in this

January 2016
ISSUE
FINAL punch 64
IBPS CWE - V Clerical Cadre Pre. & Main Exam

Syllabus & Tips for Exam

Revision Matter
Reasoning Ability | English Language
Quantitative Aptitude
Current Review
Mock Papers
Clerical Cadre (Pre.) Exam 2015
Banking & Economy Analysis 05
CRACK SET V 99 National Impact 15
Clerical Cadre (Main) Exam 2015 Around the World 25
CRACK SET IV 106
Science & Technology Buzz 34

Solved Paper SPORTS Scan 40

IBPS CWE-V PO/MT (Pre.) Exam 2015 118 NEWS Kit 47
Awards & Honours 56
Focus Study
7th Pay Commission Report Released 02 Check Yourself
10th G-20 Antalya Summit 03 Objective Current Affairs 59
Three Gold Schemes Launched 04
Portfolio & Persons 126

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7th Pay Commission Report Released
Variable Pay to Early Retirement...
n
Allowances relating to Risk and Hardship will
be governed by the newly proposed nine-cell
Risk and Hardship Matrix.
n
Introduction of a Health Insurance Scheme
for Central government employees and
pensioners has been recommended.
n
It recommends that in case of death in the line
of duty, the force personnel of CAPFs should
be accorded martyr status, at par with the
defence forces personnel.
n
A consolidated pay package of ` 450000 and
` 400000 per month for Chairpersons and
Members respectively of select
Regulatory bodies.
n
The age of superannuation for all CAPF
personnel should be 60 years uniformly.

BACKGROUND OF 7TH PAY

COMMISSION
The Seventh Pay Commission headed by Justice AK Mathur submitted its The 7th Central Pay Commission headed by
report on November 19, 2015 to Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, suggesting Justice AK Mathur was set-up on February 28,
23.55% hike in pay and allowances of government employees. 2014 by then Union government to revise
The report has put forth several recommendations such as increase in pay remuneration of employees and pensioners of
and allowances of 23.55%, a 24% rise in pensions and Central government including Defence
one-rank-one-pension for Central government employees as well as and Railways.
Paramilitary personnel along with host of other changes.
The other members of the Commission
MAJOR RECOMMENDATIONS wereVivek Rae (Full time member),
Dr. Ratin Roy (Part time member) and Meena
n
The minimum pay for government employees is recommended to be set at Agarwal (Secretary).
` 18000 per month.
The government constitutes the Pay
n
The maximum pay is recommended to be ` 225000 per month for Apex
Commission almost every 10 years to revise
Scale and 250000 per month for Cabinet Secretary and others presently at
the same pay level. the pay scale of its employees and often these
are adopted by States after some
n
The increase in pay will be 16%, increase in allowances will be 63% and modifications. The 6th Central Pay
increase in pension will be 24%.
commission was constituted under the
n
The present system of pay bands and grade pay has been dispensed and a Chairmanship of BN Srikrishna in
new pay matrix has been designed. Grade Pay has been subsumed in the pay October, 2006.
matrix. The status of the employee, determined by grade pay, will now be
determined by the level in the pay matrix. What is Pay Commission?
n
The rate of annual increment for employees will be 3%. Pay Commission is set-up intermittently by
government of India, and gives its
n
Abolition of 52 allowances and introduction of a Health Insurance Scheme.
recommendations regarding changes in
n
One Rank One Pension (OROP) proposed for civilian government salary structure of its employees. Since
employees on line of OROP for armed forces. Indias Independence, seven pay
n
Increase in Military Service Pay and revised pension formula for civil commissions have been set-up on a regular
employees including Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and Defence basis to review and make recommendations
on the work and pay structure of all civil and
Personnel retiring before January 1, 2016.
military divisions of the government of India.
n
Ceiling of gratuity enhanced from ` 10 lakh to ` 20 lakh and ceiling on Headquartered in Delhi, the Commission is
gratuity will be raised by 25% whenever DA rises by 50%. given 18 months from date of its constitution
n
Short service commissioned officers will be allowed to exit the armed forces to make its recommendations.
at any point in time between 7 to 10 years of service. The first pay commission was established in
n
A fitment factor of 2.57 which will be applied uniformly to all employees. January, 1946 and its submitted its report in
May, 1947 to the interim government
n
Systemic change in the process of Cadre Review for Group A officers of India.
recommended.

2 Bankin Guru January 2016

10th G-20 Antalya Summit
Inclusive and Robust Global Growth...
The G-20 Summit 2015 was held for two days on
November 15 and 16, 2015 at Regnum Carya Hotel
Convention Centre in Antalya, Turkey. It was the
10th summit since the inception of G-20 in 1999 and
held under the Turkish leadership. The summit was
attended by all the leaders of the G-20 including
Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
However, France President Francois Hollande
couldnt attend the summit as Paris came under a
coordinated terrorist attack on November 13, 2015
that killed around 130 civilians.
Besides urging for strong and coordinated actions
against climate change and terrorism, the G-20 has
reaffirmed its earlier goal of achieving 2% additional
GDP growth by 2018.
KEY HIGHLIGHTS
Economic Growth G-20 leaders noticed the risks and
uncertainties in financial markets and observed that
geopolitical challenges are increasingly becoming a
global problem. They have reaffirmed its earlier goal
of achieving 2% additional GDP growth by 2018.
Black Money and Corruption G-20 has developed a
package under the Base Erosion and Profit System
project to tackle the problem of transferring profits
to tax havens.
The project urges the automatic exchange of
tax-related information system and will come into
force by 2018.
G-20 leaders also called for intolerance to corruption
and collectively deny safe havens to illegally
acquired wealth.
Climate Change G-20 leaders reiterated from their
commitment to limit global temperature increase to
2Celsius above current levels as mentioned in the
Lima Call for Action. The fair and balanced outcome
in the Conference of Parties (CoP)-21 meet to be
held in Paris on the issue.
WTO G-20 leaders reinstated their faith on the World
Trade Organisation (WTO) as the backbone of the
multilateral trading system. They have urged WTO to
fully implement the Bali Package that aims at
lowering global trade barriers. G-20 leaders endorse
global food security measures.
Refugee Crisis It is a global concern and seeks to
encourage global contribution in managing the crisis.
IMF Reforms G-20 leaders seek to early
implementation of the International Monetary Funds
(IMF) governance reforms.
Remittance Front G-20 leaders seek to reduce the
charges for people to send money back home to 5%.
Terrorism G-20 leaders condemned terrorism and have
collectively resolved to choke terror funding and also
share information and take action for better border
management.
G-20 ANTALYA SUMMIT AND INDIA
The 2015 G-20 Antalya Summit accommodates several concerns
India which were raised in various multilateral forums. Being the
largest recipient of remittances, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
had insisted to lower the charges and it has been included in G-20
agenda which is considered a positive development.
The passage of collective movement under the Base Erosion and
Profit Shifting project on for tax evasion is also considered a
positive development in Indias fight to tackle menace of Black
Money. The summit also took note of Indias viewpoints on
various issues including trade, labour, infrastructure
and corruption.
OVERVIEW OF G-20
G-20 is a forum of the Heads of governments of the 19 major
economies and the EU for global cooperation on international
economic and financial issues. The European Union is represented
in G-20 by the President of the European Council. The forum has
come into existence with the first summit of the Leaders of G-20
held in Washington DC in November, 2008 in the wake of global
financial crisis. Subsequently, the forum met biannually in 2009
and 2010 and annually since 2011.
Frequently organised Leaders summits of G-20 in 2008, 2009 and
2010 resulted in a momentum of its influence because of
significant decisions that were taken to avert the impact of Global
financial crisis of 2008. Over the last few years of its existence,
G-20 has developed a system and process of working. G-20 does
not have any permanent Secretariat. The Presidency is held on
rotation by the member countries.
MEMBERS OF G-20
G-20 members include the G-8 countries, namely, the USA, Japan,
Germany, the UK, France, Italy, Canada and Russia; and the 11
emerging and developing countries, namely, Argentina, Australia,
Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Saudi Arabia, South Korea,
South Africa and Turkey; and the European Union (EU).
The European Union is represented by the President of the European
Council and by the European Central Bank. G-20 accounted for 90%
of the World GDP and nearly 80% of world trade in 2011. G-20
represents two-third of world population.
 Three Gold Schemes Launched
Channelisation of Domestic Gold Reserves...
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
launched three gold-related schemes
on November 5, 2015, namely the
Gold Monetisation Scheme, Sovereign
Gold Bond Scheme and the Gold
Coin and Bullion Scheme under
Swarna Bharat Yojana (SBY).
The primary purpose of the SBY is
to reduce dependence on imported
gold, recycle the unutilised gold in
the country and most importantly,
streamline the gold business in the
country. At present, India is the
largest consumer of gold in
the world.
The other purpose of the scheme is
to reduce the demand for physical
gold and to shift part of the
estimated 300 tonnes of physical
bars and coins purchased every year for investment
into Demat (Dematerialised) gold bonds.
The three schemes were announced by the Union
Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in his 2015-16 budget
speech in February, 2015.
GOLD MONETISATION SCHEME
(GMS)
Its objective is to mobilise unutilised gold from
individuals, households and institutions and make
them available to gold-base industries including
jewellers.
Features
n
Gold Monetisation Scheme can earn up to 2.50%
interest rate on their idle gold.
n
Interest rate on Medium and Long Term Government
Deposit (MLTGD) are 2.25% and 2.20%,
respectively.
n
The tenor of medium term would be between 5-7
years while long term would for 12-15 years tenure.
n
The deposit under MLTGD category will be accepted
by the designated banks on behalf of the Central
government.
n
Interest on deposits under the scheme will start
accruing from the date of conversion of gold deposited
into tradable gold bars after refinement or 30 days
after the receipt of gold at the Collection and Purity
Testing Centres (CPTC) or the banks designated
branch, as the case may be and whichever is earlier.
n
The principal and interest of the deposit under the
scheme will be denominated in gold.
n
The gold received under MLTGD will be auctioned
by the agencies notified by the government and the
sale proceeds will be credited to governments account
held with RBI.
SOVEREIGN GOLD
BOND SCHEME
The purpose of the scheme is to
reduce the demand for physical gold
and to shift part of the estimated
300 tonnes of physical bars and
coins purchased every year for
investment into Demat
(Dematerialised) gold bonds.
Features
n
The RBI has fixed the public issue
price of sovereign gold bonds at
` 2684 per gram.
n
These bonds will be issued in
denominations of 5, 10, 50 and
100 gram of gold or other
denominations.
n
The Bonds will be sold through
banks and designated post offices as may be notified.
n
The borrowing through issuance of Bond will form part of market
borrowing programme of government.
n
Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The Loan-to-Value (LTV)
ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the RBI
from time-to-time.
n
Know Your Customer (KYC) norms will be the same as that for
purchase of physical gold. KYC documents such as Voter ID,
Aadhaar Card/PAN or TAN /Passport will be required.
n
The Bonds will be eligible for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Commission for distribution shall be paid at the rate of 1% of the
subscription amount.
INDIAN GOLD COIN & BULLION SCHEME
n
Its purpose is to revive investment and reduce dependence on imports
of gold coins. At present, India has been importing about 60 tonnes
of gold coins annually that are sold at a premium of 8-10%.
n
Under the scheme, gold coins bearing the Ashok Chakra and
Mahatma Gandhi will be minted by the Security Printing and
Minting Corporation of India.
n
Initially, the coins will be available in denominations of 5 gm & 10 gm.
n
They will be sold through banks, post offices and State-run MMTC
Limited (Metals and Minerals Trading Corporation of India) which
will sell them through the World Gold Council (WGC).
COMMENTS
These policies are a step in the right direction and would allow for the
channelisation of the unutilised domestic gold reserves towards
supporting the countrys economic growth. The past few years have
witnessed an exponential increase in gold imports exerting tremendous
pressure on our current account.
With the schemes being rolled out we should be able to reduce our
gold imports. India imported ` 2.1 lakh crore worth of gold in financial
year 2014-15, according to Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy
(CMIE), not counting jewellery. So far, ` 1.12 lakh crore worth of gold
has been imported between April-September, 2015.
 CURRENT REVIEW

CBDT SIGNED 11 MORE UNILATERAL ADVANCE

PRICING AGREEMENTS
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has entered into 11 more unilateral
ABBREVIATIONS Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) with Indian subsidiaries on November 27, 2015
of foreign companies operating in various segments of the economy.
ABCI Association of Business Of the total eleven APAs, seven were having rollback provisions in them with
Communicators of India
maximum period of nine years, while the other four are extension agreements for
AIFI All India Financial Institution
future five years i.e., till 2020.
AML Anti-Money Laundering
With this, CBDT so far has entered into 31 APAs (30 unilateral and one bilateral) and
ANBC Adjusted Net Bank Credit
is now aiming to finalise another 30 to 40 APAs in order to provide stability and
BAFT Bankers Association for
Finance and Trade confidence among the foreign enterprises operating in India. APA usually is signed
BCSBI Banking Codes and
between a taxpayer and the central tax authority (in case of India it is CBDT) for
Standards Board of India multiple years on an appropriating transfer pricing methodology.
BFSI Banking Financial Services The APA Programme was introduced in 2012 as per the provisions of the Income Tax
and Insurance (IT) Act, 1961. It helps in determining the price and ensuing taxes on intra-group
CCIL Clearing Corporation of India overseas transactions.
Limited
CFMS Centralised Funds
Management System
INDIA LAUNCHED EQUITY FUND OF $ 1 BILLION FOR
CPDO Centralised Public Debt
RENEWABLE ENERGY
Office India has proposed to launch a $ 1 billion equity fund on November 26, 2015 to
DAPM Department of support renewable energy companies with seed capital from public sector units.
Administration and
Personnel Management Apart from the private equity fund, Minister of State (Independent Charge) Power,
ECB European Central Bank Coal and New & Renewable Energy, said that the country expects to collect $ 4
FCCB Foreign Currency billion a year in the next three-four years for the National Clean Energy Fund through
Convertible Bond a cess on coal mining. Since, the Narendra Modi-led government took charge last year,
FRL Fiscal Responsibility clean cess on coal mining has been quadrupled to ` 200 a tonne.
Legislation
New and Renewable Energy Secretary Upendra Tripathi had said in New Delhi earlier
HRDD Human Resources in 2015, that the Ministry is trying to get $ 2 billion from the World Bank and Asian
Development Department
Development Bank (ADB), which can be passed on to banks for financing projects on
IGIDR Indira Gandhi Institute of
Development Research soft rates of interest. Earlier in 2015, the International Finance Corporation (IFC), the
IPCC Inter-govermental Panel on
private financing arm of the World Bank, signed an agreement to partner Indian
Climate Change Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) to provide infrastructure financing
MFDEF Micro Finance Development for energy projects in India.
and Equity Fund
NIMSME National Institute for Micro,
Equity Fund
Small and Medium A EQUITY FUND IS A FUND THAT INVESTS IN STOCKS, ALSO CALLED EQUITY SECURITIES. FUND ASSETS
Enterprises ARE TYPICALLY MAINLY IN STOCK, WITH SOME AMOUNT OF CASH, WHICH IS GENERALLY QUITE SMALL,
AS OPPOSED TO BONDS, NOTES, OR OTHER SECURITIES.

5
10 NEW/REVISED SCHEMES FOR DISABLED
Terms for You
PERSONS UNDER THE NATIONAL TRUST
ADJUSTABLE-RATE MORTGAGES
Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment Thaawar Chand Gehlot (ARMS) Also known as variable-rate
has announced the launching of Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India mortgages. The initial interest rate is
Campaign), on December 3, 2015 by the Prime Minister. usually below that of conventional
The Minister was addressing a programme on the launching of new/revised fixed-rate loans. The interest rate may
schemes of National Trust for the welfare of persons with Autism, Cerebral change over the life of the loan as market
Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities in New Delhi. He also conditions change. There is typically a
maximum (or ceiling) and a minimum (or
announced that number of categories of disability will also be increased from
floor) defined in the loan agreement. If
7 to 19, so that more number of disabled could be brought into the ambit of interest rates rise, so does the loan
governments new initiatives. payment. If interest rates fall, the loan
payment may as well.
List of Schemes
SAMARTH Respite Care Scheme ANYWHERE BANKING It refers to
banking not only by ATMs, tele-banking
NIRAMAYA Health Insurance Scheme
and internet banking, but also to core
GYAN PRABHA Educational support Scheme banking solutions brought in by banks
GHARAUNDA Group Home for Adults Scheme where customer can deposit his money,
BADHTE KADAM Awareness and Community Interaction Scheme cheques and also withdraw money from
any branch connected with the system. All
PRERNA Marketing Assistance Scheme
major banks in India have brought in core
SAMBHAV Aids and Assisted Devices Scheme banking in their operations to make
SAHYOGI Caregiver training scheme banking truly anywhere banking.
DISHA Early Intervention and School Readiness Scheme FINANCIAL INCLUSION It is a delivery
VIKAAS Day Care Scheme of banking services at an affordable cost
to the vast section of disadvantage or low
TECHNOLOGY ACQUISITION & DEVELOPMENT income group or this is a facility provided
FUND LAUNCHED by the banking sector to connect each and
every individual to the financial network
The Union government launched the Technology Acquisition and and the main component of this financial
Development Fund (TADF) under the National Manufacturing Policy, inclusion is no-full account and
2011 on November 18, 2015. The TADF was launched by Minister of State simplification of KYC.
for Commerce & Industry Nirmala Sitharaman. KYC NORMS Know Your Customer
While launching this scheme, the Commerce Minister hoped that the norms are imposed by Reserve Bank of
Scheme would facilitate acquisition of clean & green technologies by micro, India on banks and other financial
small and medium units across the sectors and thus, bridge the technological institutions to ensure that they know their
gap at an affordable cost. The Scheme is conceptualised to catalyse the customers and to ensure that customers
deal only in legitimate banking operations
manufacturing growth in MSME sector to contribute to the national focus
and not in money laundering or frauds.
of Make in India.
MERCHANT BANKING In banking, a
Under the Scheme, which would be implemented through Global Innovation merchant bank is a traditional term for an
and Technology Alliance (GITA), a joint venture company, support to MSME investment bank. It can also be used to
units is envisaged by the following describe the private equity activities' of
Direct Support for Technology Acquisition Proposals from Indian industry will banking developed by merchants, from the
be invited for reimbursement of 50% of technology transfer fee or ` 20 lakh, Middle Ages onwards.
whichever is lower. SMART CARD Smart Card or Chip card
Indirect Support for Technology Acquisition through Patent Pool Financial or Integrated circuit card is defined as a
support will be provided in acquiring of technology/Patent from across the Globe pocket sized card with embedded
based on applications received from MSMEs. Technology/ Patent will be licensed integrated circuit which can process
to selected companies, with a mutually agreed value and the selected information. This is a card with all personal
companies will get a subsidy of 50% of the mutually agreed value or ` 20 lakh. information of any individual in financial
Technology/Equipment Manufacturing Subsidies The fund will support, via and Money Market.
subsidies, manufacturing of equipment/machines/devices for controlling pollution, VISA CARD Visa Card is a type of debit
reducing energy consumption and water conservation. The manufacturing units will card on Visa network. It has VISA logo and
be provided with a subsidy of up to 10% of capital expenditure incurred on new can be accepted to pay for the things and
plant & machinery subject to a maximum of ` 50 lakh. the money is drawn directly from your
Green ManufacturingIncentive Scheme The scheme will facilitate resource account. These are the debit cards, which
conservation activities in industries located in NIMZ through the introduction of are subject to a daily limit, and/or a
incentive/subsidy schemes for energy/environmental/water audits, construction of maximum limit equal to the
green buildings, implementation of waste treatment facilities and implementation of current/checking account balance from
renewable energy projects through financial support under the TADF. which it draws funds.

6
PMGSY SCHEME DEADLINE
ADVANCED TO 2019
The Cabinet on November 23, 2015
advanced the deadline for completion of rural
connectivity through all- weather roads under
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(PMGSY) by three years from 2022 to 2019.
The government has also decided to the
annual allocation of the Central release for
PMGSY works during year 2015-16 by
` 5000 crore and with this the total Central
allocation to States would now be ` 15100
crore.
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(PMGSY) is a nationwide plan in India to
provide good all-weather road connectivity to
unconnected villages. It is under the authority
of the Ministry of Rural Development.
This Centrally-sponsored Scheme was
introduced in 2000 by the then Prime
Minister of India Atal Bihari Vajpayee and
Prabhjot Singh.
By providing enhanced financial allocation
through a modified funding pattern in the
PMGSY scheme, government is seeking to
accelerate the implementation of rural
connectivity.
GOVERNING COUNCIL OF
NIIF CONSTITUTED
With a view to maximising economic impact
mainly through infrastructure development in
commercially viable projects, both greenfield
and brownfield, including stalled projects, the
government has approved the creation of
National Investment and Infrastructure
Fund (NIIF) on November 13, 2015.
It aims to attract investment from both
domestic and international sources. It was
approved by the Union Cabinet on July 23,
2015 with an initial corpus of ` 20000 crore.
A contributory and determinate investment
trust called National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund (the Fund or the Trust) An empowered committee comprising officials from various ministries,
under the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act,
1882 has been registered.
It will be chaired by the Union Finance
Minister.
Other members are as follows
n
Arundhati Bhattacharya
n
Hemendra Kothari
n
TV Mohandas Pai
n
Secretary (DEA)
n
Secretary (Financial Services)
TENURE OF LAHIRI PANEL EXTENDED BY
ONE YEAR
Finance Minister of India has extended the
tenure of the high level committee on
November 12, 2015 to interact with trade and
industry on taxation policies by one year and to
suggest steps to sort out taxation problem being
faced by the trade and industry. Earlier, tenure
of the Committee was till November 25, 2015,
is now further extended for one year.
The Committee was set-up in November, 2014 consists of Sidhartha
Pradhan, retired member, Settlement Commission (Income Tax & Wealth
Tax) and Gautam Ray, retired DG (Audit) Customs and Central Excise
and is headed by former Chief Economic Adviser to the Finance Ministry
Ashok Lahiri.
The panel will continue to interact with trade and industry on regular basis
and recommend measures to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
and the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) such as issuing
clarificatory instructions and circulars.
0.5% SWACHH BHARAT CESS ON SERVICES
FROM NOVEMBER, 2015
The government notified levy of Swachh Bharat cess at the rate of 0.5% on
all taxable services on November 6, 2015 to be effective from
November 15, 2015. A Swachh Bharat Cess of 0.5% on all services, which
come under the purview of Service Tax, and will result into a tax of
50 paisa only on every ` 100 worth of taxable services.
According to the Finance Ministry, the cess will create funds for financing
and promoting Swachh Bharat initiatives. The Cess is not just another tax,
but a step towards involving each and every citizen in making contribution
to Swachh Bharat.
A provision was made in current financial years Budget for levying a
Swachh Bharat Cess on all or any of the services for the purposes of
financing and promoting Swachh Bharat initiatives. Increased allocation for
the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan can prevent many of diseases including malaria,
dengue, diarrhea and jaundice with consequential benefit to one and all.
According to the government estimates, expenditure on health adds up to
` 6700 crore annually or ` 60 per capita on medical treatment. Swachh
Bharat Abhiyan is a national campaign by the government of India. The
campaign was officially launched on October 2, 2014 at Rajghat, New
Delhi, where Prime Minister Narendra Modi himself cleaned the road.
GOVERNMENT FORMED PANEL TO APPROVE
SCHEMES UNDER NIRBHAYA FUND
including Women and Child Development, Home Affairs, Road Transport
and Railways, has been constituted to approve schemes proposed under the
Nirbhaya Fund, Finance Ministry said on November 4, 2015.
The government in April, 2015 has made the Women and Child
Development (WCD) Ministry the nodal agency for the Nirbhaya Fund in
place of Home Ministry, which could utilise only 1% of the pool set-up
after the December 16, 2012 brutal gang-rape.
Secretary, Women and Child Development Ministry, will be the
Chairperson of the committee. The Nirbhaya Fund has a total of ` 3000
crore as ` 1000 crore each was allocated to it in 2014-15 and 2015-16 on
top of ` 1000 crore initial corpus.
7
GOVERNMENT APPROVED 16 FDI INDIA IS WORLDS LARGEST
PROPOSALS REMITTANCE RECIPIENT
The government has cleared 16 foreign investment proposals on The World Bank announced that India is the Worlds
October 29, 2015, including those of HDFC Capital and Ageon largest remittance recipient. Remittances to India are
Religare Life Insurance Company, amounting to ` 4722 crore. projected to increase by 2.5% this year (2015), the
The investment proposals were approved following the World Bank has said in its latest report, even as weak
recommendation by the Foreign Investment Promotion Board economies in Europe, especially Russia, are slowing the
(FIPB), headed by Economic Affairs Secretary Shaktikant Das. growth of remittance flows.
According to the Reserve Bank of India on October 27,
FDI Limits in Various Sectors of India
2015, about 35% of remittances to India originate in
Sectors with 100% FDI Limits North America, and another 35% in the Gulf
Advertising Agriculture Cooperation Council (GCC) countries.
Courier Services Drugs and Pharmaceuticals
In 2014, overall remittances to developing countries
Electricity Films and Studios
grew 3.3% while those to India increased just 0.6%.
Hotel and Tourism Housing and Real Estate
Mining (Gold and Silver) Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)
The Reserve Bank of Indias (RBI) recent
initiative-granting in-principle approval to 11 entities to
Railways Road, Highways, Ports and Harbours
start payment banks-is expected to transform the
Tourism Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
remittance market especially in the underserved
Sectors with 74% FDI Limits
rural areas.
Airports Broadcasting
Coal and Lignite Credit Information Companies Meaning of Remittance
Direct To Home (DTH) Mining (Diamonds & Precious Stones) Remittance refers to the portion of migrant income that, in
Satellites Private Sector Banking the form of either funds or goods, flows back into the
Sectors with 49% FDI Limits country of origin, primarily to support families back home.
Airlines/Aviation Defence The greater share of these largely monetary flows benefits
Insurance Pension developing countries.
Sectors with 26% FDI Limits In the last few decades the volume of migrants remittances
Print Media (Newspaper26%) FM Radio
worldwide has risen steadily (in nominal and relative terms)
(Scientific & Periodicals100%) and currently represents a substantial source of revenue for
Sectors with 20% FDI Limits many poor States.
Public Sector Banks
INCREASE OF FINANCIAL
TAXATION OF INCOME FROM ASSISTANCE UNDER RASHTRIYA
OFF-SHORE RUPEE DENOMINATED AROGYA NIDHI
BONDS The government has
decided to enhance the
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently permitted Indian
financial powers delegated
corporates to issue rupee denominated bonds outside India. The
to designated Central
matter of taxation of income from such bonds under Income-tax
government-run hospitals
Act, 1961 has been considered by the government.
from ` 2 lakh to ` 5 lakh
In so far as taxation of interest income from these INR off-shore on October 26, 2015, for
bonds in the case of non-resident investors is concerned, it is providing financial
clarified that withholding tax at the rate of 5%, which is in the assistance under Rashtriya
nature of final tax, would be applicable in the same way as it is Arogya Nidhi (RAN) in
applicable for off-shore dollar denominated bonds. cases where emergency
Further, it has been decided on October 29, 2015 that the surgery is to be conducted.
Capital gains, arising in case of appreciation of rupee between the The government also provides financial assistance
date of Issue and the date of redemption against the foreign through the Health Ministers Cancer Patient Fund
currency in which the investment is made, would be exempted (HMCPF) set-up for providing financial assistance to the
from capital gains tax. Legislative amendment in this regard will poor patients suffering from cancer having treatment in
be proposed through the Finance Bill, 2016. 27 Regional Cancer Centres (RCC).
Capital Gain Financial assistance is also available under the Health
A CAPITAL GAIN MAY BE SHORT-TERM (ONE YEAR OR LESS) OR LONG-TERM Ministers Discretionary Grant (HMDG) to patients
(MORE THAN ONE YEAR) AND MUST BE CLAIMED ON INCOME TAXES. AN having family annual income up to ` 100000 and below
INCREASE IN THE VALUE OF A CAPITAL ASSET (INVESTMENT OR REAL ESTATE) to defray a part of the expenditure on
THAT GIVES IT A HIGHER WORTH THAN THE PURCHASE PRICE. THE GAIN IS hospitalisation/treatment in government Hospitals, in
NOT REALISED UNTIL THE ASSET IS SOLD. cases where free medical facilities are not available.

8
SIN TAX TO BE IMPOSED ON
ALCOHOL, TOBACCO DURING
GST REGIME
Sin Tax has been included on October 25, 2015
under the proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST)
law that will be effective from April 1, 2016.
GST is being seen as one of the biggest tax reforms in
the country. Alcohol and tobacco industries will have
to pay more taxes towards an additional sin tax
under the proposed GST structure that seeks to bring
in a uniform indirect tax regime across the country.
Typically, sin tax is an excise tax that is levied on
products and services considered to be bad for health
or society such as alcohol, tobacco and gambling.
These additional taxes are seen as efforts to discourage
people from use of unhealthy products or services.
Government can use these taxes to political advantage
as they can say they are placing the taxes to act as an
incentive to stop smoking or stop excess alcohol
consumption. Higher the sin tax means higher
government revenues as these are the products which
will always be consumed.
BANKING
UBI TIED-UP WITH
MAHARASHTRA FOR OTC
TAX COLLECTION
In November, 2015, State-run Union Bank of India
(UBI) has tied-up with Maharashtra for
Over-The-Counter (OTC) collection of taxes and
receipts. The bank has integrated its core banking
with the Maharashtra virtual treasury, Government
Receipt Accounting System (GRAS), to facilitate
OTC tax collection, which will provide one more
mode of payment for convenience of tax payers and
the State.
GRAS is a facility of Payment Across the Bank
Counter is make available (with limited Banks) for
those who do not have net banking account with
Bank participating in GRAS.
Characteristics of GRAS
n
This is a 24 7 facility and citizen can make the
payment any time of the day.
n
Online Filling of single challan form facilitates
minimum fields of the challan to be filled.
n
Instant online receipts for payment made and instant
online banks transaction number becomes available.
n
One can pay personal taxes as well as behalf of the
firm,company and others.
Union Bank of India (UBI) is one of the largest
government-owned banks of India. It was registered on
November 11, 1919 as a limited company in Mumbai
and was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi. The
government nationalised it in 1969.
EMIRATES BANK, SBI JOIN HANDS FOR
EASIER REMITTANCES
A leading UAE-based bank has announced a partnership deal on
November 10, 2015 with State Bank of India to help NRI
customers in the gulf carry out their remittances instantly and more
conveniently.
Emirates NBD has expanded its partner bank network in India to
include State Bank of India (SBI) for the Direct Remit 60 seconds
remittance platform. With this partnership, the banks
Non-Resident Indian (NRI) customers who also bank with SBI can
now avail themselves of the fastest remittance service in the UAE
more easily.
The tie-up with SBI will help strengthen Emirates NBDs
DirectRemit platform which is set to benefit a large additional
customer base in the UAE.
The partnership will allow fund transfers to SBI bank accounts
across India in 60 seconds at zero fees. Emirates NBD currently has
existing tie-ups with HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank and Axis Bank
in India.
TWO COOPERATIVE URBAN BANKS FINED
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a penalty of ` 1 lakh
on Chaitanya Cooperative Urban Bank Limited (Dilsukh Nagar,
Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh) for violation of guidelines/directives
on loans and advances to directors and their relatives on October 30,
2015.
The RBI had issued a show-cause notice to the bank, in response to
which the bank submitted a written reply. After considering the
facts of the case and the banks reply in the matter, the apex bank
concluded that the violations were substantiated and warranted
imposition of penalty, according to a release. Another bank,
Madanapelly Cooperative Town Bank Limited (Madanapalle,
Andhra Pradesh) has also been fined for similar irregularities.
EXIM BANK SETS-UP PROJECT
DEVELOPMENT FIRM IN AFRICA
Indias EXIM Bank said on
October 27, 2015, it will set-up
the Kukuza Project Development
Company (KPDC) in Africa, in
partnership with others, to
facilitate Indian participation in
infrastructure projects across the
continent.
The KPDCs setting-up was announced on October 26, 2015 by
the banks deputy Managing Director David Rasquinha, it said in a
release on the second day of the India-Africa Forum Summit.
Other shareholders in the company are the IL&FS Group, the
African Development Bank and the State Bank of India. KPDC will
synergise the strengths of every partner, who will complement each
other in building Indian project exports while simultaneously aiding
the development of economic and political ties between India
and Africa. The company will be operational from first quarter of
2016, EXIM Bank said. Export-Import (EXIM) Bank of India is the
premier export finance institution in India, established in 1982
under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981.
9
RBI ACTIVITIES
FIFTH BI-MONTHLY MONETARY
POLICY REVIEW
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) presented its fifth
bi-monthly monetary policy review on December 1,
2015 and has maintained status quo in key policy
interest rate. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
kept the policy repo rate under the Liquidity
Adjustment Facility (LAF) unchanged at 6.75% at
its fifth bi-monthly monetary policy review.
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of scheduled banks
was also maintained unchanged at 4.0% of net
demand and time liability (NDTL).
NDTL is sum of demand and time liabilities
(deposits) of banks with public and other banks
wherein assets with other banks is subtracted to get
net liability of other banks.
Deposits of banks are its liability and consist of
demand and time deposits of public and other
banks. Demand and time deposits from public form
the largest part of bank deposits.
GRANTED IN-PRINCIPLE
APPROVAL FOR TREDS
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on November 24,
2015 granted in-principle approval to three
applicants to set-up and operate Trade Receivables
Discounting System (TReDS). The three
organisations have been asked to set and operate
TReDS in accordance to the Guidelines issued on
December 3, 2014 under the Payment and
Settlement System (PSS) Act 2007.
Three entities including Axis Bank, Gurgaon-based
Mynd Solutions and a joint bid by NSE Strategic
Investment Corporation Limited and Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI) have been
granted in-principle approval for setting-up Trade
Receivables Discounting System (TReDS).
While seven entities had applied, 4 companies
including Trade Receivables Exchange and NSDL
Database Management Limited did not make the cut.
First announced in the Union Budget 2015-16, the
use of TReDS is meant to improve flow of funds to
Micro, Small and Medium enterprises (MSME)
sector by reducing the receivables realisation cycles.
TReDS will allow SMEs to post their receivables on
the system and get them financed. This will not
only give them greater access to finance but will also
put greater discipline on corporates to pay their dues
on time.
The in-principle approval granted will be valid for
a period of 6 months, during which time the
applicants have to comply with the requirements
under the guidelines and fulfil other
RBI conditions.
10
GRANTED IN-PRINCIPLE APPROVAL
TO NPCI
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to grant in-principle
approval on November 24, 2015 to the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) to function as the Bharat Bill Payment
Central Unit (BBPCU) in BBPS. The Bharat Bill Payment System
(BBPS), an integrated bill payment system, will function as a tiered
structure for operating the bill payment system in the country with a
single brand image providing convenience of anytime anywhere bill
payment to customers.
As the central unit, NPCI will set necessary operational, technical and
business standards for the entire system and its participants, and also
undertake clearing and settlement activities. The present scope of
BBPS will include utility bill payments, such as, electricity, water, gas,
telephone and Direct-to-Home (DTH).
Based on the experience, this would be extended to include other
types of repetitive payments, like school/university fees, municipal
taxes etc. in future. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
was incorporated in December, 2008 and the Certificate of
Commencement of Business was issued in April, 2009.
ALLOWED REGIONAL RURAL BANKS TO
LAUNCH INTERNET BANKING
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed strong Regional Rural
Banks (RRBs) to launch online transaction through internet banking,
an essential product in new-age banking on November 18, 2015.
Profitable RRBs with minimum ` 100 crore networth and better asset
quality will be allowed to offer this service.
With a view to enhancing customer service and taking into account
demand for such services, it has been decided to allow RRBs to
extend the facility of internet banking to their customers.
Banks with capital adequacy ratio over 10% will be allowed to
introduce the online transaction services. They need to have their gross
NPA ratio less than 7% and their net NPA should not exceed 3%. The
bank should have made a net profit in the immediatepreceding
financial year and overall, should have made net profit at least in three
out of the preceding four financial years. Weak banks will be allowed to
offer internet services (view only) without online transaction facilities.
IMPOSED ` 1 CRORE PENALTY ON
DHANLAXMI BANK
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed ` 1 crore penalty on
Dhanlaxmi Bank for violation of Know Your Customer (KYC) and
Anti Money Laundering (AML) norms on November 5, 2015.
It had issued a Show Cause Notice to the bank for not complying
with KYC and AML guidelines in respect of a current account under
investigation of the Economic Offences Wing (EOW), Mumbai. In
a statement, the Central bank said the penalty has been imposed
taking into account the violation of the instructions/directions/
guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank from time-to-time.
Dhanlaxmi Bank Limited is an old private sector bank headquartered
in Thrissur City, Kerala, India. Dhanalakshmi Bank Limited was
incorporated on November 14, 1927 at Thrissur city, Kerala with a
capital of 11000 and 7 employees. It became a Scheduled
Commercial Bank in the year 1977. The bank has changed its name
from Dhanalakshmi Bank to Dhanlaxmi Bank on August 10, 2010.
ISSUED UNIFORM GUIDELINES ON
INTERNET BANKING FOR
COOPERATIVE BANKS
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed State Cooperative Banks
(StCBs) and District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) to offer
internet banking with view only facility on November 6, 2015.
Besides, internet banking with view only facility is allowed to be
given by all UCBs complying with certain conditions, without
RBIs approval.
The new guidelines says that all StCBs, DCCBs and UCBs that
have implemented Core Banking Solution (CBS) and migrated to
Internet Protocol Version 6 may offer internet banking (view only)
facility to their customers, without prior approval of the RBI.
In case any service offered under view only facility requires
two-factor authentication or One Time Password (OTP). Facility is
strictly for non-transactional services such as balance enquiry,
balance viewing, account statement download, request for supply of
cheque books, etc. and no online fund-based transactions
are allowed.
The cooperative banks offering internet banking (view only) facility
to their customers should ensure that the facility is strictly for
non-transactional services.
INCLUDED BANDHAN BANK IN SECOND
SCHEDULE LIST
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said on November 5, 2015 that
newly launched Bandhan Bank has been included in the second
schedule list, making it eligible for loans from the Central bank at
bank rate.
Besides, Industrial Bank of Korea and Korea Exchange Bank
Company Limited have been included in the second schedule.
A scheduled bank is eligible for loans from the RBI at bank rate.
They are also given membership to clearing houses. Bandhan Bank
is the first instance of a micro-finance entity in India transforming
into a universal bank.
It received an in-principle approval from the RBI in April, 2014 and
the banking regulator's final nod on June 17, 2015. Bandhan Bank
is a Kolkata based bank. Founder is Chandra Shekar Ghosh and
Chairman, Ashok Kumar Lahiri.
ALLOWED COMPANIES TO ISSUE RUPEE
BONDS ABROAD
The RBI has granted permission on October 28, 2015 to the Indian
corporate to issue rupee denominated bonds outside India.
Rupee-denominated bond will be issued and payable in rupee but
the repayment value will be linked to the US$/INR exchange rate. If
rupee depreciates then repayment value increases and so the recent
weakness in rupee may make these rupee-linked investments more
attractive.
Overseas investors are allowed to invest $ 51 billion in Indian
corporate bonds issues, and Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)
have already used 78% of this limit.
Currently, every corporate can raise up to $ 750 million via External
Commercial Borrowings (ECB) automatic route, but it needs to
seek approval for any sum higher than this.
ALLOWED UP TO 74% FOREIGN
INVESTMENT IN DEN NETWORKS
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed foreign
investors to raise their stake up to 74% in DEN
Networks on October 26, 2015.
DEN Networks Limited has passed resolutions at its
Board of Directors level and a special resolution by
the shareholders, agreeing for enhancing the limit for
the purchase of its equity shares and convertible
debentures by Foreign Institutional Investors
(FIIs)/Registered Foreign Portfolios Investors (RFPIs)
and Persons of Indian Origins (PIOs) can invest in
primary and secondary capital markets in India
through Portfolio Investment Scheme (PIS).
RBI monitors the ceilings on FII/NRI/PIO
investments in Indian companies on a daily basis and
has fixed the cut-off points two percentage points
lower than the actual ceiling.
Rule and Regulation of Purchasing
The purchases could be made through primary market
and stock exchanges. The purchases would be subject to
Regulation of FEMA Notification and other terms and
conditions stipulated by the RBI. The Reserve Bank of
India notified this under Foreign Exchange
Management Act (FEMA), 1999. DEN Networks
Limited is Indias largest cable TV distribution company.
The company has approximately 6 million digital
subscribers and founded in 2007.
BANGLADESH BANK-RBI INKED
MOU ON INFORMATION
EXCHANGE
The Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), signed the
Memorandum of
Understandings (MoU)
on Supervisory
Cooperation and
Exchange of Supervisory
Information with the
Bangladesh Bank,
Peoples Republic of
Bangladesh on
October 26, 2015.
The MoU was signed by Md. Saiful Islam, Executive
Director on behalf of Bangladesh Bank and Meena
Hemchandra, Executive Director on behalf of the
Reserve Bank of India at the Central Office of
Reserve Bank in Mumbai.
With this, RBI has signed 30 such MoUs, one Letter
for Supervisory Cooperation and one Statement of
Cooperation, the Central bank said in the release.
Bangladesh Bank is the Central bank of Bangladesh
and is a member of the Asian Clearing Union.
Bangladesh Bank came into existence retroactively
from December 16, 1971.
11
SEBI
CLEARED FRAMEWORK ON
GREEN BONDS
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
is set to unveil rules on monitoring the end use of
green bonds on November 26, 2015, and might
propose incentives for companies to issue them at
its board meeting on November 30, 2015. It will
also be a major step to support the governments
commitment towards reducing carbon footprint.
Green bonds are like any other bonds, the only
difference being that they invest only in
environment-friendly projects. Such projects
typically are in areas such as renewable energy,
waste management, clean transportation,
sustainable water management and climate
change adaptation.
Earlier, this year (2015), lenders including Yes Bank
and Export Import (EXIM) Bank did green bond
issuances in the overseas market. Lack of regulation
has forced a majority of Indian players to tap the
market abroad for green bonds.
Bond
A BOND IS AN INSTRUMENT OF INDEBTEDNESS OF THE BOND
ISSUER TO THE HOLDERS. IT IS A DEBT SECURITY, UNDER
WHICH THE ISSUER OWES THE HOLDERS A DEBT AND,
DEPENDING ON THE TERMS OF THE BOND, IS OBLIGED TO PAY
THEM INTEREST (THE COUPON) AND/OR TO REPAY THE
PRINCIPAL AT A LATER DATE, TERMED THE MATURITY DATE.
SIGNED AGREEMENT
WITH BSEC
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
signed Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) on
November 22, 2015 with the Bangladesh Securities
and Exchange Commission (BSEC) on bilateral
cooperation and technical assistance.
The MoU seeks to promote further development of
economic links and cooperation between the two
and aims at enhancing investor protection and
creating conditions for effective development of
securities markets in both countries.
The SEBI has been actively engaging with the
regulators in the SAARC region. The regulator has
already signed 20 bilateral MoUs with other
countries.
The Bangladesh Securities and Exchange
Commission (BSEC) is the regulator of the capital
market of Bangladesh, comprising Dhaka Stock
Exchange (DSE) and Chittagong Stock Exchange
(CSE).
The Commission is a statutory body and attached
to the Ministry of Finance. BSEC was established
on June 8, 1993 under the Securities and Exchange
Commission Act, 1993.
12
CORPORATE
E-LALA PORTAL FOR SMALL TRADERS
With an aim of promoting interests of 5.77
crore small businesses, an online portal
e-Lala was launched on November 23,
2015 to promote business-to-business and
trader-to-customer transactions and
reduce costs.
Urban Development Minister M. Venkaiah
Naidu inaugurated e-lala, an e-commerce
portal of Confederation of All India Traders
(CAIT).
Naidu complimented CAIT for e-lala initiative which is aimed at
promoting the interests of 5.77 crore small businesses in the context
of rapid expansion of e-commerce in the country. MasterCard and
HDFC Bank have partnered with the portal to provide digital
payment solutions.
E-lala, a city and location based portal, seeks to promote
business-to-business and trader-to-customer transactions in a city and
thereby eliminating middlemen and resulting in reduced cost of goods
and services.
FACEBOOK AND BSNL PARTNERED FOR
RURAL AREA
US-based social networking giant Facebook announced on
October 31, 2015, of partnership with state-owned Bharat Sanchar
Nigam Limited (BSNL) to create 100 WiFi hotspots in rural areas of
western and Southern India.
During the partnership, Facebook will invest ` 5 crore per annum for
buying bandwidth from BSNL. The hotspots will be set-up by BSNL
selected vendor Quad Zen and Trimax.
Under the joint initiative, Facebook has chosen 100 villages to
provide Wi-Fi hotspots on a revenue-sharing model. The social media
major will spend ` 5 lakh per site a year for buying bandwidth from
BSNL for a period of three years. BSNL expects to complete the WiFi
rollout by December 31, 2015.
NDRF TIED-UP WITH 30 PSUS TO
TACKLE DISASTERS
The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), countrys elite
disaster mitigation combat force, has tied-up with about 30 PSUs on
October 25, 2015, in order to develop mutual understanding and
enhance capabilities to jointly tackle man-made or natural
emergencies.
A coordination meeting in this regard was held recently here between
the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) and prominent Public
Sector Undertakings like ONGC, GAIL, Air India and those in the
mining and shipping and heavy industries sector.
NDRF is Indias elite disaster mitigation combat force established
under The Disaster Management Act, 2005. Established in 2006 and
headquarter in New Delhi.
Major function of NDRF is to undertake relief and rescue operations
in the case of an event of any disaster (natural or man-made), accident
or emergency. Functions under the aegis of Union Ministry of
Home Affairs.
STOCK EXCHANGE
SIC GLOBAL LAUNCHED STOCKAL
SIC Global a Bangalore based brokerage launched, Indias first mobile-based platform Stockal on November 12, 2015 to
facilitate global investments for domestic retail investors. This app aggregates, curates and analyses information for more than
6000 stocks listed in US from various online sources such as analyst platforms, social media, news websites, blogs and
discussion forums. This analysis is converted into signals and indicators that enable efficient decision making. With this app,
retail investor can now hedge their books and portfolio by trading the same stock in global market as American Depository
Receipt (ADR).

RIL FIRST CORPORATE TO SIGN REVISED LISTING PACT WITH BSE

Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) became the first corporate to sign the revised listing agreement on October 27, 2015 with
the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and the National Stock Exchange (NSE) as mandated under the newly introduced Listing
Regulation notified by SEBI.
Earlier, the listing agreement was a bilateral agreement between the stock exchange and the company and market regulatory
SEBI didnt have regulations on this. Thus, each companys agreement with stock exchange could be at variance and lacking
the full force of SEBIs rigour.
The SEBI last month came out with such regulations and a 6 month deadline for all companies in which it prescribed the
listing agreement. As part of the Listing Regulations, SEBI has mandated all existing listed entities to execute a fresh and
simplified Listing Agreement with the stock exchange where they are listed, within six months of the notification date of
September 2, 2015.

Agreement Between
Suzuki Motorcycle India has
tied-up with online marketplace
Snapdeal (November 27, 2015)
IRCTC and Food Panda
(November 24, 2015)
Titan Co and HP
(November 21, 2015)
Airports Authority of India (AAI)
signed a MoU with IL&FS Global
Financial Services
(November 20, 2015)
NCML and AFGRI
(November 8, 2015)
Andhra Pradesh signed MoU
with WEF
(November 4, 2015)
Punjab Government signed MoU
to set-up Bio-ethanol Refinery
(October 31, 2015)
Agreements
Related Facts
Agreement for the sales of its vehicles. As an initial launch offer, buyers who purchase Suzuki vehicles on
Snapdeal can avail 1 year free vehicle insurance.
To broaden its innovative e-catering facility Food on Track, IRCTC has tied-up with online delivery firm
Food Panda.
It will provide customers with the choice to order meals at least two hours before the travel.
IRCTCs Food on Track, has KFC, Dominos, Street Foods, Wimpy, TFS, Jan Aahar, Ratna Cafe, Mio Amore,
ALIBABA, Cafe Lite, Hello Curry and Ratna Cafe besides IRCTC Food Plaza and IRCTC Fast Food Units under
its umbrella.
Watch maker Titan Co and global information technology major HP joined hands to offer a range of
smart watches.
The new relationship between HP Inc and Titan combine innovative materials, design and custom technology to
deliver products that are responsive, and not intrusive.
This Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with IL&FS Global Financial Services to spread its wings overseas.
IL&FS Global Financial Services is a subsidiary of infrastructure giant IL&FS.
Through this tie-up, AAI aims to go global from local, considering its expertise and capabilities in airport
development and operation and management.
Over a period of time, AAI has developed more than 60 airports in metro and non-metro cities in India.
National Collateral Management Services (NCML) signed an agreement with South Africas largest agri-business
company (AFGRI) for cooperation in areas of Cross-border trade flow, Grain management and marketing, Trade
finance and collateral management, Inspection, testing and certification, Geo mapping and Weather intelligence
and Crop estimation.
It will promote India-Africa trade flows in agriculture and food products.
The government of Andhra Pradesh signed a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with the World Economic
Forum (WEF) to support the State in assessing its economic competitiveness.
As per the MoU, the WEF will assist the state in assessing its economic competitiveness-both strengths
and weaknesses.
Accordingly, the WEF will provide technical support and training the government staff on GCI methodology, data
collection and interpretation of results.
The Punjab government inked a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with a consortium of Beta Renewables,
Novozymes and CVC India Infrastructure Private Limited to set-up a bio-ethanol refinery worth ` 950 crore in the
State. The refinery will be constructed in 2 years.
The agreement was signed on the last day of the two-day second Progressive Punjab Investors Summit, 2015.
In addition, the government signed 12 other MoUs worth ` 21305 crore.

