containing the grounded budgetary expenditures
E. A document containing the ratified budgetary expenditures and their minimum distribution

337. The expenditures of budgetary establishments should correspond to:

A. * Limits of budgetary assignations fixed for them
B. Greatest values
C. Lowest values
D. Maximum norms
E. Minimum norms
338. What is a staffing table?
A. * A document that determines the structure of the establishment, number of positions i every
department and in the establishment
B. A document that determines the structure of the establishment
C. A document that determines the number of positions in the establishment
D. A document that determines the structure of positions in the establishment
E. A document that determines the structure of subsections in the establishment
339. How should the draft estimates and assignation plans submitted to the authorities be examined?
A. * In presence of the leaders of the authorities
B. In presence of the accountants of the authorities
C. In three-day time
D. Quickly
E. Slowly
340. To whom does the Ministry of Finance send the ratified annual plan of the state budget expenditures
for registration, accounting and implementation?
A. * The State Treasury
B. The Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
C. Local authorities
D. The President of Ukraine
E. The Speaker of the Supreme Council
341. Who ratifies the estimates of the government-financed organizations?
A. * The head of its higher authority based on subordination of the government-financed organizations
B. The Head Physician
C. The President of Ukraine
D. The Speaker of the Supreme Council
E. The Prime-Minister of Ukraine
342. Who signs estimates and assignation plans?
A. * The head and chief accountant of the establishment
B. The head and main engineer of the establishment
C. The economist and chief accountant of the establishment
D. The main economist and chief accountant of the establishment
E. The head of the establishment and his deputy
343. What is the primary cause of demand for medical services?
A. * Lack of health
B. Supply of the producer
C. Low price
D. Advertising
E. Consumers purchasing power
344. Income is:
A. * Money value of surplus product or extra money charged by the producer, due to the fact that the
products value in exchange exceeds the cost of production, transportation and sales

B. Number of services that producers can provide to buyers in a certain period of time
C. Process of pricing, setting price level and optimizing prices
D. Dependence between demand and price
E. Highest price at which consumers are willing to get the services
345. What is profitability?
A. * Income divided by prime price
B. Income divided by price
C. Income divided by profit
D. Income divided by tax
E. Prime price divided by price
346. Price adjustment is:
A. * A system of actions aimed at normalization of co-operation between all subjects of business
B. Number of services that producers can provide to buyers in a certain period of time
C. Process of pricing, setting price level and optimizing prices
D. Dependence between demand and price
E. Highest price at which consumers are willing to get the services
347. Direct methods of government regulation in the field of pricing include:
A. * Price-cutting
B. Subsidizing
C. Privileged crediting
D. Introduction of special government programs
E. Taxation
348. What is the primary purpose of the system of pricing for drugs and medical appliances in relation to
meeting the countrys needs in medication?
A. * Making medication available for all layers of population while developing domestic production
B. Maintaining effective development of domestic production by harmonization of market mechanisms
C. Achievement of economic availability of effective medications and social protection
D. Achievement of high domestic production by harmonization of market mechanisms with
mechanisms of social protection
E. Achieving and maintaining social protection of all layers of population
349. What are currently the basic directions of reforms of health care in all the civilized countries?
A. * Socialization
B. Democratization
C. Integration
D. Specialization
E. Systematization
350. What in the health care systems of most world countries is the greatest barrier for meeting the needs
of national health care?
A. * Insufficient financial resources
B. Insufficient influence
C. No personal interest of patients
D. No personal interest of doctors
E. No personal interest of the officials
351. What is the legal basis for the system of pricing for medication and medical appliances?
A. * Laws and normative documents in the industry
B. Laws and normative documents of the state
C. International laws and normative documents

D. Laws of the Government of Ukraine

E. Laws and normative documents of the Ministry of Justice of Ukraine
352. What defines basic principles of pricing in Ukraine?
A. * The Law On prices and pricing
B. The Constitution of Ukraine
C. The Legislation On health care in Ukraine
D. The Law On enterprises
E. The Law On entrepreneurship
353. What basic factors influence pricing for medication?
A. * Factors of demand, supply and environment
B. Factors of demand, supply and internal environment
C. Legislative factors and factors of environment
D. Factors of demand, supply and legislative factors
E. Factors of demand and competition
354. A part of what factors of price are properties of medication (efficiency, side effects etc.)?
A. * Factors of demand
B. Factors of supply
C. Factors of environment
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
355. A part of what factors of price is number of substitutes of medication?
A. * Factors of supply
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of environment
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
356. A part of what factors of price is number of pharmaceutical companies on the market?
A. * Factors of supply
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of environment
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
357. A part of what factors of price is per capita GDP (gross domestic product)?
A. * Factors of environment
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of supply
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
358. A part of what factors of pricing is the share of health care expenditures in GDP (distribution of
GDP)?
A. * Factors of environment
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of supply
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
359. A part of what factors of pricing is the share of medical care expenditures in health care
expenditures?

A. * Factors of environment
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of supply
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
360. A part of what factors of price are per capita expenditures for medical care?
A. * Factors of environment
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of supply
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
361. A part of what factors of price is customs and tariff regulation, taxes and collections?
A. * Factors of environment
B. Factors of demand
C. Factors of supply
D. Factors of internal environment
E. Factors of competition
362. What is the essence of the strategy of trade maximization?
A. * A company aims at decreasing distribution costs per unit (sold) of products and increasing long-term
income through the increase of sales
B. A company aims at increasing long-term income through the increase of sales
C. A company aims at decreasing distribution costs per unit (sold) of products
D. A company aims at decreasing costs of production and distribution of products.
E. A company aims at decreasing costs of distribution of products
363. Why do companies want to maximize market share?
A. * A large market share minimizes average costs and maximizes income in the long run
B. A large market share minimizes average costs
C. A large market share maximizes income
D. A large market share gives confidence in the future
E. A large market share gives clear advantages over competitors
364. Who gives permission to work overtime?
A. * Trade union of the establishment
B. The Head Physician
C. The Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
D. The Labor Ministry
E. Consumer Defence Committee
365. Are expectant mothers and women with children under the age of 3, employees under 18, students in
class days allowed to work overtime?
A. * No
B. Yes
C. Only upon permission of the Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
D. Only upon permission of the Labor Ministry
E. Only upon permission of the Head Physician
366. How is overwork paid at hourly pay?
A. * In the amount of 200% of pieceworkers wage
B. In the amount of 150% of pieceworkers wage
C. In the amount of 50% of pieceworkers wage

D. In the amount of 250% of pieceworkers wage

E. In the amount of 350% of pieceworkers wage
367. What cannot be a compensation for working overtime?
A. * Compensatory leaves
B. Bonuses
C. Additional payments
D. Wage incentives
E. Extra pay
368. What are the maximum overworks per employee?
A. * 120 hours per year
B. 220 hours per year
C. 320 hours per year
D. 420 hours per year
E. 520 hours per year
369. What are the maximum one-time overworks per employee?
A. * 4 hours during 2 consecutive days
B. 2 hours during 2 consecutive days
C. 4 hours during 4 consecutive days
D. 14 hours during 12 consecutive days
E. 4 hours during 14 consecutive days
370. How is work during days off compensated?
A. * With another day off or through payment upon an agreement
B. Only through payment
C. Only with another day off
D. Through regular procedure
E. Not compensated in any way its a part of the job
371. How is weekend and holidays labor paid for workers on piece-and-bonus wage?
A. * Not less than double the piece-rate
B. Not less double hourly the (daily) rate
C. Not less than hourly (daily) rate, if the work was within the monthly norm of work hours
D. Not less than double the hourly (daily) rate on top of regular wages, if more monthly norm is done
E. In the amount foreseen by normative documents in the industry
372. What are maximum possible total charges from the workers wages?
A. * 20 % of the wages
B. 40 % of the wages
C. 60 % of the wages
D. 80 % of the wages
E. 100 % of the wages
373. What are the maximum possible total charges from the workers wages in special cases?
A. * 50 % of the wages
B. 30 % of the wages
C. 10 % of the wages
D. 70 % of the wages
E. 100 % of the wages
374. Where does income tax go?
A. * State Budget

B. Treasury
C. Cashdesk of the enterprise
D. Local budget
E. Bank
375. Where is the staff of an enterprise registered?
A. * Staff department
B. Book-keeping
C. Administration
D. Economic planning department
E. Patent department
376. In what documents are the staff changes represented?
A. * Enterprise order on staff changes
B. Law on staff changes
C. Decision on the staff changes
D. Command on staff changes
E. Verdict on staff changes
377. Where are work hours accounted for?
A. * Table of work hours
B. Diary of work hours
C. Statement of work hours
D. Notebook of work hours
E. Journal of work hours
378. What information is needed for payment of wages?
A. * Wage rate and time worked
B. Wage rate
C. Time worked
D. Amount of moneys available
E. Permission of the enterprise owner
379. Based on what is wage rates distribution formed?
A. * Tariff rate of the first category worker
B. Tariff rate of the second category worker
C. Tariff rate of the third category worker
D. Tariff rate of the fourth category worker
E. Tariff rate of the fifth category worker
380. What two wage subsystems do you know?
A. * Hourly and piece-rate
B. Hourly and per minute
C. Piece-rate and profit
D. Hourly and simple
E. Piece-rate and contractor
381. What is hourly simple wage payment?
A. * Payment for the number of hours worked
B. Payment for the number of minutes worked
C. Payment for the number of days worked
D. Payment for the volume of production
E. Payment based on the manager's order

382. What is the determined modelling in financial analysis applied for?

A. * Quantitative evaluation of influence of separate factors on the end result index;
B. Qualitative evaluation of influence of separate factors on the end result index;
C. Approximate evaluation of influence of separate factors on the end result index;
D. Precise evaluation of influence of separate factors on the end result index;
E. Finding influence of separate factors on the end result index;
383. What models make it possible to compare the actual results of activity of medical enterprise with the
ones expected according to the budget?
A. * Normative models
B. Predicative models
C. Descriptive models
D. Discrete models
E. Predicate models
384. What models is financial planning, a logical end of project analysis, based on?
A. * Predicative models
B. Normative models
C. Descriptive models
D. Discrete models
E. Predicate models
385. What is horizontal analysis about?
A. * Comparing of every accounting position with the previous period
B. Determining the structure of the final financial indices and the influence of every accounting
position on the overall result.
C. Calculation of relative values of accounting and correlations of indices.
D. Comparing of every accounting position with the previous periods and finding the trend
E. Decomposition of the index assets profitability into its factor financial indices, their interdependence
in a single system
386. What is vertical analysis about?
A. * Determining the structure of the final financial indices and the influence of every accounting
position on the overall result.
B. Internal analysis and comparison of consolidated accounting indices with separate indices of medical
enterprise
C. Calculation of relative values of accounting and correlations of indices.
D. Comparing of every accounting position with the previous periods and finding the trend
E. Decomposition of the index assets profitability into its factor financial indices, their interdependence
in a single system
387. What is formed by means of the trend?
A. * Possible values of indices in the future
B. Internal analysis
C. Structure of final financial indices
D. Finding the of trend
E. Interdependence in a common system
388. What is factor analysis about?
A. * Influence of separate factors (causes) on the result index by means of determined or stochastic
research methods.
B. Determining the structure of the final financial indices and the influence of every accounting
position on the overall result.
C. Calculation of relative values of accounting and correlations of indices.

D. Comparing of every accounting position with the previous periods and finding the trend
E. Decomposition of the index assets profitability into its factor financial indices, their interdependence
in a single system
389. What is done at the first stage of financial analysis?
A. * Gathering internal and external information, estimation of its reliability.
B. Translation of typical forms of account reporting into analytical forms
C. Analysis of structure and dynamics of changes of basic indices of financial statusments
D. Finding correlations between basic indices
E. Preparing conclusion in relation to the financial status of medical enterprise
390. What is done at the second stage of financial analysis?
A. * Translation of typical forms of account reporting in analytical forms
B. Gathering internal and external information, estimation of its reliability
C. Analysis of structure and dynamics of changes of basic indices of financial statusments
D. Finding correlations between basic indices
E. Preparing conclusion in relation to the financial status of medical enterprise
391. What is done at the third stage of financial analysis?
A. * Analysis, identification of correlation between basic indices, interpretation of the results
B. Gathering internal and external information, estimation of its reliability
C. Finding "bottlenecks" and reserves of efficiency increase
D. Developing recommendations for improvement of financial status of the enterprise
E. Preparing conclusion in relation to the financial status of medical enterprise
392. What is done at the fourth stage of financial analysis?
A. * Preparing conclusion in relation to the financial status of medical enterprise
B. Gathering internal and external information, estimation of its reliability
C. Analysis of structure and dynamics of changes of basic indices of financial statusments
D. Finding correlations between basic indices
E. Translation of typical forms of account reporting into analytical forms
393. As a part of what analysis is the most effective model of financing of a certain project developed?
A. * Financial
B. Economic
C. Statistical
D. Mathematical
E. Systemic
394. What is the first thing needed for making long-term investment decisions?
A. * Prognostic financial report
B. Estimation of expenditures
C. Estimation of project benefits
D. Estimation of project benefits and expenditures
E. Estimation of previous activity
395. What is not considered for the enterprise status evaluation?
A. * Quality of work of the employees
B. Variety and quality of services constantly under control and evaluation by top management
C. Research-and-development of new services;
D. Analysis of financial status can benefit the organization by identification of potential weak points
E. Promotion of services
396. The most important directions of evaluation of separate establishments can take the form of indices
characterizing:

A. * Structure and use of health care resources, availability and quality of medical care
B. Structure and use of health care resources
C. Availability and quality of medical care
D. Availability of medical care, percentage of GDP spending on health care
E. Quality of medical care, percentage of GDP spending on health care
397. Analysis of possibilities of a medical organization considers the following:
A. * Purposefulness resources staff innovations quality
B. Purposefulness staff innovations quality
C. Purposefulness resources innovations quality
D. Purposefulness resources staff quality
E. Purposefulness resources staff innovations
398. Methodical recommendations given by the Ministry of Finance are mainly directed at:
A. * Analysis of financial status of the enterprise.
B. Analysis of enterprise activity
C. Description of enterprise activity
D. Description of the staffing status of the enterprise
E. Description of activity of infrastructure
399. How many factors does the analysis of possibilities of a medical organization consist of?
A. * 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
400. What types of insurance are distinguished based on participation of the insured?
A. * Group and individual
B. Active and passive
C. Initiated and invited
D. Prepaid and free
E. Solemn and everyday
401. Can family members and dependants of the insured be beneficiaries?
A. * Yes
B. No
C. Yes, but only under exceptional circumstances
D. Yes, if they have the same blood type
E. Yes, if they have the same family name
402. The insurance rules for people going abroad do not foresee?
A. * Compensation of expenditures in case of treatment for chronic diseases
B. First aid
C. Operations in cases of acute pathology
D. Overall medical examination prior to medical intervention
E. Urgent dental care
403. What are the risk factors in insurance?
A. * Circumstances that increase possible volume and cost of medical services the beneficiary will use
B. It is directed at chance and luck, and that does not eliminate the possibility of failure
C. Circumstances which promote the risk of disease or its complications
D. Circumstances that increase the number of calls of a patient for medical care
E. Circumstances that increase the risk of non-payment for treatment of disease or its complications
404. What is the essence of avoiding risk in medical insurance?
A. * Attempt to avoid the risk of severe financial losses
B. Attempt to avoid the risk of calls for medical care
C. Attempt of improvement of environmental conditions
D. Attempt to avoid the risk of non-payment for medical services
E. Attempt to avoid the risk of overpayment of insurance fees
405. What is the essence of risk estimation in medical insurance?
A. * Calculation of the amount of insurance fees depending on all risk factors
B. Avoiding the risk of calls for medical care
C. Calculation of the amount of insurance fees depending on the type of insurance
D. Avoiding the risk of severe financial losses
E. Calculation of the amount of insurance fees depending on production and residence
406. That is reinsurance?
A. * A contract according to which an insurance organization (insurer) itself gets insurance in order to
decrease its own financial risk
B. A contract according to which a beneficiary gets additional insurance in order to decrease financial
risk
C. A contract according to which insurance organization has the right to change the provider of medical
services
D. A contract according to which a beneficiary gets additional insurance in order to decrease the
financial risk
E. A contract according to which a beneficiary gets additional money in order to decrease the financial
risk
407. What is the main function of reinsurance?
A. * Secondary redistribution of risk
B. Primary redistribution of risk
C. Tertiary redistribution of risk
D. Numerous redistributions of risk
E. Zero redistribution of risk
408. What is gross premium?
A. * Net premium and load
B. Load
C. Net premium
D. Net premium without load
E. Net premium + risk
409. What is net premium?
A. * Insurance tariff as a percentage per 100 UAH of the amount covered
B. Gross premium + load
C. Main part of insurance tariff intended for risk payments
D. Gross premium without load
E. Gross premium + risk
410. At medical insurance, compensation of losses of the insured in the insured cases is carried out:
A. * With medical services
B. With money
C. With bonuses
D. With charters

E. With special prizes

411. At medical insurance, insured accidents are:
A. * All the ANSWERs are correct
B. Diseases
C. Traumas
D. Natural physiologic processes
E. Poisonings
412. What are the two basic types of medical insurance?
A. * Obligatory and voluntary
B. Obligatory and optional
C. Social and civil
D. State and private
E. Medical and social
413. What is the basis for obligatory medical insurance?
A. * Guaranteed volume and terms of medical care to the population and necessary prophylactic measures

B. Guaranteed volume of prophylactic measures

C. Guaranteed volume of medications to the population and necessary prophylactic measures, pensions
D. Only guaranteed volume and terms of medical care to the population
E. Non-guaranteed volume and terms of medical care to the population and necessary prophylactic
measures
414. What is the basis of social guarantees of obligatory medical insurance?
A. * The state gives equal right for the guaranteed volume of medical care to all citizens
B. The state gives equal right for the guaranteed volume of medical care to only the insured citizens
C. The state gives equal right for the guaranteed volume of medical care only to the poor citizens
D. The state gives equal right for the guaranteed volume of medical care only to the privileged
categories of people
E. The state gives equal right for the guaranteed volume of medical care only to the people capable of
paying
415. Where can the insured get medical care in the program of obligatory medical insurance?
A. * On the whole territory of the country, including outside of permanent residence
B. On the whole territory of the country, except for outside of permanent residence
C. On the whole territory of the country, including abroad
D. Only on the territory of residence
E. On the whole territory of the country and CIS countries
416. How is obligatory medical insurance of non-working population carried out?
A. * According to the contracts of territorial administrations with insurance organizations
B. According to the contracts of housing rooms with insurance organizations
C. According to the contracts of household committees with insurance organizations.
D. According to the contracts of non-working population with insurance organizations.
E. It is not carried out
417. Who determines the forms of typical agreement, order and specific conditions for licensing of
obligatory insurance?
A. * The Cabinet of Ministers of Ukraine
B. The Ministry of Public Health of Ukraine
C. The Ministry of Finance of Ukraine
D. The Ministry of Justice of Ukraine