13

Company Involved
US drugs giant Pfizer Inc. to
buy Ireland based Allergan
(November 23, 2015)
UPL merged with Advanta
(November 21, 2015)
Marriott International
acquired Starwood Hotels &
Resorts Worldwide
(November 16, 2015)
CarTrade.com acquired
CarWale.com
(November 14, 2015)
Boeing and Tata Advanced
Systems announced a Joint
Venture
(November 9, 2015)
Adani Ports to acquire
L&Ts Kattupalli Port
(November 8, 2015)
MTS India merged with
Reliance Communications
(November 2, 2015)
HCL Technologies acquired
CRM services firm
PowerObjects
(October 29, 2015)
Event
HDFC Bank launched
Sonic Branding or a
Musical Logo
IDBI Bank raised $ 350
Million via Green Bonds
Axis Bank entered
Bangladesh
London Stock Exchange
Group signed MoU with
Yes Bank
SBI to launch FTSE SBI
Bond Indices
Indiabulls Housing to buy
40% stake in UK Bank
Lakshmi Vilas Bank
launched a Co-branded
Credit Card
Paytm tied-up with Bank of
Maharashtra
14
Mergers/Acquisitions
Related Facts
US drugs giant Pfizer Inc. has struck upon a deal to buy Ireland based Allergan for $ 160 billion making it the biggest
pharmaceuticals merger deal in history of healthcare sector.
Currently, Pfizer Inc is selling flagship pharmaceutical products like Viagra and cholesterol drug Lipitor, while Allergan
is best known for selling anti-wrinkle treatment drug Botox, Alzheimers drug Namenda and dry-eye
medication Restasis.
Agrochemical major UPL Limited announced merger of the groups seed firm Advanta to provide all agri-solutions
through one single entity and enhance shareholder value. It holds 48.44% in Advanta Limited and the same would be
cancelled after the merger.
Marriott International announced the acquisition of Starwood Hotels & Resorts Worldwide and became the worlds
largest hotel company. It will give Marriott greater presence in markets such as Latin America, Europe and Asia
including China and India. Within India also, the combined entity will displace the Tata Sons-promoted Taj Group of
Hotels as the largest chain of hotels by rooms.
Online auto classifieds firm CarTrade.com acquired car-selling portal CarWale.com from Automotive Exchange
Private Limited in a full-cash deal. As a part of the acquisition, German media giant Axel Springer exited CarWale by
selling its entire shareholding to CarTrade. After the deal, the CarTrade, which only sells used cars, plans to enter into
the new cars segment.
US aviation major Boeing and Tata Advanced Systems announced a joint venture that will manufacture aero
structures for AH-64 Apache attack choppers, recently ordered by India, and collaborate on integrated systems
development opportunities in India.
The joint venture will initially create a manufacturing centre of excellence to produce aero structures for the AH-64
Apache helicopter and compete for additional manufacturing work packages across Boeing platforms, both
commercial and defense.
Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone (APSEZ) through its subsidiary Adani Kattupalli Port has acquired the
Kattupalli Port in Tamil Nadu from L&T Shipbuilding announced by Gautam Adani, Chairman, Adani Group. The Port
commenced commercial operations in January, 2013 and has two berths with a total quay length of about 710 m.
Anil Ambani-led Reliance Communications (RCom) declared that it will take over Russian conglomerate Sistema
Shyam Teleservices (SSTL) venture that operates under the brand name of MTS for a cashless deal valued at
around ` 4500-5000 crore. As per the terms of merger, SSTL will acquire 10% equity in RCom.
Global IT services company HCL Technologies acquired PowerObjects, a leading North American provider of
Microsoft Dynamics CRM, for approximately ` 299 crore. Founded in 1993, PowerObjects is a professional services
firm which is 100% focused on providing service, support, education and add-ons for Microsoft Dynamics Customer
Resource Management (CRM).
Other Important Events
Related Facts
Countrys second largest private sector lender HDFC Bank, which has launched sonic branding or a musical logo,
on November 27, 2015 said it will spend over ` 30 crore to promote the new brand positioning which stresses on the
digital banking. We have launched a distinct tune which represents the brand. The sonic branding is being included
at all the touch-points, including ATMs and phone-banking application, where customers will hear the tune. The effort
is part of a national marketing campaign stressing the digital banking.
Mumbai headquartered IDBI Bank has become the first commercial State-owned bank to raise $ 350 million via
selling green bonds, where proceeds are used for clean energy projects on November 21, 2015.
Bonds were priced at 4.26% (fixed rate) after adding a mark-up or spread of 255 basis points on 5-year US Treasury
now at 71%. But, the bank has converted those securities into floating rate, and they are offering 3.22%.
Extending its overseas footprint, Axis Bank opened a representative office in Dhaka, capital city of Bangladesh on
November 22, 2015. Indo-Bangladesh trade is growing and opening office in Dhaka would help in leveraging
the opportunity.
The London Stock Exchange Group (LSEG) has signed a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) on November 12,
2015 with YES Bank to collaborate on bond and equity issuance, with focus on developing green infrastructure.
Global index provider FTSE Russell and State Bank of India (SBI) signed an agreement on November 12, 2015 to
launch Indias first bond index. The launch of a bond index is in line with the Reserve Bank of Indias efforts to deepen
the bond markets and bring in more retail investors.
Indiabulls Housing Finance said on November 11, 2015, it will acquire a 39.76% stake in the UKs OakNorth Bank for
$ 100 million (about ` 661 crore). The company said the acquisition will help it chart a roadmap to a deposit-taking
franchise.
Lakshmi Vilas Bank (LVM) has launched a co-branded credit card in partnership with SBI Card on November 4, 2015,
and health insurance products along with Cigna TTK Health Insurance.
Paytm, leading mobile payment and ecommerce platform has tied up with Bank of Maharashtra to offer mobile wallet
top up facility through bank ATMs on October 24, 2015. This facility is aimed at helping Bank of Maharashtras
customers having debit cards to top up their Paytm Wallet through any of the Banks 1800 ATMs.
 CURRENT REVIEW
UNION GOVERNMENT
LAUNCHED IPV INJECTION
The Union government has launched the
injectable Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)
as part of its commitment to the Global
Polio Endgame Strategy on December 1,
2015. The IPV injection was launched in
New Delhi by Union Minister for Health
and Family Welfare JP Nadda. It is part of
next step in Indias universal immunisation
programme to fight against polio in
the country.
The first phase this vaccine will be
introduced in six States, viz Asom, Gujarat,
Punjab, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar
Pradesh. IPV injection will be given to
children below one year of age along with
the third dose of the Oral Polio Vaccine
(OPV) at the routine immunisation
sessions free of cost.
UNION GOVERNMENT
LAUNCHED
GIAN SCHEME
Union Ministry of Human Resource
Development (HRD) has launched Global
Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN)
Scheme on November 30, 2015 to boost
the quality of higher education in India. It
was launched by Union HRD Minister
Smriti Irani at the Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT) campus.
GIAN Scheme aims at improving the
quality of higher education in the country
through international collaboration.
Facilitate participation of high quality
international academicians for delivering
short-term courses and programs in Indian
institutions.
FIRST CONSTITUTION DAY OBSERVED
The First Constitution Day of India was observed on November 26, 2015 to
spread awareness of Indian Constitution and its architecture Dr. BR
Ambedkar. 2015 Constitution Day is the first edition of this day and part of
year-long nationwide celebrations of 125th birth Anniversary of Dr. BR
Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly.
Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MSJE) is the nodal
Ministry for celebration of Constitution Day. It has organised number of
activities on the occasion of the first Constitution Day in order to spread
awareness the supreme law of the country and living document which makes
the government system work effectively.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi had declared November 26 as Constitution
Day after laying the foundation stone of Dr. Ambedkar Memorial at Indu
Mills Compound in Mumbai, Maharashtra on October 12, 2015. On the day
in 1949, Constitution of India was adopted which came into force on
January 26, 1950 marking the beginning of a new era in the history of
free India.
RASHTRIYA RAIL SAMRAKSHA KOSH (RRSK)
LAUNCHED
Railway Safety Fund of ` 1.1 lakh crore namely Rashtriya Rail Samraksha
Kosh (RRSK) launched on November 25, 2015 with the aim to improve the
safety measures and to upgrade the railway infrastructure. The fund would be
used to eliminate level-crossings, install collision avoidance systems, as well as
for track renewal and signal upgrades.
The Rail Ministry had set-up a six-member committee under the Executive
Director of its planning directorate for a scheme, including funding sources
and focus areas. The committee had sought inputs on fund requirements from
directoratesmechanical, electrical and civil engineering, among others. The
inputs are expected by the end of next week.
A similar fund to bolster safety infrastructure was introduced in 2001, when
Nitish Kumar was Railways Minister, to wipe out the accumulated arrears of
renewal on aged assets, including tracks, bridges, signalling gears and rolling
stock.
It was created with an initial corpus of ` 17000 crore, of which ` 12000 crore
had come from the Finance Ministry as dividend-free capital. The fund was
closed in 2008 and its balance of ` 597 crore merged to the Depreciation
Reserve Fund.
15
HRD MINISTRY SET-UP
EXCLUSIVE PANEL ON SANSKRIT
PROMOTION
The Human Resource Development (HRD) Ministry
has constituted a 13-member expert committee
exclusively on Sanskrit in its attempt to revive interest
in the ancient language on November 18, 2015.
The committee is expected to submit its report in three
months. It will be headed by N. Gopalaswami, the
former Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and now
Chancellor of Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth
in Tirupati.
Committee has been asked to recommend measures to
integrate the study of the ancient language with other
disciplines. The committee is also tasked with charting
out an action plan to develop the language in the next
10 years.
This is the second committee set-up by the Smriti
Irani-led Ministry on Indian languages. Although the
first panels broader brief included promotion of
classical languages, the second one is exclusively
dedicated to Sanskrit.
BLUE REVOLUTION
` 3000 CRORE PROPOSED
The scheme Blue Revolution : Integrated Development
and Management of Fisheries, was in news on
November 21, 2015 as Union Minister for Agriculture
and Farmer Welfare Radha Mohan Singh on the eve of
World Fisheries Day 2015 mentioned about it.
The scheme was conceptualised by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi in 2014 and entails a total outlay of
` 3000 crore. This scheme will cover inland fisheries,
acquaculture, marine fisheries, including deep sea
fishing and other activities undertaken by the National
Fisheries Development Board, towards realising the
Blue Revolution.
CABINET APPROVED SIGNING OF
TRIPARTITE AGREEMENT
The Union Cabinet approved the signing of the
Tripartite Agreement on November 18, 2015 among
India, Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) on the IBSA
Fund for the Alleviation of Poverty and Hunger.
The decision will help in strengthening the IBSA Fund
which is a unique vehicle in the context of
South-South cooperation. The IBSA Fund undertakes
development projects in third countries. The first
project to be financed by the IBSA Fund was in
support of agriculture and livestock development.
The IBSA Fund for the Alleviation of Poverty and
Hunger was set up in 2004 as one of the three pillars of
cooperation under the IBSA Dialogue Forum. The
other two pillars are consultation and coordination on
global political issues and trilateral collaboration in
concrete areas and projects.
16
UNION CABINET APPROVED GERMAN AS
ADDITIONAL FOREIGN LANGUAGE
Union Cabinet gave its ex-post approval to the Joint Declaration
of Intent (JDI) on November 18, 2015 between the Ministry of
Human Resource Development and Federal Foreign Office of
Germany. The JDI seeks to promote German as an additional
Foreign Language in Kendriya Vidyalayas (KV) schools.
German was taught as a foreign language in KVs since September,
2011 when a MoU was signed between Kendriya Vidyalaya
Sangathan (KVS) and Goethe-Institute, Max Mueller. The validity
of the MoU expired in September, 2014. Due to some
inconsistencies in the MoU vis--vis National Education Policy
and the National Curriculum Framework relating to the three
language formula, it was not renewed further.
DRAFT FISCAL AND CONTRACTUAL
REGIME FOR AWARD
Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas released on
November 16, 2015 a consultation paper on renewed fiscal and
contractual regime for award of hydrocarbon acreages for
comments from public. The motive of this new policy is to
improve the current exploration and production management.
The deadline for comments on the draft paper, titled New Fiscal
and Contractual Regime for Award of Hydrocarbon Acreages, is
November 30, 2015. Key features of proposed policy
n
Revenue Sharing Contract (RSC)
n
Pricing & Marketing Freedom
n
Uniform Licensing Policy (ULP)
n
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)
PRASAD AND SWADESH DARSHAN
SCHEMES OF MINISTRY OF TOURISM
PRASAD and SWADESH DARSHAN schemes of the Union
Ministry of Tourism implemented across the country on
November 16, 2015. PRASAD is a national mission on
Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive.
The two initiatives, along with Zonal Cultural Centres (ZCCs),
were launched to achieve 1% share of international tourist arrivals
by 2016-17 from the present 0.68%. Features of PRASAD
n
Its objective is to augment religious and spiritual tourism in the
country as India is a land of many religions like Hinduism,
Buddhism, Sikhism, Jainism and Sufism.
n
As part of mission strategy, religious destinations that have potential
to be show-cased as world-class tourism products are identified
and infrastructure is developed on a priority basis.
n
In the initial phase, 12 cities, that are part of HRIDAY scheme,
namely Amritsar, Ajmer, Amaravati, Dwaraka, Gaya, Kanchipuram,
Kedarnath, Kamakhya, Mathura, Puri, Varanasi and Vellankani have
been identified for development.
Features of Swadesh Darshan
n
As part of the scheme, theme based tourism circuits are identified
for infrastructure development across the country.
n
Theme Based Tourist Circuit (TBTC) is defined as a tourist circuit
around specific themes such as religion, culture, ethnicity, niche, etc.
n
A TBTC could be confined to a state or could be a regional circuit
covering more than a state or union territory (UT).
UNION GOVERNMENT DECLARED
NSCN-K AS TERRORIST
ORGANISATION
The Union government declared militant outfit National
Socialist Council of Nagaland-Khaplang (NSCN-K) and all
its formation as a terrorist organisation on November 6,
2015. It was declared so under the Unlawful Activities
Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967.
The NSCN-K was declared a terrorist organisation after the
outfit killed innocent civilians and security forces and
engaged in other violent activities including the June 4, 2015
attack on the Army convoy in Chandel district of Manipur.
Earlier on September, 2015, NSCN-K was banned for five
years under the same Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967.
The NSCN was established in 1980 with an aim of
establishing a sovereign state of Nagalim by unifying all the
areas inhabited by the Naga people in Northeast India
and Myanmar.
FIRST AMRIT OUTLET OPENED AT
AIIMS DELHI
Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the
Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment
(AMRIT) pharmacy outlet on November 15, 2015 at the All
India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in New Delhi.
The purpose of the first of its kind outlet is to reduce the
expenditure incurred by patients on treatment of cancer and
heart diseases by 50% to 60% and has the following features
n
It is a retail pharmacy outlet that sells drugs and implants for
the two ailments-cancer and heart diseases-at highly
discounted rates.
n
It would be selling 202 cancer and 186 cardio-vascular drugs
and 148 types of cardiac implants at very affordable prices.
n
It has been floated in a tie-up with government-owned HLL
Lifecare Limitedd (HLL).
FORTUNE INDIA RANKING 2015
Arundhati Bhattacharya, chairperson of countrys largest
bank SBI, remains the most powerful woman in the Indian
business sector, according to Fortune India on November 8,
2015. ICICI Banks Chanda Kochhar and Shikha Sharma of
Axis Bank follow Bhattacharya at the second and third place,
respectively.
Besides, HPCL chairperson and Managing Director (MD)
Nishi Vasudeva has bagged the fourth position, while AZB
& Partners Co-Founder Zia Mody and Aruna Jayanthi Chief
executive of Capgemini India shared the fifth rank.
Interestingly, all the top-five rank holders retained their
positions from the previous year barring Jayanthi who was at
seventh position last year.
Moreover, there are only two debutantes in the Fortune
India list of 50 most-powerful businesswomen for 2015.
These powerful women represent various sectors such as
banking, finance, energy, healthcare, media, fashion and
entertainment.
NOTIFICATION FOR
IMPLEMENTATION OF OROP ISSUED
The government of India
issued the notification on
November 7, 2015 regarding
implementation of One Rank
One Pension (OROP) in
respect of Defence Forces
personnel. Defence Forces of
India have a rich history and
tradition of bravery and gallantry.
Government of India recognises and respects their
contribution. Accordingly the government had announced
modalities for implementation of OROP on September 5,
2015.
Salient features of the OROP as stated in the order are as follows
n
To begin with, pension of the past pensioners would be
re-fixed on the basis of pension of retirees of calendar year
2013 and the benefit will be effective with effect from July 1,
2014.
n
Pension will be re-fixed for all pensioners on the basis of the
average of minimum and maximum pension of personnel
retiring in 2013 in the same rank and with the same length
of service.
n
Pension for those drawing above the average shall
be protected.
n
Arrears will be paid in four equal half yearly instalments.
However, all the family pensioners, including those in receipt
of Special/Liberalised family pensioners, and Gallantry award
winners shall be paid arrears in one instalment.
n
In future, the pension would be re-fixed every 5 years.
CANCELLATION FEE OF TRAIN
TICKET DOUBLED
The Railways has doubled the ticket cancellation fee and
changed the refund rules to not allow any cancellation after
the departure of a train, on November 7, 2015.
While, the cancellation fee of a second-class confirmed ticket
in 48 hours before the scheduled departure of the train will
be increased from ` 30 to ` 60, the third AC ticket will cost
` 180 as against ` 90 earlier.
For waitlisted and Reserve Against Cancellation (RAC)
tickets, one has to avail the refund up to half-an-hour before
the scheduled departure of the train and there will be no
refund after that, as per the new rules.
The second sleeper class cancellation charge has increased
from ` 60 to ` 120, the second AC has doubled up from
` 100 to ` 200.
The aim of the amendment in the Railway Passengers
(Cancellation of Ticket and Refund of Fare) Rules, 2015, is
to plug the scope of misuse, said a Railway official.
Now, between 48 hours and 12 hours before the scheduled
departure of the train, cancellation fee is 25% of the ticket
price. Earlier, between 48 hours and 6 hours before the
scheduled departure of the train, the cancellation fee was
25% of the cost of the ticket.
17
THREE PORTALS/MOBILE APP LAUNCHED
The e-Pathshala, Saaransh and National Programme on School
Standards and Evaluation Framework (Shala Siddhi) web
portals/mobile apps were launched by the Union Human Resource
Development Minister Smriti Irani on November 7, 2015.
Saransh It is a tool which enables schools to identify areas of
improvement in students, teachers and curriculum to provide and
implement change. Currently, it is available for 9th to
12th standard.
e-Pathshala It is a web portal which hosts educational resources for
Students, educators, researchers, teachers and Parents. It comprises
of textbooks and other e-books in English, Hindi and Urdu.
Shaala Siddhi The service will help all schools to inspect themselves
and people can provide feedback to them. It has already been
successfully carried out in four districts of Tamil Nadu.
CISF LAUNCHED MOBILE APP M-POWER
The CISF has launched a new mobile application, m-Power, for its
soliders on November 6, 2015. The Android-based facility has been
named m-Power and is an extended technology facility of the
existing computer system facility for these men and women who
guard some of the most vital installations in the countrys civil
aviation, aerospace and nuclear power domain.
This is the first phase of the mobile-based application which offers
one-touch access to information about locations and contact details
of all force units, an employees pay, interface for lodging grievance,
monitoring its status and for knowing other service-related details.
Officials said the force is expanding its information technology
footprint and hence such innovations and new developments are
required to serve the troops and officers who render their duties in
far-flung areas and in difficult circumstances.
PRIME MINISTER INAUGURATED DELHI
ECONOMICS CONCLAVE 2015
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Delhi Economics
Conclave on November 6, 2015. This is the first time that the Prime
Minister inaugurated the Conclave ever since it began in 2010.
Addressing the Delhi Economics Conclave, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi said almost every key indicator of the Indian economy was
better placed today than 17 months ago when his government took
office, and that reforms will be pursued in the right earnest.
Highlights
n
Opening plenary session on International and Indian Experience
and Future. Second plenary session on benefits and risks of biometric
authentication-evidence.
n
Third session on Beneficiaries experiences with technology-based
targeting. Fourth plenary session on Financial Inclusion and DBT-the
uncovered territory.
n
Fifth plenary session on the theme Political economy and States
perspectives and preparedness.
n
First post- tea plenary session will have Conversation on JAM+Vision
for Future. The participants will be Dr. Arvind Subramanian, Chief
Economic Adviser, and Nandan Nilekani, former Chairman (UIDAI).
n
Closing session will have panel discussion on the theme of JAM
VisionChallenges and Way Forward and will be moderated by the
Union Finance Minister.
18
CCEA HIKED MSP
FOR MAJOR RABI CROPS
The CCEA has approved the increase in the MSP for
rabi crops of 2015-16 season to be marketed in
2016-17 announced by Power Minister Piyush Goyal
on November 6, 2015.
Apart from raising the Minimum Support Price
(MSP) of pulses, the Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved a bonus of ` 75
per quintal for gram and masoor dals over and above
the support price.
The MSP of six rabi crops (wheat, barley, gram,
masoor, rapeseed-mustard seed and safflower seed)
has been increased as recommended by the
governments advisory body Commission for
Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP).
MSP is a form of agricultural market intervention
undertaken by the Central government in order to
insure agricultural producers are protected against
any sharp fall in farm prices.
The MSP prices are announced by the Central
government at the beginning of the sowing season for
certain crops. The prices are decided by CCEA on
the basis of the recommendations of the Commission
for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
GROUND ZERO SUMMIT, 2015
The Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh
inaugurated the Asias foremost Information Security
Conference : Ground Zero Summit 2015 in New
Delhi on November 5, 2015. Ground Zero Summit
is the exclusive platform in the region providing
opportunities to establish and strengthen
relationships between corporate, Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs), government departments,
security and defense establishments.
The theme for the Summit is Digital
IndiaSecuring Digital India. The summit will
have more than thirty sessions by cyber security
professionals, showcase of indigenous cyber security
products and technologies and Make in India
Exhibition of Indian cyber security start-ups. The
panel discussion will also be held on Make in India
for Makers in India.
The summit was organised by the Indian Infosec
Consortium (ICC), a not-for-profit organisation
formed by leading cyber security professionals of the
country.
With the events like Ground Zero Summit and
formation of National Cyber Registry, ICC wants to
consolidate the cyber security resources in the
country and protect its cyberspace.
The summit is the collaborative platform in Asia for
cyber security experts and researchers to address
emerging cyber security challenges and demonstrate
cutting-edge technologies.
GOVERNMENT NOTIFIED NORMS FOR
MAKING AAIB INDEPENDENT BODY
Ahead of ICAOs crucial audit of domestic aviation sector, the
government has notified the regulatory framework for making the
Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) an independent
body.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO), part of the
United Nations, would be carrying out its audit in the last week of
November. The audit, the third in last nine years, would cover a host
of aspects including aircraft investigation mechanism, aerodrome
operations, air traffic control and air navigation.
A specialised agency of the United Nations, ICAO has the mandate to
ensure that local civil aviation operations and regulations in different
countries are in conformity with global norms.
ICAO was set-up in 1944 to manage the administration and
governance of the Convention on International Civil Aviation
(Chicago Convention). As many as 191 countries, including India,
are part of the convention.
RESEARCH PROJECT IMPRINT INDIA
LAUNCHED
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Imprint India on
November 5, 2015, a ` 1000 crore project to kickstart original
research in areas where the country is dependent on foreign
technology.
The Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD), the
Ministry of Defence,the Department of Science & Technology, the
Department of Biotechnology, and the Ministry of Rural
Development, among others, are part of Imprint India.
The group has been set-up to be a one-stop funding shop because
many scientists and researchers said that bureaucracy was delaying
projects and discouraging institutes from starting them. The group
has identified 10 areas where India is heavily dependent on foreign
technology and where little or no research and manufacturing has
been initiated.
These include healthcare, computers & information technology,
energy, sustainable habitat, nano technology hardware, water
resources and river systems, advanced materials, manufacturing,
defence and environment and climate change.
DAUGHTERS RIGHT AND SUPREME COURT
In a major setback for many women across the country, the Supreme
Court has said on November 3, 2015 that a daughters right to
ancestral property does not arise if the father died before the
amendment to Hindu law came into force in 2005.
The apex court held that amended provisions of the Hindu
Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, do not have retrospective effect.
The father would have to be alive on September 9, 2005, if the
daughter were to become a co-sharer with her male siblings.
A bench of Justices Anil R. Dave and Adarsh K. Goel held that the
date of a daughter becoming co-parcener is on and from the
commencement of the Act. On September 9, 2005 the landmark
amendment to the Hindu Succession Act of 1956, which originally
denied women the right to inherit ancestral property ruled that a
Hindu woman or a girl will have equal property rights along with her
male relatives for any partition made in ancestral property.
IPC SET TO BECOME THE FIRST
WHO COLLABORATING CENTRE
IN SOUTH-EAST ASIA
The Indian
Pharmacopoeia
Commission (IPC) is
set to become the first
WHO Collaborating
Centre for Safety of
Medicines and
Vaccines in the
South-East Asia
Region on November 3, 2015.
It announced by JP Nadda, Union Minister of
Health and Family Welfare at the 38th Annual
Meeting of Representatives of the National
Pharmacovigilance Centres participating in the
WHO Programme for International
Drug Monitoring.
The meeting organised by the Indian
Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) and World
Health Organisation (WHO). IPC is an
autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare which sets standards for all
drugs that are manufactured, sold and consumed in
India. The set of standards are published under the
title Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). Headquarters of
IPC is in Ghaziabad, (Uttar Pradesh).
SUPREME COURT ISSUED
NOTICE OVER IMPROPER
IMPLEMENTATION
OF MGNREGA
The Supreme Court took note on November 2,
2015 of a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) alleging
improper implementation of MGNREGA in terms
of timely payment of wages and compensation and
asked the government to make the payments
promptly.
In the PIL, the petitioners contended that the
government failed to pay wages and compensation
to rural workers in a timely manner and at present,
dues payable amounted to around ` 3100 crore.
The petitioners have claimed that irregularities in
the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) has eroded the entire
objective of securing livelihood for the people of
rural India.
MGNREGA, which was initially called National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005, is an
Indian labour law and social security measure which
aims to guarantee the right to work. According to
the recently released World Bank Groups report on
July, 2015 titled as The State of Social Safety Nets
2015, MGNREGA has been ranked as the worlds
largest public works programme.
19
TSR SUBRAMANIAN COMMITTEE TO
DRAFT NEW EDUCATION POLICY
The Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD)
constituted five-member committee that will be entrusted with
the responsibility of drafting the countrys 3rd National
Education Policy (NEP) since Independence on October 31,
2015.
The panel will be headed by Subramanian and will have four
other retired bureaucrats as its members. Shailaja Chandra,
former Chief Secretary, NCT of Delhi; Sewaram Sharma,
former Home Secretary, NCT of Delhi; Sudhir Mankad,
former Chief Secretary, Gujarat and JS Rajput, former
Director, NCERT, will be the four members.
The Committee is expected to submit the Draft National
Education Policy as soon as possible but not later than
December 31, 2015. Along with the draft education policy, the
Committee will also submit a Framework for Action.
The first Education Policy was introduced in 1968 under the
Indira Gandhi government following recommendations of the
Kothari Commission.
INDIAN RAILWAYS LAUNCHED
VIKALP SCHEME
The pilot project Vikalp was started on November 1, for trains
running on the Delhi-Lucknow and Delhi-Jammu routes. A
new scheme called Vikalp has come into effect that promises a
confirmed seat for the waitlisted passengers in an alternate train
if they opt for the option while booking their tickets online.
A new scheme called Vikalp has come into effect that
promises a confirmed seat for the waitlisted passengers in an
alternate train if they opt for the option while booking their
tickets online.
For the first six months, this scheme will be relevant only for
those passengers who book their tickets online. Passengers dont
have to pay anything extra for the new tickets. There also wont
be any refund in case of a difference in cost of the two tickets.
NEW INITIATIVE TO SPREAD
AWARENESS ABOUT BBBP SCHEME
The Union Ministry of women and child Development
(WCD) launched a new initiative on October 29, 2015 to
spread awareness about the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP)
scheme.
The initiative was launched in partnership with Celltick Mobile
Media India Private Limited to generate awareness regarding
BBBP scheme to an estimated a 100 million mobile users
in India.
The BBBP campaign will be the first time that Celltick teamed
up with the government of India for a social initiative.
The BBBP, launched on January 22, 2015, aims at improving
the Child Sex Ratio (CSR) through multi-sectoral
interventions including prevention of gender biased sex
selection and promoting girls education and her holistic
empowerment.
20
GOVERNMENT TO SET-UP
NATIONAL TRIBAL
ADVISORY COUNCIL
The government has decided on October 29, 2015 to
set-up National Tribal Advisory Council under
chairmanship of the Prime Minister for real time
monitoring of various tribal development programmes
and schemes in the country.
The purposes of National Tribal Advisory Council are
effecting monitoring and implementation of various tribal
welfare schemes.
The Ministry will infuse 50% of the tribal welfare funds
to the States in the first quarter of the next financial year
and by third quarter 80% of the funds should be released
to the States.
The problems of sixth scheduled states of North-East
require special focus and tribal Minister urged to hold a
regional conference for them in Guwahati.
REPORT ON CENTRALLY
SPONSORED SCHEMES
On behalf of the
sub-group of Chief
Ministers (CMs)
on Rationalisation
of Centrally
Sponsored
Schemes, the Chief
Minister of
Madhya Pradesh,
Shivraj Singh
Chouhan presented
to the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the final report of
the sub-group of Chief Ministers on rationalisation of
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) on October 27,
2015.
The sub-group comprises the Chief Ministers of Madhya
Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir,
Jharkhand, Kerala, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan,
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and the Lt. Governor of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Key recommendations of the sub-group
n
Flexi-fund component of the CSS, which is in-force since
June, 2014, should be increased to 25% from the current
10% to give more flexibility to states to spend on
development and social welfare schemes.
n
Number of CSS, which are about 50 at present, should
be reduced.
n
Funding pattern should be maintained at the same
level90 : 10 (Centre : States) for 11 special category
States and 60 : 40 for remaining States for core schemes;
for optional schemes80 : 20 pattern for special category
States and 50 : 50 for others.
n
To take into account the rapidly changing socio-economic
situation, CSS should be reviewed every two years.
E-SAHYOG PILOT PROJECT
LAUNCHED
Union Finance Ministry has launched an
e-Sahyog pilot project of Income-Tax
Department on October 28, 2015 to simplify
taxpayers to reduce their need to physically
appear before tax authorities.
It was launched by Union Finance Minister
Arun Jaitley at a function in New Delhi in line
with Union government flagship Digital
India initiative.
Key features about e-Sahyog project
n
It aims to decrease obedience cost, particularly
for small taxpayers and provide an online
mechanism to resolve mismatches in Income-tax
returns.
n
Being a part of the digital initiative, IT
Department will provide an end to end e-service
using SMS, e-mails to inform the tax evaluates of
the mismatch.
n
By using this service taxpayers will have to visit
the e-filing portal and log in with their user-ID
and password.
n
It will help them to view mismatch related
information and submit online response on
the matter.
UNION GOVERNMENT
CONSTITUTED RV EASWAR
COMMITTEE
The Union government has constituted a
committee to simplify the provisions of the
Income Tax Act (IT), 1961 under the
Chairmanship of former Delhi High Court
Judge, Justice RV Easwar on October 27, 2015.
Other 9 members of this committee are
n
VK Bhasin n
Vinod Jain
n
Rajiv Memani n
Ravi Gupta
n
Mukesh Patel n
Ajay Bahl
n
Pradip P. Shah n
Arvind Modi
n
Dr. Vinay Kumar Singh
The Committee shall set its own procedures for
regulating its work. It can also work in
sub-groups and the draft prepared by the
sub-groups can then be approved by the whole
Committee. It will put its draft
recommendations in the public domain. After
stakeholder consultations, the Committee will
formalise its recommendations.
The Committee can give its recommendations
in batches. The Term of the Committee shall
be for a period of one year from the date of its
constitution.
The first batch containing recommendations of
committee is expected to be out by January 31,
2016.
HAZARIKA COMMISSION SUBMITTED REPORT
TO SUPREME COURT
A one man commission headed by Senior
Advocate Upamanyu Hazarika submitted
its report on illegal migrants from
Bangladesh to Asom on October 26, 2015.
The commission was appointed by the
Supreme Court (SC) in May, 2015, to
visit the India-Bangladesh border running
through the State of Asom.
The petition was filed by the Assam
Sanmilita Mahasangha against issues
concerning illegal migration, border
fencing, construction of border roads, etc.
Suggestion of Commission
The Hazarika Commission suggested that there should be a restriction in the
transfer of land whether by way of sale, purchase, gift or any other such
transaction, or by way of allotment from the government or any other agency
only to those who have been citizens of India in the year 1951 and their
descendants.
About the problem of cattle smuggling, the report said that it has shown a
phenomenal increase this year and over the last few years, and it is therefore
imperative that the cattle haats be shifted, customs impound the centre on
the international border and there be a system of ascertaining credentials of
auction and purchasers which ought to be implemented immediately.
The Supreme Court, which is hearing a plea about the imminent threat of the
indigenous population of Assam being reduced to a minority by the year
2047, is to take a call on the report on November 5, 2015.
DHI DRAFTED NATIONAL POLICY ON
CAPITAL GOODS
The Department of Heavy Industries (DHI) came out with draft national
policy on capital goods on October 26, 2015. This is the first time that
such a policy is being framed after active consultation with industry
associations.
The Policy on Capital Goods is focused on the most critical sector for
achieving the vision of Make in India and also is envisages unlocking the
potential for this promising sector and establish India as a global
manufacturing hub.
The policy proposes a governance mechanism for smooth implementation
and effectiveness of the policy. Vision of policy to increase the share of
capital goods contribution from present 12% to 20% of total
manufacturing activity by 2025.
Objectives of the Policy
n
Increase total production to achieve total production in excess of ` 5 lakh
crore by 2025 from the current ` 2.2 lakh crore.
n
To increase domestic employment from the current 15 lakh to at least
50 lakh by 2025, thus providing additional employment to over 35 lakh
people.
n
To increase the share of domestic production in Indias capital goods
demand from 56% to 80% by 2025 and in the process improve domestic
capacity utilisation to 80-90%.
n
To improve skill availability by training 50 lakh people by 2025.
n
To improve technology depth in capital goods sub-sectors by increasing
research intensity in India from 0.9% to at least 2.8% of GDP.
21
STATE
DELHI ASSEMBLY PASSED
THREE MAJOR
EDUCATION BILLS
The Delhi Assembly on December 1, 2015
passed three major education bills, namely Delhi
School Verification of Accounts and Refund of
Excess Fee Bill, Delhi School Education
(Amendment) Bill (DSEAA), and the Right of
Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(Delhi Amendment) Bill.
The move by Kejriwal government would be
instrumental in keeping a check on corruption in
the education sector and lowering fees being
charged by private schools. The Delhi School
Education (Amendment) Bill 2015 is an
amendment to the Delhi Education Act 1973
with the motive of streamlining nursery
admissions.
The Bill prohibits capitation fee and screening
procedure for admission. The Delhi government
will send the bills to the Union government for
approval.
Provision under this act
n
The DSEAA and the Delhi School (Verification of
Accounts and Refund of Excess Fee) Bill stipulate
hefty fine and imprisonment for violators of
various provisions.
n
As per the provisions of the DSEAA, schools shall
be punishable with fine which may extend to 10
times the capitation fee charged or ` 5 lakhs,
whichever is more, if they do not show greater
accountability in fees accepted and money spent,
additional imprisonment of 3-5 years.
n
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Education (Delhi Amendment) Bill seeks to do
away with the no-detention policy till Class VIII by
amending relevant sections of the Right to
Education Act.
MAHARASHTRA FACTORIES
(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2015
President Pranab Mukherjee has given his assent
to Maharashtra Factories (Amendment) Bill,
2015 of Maharashtra government on
December 1, 2015 to allow women to work in
factories in night shifts.
The amendment bill amends Section-66(1) (c) of
Factories Act, 1948 to ease provisions related to
working of women in night shifts in the State.
The amendment of 67-year old Act also makes
mandatory for factory managements to ensure
security of women working in night shifts. The
amendment bill also enables workers to be
eligible for paid leave after working for 90 days in
a year instead of the current 240 days or more.
22
NITISH GOVERNMENT ANNOUNCED LIQUOR
BAN IN BIHAR
Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar announced
on November 26, 2015 to alcohol will be
banned in Bihar from April 1, 2016. It was
announced by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on
the occasion of liquor prohibition day.
To implement the ban State government officials
of the excise department are working on new
liquor policy as ruling government does not want
a parallel alcohol economy in the State.
This decision would make Bihar 6th dry State/UT in the country.
Presently, liquor consumption is prohibited in the States of Gujarat
(1958), Nagaland (1989), Manipur (1991) and Kerala (2014) and
Union Territory of Lakshadweep.
LANDMARK SILCHAR-LUMDING RAIL LINE
INAUGURATED
Union Railways Minister Suresh Prabhu inaugurated the landmark
Silchar-Lumding broad gauge rail line in Asom on November 21, 2015.
Prabhu flagged-off a passenger train from New Delhi via
video-conference. The rail line brings Asoms underdeveloped but
strategically important Barak Valley on the broad gauge map.
Silchar-Lumding broad gauge rail line brings Asoms underdeveloped
but strategically important Barak Valley on the broad gauge map. The
broad gauge line is also a milestone for connectivity in the North-East
region and one of the largest gauge conversion projects of
Indian Railways. The line has 75 major bridges and 340 minor bridges
along the track. It passes through 21 tunnels. The entire project cost was
around ` 3500 crore.
CLEAN UP, GREEN UP INITIATIVE EARNS
PLACE IN GUINNESS BOOK
Uttar Pradesh governments ambitious Clean UP, Green UP initiative
has earned itself a place in the Guinness Book of World Records on
November 21, 2015. Under State governments green drive initiative, 10
lakh saplings were planted in one day within a span of eight hours on
November 7, 2015 at 10 locations in the State.
This new record has surpassed the earlier record for plantation of
maximum number of tree that was 8 lakh 50 thousand trees in a single
day. The certificate for UP governments record-setting performance was
awarded to Chief Minister Akhilesh Yadav at the function held in Saifai
in Etawah district.
RAJASTHAN GOVERNMENT SIGNED
295 AGREEMENTS
Rajasthan signed 295 MoUs committing investment of about ` 3.3 lakh
crore, including from leading industrial houses like Adani Group,
Reliance and Aditya Birla group, at the investor summit on
November 20, 2015. With this, a task force will be formed to get the
projects implemented in a time-bound manner.
It aims to provide around 239694 lakh jobs in the State. The Energy
sector got MoUs worth ` 190000 crore followed by Petroleum with
` 77657 crore worth MoUs. Infrastructure got MoUs worth ` 17038
crore, while Manufacturing sector of the State fetched MoUs worth
` 11760 crore. Roads and Highways fetched ` 10000 crore MoUs.
INTELS EK KADAM UNNATI KI AUR BEGUN IN RAJASTHAN
TELANGANA AGRO-PROCESSING AND
Chip-maker Intel has rolled out its Ek Kadam Unnati Ki Aur programme AGRI-MARKETING
on November 16, 2015 towards rural digitisation in 10 States from PROMOTION POLICY 2015
Nadimpalle villlage in Telangana. Announcing the setting-up of the first Rajasthan Chief Minister Vasundhara Raje
Unnati Kendra at the village in Mahabubnagar District. launched the Rajasthan Agro-Processing and
Agri-Marketing Promotion Policy-2015 on
Intel Vice-President (Sales and Marketing Group) and Managing Director November 6, 2015 for the promotion of
(South Asia) Debjani Ghosh said the company will work with Central and agro-processing and to reduce post harvest
the State governments to identify best framework for digitisation. losses. The government signed 112 MoUs
ODISHA IMPLEMENTED NATIONAL FOOD with private companies in different sectors.
SECURITY ACT, 2013 Highlights
Odisha government has started implementation of National Food Security n
Investors in agro-processing sectors upto the
Act (NFSA), 2013 on November 15, 2015 in 14 of the 30 districts of the investment of ` 25 lakh shall be granted 30%
State in first phase covering 26.33 lakh families. capital subsidy, 20% employment generation
subsidy of VAT and CST deposited for
In this regard, State Food supplies and Consumer Welfare department has
seven years.
issued directives to the district administration to monitor the
implementation of the NFSA and rectify irregularities.
n
These investors shall be granted 50%
exemption in land tax, electricity duty and
14 districts in the first phase areAngul, Bargarh, Boudh, Balangir, mandi cess for seven years and 50%
Deogarh, Gajapati, Jharsuguda, Kandhamal, Kalahandi, Koraput, exemption in stamp duty, conversion charges
Malkangiri, Nuapada, Sambalpur and Sonepur. The second phase of the and entry tax on plant & machinery in
NFSA will be implemented in remaining 16 other districts of the State from the State.
December 1, 2015. n
Customised Package shall be granted to the
enterprises making an investment of ` 100
PRESIDENT APPROVED HARYANA GAUVANSH crore and more or employment generation of
SAMRAKSHAN AND GAUSAMVARDHAN BILL 250 persons in the unit.
President Pranab Mukherjee gave his n
50% exemption in stamp duty shall be
assent to the Haryana Gauvansh granted on first transfer of plot in Food Park.
Samrakshan and Gausamvardhan Bill on n
Agriculture Department, government of
November 12, 2015. The bill was passed Rajasthan shall be a nodal department and
by the Haryana Legislative Assembly on Rajasthan State Agricultural Marketing Board
March 16, 2015. shall act as nodal agency for this policy.
Key provisions of the bill
n
Cow slaughter in Haryana will invite
PACKAGE FOR ALL-ROUND
rigorous imprisonment ranging from 3 to DEVELOPMENT OF J&K
10 years and a fine of up to ` 1 lakh. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced
n
Any person who attempts to export cows ` 80000 crore package on November 7,
for slaughter will be imprisoned for not less than 3 years and up to 7 years. In 2015 for Jammu & Kashmir at mega rally at
addition, fine between ` 30 thousand and ` 70 thousand will be imposed. Srinagars Sher-i-Kashmir Cricket Stadium.
n
The killing of a cow in an accident or for self-defence will not be considered The package was besides 35000 crore for
slaughter. connecting Jammu with Srinagar through a
n
For exporting a cow out of the State, people will have to apply for permit and railway link. Total ` 11708 crore for new &
file a declaration that cows for which permit for export is required will not renewable energy. It will cover relief for 2014
be slaughtered. flood victims, farmers, businessmen, tourism,
youth employment and infrastructure in
GLOBAL CONFERENCE ON GENDER EQUALITY the State.
IN KERALA The Prime Minister vowed to carry forward
Kerala hosted the countrys first three days global conference on gender ex-Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayees
equality titled International Conference on Gender Equality (ICGE -1) three-point vision for Kashmir-Kashmiriyat
from November 12-14, 2015 in Kovalam. (coexistence), Jamhooriyat (democracy) and
The motive behind this conference was to reduce gender inequality in India Insaaniyat (humanity).
and increase female work participation rates. Organisers Green Park, an Modi underlined India is incomplete
institution under the Kerala government in association with UN Women. without Kashmiriyat. Prime Minister Modi
Green Park is responsible for the successful all-women cab service She Taxi. also talked about technological
The theme of the conference focuses on the urgent need for a transformative development and establishment of call
agenda to move towards greater inclusion and gender equality. centres in Kashmir.

23
MADHYA PRADESH Other Important Events
AMRUT ACTION PLAN News Related Facts
Madhya Pradesh
Jharkhand The Jharkhand Chief Minister
government has Government Introduced Raghubar Das introduced Mobile
proposed to Mobile Governance Governance in the state to realise the
improve basic (November 15, 2015) dreams of Digital India during the
infrastructure occasion of 16th Foundation Day of
the State.
relating to water
To facilitate quick clearance for
supply and industries, the State government
sewerage network introduced Advantage Jharkhand
services besides Portal, the countrys first single
window portal. The mobile
storm water applications were developed by
drainage, urban transport and parks and green services in 32 Jharkhand Space Applications Centre
cities and towns under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and (JSAC).
Urban Transformation (AMRUT) during the current financial First Women of India The Union Minister of Women and
year i.e., 2015-16 at a cost of ` 1656 crore. Organic Mela Child Development, Smt. Maneka
(November 13, 2015) Sanjay Gandhi and the Union Minister
The State government has submitted State Annual Action Plan of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare,
(SAAP) in this regard to the Ministry of Urban Development. Radha Mohan Singh inaugurated the
Under AMRUT in the current financial year (2015-16) worth first Women of India Exhibition at Dilli
Haat, INA in New Delhi.
` 1656 crore of which Central assistance ` 672 crore, State
AimTo support and encourage
government ` 756 crore and ` 228 crore from the resources of women and women-led groups which
respective urban local bodies. promote organic farming.
Bihar will get First Big FDI Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has
MAHARASHTRA GOVERNMENT in Railways (November 7, finally given the go-ahead to the
APPROVED APJ ABDUL KALAM 2015) long-stalled, big-ticket Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) projects to set-up
AMRUT YOJANA state-of-the art diesel and electric
locomotive manufacturing plants in
Maharashtra government has approved APJ Abdul Kalam (Marhora and Madhepura) Bihar.
Amrut Yojana on November 3, 2015 to provide one full hot
Railways will have 26% equity while the
cooked nutritious food to pregnant, lactating women in the global players will have 74% equity in
tribal areas. It was approved by the State Cabinet meeting each of the plants.
chaired by Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis in Mumbai. The Odisha Government To protect the Endangered Olive
scheme will replace the earlier Take Home Ration scheme Imposed 7-month Ban Ridley sea turtles arrive during winters
on Fishing for nesting in Rushikulya river mouth
which provided packets of sheera or upma to lactating or (October 31, 2015) and the Gahirmatha marine sanctuary
expectant mothers in tribal areas of State. (one of the worlds largest turtle
nesting sites), the Odisha forest
About the Scheme department has imposed a ban from
n
The meal will be provided for free. The meal will include pulses, November 1 to May 31, 2016 on
fishing along the coast.
rice, fruits, vegetables and boiled eggs with occasional supply
of milk. The hot cooked meal will take into thought the Olive Ridley turtle Found in Pacific and
Indian oceans.
beneficiarys food preference.
J&K to Host South Asian The decision was made during the
n
The food will be provided for 6 months, beginning from 3rd Rugby 7S Championship 131st Standing Committee meeting of
trimester of pregnancy to the 3 months period after delivery. in 2016 (October 27, 2015) J-K State Sports Council, which was
n
The scheme will profit over 1.9 lakh women in the first year. The chaired by Ansari. As per the decision,
scheme will be rolled out on November 15, 2015. the championship will be held at
Bakhshi Stadium from June 18 to 20,
n
The anganwadis workers, the tribal women and the local meal 2016.
committees will implement the scheme. The women and child The championship will be participated
Welfare Department will pay ` 10 crore in stipend to by eight teams consisting of 180
anganwadi workers. participants from various countries like
Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Afghanistan,
n
The scheme will be executed in 16 districts having tribal Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and India.
population. A four-member meal committee will be constituted in
Haryana Government State Government announced to open
every tribal village across sixteen districts. Announced to Open a Sanskrit University which will be
n
A woman panchayat member will head the committee, along Sanskrit University at Mundri named after Maharishi Valmiki.
with 2 pregnant or lactating mothers and an anganwadi worker. for Scheduled Castes (SC)
(October 24, 2015) Children of Scheduled Castes families
The ` 22 meal will cost the exchequer ` 75 crore per annum. a relaxation of 10% marks in the
eligibility criteria for getting scholarship
n
The implementation of the Yojana will ensure that the babies
under Dr. Ambedkar Medhavi
benefit during the lactation period which will eventually help in Chhattar Yojana.
curbing malnutrition among tribal children within the State.