E. Insurance company
418. For what maximum term can Medical-Social Experts Commission recommend after-care with open
incapacity card to a patient after acute myocardium attack?
A. * Four months
B. One month
C. Two months
D. Three months
E. For the whole term of treatment
419. In what term should a patient pass disability examination after being referred to MSEC?
A. * Not later than 7 days
B. Not later than 10 days
C. Not later than 1 month
D. Not later than 3 months
E. Not later than 6 months
420. In case of discovering invalidity, from what time is invalidity recognised:
A. * From the date when MSEC received documents
B. From the date of examination of patient by MSEC
C. From the date of official registration of papers by DCC
D. From the date of official registration of papers by the attending physician
E. From the first day of disease

(): : 11
Social medicine, organization and economics of health care (tasks)
:
11-12 terms, 6 course med
:
1. The population of Ukraine was: 2002 52 million, 2003 50 million, 2004 49 million, 2005 48.5
million, 2006 48 million, 2007 47 million, 2008 46.7 million people. How do you calculate
growth rate for 2003?
A. * (50 52)/52 ? 100 = -4
B. It is impossible to calculate
C. 52/50 ? 100 = 104
D. 50/52 ? 100 = 96.2
E. 50 52 = -2
2. The population of Ukraine was: 2002 52 million, 2003 50 million, 2004 49 million, 2005 48.5
million, 2006 48 million, 2007 47 million, 2008 46.7 million people. How do you calculate
growth rate for 2003?
A. * 50/52 ? 100 = 96.2
B. It is impossible to calculate
C. -2/52 ? 100 = -4
D. 52/50 ? 100 = 104
E. 50 52 = -2
3. In town R, birth rate was 10 in 2007, in 2008 11 , in 2009 12 . What is the index of
visualization for 2009?
A. * 120%
B. 110%
C. 2%
D. + 2%
E. 12%
4. In assessing the degree of heterogeneity of medium height of schoolchildren it was found that
coefficient of variation was 9%. Evaluate the degree of variation of the studied sign:
A. * Low
B. Very low
C. High
D. Average
E. Very high
5. On a sample of residents of town N, average level and nature of diversity in laboratory parameters
such as level of protein of blood serum, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, white and red blood cells
count were studied. Based on what statistical criterion should conclusion on the most diverse
laboratory parameter be made?
A. * Coefficient of variation
B. Student's test
C. Weighted mean
D. Standard deviation
E. Simple mean
6. In the study of average level and character of diversity of some laboratory parameters, the following
data was received: for total serum protein standard deviation of 4 g/l, coefficient of variation
6%; for ESR 2 mm/h and 23% respectively. Which of these signs is the most variable?
A. * Speed of sedimentation
B. Total serum protein
C. There are no differences in variety of signs
D. Study of diversity requires additional calculations
E. Study of diversity requires additional research
7. In 10 acute pneumonia patients, ESR level was studied. Data received: 15, 18, 18, 21, 21, 21, 25, 28,
28, 30 (mm/h). Which statistic summarizes the data?
A. * Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Limit
E. Amplitude
8. In 10 acute pneumonia patients, ESR level was studied. Data received: 15, 18, 18, 21, 21, 21, 25, 28,
28, 30 (mm/h). Calculate the mode of the data series.
A. * 21
B. 18
C. 28
D. 15
E. 30
9. In 10 acute pneumonia patients, ESR level was studied. Data received: 15, 18, 18, 21, 21, 21, 25, 28,
28, 30 (mm/h). Calculate the median of the data series.
A. * 21
B. 18
C. 28
D. 15
E. 30
10. In 10 acute pneumonia patients, ESR level was studied. Data received: 15, 18, 18, 21, 21, 21, 25, 28,
28, 30 (mm/h). Calculate the limit of the data series.
A. * 15 ? 30
B. 30 15
C. 21
D. 15
E. 30
11. In 10 acute pneumonia patients, ESR level was studied. Data received: 15, 18, 18, 21, 21, 21, 25, 28,
28, 30 (mm/h). Calculate the amplitude of the data series.
A. * 30 15
B. 15 ? 30
C. 21
D. 15
E. 30
12. It was established that, in women with risk factors, 30 out of 100 labors were premature, and in
women who have no risk factors, 5 out of 100 labors were premature. What method of statistical data
processing is optimal for physician to assess the significance of differences in compared groups?
A. * Calculation of Student's t test
B. Method of standardization
C. Calculation of relative values
D. Correlation analysis
E. Calculation of averages

13. Surgical department of a hospital introduced the method of laparoscopic cholecystectomy. As a result,
the average duration of postoperative treatment was reduced to 3.4 0.8 day, compared to 7.3 1.1
days at the usual cholecystectomy. What method of medical statistics can confirm reliability of
difference of indices?
A. * Calculation of confidence factor Student
B. Calculation of relative values
C. Calculation of correlation
D. Calculation of averages
E. Calculation of standardized indices
14. Stature of seven-year-old boys is studied. 4 boys were 125.0-126.9 cm tall, 127.0-128.9 cm 12
boys, 129.0-130.9 cm 8 boys, 131.0-132.9 cm 4 boys. What are the reasons why these data may
be unreliable?
A. * Small number of observations
B. Large number of observations
C. Heterogeneity of statistical population
D. Variety of statistical population
E. Wrong group
15. Concentrations of albumin (g/L) in blood serum of 10 women included in a survey were as follows:
42, 41, 44, 47, 38, 40, 35, 38, 43, 41. What determines the degree of reliability?
A. * Error of representativeness
B. Extensive parameters
C. Intensive parameters
D. Index of visualisation
E. Standard deviation
16. As a result of introduction of new method of treatment, average length of stay of patients in the
experimental group was 12.3 0.2 days compared to 15.4 0.4 days in the control group of patients
treated under the old method. Calculation of which factor (criterion) can assess the significance of
difference between these results?
A. * Coefficient of probability (Student's t-test)
B. Wilcoxon's T-criterion
C. Marks criterion (z-criterion)
D. Compliance criterion (?-square)
E. Kolmogorov-Smyrnov criterion
17. There was a clinical and statistical study of new pharmacological drug in patients with coronary heart
disease. What parametric criterion (factor) can be used to estimate the probability of results?
A. * Student's factor (t)
B. Compliance criterion
C. Marks criterion
D. Wilcoxon's T-criterion
E. Kolmogorov-Smyrnov criterion
18. In the study of mortality in the two regions with different sex and age structure of the population, the
following data was received: in district A mortality was 14.0 , in district B 16.0 . What
statistical method should be used to compare these parameters?
A. * Standardization
B. Time series
C. Ratios
D. Averages
E. Correlations

19. Value of total mortality in district A is 11.9 , and in district ??B 15.9 . In the age structure of
the population of district A, share of people aged 50 years and more 30.0 , and in district ??B
40.0 . It is necessary to verify whether heterogeneity of population age structure influenced the
performance difference in overall mortality. What method of medical statistics is most appropriate in
this case?
A. * Calculation of standardized indices
B. Calculation of relative values
C. Calculation of confidence factor
D. Calculation of averages
E. Calculation of correlation coefficient
20. Head physician of a clinic set the task to analyze incidence in the shops of the enterprise. Gender
structure of workers in different departments is different. What method of statistical analysis of the
results of study of morbidity should be used?
A. * Standardization
B. Correlations
C. Averages
D. Evaluation of reliability of the results
E. Time series
21. It is necessary to conduct comparative assessment of incidence of workers of two different age
groups. Average age of group 1 is 30.0 years, group 2 40.0 years. What statistical method should be
applied for calculation of incidence to eliminate the impact of differences in compared age groups?

A. * Method of time series

B. Method of correlation
C. Method of standardization
D. Method of obtaining intensive parameters
E. Method of obtaining arithmetic performance
22. Structure of primary morbidity was studied for 21 classes of diseases. With what type of chart can
results of this study be displayed graphically?
A. * Pie chart
B. Bar chart
C. Radial chart
D. Line chart
E. Cartogram
23. Annual dynamics of morbidity from cardiovascular diseases over the past 10 years was studied. With
what type of chart can dynamics of morbidity be graphically represented?
A. * Line chart
B. Radial chart
C. Pie chart
D. Bar chart
E. Cartogram
24. Incidence of influenza in secondary school students in sixth grade was 40 cases, in fourth grade 60
cases per 1000. With what type of chart can incidence of flu in schoolchildren be displayed
graphically?
A. * Bar chart
B. Line chart
C. Radial chart
D. Pie chart

E. Cartogram
25. According to data of visits to district polyclinic: in January 257 cases of flu, February 222, March
210, April 81, May 26, June 5, July 3, August 8, September 19, October 29, November
49, December 152. It is necessary to demonstrate seasonal fluctuations in the level of influenza.
What type of graph is most appropriate in this case?
A. * Radial chart
B. Cartogram
C. Pie chart
D. Histogram
E. Column chart
26. For the analysis of polyclinic doctors, statistical department used data on structure of local mortality
by age. Determine which graph should be used in this case.
A. * Intra-bar chart
B. Cartogram
C. Radial diagram
D. Bar chart
E. Line chart
27. Regional Statistical Office conducted analysis of mortality. Its levels are graphically displayed for
each district. Determine the type of chart to be used.
A. * Intra-bar chart
B. Cartogram
C. Radial diagram
D. Bar chart
E. Line chart
28. Age structure of the population of the district is distributed as follows: share children (0-14 years) is
15%, share of population aged 15-49 years 50%, share of population aged 50 years and older
35%. Determine the population type age structure of the district.
A. * Regressive type
B. Fixed type
C. Progressive type
D. Depopulation type
E. Retrospective type
29. A child was born with congenital heart defect. Despite the treatment, the child died after 32 days of
life. In what special infant mortality rate will this case be included?
A. * Index of postnatal mortality
B. Index of intrapartum mortality
C. Index of early neonatal mortality
D. Index of late neonatal mortality
E. Index of perinatal mortality
30. In the analysis of infant mortality it was found that share of neonatal mortality was 53.5% of total
infant mortality. Determine the type of infant mortality.
A. * Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E. Type E

31. The analysis of infant mortality in village K established that, out of the total number of deaths in the
first year of life, 48% of children die in the neonatal period. Determine the type of infant mortality in
this village.
A. * Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Regressive type
E. Progressive type
32. During the year, in a maternity hospital 616 children were born alive, one baby was born dead, 1
child died on the 5th day of life. Identify what index can be used to describe this demographic
situation.
A. * Perinatal mortality
B. Overall mortality
C. Fertility
D. Infant mortality
E. Marriage fertility
33. Woman N gave birth to a healthy full-term baby at a local nursing home. On the fifth day after birth
the mother and child were discharged. At discharge, the mother was warned about the need to register
the child with the civil registration bodies. On the basis of what document can this be done?
A. Excerpt from the history of labors
B. Birth certificate
C. * Medical birth certificate
D. Exchange card: hospital information about the newborn
E. Excerpt from the history of the newborn
34. Woman N gave birth to a healthy full-term baby at a local nursing home. On the fifth day after birth
the mother and child were discharged. At discharge, the mother was warned about the need to register
the child with the civil registration bodies. How long after the birth of the child is it required to be
done under the current legislation of Ukraine?
A. * Not later than three months
B. Not later than one month
C. Not later than three days
D. Not later than one year
E. Not later than ten days
35. Woman D gave birth to a dead child at a local nursing home. Under the current legislation of
Ukraine, a case of stillbirth must be registered in the bodies of civil registration. On the basis of what
document can this be done?
A. * Medical certificate of perinatal death
B. Medical death certificate
C. Exchange card: hospital information about the newborn
D. Medical birth certificate
E. Death certificate
36. After a long illness, man S died at home. District doctor issued a "Medical Death Certificate" and
said that relatives need to register it at the local civil registration. How long after the death should this
be done under the current legislation of Ukraine?
A. * Not later than three days
B. Not later than three months
C. Not later than ten days
D. Not later than one month

E. Not later than one year

37. Organizing office of CDH was instructed to study birth rate in the district. Head of Organizing
Department entrusted this to doctor-statistician. According to what document will district's birth rate
be studied in this case?
A. * Tear-off slip of medical birth certificate
B. Card of physical development of the child
C. Birth certificate
D. Exchange card of the pregnant
E. Certificate from maternity hospital about birth
38. In the structure of population of region H, share of people aged 0 to 14 years is 31%, and share of
people aged 50 and over 20%. Evaluate age population type that most aptly describes this
demographic situation:
A. * Progressive population type
B. Immigration of population
C. Regressive population type
D. Stationary population type
E. Emigration of population
39. In the structure of population of region H, share of people aged 0 to 14 years 25%, share of
population aged 50 years and more the same. Which concept most accurately describes of this
demographic situation?
A. * Stationary population type
B. Progressive population type
C. Emigration of population
D. Regressive population type
E. Immigration of population
40. Determine the type of infant mortality, if children dying in the first month of life are less than 30% of
the total number of those who died in the first year of life.
A. * Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
E. Type E
41. 4 children died in the antenatal period, 2 in intrapartum. Total deaths in the first year of life 30,
out of them in the first month 20, including first week 15. Determine the number of deaths in the
postnatal period:
A. * 15 children
B. 5 children
C. 6 children
D. 21 children
E. 35 children
42. During the reporting year, in town K fertility rate was 15.2 , death rate 15.4 , infant mortality
15.8 . Assess the levels of fertility, mortality, natural increase and infant mortality.
A. * Birth rate average, mortality high, natural increase negative, infant mortality low.
B. Fertility high, mortality average, natural increase negative, infant mortality low.
C. Fertility average, mortality low, natural increase positive, infant mortality low.
D. Fertility average, mortality low, natural increase negative, infant mortality high.
E. Birth rate average, mortality average, natural increase negative, infant mortality average.

43. Over the last year, in the town V birth rate was 9.9 , death rate 16.6 , infant mortality 11.0
. Assess the levels of fertility, mortality, natural increase and infant mortality.
A. * Fertility low, mortality high, natural increase negative, infant mortality low.
B. Fertility average, mortality high, natural increase negative, infant mortality low.
C. Fertility high, mortality high, natural increase positive, infant mortality average.
D. Fertility average, mortality low, natural increase positive, infant mortality low.
E. Fertility low, mortality average, natural increase negative, infant mortality low.
44. Town C has 40,000 people, born during the year 510, died 490, including at the age of 0-14 30
children, 14-16 years 8, 16-18 5, the first year of life 15 children, including in the first month of
life 8 children, in the first 10 days 6, in the first week of life 4 children died, 5 were stillborn,
including deaths during childbirth 2 children. How many children died in the antenatal period?
A. * 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
45. Town C has 40,000 people, born during the year 510, died 490, including at the age of 0-14 30
children, 14-16 years 8, 16-18 5, the first year of life 15 children, including in the first month of
life 8 children, in the first 10 days 6, in the first week of life 4 children died, 5 were stillborn,
including deaths during childbirth 2 children. How many children died in the intrapartum period?
A. * 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 3
46. Town C has 40,000 people, born during the year 510, died 490, including at the age of 0-14 30
children, 14-16 years 8, 16-18 5, the first year of life 15 children, including in the first month of
life 8 children, in the first week of life 4 children died, 5 were stillborn, including deaths during
childbirth 2 children. How many children died in the early neonatal period?
A. * 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
E. 3
47. In one grade at high school there are 38 students. During the year, 4 students didn't get sick, 8 get sick
once, 11 twice, 6 three times, 4 students 4 times, 5 students 6 and more times. How many
students in the grade are in the group of often sick?
A. * 9 students
B. 1 student
C. 2 students
D. 4 students
E. 15 students
48. In the current year, among workers of an institution 10% never got sick, once 30%, twice 15%,
three times 22%, four times 18%, 5 or more times 5%. What share of workers belong to health
group I?
A. * 40%
B. 10%
C. 55%
D. 37%
E. 22%
49. In the current year, among workers of an institution 10% never got sick, once 30%, twice 15%,
three times 22%, four times 18%, 5 or more times 5%. What share of workers belong to the
health group II?
A. * 37%
B. 40%
C. 15%
D. 60%
E. 22%
50. In the current year, among workers of an institution 10% never got sick, once 30%, twice 15%,
three times 22%, four times 18%, 5 or more times 5%. What share of workers belong to health
group III?
A. * 23%
B. 18%
C. 5%
D. 45%
E. 22%
51. Family doctor covering 1100 urban population, while writing annual report, analyzes morbidity in the
area. 300 cases severe disease, first identified chronic 180, exacerbation of chronic disease 450,
detected during checkups 550 cases, death from disease 2. How many cases belong to primary
morbidity?
A. * 480
B. 300
C. 180
D. 458
E. 930
52. Family doctor covering 1100 urban population, while writing annual report, analyzes morbidity in the
area. 300 cases severe disease, first identified chronic 180, exacerbation of chronic disease 450,
detected during checkups 550 cases, death from disease 2. How many cases belong to the general
morbidity?
A. * 930
B. 1480
C. 180
D. 480
E. 458
53. Family doctor covering 1100 urban population, while writing annual report, analyzes morbidity in the
area. 300 cases severe disease, first identified chronic 180, exacerbation of chronic disease 450,
detected during checkups 550 cases, death from disease 2. How many cases belong to total
morbidity?
A. * 1480
B. 180
C. 480
D. 458
E. 930
54. Family doctor covering 1100 urban population, while writing annual report, analyzes morbidity in the
area. 300 cases severe disease, first identified chronic 180, exacerbation of chronic disease 450,
detected during checkups 550 cases, death from disease 2. How many cases belong to
pathological injury?
A. * 550

B. 1480
C. 480
D. 458
E. 930
55. When examining a five-year-old child, pediatrician established diphtheria. When and where should
the doctor send appropriate document in this case?
A. * Within 12 hours, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
B. Within 3 days, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
C. Within 12 hours, infection hospital
D. During 3 days, Infectious Diseases Office
E. Emergency hospitalization in infection hospital
56. When examining a patient, gastroenterologist suspected salmonellosis. When and where should the
doctor send appropriate document in this case?
A. * Within 12 hours, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
B. Within 12 hours, infection hospital
C. Emergency hospitalization in infection hospital
D. During 3 days, Infectious Diseases Office
E. During 3 days, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
57. A pregnant woman registered at maternity welfare was diagnosed with AIDS. When and where
should the doctor send appropriate document in this case?
A. * Within 12 hours, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
B. Within 3 days, Infectious Diseases Office
C. Within 12 hours, STI clinic
D. Urgent hospitalization in infection hospital
E. During 3 days, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
58. When examining a patient, local GP suspected breast cancer. When and where should the doctor send
appropriate document in this case?
A. * Within 3 days, in oncologic dispensary
B. Within 12 hours, oncologic dispensary
C. Within 12 hours, infection hospital
D. Urgent hospitalization in oncologic dispensary
E. During 3 days, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
59. A pregnant woman registered at maternity welfare was diagnosed with gonorrhea. When and where
should the doctor send appropriate document in this case?
A. * During 3 days, STI clinic
B. Within 12 hours, STI clinic
C. Within 3 days, Sanitary-Epidemiological Service
D. Within 12 hours, therapy department of hospital
E. Emergency hospitalization in STI clinic
60. Guild GP of Ternopil Combine Plant annually analyzes incidence with temporary incapacity. Total
population of Ternopil 230000. Per 2000 workers there were 230 cases of temporary incapacity,
including due to acute respiratory infections 45, 4050 days of temporary incapacity. How do you
calculate index of cases of temporary incapacity?
A. * 230/2000 ? 100
B. 230/2000 ? 1000
C. 230/230000 ? 1000
D. 230/100 ? 230000
E. 4050/230000 ? 1000