24
 CURRENT REVIEW
ARGENTINA
PRESIDENTIAL ELECTION 2015
Conservative opposition candidate Mauricio
Macri has won Argentinas Presidential election
on November 22, 2015. Official results gave
Macri 51.4% of the votes and 48.6% for Scioli
with 99% of ballots counted.
His victory ends the 12-year rule of the Peronist
Party. That party Peronist Party was founded by
Juan Peron in 1947. Also known as the Justicialist
Party, the Peronist Party received support from
urban voters and the middle-classs of the country.
Reforming the economy will be Macris main issue
as he enters the Presidency. The president-elect
said he plans to reduce subsidies and move some
state companies to the private sector. He said he
takes a very positive view of international business.
CANADA
PUNJABI BECAME THIRD
LANGUAGE IN
CANADAS PARLIAMENT
Punjabi has now become the third most common
language, after English and French, in the House
of Commons of Canada on November 2, 2015
after 20 Punjabi-speaking candidates were elected
to the Parliament in October, 2015.
Among the newly-elected Punjabi-speaking MPs,
14 are males and six are females. The 430705
native Punjabi speakers make up about 1.3% of
Canadas population. The 20 Punjabi-speaking
MPs represent almost 6% of the House
of Commons.
The Parliament of Canada is composed of three
parts : the Monarch, the Senate, and the House
of Commons. Each has a distinct role, but work
in conjunction within the legislative process.
GENERAL ELECTIONS IN CANADA
According to a report on October 25, 2015, in Canadas newly elected
Liberal government, under Prime Minister designate Justin Trudeau,
Indian Canadians have won a record number of 19 seats. Thats more
than double the seats they held in the previous government of eight.
Of the 44 Indo-Canadian candidates, 20 are elected to that countrys
Parliament. The Liberals had nominated 20 Indo-Canadians in the
elections and most were Punjabis. Of these, 15 Punjabis have been elected.
CHINA
IMF APPROVED CHINAS YUAN AS ELITE
RESERVE CURRENCY
International Monetary Fund (IMF) on November 30, 2015 included
Chinas Yuan into its elite reserve currency basket. Yuans entry into the
basket takes effect from October 1, 2016. Yuan also known as the
Chinese Renminbi (RMB) was included in the basket after it met the
existing criteria for its inclusion.
The action was taken after the executive board at IMF completed the
regular five-yearly review of the basket of currencies that make up the
Special Drawing Right (SDR). The yuan will join the US dollar, euro,
Japanese yen and British pound in the basket of currencies the IMF
uses as an international reserve asset in 2016.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international
organisation headquartered in Washington DC (USA). Formed in
1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it came into formal existence
in 1945 with 29 member countries and the goal of reconstructing the
international payment system.
What is a SDR?
THE SPECIAL DRAWING RIGHTS (SDR) SYSTEM WAS CREATED BY THE IMF IN 1969 TO
SUPPORT THE BRETTON WOODS FIXED EXCHANGE RATE SYSTEM. THE SDR IS INSTEAD
AN INTERNATIONAL RESERVE ASSET WHICH THE IMF USES TO SUPPLEMENT ITS
MEMBER COUNTRIES RESERVES.
THE SDRS VALUE IS BASED ON THE BASKET OF THE FOUR INTERNATIONAL
CURRENCIES AND SDRS CAN BE EXCHANGED FOR FREELY USABLE CURRENCIES.
SDRS ARE ALLOCATED TO IMF MEMBERS FROM TIME-TO-TIME. FROM OCTOBER, 2016,
ONCE THE YUAN IS ADDED, THE BASKET WILL HAVE FIVE CURRENCIES [US DOLLAR
($), EURO (), POUND STERLING (), JAPANESE YEN () AND MOST RECENTLY
CHINESE YUAN ()]. FURTHER, SDR IS NOT A CLAIM ON THE IMF; RATHER IT IS A
POTENTIAL CLAIM ON THE FREELY USABLE CURRENCIES OF IMF MEMBERS.
CHINA PARLIAMENT RATIFIES
$ 100 BILLION AIIB
Chinas top legislature ratified the Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB) agreement on November 4,
2015, which establishes the legal framework for
the bank. Lawmakers voted on the agreement at the
closing meeting of the bimonthly session of the
National Peoples Congress Standing Committee.
With China being the largest shareholder, the
ratification is a significant step closer to the AIIBs
formal establishment slated for the end of 2015.
With an authorised capital of $ 100 billion, the AIIB
will finance infrastructure projects like the construction
of roads, railways, and airports in the Asia-Pacific
Region. BRICS members China, India and Russia are
the three largest shareholders, with a voting share of
26.06%, 7.5% and 5.92%, respectively. The Bank will
base its headquarters in Beijing.
CHINA ABANDONED
THREE-DECADE-OLD
ONE-CHILD POLICY
China announced the end of its hugely controversial
One-Child Policy on October 29, 2015, with the
official Xinhua news agency saying that all couples
would be allowed two children.
It cited a communique issued by the ruling Communist
Party after a four-day meeting in Beijing to chart the
course of the worlds second-largest economy over the
next five years.
One Child Policy was introduced in 1980 as a way to
curb the population and limit demands for water and
other resources. The controversial policy restricted most
couples to only a single offspring, and for years it was
debated that the policy resulted in Chinas
economic boom.
MYANMAR
MYANMARS ELECTION 2015
Myanmars election commission said on November 13,
2015 that the party of the Nobel Peace laureate Daw
Aung San Suu Kyi had won 348 seats in Parliament,
giving her democracy movement a majority and the
power to select the countrys next President.
The new Parliament will meet in January, 2016 and
select a president in March, 2016. It will be the first
time since 1962 that the military establishment does
not control the government.
Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi is barred from the Presidency
by a provision in the current Constitution, but she has
said that she will choose a President to serve as her
proxy. The military and the largest parties in the upper
house and the lower house will each nominate a
candidate for President.
26
PORTUGAL
ANTONIO COSTA IS NEW PRIME MINISTER
Portugal President Anibal Cavaco Silva has appointed Goa-origin
Antonio Costa as the new Prime Minister of Portugal on
November 26, 2015.
Costas Socialist Party (PS) did not win the October 4 election but
he cobbled together a coalition of left parties that has a little more
than the majority mark in the 230-member Assembly. Portugal
was the first Western country to colonise parts of India in the early
sixteenth century, and the last to leave, on December 19, 1961.
SINGAPORE
RANKED FIRST IN WORLDS HEALTHIEST
COUNTRIES LIST
Singapore has been declared as the worlds healthiest country in a
recent reports with India securing the 103rd position. The list
ranked the countries with the help of the data from the United
Nations, the World Bank and the World Health Organisation.
Singapore receives an overall grade of 89.45%. Italy is in second
place with 89.07%, while Australia comes third with 88.33%.
India ranked 103rd with an overall score of 22.17%.
The health score is based on factors such as life expectancy from
birth and causes of death, while health-risk is based on factors
which could impede health such as the proportion of young
people who smoke, the number of people with raised cholesterol
and the number of immunisations.
AFGHANISTAN
EARTHQUAKE IN SOUTH ASIA
A powerful 7.5 magnitude quake struck Afghanistans Hindu
Kush region on October 26, 2015 and was felt throughout much
of South Asia.
According to Afghan and Pakistani officials, 237 people died in
Pakistan and 74 in Afghanistan in the magnitude-7.5 quake,
which was centered deep beneath the Hindu Kush mountains in
Afghanistans sparsely populated Badakhshan province that
borders Pakistan, Tajikistan and China.
Strong shaking was felt in Kabul, New Delhi and Islamabad. The
tremors jolted the whole of Northern India including Jammu and
Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Delhi, Haryana and Uttar
Pradesh.
The quake was felt in most of the Northern parts of Pakistan
including such major cities as Islamabad, Rawalpindi, Lahore,
Sargoda and Kohat.
Major Earthquakes by Death in 2015
Centre Date Death Toll (Approx) Magnitude
Nepal April 25 8964 7.8
Afghanistan October 26 391 7.5
Nepal May 12 218 7.3
Malaysia June 4 18 6.0
Chile September 16 14 8.3
SRI LANKA
MAHATMA GANDHI
INTERNATIONAL CENTRE
INAUGURATED
Maithripala Sirisena, President of Sri Lanka, and High
Commissioner of India, YK Sinha inaugurated the
Mahatma Gandhi International Centre in Matale on
November 22, 2015.
The centre is a tribute to Mahatma Gandhis
contribution to humanity and his preaching of
non-violence and its relevance worldwide. It was built at a
cost of more than ` 4 crore. It consists of an auditorium,
library, meditation centre and a conference hall.
The centre was established at the request of the members
of Mahatma Gandhi Sabha, a local group of citizens that
was founded following Gandhis visit to Matale in 1927.
There are many monuments, statues, roads and shrines
outside India that are dedicated to Mahatma Gandhi and
his contribution to world peace.
Ten most important monuments dedicated to Mahatma
Gandhi outside India are
n
Lake Shrine (California, USA)
n
Tavistock Square (London, England)
n
Copenhagen (Denmark)
n
Church Street (Pietermaritzburg, South Africa)
n
n
Plaza Sicilia (Buenos Aires, Argentina)
Glebe Park (Canberra, Australia)
n
Memorial Garden (Jinga, Uganda)
n
Garden of Peace (Vienna, Austria)
n
Ariana Park (Geneva, Switzerland)
n
Parliament Square (London, England)
TANZANIA
PRESIDENTAL ELECTIONS 2015
John Pombe Magufuli of ruling
Chama Cha Mapinduzi (CCM)
party has won the 2015
Tanzanian Presidential election
on October 28, 2015. With this
victory he became 5th President
of Tanzania since its
independence from United
Kingdom in 1961.
John Magufuli won this
Presidential election by securing
58.46% of the total votes and defeated Edward Lowassa
of opposition Chadema party who received 39% votes.
His win also continues CCM Partys strong grip on
power in Tanzania as it has governed the country since
independence. CCM is the dominant ruling party in
Tanzania and one of the longest reigning ruling party in
Africa. Tanzania is an East African country known for its
vast wilderness areas.
TURKEY
RUSSIA APPROVED ECONOMIC
SANCTIONS AGAINST TURKEY
Russian President Vladimir Putin has signed an agreement on
November 28, 2015, imposing a series of punitive economic
sanctions against Turkey. This decision was taken by Putin
government after Turkey shot one of the Russias plane (Russian
Sukhoi 24 (Su-24) warplane on November 24, 2015.
The decree, which came into force immediately, said that charter
flights from Russia to Turkey would be banned, all the tour firms
would be told not to sell any holiday packages there, and
unspecified Turkish imports would be outlawed and scrutinised
completely. Ban on imports from Turkey, work of Turkish
companies in Russia and any Turkish nationals working for
Russian companies are to be curbed and halted completely.
ELECTIONS IN TURKEY
Ruling Justice and Development Party (AKP) won the
Parliamentary elections of Turkey on November 2, 2015. The
main opposition Republican Peoples Party (CHP) secured 134
seats, while, the pro-Kurdish Peoples Democratic Party (HDP)
won 59 seats and crossed the 10% threshold needed to claim
seats. AKP came into power after losing its majority in June,
2015 for the first time in 13 years, when it secured only 40% of
the vote.
UNITED NATIONS
CLIMATE CHANGE CONFERENCE 2015
(COP-11)
The United Nations Climate Change Conference 2015, (COP
21 or CMP 11) is being held in Le Bourget in the suburb of
Paris- France, from November 30 to December 11, 2015.
It will be the 21st yearly session of the Conference of the Parties
to the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the 11th session of the
Meeting of the Parties to the 1997 Kyoto Protocol. The
conference objective is to achieve a legally binding and universal
agreement on climate, from all the nations of the world.
Leadership of the negotiations is yet to be determined.
UN APPROVED RESOLUTION URGING
ACTION AGAINST ISIS
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) on
November 20, 2015 unanimously adopted a French-sponsored
resolution 2249 (2015) calling all nations to take all necessary
measures to prevent and suppress the terrorist acts of Islamic
State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS) and other extremist groups.
The resolution was adopted by UNSC just a week after ISIS
extremists had launched a coordinated barbaric gun and bomb
assault in Paris (France) on November 13, 2015 killing
130 people. ISIS also claimed responsibility for twin suicide
bombings in Beirut (Lebanon) which killed 43 people and for
bombing of Russian airliner which was crashed over Egypts
Sinai peninsula killing all 224 people on board earlier in
November, 2015.
27
WHO LAUNCHED WORLD
ANTIBIOTIC AWARENESS WEEK
The World Health Organisation (WHO) launched the
World Antibiotic Awareness Week with the theme
Antibiotics : Handle with Care on November 16, 2015.
The aim of the campaign is to raise awareness and
encourage best practices among the public, policymakers,
health and agriculture professionals to avoid the further
emergence and spread of antibiotic resistance.
The campaign is part of the WHOs recent efforts to
fight against antibiotic resistance due to growing misuse.
In May, 2015, the 68th World Health Assembly a global
action plan to improve awareness and understanding of
antimicrobial resistance through effective
communication, education and training.
INDIA RE-ELECTED TO
UN INTERNATIONAL TRADE LAW
COMMISSION
India has been reelected by the General Assembly to a
6-year term on the UN Commission on International
Trade Law (UNCITRAL) on November 9, 2015.
India has won all the five elections it contested at the UN
this year, following last years reelection to the UN
Human Rights Council.
In April, 2015, the UN Economic and Social Committee
(ECOSOC) elected India to the executive councils of
UNICEF and the World Food Programme, the
governing council of the United Nations Human
Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) and the
Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice.
Along with India, 22 countries including the United
States and Pakistan were reelected to UNCITRAL.
UNGA DISARMAMENT COMMITTEE
ADOPTED DRAFT
The United Nations General Assemblys (UNGA)
Disarmament Committee has adopted a draft resolution
submitted by Japan calling for the abolition of nuclear
arms on November 4, 2015.
The resolution was adopted by 156-member countries,
while 17 abstaining and 3 voting against it including
China and Russia.
But, it failed to secure endorsement US, Britain, France
and other key powers as they abstained from voting
despite supporting it.
The resolution Stresses the inhumanity of nuclear
weapons and urges nuclear powers to be more transparent
in their disarmament efforts.
The resolution asks world leaders to visit the two Japanese
cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki which were devastated
by the nuclear attacks. Since 1994, Japan has been
spearheading efforts UNGA Disarmament Committee to
introduce resolutions on nuclear arms every year.
28
USA
OPERATION INHERENT RESOLVE
Operation Inherent Resolve (OIR) was in news in 4th week of
November, 2015. It came into news after the Paris terror attack
on November 13, 2015 in which about 130 people were killed
and several were injured.
Operation Inherent Resolve (OIR) is the US military operation
name for the military intervention against the Islamic State of
Iraq and the Levant (ISIL), including both the campaign in Iraq
and the campaign in Syria. The anti-ISIS coalition is a coalition
of 65-member nations.
SUMMITS/MEETINGS
10TH EAST-ASIA SUMMIT
The 10th
East-Asia
Summit (EAS)
was held in
Kuala Lumpur,
Malaysia on
November 22,
2015.
It was chaired by the Prime Minister of Malaysia, the
Honourable Dato Sri Mohd Najib Tun Razak and attended by
the Heads of State/government of ASEAN Member States,
Australia, the Peoples Republic of China, the Republic of India,
Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, the Russian
Federation and the United States of America.
The participant leaders reaffirmed their commitment to
n
The 2011 Declaration of the EAS on the Principles for Mutually
Beneficial Relations.
n
The 2010 Ha Noi Declaration on the Commemoration of the 5th
Anniversary of the EAS.
n
The 2005 Kuala Lumpur Declaration on the Establishment of
the EAS.
SECOND WORLD CONGRESS ON
DISASTER MANAGEMENT
Four-day World Congress on Disaster Management concluded
on November 22, 2015 with the unanimous adoption of
Visakhapatnam Declaration calling for a comprehensive action
plan for a disaster-resilient society.
The declaration drafted after deliberations by over 1000
delegates from 40 countries and 20 States in 25 sessions
recommended effective funding mechanism by creating national
disaster mitigation fund for resource implementation of local
plans and building a platform of knowledge management/good
practices/innovations at local level.
It mooted setting up of an independent experts group with
statutory powers like a State Disaster Management Authority for
formulating policies on disaster management.
27TH ASEAN SUMMIT
The 27th Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
Summit was held from November 18 to 22, 2015 at Kuala Lumpur,
Malaysia. The theme for the 2015 summit was Our People, Our
Community, Our Vision.
Malaysian Prime Minister Najib Tun Razak was the Chairperson of
the summit. The Summit was attended by the leaders of the
10-member Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN) that
are Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei
Darussalam, Viet Nam, Lao PDR, Myanmar and Cambodia.
Highlights of the Summit
n
One of the anticipated highlights of the summit was the declaration by
ASEAN Leaders on the establishment of the ASEAN Community by
December 31, 2015.
n
Along with the launch of the ASEAN Community, the ASEAN Leaders
also issued the Kuala Lumpur Declaration on ASEAN 2015 : Forging
Ahead Together.
n
The ASEAN post-2015 vision was also launched to chart the path of
the ASEAN Community in the next ten years.
n
The leaders also engaged with the Heads of government of China,
Japan, the Republic of Korea, India, Australia, New Zealand, Russia
and the USA.
ASEAN was established in 1967 by the five founding members
namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
Brunei Darussalam, Viet Nam, Lao PDR, Myanmar and Cambodia
joined later. The chair of the ASEAN Summit rotates annually in
alphabetical order of the English names of Member States. The First
ASEAN summit was held in February, 1976 in Bali.
13TH ASEAN-INDIA SUMMIT
The 13th ASEAN-India Summit was held successfully on
November 21, 2015 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Theme of the
summit wasOur People, Our Community, Our Vision. The meeting
was chaired by the Prime Minister of Malaysia Najib Razak as
Malaysia holds the chair for the year 2015. The summit was
participated by the Heads of ASEAN Member States and Prime
Minister of India Narendra Modi.
Major Highlights
n
The ASEAN Leaders welcomed Indias initiatives, namely the Act East
Policy and Make in India.
n
ASEAN Leaders encouraged India to work with ASEAN to realise the
vision and goals outlined in the ASEAN 2025 : Forging Ahead
Together.
n
They looked forward to further enhancing ASEAN-India relations
through the new Plan of Action 2016-2020 adopted at the
ASEAN-India Ministerial Meeting in Kuala Lumpur in August, 2015.
This includes cooperation in areas like science and technology,
renewable energy, food security, tourism, climate change
and connectivity.
n
ASEAN leaders welcomed Indias announcement of a $ 1 billion Line
of Credit for ASEAN Member States to undertake connectivity related
projects under the ASEAN-India Strategic partnership.
n
They also expressed their interest in availing the Line of Credit to,
inter-alia, realise the Master Plan of ASEAN Connectivity.
n
They looked forward for signing of the Memorandum of
Understandings (MoU) on the Establishment of the ASEAN-India
Centre (AIC) and its early operationalisation.
23RD APEC ECONOMIC
LEADERS SUMMIT
23rd Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
Economic Leaders Summit was held at Manila,
Philippines from November 18 to 19, 2015. The
summit was chaired by Philippines President
Benigno S. Aquino III. The theme of the Summit
wasBuilding Inclusive Economies, Building a Better
World.
After the conclusion of the summit, the leaders from
21 member-countries issued the 2015 Leaders
Declaration titled Building Inclusive Economies,
Building a Better World : A Vision for an
Asia-Pacific Community.
Peru will chair APEC throughout 2016 and host the
24th APEC Economic Leaders Meeting. The idea of
APEC was firstly publicly broached by former Prime
Minister of Australia Bob Hawke during a speech in
Seoul, Korea on January 31, 1989.
Ten months later, 12 Asia-Pacific economies met in
Canberra, Australia to establish APEC. China, Hong
Kong, China and Chinese Taipei joined in 1991.
Mexico and Papua New Guinea followed in 1993.
Chile acceded in 1994. And in 1998, Peru, Russia
and Viet Nam joined, taking the full membership
to 21.
VALLETTA SUMMIT 2015
The 2015 Valletta Summit on Migration was
concluded on November 12, 2015. It was held for
two days at the Mediterranean Conference Centre in
Valletta, Malta. It was attended by around 65 heads
of governments/high level policy makers from
Europe and Africa, besides officials from the UN and
various organizations of the European Union.
The summit, in addition to approving a political
declaration reaffirming commitment to solve the
ongoing Mediterranean Migration Crisis; came up
with an Action Plan to deal with migration from
Africa to Europe in a comprehensive manner.
The Action Plan is built around five priority domains,
namely
n
Development benefits of migration and addressing
root causes of irregular migration and forced
displacement.
n
Legal migration and mobility. Protection and asylum.
n
Prevention of and fight against irregular migration,
migrant smuggling and trafficking in human beings.
n
Return, readmission and reintegration.
29
12TH ASEM FOREIGN MINISTERS
MEET
12th Asia-Europe Foreign Ministers Meeting (ASEM
FMM12) took place in Luxembourg on November 5 to 6,
2015. The meeting hosted by government of Luxembourg
was chaired by Federica Mogherini, High Representative of
the European Union for Foreign Affairs and
Security Policy.
The ASEM FMM 12 was held under the theme Working
Together for a Sustainable and Secure Future. The
two-day meeting saw participation of 51 Foreign Ministers
from 30 European and 21 Asian countries as well as the
Secretary General of ASEAN participated.
REPORTS/INDICES
MEASURING THE INFORMATION
SOCIETY REPORT 2015
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
released the Measuring the Information Society Report
2015 on November 30, 2015. It was launched on the first
day of the World Telecommunication/ICT Indicators
Symposium (WTIS) 2015 in Hiroshima, Japan.
The report, through Information and Communications
Technology (ICT) Development Index (IDI), captures the
level of ICT developments in 167 economies worldwide
and compares progress made since the year 2010.
As per the report, India ranked 131 out of 167 nations
surveyed in terms of information and communication
technology development. Indias mobile-cellular telephone
subscriptions per 100 inhabitants were 74.48 in 2015
growing from 62.4 in 2010. Top 5 countries with higher
ICT development areSouth Korea (1), Denmark (2),
Iceland (3), the UK (4) and Sweden (5).
HUMAN COST OF WEATHER
RELATED DISASTERS REPORT
The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction
(UNISDR) released the report titled The Human Cost of
Weather Related Disasters on November 23, 2015.
The report was compiled by UNISDR and the
Belgian-based Centre for Research on the Epidemiology of
Disasters (CRED).
The report depicts that over the last 20 years, 90% of major
disasters have been caused by 6457 recorded floods, storms,
heatwaves, droughts and other weather-related events.
The report titled The Human Cost of Weather Related
Disasters by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction said the five countries hit by the highest
number of disasters are the USA, China, India, the
Philippines and Indonesia.
The UNISDR was created in December, 1999. UNISDR is
part of the United Nations Secretariat and its functions
span the social, economic, environmental as well as
humanitarian fields.
30
WORLD ENERGY OUTLOOK 2015
International Energy Agency (IEA) on November 10, 2015
released the World Energy Outlook 2015 (WEO-2015). The
report, in light of low energy prices, calls for no complacency
on energy security front and sees clear signs that the energy
transition is underway, that is, from fossils to renewable.
The WEO-2015 presents updated projections for the
evolution of the global energy system to 2040 as well as
detailed insights on the prospects for fossil fuels, renewables,
the power sector and energy efficiency. It also presents an
analysis on trends in CO 2 emissions and fossil-fuel and
renewable energy subsidies.
2015 FORBES WORLDS MOST
POWERFUL PERSON
Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has emerged as
Worlds ninth Most Powerful Person in the Forbes annual
ranking of 73 persons list of 2015 on November 4, 2015. The
list gives the annual ranking of the Worlds 72 Most Powerful
People on the basis of their financial resources, scope and use
of power and the number of people they impact.
Forbes list of Worlds Most Powerful People started in 2009
by Forbes magazine. Since then annually published. The list
has one slot for every 100 million people on Earth, it that in
2011 there were 70, and in 2012 there were 71 slots.
Similarly, 2015 has 71 slots. Slots are allocated based on the
amount of human and financial resources as well as their
influence on world events.
10 Most Powerful People in the World
Rank Name Designation
1 Vladimir Putin President (Russia)
2 Angela Merkel Chancellor (Germany)
3 Barack Obama President (USA)
4 Pope Francis Pope of the Roman Catholic Church
(Vatican City)
5 Xi Jinping President (China)
6 Bill Gates Chairman (Bill & Melinda Foundation)
7 Janet Yellen Chairperson (USA Federal Reserve)
8 David Cameron Prime Minister (UK)
9 Narendra Modi Prime Minister (India)
10 Larry Page & Sergey Brin Google Founders
GLOBAL SHAPERS ANNUAL
SURVEY 2015
World Economic Forum (WEF) released Global Shapers
Annual Survey 2015 on November 29, 2015. Under the survey,
Prime Minister Narendra Modi is the 10th most admired
personality globally. The survey has ranked late South African
President Nelson Mandela on the top. Mahatma Gandhi is
ranked the fourth most admired personality, according to a
survey of more than 1000 millennials.
Others in the list are Tesla Motors CEO Elon Musk (3rd
rank), Microsoft Founder Bill Gates (5), US President Barack
Obama (6th), Virgin Group Founder Richard Barson (7),
Apple Founder Steve Jobs (8), Nobel laureate Mohammad
Yunus (9) and US investor Warren Buffett (11).
GLOBAL TUBERCULOSIS REPORT 2015
The 12th Global Tuberculosis Report (GTR) 2015 is published by
the World Health Organisation (WHO) on October 29, 2015.
As per the report, India, Indonesia and China had the largest
number of cases : 23%, 10% and 10% of the global total,
respectively. India is among 9 high-burden countries viz. Brazil,
Cambodia, China, Ethiopia, India, Myanmar, the Philippines,
Uganda and Vietnam, where all 2015 targets for mortality,
prevalence and incidence were met.
World Health Organization (WHO) released GTR2015 in
Washington. This is the twentieth global report on tuberculosis
(TB) that started in 1997.
The 2015 edition focuses on whether 2015 global TB targets set in
the context of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were
achieved worldwide and at regional and country levels.
INDIA RANKED 8TH ON MINORITY
INVESTORS PROTECTION
India is the 8th best country in the world when it comes to
protecting the interests of minority investors, says a World Bank
report on October 28, 2015, titled Doing Business 2016.
It measures the strength of minority shareholder protections against
misuse of corporate assets by directors for their personal gains as
well as shareholder rights, governance safeguards and corporate
transparency requirements that reduce the risk of abuse.
The most recent round of data collection for the project was
completed in June, 2015. India is ahead of many developed and
major developing nations, including the US (35th rank), Japan
(36), Germany (49) and Australia (66).
While, Singapore topped the rank in protecting minority investors,
New Zealand and Hong Kong jointly hold the first position;
Malaysia and the UK share the fourth position, followed by Canada
and Slovenia. India along with Albania, Ireland, Israel, Mongolia
and Korea share the eighth position.
HINDI LARGEST SPOKEN INDIAN
LANGUAGE IN THE USA
Hindi has emerged as the largest Indian language spoken in the
USA, with nearly 6.5 lakh people speaking it, according to the latest
Census data. The United States (US) Census Bureau released a set
of new tables detailing hundreds of languages that US residents
speak at home on November 3, 2015.
The US Census Bureau based on American Community Survey
data collected from 2009 to 2013, said that more than 60 million
people in the US speak a language other than English at home,
25 million of whom speak English.
The American Community Survey is the only source of small area
estimates for social and demographic characteristics of the
US population.
Top languages other than English spoken in US homes include
Spanish (with more than 37.4 million speakers), Chinese (about
2.9 million), French (1.3 million), Korean (1.1 million), German
(1.1 million), Vietnamese (1.4 million), Arabic (924573), Tagalog
(1.6 million) and Russian (879434). Indias national language
Hindi tops the list from India.
ASIA PACIFIC REGION MOST
DISASTER PRONE PART OF THE
WORLD UN REPORT
According to the United Nations (UN) report, the
Asia Pacific region is the most disaster-prone part of
the world. Report described that the Asia Pacific
region is the most disaster prone part of the world as it
had suffered around 1625 disasters in the decade
through 2014.
Most disaster prone countries in the world
areVanuatu, Philippines, Bangladesh, Mauritius
and Japan. India stands at the 100th position of the
least disaster prone countries in the world.
Key highlights from the UN report
n
In the last ten years, the region has been struck by
1625 disasters.
n
Disasters in Asia Pacific region accounted for 40% of
the global total.
n
The report says that the region needs to spend more
on adapting to climate change. The region also needs
to prepare for more extreme weather and
disaster risks.
n
Other disasters affecting the region include floods,
tropical storms and droughts. The report calls them as
silent killers
n
Over 1.4 billion people were affected by
these incidents.
n
90% of the worlds seismic activity originates in the
ring of fire which is situated in the basin of the
Pacific Ocean.
WORLD BANKS EASE OF DOING
BUSINESS LIST RELEASED
India now ranks 130 out
of 189 countries in the
ease of doing business,
moving up 12 places from
last year (2014),
according to a World
Bank report on
October 27, 2015.
Singapore has topped the
ranking again. The World
Bank report says India is one of the countries that
have made the most improvement, capturing the
initiative of the government in a separate section.
India is ranked 8th in terms of protecting minority
investors, 42nd in getting credit, 70th in getting
electricity, but scores poorly in dealing with
construction permit with a rank of 183 out of
189 countries. Enforcing contract (rank 178), paying
taxes (rank 157), resolving insolvency (rank 136) are
other areas where India ranks poorly.
Singapore, New Zealand and Denmark occupied the
first three spots in the list while South Sudan, Libya
and Eritrea were ranked at the bottom three. China is
now ranked 84, moving up six spots.
31
INDIA & WORLD
INDIA INKED MOUS WITH SIX COUNTRIES
IN THE ICAN
The government of India announced on November 12, 2015 that it
signed Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with 6 countries.
These countries areFinland, Kazakhstan, Kenya, Sweden, Norway
and Denmark, and Oman and Ethiopia.
In addition, Agreed Minutes were signed with Serbia, Greece, and
European Commission. The Record of Discussions was signed with
Brunei Darussalam and Qatar. The MoUs were signed during
International Civil Aviation Negotiations (ICAN) 2015, which was
held in Antalya, Turkey from October 19 to 23, 2015.
These 6 signed MoUs are
1. Ethiopia MoU was signed to enhance the capacity entitlements
between both sides by increasing it from the existing 21 frequencies
per week to 28 frequencies per week. Three additional domestic code
share points exclusively to code share with Air India were granted
namely Jaipur, Kolkata and Pune.
2. Finland MoU was signed for code share, intermodal services,
routing flexibility and open sky on cargo, which are mandatory
requirement of Horizontal Agreement.
3. Kazakhstan MoU was signed to review the initialled Air Services
Agreement (ASA) as per the latest Article-11 given by the Indian side.
4. Kenya MoU was signed to enhance the capacity entitlements
between both sides by increasing it from present 14 frequencies to 21
additional frequencies.
5. Oman MoU was signed to for adding additional 5131 seats in order
to make the total capacity entitlements from present 16018 seats per
week to 21149 seats per week.
6. Sweden, Norway and Denmark MoU was signed by both the
parties in 4 provisions namely, code shares, routing flexibility,
intermodal and open sky on cargo which is a mandatory requirement of
Horizontal Agreement agreed by these three Scandinavian countries.
INDIA RE-ELECTED AS MEMBER OF
INTERNATIONAL MARITIME COUNCIL
India has been re-elected to the Council of the International Maritime
Organisation (IMO) under Category B at 29th session of the IMO
Assembly held in London on November 27, 2015.
Indias membership of the IMO Assembly supports Indias status as one
of the countries with the largest interest in international seaborne trade.
Presently, India ranks amongst the top 20 shipping countries of the
world in terms of Gross Tonnage capacity (GT) as well as Deadweight
capacity. International Maritime Council (IMC) Assemblys session is
scheduled to take place at IMO headquarters London from
November 23 to December 2, 2015.
International Maritime Council (IMC) established in 1948 in Geneva
and IMO came into force in 1959. It is headquartered in London and
United Kingdom. There are 171 member States and 3 associate
members in IMO. India joined it as a member-State in 1959 and
became one of the earliest members of the IMO.
Its functions are to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory
framework for shipping. This framework should address various areas
like safety, legal matters, environmental concerns, technical
cooperation, maritime security and efficiency of shipping.
32
INDIA-SINGAPORE SIGNED
10 AGREEMENTS
India and Singapore
elevated their ties to
the strategic
partnership level
andsigned bilateral
agreements on
November 24, 2015
for enhanced
defence cooperation
and in areas like
cyber security, shipping and civil aviation after
Prime Minister Narendra Modi met his
Singaporean counterpart Lee Hsien Loong.
The focus of the visit included five S plank i.e.,
scaling-up trade and investment, smart cities,
speeding-up connectivity, skills development and
State focus. The strategic partnership aims to
catalyse the strategic relations between both
countries ranging from political, defence and
security cooperation to economic, cultural and
people-to-people contacts.
Bilateral agreements signed are
n
MoUs on curtailing drug trafficking and improving
cybersecurity.
n
Collaboration in urban planning and wastewater
management.
n
Extending of long-term loan of Indian artefacts to
the Asian Civilisations Museum of Singapore.
Cooperation in the fields of arts, museums,
archives and monuments.
n
MoU for cooperation in civil aviation services and
airport management beginning with Jaipur and
Ahmedabad airports.
n
Operationalisation of the Technical Agreement on
sharing white-shipping information to enhance
bilateral maritime security.
CABINET APPROVED INKING
MOU WITH COLOMBIA
ON TOURISM
The Union Cabinet approved the signing of an
MoU with Colombia on November 5, 2015 for
strengthening cooperation in the tourism sector.
The main objectives of the MoU include expanding
bilateral cooperation in the tourism sector,
exchanging information, encouraging cooperation
between stakeholders such as hotels and tour
operators and establishing an exchange programme
for cooperation in human resource development.
Other objectives include exchange visits of tour
operators, media and opinion makers for
promotion of two-way tourism, participation in
travel fairs and exhibitions in both countries and
exchange experiences in promotion, marketing,
destination development and management.
INDIA-MALAYSIA STRATEGIC
PARTNERSHIP
The Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and
Prime Minister of Malaysia Mohd Najib Tun
Abdul Razak acknowledged the contribution
made by Malaysia and India on November 23,
2015, in promoting growth, economic
development and stability in the Asia-Pacific
region. Both the Prime Ministers also witnessed
the signing of one Agreement on Cultural
Exchange Programme for 2015-2020.
Decisions taken to develop the Strategic
Partnership between the two countries on
Economic, Trade and Financial Areas, Political
Consultation, Tourism and Education, Defence
and Security, & Regional and International
Cooperation.
The two countries also agreed to work mutually
in various other fields as well like Human
Resources, Health, Science and Technology,
Public Administration, etc.
AGREEMENT BETWEEN
INDIA AND VIETNAM
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime
Minister Narendra Modi has given its ex-post
facto approval for signing of a Memorandum of
Understandings (MoU) between India and
Vietnam for cooperation in the field of Animal
Health on November 18, 2015.
Following points are coveredd under the MoU
n
Set-up Mutual Recognition Agreement on
veterinary hygiene, health certificate between
competent authorities of the two parties.
n
Cooperate in the training and upgrading human
resources in the field of animal health.
n
Information on animal health in general and
particularly information on status of animal
diseases of common concern, standards and
procedures for animal quarantine and inspection
status and progress of surveillance and
monitoring programmes in place for animal
diseases and food borne pathogens.
n
Information on meat processing, meat products
and slaughter houses/abattoirs will
be exchanged.
INDIA AND BANGLADESH
SIGNED DRAFT MOU
India and Bangladesh signed a draft
Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) on
passenger and cruise services on coastal and
protocol route during the meeting of the
secretary level delegation on November 17, 2015.
Highlights of the Meeting
n
Payment of transit fee
n
Payment of Bank Guarantee
n
Dredging on rivers on Protocol routes with World
Bank assistance
n
MoU on passenger and cruise vessel movement
INDIA AND UK SIGNED AGREEMENTS
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on November 16, 2015 returned to India
after his two-nation tour of the United Kingdom and Turkey. During his
five-day visit which took place from November 12 to 16, 2015.
Modi participated in G-20 summit at Antalya in Turkey and met with
Queen Elizabeth II, British Prime Minister David Cameron, Turkey
President Recep Tayyip Erdogan and others. During this tour, he stayed in
UK (November 12 to 14, 2015) and Turkey (November 14 to 16, 2015).
Major Highlights of UK Visit of Modi
Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced on November 12, 2015 that India
and Britain have signed a civil nuclear agreement, which shows the mutual
trust between the two countries. Britain on its part said it supports Indias bid
for permanent membership of the United Nations Security Council.
n
He inaugurated Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar Memorial in London. Unveiled
Basaveshwara Statue in London. Addressed the Indian Community at
Wembley Stadium, London.
n
Paid homage at Gandhi Statue in London. Met with Queen Elizabeth II at
Buckingham Palace. Modi on November 12, 2015 became the first Indian
head to address the British Parliament.
n
He held delegation level talks with Prime Minister David Cameron of United
Kingdom and also met Leader of the Labour Party and the Leader of the
Opposition.
n
Attended the UK-India CEO Forum. Inspected guard of honour at Treasury
Quadrangle in London. Visited Jaguar Land Rover (JLR) plant, a subsidiary
of Indias Tata Motors, in Solihull.
INDIA SIGNED CIVIL NUCLEAR AGREEMENT
WITH BRITAIN
Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced in a joint statement with UK
counterpart David Cameron. He also thanked Cameron for Britains
support for Indias permanent membership for UN Security Council.
Modi said India attached great value to defence and security cooperation
with Britain and said UK will participate in the International Fleet
Review in India in February, 2016. Stating that Britain was already the
third largest investor in India, he said there was more investment from
India in Britain than in rest of the European Union combined.
INDIA-AFRICA FORUM SUMMIT 2015
The India-Africa Forum Summit was held from October 26 to 30, 2015
in New Delhi with the theme Partners in Progress : Towards a
Dynamic and Transformative Development Agenda. It was third
summit within the series since the start of the forum in 2008. The
summit adopted the Delhi Declaration calling for transformative
relationship in the coming decades. Besides, the summit conjointly
approved the 2015 India-Africa Framework for Strategic Cooperation and
plan of Action to transform shared aspirations into reality.
3rd India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) was the largest international
gathering of leaders in New Delhi after the 1983 Non-Aligned Movement
(NAM) summit. It was also one of the largest gatherings of African countries
outside Africa as all 54 nations of the continent had participated.
India Africa Framework for Strategic Cooperation Reaffirmed
n
Strong commitment to work together for comprehensive reforms of the
United Nations system, including its UN Security Council.
n
Make these world governing institutions more regionally representative,
democratic, accountable and effective.
n
Agreed to establish Small and Medium Enterprises and Medium and Small
Industries to promote income generation and employment creation for
people of both sides.
n
Ensure access to affordable and quality treatment and medicines,
particularly generic medicines to people of both sides.
 CURRENT REVIEW
NEW SPECIES OF TREE FROG
DISCOVERED
During the field work in southern part of Western
Ghats, a team of researchers discovered a new species of
tree frog named Ghatixalus magnus on November 25,
2015. It was discovered from Kadalar in the high ranges
of Idukki district in the Western Ghats of Kerala.
The discovery was published in November, 2015 issue
of international taxonomic journal Zootaxa. Its
discovery was a joint effort by a team comprising of
Robin Abraham, a researcher from the University of
Kansas, USA; Anil Zachariah, a batrachologist from
Wayanad and Vivek Philip Cyriac, a researcher, of the
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research,
Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala).
FREEDOM ON THE NET 2015
REPORT RELEASED
Internet freedom improved in India for the second
consecutive year in 2015, according to a new report,
even as more governments around the world censored
information of public interest and expanded
surveillance.
Freedom on the Net 2015, a report released on
October 29, 2015 by Freedom House, an independent
watchdog that works in the areas of democracy, political
freedom and human rights, rated Indias Internet
freedom status as partly free (with a total score of 40 on
a 0 to 100 scale with 0 representing the best level of
freedom on the net progress and 100 the worst) because
of the network shutdowns in the name of security and a
lack of transparency about blocking and surveillance.
According to the report Freedom on the Net 2015,
China country was the worst abuser of internet freedom
in the world.
China was followed by Syria and Iran. The report is
based on internet-related developments in 65 countries
across the world since June month of 2014.
34
3RD BRICS MINISTERIAL MEETING ON
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY AND
INNOVATION (STI)
BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa)
agreed for co-investment of resources for supporting multilateral
R&D Projects in mutually agreed areas.
The Indian delegation led by the Union Minister for Science &
Technology and Earth Sciences, Dr. Harsh Vardhan, signed a
joint Declaration called Moscow Declaration to this effect, at the
3rd Meeting of BRICS Ministers for Science, Technology and
Innovation held at Moscow on October 28, 2015.
This declaration reflects BRICS partnership in addressing
common global and regional socio-economic challenges, utilising
such drivers as Science, Technology and Innovation (STI).
BRICS STI Minister agreed on the collaboration for
n
Cooperation within large research infrastructures, including
mega-science projects; coordination of the existing large-scale
national programme of the BRICS countries.
n
Development and implementation of a BRICS Framework
Programme for funding multilateral joint research projects,
technology commercialisation and innovation.
n
Establishment of BRICS Research and Innovation
Networking Platform.
The 3rd BRICS S&T Ministers Meeting endoresed Indias
proposal to host the BRICS Young Scientist Forum Secretariat in
India with the Indian Department of Science and Technology as
coordinating point.
As outlined in the BRICS Action Plan 2015-16, a series of of
sceintific events will be orginased in 2015-16
n
Holding of BRICS Working Group on Geospatial Technology
Application for Development (March, 2016; India).
n
Holding the second Meeting of the BRICS SSL Working Group
(November, 2015; China).
n
Holding the first Meeting of the BRICS Astronomy Working Group
(December, 2015).
n
Holding annual conference Innovative materials for energy and
water saving and environmental protection, new trends in the
technological development (Russia).
WORLDS MOST POWERFUL
SUPERCOMPUTER TIANHE-2
Tianhe-2, the supercomputer of China, retained its numero uno
position as the most powerful supercomputer in the world as
revealed by the 46th edition of the bi-annual TOP500 list of the
worlds most powerful supercomputers.
Developed by Chinas National University of Defence
technology, this supercomputer topped the list for the sixth time
in a row. It topped the list with a performance of 33.86 petaflop
per seconds (quadrillions of calculations per second or Pflop/s)
on the Linpack benchmark. At number 2 spot is Titan, the top
system in the US and one of the most energy-efficient systems.
SAANKHYA LABS DEVELOPED
PRUTHVI CHIP
Bengaluru-based Saankhya Labs Private Limited in the third
week of October, 2015 announced that it developed a chip,
named as Pruthvi, to augment capacities of White-Fi devices.
The Pruthvi-based White-Fi devices will be used by Microsoft to
extend the reach of internet services in remote areas of
the country.
White-Fi technology uses the unused spectrum in frequencies
utilised for broadcasting of television signals and use it for the
internet. In technology parlance, these unused spectrum spaces
are called White Space and thus it is also called TV White Space
technology.
The 200-300 MHz spectrum in the white space can reach up to
10 km as compared to current Wi-Fi technology that allows you
a range of about 100 m. The 200-300 MHz spectrum currently
belongs to Doordarshan TV channel and isnt used at all.
REPORT ON REDUCING GLOBAL
HEALTH RISKS
The World Health Organisation (WHO) and the Climate and
Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants
have produced a report outlining the urgent need to reduce
emissions of black carbon, ozone, methane and carbon dioxide
on October 26, 2015, which all contribute to climate change.
Frequently described as Short-Lived Climate Pollutants
(SLCPs), they not only produce a strong global warming effect,
they contribute significantly to the more than 7 million
premature deaths annually linked to air pollution.
Short-Lived Climate Pollutants
Short-lived climate pollutants are powerful climate forcers that
remain in the atmosphere for a much shorter period of time than
longer-lived climate pollutants, such as carbon dioxide (CO 2 ).
Short-Lived Climate Pollutants include three main components :
1. Black Carbon It is produced from the incomplete
combustion of fossil fuels and biomass burning, particularly
from older diesel engines and forest fires.
2. Fluorinated Gases (F-gases) Most F-gas emissions come
from leaks of these gases in refrigeration and air-conditioning
systems.
3. Methane (CH 4 ) The atmospheric concentration of
methane is growing as a result of human activities in the
agricultural, waste treatment, and oil and gas sectors.
TSUNAMI EARLY WARNING SYSTEM
SIREN TESTED SUCCESSFULLY
The newly installed Tsunami Early
Warning System Siren was successfully
tested on October 26, 2015. The Siren
and a Digital Electronic Board is part of
a system for issuing early warning in
case of a tsunami threat in the Indian
Ocean Region (IOR).
The test was conducted near INS-Angre
in Fort area, off Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) head office in South Mumbai.
The Siren has been connected to the
electronic Display board and will now be remotely
controlled by Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad. The Siren
will operate continuously for one minute in case of a
possible tsunami threat. In 2005, Indian government had
started its own interim tsunami warning centre after the
devastating tsunami which had hit the Indian ocean
countries on December 26, 2004.
DEFENCE
INTERCEPTOR BOAT ICGS C-422
COMMISSIONED INTO ICG SERVICE
Indian Coast Guard (ICG) has commissioned interceptor
boat ICGS C-422 into its fleet to further enhance its
vigil along Puducherry and South Tamil Nadu coast in
the Bay of Bengal on November 29, 2015.
It was commissioned in a traditional ceremony held at
Karaikal port in Tamil Nadu by Puducherry Assembly
Speaker V. Sabapathy. ICGS C-422 is the 36th
interceptor boat to be inducted into the Coast
Guard service. ICGS C-422 boat is capable of multiple
tasks including interdiction, surveillance and search and
rescue. It has been fitted with state-of-the-art
communication, navigational equipment along with
adequate fire power.
LRSAM SUCCESSFULLY
TEST-FIRED
Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) was
successfully flight-tested for the first time from an Israeli
Naval Platform on November 27, 2015. This missile is
co-developed by India and Israel. LRSAM is also called
Barak 8 missile in Israel, which in Hebrew language
means Lightning.
Test was conducted by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
in the presence of Defence Research Development
Organisation (DRDO) scientists and missile was
successful as it hitted the desired incoming target. This
missile is an advanced long-range missile with air
defence system. The LRSAM programme consists of
Missiles, Weapon Control System, MFSTAR (Radar),
Vertical Launcher unit and two-way data link.
35
AGNI-I SUCCESSFULLY
TEST-FIRED
The Agni-I missile was successfully test-fired
by India from Dr. Abdul Kalam Island test
range off the Odisha coast as part of Strategic
Forces Command (SFC) training exercise on
November 27, 2015.
The surface-to-surface, single-stage missile,
powered by solid propellants, was test-fired
from a mobile launcher from launch pad-4 of
the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Abdul
Kalam Island (Wheeler Island).
The DRDO had launched the Agni project in
1983 as Integrated Guided Missile
Development Programme in India. The
missile was first launched on January 25,
2002, and can be fired from road and rail
mobile launchers.
Agni-I missile is equipped with state-of-the-art
navigation system which ensures it reaches the
target with a high degree of accuracy and
precision.
The missile is only 15 m and powered by
solid and liquid propellants at a speed of
2.5 km per seconds. It weighs around
12 tonnes and can carry both conventional
and nuclear payload of about 1000 kg.
SAADMEX 2015
CONCLUDED
The South Asian Annual Disaster
Management Exercise (SAADMEx) 2015
was concluded on November 26, 2015 by the
Union government in Delhi. This was the
first-ever joint exercise to be conducted by the
National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
of India.
This joint exercise was attended by South
Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) member countries from
November 23 to 26, 2015. The member
countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and
Sri Lanka.
SAADMEx 2015 aimed to synchronise efforts
to institutionalise regional cooperation on
disaster response among SAARC member
countries. Through the exercise, the
important aspects of responding to disasters
by pooling of resources/expertise were
addressed.
Joint Field Training Exercise on Collapsed
Structure Search & Rescue (CSSR)
techniques was conducted by NDRF with
active participation of all eight member
nations of SAARC.
36
GRSE HANDED OVER ASW CORVETTE
KADMATT TO INDIAN NAVY
The second Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)
Corvette, Kadmatt, built indigenously by Garden
Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE)
shipyard in Kolkata, was formally handed over to
Indian Navy on November 25, 2015.
The basic design for these ships was developed by
Indian Navys Directorate of Naval Design while
the detailed design was made by the in-house design
department of GRSE (Kolkata).
ASW Kadmatt is 109 m long with a displacement of 3200 tonnes. Its main
role is to protect nations maritime interests against possible submarine
attack. It is a potent platform for neutralising the enemy submarines using
weapons like torpedoes, rocket launchers and helicopter.
It has been built in the country with indigenously developed special grade
high-tensile (DMR249A) steel produced by the Steel Authority of India.
Its hull encompasses the bulk of sensors and weapon systems which are also
indigenously manufactured. INS-Kadmant is the second in its class of four
ASW corvettes being built by GRSE under Project-28 (P-28) for the
Indian Navy.
NUCLEAR-CAPABLE PRITHVI-II
SUCCESSFULLY TEST-FIRED
India successfully test-fired its indigenously developed nuclear-capable
Prithvi-II missile on November 25, 2015, which has a strike range of
350 km, as part of a user trial by the army.
The missile test was carried out from a mobile launcher from launch
complex-3 of the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur in Odisha.
Prithvi-II is a tactical Short-Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM) developed by
indigenously by Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO). It has been developed under Integrated Guided Missile
Development Program (IGMDP) and currently deployed by Indias
Strategic Forces Command (SFC).
The missile is capable of carrying 500 kg to 1000 kg of warheads. It has
been designed to operate with both liquid and solid fuel twine engines and
has strike range of 350 km. It has the ability to dodge enemy missiles and
uses advanced inertial guidance system with manoeuvring trajectory to hit
its target. The missile was inducted into Indian armed forces in 2003.
NUCLEAR-CAPABLE DHANUSH
SUCCESSFULLY TEST-FIRED
The nuclear-capable Dhanush ballistic missile was successfully test-fired
from warship Subhadra, off the Puri coast of Odisha in the Bay of Bengal
on November 24, 2015. The test was conducted by Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) and it was a perfect mission as the
missile hit the target point with high degree of accuracy.
One of the five missiles indigenously developed by the DRDO under its
strategic Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
The surface-to-surface missile is a naval variant of Prithvi-II missile and can
carry both conventional as well as a nuclear payload of 500 kg.
The missile has a length of 8.53 m and is 0.9 m wide. It is single-stage,
liquid propelled which can hit both land and sea-based targets upto strike
range of 350 km. The missile already has been inducted into the armed
Services. Naval variant of the missile was first successfully tested in 2012.
SUPERSONIC INTERCEPTOR AAD
MISSILE SUCCESSFULLY TEST-FIRED
Indigenously developed supersonic Advanced Air Defence
(AAD) interceptor missile was successfully test fired from the
Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast on November 21,
2015. The supersonic interceptor missile was launched after
getting signals from tracking radars.
The missile moved through the trajectory path and destroyed the
incoming electronically prepared target missile in mid-air at an
endo-atmospheric altitude. During the test, the kill effect of the
interceptor missile was analysed from data collected by multiple
tracking sources.
The interceptor AAD missile has been indigenously developed
by the Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) under Ballistic Missile Defence Programme.
AAD missile is capable of destroying any incoming ballistic
missile at lower (endo-atmospheric) altitude, giving full-fledged
multi-layer Ballistic Missile Defence system to country.
The interceptor is a 7.5 m long single stage solid rocket
propelled guided missile equipped with a navigation system, a
hi-tech computer and an electro-mechanical activator.
INDO-RUSSIAN MILITARY EXERCISE
INDRA-2015 CONCLUDED
The Indo-Russian military exercise INDRA-2015 culminated
on November 18, 2015 after nearly two weeks of joint training
in counter-terrorism operations. In the joint tactical exercise
which began on November 8, 2015, the two countries
conducted focused training and strived to understand the
functioning of each other.
Inter-operability procedures were on the top agenda for both the
armies. The exercise also provided an opportunity to both the
armies for greater cultural understanding, sharing experiences
and strengthening mutual trust and cooperation.
It was the seventh edition in a series of bilateral exercises under
this banner. The joint exercise this year focused on Counter
Terrorism Operations in Desert Terrain under a United Nations
Mandate.
SHIPWRIGHT SCHOOL COMMISSIONED
AS INS-VISHWAKARMA
The Shipwright School, a premier technical establishment, was
commissioned on November 14, 2015 as Indian Naval Ship
(INS) Vishwakarma by Admiral RK Dhowan, Chief of the
Naval Staff at Visakhapatnam. Shipwright School is an
alma-mater for Naval Architect Officers, Shipwright Officers
and Shipwright Sailors of the Indian Navy.
Shipwright School (SWS) was established at INS-Shivaji in
1941 for training shipwright artificers of Indian Navy and was
subsequently shifted to Naval Barracks, Mumbai (INS-Angre)
in 1943.
The commissioning of INS-Vishwakarma is expected to enhance
Indian Navys in-house design and maintenance capabilities.
This will help transform the Indian Navy to a designers and
builders Navy in keeping with the Make in India vision.
LARGEST COAST GUARD
OFFSHORE PATROL VESSEL
SAMARTH COMMISSIONED
The Coast Guards
latest and largest
offshore patrol vessel,
Samarth, was
commissioned on
November 12, 2015
in Goa by Defence
Minister Manohar
Parrikar who asked
the force not to sit on past laurels and focus on securing
Indias maritime interests.
With a displacement of 2450 tonnes, the ship is
equipped with sophisticated technology, sensors,
navigation, communication and weapon systems.
Samarth is first in the series of six 105 m offshore patrol
vessels and has been built by Goa Shipyard.
Samarth that will be based in Goa is also capable of
carrying pollution response equipment to contain any oil
spill at sea. The vessel will also carry one twin-engine
helicopter and five high-speed boats.
INDIA SUCCESSFULLY TEST-FIRED
NUCLEAR-CAPABLE
AGNI-IV MISSILE
India successfully test-fired its nuclear-capable strategic
ballistic missile Agni-IV on November 9, 2015, capable
of hitting a target at a distance of 4000 km, from
newly named Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the
Odisha coast.
The missile, which is about 20 m tall and weighs
17 tonnes, was flight tested from the launch complex-4 of
Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Abdul Kalam Island,
formerly known as Wheeler Island.
This was the fifth trial of the Agni-IV missile. This fire
and forget missile is navigated using a jam proof ring laser
gyroscope. The last trial conducted by SFC of the army
on December 2, 2014 was successful.
India already has battery of nuclear capable missile like,
the Agni series, Prithvi series and the Submarine
Launched Ballistic Missile. Agni-IV is the fourth in the
Agni series of missiles which was earlier known as Agni-II
prime.
It has been developed by Indias DRDO and displayed a
number of new technologies and significant improvement
in missile technology.
Specifications of Agni-IV
n
Weight 17000 kg
n
Length 20 m
n
Warhead Strategic nuclear, conventional, thermobaric
n
Engine Two stage solid propellant engine
n
Operational Range 4000 km

37
INDIAN ARMY SUCCESSFULLY
TEST-FIRED BRAHMOS MISSILE
The Indian Army today successfully test-fired the BrahMos
land attack cruise missile against a designated target in
Rajasthans Pokhran test range, demonstrating the weapons
operational capability, on November 7, 2015.
The missile was test launched by a Mobile Autonomous
Launcher (MAL) and carried out in the user-deployment
configuration by trained army personnel. It met all the
mission objectives.
The land-attack version of Brahmos has been operationalised
in the Army since 2007. The fire-and-forget Missile has the
capability to take on surface-based targets by flying a
combined high-low trajectory, thus evading enemy air
defence systems.
The missile, having a range of 290 km and a Mach 2.8 speed,
is capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea and air
against sea and land targets. BrahMos is a joint venture
between Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) of India and NPOM of Russia.
CAPTAIN SWAMINATHAN TOOK OVER
COMMAND OF INS-VIKRAMADITYA
Captain Krishna Swaminathan has assumed charge as the
second Commanding Officer of INS-Vikramaditya, Indian
Navys new and formidable aircraft carrier November 2, 2015
at Karwar. The ship was commissioned at Severodvinsk in
Russia on November 16, 2013 and has since been
commanded by Captain Suraj Berry.
INS-Vikramaditya is a Kiev class aircraft carrier which was
commissioned by Russian Navy in 1987 under the name
Baku and later was rechristened as Admiral Gorshkov. Under
the Russian control it last sailed in 1995 before being offered
to India.
Russia sold the carrier to India after it became too expensive
for the country to operate it on a post-Cold War budget. The
ship is capable of operating MiG 29K/KuB fighters, Sea
Harrier, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Sea King, Advanced Light
Helicopter (ALH) and Chetak Helicopters from its deck.
ICGS ARINJAY COMMISSIONED
IN KOCHI
ICGS Arinjay, Fast Patrol Vessel was commissioned in Naval
Base, Kochi on November 2, 2015. This is the 15th vessel of
its class in the series of 20 such Fast Patrol Vessel
commissioned by Vice-Admiral Sunil Lanba, Flag Officer
Commanding-in-Chief, Southern Naval Command.
Indias future is intrinsically linked to the maritime security.
Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) delivered ICGS Arinjay, the
15th vessel in the series of 20 Fast Patrol Vessel under
construction for the Indian Coast Guard, more than
two months ahead of the contractual schedule.
These Fast Patrol Vessels are primarily intended for patrolling
within the Exclusive Economic Zone and Coastal Patrol,
carrying out anti-smuggling, anti piracy and search and rescue
operations, and for fisheries protection and monitoring.
38
SPACE
CHINA LAUNCHED LATEST YAOGAN
WEIXING SATELLITE
China launched satellite in the militarys Yaogan Weixing
series (YG-29) via the use of a Long March-4C (Chang
Zheng-4C) rocket on November 26, 2015. The YG-29
mission began from the LC9 launch complex at the
Taiyuan Satellite Launch Center (TSLC).
Yaogan-29 was launched by a Long March-4C launch
vehicle. It was reported as the 219th launch of the rocket
family known as the Chang Zheng in Chinese.
This is the 219th mission for the Long March rocket
family. China launched the first Yaogan series satellite,
Yaogan-1, in 2006. The satellite will be used for
experiments, land surveys, crop yield estimates and disaster
relief, State-run Xinhua news agency reported.
FIRST DEDICATED COMMERCIAL
SATELLITE LAUNCHED BY JAPAN
First dedicated commercial satellite was launched by Japan
on November 24, 2015 by launching Canadian
communications spacecraft, Telstar 12V. It was launched
through a H-IIA rocket that blasted off from Pad 1 of the
Yoshinobu Launch Complex at Japans Tanegashima
Space Centre.
Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency in collaboration with
Mitsubishi Heavy Industries launched the satellite. H-IIA
(H2A) is an active expendable launch system operated by
Mitsubishi Heavy Industries (MHI) for the Japan Aerospace
Exploration Agency.
The liquid-fueled H-IIA rockets have been used to launch
satellites into geostationary orbit, to launch a lunar orbiting
spacecraft, and to launch an interplanetary space probe to
Venus. The Telstar 12V (Telstar 12 Vantage) is a
geostationary communications satellite was built by Airbus
Defence and Space.
FIRST SATELLITE EKS (TUNDRA)
SYSTEM LAUNCHED BY RUSSIA
KOSMOS 2510
The first satellite for early warning system, named EKS or
Integrated Space System was successfully launched by Russia
on November 17, 2015. Its official name is Kosmos 2510
(Tundra 11L). It is designed to restore Moscows capability
to identify and track worldwide missile launches from space.
The Tundra spacecraft was built by RKK Energia, a Russian
manufacturer of spacecraft and space station components. It
will detect missiles launched from the sea as well as from the
US territory. Russian Aerospace Defence Forces will operate
the satellite.
Integrated Space System (EKS) is a replacement for the
US-KMO and US-K satellites. These sattelites has the
ability to detect ballistic missile launches from outer space
and can provide early warning radars such as the Voronezh.
Till 2020, six Tundra satellites are planned to be launched.
NASAS CASSINI DETECTED
MONSTROUS ICE CLOUD
ON TITAN
NASAs Cassini
spacecraft has
detected a monstrous
new cloud of frozen
compounds on the
Saturn moon Titans
south polar region
on November 11,
2015. The ice cloud in the moons low to
mid-stratosphere (a stable atmospheric region
above the troposphere, or active weather layer)
suggests that winter comes in like a lion on the
largest moon of Saturn.
Cassinis camera had already imaged an impressive
cloud hovering over Titans South Pole at an
altitude of about 300 km. However, that cloud,
first seen in 2012, turned out to be just the tip of
the iceberg. A much more massive ice cloud system
has now been found lower in the stratosphere,
peaking at an altitude of about 200 km.
Titan (or Saturn VI) is the largest moon of Saturn.
It is the only natural satellite known to have a
dense atmosphere, and the only object other than
Earth where clear evidence of stable bodies of
surface liquid has been found.
INDIAS GSAT-15
COMMUNICATION SATELLITE
LAUNCHED SUCCESSFULLY
GSAT-15, Indias latest communications satellite,
was launched successfully by the European Ariane
5 VA-227 launch Vehicle in the early morning
hours of November 11, 2015. The 3164 kg
GSAT-15 carried communication transponders in
Ku-band as well as a GPS Aided GEO Augmented
Navigation (GAGAN) payload operating in L1
and L5 bands.
The launch took place from Kourou in French
Guyana in South America. ISROs Master Control
Facility (MCF) at Hassan in Karnataka took over
the command and control of GSAT-15
immediately after its separation from the
launch vehicle.
Providing replacement for the Ku-band capacity of
INSAT-3A and INSAT-4B satellites, GSAT-15
will augment and support the existing DTH and
VSAT services in the country.
CURRENT AFFAIRS
YEARLY 2016
A Complete Coverage of Current Events 2015
500+ Current Affairs MCQs with Level of Toughness
INDIAN ASTRONOMERS DISCOVERED RARE
GIANT RADIO GALAXY
A team of astronomers has discovered an extremely rare radio galaxya
giant on November 7, 2015, with an extent of a whopping 4 million
light years caught in its dying phase at an incredible distance of 9
billion light years.
The team working at the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics
(NCRA), Pune, using the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT),
found the galaxy located towards the constellation Cetus, emitting
powerful radio waves with an end to end extent of 4 million light years.
Such galaxies with extremely large radio size are appropriately called
giant radio galaxies.
It is argued that the presence of a super massive black hole at the centre
of the galaxy drives large scale jets of hot plasma in diametrically
opposite directions which eventually give rise to large radio lobes.
CIVIL COMMUNICATIONS SATELLITE
CHINASAT 2C LAUNCHED
China has launched a new communication satellite (ChinaSat 2C)
carried aboard the Long March 3B rocket. The rocket blasted off from
Xichang Space Center in southwest Chinas Sichuan province on
November 3, 2015.
The ChinaSat 2C satellite will provide radio, TV transmission and
broadband services for the nations radio stations, TV Broadcast
Stations, and cable networks. The satellite has been developed by
China Academy of Space Technology and is owned by China Satellite
Communications Company, which is Chinas primary operator of civil
communications satellites. The firm is a State-owned subsidiary of
China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation.
CHINA LAUNCHED TIANHUI-1 SERIES
SATELLITE
China successfully launched one of the nations Long March 2D rockets
on October 26, 2015, lifting the Tianhui-1C mapping satellite into
orbit. Liftoff took place from the Launch Area 4 (LA-4) at the Jiuquan
Satellite Launch Center in the North-Western province of Gansu.
Built by the Hangtian Dongfanghong Weixing Corporation and the
Chinese Academy of Space Technology (CAST), Tianhui-1C (Sky
Drawing) is an Earth observation satellite that will be used for
scientific experiments, land resource surveys, mapping, crop yield
estimation, and disaster relief.
It was the 228th Chinese orbital launch and the 215th mission carried
out by the Long March vehicle family. It was also the 81th orbital
launch from the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center and the 12th orbital
launch (all successful) for China this year (2015).
The country plans 3 more launches by the end of 2015. The first
Tianhui-1 satellite was launched on August 24, 2010. The Tianhui-1
satellites are part of the Ziyuan program that cover different civil and
military Earth observation as well as remote sensing programs.
 CURRENT REVIEW

TENNIS WTA FINALS 2015

DAVIS CUP 2015
Andy Murray led Great Britain have won
the 2015 Davis Cup on November 29, 2015
for first time since 1936 and for the 10th
time in the competitions 115-year history.
Great Britain defeated Belgium by 3-1 score
in the finals to win the 104th edition of
the competition.
With this win, Murray joined John McEnroe
and Mats Wilander as the only men to have
an 8-0 singles record in a Davis Cup year.
For Great Britain, it was the first title since
1936 which was won by defeating Australia.
The Davis Cup is the premier international
team event in mens tennis organised by the
International Tennis Federation (ITF). It was
established in year of 1900 as a tennis
challenge between Great Britain and
the USA.
ATP WORLD TOUR
FINALS 2015
World number 1, Novak Djokovic won the
season-ending ATP World Tour finals on
November 22, 2015. In the title clash played
in London, Djokovic defeated 3rd seed Roger
Federer in straight sets.
With this, he also became the first player to
win ATP world tour finals for the fourth
consecutive time. This was the fifth time that
Djokovic won this tournament. He ends the
year 2015 with 11 titles, including three
Grand Slams, taking his total to 10 majors.
Besides, in the Doubles, the eighth seeded
Indo-Romanian team of Rohan Bopanna and
Florin Mergea has ended as runner up.
Bopanna was appearing in his second
season-end Finale, having reached the final
with Mahesh Bhupathi in 2012.
Sania Mirza (India) and Martina Hingis (Switerzerland) has won the 2015
BNP Paribas WTA Finals womens double category on November 1, 2015.
The Indo-Swiss duo defeated Spanish pair of Garbine Muguruza and Carla
Suarez Navarro in the final match played in Singapore. Agnieszka
Radwanska of Poland won the BNP Paribas WTA Finals womens in the
singles category.
It was the 45th version of the singles event and the 40th version of the
doubles competition. The tournament had eight singles players and eight
doubles teams as contestants. The tournament started from October 25,
2015 and the finale was on November 1, 2015. It overall ninth World
Tennis Association (WTA) doubles titles won by the Indo-Swiss pair
together in 2015 season so far.
CRICKET
INDIA-SOUTH AFRICA ODI SERIES
South Africa won the 5-match One Day International (ODI) series against
India 3-2 on October 25, 2015. This was South Africas first ever bilateral
ODI series win on Indian soil. South Africa after winning the toss chose to
bat first and posted 438 runs at a loss of four wickets; this was third highest
score in the history of ODIs.
In reply, Indian team was bundled out for 224 in the 36th over, with Ajinkya
Rahane top scoring with 87. AB de Villiers (South Africa) was named Player
of the series. The 5th match saw three centuries by Faf Du Plessis (133),
skipper AB DeVilliers (119) and Quinton de Kock (109). Three centuries in
an ODI inning was made for the second time in the history.
Bhuvneshwar Kumar created the record of being the most expensive figures
by an Indian bowler in ODIs, 106 for 1 wicket from 10 over. Hashim Amla,
who made 23, broke Virat Kohlis record and became the fastest player to
reach 6000 ODI runs.
Quintessence of the Series
Series Winner Man of the Match Place
First South Africa won by AB de Villiers Green Park (Kanpur)
5 runs (South Africa)
Second India won by 22 runs MS Dhoni (India) Holkar Cricket Stadium (Indore)
Third South Africa won by M. Morkel (South Africa) Saurashtra Cricket Association
18 runs Stadium (Rajkot)
Fourth India won by 35 runs V. Kohli (India) MA Chidambaram Stadium
(Chennai)
Fifth South Africa won by Q de Kock (South Africa) Wankhede Stadium (Mumbai)
214 runs
HOCKEY
8TH MENS JUNIOR ASIA CUP
Indias junior mens hockey team on November 22, 2015 lifted
the 8th Mens Junior Asia hockey cup. In the finals played at the
Wisma Belia Hockey Stadium in Kuantan, Malaysia, India
defeated arch rivals Pakistan 6-2.
Harmanpreet Singh was the top scorer with four goals, Armaan
Qureshi and Manpreet chipped in with a goal each. Both
nations have reached the final of Asias Premier Junior
tournament 6 times in the last 27 years and on November 22,
2015 India and Pakistan squared off once again for the 4th time.
The 8th Mens Junior Asia Cup was held from November 14 to
22, 2015. India, Malaysia, Japan, China, Korea, Pakistan, Oman
and Bangladesh were the participant nations of the tournament.
Awards
n
Tournaments Top Scorer Harmanpreet Singh (India) with
14 goals
n
Man of the Match Harjeet Singh (India)
n
Best Goalkeeper of the Tournament Vikas Dahiya (India)
n
Best Player of the Tournament Shahril Saabah (Malaysian
striker)
n
Fair Play Award Japan
32ND SURJIT MEMORIAL TOURNAMENT
Indian Railways emerged champions for the first time in 32nd
Indian Oil Servo Surjit Hockey Tournament after dethroning
defending champions Indian Oil Corporation of Mumbai by
4-3 in the hotly contested final at the Olympian Surjit Hockey
Stadium in Jalandhar on November 5, 2015.
The Player of the Tournament was Malak Singh of Indian
Railways. Surjit Memorial Hockey Tournament is an annual
hockey tournament organised by Surjit Hockey Society in
Jalandhar, Punjab in the memory of Surjit Singh Randhawa.
Surjit Singh was an Indian field hockey player, who had
represented India national field hockey team at the 1976
Montreal Olympics and was captain of team.
FOOTBALL
FIFA WORLD CUP QUALIFIERS 2018
India finally tasted victory after 5 straight losses in their 2018
football World Cup qualifying campaign as they beat Guam by a
solitary goal here on November 12, 2015 at The Sree Kanteerava
Stadium in Bengaluru.
Despite the win, India still occupy the bottom of the five-team
group with three points while Guam are just above them on
seven points. India are already out of contention for a final
round berth for the 2018 World Cup but Thursdays
(November 12, 2015) win has put them in a good position to
qualify for the 2019 Asian Cup.
The group winners and four best runners-up teams will advance
to the final round of qualifying for the 2018 FIFA World Cup.
Robin put India ahead early in the match. Goalkeeper Gurpreet
Singh, Sandhu also did a great job in this event.
F1 RACE
ABU DHABI GRAND PRIX 2015
Mercedes driver Nico
Rosberg won the 2015
Formula 1 Abu Dhabi
Grand Prix title at the Yas
Marina Circuit in Abu
Dhabi, UAE on
November 29, 2015. To
win the title, the German
driver defeated the
defending champion and
his team mate Lewis Hamilton of the UK.
Abu Dhabi Grand Prix title race was the nineteenth and
final round of the 2015 season of Formula One. It was
Rosbergs overall fourteenth championship title of F1 in
his career and the sixth win in the 2015 season after
Spain, Monaco, Australian, Mexican and Brazilian
Grand Prix.
BRAZILIAN GRAND PRIX 2015
Mercedes driver Nico Rosberg (Germany) has won the
2015 Brazilian Grand Prix title of Formula One (F1)
held at Autdromo Jos Carlos Pace in Socorro district of
Sao Paulo on November 15, 2015.
It was Rosbergs overall thirteenth championship title of
F1 in his career and the fifth win in the 2015 season after
Spain, Monaco, Australian and Mexican Grand Prix.
The race was the 18th round of the 2015 season. Nico
Erik Rosberg is a German racing driver for Mercedes
Formula One team.
He races under the German flag in Formula One, and
has also briefly competed for Finland very early in
his career. He holds dual nationality of these two
countries. The Brazilian Grand Prix is a Formula One
championship race which is firstly held in 1972.
BADMINTON
MACAU OPEN GRAND PRIX
GOLD 2015
Indian Shuttler PV Sindhu won the Macau Open Grand
Prix Gold womens singles title for the third consecutive
time on November 29, 2015. In the title clash, Sindhu
(World No. 12) defeated Minatsu Mitani (World No. 6)
of Japan.
With this victory, she has won this title for the third
consecutive time after she had won it in 2013 and 2014.
Overall this was PV Sindhus fifth title of in her career
and first title of the 2015 season. Her other four
individual titles are Indonesia International (2011),
Malaysia Masters (2013) and Macau Open for
consecutive two times in 2013 and 2014.
The Macau Open Badminton Championships is an open
international championship in badminton held in Macau
since 2006.
41
BWF WORLD JUNIOR
CHAMPIONSHIPS 2015
Young shuttler Siril Verma on
November 15, 2015 grabbed a silver
medal at the BWF World Junior
Championships held in Lima, Peru.
Chinas Chia Hung Lu clinched the
gold medal at the Boys singles event.
Verma came into limelight when he
clinched the Junior U15 Asian
Championships title in 2013. He
also became the first Indian player to
win the Badminton Asia Youth
Championships in 2013.
The BWF World Junior
Championships is also known as the
World Junior Badminton
Championships. It is a tournament
organised by the Badminton World
Federation (BWF) to crown the best
junior badminton players (under-19)
in the world.
CHINA OPEN 2015
Chinese shuttler Xuerui Li won the
$ 700000 womens singles final of
China Open Super Series Premier
Badminton tournament. In the final
played at Fuzhou, Li defeated Indias
ace shuttler Saina Nehwal.
Saina has won just 2 of those games.
This was Sainas fifth final of the
year 2015. Saina and Li had met 12
times against each other and Saina
has won just 2 of those games.
The final of China Open
tournament was overall Sainas fifth
final of the year 2015 and the third
instance in 2015 that the World No.
1 has come out second best.
Note In year 2014, Indias Srikanth
Kidambi and Saina Nehwal had
created history by winning 2014
China Open in mens singles and
womens singles category
respectively.
Other Results of 2015 China Open are
n
Mens Singles Category Won by
Lee Chong Wei (Malaysia)
n
Mens Doubles Category Won by
Kim Gi-jung/Kim Sa Rang (South
Korea)
n
Womens Doubles Category Won
by Tang Yuanting/Yu Yang (China)
n
Mixed Doubles Category Won by
Zhang Nan/Zhao Yunlei (China)
42
ATHLETICS
DELHI HALF MARATHON
2015
The 8th edition of Delhi Half Marathon
took place on November 29, 2015,
around 34000 athletes and amateur
runners from different parts of the world
had participated. It was the first time that
six athletes completed the half marathon
within 60 minutes.
The events included in the half marathon
were the 7 km Great Delhi Run, a 4.3 km
run for senior citizens, and a 3.5 km
wheelchair race. The course starts in the
Nehru Stadium, although this was
temporarily moved to the grounds of the
Central Secretariat while the stadium was
under renovation for the 2010
Commonwealth Games.
List of Winners
Mens Category Birhanu Legese
claimed the first spot by finishing race in
59 : 20 min and was followed Mosinet
Geremew (Ethopia) and Zersenay
Tadese (Eritrea) at second and third
spots respectively.
Womens Category Cynthia led a
top-three finish for the Kenyans as she
finished the race in an hour, 8 min and
35 sec. She was a fraction of a second
ahead of Helah Kiprop, the 2015 World
Championships marathon silver
medallist. Gladys Chesir claimed the
third spot in an hour, eight minutes and
36 sec.
IPC WORLD
CHAMPIONSHIPS 2015
IPC Athletics World Championships
2015 held in Doha, Qatar from
October 21 to 31, 2015 was one of the
last major competitions ahead of the Rio
2016 Paralympic Games. Indian
para-athlete Amit Kumar Saroha on
October 28, 2015 won silver medal in
mens club throw F51 event in the IPC
Athletics World Championships in Doha.
With this, Amit sealed a berth for 2016
Rio Paralympic Games. Amit clinched
silver with an effort of 25.44 m, behind
Serbias Zeljko Dimitrijevic who won gold
in a championship record of 26.29 m.
Milos Mitic of Serbia bagged the bronze
in 25.40 m. Amit Kumar Saroha is an
Indian discus thrower.
GOLF
NOMURA CUP
Indian team led by Patnas Aman Raj,
current leader of the IGU men amateur
order of merit, finished 9th on the final
day of the Asia-Pacific Amateur Golf
Team Championship, Nomura Cup in
(Abu Dhabi United Arab Emirates) on
October 26, 2015.
Japanese team won the Nomura Cup
title for the first time since 1989
defeated Chinese Taipei at the Yas
Links Golf Club.
In the individual category, Raj who
was the second best finisher at the
Asia-Pacific amateur championship last
year (2014), kept getting better from
first days tied 9th position and finally
grabbed the 5th position after shooting
two-under 70 on the final day.
Mens Asia-Pacific Teams
Championship or Nomura Cup is the
trophy of the Asia-Pacific Amateur
Golf Team Championship. The
tournament is played every two years
across Asia-Pacific region. The
tournament originated in Japan
in 1961.
HERO WOMENS INDIAN
OPEN 2015
Denmarks
Emily Kristine
Pedersen won
the title Hero
Womens Indian
Open at the DLF
Golf and
Country Club in
Gurgaon
(Haryana) on October 25, 2015. She
beat the trio of Cheyenne Woods,
Becky Morgan and Malene Jorgensen,
who tied for the second position.
While, amateur Aditi Ashok was the
best Indian performer, who tied at the
13th position, Vani Kapoor, finished
tied 20th, was adjudged as the best
Indian professional at the tournament.
It is a $ 400000 event which is
tri-sanctioned by the Ladies European
Tour, the Ladies Asian Golf Tour and
the Womens Golf Association of
India. The annual event was started
in 2007.
BODYBUILDING ARCHERY
7TH WORLD BODYBUILDING AND ARCHERY WORLD CUP
PHYSIQUE CHAMPIONSHIPS 2015 Delhi lad Abhishek Verma has bagged Indias first ever Archery
Indian bodybuilder, Thakur World Cup Final medal in the compound section on
Anoop Singh earned the title of October 25, 2015. In the summit clash played in Mexico City,
Mr. World by winning a gold he was defeated by Turkeys Demir Elmaagcli by winning
medal in a world bodybuilding gold medal.
meet in Bangkok, Thailand. The Abhishek Verma is an Asian Games (2014) individual silver
athlete was competing against medallist in the mens individual compound event. He also had
athletes from 47 countries and won the gold medal in the Asian Games (2014) in the mens
won a gold medal in the fitness compound archery team event along with Rajat Chauhan and
physique category of the Sandeep Kumar.
seventh WBPF (World On August 15, 2015, he won a gold medal in the compound
Bodybuilding and Physique mens individual section at the Archery World Cup Stage 3 in
Championships). Wroclaw, Poland. The 2015 Archery World Cup is the
The World Bodybuilding Federation (WBF) was a 10th edition of the annual Archery World Cup, organised by
bodybuilding organisation founded in 1990 by Vince the World Archery Federation. The Archery World Cup is
McMahon that lasted until 1992. It was a subsidiary of started in 2003-04.
Titan Sports which owned and operated the World
Wrestling Federation. WBPF-World Bodybuilding and
Physique Sports Federation established in 2009. CUE SPORTS
IBSF WORLD SNOOKER CHAMPIONSHIP
SHOOTING Ace cueist Pankaj Advani won the IBSF World Snooker
Championship after defeating his Chinese opponent Zhua
13TH ASIAN CHAMPIONSHIP Xintong in the final at Hurghada (Egypt) on November 21,
The 2015 Asian Shooting Top 5 Ranks 2015. Advani beat his 18-year-old Chinese opponent 8-6 in the
Championships is being held best-of-15 final at Sunrise Crystal Bay resort in Hurghada.
Rank Country Medals
in between November 1 to With this victory, Pankaj Advani has won the World Snooker
1 South Korea 49
12, 2015. This tournament 2 China 37 Championship for record 15 times. He also became the first
is an Asian qualifying 3 India 35 person in history of Snooker to take the short (6-Red) and the
tournament for the 2016 4 Iran 16 long snooker format in the same calender year. Earlier in
Summer Olympics in Rio. 5 Kazakhstan 4 September 2015, he had won the 2015 IBSF World Billiards
However, this qualification Championship. Presently, he is ranked world number 1 in 6-red
event lost its Rio Olympics qualification status when the snooker and World Team Billiards.
IOC suspended Kuwait NOC for government
interference. The Asian Shooting Championships are
governed by the Asian Shooting Confederation. Asian BOXING
Shooting Championships began in 1967.
WORLD HEAVYWEIGHT CHAMPION 2015
25TH ALL INDIA GV MAVALANKAR Britains Tyson Fury defeated Ukraines Wladimir Klitschko on
CHAMPIONSHIP November 28, 2015 to become World Boxing Association
Winning 10 gold medals, the Army annexed the team (WBA) (Super), International Boxing Federation (IBF), World
title of the 25th All India GV Mavalankar Shooting Boxing Organisation (WBO), International Boxing
Championship held in Asansol (West Bengal), a Organisation (IBO) and The Ring unified heavyweight
statement by the organisers said on November 8, 2015. champion.
Army shooters bagged 10 gold, eight silver and nine The fight took place in Dsseldorf, Germany. Fury is Britains
bronze medals in the nine-day championship ended fifth bona fide heavyweight world champion after Bob
here yesterday. Fitzsimmons, Lennox Lewis, Frank Bruno and David Haye.
The National Cadet Corps (NCC) secured the Fury is a two-time former British and English champion, a
runners-up position bagging eight gold, 10 silver and six former European, Commonwealth and Irish heavyweight
bronze medals, while Haryana finished third with six champion.
gold, seven silver and five bronze medals. He is also a former WBO Inter-Continental and WBO
Altogether 821 shooters from 34 States and the Army, International heavyweight champion. He is a supporter of
Navy and Air Force took part in the championship, Premier League football club Manchester United. The World
organised jointly by the West Bengal (WB) Rifle and Heavyweight Championship was a professional wrestling world
Asansol Rifle Club, under the auspices of the National heavyweight championship owned by WWE. It was established
Rifle Association of India. under the Raw brand in 2002.

43
AQUA SPORTS
69TH SENIOR NATIONAL AQUATIC CHAMPIONSHIPS 2015
69th Senior National Aquatic Championships 2015, held in Rajkot and concluded on November 2, 2015. The
five-day-long event was participated by over 700 swimmers from across the country. It was jointly organised by the
Swimming Federation of India (SFI) and Gujarat State Aquatic Association (GSAA) and was hosted by the Rajkot
Municipal Corporation (RMC) and Rajkot District Swimming Association (RDSA).
Mana Patel and Virdhawal Khade emerged as the best swimmers of the 69th senior National Aquatic Championships
2015 that concluded in Rajkot. Mana from Gujarat was adjudged the best swimmer in the womens category of the
competition. Khade from Maharashtra was declared best swimmer in mens category. The Karnataka team was adjudged
the best team for its overall performance in the competition. Rankings of the team as per points table
n
Railways 27 medals (14 Gold, 9 Silver and 4 Bronze) n
Karnataka 28 medals (9 Gold, 8 Silver and 11 Bronze)
n
Maharashtra 29 medals (8 Gold, 11 Silver and 10 Bronze) n
Gujarat 14 medals (4 Gold, 5 Silver and 5 Bronze)

Other Tournaments
Name Related Facts
Under-19 Cricket India won the Under-19 one day tri series. In the final played at Kolkata, India defeated Bangladesh by seven wickets.
Tri-Series
(November 29, 2015) Three participating nations of the tournament were India, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
All India FIDE Rating Maharashtras chess player Srishti Pandey clinched the second Indiana All India FIDE Rating Chess tournament.
Chess Tournament
(November 18, 2015) The tournament was organised by Nagpur Taluka Chess Association, which concluded at Dr. Hedgewar Smarak Samiti
Hall, Reshimbagh, Nagpur.
Fed Cup 2015 The Czech Republic won Fed Cup crown after defeating Russia in the finals. In five years, this is the fourth Fed Cup
(November 15, 2015) success for the Czech Republic.
Overall the country has won the Fed Cup for nine times. In 1963, it was initiated to celebrate the 50th Anniversary of the
International Tennis Federation (ITF).
2015 FIFA U-17 World Nigeria was won the 2015 FIFA U-17 World Cup from Mali. The 2015 FIFA U-17 World Cup was the sixteenth tournament
Cup (November 8, 2015) of the FIFA U-17 World Cup and host country was Chile. The FIFA U-17 world Cup 2017 will be hosted by India.
Melbourne Cup Michelle Payne became the first female jockey to win Australias most prestigious horse race, the Melbourne Cup. She
(November 3, 2015) is the fourth female to ride in the Cup during its 155-year history.
2015 Swiss Indoors Roger Federer (Switzerland) won the Swiss Indoors mens singles tennis title. He defeated Rafael Nadal (Spain) at the
(November 1, 2015) final match held at the St. Jakobshalle in Basel (Switzerland).
For the 17-time Grand Slam winner, it was seventh Swiss Indoors title and 88th of his career. In 2015, it was his sixth title.
Tournament held annually at the St. Jakobshalle in Basel (Switzerland) since 1995.
2015 Mexican Grand Prix Mercedes racing driver Nico Rosberg (Germany) won this championship. For Rosberg, it was the fourth title in the 2015
(November 1, 2015) season. Prior to the present championship, he won the titles in Spain, Monaco and Australia. Overall, it was the 12th title
in his career.
Rugby World Cup 2015 New Zealand have won a record third Rugby World Cup and become the first team to successfully defend the title after
(November 1, 2015) beating Australia 34-17 in the final at Twickenham.
The New Zealand mens national rugby union team, known as the All Blacks, have played 50 matches in the eight Rugby
World Cup tournaments from 1987 to 2015. The next Rugby World Cup will be host in Japan in 2019. It was first held in
1987 and was co-hosted by New Zealand and Australia.
YAI Senior National The Yachting Association of India (YAI) Senior National Championship-2015, being organised by the Indian Naval
Championship-2015 Watermanship Training Centre (Mumbai).
(October 25, 2015)
Gold medal winnerNethra Kumanan, Upamanyu Dutta, Pair of P. Muttu and Narender Rajput, Samal Pradhan and
Rahul Rai.
United States Grand Prix Mercedes driver Lewis Hamilton won the 2015 Formula 1 United States Grand Prix title. Earlier, Lewis Hamilton had
2015 (October 25, 2015) won it in 2007, 2012 and 2014.

SPORTS PERSONALITIES
SUNIL NARINE
International Cricket Council (ICC) suspended West Indies off-spinner Sunil Narine from bowling in
international cricket with immediate effect on November 29, 2015. The ICC took a decision after an
independent assessment found his bowling action to be illegal.
The ICC took a decision after an independent assessment found that his bowling action illegal after
the 3rd ODI match of West Indies against Sri Lanka in Pallekele in November 7, 2015. Once bowling
suspension is imposed, the player can apply for a re-assessment after modifying his bowling action
in accordance.

44
WASIM JAFFER
Vidarbha opener Wasim Jaffer became the first cricketer in Ranji
Trophy history on November 8, 2015 to notch-up 10000 runs on
day two of their Group A match against Bengal at the Jadavpur
University second campus ground in Salt Lake.
Having made his debut for Mumbai in 1996-97, Jaffer needed eight
runs to reach the milestone, which he got with an elegant drive to
long off boundary against Bengal seamer Veer Pratap in the
penultimate delivery of eighth over.
Wasim reached the milestone in his 126th match and the former
Mumbai opener is now the leading run-getter in Ranji, Duleep and
Irani Trophy having amassed 10002, 2545 and 1008 runs. Overall,
Wasim has played 229 first-class matches with 51 centuries and 83
half-centuries having amassed 17088 runs.
RAVICHANDRAN ASHWIN
Off-spinner Ravichandran Ashwin became the fastest Indian to
reach 150 wickets mark in the Indian test cricket history on
November 6, 2015. He achieved this feat when he took Imran
Tahirs wicket in the first innings of the first test against South
Africa in Mohali, Punjab.
In this match, Ashwin also became the first bowler in over 100 years
to take 50 wickets after opening the bowling. He achieved this feat
in 12 matches off 1888 balls. The test is a part of four-match test
series played to win Freedom Trophy, which is in turn is a part of
the larger Mahatma Gandhi-Nelson Mandela Series that includes
ODIs and T20s as well.
SHIVA THAPA
Shiva Thapa became the highest-ranked Indian boxer on
November 3, 2015, zooming to second in the latest international
rankings after winning a bronze medal at last months World
championships in Doha. He has moved up by five places from the
previous list of rankings.
The top spot was occupied by Irishman Michael Conlan (2150
points), who won the gold medal at the World Championships. The
22-year-old Shiva became only the third Indian ever to clinch a
medal at the showpiece event after Vijender Singh (2009, bronze)
and Vikas Krishan (2011, bronze).
Indian Boxers Positions
n
Vikas (6th) n
Satish Kumar (7th)
n
L. Devendro Singh (13th) n
Sumit Sangwan (18th)
n
Gaurav Bidhuri (37th) n
Mandeep Jangra (58th)
GURPREET SINGH SANDHU
Eight months ago, he created history by becoming the first Indian
footballer to play for a first division European club. Goalkeeper
Gurpreet Singh Sandhu added another feather to his cap by
ensuring on November 3, 2015 that he is part of the team scheduled
to play from its country on the Europa League next season.
Gurpreet Singh Sandhu is an Indian footballer who plays as a
goalkeeper for Norwegian club Stabaek in Tippeligaen. He is the
first ever Indian to play a competitive match for the first team of a
top division European club and the 5th Indian player to play
professionally in Europe after Mohammed Salim, Baichung Bhutia,
Sunil Chhetri and Subrata Pal.
LIONEL MESSI
Tata Motors signed
Argentinas football player
Lionel Messi as Global
Brand Ambassador for its
passenger vehicles on
November 2, 2015. This is
for the 1st time the
passenger vehicle business
will be undertaking an
overall brand association campaign with a brand
ambassador for the first time.
Further, Tata Motors will be the 1st Indian brand
endorsed by the international sports icon. Lionel Messi
is four consecutive times Best Player of the World. At
present, he is the captain of Argentina football team.
Tata Motors is Indias largest automobile company. It
has operations in the UK, South Korea, Thailand,
South Africa and Indonesia. Tata cars, buses and trucks
are being marketed in several countries in Europe,
Africa, the Middle-East, South Asia, South-East Asia,
South America, Australia, CIS and Russia.
GURBAJ SINGH
Hockey India (HI) lifted the 9-month ban on
Gurbaj Singh with immediate effect in the wake of
Punjab and Haryana High Courts order that termed
the suspension of the senior player illegal on
October 24, 2015. In 2012, Gurbaj was suspended
for a brief period after the London Olympics
following similar accusations from the then Chief
coach Michael Nobbs and his support staff.
Gurbaj Singh (born August 9, 1988) represented
India in Mens Hockey during the 2010 World Cup
in New Delhi, 2010 Commonwealth Games in New
Delhi, the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou, China,
and the 2012 London Olympics.
NOTEBOOK
ICC APPOINTED FOUR
FEMALE UMPIRES
The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced
that 4 female match officials have been selected for
the ICC Womens World Twenty20 Qualifier 2015
on November 25, 2015. New Zealands Kathleen
Cross, Australias Claire Polosak, Englands Sue
Redfern and West Indies Jacqueline Williams are the
four names selected for the ICC Womens World
Twenty20 Qualifier.
The ICC Womens World Twenty20 Qualifier 2015,
to be held in Bangkok, Thailand, will start from
November 28, 2015. It will end on December 5,
2015. It is the second edition of the Womens World
Twenty20 Qualifier. The top two teams will qualify
for the 2016 Womens World Twenty20 tournament
in India.
45
PINK KOOKABURRA BALL
INTRODUCED IN CRICKET
Australia and New Zealand have created history on
November 27, 2015 by playing first day-night Test match at
the Adelaide Oval Cricket Stadium with a pink
Kookaburra ball.
The first day-night test match was the third match of the
series between Australia and New Zealand played for 2015
Trans-Tasman Trophy.
The idea of playing day-night test matches par with One Day
Internationals (ODIs) was mooted by Cricket Australia chief
executive James Sutherland. It was approved by International
Cricket Council (ICC), an apex body for regulating cricket in
July, 2015.
This test match numbered 2188 has a five-day limit and
six-ball overs bowled with bright pink Kookaburra ball to
ensure proper visibility in floodlights.
HOCKEY INDIA ANNOUNCED NTPC
AS SPONSOR
Hockey India, the apex organisation governing field hockey in
India, has announced NTPC Limited, the largest power utility
of the country as an Official Partner for the Hero Hockey
World League Final 2015 on November 25, 2015.
The Hero Hockey World League Final will be played at the
newly inaugurated Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International
Hockey Stadium, Raipur, India from the November 27 to
December 6, 2015. NTPC Limited is an Indian Central
Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Power,
government of India.
NTPCs partnership is the third signing by Hockey India for
the Hero Hockey World League Final this year (2015) after
securing National Mineral Development Corporation as the
Principal Partner and South Eastern Coalfields Limited as the
first Official Partner for the years biggest international hockey
event in the world.
FIFA BANNED NEPAL FOOTBALL
CHIEF GANESH THAPA
FIFA, the governing body of football,
banned Nepals football Chief Ganesh
Thapa on November 16, 2015 for
10 years for corruption.
The body also banned the President of
the Laos federation Viphet Sihachakr for
two years for bribery.
Apart from the ban, Thapa was fined
20000 Swiss francs by the ethics
committees adjudicatory chamber. Sihachakr was banned for
soliciting and accepting a payment from another football
official around 2011 elections for the FIFA executive.
The Fdration Internationale de Football Association
(FIFA) is the governing body of association football, futsal and
beach football. FIFA was founded in 1904. Its membership
now comprises 209 national associations.
46
IAAF PROVISIONALLY
SUSPENDED RUSSIA
Russia was provisionally suspended from track and field
events by International Association of Athletics
Federations (IAAF) on November 13, 2015 due to doping
allegations against the countrys athletes, coaches, trainers,
doctors and officials. The IAAFs council members voted
22-1 in favour of Russia being banned from the events.
The ban will keep Russian athletes out of all sanctioned
international track and field events worldwide. It could also
affect the countrys preparations of Summer Olympics
2016 to be held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
After the suspension, Russia will also not be able to host
world race walking team championships to be held in 2016
in Cheboksary and the world junior championships
in Kazan.
The strict action was taken by IAAF after the Independent
Commission on Doping in Sports on November 9, 2015
submitted its report to the World Anti-Doping
Agency (WADA).
RICHARD PROUD-CHAIRED
INDEPENDENT COMMISSION
REPORT SUBMITTED
Richard Proud-chaired Independent Commission (IC) on
Doping in Sports submitted its report to the World
Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). The report was submitted
on November 9, 2015 in Vienna, Switzerland.
The WADA launched the Independent Commission in
December, 2014 to investigate the validity of allegations of
doping practices, corrupt practices around sample
collection, results management, etc that implicate Russian
government agencies, labs, athletes, coaches among others.
The allegations were based on a documentary titled Top
Secret Doping : How Russia makes its Winners that was
aired by the German television channel ARD.
ODISHAS BARABATI STADIUM
EXCLUDED FROM BCCIS NEW
TEST VENUES
The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) excluded
Barabati stadium in Cuttack, Odisha from the list of newly
declared Test venues on November 9, 2015.
Barabati Stadium was excluded from the list after Cricket
fans hurled plastic bottled onto the ground forcing the
match referees to stop the match for some time.
The bottles were thrown during Indias dismal batting
display in the 2nd T20 International match against South
Africa on October 5, 2015. The South Africa had won
the match.
However, Visakhapatnam, Ranchi, Indore, Pune,
Dharamsala and Rajkot were accorded the status of Test
venues. The new list for Test venues was declared at the
Boards 86th Annual General Meeting (AGM) in Mumbai.
 CURRENT REVIEW
APPOINTMENTS
JUSTICE TS THAKUR
In exercise of the powers conferred by Article-124 of the Constitution of
India, the President is pleased to appoint Justice Tirath Singh Thakur on
November 18, 2015, Judge of the Supreme Court, to be the Chief Justice
of India with effect from December 3, 2015.
On October 31, 2015, he was conferred Doctor of Laws (Honoris Causa)
degree by Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Lucknow.
His tenure will be till January 3, 2017.
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum and final court
of appeal under the Constitution of India, the highest constitutional
court, with the power of constitutional review. It comprises the Chief
Justice of India and 30 other judges. The Supreme Court of India came
into being on January 28, 1950.
PRASHANT PURKER
ICICI Venture Funds Management appointed Prashant purker as the
Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) on
December 1, 2015. Prashant Purker replaced Vishakha Mulye who is now
Executive Director of ICICI Bank. Prashant Purker was earlier Executive
Director at the Private Equity (PE) firm.
ICICI Venture is one of Indias largest and most active home-grown PE
firms. Established in 1988, it is the pioneer and the largest asset managers
in India which is headquatered in Mumbai, India.
MARC CHRISTIAN KABORE
Marc Christian Kabore has been elected as President of Burkina Faso on
November 30, 2015. In the Presidential election, Kabore from the
Movement of People for Progress party won 53.5% of the vote across 368
communes.
His nearest competitor Zephirin Diabre, a former economy and Finance
Minister secured 29.65% votes. He is the second civilian to become
President since the West African country became independent in 1960
from France.
He had served as Prime Minister of Burkina Faso from 1994 to 1996 and
also was President of the National Assembly of Burkina Faso from 2002
to 2012.
ANIL KHANNA
Anil Khanna was re-elected as the President of
Asian Tennis Federation (ATF) on
November 28, 2015. He was elected for 4 years
in the Annual General Meeting (AGM) held in
Colombo (Sri Lanka).
At present, he is the President of the All India
Tennis Association (AITA). And, in
September, 2015, he was elected as the
Vice-President of the International Tennis
Federation (ITF) in the elections held in
Santiago (Chile).
The Asian Tennis Federation (ATF) is a
non-profit organisation affiliated with the
International Tennis Federation. There are
currently 44 member associations who
represents their respective nations.
MAHESH GUPTA
The PHD Chamber of Commerce and
Industry (PHDCCI) has a new President in
Mahesh Gupta on November 28, 2015. Gupta,
a seasoned entrepreneur, is currently Chairman
of Kent RO Systems Limited, which is a
leading player in water purifier industry.
Gupta succeeded Alok Shriram who demited
office as PHDCCI President. PHD Chamber
of Commerce and Industry, established in
1905, is a proactive and dynamic multi-State
apex organisation working at the grass-root level
and with strong national and international
linkages.
The Chamber acts as a catalyst in the
promotion of industry, trade and
entrepreneurship. PHD Chamber, through its
research-based policy advocacy role, positively
impacts the economic growth and development
of the nation.
47
PATRICIA SCOTLAND
Dominica-born British lawyer Patricia Scotland
was appointed as the Secretary-General of the
Commonwealth of Nations on November 27,
2015. She become the first British citizen and first
woman as well to hold this role.
Before her this post was with Kamalesh Sharma of
India. She was selected during the 24th biennial
Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting
(CHOGM) in Malta on November 27, 2015.
Total members of Commonwealth nations are 53.
Commonwealth Secretary-General is the head of
the Commonwealth Secretariat, the Central body
that has served the Commonwealth of Nations
since its establishment in 1965.
Office of Commonwealth Secretary-General
is headquartered at Marlborough House
in London.
SUNIL KANORIA
Sunil Kanoria was appointed as the President of
the Associated Chamber of Commerce and
Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) on
November 25, 2015. Kanoria has succeeded Rana
Kapoor, Yes Bank Managing Director and CEO.
Kanoria is the Vice-Chairman of reputed
non-banking finance company SREI Infrastructure
Finance Limited. He also held the prestigious
position as Member of the Working Group on
Construction for the Tenth Five Year Plan
(2002-07) of the Planning Commission.
ASSOCHAM is one of the apex trade associations
of India. The organisation represents the interests
of trade and commerce in India, and acts as an
interface between industry, government and other
relevant stakeholders on policy issues
and initiatives. ASSOCHAM was established in
1920 by promoter chambers, representing all
regions of India.
ANJU BOBBY GEORGE
Former long jump champion Anju Bobby George
was appointed as the Chairperson of Target
Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) on
November 24, 2015.
The Sports Ministry has cleared her appointment
for the post that fell vacant after the resignation of
BJP Parliamentarian and Board of Control for
Cricket in India (BCCI) Secretary Anurag Thakur.
Anju, the only Indian to have won a medal at
World Championships (Paris, 2003), will be
assuming charge in December first week.
Presently, she is a member of the TOPS
identification committee, which also includes
national badminton coach Pullela Gopichand and
former Indian cricket captain Rahul Dravid.
48
NITISH KUMAR
Nitish Kumar on November 20, 2015 was sworn-in as Bihar Chief
Minister for a third straight term at Patnas historic Gandhi Maidan in
a ceremony witnessed by opposition leaders from across the country.
Governor Ramnath Kovind administered the oath of office and secrecy
to Senior JDU Nitish Kumar. He also administered the oath of the
office to other Council of Ministers belonging to RJD, JD(U) and
Congress parties. RJD President Lalu Prasads sons, first time MLA
Tejaswi Prasad Yadav and Tej Pratap Yadav, were also sworn-in.
In the elections held in 5 phases from October 12 to November 5,
2015, Grand Alliance of Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD), Janata Dal
(United) and Indian National Congress (INC) emerged as the winner
of the election with thumping two-third majority. RJD, a part of the
grand Alliance with 80 seats emerged as the largest party.
Previous terms of Nitish as Chief Minister of Bihar
n
First Term From March 3, 2000 and March 10, 2000, resigned after he
failed to prove majority.
n
Second Term From November, 2005 to November, 2010.
n
Third Term From November, 2010 and May, 2014, resigned from his
office on May 17, 2014 after his party performed poorly in the 2014 Lok
Sabha elections.
n
Fourth Term On February 22, 2015 he took the oath for the fourth time.
SWATI DANDEKAR
Indian-American politician Swati Dandekar has been nominated as
Executive Director to Asian Development Bank (ADB) with
ambassadorial rank by US President Barack Obama on November 20,
2015. The first-ever Indian-American to be elected to Iowa House of
Representatives in 2003, Dandekar, 64, would replace Robert M. Orr,
who has held the position since 2010. Dandekar was the first
Indian-born American citizen to win a State legislature seat in the USA.
About the ADB
THE ASIAN DEVELOPMENT BANK (ADB) IS AN INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATION THAT
PROVIDES LOANS, GRANTS, POLICY AID, TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE AND EQUITY
INVESTMENTS TO COUNTRIES IN ASIA AND THE PACIFIC. IT WAS ESTABLISHED AS A
REGIONAL DEVELOPMENT BANK ON AUGUST 22, 1966 WHICH IS HEADQUARTERED IN
MANILA, PHILIPPINES. FROM 31 MEMBERS AT ITS ESTABLISHMENT, ADB NOW HAS
67 MEMBERS, OF WHICH 48 ARE FROM WITHIN ASIA AND THE PACIFIC AND
19 OUTSIDE.
YUSUF HAMIED
UN Chief Ban Ki-moon has designated
Padma Bhushan (2005) awardee Yusuf
Hamied as one of the members of a
high-level panel on health technology
innovation on November 19, 2015.
Hamied put his efforts to treat and
eradicate AIDS and other diseases and to
give patients life-saving medicines
regardless of their ability to pay. In 2001
he offered the worlds first affordable
AIDS medicine at the unprecedented
cost of $ 1 per day.
Chairman of pharmaceutical manufacturer Cipla Yusuf Hamied will
join 16-member panel that will be co-chaired by former President of
Switzerland Ruth Dreifuss and former President of Botswana
Festus Mogae.
HARSHAVARDHAN NEOTIA
Harshavardhan Neotia, Chairman of Ambuja Neotia
Group, on November 20, 2015 has been elected
President of industry body Federation of Indian
Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) for 2016.
Neotia, a Padma Shri awardee, is also a member of the
Rajasthan Chief Ministers Advisory Council and West
Bengal Chief Ministers Core Committee on Industry.
Currently, he is the senior VP of the industry body.
Neotia took over from the current FICCI President
Jyotsna Suri during the chambers AGM in (December,
2015).
About the FICCI
THE FICCI IS AN ASSOCIATION OF BUSINESS ORGANISATIONS IN
INDIA. ESTABLISHED IN 1927, ON THE ADVICE OF MAHATMA GANDHI
BY GD BIRLA AND PURUSHOTTAM DAS THAKURDAS, IT IS THE
LARGEST, OLDEST AND THE APEX BUSINESS ORGANISATION IN
INDIA. IT IS A NON-GOVERNMENT, NOT-FOR-PROFIT ORGANISATION.
FICCI DRAWS ITS MEMBERSHIP FROM THE CORPORATE SECTOR,
BOTH PRIVATE AND PUBLIC, INCLUDING SMES AND MNCS. IT IS
HEADQUARTERED IN THE NATIONAL CAPITAL NEW DELHI AND HAS
PRESENCE IN 12 STATES IN INDIA AND 8 COUNTRIES ACROSS
THE WORLD.
SUBIR GOKARN
Former Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) Subir Vithal Gokarn was appointed as an
Executive Director on the board of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) on November 12, 2015. Gokarn
will replace Rakesh Mohan at the IMF.
Mohans three year tenure ends in November, 2015.
IMFs Executive Board is composed of 24 Directors,
who are elected by member countries or by groups of
countries, and the Managing Director, who serves as its
Chairman.
Gokarn had served as one of the four Deputy Governors
of the Reserve Bank of India along with Anand Sinha,
KC Chakrabarty and HR Khan. Prior to his
appointment as the Deputy Governor of RBI, he worked
as the Chief Economist of global rating agency Standard
and Poors (S&P) Asia-Pacific from 2007 to 2009.
SHASHANK MANOHAR
Former Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
President N. Srinivasan has been removed from his post
as International Cricket Council (ICC) Chairman. The
decision was taken at the BCCI AGM on November 9,
2015 in Mumbai.
Consequently, Shashank Manohars name has been put
forward as the new ICC Chairman. With this decision,
the saga of N. Srinivasans stranglehold over Indian and
world cricket comes to an end.
Shashank Manohars has also served as the 29th
President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India
from 2008 to 2011. Shashank Vyankatesh Manohar is a
prominent Indian lawyer.
SURESH N. PATEL
Andhra Bank appointed Suresh
N. Patel as its new Managing
Director (MD) and Chief
Executive Officer (CEO) on
November 3, 2015. Patel assumed
charge on Monday at Delhi. His
predecessor CVR Rajendran retired
in April end.
He is now, the Chief Executive of
Association of Mutual Funds in India. Prior to this, Patel was the
Executive Director at Oriental Bank of Commerce since
January, 2014.
Andhra Bank is a medium-sized Public Sector Bank (PSB).
Dr. Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya founded Andhra Bank in
1923 in Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh. In the second phase of
nationalisation of commercial banks commenced in April, 1980,
the bank became a wholly owned government bank. Andhra
Bank has its Headquarters in Hyderabad, India.
SHAKTIKANTA DAS
Economic Affairs Secretary Shaktikanta Das has joined the board
of capital markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) on October 31, 2015. He has replaced Manoj Joshi
as nominee of the Finance Ministry on SEBIs board.
Joshi is currently Joint Secretary (Capital Markets) in the
Ministry. Das has also been nominated to the Central Board of
Directors of the Reserve Bank. He is a 1980-batch IAS officer of
Tamil Nadu cadre.
Other members on the board are SEBI Chairman UK Sinha and
the regulators whole time membersRajeev Kumar Agarwal,
Prashant Saran and S. Raman. Meanwhile, Sinhas current
tenure will end in February, although he is eligible for a one-year
extension on age criteria.
BIDHYA DEVI BHANDARI
Bidhya Devi Bhandari has been elected as first female President
of Nepal on October 28, 2015. Bidhya Devi Bhandari is of the
ruling Communist Party of Nepal (Unified Marxist
Leninist)-CPN-UML.
With this, she also became first President under newly
promulgated Constitution of Nepal and second President since
the Himalayan nation became a republic after abolishing the
centuries-old monarchy.
In the Presidential election, Bidhya Devi Bhandari defeated her
opponent Kul Bahadur Gurung of the Nepali Congress by
securing 327 to 214 votes out of total 549 votes.
Under the countrys new Constitution promulgated, it was
mandatory for Parliament to elect new President and
Vice-President, Prime Minister and Parliament Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
Ram Baran Yadav was first elected President of Republic
Nepal. He was elected in 2008 and was in office for 7 years
till the drafting and adoption of Republican Federal
Constitution.
49
SAMIRAN CHAKRABORTY BALASUBRAHMANYAM
Citibank announced that it has appointed Samiran Chakraborty as Chief KAMARSU
Economist for India on October 27, 2015. Prior to joining Citi Bank , he The government has appointed
was Managing Director and Head of Macro Research for South Asia at Balasubrahmanyam Kamarsu on the board of
Standard Chartered Bank. the Employees Provident Fund Organisation
Chakraborty, who has more than a decade of experience in conducting (EPFO) as an industry representative on
macro research, covering various asset classes including currency, interest October 26, 2015.
rates and credit markets, has also held prior employments with ICICI Balasubrahmanyam Kamarsu, the national
Bank as Chief Economist. co-convenor of Bharatiya Janta Partys (BJP)
Citibank India is an Indian private sector bank and subsidiary of legal cell and the secretary of the BJP
US-based Citigroup, a multinational financial services corporation. Parliamentary party.
Established in 1902 in Kolkata. Presently, its headquarters are in The Employees Provident Fund came into
Mumbai, Maharashtra. existence with the promulgation of the
Employees Provident Funds Ordinance on the
JIMMY MORALES November 15, 1951. It was replaced by the
Jimmy Morales, a former television comedy actor who promised to clean Employees Provident Funds Act, 1952.
up Guatemalas corrupt politics, won a landslide victory in presidential He succeeds Ram Tarneja who was demised in
election on October 26, 2015. He has defeated Sandra Torres, 59, who August, 2015. The 43-member EPFO board
won less than 33% of votes. comprises 15 State government representatives,
In 2015, he was nominated as the FCNs presidential candidate. This eight central government representatives, and 10
election was Guatemalas ninth since the Central American country members each representing employee unions
returned to democracy after a 36-year civil war that ended in 1996. and industry bodies like Confederation of
The election was held after President Otto Perez Molina resigned and was Indian Industry (CII), Federation of Indian
jailed in connection with a sprawling customs scandal. His former vice Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI),
president has also been jailed in the multimillion-dollar graft and Assocham and the Employers Federation
fraud scheme. of India.