61. Guild GP of Ternopil Combine Plant annually analyzes incidence with temporary incapacity. Total
population of Ternopil 230000. Per 2000 workers there were 230 cases of temporary incapacity,
including due to acute respiratory infections 45, 4050 days of temporary incapacity. How do you
calculate rate of days of temporary incapacity?
A. * 4050/2000 ? 100
B. 230/230000 ? 1000
C. 4050/2000 ? 1000
D. (4050 + 230)/100 ? 230000
E. 4050/230000 ? 1000
62. Guild GP of Ternopil Combine Plant annually analyzes incidence with temporary incapacity. Total
population of Ternopil 230000. Per 2000 workers there were 230 cases of temporary incapacity,
including due to acute respiratory infections 45, influenza 38, hypertension 20, 4050 days of
temporary incapacity. How do you calculate share of acute respiratory infections?
A. * 45/230 ? 100
B. 45/230 ? 1000
C. 45/2000 ? 1000
D. 45/230,000 ? 100
E. 45/230,000 ? 1000
63. Guild GP of Ternopil Combine Plant annually analyzes incidence with temporary incapacity. Total
population of Ternopil 230000. Per 2000 workers there were 230 cases of temporary incapacity,
including due to acute respiratory infections 45, influenza 38, hypertension 20, 4050 days of
temporary incapacity. How do you calculate average duration of one case of incapacity?
A. * 4050/230
B. 4050/230 ? 100
C. 4050/230 ? 1000
D. 230/4050 ? 100
E. 230/4050
64. According to medical checkups, incidence of gynecological diseases among girls of School 28 is
60% higher than data on the prevalence of this disease according to calls for medical care. Determine
the type of routine inspection used in this situation.
A. * Targeted
B. Previous
C. Planned
D. Repeated
E. Current
65. Before starting work, worker K passed preventive medical examination, the results of which allowed
him to work in the conditions of the enterprise. Determine the type of preventive medical
examination used in this situation.
A. * Previous
B. Targeted
C. Planned
D. Repeated
E. Current
66. Town therapeutic district has 3000 adults and 1400 children. How do you calculate number of
positions of district therapist?
A. * 3000 ? 1/1700
B. 1400 ? 1/800
C. 1400 ? 1/1700
D. 3000 ? 1/800

E. 3000 ? 1/2500
67. Town therapeutic district has 3000 adults and 1400 children. How do you calculate number of
positions of district pediatrician?
A. * 1400 ? 1/800
B. 3000 ? 1/1700
C. 1400 ? 1/1700
D. 3000 ? 1/800
E. 3000 ? 1/2500
68. Town therapeutic district has 3000 adults and 1400 children. How do you calculate number of
positions of dentist for adults?
A. * 3000 ? 0.25/1000
B. 3000 ? 1/800
C. 1400 ? 0.25/1000
D. 3000 ? 0.25/1700
E. 3000 ? 1/2500
69. Town therapeutic district has 3000 adults and 1400 children. How do you calculate number of
positions of dentist for children?
A. * 1400 ? 0.25/1000
B. 3000 ? 0.25/1000
C. 1400 ? 1/800
D. 1400 ? 0.25/1700
E. 3000 ? 1/2500
70. Town therapeutic district has 3,000 adults, including 1,800 women. How do you calculate number of
positions of obstetricians of antenatal clinic?
A. * 1800 ? 1/3300
B. 3000 ? 1/1800
C. 1800 ? 0.25/800
D. 1800 ? 1/1700
E. 3000 ? 1/2500
71. High school students have preventive medical checkups once a year. Determine the type of routine
inspection used in this situation.
A. * Repeated
B. Targeted
C. Previous
D. Planned
E. Complex
72. Military conscripts undergo medical examination of fitness for military service carried out by doctors
of various specialties. Determine the type of preventive medical examination used in this situation.
A. * Complex
B. Previous
C. Targeted
D. Planned
E. Repeated
73. At the end of the year a hospital received a summary of detailed annual average number of beds and
number of patients treated during the year. Which hospital performance indices can be calculated for
the given data?
A. * Bed circulation
B. Annual average bed occupancy

C. Hospital mortality
D. Average length of stay of patient on a bed
E. Hospitalization level
74. At the end of the year a hospital received a summary of detailed annual average number of beds and
number of bed days spent in hospital by patients. Which hospital performance indices can be
calculated for the given data?
A. * Average annual bed occupancy
B. Bed circulation
C. Hospital mortality
D. Average length of stay of patient on a bed
E. Hospitalization level
75. At the end of the year a hospital received a summary of the number of patients treated during the
year, and the number of bed days spent in hospital by patients. Which hospital performance indices
can be calculated for the given data?
A. * Average length of stay of patient on a bed
B. Average annual bed occupancy
C. Bed circulation
D. Hospital mortality
E. Hospitalization level
76. At the end of the year a hospital received a summary of the number of patients treated during the
year, including patients who died. Which hospital performance indices can be calculated for the given
data?
A. * Hospital mortality
B. Average length of stay of patient on a bed
C. Annual average bed occupancy
D. Bed circulation
E. Hospitalization level
77. A region has 950,000 people. At the end of the year, hospitals received a summary of the number of
patients treated during the year. Which hospital performance indices can be calculated for the given
data?
A. * Level of hospitalization
B. Hospital mortality
C. Average length of stay of patient on a bed
D. Average annual bed occupancy
E. Bed circulation
78. A woman visited women's clinic where she was found 10 weeks pregnant and put on record. How
many times should the woman be advised to visit antenatal care during pregnancy with normal
course?
A. * 12-13 times
B. 6-8 times
C. 14-16 times
D. 16-18 times
E. 10-12 event in
79. A mother with a healthy newborn daughter was discharged from maternity hospital. During what
time should pediatrician visit the child?
A. * In the first two-three days after discharge
B. In the first week after discharge
C. In the first month after discharge

D. In the first 10 days after discharge

E. In the first 15 days after discharge
80. A sick person came to a nurse in health unit at night with high fever, fact of incapacity was
established. State the order of examination in this case.
A. * A certificate of exemption from work during night shift is issued, later used for issuing sick leave
dated the previous day
B. Incapacity card is issued for 1 day
C. Incapacity card is issued for 3 days
D. Incapacity card is issued for 3 days
E. No document is issued
81. Due to illness, worker A was temporarily incapacitated for 17 days. He was treated as outpatients
under the supervision of a GP. For how long can attending physician alone issue incapacity card in
this case?
A. * For 10 days
B. For up to 6 days
C. For up to 30 days
D. For 14 days
E. For the whole period of temporary incapacity
82. Worker N was under supervision of obstetrician of a maternity clinic about pregnancy that ended in
physiological childbirth. For how long in total should this woman be given incapacity card at the
place of observation?
A. * For 126 days
B. For 140 days
C. For 70 days
D. For 56 days
E. For 180 days
83. A worker had an abortion for medical reasons on May 6, she was in hospital until May 17. For how
long is incapacity card issued?
A. * For 12 days
B. For 3 days
C. For 5 days
D. For 6 days
E. For 10 days
84. A patient addressed a psychoneurological hospital with the request for hospitalization with diabetic
ulcer. Based on the right of free choice of doctor, he yet grounded his request by affinity of residing,
good conditions available in given hospital and belief in professionalism of doctors working there.
Will the rights of patient be broken in case of refusal in hospitalization?
A. * No, because in Fundamentals of Legislation of Ukraine about public health services it is specified
that it cannot be refused only in case when the institution has possibility to render such care, and in
this case the institution is of different profile
B. Yes, because in Fundamentals of Legislation of Ukraine about public health services it is specified
that the patient has the right of a free choice of the doctor
C. Yes, because the person has the right to solve independently where it is better to it to be treated
D. Yes, because the main thing that the patient trusted the doctor
E. Yes, because in the Constitution of Ukraine and in WHO materials it is said that are obliged to assist
patients at the reference
85. At a call for ambulance concerning putting off of renal colic, the patient was explained that at first
aid station does not have enough medicines for granting of the high-grade care, but if the patient does
not mind buying additional medicines on the way in a drugstore and paying after arrival. To that the
later agreed. Are actions of medical staff lawful?
A. * No, because the Constitution of Ukraine is broken
B. No, because Fundamentals of Legislation of Ukraine about public health services are broken
C. Yes, because the Declaration of human rights is not broken
D. Yes, because health is most important
E. No, because the Decision of the Cabinet of Ministers of Ukraine about cancellation of paid services
is broken
86. At calculation of planned target of number of medical positions of neuropathologist for ambulatory-
polyclinic service of adult population the head of a city out-patient clinic used the specification 0.5
per 10000 people. The out-patient clinic serves 50,000 people. How many positions of
neuropathologist can the head of an out-patient clinic plan?
A. * 2.5 positions
B. 10 positions
C. 25 positions
D. 5 positions
E. 2.0 positions
87. At calculation of a planned target of number of medical positions of cardiologist for ambulatory-
polyclinic service of adult population the head of a city out-patient clinic used the specification 0.3
on 10000 people. The out-patient clinic serves 40,000 people. How many positions of cardiologist the
head of an out-patient clinic can plan?
A. * 1.2 positions
B. 1.0 position
C. 7.0 positions
D. 5.0 positions
E. 2.0 positions
88. At calculation of a planned target of number of medical positions of surgeon for ambulatory-
polyclinic service of adult population the head of a city out-patient clinic used the specification 0.4
on 10000 people. The out-patient clinic serves 40,000 people. How many positions of surgeon the
head of an out-patient clinic can plan?
A. * 1.6 positions
B. 1.0 position
C. 6.0 positions
D. 5.0 positions
E. 16 positions
89. In private hospital a patient with anticnemion trauma is delivered. He is quickly made radiological
inspection. Fracture of bones of an anticnemion is diagnosed, fixing plaster bandage is made. The
patient paid expenses in institution cash desk in the sum of 170 UAH. This is a question about:
A. * Medical service
B. Medical aid
C. Paid medical service
D. Free medical service
E. It is a question not of services, but of money
90. In local hospital a patient with trauma of left forearm is delivered. He is quickly made radiological
inspection. Fracture of radial bone is diagnosed, fixing plaster bandage made. The patient paid for
plaster bandage 7.5 UAH in a drugstore. This is a question about:
A. * Medical aid