Other Appointments
Person Post Related Facts
P. Uday Bhaskar Chairman (AP PSC) There had been no permanent Chairman of the Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (AP
(November 26, 2015) PSC) since 2014. Sivanarayana, who is one of the member of APPSC, had been the Interim
Chairman but he retired in June, 2015.
Rishi Gour Country President Sodexo India On-site Services is a leading provider of services that impact the Quality of Life of
(November 20, 2015) (Sodexo India On-site) clients and their employees in the corporate segment and remote sites, patients and visitors in the
healthcare segment, and students and faculty in the education segment.
Arun Kumar Kapoor CEO (Dish TV) Direct-To-Home (DTH) service provider Dish TV on appointed Arun as its Chief Executive Officer.
(November 20, 2015) Prior to joining Dish TV, Kapoor was the CEO of Raj Television handling subscription revenues of
Zee and Turner channels.
Vijay Keshav Gokhale Indias Ambassador He will replace Ashok Kantha, who was appointed as envoy to China in January, 2014 for a two-year
(November 18, 2015) to China term i.e., till January, 2016. Currently, Gokhale is serving as the Indias Ambassador to Germany.
Syed Akbaruddin Permanent Syed Akbaruddin was appointed as the next Permanent Representative of India to the United
(November 16, 2015) Representative of India Nations at New York. He replaced Asoke Kumar Mukerji who assumed the office in April, 2013.
to United Nations
Excluding Akbaruddin, 19 diplomats served as Permanent Representative of India to the UN.
Notable among them are the incumbent Vice-President of India Mohammad Hamid Ansari
(1993-95) and Brajesh C. Mishra (1979-81) among others.
James McMurdo Head (Corporate and He is the current CEO of the German lender in Australia and New Zealand.
(November 13, 2015) Investment Banking for
the Asia Pacific Region Deutsche Bank AG is a German global banking and financial services company.
of Deutsche Bank) Headquarters of Deutsche Bank : Frankfurt (Germany).
V. Sivaramakrishnan Managing Director MD with regional responsibilities including Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
(November 6, 2015) (Oxford University
Press, India) He succeeds Ranjan Kaul, who will be retiring this month end after working with OUP for 14 years.
Navtej Singh Sarna High Commissioner to Sarna, an Indian Foreign Service officer of 1980-batch, will be Indias next high commissioner to UK
(November 5, 2015) UK announced by the External Affairs Ministry. For two years from August, 2012, Sarna served as
additional secretary in-charge of international organisations.
He was then made Secretary (West) in the Ministry. He represented India at the officers meeting at
the India-Africa forum summit that concluded on November 5, 2015.
RK Takkar MD (UCO Bank) At Present, TakkarExecutive Director of Dena Bank. UCO Bank, formerly United Commercial
(November 3, 2015) Bank, established in 1943 in Kolkata. The government of India nationalised United Commercial Bank
on July 19, 1969.

50
 Current Review
Person Post Related Facts
JK Garg MD (Corporation Bank) Garg will assume charge on or after February 1, 2016. Corporation Bank is a public sector banking
(November 3, 2015) company headquartered in Mangalore, India. The bank was nationalised in 1980 along with 5 other
private sector banks.
Mahesh Kumar Jain MD and CEO (Indian Currently he is Executive Director at Indian Bank. He has been appointed for a period of three years.
(November 3, 2015) Bank)
Indian Bank is an Indian State-owned financial services company established in 1907 and
headquartered in Chennai, India. On July 19, 1969 the government of India nationalised 14 top
banks, including Indian Bank.
Shalini Warrier Chief Operating Officer Privately-held Federal Bank has appointed Shalini Warrier as COO with effect from November 2,
(November 2, 2015) (Federal Bank) 2015. Headquarter of Federal Bank is in Kochi, Kerala and MD and CEO of Bank is Shyam
Srinivasan. First Indian bank mobile App for Bank account opening.
Alok Shekhar Indias Representative Senior IAS officer Alok Shekhar has been appointed as Indias representative in the council of
(October 29, 2015) (ICAO) International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) in Montreal, Canada, a United Nations body.
He is at present working as Secretary in Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India. Shekhar
will be replacing Prashant Narain Sukul.
Sujan R. Chinoy Indias Ambassador to Senior diplomat Chinoy has been appointed as Indias Ambassador to Japan, succeeding Deepa
(October 29, 2015) Japan Gopalan Wadhwa. Chinoy, a 1981-batch Indian Foreign Service officer, is currently serving as
Indias Ambassador to Mexico.
PK Gupta Managing Director State Bank of India has designated PK Gupta as MD for period of four years (March, 2020) in place
(October 28, 2015) (SBI) of Corporate Banking Head P. Pradeep Kumar. He was of Deputy Managing Director (DMD) rank, is
currently Managing Director of the banks investment banking arm SBI Caps.
Sanjeev Mohanty Chief Executive Officer With his appointment, for the first time the Indian e-commerce would witness a CEO from a
(October 28, 2015) and Managing Director traditional retailer heading an online venture in India.
(Jabong)
Jabong.com is an Indian fashion and lifestyle e-commerce portal, selling apparel, footwear, fashion
accessories, beauty products, fragrances, home accessories and other fashion and
lifestyle products. The company is headquartered in Gurgaon, NCR.
Najib Shah Chairman (CBEC) Senior IRS officer Najib Shah was appointed as Chairman of Central Board of Excise and Customs
(October 28, 2015) (CBEC), apex body on Indirect Taxes.
The Appointments Committee of Cabinet has approved the appointment of Shah as Chairman,
CBEC, an order issued by the Department of Personnel and Training.
Aruna Sundarajan Secretary (Ministry of Sundarajan, a 1982-batch IAS officer of Kerala cadre, is presently Administrator, Universal Service
(October 28, 2015) Steel) Obligation Fund under Department of Telecommunications. She has been appointed in place of
Rakesh Singh, who superannuated on September 30, 2015.
Sylvie Lucas Chair of the Luxembourg envoy to the United Nations (UN) Sylvie Lucas was appointed by 70th UN General
(October 27, 2015) Inter-Governmental Assembly session President Morgens Lykketoft and replaced Jamaican Ambassador to UN
Negotiations (IGN) of Courtenay Rattray. Luxembourg had served as a non-permanent member of the 15 nation UNSC for
UN Security Council year 2013-14.
Reforms

RESIGNATIONS
ANIL KUMBLE
Former Indian Test Captain and ace spinner Anil Kumble has resigned as the Chief Mentor of
Indian Premier League (IPL) franchise Mumbai Indians on November 30, 2015 with an
immediate effect. His decision follows after Board of Cricket Council of India (BCCI)
crackdown on conflict of interest in the board.
In January, 2013, Kumble was associated with Mumbai Indians and in his first year as the
mentor of Mumbai Indians team had won the IPL and the Champions League and once again
the IPL cup in 2015.
Kumble is one of the two bowlers in history of cricket who had taken all 10 wickets in an
innings and another one is Englands Jim Laker. He is also Indias highest wicket taker in both
Test matches (619 wickets) and one day Internationals (ODIs) (337 wickets).

ZARINE DARUWALA
ICICI Banks Head of corporate banking division Zarine Daruwala has quit the Mumbai based lender on November 16,
2015 to join the UK base Standard Chartered as its India CEO. Daruwala will be replaced by Vishakha Mulye. Mulye, the
present Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (MD&CEO) of ICICI Venture was CFO at ICICI Bank between
2005 and 2007.
She has won various accolades and awards including the CA Business Achiever award by the Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India and in the past she has featured in the Business Today list of 30 most powerful women in
Indian business.

51
VICTOR PONTA
Romanias Prime Minister Victor Ponta resigned on
November 4, 2015 from his position following a
deadly nightclub blaze which left 32 dead and nearly
200 injured. Following the resignation, Klaus Iohannis
appointed then Education Minister Sorin Cmpeanu as
Interim Prime Minister, to hold this post until a new
leader is nominated and approved by Parliament.
His resignation came after more than 20000 people
rallied in Bucharest to demand he step down. Since
September, 2015, he has been facing weeks of intense
pressure to quit after going on trial in facing charges of
fraud, tax evasion and money laundering. Ponta is
mired in a corruption scandal. Ponta had been
Romanias Prime Minister since 2012.
SUNDAR RAMAN
Chief Operating Officer (COO) of Indian Premier
League (IPL) Sundar Raman has resigned on
November 2, 2015 from his position.
Ramans name had cropped up in the 2013 IPL
spot-fixing scandal involving former BCCI President
N. Srinivasans son-in-law Gurunath Meiyappan and
Rajasthan Royals then co-owner Raj Kundra.
Even Supreme Court appointed Mudgal Committee
on the IPL spot-fixing scandal in its report has
mentioned that Raman was decreed to have been in
touch with a contact of a bookmaker eight times
during IPL season.
PERSONS DIED
USTAD SABRI KHAN
Renowned sarangi maestro Sabri Khan died on
November 30, 2015 following a brief illness at New
Delhi. Ustad Sabri Khan belonged to sainia gharana
and is credited for giving a fresh lease of life to the
music. He had played Vande Mantaram at midnight as
India ushered in Independence in 1947 at Parliament.
In appreciation of his contribution to Indian classical
music, Ustad Sabri Khan had received numerous
honours and awards, including the Sahitya Kala
Parishad Award, UP Sangeet Natak Academy Award,
National Sangeet Natak Academy Award and the
prestigious Padma Shree (1992) and Padma Bhushan
awards (2006).
ASHOK SINGHAL
The patron of the Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP)
Ashok Singhal passed away on November 17, 2015 in
Gurgaon, due to a prolonged illness. Singhal was a key
organiser of the first VHP Dharma Sansad held at
Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi in 1984.
He became the main leader of the Ramjanmabhoomi
movement. Singhal served as the international working
President of the Hindu organisation for over 20 years.
52
DR. TS PAPOLA
Veteran Labour Economist Dr. TS Papola passed away on
November 23, 2015 in New Delhi following brief illness. He
served as Chairman and Member of several State and National
level bodies including the Prime Ministers Advisory Council on
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). He also had
worked in consultative and advisory capacities with various
international organisations such as UNCTAD, ILO, UNIDO,
UNDP and UNICEF.
He was founder member at the Institute for Studies in Industrial
Development (ISID), New Delhi and Institute for Human
Development (IHD). He was recipient of various awards including
VKRV Rao Young Social Scientist Prize for outstanding
contribution in Economics (1984), Kautilya Award (2007) by the
UP-Uttarakhand Economic Association.
SAEED JAFFREY
Veteran Bollywood actor Saeed Jaffrey passed
away in London (England) on November 15,
2015 due to age-related ailments.
Jaffrey was the first Indian actor to tour
Shakespeare, taking his company across the
United States of America. He was also the
first Indian to receive the Order of the
British Empire (OBE) for his contributions
to drama.
In 1978, he was awarded with Filmfare Best
Supporting Actor Award for Shatranj Ke
Khiladi. Jaffrey appeared in numerous Indian and British movies,
including Gandhi, Ram Teri Ganga Maili, A Passage to India,
Chashme Buddoor, My Beautiful Laundrette and many more.
Other Persons Died
Person Related Facts
Margi Sathi One of the finest exponents of Koodiyattom and
(December 1, 2015) Nangiarkoothu, passed away at the Regional Cancer
Centre in Thiruvananthapuram.
She was recipient of Kerala Sangeeta Nataka
Academy award (2002), Kaladarpana award (2008)
and Natyarathna Puraskaram (2008).
Sathi emerged as the leading woman artist,
choreographer and teacher of the classical
Koodiyattam theatre, recognised by the UNESCO as
a unique artistic heritage of entire humanity.
Khekiho Zhimomi Sitting Rajya Sabha MP from Nagaland Zhimomi
(November 26, 2015) passed away following a cardiac arrest at the All
India Institute of Medical Sciences in New Delhi.
He served as the member of Nagaland Legislative
Assembly for three times. He also served as the
State Cabinet Minister of Industry, Commerce,
Mining and Border Affairs in Nagaland.
Surendra Upadhyay Noted litterateur and Professor Surendra Upadhyay
(November 25, 2015) passed away due to cardiac arrest.
He was a former Chairman of Rajasthan
Brijbhasha Academy.
Banwari Lal Mittal Nepals noted Indian-origin businessman Banwari
(November 25, 2015) Lal Mittal passed away at Kathmandu, Nepal after
protracted illness.
Mittal was the Founder and Chairman of Shree
Airlines of Nepal. Mittal launched Shree Airlines
in 1990.
Person Related Facts
Noboru Karashima Japanese Tamil scholar and former President of the International Tamil Research Association Prof Noburo Karashima died
(November 25, 2015) of leukemia. He is recipient of the Padma Shri (2013) for his contributions in building India-Japan ties. Also was awarded
with Fukuoka Asian Culture Prize (1995), Japan Academy Prize (2003).
Mahip Singh The famous Hindi writer, columnist and journalist, passed away at the age of 85. His fammous novels are Bich ki Dhoop,
(November 24, 2015) Abhi Shesh Hai and Ye Bhi Nhi. He had established Bhartiya Lekhak Sangathan in 1978.
Satya Paul Agarwal Eminent neurosurgeon and Secretary General of Indian Red Cross Society Satya Paul Agarwal died. In 2010, he was
(November 17, 2015) honoured with the Padma Bhushan, the third highest civilian award, for his services to the fields of medicine and
public health.
Kamala Laxman A noted writer of childrens books Kamala Laxman passed away in Pune. Notable Children BooksThe Thama Stories,
(November 14, 2015) Raman of Tenali & Other Stories, Thama and His Missing Mother etc.
Angad Paul The youngest son of NRI industrialist Lord Swraj Paul died. Angads death has come at the backdrop of large-scale job
(November 8, 2015) cuts at his steel company, Caparo plc.
Bimal Prasad Indias former Ambassador to Nepal Bimal Prasad, who was also a close associate of Jayaprakash Narayan, passed away
(November 4, 2015) at the age of 92.
He had authored a number of books on JPs philosophy and life including Socialism, Sarvodaya and Democracy,
Gandhi, Nehru and JP, Studies in Leadership and A Revolutionarys Quest.
Gurcharan Chabbra Former Janata Dal MLA Gurcharan Chabbra, who was on a fast unto death demanding liquor ban and strengthening of
(November 3, 2015) Lokayukta in Rajasthan, has died.
Kondavalasa Kondavalasa belonged to the group of very few comedians in the Telugu Film Industry.
Lakshman Rao
(November 2, 2015) He acted in more than 300 films.
Hasim Abdul Halin Veteran CPI(M) leader and former Speaker of the West Bengal Assembly Hasim Abdul Halin passed away in Kolkata. Halin
(November 2, 2015) was the Speaker of the State Assembly for a record time of 29 years from 1982 to 2011 during the Left Front rule in
the State. He was the longest-serving Speaker of any Legislative Assembly in the country.
Brijmohan Lall Munjal Hero Group founder Brijmohan died in New Delhi. He started the Hero Group, which officially came into existence in 1956
(November 1, 2015) in Ludhiana. He led the Hero MotoCorp to the worlds largest two-wheeler company. Hero Cycles became the worlds
largest cycle maker in 1975.
He was conferred with many awards including the Padma Bhushan in 2005 and Lifetime Achievement for the Asia Pacific
Entrepreneurship in 2011.

PERSONS IN NEWS
ASHOK AMRITRAJ HARJIT SAJJAN
Tennis champion-turned Hollywood filmmaker Ashok Amritraj was Indo-Canadian Sikh
awarded with an honorary doctorate of Arts by the University of East Harjit Sajjan was
London on November 19, 2015. Amritraj was honoured for promoting sworn-in as Defence
talented moviemakers from across the world, including India. Minister of Canada
Ashok Amritraj competed in doubles at Wimbledon and the US Open. on November 4,
He reached the third round of the US Open in 1977. His filmography as 2015.
producer includes movies such as Bringing down the House, Premonition, Sajjan succeeded
Machete, Blue Valentine and Ghost Rider : Spirit of Vengeance. He sat Conservative
on the board of the Motion Picture and Television Fund (MPTF) for Defence Minister
7 years. Jason Kenney.
He is one of the
PRITHIKA YASHINI Prime Minister
Tamil Nadu Uniformed Services Recruitment Board (TNUSRB) is to hire Justin Trudeaus 30-member Cabinet that was
the countrys first transgender police officer on November 5, 2015. Bench sworn-in at a public ceremony held at Rideau
led by Chief Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Justice Pushpa Hall in Ottawa, Canada. Trudeau was sworn-in
Sathyanarayana, instructed TNUSRB to add transgenders as a as the 23rd Prime Minister of Canada.
third category. Other Indian-born Cabinet Ministers in the
The government had to provide transgender people with quotas in jobs Canadian Cabinet
and education same as with other minorities also the key amenities. n
Amarjeet Sohi was sworn-in as Minister for
Prithika Yashini was born as a boy named Pradeep Kumar but met with Infrastructure. He began his career as a
gender reassignment surgery to become a police sub-inspector. bus driver.
Transgender people experience a mismatch between their gender identity n
Sikh woman Bardish Jhagger was sworn-in as
or gender expression and their assigned sex. People who identify as Minister for Small Business and Tourism.
transgender or transsexual are usually people who are born with typical n
Navdeep Bains was awarded with the important
male or female anatomies but feel as though theyve been born into the Cabinet berth.
wrong body.

53
 AHMED ADEEB
Maldives Vice-President
Ahmed Adeeb was arrested on
October 24, 2015, on suspicion
of links to a blast on the
presidential boat which took
place on September 28, 2015.
The explosion had occurred on
the boat, which was carrying
President Abdulla Yameen on
his return from the Haj pilgrimage to Saudi Arabia. According
to Maldives Constitution, if the President dies, is
incapacitated or resigns, the Vice-President succeeds him.
Gayoom was instrumental in promoting Adeeb from Tourism
Minister after the President got his lawmakers in Parliament to
impeach the previous Vice-President, Mohamed Jameel.
Lawmakers also lowered the minimum age for President and
Vice-President from 35 to 30 to enable Adeeb to take
the position.
PLACES IN NEWS
MAHE (PUDUCHERRY)
The Mayyazhi Mahotsavam (Fete de Mahe), a three-day
cultural extravaganza, concluded on December 1, 2015 at
Mahe, Puducherry.
The festival was organised jointly by the Department of
Tourism and the Legislative Assembly Secretariat at Mahe,
which is Puducherrys exclave in Kerala.
The Aayi Mandapam, the main venue, witnessed the
performance of artists of national and international acclaim.
A parade of classical and folk-ritual art forms, including
Kathakali, Mohiniyattam and Theyyam, are part of the fete.
SILCHAR (ASOM)
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal (BBIN) Friendship
Motor Car Rally was flagged-off from Silchar, Asom on
November 27, 2015. The international rally aims at
highlighting connectivity in the sub-region and seamless
movements of vehicles across the borders in the 4 nations
through implementation of BBIN Motor Vehicles
Agreement (MVA).
The Car Rally has been jointly organised by the Union
Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, Kalinga Motor
Sports Club (Odisha) in partnership with the counterpart
clubs of the neighbouring countries.
The 19-days rally culminated at Kolkata (West Bengal) on
December 2, 2015 next after covering the capitals of Indian
states and neighbouring countries. The rally covered total
4500 km distance across three countries- India, Bhutan
and Bangladesh.
Nepal is skipped due to political tension in some areas of the
country. It will cover Jharkhand (Ranchi), Bihar (Patna),
Sikkim (Gangtok), Bhutan (Timphu), Assam (Dispur),
Meghalaya (Shillong), Tripura (Agartala) and Chittagong and
Dhaka in Bangladesh.
54
PARIS (FRANCE)
Terrorists attacked six locations around Paris killing around
130 civilians and injuring another 200 people and security
personnel on November 13, 2015. Maximum number of
deaths were noticed in the Bataclan concert venue.
Around 80000 football fans in the Stade de France came
under the deadliest attacks while they were watching a
friendly match between Germany and France.
France President Francois Hollande declared a State of
emergency soon after the attack. He was also present at the
spot during the attack.
The emergency orders enables the authorities to close
public places and impose curfews and restrictions on the
movement of traffic and people. This was the deadliest
violence in France after World War II and the after the
Charlie Hebdo Shooting in 2015.
KAZIRANGA NATIONAL PARK (ASOM)
North-East Indias first exclusive hospital for elephants has
been established at the Kaziranga National Park in Asom on
November 12, 2015. The hospital was set-up at Mark
Shand Memorial Learning Centre in Kaziranga National
Park.
It was inaugurated by Sir Evelyn de Rothschild who is
founding patron of the UK-based charity Elephant Family.
Kaziranga National Park is located in the Golaghat and
Nagaon districts of Assam and is circumscribed by the
Brahmaputra River.
It was designated with National Park status in 1968 and
was declared UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985 for its
unique natural environment. Kaziranga is also recognised as
an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for
conservation of avifaunal species.
SIERRA LEONE (WEST AFRICA)
The UN health agency, World Health Organisation
(WHO), declared on November 7, 2015 that Sierra Leones
deadly Ebola outbreak is over, prompting jubilant
celebrations as thousands massed in the capital Freetown.
This announcement is considered as a major milestone in
UN-backed efforts to wipe out Ebola from the three
Western African countries viz. Liberia, Sierra Leone and
Guinea.
The current Ebola outbreak is considered as the deadliest in
history. It was initially centred on Guineas remote
South-Eastern region of Nzerekore in early 2013 and later
had spread to Liberia and Sierra Leone.
Since May, 2014 after the first Ebola case was reported in
Sierra Leone, total 8704 people were infected with the
deadly disease and around 3589 have died due it, of them
221 are healthcare workers.
Ebola virus disease, or simply Ebola, is a viral hemorrhagic
fever of humans and other primates caused by
ebolaviruses. The disease has a high risk of death, killing
between 25% and 90% of those infected, with an average
of about 50%.
NEW DELHI DATES & DAYS
President Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated 35th
edition of India International Trade Fair 30 October World Thrift Day
(IITF) on November 14, 2015 at Pragati
Maidan in New Delhi.
31 October World Saving Day, Death Anniversary of Indira Gandhi

The 14-day fair was organised by India Trade 1 November World Vegan Day
Promotion Organisation (ITPO), under aegis
of Union Ministry of Commerce and 5 November World Radiography Day
Industry. In this edition over 7000 firms from 9 November World Service Day
India and overseas were participated.
This year Afghanistan has been roped as the 14 November Childrens Day (Birth anniversary of Jawaharlal Nehru)
partner country and Bangladesh is the focus
country. Within Indian States, Goa and
16 November International Day For Endurance
Jharkhand are roped as partner States, while 17 November World Students Day, National Journalism Day
Madhya Pradesh is the focus State.
18 November World Adult Day
MYSURU (KARNATAKA)
Mysuru Railway Station became the first
19 November World Citizen Day
blind-friendly Railway Station in India after 20 November Universal Childrens Day
Mysurus Member of Parliament Pratap
Simha inaugurated the visually 21 November World Television Day, World Fisheries Day
impairedfriendly facilities at Mysuru
Railway Station on November 3, 2015. At the 25 November World Non-veg Prevention Day, International Day for
the Elimination of Violence against Women
same time, tactile maps of the railway station
and train schedules in Braille were unveiled on 26 November World Environment Protection Day, National Law Day,
the occasion of inauguration. Constitution Day of India
Along with tactile maps of station describing
the location and distance of entrance, 1 December Words AIDS Day
platforms, counters, washrooms etc, schedule 2 December International Day forthe Abolition of Slavery
of trains, showing their arrival and departure
time, the authorities have also put up four 3 December World Disabled Day
hundred metal signages in Braille along the
railings of the staircases leading to 4 December Navy Day ,Chemical Accidents Prevention Day
various platforms.
Mysore railway station is located in state
Karnataka of India. Mysuru railway station
BOOKS & AUTHORS
Book (Author) Related Facts
comes under South Western Railway Zone. It
was opened in 1870s. What Happened to The book talks about Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose in form of
Netaji? an unseen holy man of Faizabad in disguise who lived in several
(Anuj Dhar) parts of Uttar Pradesh from 1950s to 1980s.
HYDERABAD (TELANGANA)
Rebooting India The book talks about the demographic dividend of India, which
The Eighth National Seed Congress 2015 was (Nandan Nilekani/ is expected to be the worlds youngest country by 2020 with
organised at Hyderabad, Telangana from Viral Shah) 64% (roughly 800 million) of its population of working age.
October 27 to 29, 2015. There were seven Inter-linking of Indian The book based on a comprehensive research explains the
technical sessions and a panel discussion was Rivers social, economic and commercial significance of linking of rivers
(Radha Kant Bharati) in the country. It also discusses National Water Policy and
held to promote Telangana as the seed bowl of disputes over the sub-continent of India.
the country. The event was formally
The author of the book said that he has made a humble attempt
inaugurated by the Telangana state Agriculture to provide the different views and opinion expressed by
Minister Shrinivasa Reddy and has been technocrats, media persons and politicians on the subject.
organised by Union Agriculture Ministry. The President of India The President of India, Pranab Mukherjee received the first copy
and the Governance of a book at Rashtrapati Bhavan from the Founding Chancellor
The three-day congress aims to provide of Higher Education Naveen Jindal and Founding Vice-Chancellor, Professor (Dr.)
common platform to all stakeholders to Institutions C. Raj Kumar of OP Jindal Global University. The book The
discuss a variety of issues including advances (Professor C. Raj President of India and the Governance of Higher Education
Kumar) Institutions provides an overview of higher education in India.
in seed development technologies and various
Indian Family Union Minister of Urban Development, Housing and Urban
seed policies with respect to the seed industry. Business Mantras Poverty Alleviation M. Venkaiah Naidu has presented President
National Seed Congress is an annual event (Peter Leach/ of India, Pranab Mukherjee with the first copy of a book Indian
organised by Union Agriculture Minister Tatwamasi Dixit) Family Business Mantras at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
organised in different States.

55
 CURRENT REVIEW
46TH IFFI AWARDS
Internationally co-produced adventure drama film Embrace of
the Serpent was awarded with the Golden Peacock Award for
the Best Film at the 46th International Film Festival of India
(IFFI), Goa on November 30, 2015.
The Best Film Award comprises the Golden Peacock and a
citation with prize money of ` 40 lakh to be shared between
the Director and the Producer of the movie. The film is
produced by Christina Gallego and directed by Ciro Guerra.
The Best Director award went to Peter Greenaway for the
film Eisenstein in Guanajuato. The Best Actor (Male) went to
Vincent Lindon for his portrayal of a laid off factory worker
Thierry Taogourdeau in the film The Measure of a Man.
The Best Actor (Female) award was shared by Gunes Sensoy,
Doga Doguslu, Tugba Sunguroglu, Elit Iscan and Ilyada
Akdogan for portrayal of role of five young orphaned sisters
in the Turkish fim Mustang.
The International Film Festival of India (IFFI), founded in
1952, is one of the most significant film festivals in Asia. IFFI
held annually in the State of Goa.
LIFETIME ACHIEVEMENT AWARD 2015
Hinduja Brothers were honoured with the prestigious
Lifetime Achievement Award at the annual Asian Business
Leadership Forum (ABLF) Series in Dubai on November 29,
2015. ABLF Series Royal Patron and the UAEs Minister of
Culture Sheikh Nahyan Mubarak Al Nahyan presented the
award to Gopichand P. Hinduja, Co-Chairman, Hinduja
Group of Companies, The Hinduja Group, UK.
The prestigious award recognises the most powerful and
influential business leaders. Lifetime Achivement Award of
the 6th Asian Business Leadership Forum (ABLF) recognises
the most powerful and influential business leaders.
The Asian Business Leadership Forum (ABLF) is Asias
premier and definitive showcase of excellence, innovation and
outstanding achievements in three crucial sectors that are key
drivers of the global economyIndustry, Infrastructure
and Energy.
56
KALINGA SAMMAN 2014
Eminent physicist and Padma Bhushan Trilochan Pradhan
has been conferred with the prestigous Kalinga Samman
2014 for popularising science among the common man in
Odisha on November 25, 2015. Pradhan was honoured by
Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik. The Kalinga Foundation
Trust since 2010 has been presenting the Kalinga Samman
to people who have contributed to the growth and
popularisation of science and technology in Odisha. Six
outstanding persons have so far been awarded.
DINANATH MANGESHKAR AWARD
Noted Marathi actor Prashant Damle was selected for the
Master Dinanath Mangeshkar Award on November 23,
2015. He will be conferred with the award by Lata
Mangeshkar in April, 2016 on the occasion of the death
anniversary of Master Dinanath. He was chosen for the
award for his outstanding contribution in the field of
theatre, film and music.
Pandit Dinanath Mangeshkar award was instituted in 1999
in the memory of Dinanath Mangeshkar, father of Lata
Mangeshkar. The prestigious annual award is given to
personalities from Marathi and Hindi theatre, music and
films. The award ceremony is held annually on April 24. In
2015, the award was given to Anil Kapoor.
RAMNATH GOENKA LIFETIME
ACHIEVEMENT AWARD
Kuldip Nayar, a veteran journalist, columnist and author
was honoured with Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement
Award on November 23, 2015 for his contribution to
journalism. He was conferred with the award at the
8th edition of the prestigious Ramnath Goenka Excellence
awards ceremony held in Delhi. The award for the years
2013 and 2014 was handed over by Information and
Broadcasting Minister Arun Jaitley, who also handed several
awards in different categories to over 56 journalists for their
exceptional reportage in print as well as broadcast media.
Kuldip Nayar is former editor of Indian Express.
INDIRA GANDHI PRIZE FOR PEACE
DISARMAMENT AND
DEVELOPMENT 2015
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and
Development for 2015 will be awarded to the office of
the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
(UNHCR), it was announced on November 20, 2015.
The prestigious award is being given to the office of
UNHCR in recognition of its immense contributions
in assisting millions of refugees and for working under
difficult circumstances to bring about changes to reduce
the flow of refugees.
The prize is accorded annually to individuals or
organisations in recognition of creative efforts toward
promoting international peace, development and a new
international economic order, ensuring that scientific
discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and
enlarging the scope of freedom. The prize carries a cash
award of ` 25 lakhs and a citation. It was first awarded
in 1986.
DISASTER RISK REDUCTION ASIA
CHAMPION HONOUR
Union Minister of State for Home Affairs, Kiren Rijiju,
was designated as the Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR)
Champion for the Asia Region by the United Nations
Office on November 17, 2015 for Disaster Risk
Reduction (UNISDR).
Rijiju also became the first Indian to be conferred with
this honour. Rijiju is the first regional champion for
DRR after the Sendai Agreement, giving an impetus to
Union government efforts to facilitate regional support
towards enabling community resilience in the
Asia-Pacific region.
The honour was conferred by Ms. Margarete
Wahlstrom, Special Representative of the United
Nations Secretary General for Disaster Risk Reduction,
during the inaugural session of the Asia Leaders
Meeting towards Implementation of the Sendai
Framework for DRR in Asia.
NATIONAL CHILD AWARDS FOR
EXCEPTIONAL ACHIEVEMENT 2015
The President of India, Pranab Mukherjee presented the
National Child Awards for Exceptional Achievement
2015 to give recognition to 30 children with exceptional
abilities and outstanding achievement in various fields at
Rashtrapati Bhavan on the occasion of Childrens Day
on November 14, 2015.
The award winners are aged between 9 and 16. Rajiv
Gandhi Manav Seva Award : This award is presented to
individuals for their outstanding contribution towards
service for children. Name of the person got Rajiv
Gandhi Manav Seva Award areMoji Jini (Arunachal
Pradesh), Vaijayanti M. Chougala (Karanataka) and
Santhosh. G. Thomas (Thiruvananthapuram).
INTERNATIONAL CHILDRENS
PEACE PRIZE 2015
Liberian teenager Abraham
M. Keita was on November 10,
2015 awarded with the prestigious
International Childrens Peace Prize
2015. He was awarded for his
extraordinary and peaceful fight for
justice for child victims of physical
or sexual violence, and for
successfully campaigning for the
Liberian parliament to adopt the Childrens Law. International
Childrens Peace Prize is awarded annually to child from across
the world for his or her dedication to childrens rights.
The prize was launched by KidsRights during the 2005 Nobel
Peace Laureates Summit chaired by Mikhail Gorbachev. Since
then, the prize has been presented every year by a Nobel Peace
Laureate.
Neha Gupta, an 18-year-old Indian American from Philadelphia,
was awarded with the 2014 International Childrens Peace Prize for
her work to help orphans in India and other vulnerable children.
Neha was the first ever American to be awarded with the prize.
KALA SHIKHAR AWARD
Santoor maestro Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma was honoured
with the Aditya Vikram Birla Kala Shikhar Award on
November 7, 2015 for lifetime achievement. The award was
presented to Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma by the Governor of
Maharashtra C. Vidyasagar Rao.
Apart from this, Satyajit Talwalkar (Tabla) and Murad Ali Khan
(Sarangi) were awarded with the Kala Kiran Awards. Shehnai
players Sanjeev and Ashwani Shankar were awarded with Special
Jury Award.
The Aditya Vikram Birla Kala Shikhar Puraskaar was instituted
in the memory of Aditya Vikram Birla by the Sangit Kala
Kendra. This award was instituted in 1996 by the Sangeet Kala
Kendra (SKK), which was founded in 1973 by Aditya Vikram
Birla to encourage and nurture performing arts.
NATIONAL INDIAN ARTS AWARDS
Dr. MN Nandakumara, Executive Director of the Bharatiya
Vidya Bhavan, London, and Sivasakthi Sivanesan, Resident
Carnatic Music at the Bhavan have received Lifetime
Achievement Award and Sangeet Acharya Ratna Award
respectively for their contribution to Indian arts and music.
Indian High Commissioner to the UK, Ranjan Mathai presented
the awards, to Nandakumara and Sivasakthi at a function held at
the Nehru centre in London on October 25, 2015. This is the
first ever National Indian Arts Awards hosted by Indian arts
development trust Milapfest. Other award recipients were
Name of Person Name of Award
Pushkala Gopal Nritya Acharya Award
Jasdeep Singh Degun Tarang Musician of the year
Sanjuran Keerthikumar Samyo Musician of the Year
Yarline Thanabalasingham Young Musician of the Year
Parbati Chaudhury Young Dancer of the Year
57
 Other Awards
Award Winner Related Facts
Dr. Abdul Kalam 40 School Students President Pranab Mukharjee presented Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam IGNITE awards 2015 to a total of
IGNITE Award of 27 Districts from 40 school students of 27 districts from 18 States on November 30, 2015.
(November 30, 2015) 18 States
The awards were given away for 31 grass root innovations at the prestigious Indian Institute of
Management Ahmedabad (IIM-A).
The awards of IGNITE competition are announced every year on October 15, Dr. APJ Abdul
Kalams birthday, which is celebrated as the Childrens Creativity and Innovation Day by NIF.
Awarded with Four Robert Lewandowski Polish professional footballer Robert Lewandowskis 9-minute, 5-goal haul for German Football
Guinness World Record Club Bayern Munich against Wolfsburg was officially recognised by Guinness World Record.
Certificates
(November 30, 2015) On September 22, 2015, the Polish star scored 5 goals during the league encounter with
Wolfsburg in 9 minutes, the fastest in any major European football league since records have
been kept.
Shakti Bhatt prize Rohini Mohan Rohini Mohan journalist with The Economic Times has bagged the Shakti Bhatt First Book prize
(November 21, 2015) 2015 for her book The Seasons of Trouble.
The Shakti Bhatt First Book Prize carries a cash award of ` 2 lakh and a trophy. It is funded by
the Shakti Bhatt Foundation and the Apeejay Trust.
Reporters without Zaina Erhaim Syrian woman journalist Zaina Erhaim has won the prestigious 2015 Prize for her defence of
Borders Prize 2015 press freedom.
(November 20, 2015)
Reporters Without Borders Prize is an annual award established in 1992 by Paris (France) based
NGO Reporters Without Borders (RWB).
It is bestowed upon journalists who have made a significant contribution to the defence and
promotion of press freedom.
Infosys Prize 2015 Prof. Umesh The Infosys Prize 2015 was announced for six categories, namely, Engineering and Computer
(November 16, 2015) Waghmare, Prof. Science, Humanities, Life Sciences, Mathematical Sciences, Physical Sciences and
Jonardon Ganeri, Dr. Social Sciences. The prize was established in 2009 and is given in six categories. Winners are
Amit Sharma, Prof.
Mahan Mj, Prof. Engineering and Computer Science Prof. Umesh Waghmare (Bangalore)
G. Ravindra Kumar, Humanities Prof. Jonardon Ganeri (UK)
Dr. Srinath Raghavan Life Sciences Dr. Amit Sharma (New Delhi)
Mathematical Sciences Prof. Mahan Mj (Mumbai)
Physical Sciences Prof. G. Ravindra Kumar (TIFR-Mumbai)
Social Sciences Dr. Srinath Raghavan (New Delhi)
NASA Award Sameer Panda A team of Indian scientist led by Sameer Panda from Odisha won the NASA award for an
(November 6, 2015) innovative technology named Burst Prevention & Puncture Curative (BPPC) technology.
Udit Bondia, KN Panda and Smitiparna Satpathy are the other members of the team.
They won the award in the Create the Future Design Contest-2015 conducted by NASA Tech
Brief in New York.
Vishnudas Bhave Award Vikram Gokhale Renowned film, television and stage actor Vikram Gokhale was awarded with the prestigious
2015 (November 6, 2015) Vishnudas Bhave Award.
He was conferred with this award for his outstanding contribution to Marathi theatre.
Vishnudas Bhave Award is an annual award instituted by Sangli-based Akhil Maharashtra Natya
Vidya Mandir in the memory of famous Marathi dramatist Vishnudas Bhave.
2015 Asia-Pacific Nilkkam All India Radios (AIRs) Programme on child labour titled Nilkkam Ivarkkoppam has won the first
Broadcasting Union Ivarkkoppam prize at this Prize ceremony.
(ABU) Prize Ceremony
(November 3, 2015) The programme has won the award under the Community Service Announcement category at
the 52nd General Assembly of ABU held in Ankara, Turkey.
Nilkkam Ivarkkoppam meaning Stand Beside Them is Malayalam programme. The ABU prize is
considered to be one of the most prestigious awards in the broadcasting industry.
New York Global Leaders Bindeshwar Pathak Sociologist and founder of Sulabh International Bindeshwar Pathak was selected for the
Dialogue Humanitarian prestigious New York Global Leaders Dialogue Humanitarian Award for his contribution to
Award sanitation and improving the quality of life for millions of manual scavengers.
(October 29, 2015)
Bindeshwar Pathak is a Padma Bhushan recipient from the government of India.

CURRENT AFFAIRS
YEARLY 2016
A Complete Coverage of Current Events 2015
500+ Current Affairs MCQs with Level of Toughness Presentation of Facts, Data and Tables to Understand Easily
58
 Objective
Current Affairs
8. Who has been re-elected as the 14. Which bank will shut its private
Level 1 President of Asian Tennis
Federation (ATF)?
banking business in India,
marking the exit of another
a. Mukesh Khanna foreign bank from the cut-throat
1. The 29th session of the Assembly
b. Sunil Khanna business in Asias third-largest
of the International Maritime economy?
Organisation (IMO) was recently c. Anil Khanna
held in d. Mukhil Khanna a. HSBC
e. Ravishankar Prasad b. Standard Chartered
a. Norway b. Malta c. Soft Bank
c. Paris d. London 9. completed a hat-trick of d. City Bank
e. California womens singles title at Macau e. Axis Bank
Open Grand Prix Gold
2. Who has been appointed as the
Badminton tournament. 15. Which among the following
acting Chairman of the CBDT? States is the host for the
a. Saina Nehwal
a. Rajesh Jain International Film Festival of
b. PV Sindhu
b. Vani Kapoor India (IFFI) 2015?
c. Ashwini Ponnappa
c. AK Jain a. Kerala b. Maharashtra
d. Jwala Gutta
d. AL Mishra c. Goa d. Karnataka
e. None of the above
e. NK Shrivastava e. Bihar
3. 10. Which cricket player has bagged
The Legislative Assembly of
his first endorsement deal outside 16. Ek Kadam Unnati Ki Aur
has amended the Factories campaign is launched by which
Bill to allow women to work in the country, roped in to be the
brand ambassador of Dubai-based company in Telangana?
night shifts?
hospitality and event a. Infosys b. Intel c. Flipkart
a. Bihar b. Tamil Nadu management company Grand d. Wipro e. None of these
c. Kerala d. Maharashtra Midwest Group for three years?
e. Karnataka 17. Which is the most powerful
a. Virat Kholi supercomputer in the world
4. Abu Dhabi Formula 1 Grand Prix b. Rohit Sharma currently?
2015 has been won by c. MS Dhoni
a. Titan b. Tianhe-2
a. Kimi Hamilton d. R. Ashwin
c. Sequoia d. Mira
b. Nico Rosberg e. Jwala Gutta
e. Tarzan-19
c. Lewis Hamilton
d. Sebastian Vettel
11. Who will be the first woman 18. signed Argentinas football
Secretary-General of the player Lionel Messi as Global
e. Kimi Raikkkonen
Commonwealth of Nations? Brand Ambassador for its
5. The Indian Coast Guard has a. Gareth Peirce passenger vehicles.
commissioned an interceptor boat b. Justline Thornton a. Ashok Leyland
at the Karaikal port c. Patricia Scotland b. Tata Motors
recently. d. Cherie Blair c. Mahindra Motors
a. ICGS C-399 b. ICGS C-420 e. Gareth Thornton d. Volvo
c. ICGS C-421 d. ICGS C-422 e. None of the above
e. ICGS C-423 12. Which among the following
countries are playing the first 19. Recently, Lionel Messi is
6. Name the Surface-to-Air Missile day-night Test cricket match? adjudged Best Player of the
(SAM) system, jointly developed a. Australia and West Indies World for the fourth consecutive
by Israeli Aerospace Industries, b. Australia and New Zealand time. At present, he is the captain
Rafael and DRDO, was c. Sri Lanka and New Zealand of football team.
successfully tested for the first d. West Indies and Sri Lanka a. Italy b. Argentina
time from an Israeli warship. e. Australia and India c. Australia d. India
a. Barack b. Barak e. Germany
c. Barok d. SAMdrdo 13. Orange the world campaign, is
e. DRDOisreli related to which among the 20. has emerged as the largest
following organisations? Indian language spoken in the
7. have won the Davis Cup a. United Nations US, with nearly 6.5 lakh people
for the first time since 1936. b. OECD speaking it, according to the latest
a. Russia b. The USA c. NATO Census data.
c. Switzerland d. Great Britain d. World Bank a. Hindi b. Sanskrit c. Urdu
e. Germany e. All of the above d. Bengali e. All of these

59
21. has launched a new 30. The EPFO is the countrys largest 37. successfully launched one
communication satellite (ChinaSat retirement fund overseeing of the nations Long March 2D
2C) carried aboard the Long lifetime savings of 8 crore formal rockets, lifting the Tianhui-1C
March 3B rocket. sector employees, with a mapping satellite into orbit.
a. Italy b. Argentina cumulative corpus of close to ` 8.5 a. China b. The USA
c. Australia d. India lakh crore. What is EPFO? c. India d. France
e. China a. Employees Personal Fund e. Russia
Organisation
22. Recently, Indo-Canadian Sikh b. Employees Provident Fund 38. Google celebrated the 94th
Harjit Sajjan was sworn-in as Organisation birthday of legendary cartoonist
Defence Minister of c. Employees Provident Fund Officer , the creator of the
a. Italy b. Canada c. Australia d. Employee Provident Fund Officer Common Man, with a special
d. India e. China e. Employees Protect Fund Doodle.
a. Shivram Dattatreya Phadnis
23. The government of signed Organisation
b. RK Laxman
a Memorandum of 31. The RBI has allowed foreign c. OV Vijayan
Understandings with the World investors to raise their stake up to d. G. Aravindan
Economic Forum (WEF) to in DEN Networks. e. Devendra Fadnavis
support the State in assessing its
a. 34% b. 44% c. 54%
economic competitiveness.
d. 64% e. 74% 39. Delhi lad has bagged
a. Bihar b. Karnataka Indias first ever Archery World
c. Delhi d. Jharkhand 32. India now ranks out of 189 Cup Final medal in the
e. Andhra Pradesh countries in the ease of doing compound section.
business, moving up 12 places
24. Indias former Ambassador to
from last year (2014), according to
a. Abhishek Verma
Bimal Prasad, who was b. Rajat Kumar
a World Bank report. c. Sandeep Kumar
also a close associate of
Jayaprakash Narayan, passed a. 130 b. 144 c. 164 d. Abhishek Chauhan
away recently. d. 166 e. 170 e. Rajat Chauhan
a. Nepal b. Italy c. Argentina 33. Director Pan Nalins film 40. Recently, Hashim Amla broke
d. Australia e. Pakistan was awarded with BNL Peoples record and became the
25. Remittance refers to the portion of Choice Award at the 10th Rome fastest player to reach 6000 ODI
income that, in the form of Film Festival held in Rome (Italy). runs.
either funds or goods, flows back a. Angry Indian Goddesses a. Mahendra Singh Dhonis
into the country of origin, b. Indian Goddesses b. Virat Kohlis
primarily to support families c. Indian God c. Sachin Tendulkars
back home. d. Army Indian Goddesses d. Adam Gilchrists
a. national b. international e. Any Indian God e. None of the above
c. migrant d. actual 34. government announced to
e. back open Sanskrit University at
26. to host South Asian Rugby Mundri for Scheduled Castes, Level 2
7S Championship in 2016. which will be named after
a. J & K b. Bihar
Maharishi Valmiki. 41. Consider the following statements
c. Delhi d. Rajasthan a. Central b. Haryana about Satya Paul Agarwal :
e. Uttar Pradesh c. Rajasthan d. Karnataka 1. Satya Paul Agarwal (70), a
e. Delhi
Padma Bhushan recipient, an
27. Citibank announced that it has
appointed as Chief 35. , a former television eminent neuro surgeon and
Economist for India. comedy actor who promised to Secretary-General of Indian
clean up Guatemalas corrupt Red Cross Society.
a. Samiran Chakraborty
b. Mithun Chakraborty politics, won a landslide victory in 2. Since 2005, he had been
c. Sanjeev Chakraborty presidential election. Secretary-General of Indian
d. Arvind Modi a. Becky Morgan Red Cross Society.
e. Dr. Vinay Kumar Singh b. Malene Jorgensen 3. He was also the Chair of the
c. Jimmy Morales
28. Recently, Bidhya Devi Bhandari International Federation of Red
d. Nethra Kumanan
has been elected as first female Cross and Red Crescent
e. Upamanyu Dutta
President of Advisory Body on Sustainable
a. Sri Lanka b. Malaysia 36. Railways Minister Suresh Prabhu Development and Health.
c. Mauritius d. Nepal flagged off Vigithon marathon in Choose the correct statement(s).
e. None of these Mumbai on October 25, 2015 to a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3
sensitise people for a fight against c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
29. The government has decided to corruption at the grass-root level. e. Only 3
enhance the financial powers Vigithon was organised by public
delegated to designated Central sector lender 42. Which of the following statements
government-run hospitals from a. State Bank of India is/are correct regarding Global
` 2 lakh to b. Union Bank of India Hunger Index 2015?
a. ` 2.5 lakh b. ` 3 lakh c. Central Bank of India 1. India is ranked 4th out of 104
c. ` 4 lakh d. ` 5 lakh d. Punjab National Bank countries in the Global Hunger
e. ` 7 lakh e. UCO Bank Index 2015.

60
 2. This reports GHI scores are
based on a new, improved
formula that reflects the
multidimensional nature of
hunger by combining four
indicators related to
undernourishment, wasting,
stunting, and child mortality.
3. The Global Hunger Index
(GHI) was first released by the
International Food Policy
Research Institute and
Welthungerhilfe in 2006.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
e. Only 3
43. Choose the false statements :
a. The Union Cabinet approved the
signing of the Tripartite Agreement
on the IBSA Fund for the
Alleviation of Poverty and Hunger.
b. The decision of agreement will
help in strengthening the IBSA
Fund which is a unique vehicle in
the context of South-South
cooperation.
c. Tripartite Agreement held among
India, Brazil and South Africa
(IBSA).
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
44. Choose the false statement
regarding Justice Tirath Singh
Thakur :
a. The President of India Pranab
Mukherjee appointed Justice
Tirath Singh Thakur as the Chief
Justice of India.
b. Justice Thakur will take over the
office from December 3, 2015 as
the 43rd Chief Justice of India.
c. His tenure will be till January 3,
2017.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
45. Choose the correct statement
regarding Special Drawing Rights
(SDR) :
a. The SDR system was created by
the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) in 1969.
b. The SDR is instead an international
reserve asset which the IMF uses
to supplement its member
countries reserves.
c. From October, 2016, once the
Yuan is added, the basket will
have five currencies [US dollar ($),
Euro (), Pound Sterling (),
Japanese Yen () and most
recently Chinese Yuan ()].
d. SDR is not a claim on the IMF;
rather it is a potential claim on the
freely usable currencies of IMF
members.
e. All of the above
46. Consider the following
statements :
1. The Bangladesh Securities and
Exchange Commission (BSEC)
is the regulator of the capital
market of Bangladesh,
comprising Dhaka Stock
Exchange (DSE) and
Chittagong Stock Exchange
(CSE).
2. The BSEC is a statutory body
and attached to the Ministry
of Finance.
3. BSEC was established on
June 8, 1993 under the
Securities and Exchange
Commission Act, 1993.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
e. Only 3
47. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding United
Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction (UNISDR)?
1. UNISDR released the report
titled The Human Cost of
Weather Related Disasters.
2. The UNISDR was created in
December, 1900.
3. UNISDR is part of the United
Nations Secretariat and its
functions span the social,
economic, environmental as
well as humanitarian fields.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
a. Only 1 b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. Only 3
e. 1 and 2
48. Choose the false statement
regarding Master Dinanath
Mangeshkar Award :
a. Noted Marathi actor Prashant
Damle was selected for the Master
Dinanath Mangeshkar Award.
b. Pandit Dinanath Mangeshkar
award was instituted in 1999 in the
memory of Dinanath Mangeshkar,
father of Lata Mangeshkar.
c. The prestigious annual award is
given to personalities from Marathi
and Hindi theatre, music and films.
d. The award ceremony is held
annually on April 2.
e. All of the above
49. Which of the following statements
is/are false regarding e-lala? 54.
a. An online portal e-lala was
launched to promote
business-to-business and
trader-to-customer transactions
and reduce costs.
b. MasterCard and HDFC Bank have
partnered with this portal to
provide digital payment solutions.
c. E-lalas distinctive features include
a specialty corner promoting
unique products associated with
each city.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
50. Most important monuments
dedicated to Mahatma Gandhi
outside India are :
1. Lake Shrine (California, USA)
2. Glebe Park (Canberra,
Australia)
3. Ariana Park (Geneva,
Switzerland)
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. Only 2
e. Only 3
51. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding Asian
Development Bank (ADB)?
a. The ADB is an national
organisation that provides loans,
grants, policy aid, technical
assistance and equity investments
to countries in Asia and the
Pacific.
b. It was established as a regional
development bank on August 22,
1996.
c. Headquarters of ADB is in Manila,
Philippines.
d. ADB now has 97 members.
e. All of the above
52. Choose the correct statements :
a. World number 1, Novak Djokovic
won the season-ending ATP World
Tour Finals.
b. Novak Djokovic became the first
player to win ATP World Tour
Finals for the fourth consecutive
time.
c. This was the fifth time that
Djokovic won this tournament.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
53. The introduction of e-IPO would
a. help eliminate the printing of
application forms
b. help in reducing the overall cost of
public issuance
c. support companies in reaching
more retail investors in small towns
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Above 500 wicket-takers in Test
matches are
a. Muttiah Muralitharan
b. Anil Kumble
c. Courtney Walsh
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of the above
61
55. Choose the correct statement(s) :
a. Indian off-spin cricketer Harbhajan
Singh on July 14, 2015 became
the ninth all-time highest Test
wicket-takers by claiming 416
wickets in 102 matches.
b. In this process, he surpassed
Pakistani legend Wasim Akram
who stood at the ninth position
with 414 wickets in 104 matches.
c. He achieved the landmark quicker
than Akram.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
56. Choose the correct statement(s)
regarding JS Rajput and his book
Education of Muslims :
a. The book launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi.
b. The book is aimed at informing
and educating policy-makers,
scholars and readers about role of
Islam in pursuit of education
and knowledge.
c. JS Rajput is an accomplished
educationist and historian.
d. He is a former director of National
Council of Educational Research
and Training (NCERT) and
Chairman, National Council for
Teacher Education (NCTE).
e. All of the above are true
57. Choose the correct statements
regarding 2015 French Open titles
of tennis :
1. Mens SinglesStanislas
Wawrinka (Switzerland)
2. Womens SinglesLucie
afrov (Czech Republic)
3. Mens DoublesIvan Dodig
(Croatia) and Marcelo Melo
(Brazil)
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 d. Only 3
e. All of these
58. Choose the correct statements
regarding Rahul Dravid :
a. Former captain of Indian cricket
team Rahul Dravid was named as
coach of India A and Under-19
cricket teams.
b. As a coach, Dravids first
assignment would be to prepare
the U-19 team for 2016 Under-19
World Cup to be held in
Bangladesh.
c. Dravid has also been honoured
with the Padma Bhushan award,
Indias third highest civilian award.
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of the above
59. Choose the correct statements
regarding MoU between Indian
Army and Punjab National Bank :
62
a. A Memorandum of
Understandings (MoU) was signed
on the Defence Salary Package.
b. The first MoU between PNB and
the Indian Army was signed in
2011 and valid for 3 years.
c. Some features which have been
improved from the previous MoU
are that the Personal Accidental
Insurance (PAI) cover has been
extended to ` 2 lakh and ` 5 lakh.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
60. Choose the correct statements
regarding the India Cements
Limited (CIL) :
a. CIL is a cement manufacturing
company in India established
in 1946.
b. Headquarters of CIL
Sankarnagar in Tirunelveli district
of Tamil Nadu.
c. Since 2013, Indian ODI cricket
team captain MS Dhoni is Vice-
President of the India Cements
Limited.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
61. Tata Motors is Indias largest
automobile company. It has
operations in the
a. UK and South Korea
b. Thailand and South Africa
c. Indonesia
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of the above
62. Bimal Prasad had authored a
number of books on JPs
philosophy and life including
a. Socialism, Sarvodaya and
Democracy
b. Gandhi, Nehru and JP, Studies in
Leadership
c. A Revolutionarys Quest
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
63. Choose the correct statements
regarding USA Census Bureau
Survey 2015 :
a. The US Census Bureau based on
American Community Survey data
collected from 2009 to 2013.
b. More than 60 million people in the
US speak a language other than
English at home.
c. Hindi has emerged as the largest
Indian language spoken in the US,
with nearly 6.5 lakh people
speaking it.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
64. The ChinaSat 2C satellite will
provide
a. Radio, TV transmission and
broadband services for the
nations radio stations
b. TV Broadcast Stations and cable
networks
c. Weather information
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of the above
65. An empowered committee
comprising officials from various
Ministries, including has
been constituted to approve
schemes proposed under the
Nirbhaya Fund, Finance Ministry.
a. Women and Child Development
and Home Affairs
b. Road Transport
c. Railways
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
66. Choose the correct statement(s)
about e-Sahyog Pilot Project :
a. It aims to decrease obedience
cost, particularly for small
taxpayers and provide an online
mechanism to resolve mismatches
in Income-tax returns.
b. By using this service taxpayers will
have to visit the e-filing portal and
log in with their user-ID and
password.
c. It will help them to view mismatch
related information and submit
online response on the matter.
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of the above
67. Choose the correct statement(s) :
a. In the Presidential election of
Nepal, Bidhya Devi Bhandari
defeated her opponent Kul
Bahadur Gurung of the Nepali
Congress.
b. Under the Nepals new
Constitution promulgated, it was
mandatory for Parliament to elect
new President and Vice-President,
Prime Minister and Parliament
Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
c. Ram Baran Yadav was first elected
President of Republic Nepal.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
68. Consider the following statements :
1. The company will be
operational from first quarter
of 2016, EXIM Bank said.
Export-Import (EXIM) Bank of
India is the premier export
finance institution in India.
2. EXIM Bank was established in
1982 under the Export-Import
Bank of India Act 1981.
3. EXIM Bank will set-up the
Kukuza Project Development
Company (KPDC) in Japan.
Select the correct option from the codes
given below :
a. Only 1 b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2 and 3 d. Only 3
e. 1 and 3
69. Consider the following a. The newly installed Siren was b. In 2005, Laxman was awarded the
statements : successfully tested near Padma Vibhushan, Indias
INS-Angre in Fort area, in second-highest civilian honour.
1. Citibank India is an Indian South Mumbai.
private sector bank and c. In 1973, Laxman was awarded the
b. The Siren and a Digital Electronic Padma Bhushan.
subsidiary of US-based
Board is part of a system for d. Both (a) and (b)
Citigroup, a multinational issuing early warning in case of a
financial services corporation. e. All of the above
tsunami threat in the Indian Ocean
2. Citibank India established in Region (IOR). 78. Choose the correct statement(s)
1902 in Kolkata. c. The Siren has been connected to regarding Abhishek Verma :
3. Presently, headquarters of the electronic Display board and a. He is an Asian Games (2014)
Citibank India is in Pune, will now be remotely controlled by individual silver medallist in the
Maharashtra. INCOIS (Hyderabad). mens individual compound event.
Select the correct option from the codes d. Both (a) and (b) b. He won the gold medal in the
given below : e. All of the above Asian Games (2014) in the mens
compound archery team event
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 74. Choose the correct statement(s) along with Rajat Chauhan and
c. 2 and 3 d. Only 3 regarding Tianhui-1C mapping
e. 1 and 3 Sandeep Kumar.
satellite from the following : c. On August 15, 2015, he won a
70. The RAN, set-up in 1997 to a. It was also the 81th orbital launch gold medal in the compound
provide financial assistance to from the Jiuquan Satellite Launch mens individual section at the
patients living below poverty line Center of Japan. Archery World Cup Stage 3 in
and who are suffering from major b. The first Tianhui-1 satellite was Wroclaw, Poland.
life-threatening diseases related to launched on August 24, 2015. d. All of the above
provides for medical c. The Tianhui-1 satellites are part of e. None of the above
treatment at any of the super the Ziyuan program that cover
specialty government hospitals. different civil and military Earth 79. Choose the correct statement(s)
observation as well as remote regarding Paytm :
1. heart 2. liver
sensing programs. a. Paytm is an Indian e-commerce
3. kidney 4. cancer cases d. Both (a) and (b) shopping website launched
Select the correct option from the codes e. All of the above in 2010.
given below : b. Paytm is an acronym for Pay
a. Only 1 b. 1, 2 and 3 75. Choose the correct statement(s) Through Mobile.
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 2 and 3 regarding Shatabdi Express : c. The company is headquartered in
e. Only 3 a. Shatabdi Express, a premier Noida (Uttar Pradesh).
service of railways, connect Metro
71. The World Health Organisation cities with other cities important for
d. All of the above
(WHO) and the Climate and e. None of the above
tourism, pilgrimage or business.
Clean Air Coalition to Reduce
Short-Lived Climate Pollutants
b. Shatabdi trains return to the 80. Prime Minister Narednra Modi on
station of origin the same day. November 5, 2015 launched three
have produced a report outlining gold-related schemes under
c. Finance Minister Suresh Prabhu
the urgent need to reduce has announced that the Railways
emissions of , which all a. Digital India
would soon start country's b. Make in India
contribute to climate change. first-ever double decker Shatabdi
1. black carbon 2. ozone c. Start-up India
Express.
d. Rashtriya Saksharta Mission
3. methane 4. carbon dioxide d. Both (a) and (b)
e. Swarna Bharat Yojana
Select the correct option from the codes e. All of the above
given below : 76. Choose the correct statement(s)
a. Only 1
b. 1, 2 and 3
regarding Sin Tax : Answers
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. Sin Tax has been included under
the proposed Goods and Services 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d)
d. 2 and 3
Tax (GST) law that will be effective 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
e. Only 3 from April 1, 2016.
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c)
72. Choose the correct statements : b. Alcohol and tobacco industries will
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
a. A one man Hazarika Commission have to pay more taxes towards
headed by senior advocate an additional sin tax under the 21. (e) 22. (b) 23. (e) 24. (a) 25. (c)
Upamanyu Hazarika. proposed GST. 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b)
b. Hazarika Commission submitted c. Sin tax is an excise tax that is 31. (e) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c)
its report on illegal migrants from levied on products and services
considered to be bad for health or 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b)
Bangladesh to Asom.
c. The Hazarika Commission was
society such as alcohol, tobacco 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (e) 45. (e)
and gambling. 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (e) 50. (c)
appointed by the Supreme Court
in May, 2015. d. All of the above
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (e) 55. (d)
d. All of the above e. None of the above
56. (e) 57. (b) 58. (e) 59. (d) 60. (d)
e. None of the above 77. Choose the correct statement(s) 61. (e) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (d)
73. Consider the following statements regarding RK Laxman :
66. (e) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
about Tsunami Early Warning a. RK Laxman was renowned for his
cartoons, which ran for several 71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (e) 74. (c) 75. (d)
System Siren and choose the
correct one : decades in The Times of India. 76. (d) 77. (e) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (e)

63
 FINAL punch
The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next
common recruitment process for selection of personnel for
clerical cadre posts various banks is tentatively scheduled in
December, 2015 and January, 2016. Any eligible candidate,
who aspires to join any of the banks as a Clerk or in a

CLERICAL similar post in that cadre, is required to register for the

Common Recruitment Process (CWE Clerk -V).
The examination will be two tier i.e. the online examination
will be held in two phases, Preliminary and Main. Candidates

CADRE
who will qualify in Preliminary examination and shortlisted
will have to appear for Main examination and shortlisted
candidates in the Main examination will subsequently be
called for a Common Interview to be conducted by the
participating organisations and coordinated by the Nodal
Banks.

Pre. & Main Important Dates

Online Examination-Preliminary December 05/06/12/13, 2015
Declaration of Result Status of Preliminary December, 2015

EXAM 2015-16 Examination

Download of Call Letter for Online Main December, 2015
Examination
Date of Online Main Examination January 2/3, 2016
Declaration of Main Result January, 2016
Download of Call Letter for Interview January, 2016
Conduct of Interview February, 2016
Provisional Allotment April, 2016

Exam Process
IBPS Clerk selection process is very simple. First Step is an
All India Written Exam (Pre and Main) and Second Step is to
face Interview according to your Merit in various
governmental banks. Candidates have to given online exam
only once for selection in various banks. Candidates have to
attain minimum cut-off marks in each section and overall
decided by IBPS to become eligible for Interview.
Candidates have to do up to mark and goal oriented
preparation for this exam.
Common Written Exam IBPS Clerk Pre Exam is of 100
marks while Mains exam is of 200 Marks and Total Time
duration for this exam is for Pre Part is 1 hour and for Mains
exam is 2 hours.
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In Pre exam, there will be only three sections. Every
Question is of 1 Mark. (i) Reasoning (35 Marks) (ii)
Quantitative Aptitude (35 Marks) (iii) English (30 Marks).
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In Mains exam, there are 40 questions each from these
sections (i) Reasoning (40 marks) (ii) English Language
(40 marks) (iii) Quantitative Aptitude (40 marks) (iv)
General Awareness (40 marks) (v) Computer
Knowledge (40 Marks). Every question is of 1 mark.
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Each part is of equal importance, so candidates have to
focus on each and every part of this exam. It should be
noted by candidates is that there is Negative Marking of
0.25 marks in this exam. So plan for exam is according to
the pattern and syllabus of IBPS Clerical Cadre.
 SYLLABUS and TIPS FOR PREPRATION
English Language It is an
important and scoring part of IBPS
exam. Candidates can score if they
make proper time management.
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In this section, candidates needs
to focus more on selected topics
like Errors, Fillers, Comprehension,
Cloze Test.
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Comprehension in this exam is very
lengthy, so candidates have to
manage time to read whole
passage and answer to the
questions.
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It is often seen
that candidates seems this less
scoring. But this part is easy to
score and less time taking if proper
preparation time is given to
English.
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Candidates are advised to dont
leave English part less prepared as
it is very useful in scoring marks in
written exam.
Topics to Extra Focus Spot the
Error, Fillers, Cloze Test, Sentence
Improvement, Comprehension
Passage.
Reasoning This part is very
important aspect of this exam. This
part is useful because of the pattern
of questions ask in this exam.
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Most of questions in this section
are comprehensive type reasoning
or we can say Puzzles. A paragraph
is given to puzzled you and 4 to 5
questions asked related to that
paragraph.
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So this part is very useful, by
solving Puzzles you can answer 5/ 6
questions within no time.
So candidates needs to practice
more questions of Comprehension
type reasoning or Puzzles. This part
take less time if you solve paragraph
puzzles with full concentration.
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There is drawback of
comprehension type reasoning, if
you solve puzzle wrong, your all
answers will be wrong.
so candidates solve passage with
Intelligence and Concentration.
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This part play a crucial role in
deciding merit of candidates.
Marks of candidates also depends
on this section. So IBPS Aspirants!
Make Reasoning your main
weapon in the exam for crack
upcoming IBPS clerk exam.
Topics to Extra Focus Coding-
Decoding, Alphabet Test, Letter and
Number Sequence Test, Blood
Relation, Inequality, Distance and
Direction, Puzzles, Sitting arrangement
and Syllogism
Quantitative Aptitude It is the
section which play final role in the marks
and Merit List of candidates. Candidates
who scores in this section have fair
chances to score high in this exam.
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Candidates in advised to save time
from Reasoning, English and General
Awareness as this part takes more
time to solve the problems.
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Calculation is questions are time
taking, so candidates have to
manage time for solving questions.
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Focus on all question related. Dont
take much time on one question. Solve
question according to their merit.
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Candidates can make strategy about
how many no. of questions to be
solve in Aptitude part with giving
proper attention to all other sections
because it is not practically possible
to solve all 40 Questions in given
time.
Topics to Extra Focus Simplification,
Percentage, Ratio and Proportion,
Average, Interest (Simple and
Compound), Profit and Loss, Time and
Distance, Problems Based on Ages
Number Series, Speed, Time and
Distance, Data Interpretation
General Awareness Now-a-days
General Awareness is key part to score
in the exam. Candidates who are
up-to-date about facts and news of
everyday aspects score more marks in
this section.
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In IBPS exams, mostly questions of
General Awareness are asked from
Current Affairs. Focus mainly
on current affairs related to Banking
and Finance Sector.
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Candidates are advised to sharpen
their axe on daily current affairs by
reading newspapers and magazines.
Computer Knowledge In IBPS
exams, there is additional part of
questions related to Computer
Knowledge compare to SSC exam. In
this section, 40 questions are asked.
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In this section, questions are asked
from topics related to Basic of
Computers, Computer Organisation,
Generations of Computer, Input and
Output Device, Shortcuts and Basic
Knowledge MS Word, MS Excel, MS
Power Point, Memory Orientation,
Internet, LAN, WAN, Modem,
Computer Abbreviations, Latest
Technology.
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This part is less time taking also so it
can help in solving more number of
questions in Reasoning and Aptitude.
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Candidates can easily score in this
sections because syllabus is not so
vast.
IMPORTANT TIPS FOR
EXAMINATION
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First thing to keep in mind is that
you have to clear the Pre exam only,
Marks of Pre exam will not added.
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Give exam with full confidence as
you are preparing hard for this. Give
your 100% in exam.
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It is better to complete exam in two
phases. In first phase, do all those
questions which are less time
taking. If you have done these
questions in 30 minutes then It will
be huge bonus to you.
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Give equal time for each section
according to your strategy.
l
If any section is weak then do only
those questions in which you are
fully confident.
l
Try to get more marks from the
sections which are your strength.
l
In last 20-30 minutes focus on all
those questions which are your
strength. Dont stuck with anyone
question.
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Dont bother about cut-off, focus on
accuracy, speed.
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It is better to solve puzzles in last, if
time permits.
MOCK TESTS
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After you complete syllabus, give
Mock Tests with Honesty and time
duration of 2 hours. It helps you to
guide towards your weak points. In
last five days, focus on your weak
points.
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In the examination hall, make
strategy according to your
preparation. Take that section which
is your strength and less time
taking. Pay attention towards time
during solving questions.
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If possible try to give online mock
test, it take you proper feel of exam
and you can manage your time for
solve the questions.
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Only high scoring marks takes you
to your final goal. So give exam
taken this point to count.
INTERVIEW
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Candidates, who are declared qualify
by IBPS and have marks more than
cut-off prescribed by IBPS, can fill
forms of various banks participated in
IBPS for Interview. Interview will be of
generally 30 marks.
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Candidates have to secure minimum
qualifying marks. In Interview main
focus is on your personality,
confidence, knowledge of banking
sector, current affairs related to
banking, about RRBs, about
applying bank, RBI banking rates
and personal information.
 Reasoning Ability
1 Coding-Decoding Sample Questions
Coding-Decoding is the process of transmitting a 1. In a certain code language, FIRE is written as #%@$
piece of information from one place to other in and DEAL is written as $H. How will FAIL be
order that no one can understand it except the right written in the same code language?
person. a. #H% b. #$% c. #H@$
Coding When a piece of information is written in d. #H@ e. None of these
such a way that its actual meaning is hidden, then 2. In a certain code, MEADOWS is written as
it is known as Coding. RVNENFB. How is PRIESTS written in that code?
Decoding Decoding means to trace out the actual a. RSRFQSJ b. RSRDQSJ c. RRSFQSJ
meaning of a coded information. d. RSRFJSQ e. None of these
Usually, three types of questions are asked from this 3. In a certain code language, PERFECT is written as
chapter. 116, how will COMPACT be written in that code?
Type I a. 85 b. 98 c. 111 d. 118 e. 106
In it, one or two words are coded in a particular way 4. If lion is called fish, fish is called parrot, parrot is
and candidates are asked to code the given word in called rat, rat is called cat, cat is called tiger, then
the same way. which of the following is a bird?
Example In a certain codes language, COLD is a. Fish b. Parrot c. Rat d. Tiger e. Lion
written as DPME, how will CHINA be 5. If goat is called cow, cow is called lion, lion is called
written in that language? ass, ass is called rat, rat is called cat and cat is
As, C O L D Similarly, C H I N A called dog; then which of the following is a rodent?
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 a. Lion b. Ass c. Rat d. Cat e. Dog
D P M E D I J O B
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following information
Type II carefully to answer the given questions.
In it, a series of words is given and each word is In a certain code language
coded with another word. Candidates are required economics is not money is written as ka la ho ga
to find the code of the given word using the given demand and supply economics is written as mo ta pa ka
information. money makes only part is written as zi la ne ki
Example If bucket is known as tub, tub is known demand makes supply economics is written as zi mo ka ta
as glass, glass is known as saucer, saucer 6. What is the code for money in the given code
is known as spoon, then which utensil will language?
be used for drinking water? a. ga b. mo c. pa d. ta e. la
As glass is used for drinking water and according to the
given information, glass is known as saucer. Thus, saucer 7. What is the code of supply in the given code
will be used for drinking water. language?
a. Only ta b. Only mo c. Either pa or mo
Type III d. Only pa e. Either mo or ta
In it, some messages are provided in the code
language and some codes are assigned to each 8. What may be the possible code for demand only
word of the messages. The candidates are required more in the given code language?
to decipher the code of each word by finding the a. xi ne mo b. mo zi ne c. ki ne mo
common code for two words to determine the code d. mo zi ki e. xi ka ta
of required word. 9. What may be the possible code for work and
Example In a certain code language, she is money in the given code language?
beautiful is coded as na po sr and he is a. pa ga la b. pa la lu c. mo la pa
smart is coded as sr al gs. What will be d. tu la ga e. pa la ne
the code for is? 10. What is the code for makes in the given code
In both of the messages, is is common and in their codes, language?
sr is common. Thus code for is is sr. a. mo b. pa c. ne d. zi e. ho

66
Hints and Solutions Left and Right of a Letter
1. (a) As, F I R E And D E A L Similarly, F A I L Letters do not have their own left and right. We decide left
and right of letters on the basis of ours left and right.
# % @ $ $ H # H % Usually, there are following types of questions are asked
2. (a) As, M E A D O W S R V N E N F B related to this chapter in various competitive examination :
1
1 Type I Place of a Letter in Forward Order
1
+1 In this type of questions, the exact letter has to be found out
+1 with the help of direction and place given in the question.
+1
+1
Example Find the 11th letter to the left of 20th letter
Similarly, from left in the English alphabet.
P R I E S T S R S R F Q S J
1 a. D b. J c. K d. I e. P
1
1 (d) Let us see,
+1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
+1 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
+1
+1
11th To the left
3. (d) Letters are coded by their corresponding backward
positions. From left
P E R F E C T = 11 + 22 + 9 + 21 + 22 + 24 + 7 = 116 20th
Similarly, Hence, 11th letter to the left of 20th letter from left is I.
C O M P A C T = 24 + 12 + 14 + 11 + 26 + 24 + 7 = 118 Alternative Method In English alphabet, 11th letter to the left of
20th letter of your left
4. (c) Parrot is a bird but in the given code language, parrot = (20 11) th letter from left = 9 th letter from left = I
is called rat. Thus rat is a bird.
5. (d) Rat is rodent but in the given code language, rat is Type II Place of Letter in Completely
called cat. Thus, cat is a rodent. Backward Order
Solutions (Q. Nos. 6-10) According to the given information, In such questions the order of letters is completely
economics is not money ka la ho ga reversed or they are counted from Z to A and then the
place of letter is asked with the help of direction.
demand and supply economics mo ta pa ka
Example If English alphabet is written in backward
money makes only part zi la ne ki order, then what will be the 13th letter to the left
demand makes supply economics zi mo ka ta
of the 3rd letter from right?
a. P b. N c. R d. Q e. S
6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d) (a) Backward order is written as
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N M L K J I H G F E D C B A

2 Alphabet Test from right

To the left 3rd
13th
English Alphabet The least part of a word is called a
letter. Sequential order of a group of letters is called Now, the 13th letter to the left of the 3rd letter from right is P.
English alphabet. There are 26 letters in English Alternate Method In backward order of alphabet, 13th letter to
alphabet. the left of 3rd letter of your right = ( 3 + 13) th letter from right
= 16 th letter from right = P
Position In English alphabet, each letter has its
corresponding position. Type III Number of Letters in the Middle of
Such position of letters are two types : Two Letters
(i) Forward order letter position In this particular type, questions asked to calculate the
(ii) Backward or Reverse order letter position total number of English letters between any two specified
letters as directed in the question.
Opposite Letter A letter is said to opposite of other
when sum of their positional values is equal to 27. Example How many letters are there between 8th
e.g. Positional value of B = 2, letter from left and 7th letter from right in the
Positional value of Y = 25 English alphabet?
a. 11 b. 10 c. 9 d. 8 e. 7
Required sum = 2 + 25 = 27
(a) Let us see,
Hence, they are opposite letter pair. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
There are two halves in English alphabet : A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(i) First Half Letters from A to M are called first half of 11 letters
English alphabet. From left From right
(ii) Second Half Letters from N to Z are called second half 8th 7th
of English alphabet.

67
 Hence, there are 11 letters between 8th letter from left and 7th 3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful
letter from right. word with the 3rd, 7th, 8th and 10th letters of
Alternate Method
the word COMPATIBILITY, Which of the
Total number of letters in English alphabet = 26
following would be the last letter of that word?
Required number of letters = 26 ( 8 + 7 ) = 26 15 = 11
If no such word can be made, give X as your
Type IV Changing Letters of a answer and if more than one such word can be
Meaningful Word for med, give your answer as Y.
In this type of questions, a meaningful word is given a. I b. B c. L d. X e. Y
followed by some directions. Based on these directions, 4. How many words can be formed using letters
we have to arrange the letters of that word and then it is of the word DESIGN unconditionally?
asked to find a letter from left or right end. It is also a. More than 4 b. Less than 3 c. Exactly 4
asked whether a word can be formed or not from the d. More than 8 e. More than 10
selected letters of a meaningful word.
5. How many meaningful English words can be
Example If it is possible to make only one meaningful made with the letters ESLA, using each letter
word with the 3rd, 6th, 8th and 11th letters of only once in each word?
the word COMPUTERISE using each letter only a. None b. One c. Two
once in the word, last letter of the word is your d. Three e. More than three
answer. If no such word can be formed, your
answer is X and if more than one such word 6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the
can be formed, your answer is Z. word JOURNEY each of which has as many
a. M b. T c. R d. X e. Z
letters between then as in the english alphabet?
(a) Let us see 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
a. None b. One c. Two
C O M P U T E R I S E d. Three e. More than three

From letters M, T, R and E, the only word TERM can be 7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the
formed. word PENCIL each of which has as many letters
Last letter of the word TERM = M between tham as in the English alphabet?
Type V Letter Pair a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More than three
If between any two letters of a word, there exists as same
number of letters as in the English alphabet then these Hints and Solutions
two letters are called a letter pair. In this type of 1. (e) Position of K = 11
questions, a word is given and it is asked to find the Position of V = 22
different letter pair the word can have. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
K L M N O P Q R S T U V
Example How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word SOUTHERN each of which has as Since, there are 10 letters between K and V.
many letters between them as in the English Hence, there is no middle letter possible between K and V.
alphabet? 2. (a) O R G A N I S E
a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More than three R O A G I N E S
from right
(c) Let us see
S O U T H E R N From above, it is clear that N is the 3rd letter from right end
after rearrangement.

So, letter pair are SU and TU. 3. (b) C O M P A T I B I L I T Y

Hence, there are two letter pairs.
3rd 7th 10th
8th
Sample Questions The only word formed from these letters = LIMB
Last letter of word = B
1. The middle letter between K and V in the
English alphabet is 4. (d) From the letters of given word, we can formed the
following words :
a. N b. O c. Q
DEN, DIG, DING, SIN, SING, SIGN, SIDE, DIE, SEND
d. R e. No middle letter possible
Hence, there are more than 8 words can be formed.
2. If the position of the letters in the word 5. (c) From the letters of given word, we can formed
ORGANISE are rearranged in such a way that SALE and SEAL only two words.
the position of the 1st and 2nd letters are
6. (d)
interchanged, similarly the position of the 3rd 10 15 21 18 14 5 25
and 4th letters are interchanged and so on. J O U R N E Y
Which of the following will be the 3rd from the
right end after the rearrangement? Hence, such pairs = JN, UY, EJ
a. N b. I c. R d. A e. S i.e. three such pairs are made.

68
 7. (c)
16 5 14 3 9 12 Sample Questions
P E N C I L
1. How many 7s immediately preceded
Hence, such letter pairs = CE, NP by 6 but not immediately followed by
i.e. two such pairs are made. 8 are there in the following series?
348761567849675
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2
3 Letters and Number Sequence Test d. 3 e. 4

This test is based on a sequence of numbers and letters also in 2. How many p immediately preceded
which a series of letters and/or numbers with or without repetitions by n but not immediately followed by
are given. The candidates are required to find the total number of a r are there in the following series?
particular number or letter in the series applying certain condition. mstnpzxnpnpqynpranpsf
A part from that, the questions may be based on some series a. 2 b. 3 c. 4
pattern, analogy, classification etc. d. 5 e. 6
Generally, following types of questions are asked from this chapter. Directions (Q. Nos. 3-6) Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the
Type I Number Sequence questions given below.
Questions comes under this category have a number series. In this,
F4J2E%MP5W9@IQR6UH3Z7H
you have to find the total number of a particular number comes
ATB8V#G$YD
under certain condition.
Example How many 7s immediately preceded by 6 but not
3. How many such consonants are there
in the given arrangement, each of
immediately followed by 4 are there in the following
which is immediately preceded by a
series?
number but not immediately
74276436753578437672406743 followed by a number?
a. None b. One c. Two
a. None b. One c. Two
d. Four e. Six
d. Three e. More than three
(c) 7 4 2 7 6 4 3 6 7 5 3 5 7 8 4 3 7 6 7 2 4 0 6 7 4 3
4. Which of the following is the 10th to
Hence, there are two 7s immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately
followed by 4.
the right of the 19th from the right
end of the given arrangement?
Type II Letter Sequence a. M b. T c. #
d. 2 e. None of these
Questions comes under this category have a letter series. In this,
you have to find total number of letters of a particular letter comes 5. If all the symbols are dropped from
under certain condition. the given arrangement, which of the
Example How many letters are immediately followed by L in following will be the 14th from the
the given letter series? left end?
a. R b. Q c. U
CPMLMMBLTLDESL d. 3 e. None of these
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7
(b) C P M L M M B L T L D E S L
6. How many such symbols are there in
the given arrangement, each of which
Clearly, M, B, T and S are immediately followed by L i.e., four letters. is immediately preceded by number
and immediately followed by a letter?
Type III Alpha Numeric Sequence a. None b. One c. Two
Questions comes under this category have a letter as well as d. Three e. More than three
numeric series. In this, you have to find out a particular letter or
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-8) Study the following
number comes under certain condition.
arrangement of combinations of English letter
Example How many vowels are there in the given series which numerals and symbols carefully and answer the
is followed by a number and proceeded by a consonant? questions given below it.
R#TU3D$J@BE9W1AF%P24QIN6MHZ5 8CM@NT2Y6SQ$7HW#Z3UE%A
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. More than three 7. What should come in place of the
e. None of these question mark (?) in the following
(b) Given condition, series based on the given
Consonant Vowel Number arrangement?
R#T U 3D$J@B E 9W1AF%P24QIN6MH Z5
CMA NE 2Y3 (?) $7H
a. S6 b. SZ c. Z$5
From above it is clear that only two vowel U and E in the given series is fulfill d. S# e. None of these
the condition.

69
 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain Symbols to Show the Relations
way with respect to their positions in the above Male
arrangement. Which is one that is different from s Female
the other four? Siblings
a. E3# b. Q7W c. 62 d. TMN e. 8MN Married couple

Hints and Solutions Father-Son/Mother-Son/Father-Daughter/

Mother-Daughter
1. (b) Given series, 3 4 8 7 6 1 5 6 7 8 4 9 6 7 5
Hence, there is one 7s in the given series is immediately
preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 8.
Sample Questions
2. (c) Given series,
mstn p z x n p n p q yn p r a n p s f
1. Neha is the daughter of Anita. Anita is the
Hence, there are four p in the given series is immediately wife of my wife's brother. How Neha is
preceded by n but not immediately followed by r. related to my wife?
3. (b) There is only one such consonant 8 V # a. Cousin b. Niece c. Sister
4. (b) 10th to the right of 19th from the right end d. Sister-in-law e. Aunt
= (19 10) th from right end = 9th from right end = T 2. M is Ns sister. O is Ns mother. P is Os
5. (e) New sequence after dropping symbols father. Q is Ps mother. How is M related to P?
F4J2EMP5W9IQR6UH3Z7ATB8VGYD a. Grand-daughter b. Daughter c. Grandfather
14th from left = 6 d. Father e. Aunt
6. (d) There are three such symbols Directions (Q. Nos. 3-4) Study the following
4 J, 9 @ I, 7 H A information carefully and answer the questions.
7. (d) The series is C M A, N E, 2 Y 3, S #, ........ M is father of N. N is sister of L. L is the mother of B. T
8CM @ N T 2Y 6 S Q $7HW # 73UEYA4
is the mother of S. T has only two daughters. T is
married to K. T is sister of M.
8. (d) E 3 #Q 7 W 6 2 +2
3. How is T related to B?
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 T W N a. Cannot be determined b. Aunt
c. Mother d. Grand-daughter
+2
e. Grandmother
Except (d), in other groups, there is a gap of one letter/symbol
between two. 4. If U be the sister of S, how is U related to L?
a. Sister b. Brother c. Cousin
d. Grandmother e. Grandfather
4 Blood Relations Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) Read the following information
carefully to answer the questions that follow.
The relation between two our more individuals that is
made by the reason of their birth is known as Blood There is a family of six members. Members are A, B, C,
Relation. The problems on this chapter checks the D, E and F. A and B are married couple. B being the
knowledge and ability of the candidates about the female member. B is the daughter-in-law of F. D is the
relations. only son of C. E is the sister of D. Fs husband is not
alive. C is As brother.
Relationships between Different Generations
5. How is F related to C?
Generation Male Female
a. Sister b. Mother c. Aunt
Three Great grandfather Great grandmother d. Mother-in-law e. Son
generations Maternal great Maternal great grandmother
above grandfather Great grandmother-in-law 6. How is E related to C?
Great grandfather-in-law a. Mother b. Aunt c. Cousin
Two generations Grandfather Maternal Grandmother d. Daughter e. Father
above grandfather Maternal grandmother
Grandfather-in-law Grandmother-in-law 7. Who is C to B?
One generation Father, Uncle, Maternal Mother, Aunt, Maternal aunt, a. Nephew b. Brother c. Brother-in-law
above uncle, Father-in-law Mother-in-law d. Son-in-law e. Sister-in-law
Current Husband, Brother Wife, Sister, Cousin,
generation (Self)
Cousin, Brother-in-law Sister-in-law Hints and Solutions
One generation Son Daughter 1. (b) Since, Anita is the wife of my wifes brother, therefore Anita
below Nephew, Son-in-law Niece, Daughter-in-law will be sister-in-law of my wife. Thus, Anitas daughter or my
Two generations Grandson Grand-daughter wifes brothers daughter Neha will be the niece of my wife.
below Grandson-in-law Grand-daughter-in-law 2. (a) According to the questions.
+
Three Great grandson Great grand-daughter Q P O N
generations Great grandson-in-law Great grand-daughter-in-law
below
M
Clearly, M is the grand-daughter of P.

70
Solutions (Q. Nos. 3-4) According to the given information, the 5. A<B<C A<C
relation chart is as given below. 6. AB<C A<C
+ +
M T K 7. A<BC A<C
8. ABC AC

L N 9. A>B<C Relation cannot be found
S O
10. A>BC Relation cannot be found
B 11. AB<C Relation cannot be found
3. (e) As T is the sister of Bs grandfather M, therefore T will be 12. A<B>C Relation cannot be found
the grandmother of B. 13. ABC Relation cannot be found
4. (c) If U be the sister of S, U will be the cousin of L. 14. A<BC Relation cannot be found

Solutions (Q. Nos. 5-7) According to the given information, the From these examples, it is clear that the relation between
relation chart is as given below. any two elements cannot be found if symbols of different

F signs are present.

C
+ +
A B
Sample Questions
+ Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) In these questions, relationship
D E
5. (b) As F is the mother of Cs brother, therefore, F is the mother between different elements is shown in the statements.
of C too. The statements are followed by two conclusions.
6. (d) As E is the sister of Cs son, therefore, E is the daughter of C. Give answer
7. (c) As C is the brother of Bs husband, therefore C will be the a. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
brother-in-law of B. b. if both conclusions I and II follow
c. if only conclusion II follows
d. if either conclusion I or II follows
e. if only conclusion I follows
5 Inequalities
1. Statements K > I T E; O < R < K
As the name implicates, inequality means not equal or Conclusions I. R < E II. O < T
unequal. In the problems based on this chapter,
different elements are related with different symbols 2. Statement K L > M N
such as less than (< ), greater than (> ), greater than equal Conclusions I. N K II. N < K
to ( ) etc. Using the given relations, we have to establish
the relation between any two of them as per the 3. Statement C < L < O = U = D S > Y
Conclusions. So, first of all, we should know about these Conclusions I. O > Y II. C < D
symbols and their meaning. 4. Statements F > H, M = H, E J, M < E
Signs and their Meaning Conclusions I. J < M II. M < F
Sign Meaning Example Explanation Directions (Q. Nos. 5-8) In the following questions, the
= Equal to A=B (i) A is equal to B. symbols @, , $, % and # are used with the following
(ii) A is neither greater nor smaller
than B.
meaning as illustrated below.
> Greater than A>B (i) A is greater than B. P $ Q means P is not greater than Q.
(ii) A is neither smaller than nor equal P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
to B. P # Q means P is not smaller than Q.
< Less than A<B (i) A is less than B. P Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
(ii) A is neither greater than nor equal P % Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater
to B.
Greater than AB (i) A is greater than or equal to B.
than Q.
or equal to (ii) A is not less than B. Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the
Less than or AB (i) A is less than or equal to B. given statements to be true, find which of the three
equal to (ii) A is not greater than B. conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
Significance of Common Term
To derive a definite conclusion from the given 5. Statements H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D R
statements, there must be common term, which is Conclusions I. D M II. R @ M
related with the elements between which the relation is III. H $ T
to be established. a. None follows b. Only I follows c. Only II follows
d. Only III follows e. Only I or II and III follow
Following are given some examples which will be
helpful to make you understand it more clearly. 6. Statements B % J, J @ K, K T, T $ F
1. A>B> C A> C Conclusions I. F @ K II. B @ K
2. AB> C A> C III. B @ F
3. A>B C A> C a. I and II follow b. I and III follow c. II and III follow
4. AB C A C d. All follow e. None follows

71
 7. Statements F # B, B $ M, M @ K, K N
Conclusions I. N @ M II. F $ M 6 Distance and Direction
III. K B Direction is a measurement of position of one thing with respect
a. Only I follows b. Only II follows
c. Only III follows d. None follows to another thing or a reference point.
e. All follow There are four prime directions as shown below
North
8. Statements D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions I. J @ T II. J % T West East
III. D @ T
a. Only I follows b. Only II follows South
c. Only III follows d. Either I or II follows
e. Either I or II and II follow There are four sub-directions as given below
North-West North-East
Hints and Solutions
1. (a) Statements K > I T E; O < R < K
O< R< K> I T E
Conclusions I. R < E () II. O < T ()
South-West South-East
2. (c) Statements K L > M N
Conclusions I. N K () II. N < K () Generally, following types of question can be asked from this
3. (b) Statements C < L < O = U = D S > Y chapter in Bank and other competitive exams.
Conclusions I. O > Y () II. C < D () Type I Finding the Direction Only
4. (c) Statements F > H, M = H, E J, M < E In this type of questions we have to find out the direction of a
F> H = M< E J person or a thing as per information given in the question.
Conclusions I. J < M () II. M < F ()
Example Rashmi goes towards East from a point P and then
5. (b) Statements H $ M H M turns left. She walks some distance and then turns her
M # T M T right. Which direction is she facing now?
T @ D T> D a. North b. East c. West
D R D< R c. South d. North-East
H M T> D< R (b) According to the question, Rashmis path is as follows
Conclusions I. D M D < M () N
R East
II. R @ M R > M () Right
Left North W E
III. H $ T H T ()
P East Q
6. (a) Statements B%JB=J S
J @ K J> K It is clear from diagram that Rashmi is facing East now.
K T K< T
Type II Finding the Distance Only
T $ F T F
In this type of questions, we have to find out the distance of a
B = J> K< T F
person or a thing as per information given in the question.
Conclusions I. F @ K F > K ()
II. B @ K B > K () Example Mohan walked 30 m towards South, took a left turn
III. B @ F B > F () and walked 15 m. He, then took a right turn and
walked 20 m. He again took a right turn and walked 15
7. (c) Statements F # B F B
m. How far is he from the starting point?
B $ M B M
a. 50 m b. 70 m c. 95 m
M @ K M> K d. 120 m e. None of these
K N K< N (a) According to the question, the direction diagram will be as follows
F B M> K< N Starting point
P
Conclusions I. N @ M N > M ()
30 m

II. F $ M F M () N
III. K N K < N ()
Left

15 m W E
8. (d) Statements D # K D K Q R
Right
K @ T K> T
20 m

20 m S
T $ M T M
M%J M=J T S
15 m
D K> T M = J Final point
Conclusions I. J @ T J > T () PQ = 30 m; QR = TS = 15 m; QT = RS = 20 m
or
II. J % T J = T () Required distance = PT
III. D @ T D > T () = PQ + QT = ( 30 + 20) m = 50 m

72
Type III Finding Distance and Direction a. South-East, 5 km b. South-East, 4 km
c. North-East, 5 km d. North-East, 4 km
In this type of questions, we have to find out the distance e. None of these
and direction both of a person or a thing as per
information given in the question. Directions (Q. Nos. 6-7) Study the following information
and answer the given questions.
Example Mahima goes 10 km North, them goes 6 km Point B is 4 m to the South of point A. Point C is 5 m to
South, again she moves on 3 km East. At what the East of point B. Point D is 4 m to the North of point C.
distance is the now from original position and Point E is 10 m to the West of point D. Point F is 4 m to
in which direction? the South of point E.
a. 5 km; North-East b. 5 km; South-East
c. 8 km; North-East d. 9 km; South-East 6. Which of the following represents the direction
e. None of these of point A with respect to point C?
(a) According to the question, we have the following direction a. North-West b. North c. North-East
diagram d. South-West e. South-East
A
7. How far is point B from point F?
6 km

N a. 7 m b. 5 m c. 4 m d. 10 m e. 2 m
3 km Directions (Q. Nos. 8-9) Study the following information
10 km

C
B Final position W E
carefully to answer the given questions.
4 km

North-East S Q is to 20 m to the East of R. S is 10 m to the South of Q

O
and 15 m to the West of T. U is 15 m to the North of T. Z is
Original position 20 m to the West of U.
Here, AB = 6 km, BC = 3 km, AO = 10 km 8. If X is 17 m to the East of R, then which of the
and OB = AO AB = (10 6) = 4 km
following will be the nearest point to X?
OC = (OB)2 + ( BC )2 = ( 4)2 + ( 3)2 a. Q b. T c. S d. Z e. U
= 16 + 9 = 25 = 5 = 5 km
Hence, Mahima is at a distance of 5 km in the North-East 9. In which direction is T with respect to Z?
direction in respect of original position. a. North-West b. North c. East
d. South-West e. South-East
Sample Questions Hints and Solutions
1. (d) According to the question, the direction diagram is as
1. Town D is to the West of town M. Town R is to follows
the South of town D. Town K is to the East of N
D M
town R. Town K is towards which direction of
W E
town D?
a. South b. East c. North-East R K
S
d. South-East e. None of these
From diagram, it is clear that K is towards South-East to
2. A man goes 5 km East, then he turns right and town D.
goes 4 km, then he turns left and goes 5 km. 2. (b) According to the question, the direction diagram will be as
Which direction is he facing now? follows
a. North b. East c. South N
d. West e. None of these P 5 km East Q
Original
3. Vipul goes northwards 10 m. He turns left and position
Right 4 km
South
W E
walks 30 m, then he again turns left and walks Left S Final S
50 m, then how much distance Vipul travelled? R 5 km position
a. 10 m b. 20 m c. 40 m d. 90 m e. 100 m
It is clear from diagram man is facing East.
4. Kavi walks northwards upto 10 m. He turns left
and walks 30 m. Finally he turns left and walks 3. (d) According to the question, the direction diagram is
50 m. At what distance Kavi is now from his drawn as
starting point? 30 m
O Q
a. 10 m b. 20 m c. 50 m N
d. 90 m e. 100 m 10 m
50 m W E
5. Raghu is at point A. He walks 3 km to the North P
Initial position
and then turns to his left. He walks 4 km in this S
direction. He turns left again and walks 6 km. If R Final position
he wishes to reach point A again in which
direction should he be walking and what Total distance = PQ + QO + OR
distance will he have to cover? = 10 + 30 + 50 = 90 m

73
 4. (c) According to the question, the direction
diagram is shown as below 7 Sitting Arrangement
30 m O
P Sitting arrangement is a special form of puzzle. Like puzzle, here
N
10 m information about the seating arrangement is given in jumbled
W E form and we are to analyse and organise the information.
50 m

Q
A In bank exams, usually three types of questions are asked from this
Initial S
40 m position
chapter
1. Based on single linear arrangement
L 2. Based on two parallel lines
Final position 3. Based on circular arrangement
AO = 10 m, OP = 30 m, PL = 50 m
QA = OP = 30 m, PQ = OA = 10 m
Sample Questions
QL = PL PQ = 50 10 = 40 m
L, represent the final position,
1. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing
North such that D is on the left of C and B is on the right
Required distance = AL = (QA )2 (QL )2 of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E
occupies a corner position, then who is sitting in the
= ( 30)2 + ( 40)2 = 900 + 1600 centre?
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
= 2500 = 50 m
5. (c) According to the question, the direction 2. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in two
diagram is as follows rows opposite to each other. Each row has 4 persons. B
C 4 km B N and C are sitting in front of each other. C is between D
and E. H is sitting to the immediate left of E. H and F are
3 km 3 km W E diagonally opposite. G and B are not near to each other.
4 km
6 km E A Who is in front of A?
3 km S a. E b. D c. C d. B e. G

D Directions (Q. Nos. 3-5) Read the following information carefully

and then answer the questions that follow.
By Pythagoras theorem,
Eight persons P, M, R, T, Q, U, V and W are sitting in front of one
( AD )2 = ( AE )2 + ( DE ) = ( 4)2 + ( 3)2
another in two rows. Each row has 4 persons. P is between U and V
( AD )2 = 16 + 9 = 25 and facing North. Q, who is to the immediate left of M is facing W.
AD = 25 = 5 km R is between T and M and W is to the immediate right of V.
AD = 5 km 3. Who is sitting in front of R?
Hence, it is clear from diagram Raghu should a. U b. Q c. V
walk 5 km in North-East direction to reach the d. P e. None of these
point A again.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 6-7) The direction diagram is as
4. Who is to the immediate right of R?
follows a. M b. U c. M or T
E A D d. Cannot be determined e. None of these

4m 4m 4m 5. In which of the following pairs, persons are sitting in

front of each other?
B C a. MV b. RV c. TV
d. UR e. None of these
6. (a) The direction of point A with respect to point C
is North-West. Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Study the following information carefully to
7. (b) Point B is 5 m far from point F. answer the questions given below.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 8-9) According to the given P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the
information, the direction diagram is as follows centre. V is second to the lect of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and
Z
20 m U P are not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is
not an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K.
17 m 3m
R Q
15 m
6. Who is second to the left of K?
20 m
10 m a. P b. R c. M
d. W e. Data inadequate
15 m
S T
7. Who is to the immediate left of V?
8. (a) From above diagram, it is clear that Q is a. D b. M c. W
nearest point to X. d. Data inadequate e. None of these
9. (e) T is South-East to Z.