B. Medical service
C. Paid medical service
D. Free medical service
E. It is a question not of services, but of money.
91. In children's hospital a girl aged 4 with poisoning attributes unknown substance is delivered. Her
stomach is quickly washed out, other obligatory investigations carried out. The girl is hospitalised in
intensive care unit and rendered all necessary care. Next day the nurse, having introduced herself as a
welfare fund worker, asked parents of the girl to make charitable payments for hospital development
in the sum of 25 UAH. Parents offered the given sum. Medical staff actions should be regarded as:
A. * Medical aid
B. Medical service
C. Paid medical service
D. Free medical service
E. Bribe Extortion
92. You, head physician of a village medical ambulatory, are offered to open self-supporting department
where services of masseur, cosmetician and ultrasonic will be rendered. What methods of research of
the market of medical services are expedient for use in the present state of affairs?
A. * Theoretical
B. Empirical
C. Abstraction
D. Deductive
E. Analysis
93. You are assigned as a family doctor to a newly founded area. At your disposal there is only
quantitative information concerning population, areas of the territory of service. Also there are
coupons of out-patients for some years. What methods of research of the given market of public
health services are expedient for use in the present state of affairs?
A. * Theoretical
B. Empirical
C. Experiment
D. Description
E. Observation
94. At district executive committee session there was a speech about expansion of enterprise activity on
the basis of local hairdressing salons and saunas in directions of granting cosmetic, hairdresser's,
manicure and pedicure services. What market is the problem about?
A. * Commodity market
B. Market of pharmaceutical services
C. Market of services
D. Market of medical services
E. Market of capitals
95. In a report of the head of district executive committee it was said about considerable investments into
development of dental offices and cosmetology salons. Also it was said about association of private
businessmen engaged in diagnostic procedures. Cases of absence of licence for activity in the sphere
of nonconventional medicine in a number of beauty salons were mentioned. What market was the
report about?
A. * Market of capitals
B. Market of medical services
C. Commodity market
D. Market of services
E. Market of pharmaceutical services

96. In one of the regional centres, at meetings of founders of a private hospital a statute project of their
future enterprise was introduced. It was decided to register the enterprise. There were different offers
concerning place of registration of the institution. What is the correct place of registration.
A. * In regional administration
B. In regional council of People's Deputies
C. In district department of health care
D. In regional department of health care
E. In MoH of Ukraine
97. In private treatment-and-prophylactic institution a report was presented by the chief accountant on
change of circulating assets of the institution. How will the circulation of circulating assets be
changed if in the base period it was 12 times, and in the accounting period 9 times?
A. * It was slowed down
B. It was accelerated
C. Did not change
D. It was slowed down 5 times
E. It was slowed down 108 times
98. In one of regional centres, at a meetings of founders of a private hospital, materials of preparation for
enterprise registration were announced. It was decided by majority of votes to form a small enterprise
such as a limited liability company. Divergence of thoughts arose concerning number of workers of
the future institution. Choose correct thought.
A. * Up to 25 people
B. Up to 50 people
C. Up to 25 positions of doctors
D. All members of meetings of founders
E. All interested persons
99. Jack , a first-year Medical University student, aged 16, had an idea to form a private medical
institution. Considering that he is under age, he intends to hire full-age qualified experts for the firm.
Will he succeed as a businessman?
A. * No, because only adult citizens and legal bodies who are not limited in legal rights can be subjects of
business in Ukraine
B. Yes, because adult citizens and legal bodies who are not limited in the legal capacity can be subjects
of business in Ukraine
C. Yes, because persons who are not limited in the legal capacity can be subjects of business in Ukraine

D. Yes, because all citizens and legal bodies can be subjects of business in Ukraine
E. Yes, because this subject of business does not belong to officials
100. At a meeting of economical department of a CDH the expenses necessary for performance of the
basic functions are projected. Also the funds received are distributed. What document confirms their
powers concerning reception of incomes and realization of expenses?
A. * Estimate
B. Deed of inspectorship
C. Power of attorney
D. Bill
E. Charter
101. CDH as a budgetary organization served by the centralized accounts department, constitutes the
estimate for each function carried out by it. What kind of estimate is made in the given institution?
A. * Individual
B. Shown
C. Private

D. Cooperative
E. Budgetary
102. Economic department of a municipal government of public health services, having collected
individual estimates from city treatment-and-prophylactic institutions, deduces the total expenses
necessary for performance by them of their functions. What document will they constitute?
A. * Shown estimate
B. Individual estimate
C. Estimate of a municipal government of public health services
D. Public health services estimate
E. Estimate of city council of People's Deputies
103. At economic meeting of a municipal hospital the question of distribution of funds for performance of
the basic functions was considered. A dispute arose concerning allocating funds for purchase of new
equipment for resuscitation. The economic department denied the given offer, proving the position
that expenses are limited to limiting volumes of funds of the general fund. Opponents spoke about
possibility of use of incomes on realization of priority actions related to performance by institution of
its basic functions. Support the correct position.
A. * Basis for designing of estimates are limiting volumes of expenses of the general fund of the project
of the corresponding budget the next year
B. Enterings from special fund of the budget can be used on performance by budgetary institution of the
priority actions bound to performance of the basic functions
C. Enterings from special fund of the budget cannot be used on performance by budgetary institution of
the priority actions bound to performance of the basic functions
D. Basis for designing of estimates are not limiting volumes of expenses of the general fund of the
project of the corresponding budget the next year
E. Both parties are right
104. A firm has to establish a price for a new good protected by a patent. There is high level of demand for
the goods from a considerable number of consumers, production expenses are not so big, the goods
are of high quality, competitors are absent for the present. What strategy of pricing would you offer to
the firm management?
A. * Skimming the market
B. Establishing the price within the limits of commodity range of this firm
C. Price understating to enlarge quantity of goods sold
D. Auction sale
E. Understating the price for making a wide range of consumers used to service
105. A chemist's firm has big party of polyvitamins the validity term of which ends in a month. What
strategy of pricing would you offer to the firm management?
A. * Price understating to enlarge quantity of goods sold
B. Establishment of price within the limits of commodity range of this firm
C. Skimming the market
D. Auction sale
E. Understating the price for making a wide range of consumers used to service
106. The chemist's firm has the big party of a liquid for strengthening of fingernails. Despite advertising,
the goods have no demand. The manufacturer does not accept the goods back. What strategy of
pricing would you offer to the firm management?
A. * Auction sale
B. Establishment of price within the limits of commodity range of this firm
C. Skimming the market
D. Price understating to enlarge quantity of goods sold
E. Understating the price for making a wide range of consumers used to service

107. The private clinic renders services of improving character. Demand for the given services moderated,
at level with contestant firms. Expenses for granting of the given services for the firm are average.
What strategy of pricing would you offer to the firm management?
A. * Establishment of price within the limits of commodity range of this firm
B. Skimming the market
C. Price understating to enlarge quantity of goods sold
D. Auction sale
E. Understating the price for making a wide range of consumers used to service
108. Doctor Shatsky works on full rate as a surgeon with the salary of 1400 UAH a month. In February he
worked 20 working days. What are average daily earnings of the doctor?
A. * 70 UAH
B. 140 UAH
C. 160 UAH
D. 700 UAH
E. 56 UAH
109. Doctor Vysotsky works on full rate as ophthalmologist with the salary of 1300 UAH a month. In
April he worked 20 working days. What are average daily earnings of the doctor?
A. * 65 UAH
B. 140 UAH
C. 160 UAH
D. 700 UAH
E. 56 UAH
110. Doctor Zharovsky worked two days running overtime, 4 hours as a whole. He works as infectionist
with the hourly pay of 65 UAH/hour. What surcharge will the doctor receive?
A. * 520 UAH
B. 240 UAH
C. 360 UAH
D. 700 UAH
E. 156 UAH
111. Doctor Kalinovsky worked two days running overtime, as a whole 3 hours. He works as
tuberculotherapist with the hourly pay of 80 UAH/hour. What surcharge will the doctor receive?
A. * 480 UAH
B. 440 UAH
C. 360 UAH
D. 400 UAH
E. 456 UAH
112. In 2004 budgetary funds on public health services constituted 85%. And in 2005 84%. What will be
the rate of increase of the allocated funds?
A. * 98.8%
B. 18.8%
C. 8.8%
D. 50.8%
E. 0.08%
113. In 2004 budgetary funds on public health services constituted 72 million UAH. And in 2005 82
million UAH. What will be the rate of increase of the allocated funds?
A. * 87.8%
B. 18.8%
C. 8.8%