74
 8. Who is the third to the right of V? 3. Which are the two valleys?
a. T b. K c. P a. A and D b. D and E
d. M e. None of these c. D and G d. A and B
e. B and D
Hints and Solutions
1. (d) Arrangement according to the question is as follows Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) Read the following information
N carefully and answer the questions given below.
Left Right Ravish and Kamlesh like hockey and volleyball. Suresh
E B D C A W E
and Ravish likes hockey and badminton. Giri and
Centre S Kamlesh like chess and volleyball. Suresh, Giri and
Clearly, D is sitting in the centre. Mukesh like football and badminton.
2. (a) Arrangement of persons, according to the question, is as 4. Who likes chess, hockey and volleyball?
follows
a. Suresh b. Kamlesh c. Ravish
G A B F
d. Giri e. Mukesh

H E C D 5. Who likes badminton, chess, football and

Clearly, E is in front of A. volleyball?
Solutions (Q. Nos. 3-5) According to the given information seating a. Suresh b. Kamlesh c. Giri
arrangement of eight persons is shown below : d. Ravish e. Mukesh
T R M Q 6. Who likes hockey, volleyball and badminton?
a. Suresh b. Kamlesh
c. Ravish d. Giri
U P V W e. Mukesh
3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (a) Directions (Q. Nos. 7-10) Read the following
Solutions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Following seating arrangement is formed from information carefully and then answer the questions
the given information given below.
P
K R P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in
three different colleges A, B and C. There are three girls
M T
among them studying one each in each of these
D W colleges. Two of them study mechanical engineering,
V
two study medicine and one each study bio-technology,
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (e) pharmacy and electrical engineering R studies with
only her best friend P who studies pharmacy in college
B. No girl studies either bio-technology or electrical
8 Puzzle Test engineering. T studies mechanical engineering in
As the name indicates, in Puzzle Test, we are given some college A and his brother W studies electrical
information in jumbled form based on which some engineering in college C. None of the two studying
questions are asked. Information is given in such a way medicines in college B. S studies bio-technology along
that we are not able to answer the questions directly by with T and Z.
only reading the information. To answer the questions, 7. In which of the colleges do three of them
first we are to analyse and organise the given information study?
in a systematic and meaningful order. There is not any a. C b. B
particular patterns or formulae to solve such problems. c. A or C d. Data inadequate
This topic needs only practice. e. None of these

Sample Questions 8. Which of the following pairs of students study

medicine?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Read the following information a. S, Z b. Z, W c. Z, Q
d. T, Q e. None of these
carefully to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are the names of two rivers, three 9. Which of the following is the field of study of
canals and two valleys. B, G and D are not canals. E and F Z?
are not rivers. C is a canal but A is a valley. B, F and G are a. Medicine b. Mechanical
not valleys. c. Electrical d. Data inadequate
e. None of these
1. Which are the two rivers?
a. A and D b. B and D c. B and G
10. Which of the following represent the three
d. A and G e. D and G girls?
a. S, Z, Q b. Z, R, Q
2. Which are the three canals? c. S, R, Q d. Data inadequate
a. A, C and E b. C, E and F c. A, C and F e. None of these
d. E, F and G e. A, E and G

75
Hints and Solutions Some is a particular quantifier as it refers to at least one
Solutions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Given statements are existing object in a certain set.
B, G, D are not canals. Subject Subject is the part of the sentence something is
E, F are not rivers. said about. It is denoted by S.
C is a canal. Copula It is that part of a proposition that denotes the
A is a valley. relation between subject and predicate.
B, F, G are not valleys. Predicate It is that part of a proposition which is
If B is neither a valley nor a canal, then it is a river. affirmed detail about that subject.
If F is neither a river nor a valley, then it is a canal. Generally, following types of questions are asked from this
If G is neither canal nor a valley, then it is a river. chapter.
Canal River Valley Type I Two Statements and Two Conclusions
C B A
F G D
In this type of questions, two statements and two
E
conclusions are given. The candidate is required to
check the validity of the given conclusions on the basis
1. (c) B and G are two rivers. of the given statements.
2. (b) C, E and F are three canals.
Directions (Examples 1-2) In these questions, two
3. (a) A and D are two valleys.
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II
Solutions (Q. Nos. 4-6) Given information can be summarised in the
following table
have been given. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
Hockey Volleyball Badminton Chess Football known facts and then decide which of the given
Ravish conclusions logically follows from the given statements
Kamlesh
disregarding commonly known facts.
Suresh
Giri Give answer
Mukesh a. if only conclusion II is true
b. if only conclusion I is true
4. (b) Kamlesh likes chess, hockey and volleyball. c. if both conclusions are true
5. (c) Giri likes badminton, chess, football and volleyball. d. if either conclusion I or II is true
e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
6. (c) Ravish likes hockey, volleyball and badminton.
Solutions (Q. Nos. 7-10) Following table can be drawn from the 1. Statements All races are sprints.
given information Some races are contests.
Student College Sex Subjects Conclusions I. Some contests are sprints.
P B Boy Pharmacy II. All contests are sprints.
Q C Girl Medicine
R B Girl Mech Engg 2. Statements Some days are cats.
S A Boy Biotech All cats are pigs.
T A Boy Mech Engg Conclusions I. Some cats are dogs.
W C Boy Elec Engg
II. Some dogs are pigs.
Z A Girl Medicine
Solutions (Example 1-2)
7. (e) Three of them study in college A. 1. (b)
8. (c) Z and Q study medicine.
9. (a) Z studies medicine. Race Contest
10. (b) Group of Q, R and Z is the group of girls.
Sprint

It is clear from diagram that only conclusion I is true.

9 Syllogism 2. (c)

Syllogism is a Greek word that means Inference or

Dog Cat Pig
Deduction. As such inferences are based on logic, then
these inferences are called Logical Deduction. These
deductions are based on propositions (premise).
A proposition or premise is grammatical sentence It is clear from diagram that both conclusions are true.
comprising of four components. Type II Three Statements and Two or
(i) Quantifier (ii) Subject More Conclusions
(iii) Copula (iv) Predicate In this type of questions three statements and two or
Quantifier The words, All, No and Some are called more conclusions are given. The candidate is required to
Quantifiers as they specify a quantity. Keep in mind that check the validity of the given conclusions on the basis
All and No are universal quantifiers because they refer of the given statements.
to each and every object of a certain set.

76
Directions (Examples 3-4) In the 1. Statements decide which of the given conclusions
following questions, three statements Some huts are canopies. logically follows from the given
followed by two conclusions (I and II) Some canopies are tents. statements disregarding commonly
have been given. You have to take the known facts.
Conclusions
given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from the I. No tent is a hut. 6. Statements
commonly known facts and then II. At least some tents are Some pots are buckets.
decide which of the given conclusions huts. All buckets are tubs.
logically follows from the given 2. Statements All tubs are drums.
statements disregarding commonly All flowers are garlands. Conclusions
known facts. No garland is an accessory. I. Some drums are pots.
Give answer
Conclusions II. All tubs are buckets.
a. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
I. All garlands are flowers. III. Some drums are buckets.
b. if both conclusions are true
II. No flower is an accessory. a. I and II follow
c. if either conclusion I or II is true b. I and III follow
d. if only conclusion II is true Directions (Q. Nos. 3-5) In these c. II and III follow
e. if only conclusion I is true questions, three statements followed d. All follow
e. None of the above
3. Statements by two conclusions I and II have been
All roses are lotuses. given. You have to take the given 7. Statements
statements to be true if they seem to Some buses are trucks.
Some lotuses are orchids.
be at variance from commonly known Some trucks are boats.
No orchid is a daisy.
facts and then decide which of the
Conclusions No boat is jeep.
given conclusions logically follows
I. All rows are orchids. Conclusions
from the given statements
II. No daisy is a lotus. disregarding commonly known facts. I. Some jeeps are buses.
II. Some boats are buses.
4. Statements Give answer
No stem is a root. a. if only conclusion II is true III. Some jeeps are trucks.
b. if only conclusion I is true a. None follows b. Only I follows
Some roots are trunks. c. if both conclusions are true c. Only II follows d. Only III follows
All trunks are woods. d. if either conclusion I or II is true e. II and III follow
Conclusions e. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
Hints and Solutions
I. All trunks can never be 3. Statements 1. (c)
stems. No bank is a locker.
II. At least some roots are All banks are stores. Hut Canopy Tent
woods.
No store is a panel.
Solutions (Example 3-4)
Conclusions
3. (a) It is clear from diagram that either
I. No store is a locker. conclusion I or II follows.
Rose Orchid Daisy II. No panel is a bank. 2. (b)
Lotus 4. Statements
It is clear from diagram that neither Some strikes are hits. Flower Accessory
conclusion I nor II is true. No strike is a raid.
4. (b) All attacks are raids. Garland
Conclusions
Stem Root Trunk It is clear from diagram that only
I. Some hits are definitely conclusion II follows.
not raids.
Wood 3. (a)
II. All hits being strikes is a
It is clear from diagram that both possibility.
conclusions are true. Bank Locker Panel
5. Statements
Store
Sample Questions Some strikes are hits.
It is clear from diagram that only
No strike is a raid.
conclusion II is true.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) In each of All attacks are raids.
the questions below are given two 4. (a)
Conclusions
statements followed by two I. No attack is a strike.
conclusions numbered I and II. You Strike Hit Attack
II. All attacks being hits is a
have to take the two given statements possibility. Raid
to be true, even if they seem to be at
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-7) In each of It is clear from diagram that only
variance from commonly follow(s)
the questions below are given three conclusion II is true.
from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. statements followed by three 5. (c) 6. (b)
Give answer conclusions numbered I, II and III. You 7. (a)
a. if only conclusion I follows have to take the given statements to Buse Boat Jeep
b. if only conclusion II follows be true even, if they seems to be at Truck
c. if either conclusion I or II follows variance with commonly known facts.
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows It is clear from the diagram that none
e. if both conclusions I and II follow Read all the conclusions and then of the conclusions follows.
 English Language
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has become a constant source of the innovation and surprises to
the banking aspirants. Everytime it sends a surprise package to you when you face the screen during the online
exam. But, whatever happens, happens for good. We should take every innovation as a learning experience. Welcome
the changes with a big and a brave heart. Brave ones gets the success in the optimal effort. With the same view we
have been compelled to present subject matter with all its flavours that allows you to excel in the era of cut-throat
competition.
Lets start with the chapters that have retained their place and importance in the changed frame of exam. The chapters are
1. Reading Comprehension (Special Reference to Banking) 2. Gap Fillers
3. Para Jumblers 4. Spotting the Errors 5. Sentence Improvement
6. Cloze Test
Now, keeping the latest syllabus in mind, we are providing an extensive and an exhaustive outlook of all these chapters
one-by-one.

1 Comprehension
Comprehension is the soul of language testing area. It assesses the reading and comprehending skills of the
aspirants. In banking exams, the comprehension usually belongs to banking and economy. The context of the
passage has variance to a notable degree. It may include money market, capital market, credit and finance,
mortgages, micro-finance etc. Aspirants need to have a handy knowledge of all these topics. The knowledge would
come from reading periodicals, newspapers and magazines etc.
Importance
Every competitive exam these days contains a reading comprehension question. Therefore, its importance needs no
further explanation. A sound knowledge of commercial market is enough to fetch you a handsome score of 8 to 10.
Also many a times, aspirants can meet the sectional cut-off (usually ranging from 8 to 10) with this topic alone. So,
aspirants what are you waiting for! Its high time you pulled your socks up and start turning into a financial aspirant.
Help yourself with a good understanding of economic passages and be a scorer.

Sample Questions
Directions (Q. Nos 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth.
The viability of FI business is under question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make
investments, they havent seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programmes are focused on
customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving issuance of smart
cards to the customers.
However , large-scale business, with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the banks
investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents, who constitute the primary channel for financial
inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. One major reason for this state of events is that the
customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of
the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time, the initial enthusiasm of
applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners dont have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other
than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their bankss goal of expanding the
offering in unbanked markets.
Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is
important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programmes.
Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are
inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time urban markets, despite a high branch density,
have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide
with the off work hours of the labour class.
Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to be
innovative in right-sizing their proposition to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small
amounts. One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a
convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a veriety of purchases.
Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this 4. In the passage, the author has specified which of
value proposition they must sustain their interest by the following characteristics of the customer
introducing a simple and intuitive user application, on-boarding process?
ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, a. It involves collection of documents from the applicants in
and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only order to validate their details.
secure but also reassuring to the customer. b. It involves issuance of smart cards to the customers.
Technology is the most important element of financial c. It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after
inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. submission of documents by the customer.
The choice of technology is therefore a crucial d. It is an expensive process which people find difficult to
afford.
decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the
e. All of the given characteristics have been specified.
various section criteria, cost is perhaps the most
important. This certainly does not mean buying the 5. What did the author try to highlight in the
cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution passage?
which by scaling transactions to huge volumes A. The ailing condition of financial inclusion
reduces per unit operating cost. An optimal mix of business at present
these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative
means of expansion in the unbanked market. B. Strategies that may help banks expand in the
unbanked market
1. Which of the following facts is true as per the C. Role of government in modifying the existing
passage? financial inclusion policies
a. People from rural areas have high perceived value a. A and B b. All A, B and C c. Only C
of banking services. d. Only A e. Only B
b. Cost is not a valid criterion for technological
package selection for financial inclusion initiatives. 6. According to the passage, which of the following
c. The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished, ways may help banks sustain the interest of their
undifferentiated mass. customers after hooking them?
d. The branch timings of banks generally do not A. Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not
coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class only secure but reassuring to the customers
in urban markets.
e. All the given statements are true. B. Increasing the number of delivery partners in
rural market
2. According to the passage, for which of the C. Introduction of a simple and intuitive user
following reasons do the delivery partners fail application
to serve their banks goal to expand in the a. Only A b. Only C c. Only B
unbanked markets? d. All A, B and C e. A and C
A. They do not have adequate client base to Directions (Q. Nos 7-8) Choose the word which is most
sell their financial products. similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in
B. They do not have adequate knowledge the passage.
and skills to explain anything beyond basic
financial products to the customers. 7. Multitude
C. They do not have the skill to operate a. Impoverished b. Handful
advanced technological aids that are a c. Acknowledged d. Plenty
e. Solitude
prerequisite to tap the unbanked market.
a. Only B b. Only C 8. Ubiquitous
c. All A, B and C d. Only A a. Quintessential b. Popular c. Omnipresent
e. B and C d. Simplified e. Abnormal
3. According to the passage, for which of the Directions (Q. Nos 9-10) Choose the word which is most
following reasons is the viability of financial opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in
inclusion under question? the passage.
a. Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut
cost) while making a choice of technology to be 9. Dormant
used. a. Emaciated b. Pertinent c. Cornered
b. The Business Correspondent Agents are highly d. Rejected e. Active
demotivated to pursue their activity as a full time job.
c. The investments made by banks and their delivery 10. Delayed
partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns. a. Perturbed b. Popularised c. Expedited
d. Banks do not have adequate number of delivery d. Stabilised e. Repressed
partners required to tap the unbanked market.
e. Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore Explanations
the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby 1. (d) According to the passage, it is true that the branch timings of
identify the right target customers for various the banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the
programmes. labour class in urban markets.

79
 2. (a) 3. (c) Explanations
4. (e) All of the given characteristics have been specified for 1. (e) Blanks need a pair of contrasting words and virtue,
customers on-boarding process. revered gives the exact context to the sentence.
5. (a) The author tries to highlight ailing condition of financial 2. (e)
inclusion business at present and strategies that may help
banks expand in the unbanked market. 3. (b) Height is the only word suitable to the first blank. But
for the second blank, appreciate gives the right context.
6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (c)
9. (e) Dormant means inactive. So, its antonym will be Active. 4. (a)
10. (c) Delayed means to make late. So, its antonym will be 5. (a) For the second blank, the only suitable word is
Expedited. passing. Hence, option (a) is correct choice.

2 Gap Fillers 3 Para Jumblers

Gap filling exercises are based on sentence completion Para jumbler is another type of testing manual of
format. In this type of questions, a sentence with two comprehending ability of the aspirants. IBPS necessarily
blanks is given and followed by options. Aspirants have asks questions on Para Jumblers type. In this type, a
to choose the combination that fits both the gaps in such paragraph with its sentences is given in jumbled
a way that the meaning of the sentence meets the proper manner. These jumbled parts are marked with numerals
context. Sound knowledge of vocabulary and usages of or alphabets. The candidates are required to arrange
words are the things that are tested in this type of these sentences keeping the context in their mind.
questions. Aspirants must know the need of context for a
particular sentence to reach to the answer effectively. Sample Questions
Sample Questions Directions (Q. Nos 1-5) Rearrange the following
sentences A, B, C, D and E to form a meaningful
Directions (Q. Nos 1-15) Pick out the most effective word paragraph. Then answer the questions given below the
from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the group of sentences.
sentence meaningfully complete. A. They with their companions range along such
highest altitudes of human thought.
1. If misery is the effect of ill-fortune, it ought to
B. It is only there they can breathe freely.
be pitied, if of ............ to be ............
a. virtue; criticised b. calamity; revered C. All Great thinkers live and move on a high plane of
c. virtue; protected d. vice; revered thought.
e. virtue; revered D. As a result there is not a single illuminative genius
2. It would be impossible for us to continue living who did not drink his inspiration from the
in this world if each of us ............ exactly what fountains of ancient Greek writer.
fate had in ............ for him. E. It is in contact with spirits like themselves from
a. follow; plan b. appreciate; strategy that plane they can live harmoniously and attain
c. design; anticipation d. visualise; hidden that serenity which comes from ideal
e. knew; store companionship.
3. It is the ............ of selfishness for men, who fully 1. Which of the following should be the THIRD
............ in their own case the great advantages sentence after rearrangement?
of good education, to deny these advantages to a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
women.
a. parody; demand b. height; appreciate
2. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
c. height; assimilate d. degree; appreciate sentence after rearrangement?
e. level; advance a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

4. The learner should be ............ to take a small 3. Which of the following should be the FIRST
first step, one that will provide immediate sentence after rearrangement?
success and ............ the learning a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
a. encouraged; reinforce b. forced; organise
c. directed; reorganise d. cautioned; reinforce
4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
e. encouraged; acknowledge (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
5. His death ............ more tributes than have been
paid at the ............ of any other human being in 5. Which of the following should be the SECOND
history. sentence after rearrangement?
a. brought; passing b. directed; helm a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
c. delivered; description d. invited; living Answers
e. acknowledged; perpetuate
1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

80
 2. On firm ground the tent had held in place
4 Spotting the Errors by pegs driver into the ground.
a. has been held at b. was held in
Spotting the errors is the grammar tester in the segment of c. was being held with d. should be held at
English language. The questions that are asked in this e. No correction required
segment belong to the grammar portion. Very minute rules will
Explanations
play their part in the question. Aspirants must have a good 1. (e) The sentence is correct as it is given.
knowledge of topics of the grammar and only then they will find 2. (b) Use was held in in place of had held in to make
themselves in a position to answer the questions. the sentence correct.
Importance
This is very much obvious that grammar will never lost its 6 Cloze Test
importance but this topic has lost its charm however. Earlier, it
used to be five in number but now this reflects two or three in A cloze test is a passage with numbered blanks. A
number. But, even then this is an important segment. Even, short passage ranging from 80 to 100 words is given
two or three marks decides a lot in the exam. So, one should and blanks are left at certain places in the passage.
not treat it obsolete but given the same vent as used to be These blanks are numbered and followed by options.
earlier. The candidates have to choose the most suitable
option from the given ones that fits the blank. Many a
time, there are more than one suitable words to fit the
Sample Questions gap but one has to choose the most appropriate one.
Directions (Q. Nos 1-5) Check in the given sentences if there is Importance
any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error if any will be in one Cloze test generally ranges for 10 marks. But with the
part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there change in pattern it may be of 5 marks. But, the fact
is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.) is, it is always easy and lucid to solve if you have a
1. I am (a)/ better acquainted (b)/ with the country (c)/ good understanding of usages of different words.
then you. (d) No error (e) Usually, the passage that is asked in bank clerical
exams is easy and so one can have the expectation to
2. It is said (a)/ by some persons (b)/ that one of the bank score better. This is always a scoring segment.
(c)/ could solve economic problem. (d) No error (e)
3. The boy who (a)/ you see there (b)/ made the top Sample Questions
score (c)/ the last match. (d) No error (e)
Directions (Q. Nos 1-5) In the following passage
Explanations there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
1. (d) For comparison, we should use than not then. These numbers are also printed below the passage
2. (c) Use plural noun after the expression one of the. So, bank is to and against each five words are suggested, one of
replaced by banks. which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
3. (a) Use whom in place of who to make the sentence correct. For appropriate word in each case.
referring an object we should use the pronoun in objective case.
A good percentage of the population of India is
tribal. The tribals live in the hills and forests of the
5 Sentence Improvement country and have been little (1) by the (2) currents
of the plains. Practically all the States of India have
Sentence improvement exercises are based upon grammar too. their tribal population. The tribes are numerous,
One needs to have very sound knowledge of syntax. In this type of computed to be about 200, some living in (3)
exercise, a part of the sentence is kept either bold or underlined regions in dense forests, and others on the borders
and for that part options are suggested that may improve the of villages. Some tribes are (4) to a few souls, while
grammatical built-up of the sentence. If the part is already correct others like the Santhals run into millions and are
then No improvement or No correction required is selected. steadily (5) in numbers.
1. a. affected b. domiciled c. motivated
Sample Questions d. deprived e. favoured
2. a. financial b. proud c. cultural
Directions (Q. Nos 1-2) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) d. unruly e. swift
given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in 3. a. comfortable b. marshy c. wild
bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct. In the d. unpopulated e. inhospitable
sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e. No correction required, as 4. a. devoted b. confined c. susceptible
the answer. d. related e. attached
1. The new facts he has discovered could not change 5. a. constant b. deteriorated c. developing
my opinion. d. increasing e. decreasing
a. has not changed b. could not be changed Answers
c. cant be changed d. may not be changed 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (e) 4. (b)
e. No correction required 5. (d)

81
 Quantitative Aptitude
3. (b) 73 80 96 130 191 288
1 Number Series +17 +16 +34 +61 +97

In number series, a sequence of numbers is given that +9 +18 +27 +36

follow a particular rule. We are to recognise the rule +9 +9 +9

and answer the questions accordingly. 4. (a) 111 148 185 222 259 296
Usually two types of questions asked in banks based on +37 +37 +37 +37 +37
Number series 115
5. (d)
13 30 64 116 183 268
Finding the Missing Term In it you are given a
number series based on some specific rule. Following (171) (172) (173) (174) (175)
the rule, you are to find the missing term. 59
6. (c) 84 41 40 60 117 291.5
Finding the Wrong Term Here, in the given number
series, there is a number that does not follow the 0.51 11 1.51 21 2.51

pattern. You are to find that wrong term. 7. (b) 5760

16 48 192 960 5762 40320
3 4 5 6 7
Sample Questions 8. (a) 276
290 289 285 272 260 235
Directions (Q. No. 1-4) What will come in place of 2 2 2 2 2
1 2 3 4 5
question mark(?) in the given number series?
9. (c) +2 +2
1. 114 129 99 144 84 ?
1337 1330 1335 1332 1333 1336
a. 160 b. 154 c. 159 d. 163 e. 167
1334
2. 16 8 8 12 24 ? 90 2 2
a. 50 b. 56 c. 75 d. 60 e. 65
3. 73 80 96 130 191 ? 2 Simplification
a. 230 b. 288 c. 265 d. 243 e. 290
Simplification is a mahematical operation by which
4. 111 148 185 222 259 ?
complex expression of numbers or fractions are converted
a. 296 b. 302 c. 308 d. 315 e. 312
into a simple or less difficult form.
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-9) In the following number
series, a number is wrong. Find the wrong number.
Rule of VBODMAS
To solve this type of questions on random basis and a very
5. 13 30 64 116 183 268 appropriate method is to apply VBODMAS rule for arriving
a. 13 b. 183. c. 268 d. 116 e. 64 at the solution of such problems.
6. 84 41 40 60 117 291.5 The sequence of brackets is according to Vi Ci Cu Sq which is
a. 41 b. 40 c. 60 d. 117 e. 291.5 as follow :
Vi Viniculum or Bar
7. 16 48 192 960 5762 40320 Ci Circular Bracket ( )
a. 40320 b. 5762 c. 960 d. 192 e. 48 Cu Curly Bracket { }
8. 290 289 285 272 260 235 Sq Square Bracket [ ]
a. 272 b. 289 c. 235 After that,
d. 285 e. 290 V (Viniculum or Bar)
9. 1337 1330 1335 1332 1333 1336 B (Bracket)
a. 1130 b. 1332 c. 1336 O (of)
d. 1335 e. 1337 D (Division)
Hints and Solutions M (Multiplication)
A (Addition)
1. (c) 114 129 99 144 84 159
S (Subtraction)
+15 30 +45 60 +75
Example 1. The value of
2. (d) 16 8 8 12 24 60 90 1 + [1 {5 4 1 (13 3 1 3 )}] is
0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

82
 (b) 1 + [1 { 5 4 1 (13 3 1 3)}] Example 4. The value of

= 1 + 1 5 4 1
13 1
0.73 0.73 0.73 + 0. 27 0. 27 + 0. 81 0.73
3 3
0.73 + 0. 27
5 5 1
= 1 + 1 1 4 = 1 + 1 is equal to
4 4 4
1 a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4 e. 5
= 1 + [1 1] = 1 + = 1 + 1 = 2 0 .73 0 .73 0 .73 + 0 .27 0 .27 0 .27 + 0 . 81 0 .73
1 (c)
0 .73 + 0 .27
Approximate Value =
( 0 .73)3 + ( 0 .27 )3 + 3 0 .27 0 .73 1
Sometimes while simplifying the expression, we take the 0 .73 + 0 .27
value of given terms near an integer not an exact value. ( 0 .73)3 + ( 0 .27 )3 + 3 0 .73 0 .27 ( 0 .73 + 0 .27 )
Taking by this nearby value we get the expression value =
0 .73 + 0 .27
is some more or less of exact value.
[a 3 + b 3 + 3ab( a + b ) = ( a + b )3]
Example 2. The value of Here a = 073
. and b = 0.27
599. 88 30 89% of 400 + 50 is ( 073 . )3 (1)3 1
. + 027
Given expression = = = =1
a. 6500 b. 6800 c. 7000 d. 7250 e. 7400 ( 073
. + 027
. ) 1 1
(d) If x = 599.88 30 89% of 400 + 50
= 600 30 90% of 400 + 50
600 90 Sample Questions
= 400 + 50
30 100
= 20 360 + 50 = 7200 + 50 = 7250
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) What should come at the place
of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Use of Algebraic Formulae 1. ( 27 5 ?) 15 = 5. 4 6 + 0. 3
We can find the value of any given expression with the
help of following algebraic formulae : a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10
l
( a + b)2 = a2 + 2 ab + b2 2. 24 0. 5 + 1 + 18 0. 6 + 6 = ?
2 2 2
l
( a b ) = a 2 ab + b a. 19 b. 13 c. 12 d. 15 e. 17
( a + b )2 + ( a b )2 = 2( a 2 + b 2 )
3. ( 32 10 ) 64 ( 2 10 ) = 10
5 2 16 4 ?
l

l
( a + b )2 ( a b )2 = 4ab
a. 6 b. 10 c. 8 d. 6 e. 10
l
a2 b 2 = (a + b ) (a b )
l
( a + b )3 = a 3 + b 3 + 3ab( a + b ) 4. ( 63 252 ) ( 175 28 ) = ?
3 3 3 a. 16 7 b. 441 c. 5/4 d. 7 7 e. 9 7
l
( a b ) = a b 3ab( a b )
3 3 2
a + b = ( a + b ) ( a ab + b ) 2
2 1 1
5. 2 + 4
l

1 =?
l
a 3 b 3 = ( a b ) ( a 2 + ab + b 2 ) 9 18 2
l
a 3 + b 3 + c 3 3abc 5 7 8 1 2
a. 4 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 5
= ( a + b + c)( a2 + b2 + c2 ab bc ca) 9 9 9 3 3

If a + b + c = 0 , Then, a 3 + b 3 + c 3 = 3abc 6. {( 64 38 ) 4} 13 = ?
l
( a + b + c )2 = a 2 + b 2 + c 2 + 2( ab + bc + ca ) a. 4 b. 1 c. 3 d. 2 e. 5
2 2
1 2 1 1 294 14 5 + 11
l
a + = a + 2 + 2 = a + 4 7. = 8 2 5 + 1.7
a a a
2 2
?
1 2 1 1 a. 8 b. 6 c. 12 d. 5 e. 10
l
a = a + 2 2 = a + 4
a a a
1
3
1 1
8. ? % of ( 400 + 16 0. 2 0. 05 ) = 1700
3
l
a + = a + 3 + 3 a + a. 90 b. 70 c. 85 d. 95 e. 65
a a a
1 3
3
1 1 Hints and Solutions
l
a = a + 3 3 a
a a a 1. (b) (27 5 ?) 15 = 5.4 6 + 0.3
2 2 27
( 63 + 36 ) + ( 63 36 ) ?
Example 3. The value of is 5 = 5 .4 6 + 0 .3;
27 ?
= 1.2 ;
9?
= 1.2 ;
( 63 ) 2 + ( 36 ) 2 15 5 15 55
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 3 1.2 5
? = 1.2 ; ? = = 0.4 5; ? = 2; ? = 4
( 63 + 36)2 + ( 63 36)2 5 3
(a) [ ( a + b )2 + ( a b )2 = 2 ( a 2 + b 2 )]
( 63)2 + ( 36)2 2. (b) 24 0.5 + 1 + 18 0.6 + 6 = ?
Here, a = 63 and b = 36 48 + 1 + 30 + 6 = ?
2[( 63)2 + ( 36)2 ] 49 + 36 = ?
Given expression = =2
( 63)2 + ( 36)2 ? = 7 + 6 = 13

83
 3. (d) ( 32 105 )2 64 (216 104 ) = 10?
Sample Questions
32 32 10 10 64 2 10 10 10 2 6
= 10 ?
= 10
?
2 16 10 4 2 16 10 4 1. Present age of Bob is equal to
2 16 10 10 10 4 6 Abbys age 8 years ago. 4 years
= 10 ?
10 = 10
?
2 16 hence, the respective ratio
? =6 between Bobs age and Abbys
4. (c) ( 63 252 ) ( 175 28) = ? age will be 5 : 4 at that time.
63 175 1 25 5
What is Bobs present age?
? = = = a. 24 yr b. 32 yr c. 40 yr
252 28 4 4 4
d. 20 yr e. 28 yr
2 1 1 20 73 3
5. (b) 2 + 4 1 =? + =? 2. The difference between the
9 18 2 9 18 2
40 + 73 113 27 present ages of Trisha and
27 =? Shalini is 14 years. 7 years ago,
18 18
86 43 7 the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7
? = = =4
18 9 9 respectively. What is Shalinis
6. (c) {( 64 38) 4} 13 = ? {26 4} 13 = ? present age?
104 a. 49 yr b. 56 yr c. 63 yr
? = ? =8 d. 35 yr e. 40 yr
13
294 14
7. (a)
. 5 + 11
= 8 2 5 + 17
.
3. Four years ago, the respective
? ratio between 1/2 of As age at
294
5 + 11 that time and four times of Bs
14 21 5 + 11 116 age at that time was 5 : 12. Eight
= 64 5 + 17 . = 14.5
? ? ? years hence, 1/2 of As age at
? =8 that, time will be less than Bs
8. (c) ?% of ( 400 + 16 0.2 0.05) = 1700 age at that time by 2 years.
?% of ( 400 + 80 0.05) = 1700 What is Bs present age?
?% of ( 400 + 1600) = 1700 a. 5 yr b. 8 yr c. 10 yr
? 2000 d. 12 yr e. 14 yr
?% of (2000) = 1700 = 1700
100 4. At present, Pia is 6 years older
17 100
? = ? = 85 to Ray. The respective ratio
20
between the present ages of Pia
and Mini is 3 : 4. At present Ray
is 14 years younger to Mini.
3 Problems Based on Ages and Numbers What is Rays present age?
a. 14 yr b. 16 yr c. 18 yr
Problems on Ages Age is defined as a period of time that a person has d. 20 yr e. 24 yr
lived or a thing has existed. Age is measured in months, years, decades
and so on. Problems based on ages generally consist of information of
5. I have x marbles. My elder
ages of two or more persons and a relation between their ages in
brother has 3 more than mine
present/future/past.
while my younger brother has 3
less than mine. If the total
Example 1. The sum of ages of a man and his son is 47 years. After 4 number of marbles is 15, the
years, the age of man will be four times to the age of his son. number of marbles that I have is
Then, age of son is a. 3 b. 5 c. 8
a. 6 yr b. 7 yr c. 8 yr d. 9 yr e. 10 yr d. 7 e. 4
(b) Let, the age of son be x yr. Then, age of man = ( 47 x ) yr 6. Divide 50 into two parts, so that
Now, according to the question, the sum of their reciprocals is
47 x + 4 = 4 ( x + 4) 47 x + 4 = 4 x + 16 1/12.
4 x + x = 51 16 5 x = 35 x=7
a. 20, 30 b. 24, 26 c. 28, 22
Age of son = 7 yr d. 35, 15 e. 10, 40
Problem on Numbers Problems based on numbers are generally given 7. The denominator of a fraction is
in the form of a puzzle or statements. You are to make equations carefully 3 more than its numerator. If
according to the given coditions in the questions by assuming the
the numerator is increased by 7
unknown number and then solve it to get the required number.
and the denominator is
Example 2. If a number is as much greater than 31 as it is less than 75, decreased by 2, we obtain 2. The
then the number is sum of numerator and
a. 44 b. 48 c. 53 d. 60 e. 72 denominator of the fraction is
(c) Let the required number be x. According to the question, x 31 = 75 x a. 5 b. 13 c. 17
x + x = 75 + 31 2 x = 106 x = 53 d. 19 e. 22

84
 9. If one-ninth of a certain number exceeds its 6. (a) Let one part of number be x and other part be ( 50 x).
one-tenth by 4, the number is According to the question,
a. 320 b. 360 c. 400 d. 440 e. 480 1
Sum of their reciprocals =
12
Hints and Solutions 1 1 1 50 x + x 1
+ = =
1. (e) Let, Abbys age 8 yr ago = x x ( 50 x ) 12 x( 50 x ) 12
and Bobs present age = x x ( 50 x ) = 600 x 2 50 x + 600 = 0
Now, according to the question, x 30 x 20 x + 600 = 0
2
x+ 4 4
4 yr hence, = x ( x 30) 20 ( x 30) = 0
x + 12 5
5 x + 20 = 4 x + 48 ( x 30) ( x 20) = 0 x = 20, 30
5 x 4 x = 48 20 x = 28 Hence, both the parts of number are 20 and 30.
Bobs present age = 28 yr 7. (b)Let the numerator be x and the denominator be ( x + 3).
2. (b) Let the age of Shalini = S and age of Trisha = T x
Fraction =
x+ 3
Now, according to the question,
Now, according to the question,
S T = 14 ...(i)
S 7 5 x+7
and = =2 x + 7 = 2x + 2
T 7 7 x+ 32
7S 49 = 5T 35 7S 5T = 49 35 2x 2 = 7 2 x = 5
7 (14 + T ) 5T = 14 Numerator = 5 and denominator = 5 + 3 = 8
98 + 7T 5T = 14 [From Eq. (i)] Sum of numerator and denominator = 8 + 5 = 13
98 + 7T 5T = 14 2T = 14 98 = 84 8. (b) Let the number be x.
2T = 84 (neglect ve sign) According to the question.
T = 42 x x 10 x 9 x x
=4 =4 =4 x = 360
Now, from Eq. (i), 9 10 90 90
S 42 = 14 S = 14 + 42 S = 56
Present age of Shalini = 56 yr
3. (c) Let, the present age of A is x years and present age of B is 4 Ratio and Proportion
y years.
4 yr ago, Age of A = ( x 4) yr Ratio A ratio between two quantities of similar type
Age of B = ( y 4) yr which shows that one quantity is how much times the
According to the question, other quantity, is known as Ratio.
( x 4) Proportion Proportion is the equality of two ratios. As a: b
2 5 ( x 4) 5
= = = c : d, We write a : b :: c : d and we say that a, b, c and d
4 ( y 4) 12 8 ( y 4) 12
are in proportion. In such case a and d are called
( x 4) 5
= 3 x 12 = 10 y 40 Extremes and b and c are called Means.
2( y 4) 3
In a proportion,
3 x 10 y = 28 ...(i)
x+ 8 Product of extremes = Product of means
After 8 yr, + 2 = y+ 8
2 i.e., ad = bc
x x
+ 4+2 = y+ 8 = y+ 8 6 Short Trick If a quantity P is distributed in the ratio a : b : c , then
2 2
a
x First part = P
y = 2 x 2y = 4 ...(ii) a + b +c
2
b
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Second part = P
a + b +c
y = 10
c
Present age of B is 10 yr. Third part = P
a + b +c
4. (c) Let, Ray is x yr old at present.
Then, Pais age = ( x + 6) yr
and Minis present age = ( x + 14) yr Sample Questions
Now, according to the question,
x+ 6 3
= 4 x + 24 = 3 x + 42 1. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in
x + 14 4
4 x 3 x = 42 24 x = 18 such a way that A gets ` 40 more than the 1/2 of
Hence, Rays present age is 18 yr. the sum, B gets ` 120 less than 3/8 of the sum and
5. (b) Let, number of marbles with me = x C get ` 200. What is the total sum?
a. ` 1100 b. ` 850 c. ` 960
Then, number of marbles with my elder brother = ( x + 3)
d. ` 1200 e. None of these
and number of marbles with my younger brother = ( x 3)
Now, according to the question, 2. A sum of ` 9000 is distributed among A, B and C
x + ( x + 3) + ( x 3) = 15 in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6. What will be the
3 x = 15 x = 5 difference between Ac and Cs share?
Hence, number of marble with me = 5 a. ` 600 b. ` 900 c. ` 1000 d. ` 1200 e. ` 1500

85
 3. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If each 3. (c) Let the numbers be 3 x and 4 x
According to the question,
number is increased by 6, the ratio becomes 3x + 6 4
4 : 5. The difference between the numbers is = 15 x + 30 = 16 x + 24
4x + 6 5
a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10
16 x 15 x = 30 24 x = 6
4. In a school having overall strength 286, the Required difference = 4 x 3 x = x = 6
ratio of boys and girls is 8 : 5. If 22 more girls 4. (d) Given, total students = 286
get admitted into the school, the ratio of boys Let the number of boys = 8 x and number of girls = 5 x
and girls becomes Then, 8 x + 5 x = 286 13 x = 286 x = 22
a. 12 : 7 b. 10 : 7 c. 8 : 7 d. 4 : 3 e. 2 : 1 Number of boys = 8 x = 8 22 = 176
And, Number of girls = 5 x = 5 22 = 110
5. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is 176 176 8 4
Required ratio = = = = = 4:3
subtracted from each they are in the ratio 110 + 22 132 6 3
12 : 23. The smaller number is 5. (b) Let the numbers be 3 x and 5 x
a. 27 b. 33 c. 49 d. 55 e. 60 According to the question,
3 x 9 12
6. Ram earns ` 125 in 8 days and Shyam earns ` = 69 x 207 = 60 x 108
5 x 9 23
140 in 10 days, the ratio of their earnings is
a. 125 : 110 b. 112 : 125 c. 125 : 112 69 x 60 x = 207 108 9 x = 99 x = 11
d. 100 : 112 e. None of these Smaller number = 3 x = 3 11 = 33
125 140
7. In a money bag, there are ` 1 coins, ` 2 coins 6. (c) Earnings of Ram and Shyam are ` and ` per day
8 10
and ` 5 coins. If the ratio of the number of Then, required ratio =
125 140
:
coins be 4 : 3 : 2 and the total money in the bag 8 10
is ` 500, the amount of money in ` 2 = 125 10 : 140 8 = 125 : 112
denomination is 7. (b) Let the number of ` 1, ` 2 and ` 5 coins be 4 x, 3 x and 2 x
a. ` 100 b. ` 150 c. ` 200 d. ` 250 e. ` 300 respectively Then,
4 x 1 + 3 x 2 + 2 x 5 = 500
8. ` 3400 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a 4 x + 6 x + 10 x = 500 20 x = 500 x = 25
way that the share of A and B, B and C, C and Thus, amount of money in ` 2 denomination
D may be as 2 : 3, 4 : 3 and 2 : 3 respectively. the = 6 x = 6 25 = ` 150
sum of shares of B and D is 8. (d) Given, A : B = 2 : 3
a. ` 1680 b. ` 1720 c. ` 2000 d. ` 2040 e. ` 2200
B:C = 4: 3
Hints and Solutions C:D=2:3
1. (c) Let total sum be ` x. A : B:C : D= 2 4 2 : 3 4 2:2 3 3: 3 3 3
Then, = 16 : 24 : 18 : 27
A B C
Now, sum of the ratios = 16 + 24 + 18 + 27 = 85
x 3x
+ 40 120 Bs share =
24
2 8
200 3400 = ` 960
84
x 3x 27
Now, + 40 + 120 + 200 = x Ds share = 3400 = ` 1080
2 8 85
x 3x 8x 4x 3x Required sum = 1080 + 960 = ` 2040
x = 120 = 120
2 8 8
8x 7 x
= 120 x = 120 8 = 960
8 5 Percentage
x = ` 960
2. (d) Total amount = ` 9000 The term Percent means for every hundred. It can be
defined as follows
As share = 4 x
Bs share = 5 x A percent is a fraction whose denominator is 100 and
AndCs share = 6 x the numerator of the fraction is called the rate percent.
Then, 4 x + 5 x + 6 x = 9000 Percent is denoted by the sign %.
15 x = 9000 x = 600 Short Tricks
Now, As share = 4 600 = ` 2400 1. When a value/number/quantity A is increased or decreased by b%
Cs share = 6 600 = ` 3600 100 b
then new value/number/quantity will be = A
Difference between As and Cs share 100
= ` ( 3600 2400) = ` 1200 x
2. If a is x % more than b, then b is less than a by 100 %.
Alternate Method 100 + x
4 4
As share = 9000 = 9000 3. If a is x % less than b, then b is more than a by
x
100 %.
4+ 5+ 6 15 100 x
6 6
Cs share = 9000 = 9000 = ` 3600 4. If the price of a commodity increases or decreases by a% then the
4+ 5+ 6 15 decrease or increase in consumption so as not to increase or
Difference between As and Cs Share a
decrease the expenditure is equal to 100%
= 3600 2400 = ` 1200 100 a

86
 3. (b) By Short Trick 3
Sample Questions Here, x = 10%
x
Required percentage = 100 %
1. If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by 100 x
how much percent a households must reduce 40 40 100
= 100 =
his consumption of sugar so as not to increase 100 40 60
his expenditure? 200
= = 66.66%
a. 10% b. 15% c. 18% d. 20% e. 22% 3
2. If the income of Ram is 12.5% more than that of 4. (b) Total voters = 8200
Shyam, the income of Shyam is less than that of 8200 75
Total valid votes = = 6150
Ram by 100
1 1 1 1 1 Number of valid votes the other person got
a. 11 % b. 13 % c. 87 % d. 88 % e. 22 %
9 2 2 9 4 6150 28
= = 1722
100
3. If As income is 40% less than that of B, how much
percent Bs income is more than that of A? 5. (c) Let number of boys and girls school be 3 x and 2 x
respectively.
a. 33.33% b. 66.66% c. 40%
d. 50% e. 60% Total number of students = 3 x + 2 x = 5 x
Now, number of students who are scholarship holders
4. In an election between two candidates, one got = 80% of 3 x + 75% of 2 x
72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total 80 75
= 3x + 2x = 2.4 x + 1 .5 x = 3.9 x
votes are invalid. If total votes are 8200, what is 100 100
the number of valid the other person got? Required percentage =
3. 9 x
100 = 78%
a.1835 b. 1722 c. 2050 d. 4428 e. 4670 5x
110
5. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a 6. (a) y is 10% more than 125= 125 = 137.5 = y
100
government aided school is 3 : 2. 20% of the 90 90
and x is 10% less than y = y= 137.5 = 123 .75
boys and 25% of the girls are not scholarship 100 100
holders. The percentage of students who are x = 123 .75
scholarship holders, is
7. (c) Let the total number of candidates = x
a. 70% b. 74% c. 78% d. 68% e. 72%
Clearly, 75 candidates qualify.
6. If a number x is 10% less than another number y 75% of appearing candidates = 450
75
and y is 10% more than 125, then x is equal to i.e., 75% of x = 450 x = 450
100
a. 123.75 b. 128 c. 135 d. 180 e. 198
450 100
x= = 6 100 x = 600
7. 25% of the candidates, who appeared in an 75
examination, failed to qualify and only 450 8. (d) Original rate = ` x per egg
candidates qualified. The number of candidates 6x
New rate = ` per egg
who appeared in the examination, was 5
a. 500 b. 550 c. 600 d. 650 e. 700 According to the question,
24 24 24 120
8. Due to an increase of 20% in the price of eggs, 2
6x
=2 =2
x x 6x
eggs less are available for ` 24. The present rate
5
of eggs per dozen is 24 20 4
a. ` 25.00 b. ` 26.20 c. ` 27.80 =2 =2
x x x
d. ` 28.80 e. ` 30.20 4
x= =2 x=2
Hints and Solutions 2
62 12
1. (d) By Short Trick 4 New rate = ` =` = ` 2.4 per egg
a 5 2
Percentage decrease = 100% 12
100 + a Rate per dozen of eggs = 12 = ` 28.80
5
Here, a = 25
2.5 25 100
So, percentage decrease = 100 = %
100 + 25 125
6 Mixture and Alligation
2. (a) By Short Trick 2
x 100 Mixture When two or more than two substances are
Required percentage =
100 + x mixed in any ratio to produce a product, then the product
Here, x = 12.5% is known as a Mixture.
12.5 100 12.5 100 Alligation The process to produce a product is known
Required percentage = =
100 + 12.5 112.5 as Alligation.
=
100 1
= 11 %
Mean Price The cost price of a unit quantity of the
9 9 mixture is called the Mean price.