D. 50.88%
E. 0.08%
114. In 2006 budgetary funds on public health services constituted 72 million UAH. And in 2007 70
million UAH. What will be the rate of increase of the allocated funds?
A. * 97.2%
B. 18.8%
C. 8.8%
D. 0.88%
E. 0.08%
115. In 2004 budgetary funds on public health services constituted 72 million UAH. And in 2005 82
million UAH. What will be pure gain of the allocated funds?
A. * 10 million UAH
B. 72 million UAH
C. 82 million UAH
D. 154 million UAH
E. 2 million UAH
116. During demonstration performances there was an insured accident in the result of which life and
health of crewmen of the aircraft were harmed, one person was killed. Define the size of insurance
payment which would have been paid by aircraft operator if the insurance contract was concluded for
one year.
A. * 100% of the insured sum
B. 75% of the insured sum
C. 70% of the insured sum
D. 50% of the insured sum
E. 10% of the insured sum
117. During demonstration performances there was an insured accident in the result of which life and
health of crewmen of the aircraft were harmed: three persons recognised as invalids of the 3rd group.
Define the size of insurance payment which would have been paid by aircraft operator if the
insurance contract was concluded for one year.
A. * 50% of the insured sum
B. 75% of the insured sum
C. 80% of the insured sum
D. 90% of the insured sum
E. 100% of the insured sum
118. In veterinary hospital during preventive inoculation of animals 10.01.2010 there was an insured
accident which led to such consequences: doctor was recognized as invalid of the 2nd group. Define
the size of insurance payment if the insurance contract is concluded for one year.
A. * 75% of the insured sum
B. 80% of the insured sum
C. 85% of the insured sum
D. 90% of the insured sum
E. 100% of the insured sum
119. In children's hospital during face lifting there was an insured accident which led to such
consequences: doctor's assistant was recognized as invalid of 1st group. Define the size of insurance
payment if the insurance contract is concluded for one year.
A. * 100% of the insured sum
B. 80% of the insured sum
C. 85% of the insured sum
D. 90% of the insured sum
E. 75% of the insured sum
120. The head of regional department of health care analyzed state of health of the population of the
region. It has been noticed that birth rate of the population of the region during last years decreases.
Criterion of what efficiency of public health services is the birth rate index?
A. * Social
B. Medical
C. Economic
D. Statistical
E. Epidemiological
121. Scientific research institute for the purpose of forecasting of average life expectancy of the
population of the country, analyzes mortality tables. It is established that average life expectancy of
men constitutes for last year 63.4 years, and women 74.5 years. Criterion of what efficiency of
public health services is the index of average life expectancy?
A. * Social
B. Medical
C. Economic
D. Statistical
E. Epidemiological
122. Head physician of a CDH analyzed indices of morbidity of the population of district. It has been
noticed that the general case rate of the population of district during the last years grows, and the
primary case rate considerably does not change. Criterion of what efficiency of public health services
is the index of a case rate of the population?
A. * Medical
B. Social
C. Economic
D. Statistical
E. Epidemiological
123. Head of the MSEC analyzed disability of the working population of region for last year. It has been
noticed that more often cardiovascular diseases were the reasons of disability of workers. Criterion of
what efficiency of public health services is the index of disability of the working population?
A. * Economic
B. Medical
C. Social
D. Statistical
E. Epidemiological
124. Define medical efficiency of introduction of new technology in medical process if average duration
of stay of patient on a bed before introduction was 14 days, and after introduction 12.
A. * 2 days
B. 26 days
C. 12 days
D. 14 days
E. 1.2 days
125. Define medical efficiency of introduction of new technology in medical process if average duration
of stay of patient on a bed before introduction was 16 days, and after introduction 12.
A. * 4 days
B. 28 days
C. 12 days

D. 16 days
E. 1.2 days
126. Medical efficiency from introduction of new technology in medical process constituted 5.5 days.
Define duration of stay of patient on a bed initially if after introduction of new technology it became
11 days.
A. * 16.5 days
B. 6.5 days
C. 5.5 days
D. 14 days
E. 12 days
127. Medical efficiency from introduction of new technology in medical process constituted 4 days.
Define duration of stay of patient on a bed after introduction of new technology if initially it was 14
days.
A. * 10 days
B. 7 days
C. 18 days
D. 14 days
E. 12 days
128. A private cosmetic clinic received monthly income of 20,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 5,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 1200 UAH, bought consumable materials for 12600 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 200 UAH. What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Simple reproduction
B. Narrowed reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
129. A private clinic received monthly income of 200,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 50,000 UAH, paid taxes
of 12000 UAH, bought consumable materials for 126000 UAH, paid rent of 10000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 2000 UAH. What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Simple reproduction
B. Narrowed reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
130. A private diagnostic clinic received monthly income of 120,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 45,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 25000 UAH, bought consumable materials for 6000 UAH, paid rent of 5000 UAH,
bought the new equipment for 29000 UAH paid telephone bills for 300 UAH. What type of
reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Simple reproduction
B. Narrowed reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
131. A private dentistry clinic received monthly income of 50,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 15,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 1400 UAH, bought consumable materials for 31700 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 600 UAH. What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Expanded reproduction
B. Simple reproduction

C. Narrowed reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
132. A private dentistry office received monthly income of 40,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 10,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 1250 UAH, bought consumable materials for 21200 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 600 UAH. What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Expanded reproduction
B. Simple reproduction
C. Narrowed reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
133. A private drugstore received monthly income of 940,185,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 85,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 15400 UAH, bought medicines for 82700 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid telephone
bills for 600 UAH. What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Expanded reproduction
B. Simple reproduction
C. Narrowed reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
134. A private therapeutic office received monthly income of 5,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 3,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 400 UAH, bought consumable materials for 700 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 200 UAH, bought a device for measurement of blood pressure for 400 UAH. What
type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Narrowed reproduction
B. Simple reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
135. A private cardiologic office received monthly income of 6.500 UAH. In wages, it paid 3.5,000 UAH,
paid taxes of 500 UAH, bought consumable materials for 900 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH, paid
telephone bills for 200 UAH, bought a device for measurement of blood pressure for 540 UAH. What
type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Narrowed reproduction
B. Simple reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
136. A private ophthalmologic clinic received monthly income of 13,000 UAH. In wages, it paid 6,000
UAH, paid taxes of 600 UAH, bought consumable materials for 5700 UAH, paid rent of 1000 UAH,
paid telephone bills for 200 UAH, bought a device for measurement of eye pressure for 1300 UAH.
What type of reproduction is characteristic of the case in point?
A. * Narrowed reproduction
B. Simple reproduction
C. Expanded reproduction
D. Mixed reproduction
E. Combined reproduction
137. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 15%, quantity of private enterprises
grew by 12%, equipment remained invariable. What economic growth type is characteristic of the
given area?

A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
138. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 18%, quantity of private enterprises
grew by 22%, equipment remained invariable. What economic growth type is characteristic of the
given area?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
139. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 32%, quantity of private enterprises
grew by 9%, equipment remained invariable. What economic growth type is characteristic of the
given area?
A. * Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
140. In area N within last three years, number of workers was stabilized, quantity of private enterprises
remained the same, equipment was updated by 72%, at 68% of enterprises new technologies were
introduced. What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
141. In area N within last three years, number of workers was stabilized, quantity of private enterprises
remained the same, equipment was updated by 68%, at 75% of enterprises new technologies were
introduced. What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
142. In area N within last three years, number of workers was stabilized, quantity of private enterprises
remained the same, equipment was updated by 59%, at 53% of enterprises new technologies were
introduced. What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?
A. * Intensive
B. Extensive
C. Mixed
D. Fast
E. Slow
143. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 23%, quantity of private enterprises
grew by 66%, equipment was updated by 72%, at 68% of enterprises new technologies were
introduced. What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?

A. * Mixed
B. Extensive
C. Intensive
D. Fast
E. Slow
144. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 1%, quantity of private enterprises grew
by 20%, equipment was updated by 65%, at 56% of enterprises new technologies were introduced.
What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?
A. * Mixed
B. Extensive
C. Intensive
D. Fast
E. Slow
145. In area N within last three years, number of workers grew by 16%, quantity of private enterprises
grew by 43%, equipment was updated by 37%, at 29% of enterprises new technologies were
introduced. What economic growth type is characteristic of the given area?
A. * Mixed
B. Extensive
C. Intensive
D. Fast
E. Slow
146. In Ukraine, gross national product in 2000 was 170 billion UAH, and in 2001 202 billion UAH.
What are rates of economic growth in the country?
A. * 18%
B. 25%
C. 38%
D. 50%
E. 75%
147. In Ukraine, gross national product in 2001 was 202 billion UAH, and in 2002 262 billion UAH.
What are rates of economic growth in the country?
A. * 30%
B. 18%
C. 38%
D. 50%
E. 75%
148. In Ukraine, gross national product in 2003 was 270 billion UAH, and in 2004 272 billion UAH.
What are rates of economic growth in the country?
A. * 0.74%
B. 0.18%
C. 0.30%
D. 0.38%
E. 0.50%
149. In country N rates of economic growth are 4%, and in country K 2%. If these rates do not vary, in
how many years will production volume double in both countries?
A. * In country N in 18 years, and in country K in 35 years
B. In country K in 18 years, and in country N in 35 years
C. In country N in 28 years, and in country K in 25 years
D. In country K in 15 years, and in country N in 45 years

E. In country N in 8 years, and in country K in 5 years

150. In country N rates of economic growth are 14%, and in country K 12%. If these rates do not vary,
in how many years will production volume double in both countries?
A. * In country N in 5 years, and in country K in 6 years
B. In country N in 18 years, and in country K in 35 years
C. In country K in 18 years, and in country N in 35 years
D. In country N in 28 years, and in country K in 25 years
E. In country K in 15 years, and in country N in 45 years
151. In country N rates of economic growth are 6%, and in country K 3%. If these rates do not vary, in
how many years will production volume double in both countries?
A. * In country N in 12 years, and in country K in 23 years
B. In country N in 18 years, and in country K in 35 years
C. In country K in 18 years, and in country N in 35 years
D. In country K in 15 years, and in country N in 45 years
E. In country N in 5 years, and in country K in 6 years
152. What impact will economic agent bring in real GNP occupying 10 men, each of whom works 2,000
hours per year (50 weeks 40 hours per week). Total men-hours worked is 20,000 if normally is made
for a men-hours 5 UAH
A. * 10,000 UAH
B. 200,000 UAH
C. 300,000 UAH
D. 400,000 UAH
E. 500,000 UAH
153. What impact will economic agent bring in real GNP occupying 20 men, each of whom works 2,000
hours per year (50 weeks 40 hours per week). Total men-hours worked is 40,000 if normally is made
for a men-hours 6 UAH
A. * 240,000 UAH
B. 100,000 UAH
C. 350,000 UAH
D. 400,000 UAH
E. 540,000 UAH
154. What impact will economic agent bring in real GNP in which 30 men are occupied, each of whom
works 2,000 hours per year (50 weeks 40 hours per week). Total men-hours worked is 60,000 if
normally 5 UAH are made per men-hour.
A. * 300,000 UAH
B. 100,000 UAH
C. 200,000 UAH
D. 400,000 UAH
E. 500,000 UAH
155. What will real GNP be if the price index was 97%, and nominal GNP 107 million UAH?
A. * 110,000 UAH
B. 210,000 UAH
C. 320,000 UAH
D. 440,000 UAH
E. 580,000 UAH
156. What will real GNP be if the price index was 128%, and nominal GNP 64 million UAH?
A. * 50 million UAH
B. 150 million UAH
C. 250 million UAH
D. 350 million UAH
E. 450 million UAH
157. What will real GNP be if the price index was 150%, and nominal GNP 80mln UAH?
A. * 53 million UAH
B. 155 million UAH
C. 259 million UAH
D. 350 million UAH
E. 457 million UAH
158. Income part of budget of area N was 32 billion UAH, and expenses 30 billion UAH. This budget will
be considered
A. * Surplus
B. Scarce
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
159. Income part of budget of area N was 57 billion UAH, and expenses 56.8 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Surplus
B. Scarce
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
160. Income part of budget of area N was 13 billion UAH, and expenses 12.96 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Surplus
B. Scarce
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
161. Income part of budget of area N was 18 billion UAH, and expenses 18.21 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Scarce
B. Surplus
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
162. Income part of budget of area N was 64 billion UAH, and expenses 64.2 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Scarce
B. Surplus
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
163. Income part of budget of area N was 72 billion UAH, and expenses 73.1 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Scarce

B. Surplus
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
164. Income part of budget of area N was 42.7 billion UAH, and expenses 42.8 billion UAH. This budget
will be considered
A. * Scarce
B. Surplus
C. Balanced
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
165. Income part of budget of area N was 43 billion UAH, and expenses 43 billion UAH. This budget will
be considered
A. * Balanced
B. Surplus
C. Scarce
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
166. Income part of budget of area N was 26 billion UAH, and expenses 26 billion UAH. This budget will
be considered
A. * Balanced
B. Surplus
C. Scarce
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
167. Income part of budget of area N was 51 billion UAH, and expenses 51 billion UAH. This budget will
be considered
A. * Balanced
B. Surplus
C. Scarce
D. Executed
E. Outstanding
168. Define how the price of goods and services will change if velocity of money doubles, and the
quantity of goods sold does not change?
A. * Price doubles
B. Price will halve
C. Price does not change
D. Price will quadruple
E. Price will quarter
169. Define how price of the goods and services will change if velocity of money doubles, and the
quantity of goods sold doubles?
A. * Price won't change
B. Price will double
C. Price will halve
D. Price will quadruple
E. Price will quarter
170. Define how money volume will change if velocity of money doubles, and the quantity of goods sold
and their prices does not change?

A. * Money volume will halve

B. Money volume will double
C. Money volume won't change
D. Money volume will quarter
E. Money volume will quadruple
171. A student has 1000 dollars and is thinking about the best way to use it: to deposit it in a bank and, in
a year, to receive 1120 dollars, or to spend it immediately lest it gets consumed by inflation of 14%
yearly. Which way to use the money is more favourable?
A. * It is better to spend it at once
B. It is better to put it in bank
C. It is better to spend it gradually
D. It is better to spend it during the year
E. It is better to exchange it to hryvnia
172. A student has 1000 dollars and is thinking about the best way to use it: to deposit it in a bank and, in
a year, to receive 1120 dollars, or to spend it immediately lest it gets consumed by inflation of 14%
yearly. What is bank rate?
A. * 12% (120 ? 100/1000)
B. 14% (140 ? 100/1000)
C. 112% (1120 ? 100/1000)
D. 20% (200 ? 100/1000)
E. 10% (100 ? 100/1000)
173. A student has 1000 dollars and is thinking about the best way to use it: to deposit it in a bank and, in
a year, to receive 1200 dollars, or to spend it immediately lest it gets consumed by inflation of 10%
yearly. Which way to use the money is more favourable?
A. * It is better to put it in bank
B. It is better to spend it at once
C. It is better to spend it gradually
D. It is better to spend it during the year
E. It is better to exchange it to hryvnia
174. A student has 1000 dollars and is thinking about the best way to use it: to deposit it in a bank and, in
a year, to receive 1200 dollars, or to spend it immediately lest it gets consumed by inflation of 10%
yearly. What is bank rate?
A. * 20% (200 ? 100/1000)
B. 12% (120 ? 100/1000)
C. 14% (140 ? 100/1000)
D. 120% (1200 ? 100/1000)
E. 10% (100 ? 100/1000)
175. On what deposit is it more expedient to enclose means in the sum 1000 UAH at the exchange rate 1
USD = 8.1 UAH: USD at the simple rate of 14% for a year or UAH at the complex transfer rate of
8% for a half-year.
A. * USD
B. UAH
C. EUR
D. Urgent
E. Long-term
176. In 2009, demand for analginum pills increased by 12%, and the price grew by 4%. Define elasticity
of demand under the price.
A. * 3

B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 5
177. In 2008, demand for Corvalol pills increased by 16%, and the price grew by 14%. Define elasticity of
demand under the price.
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
178. In 2009, demand for nitroglycerine pills increased by 39%, and the price grew by 44%. Define
elasticity of demand under the price.
A. * 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
179. In 2008, demand for analginum pills increased by 12%, and the price grew by 4%. Define elasticity
of demand under the price.
A. * 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 5
180. ?In the past 5 years, increase in mortality from myocardial infarction is observed in region D.
Situation requires assessment of efficiency of cardiac hospitals in the region. Determine the unit of
observation in this case.
A. * Cardiology hospital
B. Case of hospitalization for cardiac hospital
C. Availability of diagnostic equipment in Cardiology hospital
D. Availability of cardiologists
E. Timely call for medical care to the cardiology hospital
181. Determine the unit of observation in the study of average length of hospital stay of patients with
appendectomy depending on the time of admission to hospital and clinical form of appendicitis.
A. * Patient with appendectomy
B. Patient admitted to hospital
C. Average length of stay of patient in hospital
D. Time of admission of patient
E. Clinical form of appendicitis
182. Determine the statistical unit of observation in the study of the impact of blood sugar on wound
surface healing in the postoperative period in 40 patients.
A. * Patient in the postoperative period
B. Amount of sugar
C. Blood test
D. Patient with wound surface
E. Patient discharged for follow-up care

183. In a pediatric clinic, incidence of children's allergic diseases was studied by copying data from
medical records. According to the research program, to create a sample, every third child
development history was selected in the registry office. Determine what method of forming a sample
was used by the researchers.
A. * Mechanical
B. Directional
C. Random
D. Typological
E. Serial
184. In 40 patients, the impact of blood sugar on wound surface healing in postoperative period was
determined. Determine the observation sign.
A. * Amount of sugar
B. Patient in postoperative period
C. Blood test
D. Patient with wound surface
E. Patient discharged for follow-up care
185. Polyclinic provides medical care for adults. In assessing its work, prevalence and structure of
diseases, average visits per person per year, load of doctors at outpatient reception, availability of
doctors and beds to population, etc. were calculated. Which of the indices is a ratio index?
A. * Availability of doctors and beds
B. Prevalence of diseases
C. Structure of diseases
D. Number of visits per person
E. Load of doctors at the outpatient reception
186. Rural outpatient clinic provides medical care to the population. In assessing its work, prevalence and
structure of diseases, average visits per person per year, load of doctors at outpatient reception,
availability of doctors and beds to population, etc. were calculated. Which of the following
performance index is intensive?
A. * Prevalence of diseases
B. Availability of doctors and beds
C. Structure of diseases
D. Number of visits per person
E. Load of doctors at the outpatient reception
187. In assessing the work of Town Polyclinic No 1 prevalence and structure of diseases, average visits
per person per year, load of doctors at outpatient reception, availability of doctors and beds to
population, etc. were calculated. Which of the indices is extensive?
A. * Structure of diseases
B. Prevalence of diseases
C. Availability of doctors and beds
D. Number of visits per person
E. Load of doctors at the outpatient reception
188. A town has 100,000 inhabitants. Of the 160 cases of infectious diseases 75 were flu cases. What
incidence index for influenza relative to all infectious diseases should be used?
A. * Extensive index
B. Intensive index
C. Relative intensity
D. Visualisation
E. Correlation

189. District N has 50,000 people. During the year, 7000 disease cases were registered. What index should
be used to characterize the prevalence of diseases among the population?
A. * Intensive index
B. Extensive index
C. Visualisation
D. Correlation
E. Standardization
190. When compared to last year, incidence of flu increased by 20%. What index is used for the
calculation?
A. * Visualisation
B. Relative intensity
C. Correlation
D. Intensive index
E. Extensive index
191. Town S has 100,000 people. 458 doctors work in the town's medical facilities. What index can be
calculated using the data?
A. * Correlation
B. Intensive index
C. Extensive index
D. Visualisation
E. Standardization
192. The population of Ukraine was: 2002 52 million, 2003 50 million, 2004 49 million, 2005 48.5
million, 2006 48 million, 2007 47 million, 2008 46.7 million people. How do you calculate
absolute increase in 2003?
A. * 50 52 = -2
B. It is impossible to calculate
C. 52 50 = 2
D. 50/52 ? 100 = 96.2
E. 49 52 = -3