87
Alligation Rule 3. There are two containers of equal capacity. The
Let the cost price of a unit of cheaper article is ` c and ratio of milk to water in the first container is 3 :
that of a unit of costly article is ` d and the average 1, in the second container is 5 : 2. If they are
(mean) price of mixture is ` m, then mixed up, then the ratio of milk to water in the
Quantity of cheaper article mixture will be
a. 28 : 41 b. 41 : 28 c. 15 : 41
Quantity of costly article d. 41 : 15 e. 15 : 7
Cost price of a unit of costly article Mean price
= 4. There is 81 L pure milk in a container.
Mean price Cost price of a unit of a cheaper article
One-third of milk is replaced by water in the
The above relation is reprsented as container. Again, one-third of mixture is
CP of cheaper CP of dearer extracted and equal amount of water is added.
(c) (d)
What is the ratio of milk to water in the new
mixture?
Mean price
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 1 c. 2 : 1 d. 4 : 5 e. 3 : 5

(d m) (m c) 5. In what ratio Darjeeling tea costing ` 320 per kg be

Hence, Quantity of cheaper : Quantity of dearer per kg so that there
mixed with Asom tea costing ` 250
dm
is a gain of 20% by selling the mixture at ` 324
= ( d m) : ( m c) = per kg?
m c a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 3 c. 3 : 2 d. 2 : 5 e. 5 : 2
Alligation rule is also used to find the ratio in which two
on more ingredients at their respective price should be 6. A container contains 60 kg of milk. From this
mixed to produce a mixture at a given price. container 6 kg of milk was taken out and
replaced by water. This process was repeated
Short Tricks
1. A mixture contains two liquids in the ratio a : b. If x L of b is added
further two times. The amount of milk left in
to the mixture, and the ratio of liquids becomes a: c , then quantity the container is
bx ax a. 34.24 kg b. 39.64 kg c. 43.74 kg
of liquid a and that of liquid b is given by and ,
c b c b d. 47.60 kg e. 51.17 kg
respectively.
2. A container initially contains x units of a liquid if a unit of liquid is 7. A mixture of 70 L of milk and water contains
taken out and it is filled with a unit of water repeatedly upto n 10% of water. How much water must be added
times, then the final quantity of the original liquid in the container to make the water 20% in the few mixture?
a
n
is given as x 1 units. a. 10 L b. 7 L c. 5 L d. 3 L e. 2 L
x

8. 20 L of a mixture contains 20% alcohol and the
3. A container has milk and water in the ratio a : b, a second
rest water. If 4 L of water be mixed in it, the
container has milk and water in the ratio c : d . If both the mixtures
are emptied into a third container, then the ratio of milk to water in percentage of alcohol in the new mixture, will be
third container is given by 1 2
a. 33 % b. 16 % c. 25%
a c b d 3 3
a + b + c +d : a + b + c +d 1
d. 12 % e. None of these
2
Hints and Solutions
Sample Questions 1. (d) Let the original mixture be x.
The ratio of milk and water is 4 : 3.
1. The respective ratio of milk and water in the Quantity of milk = 4 x and water = 3 x
mixture is 4 : 3 respectively. If 6 L of water is
6 L of water is added and the ratio of milk and water becomes
added to this mixture, the respective ratio of 4x 8
milk and water becomes 8 : 7. What is the = 28 x = 24 x + 48
3x + 6 7
quantity of milk in the original mixture?
28 x 24 x = 48 4 x = 48 x = 12
a. 96 L b. 36 L c. 84 L
Quantity of milk in original mixture = 4 x = 4 12 = 48 L
d. 48 L e. None of these
2. (a) Ratio of pure milk to water = 80 : 18 = 40 : 9
2. 18 L of pure water was added to a vessel
Now, according to the question,
containing 80 L of pure milk. 49 L of the 40 + 2 x 4
resultant mixture was then sold and some more = 40 + 2 x = 36 + 4 x
9+ x 1
quantity of pure milk and pure water was
4 x 2 x = 40 36 2 x = 4 x = 2
added o the vessel in the respective ratio of 2 :
Pure milk added to the mixture = 2 x = 2 2 = 4 L
1. If the resultant respective ratio of milk and
water in the vessel was 4 : 1. What was the 3. (d) By Short Trick 3
quantity of pure milk added in the vessel? 3 3
Part of milk in first container = =
3+ 1 4
a. 4 L b. 8 L c. 10 L
1 1
d. 12 L e. 14 L Part of water in first container = =
3+ 1 4

88
 5 5
Similarly, part of milk in second container = =

2
5+ 2 7
2
7 Partnership
Part of water in second container = =
5+ 2 7 An association of two or more persons who put their
Required ratio of milk to water when these mixture are money together in order to carry on a certain business is
mixed together known as Partnership.
3 5 21 + 20
+ There are two types of partnerships
41 28 41
= 4 7 = 28 = = = 41 : 15
1 2 7+8 28 15 15 Simple Partnership If the capitals of the partners are
+
4 7 28 invested for the same time, the partnership is known as a
4. (d) By Short Trick 2 Simple Partnership.
The container initially contains x unit of liquid, a unit of liquid Compound Partnership If the capitals of the partners
is taken out and it is filled with a unit of water repeatedly upto are invested for different lengths of time, the partnership
n times. is known as a Compound Partnership.
Then, the final quantity of the original liquid in the container is
n
a
given as x 1 units.
x
Sample Questions
n 2
a 27 1. A started a business. After four months from the
Left milk = x 1 = 81 1
x 81 start of the business, B and C joined. The
2 2
1 2 4 respective ratio between the investments of A, B
= 81 1 = 81 = 81 = 36 L
3 3 9 and C was 4 : 6 : 5. If As share in annual profit
and water = 81 36 = 45 L was ` 250 more than Cs share, what was the
Required ratio =
36 4
= = 4:5
total annual profit earned?
45 5 a. ` 3750 b. ` 3910 c. ` 4250
5. (d) By Alligation Rule d. ` 4520 e. ` 4400
320 250
2. A, B and C invested ` 45000, ` 9000 and ` 9000
270 respectively to start a business. At the end of 2
years, they earned a profit of ` 164000. What
270 250 = 20 320 270 = 50 will be B s share in the profit?
Required ratio = 20 : 50 = 2 : 5 a. ` 36000 b. ` 65600 c. ` 56000
6. (c) Given, x = 60 kg, n = 3, a = 6 d. ` 59000 e. ` 72000
By Short Trick 2
n
3. A, B and C started a business by investing
a
Amount of left milk = x 1 ` 20000, ` 28000 and ` 36000 respectively. After
x
3 3
6 months, A and B withdraw an amount of
6 1 ` 8000 each and C invested an additional
= 60 1 = 60 1
60 10 amount of ` 8000. All of them invested for equal
3
9 729 4374 period of time. If at the end total they year, C
= 60 = 60 = = 43 .74 kg
10 1000 100 got ` 12550 as his share of profit, what was the
total profit earned?
7. (c) In a mixture of 40 L.
40 10 a. ` 21440 b. ` 22960 c. ` 24300
Water = = 4L d. ` 25100 e. ` 26600
100
According to the question, 4. A, B and C started a business by investing
If the quantity of water mixed be x L, then
( 40 + x ) 20
` 8400, ` 15600 and ` 13200 respectively. All of
( 4 + x ) = ( 40 + x ) 20% 4+ x= them invested for equal period of time. If As
100
share of annual profit was ` 1960, what was the
5 ( 4 + x ) = 40 + x 20 + 5 x = 40 + x
difference between Bs share of annual profit
4 x = 40 20 = 20
20 and Cs share of annual profit?
x= = 5L a. ` 480 b. ` 520 c. ` 540 d. ` 560 e. ` 600
4
8. (b) Amount of alcohol in 20 L of mixture 5. A starts a business with a capital of ` 1500. B
20 20 joins the business 6 months later from the start
= 20% of 20 L = = 4L
100 of the business and C joins the business 8
Water in the mixture = 20 4 = 16 L months later from the start of the business. At
Now, 4 L of water is further added the end of the year, their respective share in
Amount of water = 16 + 4 = 20 L profit was in ratio of 5 : 3 : 3. What is the sum of
Percentage of alcohol in new mixture amount put in the business by B and C
Amount of alcohol
= 100% together?
Total mixture
a. ` 3300 b. ` 3500 c. ` 4200
4 100 50 2
= 100 = = = 16 % d. ` 4500 e. ` 4800
24 6 3 3

89
 6. A, B and C started a business with their 5. (a) Partner A ` 1500 B` z C`y
investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After four Duration 12 months 6 months 4 months
months, A invested the same amount as before Profit ratio 5 3 3
and B as well as C withdraw half of their
Now, profit ratio of A is in accordance with his investment.
investments. What is the ratio of their profits at 1500 12
the end of the year? 5 x = 1500 2 x = x = 3600
5
a. 4 : 3 : 5 b. 5 : 6 : 10 c. 6 : 5 : 10 3600 3
d. 10 : 5 : 6 e. 5 : 4 : 7 Now, 6 z = 3600 3 z = z = 1800
6
7. A started a business with a capital of ` 100000. 3600 3
Again, 4 y = 3600 3 y = y = 2700
1 year later, B joined him with a capital of 4
` 200000. At the end of 3 years from the start of Now, total amount invested by B and C together
the business, the profit earned was ` 84000. The = z + y = 1800 + 2700 = ` 4500
share of B in the profit exceeded the share of A 6. (b) Ratio of profit
by = Ratio of Investment of A, B and C
a. ` 10000 b. ` 12000 c. ` 14000 = (1 4 + 2 8) : ( 3 4 + 15. 8) : ( 5 4 + 2.5 8)
d. ` 15000 e. ` 17000 = ( 4 + 16) : (12 + 12 ) : (20 + 20) = 20 : 24 : 40 = 5 : 6 : 10
8. In a business partnership among A, B, C and D, 7. (b) Ratio of equivalent capitals of A and B
the profit is shared as follows = 100000 36 : 200000 24 = 36 : 48 = 3 : 4
A' s share B' s share C' s share 1 3
Profit gained by A = 84000 = 36000
= = = 7
B' s share C' s share D' s share 3 4
Profit gained by B = 84000 = 36000
If the total profit is ` 400000, the share of Cs is 7
a. ` 90000 b. ` 112500 c. ` 137500 Required difference = 48000 36000 = ` 12000
d. ` 270000 e. ` 300000
8. (a)Given, A : B = 1: 3
Hints and Solutions B : C = 1: 3 = 3 : 9
1. (a) A B C C : D = 1 : 3 = 9 : 27
Investment 4 x 12 6 x 8 5x 8 Now, by joining the above three ratios, we get
4x 6x 5x A : B : C : D = 1 : 3 : 9 : 27
As ratio of profit earned is directly proportional to the money Sum of the ratio = 1 + 3 + 9 + 27 = 40
invested. 9
Q 5 4 = 250 Cs share in profit = 400000 = ` 90000
40
Total profit earned = 250 15 = ` 3750
2. (b) Ratio of profit of A, B and C
= 45000 : 90000 : 90000 8 Simple Interest
= 45 : 90 : 90 = 1 : 2 : 2
2 2 164000
and Compound Interest
Share of B = 164000 =
1+ 2 + 2 5 Interest When a person or firm borrow money (loan)
= 2 32800 = ` 65600 from bank or any other person then at the time of
3. (d) Ratio of profit = Ratio of investment returning the amount (borrowed money) has to paid with
= (20000 6) + (20000 8000) 6 : (28000 6) some extra money. This extra amount is known as
+ (28000 8000) 6 : ( 36000 6) + ( 3600 + 8000) 6
Interest.
= (120000 + 72000):(168000 + 120000) : (216000 + 264000) Principal The borrowed money (loan) is known as
= 192000 : 288000 : 480000 = 192 : 288 : 480 = 2 : 3 : 5 Principal. It is denoted by P.
Let, the total profit earned be ` x. Time The time period for which borrowed money (loan)
Then, share of C =
5
x
is used, is known as Time and it is denoted by T or t.
2 + 3+ 5 Rate of Interest The rate at which interest is calculated
5 1 on borrowed money, is known as Rate of Interest. It is
12550 = x 12550 = x
10 2 denoted by r or R.
x = 2 12550 x = ` 25100
Simple Interest When interest is calculated on
4. (d) Ratio of profit = 8400 : 15600 : 13200 borrowed money, thus obtained interest is known as
= 84 : 156 : 132 = 7 : 13 : 11 Simple Interest. Simple interest is denoted by SI.
Let, A, B and Cs share 7 x, 13 x and 11x respectively. Principal Rate Time P R T
SI = =
According to the question, 7 x = 1960 100 100
1960
x= = 280 x = 280 Amount The sum of interest and principal is known as
7
Amount.
Bs share = 13 x = 13 280 = ` 3640
Amount = Principal + SI
Cs share = 11x = 11 280 = ` 3080
rt
Required difference = 3640 3080 = ` 560 A = P 1 +
100

90
Compound Interest Interest that accrues on the initial 6. If ` 12000 is divided into two parts such that the
principal and the accumulated interest of a prime debt is simple interest on the first part for 3 years at 12%
called Compound Interest. Compounding of interest allows per annum is equal to the simple interest on the
a principal amount to grow at a faster rate and is calculated 1
second part for 4 years at 16% per annum, the
as a percentage of only the principal amount. 2
Short Tricks greater part is
Pr 2 a. ` 6000 b. ` 6500 c. ` 7500 d. ` 8000 e. ` 8500
1. Difference between CI and SI for 2 years =
(100 )2
7. A man lent ` 60000 partly at 5% and the rest at
Pr 2( 300 + r ) 4% simple interest. If the total annual interest is
2. Difference between CI and SI for 3 years =
(100 )3 ` 2560, the money lent at 4% was
3. When the rate of interest for three consecutive years are r1 %, r2 % a. ` 30000 b. ` 40000 c. ` 42000 d. ` 44000 e. ` 45000
and r3 % respectively, then
r r
A = P 1 + 1 1 + 2 1 + 3
r 8. Simple interest on ` 500 for 4 years at 6.25% per
100 100 100 annum is equal to the simple interest on ` 400 at
5% per annum for a certain period of time. The
period of time is
Sample Questions a. 4 yr b. 5 yr
1
c. 6 yr
2
d. 8 yr e. 7 yr
4 3
1. ` 6100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% Hints and Solutions
per annum compound interest (compounded
1. (c) In both schemes, interest are same.
annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 40 21
10% per annum, simple interest for 4 years. Hence, x = ( 6100 x )
100 100
Both the schemes have equal interests. How 40 x = 6100 21 21x
much was invested in Scheme A? 61x = 6100 21 x = 100 21
a. ` 3750 b. ` 4500 c. ` 4000 d. ` 3250 e. ` 5000 x = ` 2100
2. A sum of money was invested for 14 years in Money invested in Scheme A = 6100 2100 = ` 4000
Scheme A which offers simple interest at a rate 2. (e) Let the Principal invested in Scheme A
of 8% per annum. The amount received from P R T
SI =
Scheme A after 14 years was then invested for 2 100
P 14 8
years in Scheme B which offers compound SI =
100
interest (compounded annually) at a rate of 112 P
10% per annum. If the interest received from SI =
100
Scheme B was ` 6678, what was the sum 112 P 212
invested in Scheme A? A = P + I= P + = P
100 100
a. ` 15500 b. ` 14500 c. ` 16000 On compound interest in Scheme B
d. ` 12500 e. ` 15000 2 2
121P 10 212 P 110
A= 1 + =
3. Vikram invested ` 2 lakh at a simple interest 100 100 100 100
rate of 12% per annum for one year. He then 212 P 121 25652 P
= =
added ` 500 to total amount accumulated at the 100 100 10000
end of one year and earned simple interest at Interest received from Scheme B
the rate of 13% per annum. How much amount 25652 P 212 P 25652 P 21200 P 4452 P
= = =
he would have earned as a simple as interest at 10000 100 10000 10000
the end of the second year? 4452 P
But given, = 6678
a. ` 26065 b. ` 26940 c. ` 26445 10000
d. ` 29185 e. ` 29595 6678 10000
P= = ` 15000
4452
4. The simple interest obtained when a sum of
money is invested for 4 years at 18% per annum 3. (d) Given, P = ` 200000
is ` 427 more than the simple interest obtained Rate ( r ) = 12% per annum
if the same sum of money is invested for 2 years t = 1 year
at 22% per annum. What is the amount P R T 200000 12 1
SI = = = ` 24000
obtained when the same sum of money is 100 100
invested for 4 years at 18% per annum? Total amount = 20000 + 24000 = ` 224000
a. ` 2130 b. ` 2623 c. ` 1096 When ` 500 added then total amount
d. ` 1854 e. ` 2475 = 224000 + 500 = ` 224500
5. The simple interest on ` 7300 from May 11, 2012 Now, P = ` 224500
to September 10, 2012 (both days included) at r = 13%
t = 1 year
5% per annum is
224500 13 1
a. ` 103 b. ` 123 c. ` 200 d. ` 223 e. ` 240 SI = = ` 29185
100

91
 4. (b) Let the sum of money invested be P. Then,
P 18 4 P 22 2
Sample Questions
= 427
100 100
42700 1. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days
72 P 44P = 42700 P = = ` 1525 and 15 women can complete the same piece of
28
Therefore, amount obtained by the sum in 4 yr at 18% per
work in 24 days. What is the respective ratio
Prt 1525 18 4 between the amount of work done by 30 men
annum = P + = 1525 +
100 100 in 1 day and the amount of work done by 18
= 1525 + 1098 = ` 2623 women in 1 day?
5. (b) Time from May 11 to September 10, 2012 a. 4 : 7 b. 10 : 7 c. 3 : 5
d. 2 : 6 e. None of these
= 21 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 10 = 123 days
123 2. 16 men can finish a piece of work in 49 days.
Time = years
365 14 men started working and in 18 days they
P R T 7300 5 123 could finish certain amount of work. If it is
SI = = = ` 123
100 100 365 required to finish the remaining work in 24
6. (d) Let the larger part of the sum = ` x days, how many more men should be added to
the existing workforce?
Smaller part = ` (12000 x )
a. 21 b. 28 c. 16 d. 18 e. 14
x 3 12 (12000 x ) 9 16
=
According to the question,
100 2 100 3. 12 men can finish a project in 20 days. 18
x 3 12 = (12000 x ) 9 8 women can finish the same project in 16 days
x 12 = (12000 x ) 3 8
and 24 children can finish it in 18 days.
8 women and 16 children worked for 9 days
x = 2 (12000 x )
and then left. In how many days will 10 men
x = 24000 2 x x + 2 x = 24000
complete the remaining project?
3 x = 24000 x = ` 8000 1
a. 10 days b. 10 days c. 9 days
7. (d) Let the amount lent at 4% be `x. 2
Amount lent at 5% = ` ( 60000 x ) 1 1
d. 11 days e. 9 days
According to the question, 2 2
( 60000 x ) 5 1 x 4 1
+ = 2560 4. 18 men can complete a piece of work in 24 days
100 100 and 12 women can complete the same piece of
300000 5 x + 4 x = 256000 work in 32 days. 18 men start working and after
x = 300000 256000 x = ` 44000 few days, 4 men leave the job and 8 women join.
15
8. (c) Let the period of time be T yr. If the remaining work is completed in 15 days,
According to the question, 23
400 5 T 500 4 6 .25 after how many days did the four men?
=
100 100 a. 8 days b. 5 days c. 6 days
d. 4 days e. 2 days
4 5 T = 5 4 6 .25
T = 6.25 T = 6
1
yr
5. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days.
4 2 days after the 24 men started working, 4 men
left the work. How many more days will the
remaining men now take to complete the
9 Time and Work remaining work?
3 4 2
a. 15 days b. 16 days c. 11 days
In our daily life, we have to complete different kinds of 5 5 5
work in different stipulated time and it we are not able to 4 1
d. 10 days e. 14 days
complete the work in definite time, we arrange some 5 5
more persons for it. Also, the work ability of different 6. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours, B and C can
persons are different. do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in 2
Basic Rules hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
1. If time taken by a person to complete a work in x days then the
a. 8 h b. 10 h c. 12 h d. 20 h e. 24 h
work done in 1 day is .
1 7. If 28 men complete 7/8 of a piece of work in a
x week, then the number of men, who must be
1 engaged to the remaining work completed in
2. If a person can do part in one day then he completes that
x another week, is
work in x days.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7
3. If the number of persons increased by any number, then the
assumed time is reduced. 8. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B in 15
4. If M1 persons can do W1 work in D1 days working H1 house and days. They work together for 5 days and then B
M 2 persons can do W 2 work in D2 days working H2 hours. left. The days taken by A to finish the remaining
M1 D1 H1 M 2 D2 H2 work, are
Then, =
W1 W2 a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 e. 12

92
 7
Hints and Solution 7. (b) Given, D1 = 7, M1 = 28, W1 =
8
1. (b) Q 28 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days. 1
D2 = 7 , M 2 = x, W 2 =
1 man can complete it in = 28 15 days. 8
28 15
30 men can complete it in = = 14 days. According to the question,
30 M1 D1 M 2 D2
=
1 W1 W2
1 men 1 day work =
4 28 7 x7
Again, = 28 = 7 x
7 1
Q15 women can complete the same piece of work in 24 days. 8 8
1 woman can complete it in 24 15 days. 28
24 15 x= =4 x=4
18 women can complete it in = 20 days 7
18 Hence, 4 men must be engaged.
1
1 woman 1 day work = 1
20 8. (a) 1 days work of A =
12
1 1
Required ratio = : = 20 : 14 = 10 : 7 1 days work of B =
1
14 20 15
2. (e) Total work = 16 49 = 784 unit 1 1 5+ 4 9 3
1 days work of A and C = + = = =
Remaining work = 784 14 8 = 672 unit 12 15 60 60 20
15
Let x men should be added to finish the remaining work in 24 5 days work of A and B =
days (14 + x ) 24 = 672 20
15 5 1
14 + x =
672 Remaining work = 1 = =
24 20 20 4
1 1
14 + x = 28 Time taken by A to complete work = 12 = 3 days
4 4
x = 14
3. (b) 12 M 20 = 18 W 16 = 24 C 18
5 M : 6 W : 96 10 Speed, Time and Distance
Work done by 8 women and 16 children = ( 8 W + 16 C ) 9
5 5M 40 M 80 M Speed is defined as distance covered by an object in a
= 8 M + 16 9= + 9 unit time interval. It is obtained by dividing the distance
6 9 6 9
covered by the object, by the time it takes to cover that
Remaining work = 12 M 20 140 M
distance. Units of speed are km/h, m/s, miles/h etc.
= 240 M 140 M = 100 M
Distance
10 men will complete the work in
100
days = 10 days Thus, Speed =
10 Time
4. (a) Here, 18 men can do a piece of work in 24 days = 12 Distance = Speed Time
Distance
women can do a piece of work in 32 days. Time =
18 M 24 = 12 W 32 1.5 = W 4 Speed
4.5 2 = W 4 9 men = 8 women Boats and Streams are also based on speed, time and
W1 W1 W1 W1
Now, = or, = distance.
360 18 x 360 18 x
(14 + 9) Still Water It implies that the speed of water in the river
23
is zero.
x = 20
Now, total time taken by 18 men to complete the works in 24 Stream It implies that the water of the river is moving.
days. Hence, 4 men leaves the job after 24 20 = 4 days. Important Formulae
5. (a)
Work
=
Remaining work (i) Speed of boat in downstream = x + y
man days men days (ii) Speed of boat in upstream = x y
W W If speed of a boat in downstream is u km/h and speed of
=
24 13 20 D that boat in upstream is v km/h
20 D = 24 13 1
(a) Speed of boat in still water = (u + v ) km/h
24 13 78 3
D= = = 15 days 2
20 5 5 1
(b) Speed of stream = (u v ) km/h
1 2
6. (c) Given, As 1 hour work =
4 Short Tricks
1
(B + C)s 1 hour work = 1. A person goes certain distance (A to B) at a speed of x km/h and
3 returns back (B to A) at a speed of y km/h. The average speed
1 2 xy
(A + C)s 1 hour work = during the whole journey = km/h
2 x+y
1 1 1
Cs 1 hour work = = 2. If speed of boat in still water is x km/h and speed of stream is
2 4 4 y km/h, then to go and come back a distance of d km between
1 1 1 d d
and Bs 1 hour work = = two fixed points, the total time taken = + hours.
3 4 12 x + y x y
Hence, B alone can do the work in 12 hours.

93
 2. (e) Distance (d) = 30 km
Sample Questions
Speed ( v ) = 36 km/h
d
1. A person has to travel from point A to point B in Then, v =
t
certain time. Travelling at a speed of 5 km/h, he d 30
reaches 48 min late and while travelling at a time (t ) = =
v 36
speed of 8 km/h, he reaches 15 min early. What is 5
the distance from point A to B? t = h
6
a. 15 km b. 9 km c. 12 km d. 18 km e. 14 km If speed = 42 km/h
2. A scooter covers a distance of 30 km travelling at Then, distance cover by the scooter in the same time
an average speed of 36 km/h. What distance can 5
= 42 = 5 7 = 35 km
the scooter travel in the same time if it increase its 6
speed its 42 km/h? 3. (b) Let the speed of the boat is still water and speed of the
a. 45 km b. 32 km c. 38 km d. 40 km e. 35 km stream are 7 x km/h and x km/h respectively.
42 km
3. A boat can travel 4.2 km upstream in 14 min. If Speed in upstream = 7 x x =
14 min
the respective ratio of speed of the boat in still 42
water and speed of the stream is 7 : 1. How much 6x = 60 6 x = 18
14
time will the boat take to cover 17.6 km
x=3
downstream?
Speed of the boat in still water = 7 x = 7 3 = 21 km/h
a. 52 min b. 44 min c. 48 min
d. 36 min e. 54 min Speed of the stream = 3 km/h
Time taken by boat to cover 17.6 km
4. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the 17.6 17.6 17.6
downstream = h= h= 60 min = 44 min
stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current (21 + 3) 24 24
in 10 min. How long will it take to go 5 km in
4. (b) Upstream speed = 2 km/h
stationary water?
a. 80 min b. 75 min c. 70 min Downstream speed = 6 km/h
d. 72 min e. 84 min 2+6
Speed in still water = = 4 km/h
2
5. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a Time required to go 5 km in still water
straight line. One train starts from A at 7 am and 5
travels towards B at 20 km/h. Another train starts = h = 1 h 15 min = 75 min
4
from B at 8 am and travels towards A at a speed of
5. (d) Distance (d) between station A and B = 110 km
25 km/h. At what time will they meet?
a. 9 am b. 11 am c. 11 : 30 am Speed of train starting (s1) from station A = 20 km/h
d. 10 am e. 12 : 30 pm Speed of train starting ( s 2 ) from station B = 25 km/h
The difference (t ) = 1 h
6. Train A, whose length is 328 m, cross a 354 m long
Time taken from A to meet the trains
platform in 11 seconds. Train B can cross the same
d + s 2T 110 + 25
platform in 12 seconds. If the speed of Train B is = 1 = =3h
7/8th of the speed of Train A, what is the length of s1 + s 2 20 + 25
Train B? So, time = 10 am
a. 321 m b. 303 m c. 297 m d. 273 m e. 309 m 328 + 354 682
6. (c) Speed of Train A = = = 62 m/s
11 11
7. A motorist travels to a place 150 km away at an 7 31 217
average speed of 50 km/h and returns at 30 km/h. Speed of train B = 62 = 7 = m/s
8 4 4
His average speed for the whole journey is Let the length of Train B be I, then
a. 37.5 km/h b. 37 km/h c. 40 km/h 217
d. 35 km/h e. 34 km/h ( I + 354) = 12
4
8. A certain distance is covered by a vehicle at a l + 354 = 651 l = 297 m
certain speed. If half of this distance is covered by 7. (a) Here, x = 50 km/h and y = 30 km/h
another vehicle in double the time, then ratio of 2 xy
the speeds of the two vehicles is Average speed = km/h (By short trick 1)
x+ y
a. 1 : 4 b. 4 : 1 c. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1 e. 3 : 5 2 50 30 2 50 30
= =
Hints and Solutions 50 + 30 80
300
1. (e) Let the total distance be x km. = = 37.5 km/h
Then, difference in time = 63 min. 8
x x 63 8 x 5 x 63 8. (b) Let the initial distance covered be x km and initial time
= =
5 8 60 40 60 taken = y hours
63 42 x
3x = 40 x = = 14 km Then, initial speed = km/h
60 3 y

94
 Now, new distance =
x
km 7. The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio
2 of 25 : 64 respectively. If the radius of the latter
New time taken = 2 y h is 16 m then what is the radius of the former?
x
a. 14 m b. 10 m c. 6 m d. 18 m e. 8 m
x
Then, new speed = 2 = km/h
2 y 4y 8. Each side of an equilateral triangle is 4 3 cm. Its
x perimeter is equal to
y 4 a. 12 3 cm b. 6 cm c. 8 cm
Required ratio = = = 4:1
x 1 d. 10 cm e. 12 cm
4y
Hints and Solutions
1. (c) Length of courtyard = 25 m
25 100 = 2500 cm
11 Area and Perimeter Breadth of courtyard = 16 m
16 100 = 1600 cm
Area Total space inside the boundary of a plane figure is Area of courtyard = 2500 1600
called the Area of that particular figure. Dimensions of bricks = 20 10 cm
Perimeter Perimeter is that length of border around any Number of bricks required =
Area of courtyard
enclosed plane. Therefore, sum of the sides of a plane Dimension of brick
figure is the perimeter of that particular figure. 2500 1600
25 800 20000
20 10
Sample Questions 2. (b) Given, area of square = 3136 cm2
We know that area of square = a 2
1. A courtyard is 25 m long and 16 m broad is to be 3136 = a 2 a = 56 cm
paved with bricks of dimensions 20 10 cm. Where a is the side of a square.
What is the total number of bricks required? Now, according to the question,
a. 16000 b. 18000 c. 20000 diameter of circle = Perimeter of square
d. 22000 e. 25000 2 r = 4a r = 2 a
r = 2 56 = 112 r = 112 cm
2. The diameter of a circle is equal to the
Circumference of circle = 2 r
perimeter of a square whose area is 3136 cm 2 . 22
What is the circumference of the circle? =2 112 = 2 22 16 = 704 cm
7
a. 352 cm b. 704 cm c. 39424 cm
d. 1024 cm e. Other than those given as options 3. (c) Height of a triangle h1 = 15 cm
Base ( b1 ) = 12 cm
3. The base of a triangle is 15 cm and height is 12 Base of another triangle b 2 = 20 cm
cm. The height of another triangle of double the According to question,
area having base 20 cm is 1 1
2 b1 h1 = b 2 h2
a. 22 cm b. 20 cm c. 18 cm 2 2
d. 10 cm e. 19 cm 1 1
2 12 15 = h2 20
4. If one-fourth of the area rectangular plot is 2700 2 2
sq m and the width of the plot is 90 m, what is 12 15 2 36
h2 = =
the ratio between the width and length of the 20 2
plot? h2 = 18 cm
a. 3 : 4 b. 4 : 3 c. 3 : 1 d. 1 : 3 e. 4 : 1 4. (a) Let the area of the rectangular plot = x sq m
1
5. The length of a rectangle is 4 m more than the Given, th of the area = 2700 sq m
4
side of a square and the breadth of the x
= 2700
rectangle is 4 m less than side of the same 4
square. What is the area of the square is 567 sq x = 10800 sq m
m, what is the area of the rectangle? Width = 90 m
a. 549 sq m b. 545 sq m c. 557 sq m Length Width = 10800
d. 560 sq m e. 551 sq m Length 90 = 10800
Length = 120 m
6. A rectangular plot has a concrete path running Width 90 3
in the middle of the plot parallel to the breadth Required ratio = = = = 3:4
Length 120 4
of the plot. The rest of the plot is used as a
lawn, which has an area of 240 sq m if the width 5. (d) Let the side of square = ( x) m
of the path is 3 m and the length of the plot is Length of rectangle = ( x + 4) m
greater than its breadth by 2 m, what is the area Breadth of rectangle = ( x 4) m
of the rectangular plot? Area of square = 576 sq m
a. 255 sq m b. 168 sq m c. 288 sq m Side of square = 576
d. 360 sq m e. 224 sq m x = 24 m

95
 Length of rectangle = 24 + 4 = 28 m 6. The length of longest pole that can be placed in
Breadth of rectangle = 24 4 = 20 cm a 12 m long, 8 m broad and 9 m high room, is
So, area of the rectangle = l b = 28 20 = 560 sq m
a. 12 m b. 17 m c. 19 m d. 21 m e. 25 m
6. (c) Given, width of path = 3 m
Area of path = 240 m2
7. The total surface area of a sphere is 8 square
unit. The volume of the sphere is
Let, breadth of rectangular plot x = m
8 8 3
and length of rectangular plot = ( x + 2 ) m a. cu unit b. 8 3 cu unit c. cu unit
3 5
Area of path = 2 3 [( x + 2 ) + x 2 3]
8 2
6 (2 x + 2 6) = 240 d. cu unit e. None of these
3
6 (2 x 4) = 240 2 x 4 = 40
2 x = 44 x = 22 m 8. The height of a solid right circular cylinder is 6
So, breadth of rectangular plot = 22 m m and three times the sum of the areas of its
and length of rectangular plot = 22 + 2 = 24 two end faces is twice the area of its curved
Area of rectangular plot = Length Breadth surface. The radius of its base is
= 24 22 = 528 sq m
a. 2 m b. 4 m c. 6 m d. 8 m e. 10 m
Now, required area = 528 240 = 288 sq m
7. (b) Let the radius of the former be r. Hints and Solutions
r 2 25 5 1. (c) Lateral surface area of cylinder = 94.2 cm2
Then, = r = 16 = 10 = 10 m
.16 2 64 8 Height = 5 cm, Radius = ?
We know lateral surface area of cylinder = 2 r h
8. (a) Here, a = 4 3 cm
94 .2 = 2 314
. r5
We know that, or, 94 .2 = 31. 4 r or, r = 3 cm
Perimeter of an equal triangle = 3a = 3 4 3 = 12 3 cm
2. (e) Height of cone, h = 14 cm
Radius or cone, r = 7 cm
12 Volume and Surface Area Slant height, l = h2 + r 2
= 14 2 + 7 2 = 196 + 49 = 245 15.65
Volume Space occupied by an object is called Volume
So, total surface area of cone
of that particular object. It is always measured in cube 22
unit. = r( l + r ) = 7 (15. 65 + 7 ) 499
7
Surface Area Surface area of a solid body is the area of 3. (b) Given that,
all its surfaces together. Surface area is measured in Slant height of wooden cone, l = 12 cm
square unit. Curved surface area = 226 . 08 cm2
Now, we know that curved surface area = r l
Sample Questions 226 . 08 = 3 .14 r 12
226 .08
r= = 6 r = 6 cm
1. If the lateral surface of a cylinder is 94.2 cm 2 3 .14 12
and its height is 5 cm, then find radius of its Radius of base ( r ) = 6 cm
base. [Use = 3.14] 4. (d) Let the side of the cube be a cm.
a. 5 cm b. 7 cm c. 3 cm d. 9 cm e. 4 cm Total surface area = 96
6 a 2 = 96 a 2 = 16 a = 4
2. What is the approximate total surface area of a
right cirular cone of height 14 cm and base Volume of cube = a 3 = ( 4)3 = 64 cm3
radius 7 cm? Volume of air in the room
5. (b) Floor area of the room =
a. 510 b. 511 c. 490 d. 505 e. 499 Height of room
204
3. Curved surface area of a wooden cone of slant = = 34 m2
6
height 12 cm is 226.08 cm 2 . The base radius of 6. (b) Length of the longest pole
the cone is (use = 3.14)
= l 2 + b 2 + h2 = (12 )2 + ( 8)2 + ( 9)2
a. 3 cm b. 6 cm c. 8 cm
d. 10 cm e. 12 cm = 144 + 64 + 81 = 289 = 17 m
Length of longest pole is 17 m.
4. If the total surface area of a cube is 96 cm its 2
7. (d) Total surface area of sphere = 8
volume is
3 3 3 4 r2 = 8 r2 = 2 r = 2 unit
a. 16 cm b. 36 cm c. 56 cm
4 4 8 2
d. 64 cm3 e. 70 cm3 Volume of sphere = r 3 = ( 2 )3 = cu unit
3 3 3
5. The volume of air in a room is 204 m 3 . The 8. (b) Let, the radius of the base be r metre.
height of the room is 6 m. What is the floor area According to the question,
of the room? 3 (sum of area of two end faces) = 2 curved surface area
a. 32 m2 b. 34 m2 c. 44 m2 3 2 r 2 = 2 2 r h 3r = 2 h
d. 46 m2 e. 50 m2 3r = 2 6 r = 2 2 r = 4m

96
 13 Probability 14 Data Interpretation
Sample Space A sample space of an experiment is the
Data Interpretation (DI) can be defined as application of
set of all possible outcomes of that experiment. It is
statistical procedures to analyse specific facts from a
denoted by S.
study or body of research.
Probability The probability is defined as the chance of
Data Data is a term used to refer to the row numbers.
happening or not happening of an event.
Generally, in DI, questions are asked in exams on the
Number of favourable outcomes
Probability of an event = following topics :
Total number of outcomes 1. Table chart 2. Pie-chart 3. Bar-chart
n( S )
P= 4. Line graph 5. Mixed graph
n( E )
Sample Questions
Sample Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the table and answer the
given questions.
1. A bag contains 2 red, 5 yellow and 7 pink balls. If
one ball is drawn at random from the bag, what is Data Related to Number of Candidates Appeared
the probability that it is other pink or red? and Qualified in a Competitive Exam from Two
a. 1/7 b. 2/3 c. 4/9 States During Five Years
d. 5/7 e. Other than those given as options
State P State Q
2. In a lottery, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three Percentage
Percentage of
students are selected at random. What is the Year Number of of Appeared Number of
Appeared
Appeared Candidates Appeared
probability that 1 girl and 2 boys are selected? Candidates who Candidates
Candidates who
31 21 22 31 21 Qualified
a. b. c. d. e. Qualified
47 46 47 46 47 2006 450 60% 30%
2007 600 43% 45%
3. Out of two dozens night bulbs, five get fused. If 2008 60% 280 60%
two bulbs are chosen at random, what is the 2009 480 70% 550 50%
probability that both the bulbs are not fused? 2010 380 400
1 57 18 19 17
a. b. c. d. e.
5 92 23 24 63 Note Few values are missing in the table (indicated
by). A candidate is expected to calculate the missing
4. A coin is tossed thrice. The probability that value, if it is required to answer the given questions on
exactly two heads show up is the basis of given data and information.
1 2 3 4 5
a. b. c. d. e.
8 8 8 8 8 1. Out of the number to qualified candidates from
State P in 2008, the respective ratio of male and
5. Two die are thrown simultaneously. The female candidates is 11 : 7. If the number of
probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is female qualified candidates from State P in 2008
a. 2/3 b. 1/9 c. 1/36 is 126, what is the number of appeared
d. 5/7 e. None of these
candidates (both male and female) from State P
Hints and Solutions in 2008?
1. (b) Total number of balls = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 a. 630 b. 510 c. 570 d. 690 e. 540
3 + 7 10 2 2. Number of appeared candidates from State Q
P (either pink or red) = = =
15 15 3 increased by 100% from 2006 to 2007. IF the total
15
C 2 10 C1 number of qualified candidiates from State Q in
2. (b) Required probability = 25 2006 and 2007 together is 408, what is the number
C3
of appeared candidates from State Q in 2006?
10 15 7 21
= = a. 380 b. 360 c. 340 d. 320 e. 300
25 4 23 46
19
C2 19 18 57 3. What is the difference between number of
3. (b) Required probability = = = qualified candidates from State P in 2006 and
24
C2 24 23 92
that in 2007?
5. (b) Total number of outcomes = n( s ) = 62 = 36 a. 12 b. 22 c. 14 d. 24 e. 16
and event of getting a total score of 5 4. If the average number of qualified candidates
= {(14
, ) (2, 3) ( 3, 2 ) ( 4, 1)} from State Q in 2008, 2009 and 2010 is 210, what
favourable outcomes = n( E ) = 4 is the number of qualified candidates from State
Required probability =
n( E )
=
4
=
1 Q in 2010?
n(S ) 36 9 a. 191 b. 195 c. 183 d. 187 e. 179

97
 5. If the respective ratio between number of
3x
+
9x
= 408 12 x = 4080
qualified candidates from State P in 2009 and 10 10
2010 is 14 : 9, what is the number of qualified x = 340
60 43
candidates from State P in 2010? 3. (a) Required difference = 450 600
100 100
a. 252 b. 207 c. 216 d. 234 e. 198
= 270 258 = 12
Directions (Q.Nos. 6-10) Refer to the pie-charts carefully 4. (d) Total number of qualified candidates from State Q in 2008,
and answer the given question 2009 and 2010 = 3 210 = 630
Distribution of Number of Now, number of qualified candidates in 2008 and 2009
Distribution of Number
Cellular Phones (both Nokia 60 50
and Samsung) Sold by 5
of Nokia Phones Sold = 280 + 550
by 5 Stroes 100 100
tores in 2012
E = 168 + 275 = 443
E
12% A 8% A Qualified candidates in 2010 = 630 443 = 187
19% 24%
D 5. (c) Respective ratio of qualified candidates from State P in
D B 30% 2009 and 2010 = 14 : 9
B
33%
C 21% C 18% Total number of qualified candidates from P in 2009
15% 20% 70
= 480 = 336
Total Number : 6400 Total Number : 6400 100
Q Ratio of qualified candidates in State P in 2009 and
6. Number of cellular phones (both Nokia and 2010 = 14 : 9
Samsung) sold by store B is what percent more Qualified candidates in 2009
than the number of Nokia cellular phones sold 9
= 336 = 24 9 = 216
by store A? 14
1 2 2 6. (b) Number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold
a. 82 % b. 86 % c. 84 %
3 3 3 by store B = 21% of 6400
2 1 = 21 64 = 1344
d. 92 % e. 78 %
3 3 Number of Nokia cellular phones and by Store A
7. What is the central angle corresponding to = 24% of 3000 = 24 30 = 720
number of cellular phones (both Nokia and 1344 720
Required percentage = 100
Samsung) sold by store D? 720
624 2
a. 124.2 b. 112 . 4 c. 115.2 = 100 = 86 %
d. 120. 8 e. 118. 8 720 3
7. (e) Central angle corresponding to number of cellular phones
8. What is the average number of Samsung (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store D
cellular phones sold by stores B, C and D? 33 11880
= 360 = = 118 . 8
a. 796 b. 792 c. 780 d. 812 e. 784 100 100
9. What is the difference between number of 8. (b) Number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold
cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by stores, B, C and D
by store A and total number of Nokia and = (21% + 15% + 33%) of 6400
celluar phones sold by stores B and E together? = 69 64 = 4416
a. 442 b. 436 c. 432 d. 428 e. 426 Number of Nokia cellular phones sold by stores B, C and D
= (18% + 20% + 30%) of 3000
10. Number of Samsung celluar phones sold by = 68% of 3000
store E is what percent of the number of phones
= 68 30 = 2040
(both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store C?
Number of Samsung cellular phones sold by stores B, C and D
a. 55% b. 45% c. 60% d. 65% e. 50%
= 4416 2040 = 2376
Hints and Solutions 2376
Required average = = 792
1. (e) From State P, 3
Ratio of male of female = 11 : 7 9. (b) Number of cellular phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold
Number of female qualified candidates = 126 by store A
126
Q 7 126 18 18 = 324 = 19% of 640 = 19 64 = 1216
7
Number of Nokia cellular phones and by stores B and C
Now, this is only 60% of total number of candidates
together = (18 + 8)% of 3000 = 26 30 = 780
appeared.
324 Required difference = 1216 780 = 436
100% 100 = 540
60 10. (a) Number of Samsung cellular phones sold by store E
2. (c) Let total number of appeared candidates in 2006 = x = 64 12 30 8 = 768 240 = 528
Then, total number of appeared candidates in 2007 = 2 x Number of phones (both Nokia and Samsung) sold by store C
x 30% + 2 x 45% = 408 = 15% of 6400 = 15 64 = 960
30 45 528
x + 2 x = 408 Required percentage = 100 = 55%
100 100 960

98
 ONLINE EXAM
in December 2015

CRACK SET V
IBPS CWE-V
General Instructions
(i) This crack set consists of 100 questions in three parts.
(ii) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
(iii) Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Questions
Part Subject Number of Questions
from to
I English Language 30 1 30
II Quantitative Aptitude 35 31 65
III Reasoning Ability 35 66 100

Part I English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases (a), (b), 5. The passage was so difficult that I could not
(c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the comprehend it in the first reading.
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it a. as difficult that b. so difficult as
grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is c. as difficult as d. very difficult that
given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the e. No correction required
answer. Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Read each sentence to find
1. Good leaders are always attentive towards his out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it.
subordinates needs. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark
the part with error as your answer. If there is no error,
a. A good leader is b. Good leaders is
c. Some good leader are d. All good leaders are mark (e).
e. No correction required
6. The manager has not (a)/ yet replied to the (b)/
2. Besides his wife, his children and other customer letter asking (c)/ about her loan
relatives also attends the function. application. (d) No error (e)
a. too attends b. also attending
c. also attended d. too attending
7. While the formation of RBI (a)/ was approved
e. No correction required in March, 1934 (b)/ it was inaugurated (c)/ only
in April 1, 1935. (d) No error (e)
3. Earning lots of money is one of the desires
which are never satisfied. 8. The Insurance Regulatory Development
a. which are never satisfy
Authority has (a)/ asked all insurance (b)/
b. who are never satisfied companies submitting their (c)/ balance sheets
c. who is never satisfies by June. (d) No error (e)
d. which is never satisfied
e. No correction required 9. Aruns father has been ill (a)/ since last year
and Arun (b)/ has spend his entire (c)/ savings
4. If you would have taken the medicine, you on his treatment. (d) No error (e)
could have gone to school today.
a. If you would take b. Had you taken 10. There are a large number (a)/ of Chinese
c. If you would be taking d. If you been taking workers which (b)/ are employed by (c)/
e. No correction required software companies in India. (d) No error (e)

99
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each questions below, a 20. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. sentence after rearrangement?
These are numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the following passage
word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
number of that word is your answer. If all the bold words numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five
are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
sentence, mark (e) i.e., All correct as your answer. appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
King Vikramaditya was (21) for his justice and
11. RBI is unwilling (a)/to enforce (b)/these kindness. In his kingdom, everyone was leading a
regulations as these will discourage (c)/ happy and content life. His people loved him and were
investment (d). All correct (e) proud of him. Once, Vikramaditya decided to build a
12. Many Indian firms have entry (a)/ into palace on a riverbank. He (22) his ministers to survey
partnership (b)/ with foreign (c)/ ones of late the site and start the (23). Many labourers were put to
(d). All correct (e) work and in a few days the palace was (24). Before
inviting the King to see the palace, the minister
13. This is a prime (a)/ example (b)/ of what the decided to take a final look. Splendid ! the minister
government can achieve (c)/if it is determine exclaimed, looking at the palace. Then suddenly his
(d). All correct (e) eyes fell on something and he shouted, What is that ?
14. They managed (a)/ to accomplice (b)/ this by I did not see that before. All the labourers and the
coming (c)/ up with unique schemes (d). All soldiers turned around. There was a hut just a few
correct (e) steps away from the palace gate. What is this hut
doing here? shouted the minister and added, And
15. In such circumstanses (a)/ do not take who does it belong to?
unnecessary (b)/ risks (c)/ with your savings Sir, it belongs to an old woman. She has been living here
(d). All correct (e) for a long time, replied a solider. The minister walked up
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the following six to the hut and spoke to the old lady. I want buy your hut.
sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to You can ask for as much money as you want, he said. I
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions am sorry, Sir. I cant accept your offer. My hut is (25) to
given below them. me than my life. I have lived in it with my late husband
and I want to die in it, the old lady said. The minister tried
A. The woodcutter thankfully broke off from work
to tell her that her hut would (26) the charm of the newly
and sat down to eat the delicious meal that his
constructed palace. But the old lady was strong (27) her
wife had sent for him.
stance and she was ready to face any consequence and
B. He was in a good mood that particular morning any punishment. She refused to sell her hut to the King.
and soon started singing as he swung his axe at The matter was then taken to the King. The wise and
the log of wood in front of him. generous King thought for a while, and then said, Let the
C. After he had eaten his meal and taken rest for a old lady have her hut where it is. It will only (28) to the
while, the woodcutter got back to work. beauty of the new palace. Then (29) the minister, the
D. The hours passed and the Sun became hotter King said, Let us not forget that what seems ugly to us
than ever and very soon perespiration started may be (30) to someone else.
breaking out on the woodcutters hands and face.
21. a. seen b. respect c. smart d. called e. known
E. One hot summers morning a woodcutter was
hard at work, chopping wood into small pieces, 22. a. ordered b. indicated c. hinted
so that he could sell them in the market. d. pleaded e. forced
F. As it neared afternoon, his wife sent their little
son to him with food for the afternoon. 23. a. build b. works c. creation
d. construction e. palace
16. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement? 24. a. stand b. seen c. noticed d. done e. ready
a. F b. E c. D d. C e. B 25. a. more b. dearer c. important
17. Which of the following should be the FIRST d. near e. built
sentence after rearrangement? 26. a. stop b. spoil c. bring d. add e. obstruct
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
18. Which of the following should be the SECOND 27. a. for b. by c. on d. to e. till
sentence after rearrangement? 28. a. multiply b. subtract c. add
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. F d. increase e. help
19. Which of the following should be the last 29. a. hiding b. smiling c. turning d. peeping e. staring
SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrarngement?
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 30. a. good b. nice c. uglier d. precious e. happy

100
 Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) In the following number 44. 0. 02 + 0. 0049 = ?
series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
a. 0.3 b. 0.003 c. 3
number. d. 0.03 e. None of these
31. 14, 13, 22, 55, 212, 1035 45. 15 56 64 100 54 = ?
a. 55 b. 13 c. 212
d. 22 e. 14
18 8 4 60 14
a. 500 b. 400 c. 600
32. 217, 224, 213, 226, 210, 228 d. 800 e. None of these
a. 213 b. 226 c. 210
d. 228 e. 217 46. 1
=?
0. 004
33. 153, 495, 712, 837, 901, 928 a. 40 b. 250 c. 25.00
a. 712 b. 837 c. 901 d. 2.50 e. None of these
d. 928 e. 495
47. Deepak can do a piece of work in 25 days and
34. 11, 42, 214, 1045, 4148, 12417 Ashok can do the same work in 40 days. They
a. 42 b. 214 c. 1045 work together for 5 days and then Deepak goes
d. 4148 e. 11
away. In how many days will Ashok finish the
35. 488, 245, 124, 64, 35, 20.25 remaining work?
a. 124 b. 64 c. 245 a. 28 b. 24 c. 25
d. 35 e. 488 d. 20 e. 27

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) What approximate value will 48. In an examination 36% of the total students
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following failed in Hindi, 30% failed in Maths and 20% in
questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact both. What percent of total students passed in
value.) both the subjects?
a. 54% b. 50% c. 36%
36. 10 3 100 3 + 999999999 = 10 ? + 10 ? d. 60% e. None of these
a. 6, 9 b. 9, 9 c. 6, 12
d. 16, 9 e. 6, 18 49. 20 L of a mixture of alcohol and water contains
10% alcohol. If 2 L of water be mixed in it, the
37. 134% of 3894 + 38. 94% of 134 = ? percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be
a. 5000 b. 5300 c. 5500 1 2 2
d. 5270 e. 4900 a. 9 % b. 3 % c. 16 %
11 11 3
1
38. ( 21 + 99 ) ( 30 19. 02 ) = ? d. 11 % e. None of these
9
a. 3581 b. 131 c. 1290 d. 1600 e. 1320
1
39.
2 6 2 3
=? 50. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22 % on the
3 8 3 5 2
cost price. If in a week, his sale was of ` 392,
a. 0.45 b. 0.5 c. 145
. d. 0.2 e. 0.55
what was his profit?
40. 1000000. 0000001 = ? a. ` 72 b. ` 70 c. ` 18.20
a. 1000 b. 100 c. 10000 d. ` 88.25 e. None of these
d. 999 e. 99
16. 9 51. 25% of 480 50% of 110 = ?
41. The square root of is a. 82 b. 68 c. 67
25. 6
d. 65 e. None of these
9 13 13 16 13
a. b. c. d. e.
16 14 26 13 16 52. The total population of a village is 5000. The
numbers of males and females increase by 10%
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46) What will come in place of and 15% respectively and consequently the
the question mark (?) in the following questions?
population of the village becomes 5600. What
42. 11.111 + 111.11 + 1111.1 + 11111. 0 = ? was the number of males in the village?
a. 11344.321 b. 12344.331 c. 12344.321 a. 2000 b. 3000
d. 13343.123 e. None of these c. 4000 d. 2500
e. None of these
1 1
43. + =?
53. If the area of a rectangular plot increases by
2 1 1 3
3 4 30% while its breadth remains the same, what
1 3 will be the ratio of the areas of the new and the
a. 1 b. 1 c.
4 2 old figures?
1 a. 1 : 3 b. 10 : 13 c. 3 : 1
d. 1 e. None of these
7 d. 4 : 7 e. 13 : 10

101
54. A and B start a business with investments of a. 20 b. 16
` 5000 and ` 4500 respectively. After 4 months, c. 18 d. 24
e. None of these
A takes out half of his capital. After 6 months, B
takes out one-third of his capital, while C joins 60. The average age of 20 boys is 14 years. A boy of
them with a capital of ` 7000. At the end of a 16 leaves them and a new boy occupies his
year they earn a profit of ` 5080. Find the share place. Now their average is 13.8 years. What is
of each member in the profit. the age of the newcomer?
a. A-` 1400, B-` 1900, C-` 1780 a. 14 yr b. 13 yr c. 12.5 yr
b. A-` 1600, B-` 1800, C-` 1680 d. 12 yr e. None of these
c. A-` 1800, B-` 1500, C-` 1780
d. A-` 1680, B-` 1600, C-` 1800
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Refer to the data below and
e. None of the above
answer the questions that follow.
In a survey among students at all the IIMs, it was found
55. A certain sum of money becomes ` 880 in two that 48% preferred coffee, 54% liked tea and 64%
years at 5% rate of simple interest. If the same smoked. Of the total, 28% liked coffee and tea, 32%
sum is put on compound interest for the same smoked and drank tea and 30% smoked and drank
period and at the same rate of interest, what coffee. Only 6% did none of these. If the total number of
will be the compound interest? students is 2000, then
a. ` 881 b. ` 882 c. ` 883
d. ` 884 e. None of these 61. The ratio of the number of students who like
only coffee to the number who like only tea, is
56. In a regular week, there are 5 working days a. 5 : 3 b. 8 : 9 c. 2 : 3
and for each day, the working hours are 8. A d. 3 : 2 e. None of these
man gets ` 2.40 per hour for regular work and
` 3.20 per hour for overtime. If the earns ` 432 62. The number of students who like coffee and
in 4 weeks, how many hours does he work for? smoking but not tea, is
a. 180 b. 175 c. 160 a. 600 b. 240 c. 225
d. 195 e. None of these d. 360 e. None of these

57. A 150 m long train moving at a speed of 30 m/s 63. The percentage of those who like coffee or tea
passes a man moving in opposite direction but not smoking among those who like at least
with a speed of 5 m/s. How many seconds will one of these, is
it take to cross the man? a. more than 30% b. less than 30%
2 c. less than 25% d. more that 40%
a. 3 b. 4 c. 4 e. 30%
7
d. 6 e. None of these 64. The percentage of those who like at least one of
1 1 1 these, is
58. If ` 3060 be divided in the ratio of : : ,
6 4 3 a. 100% b. 90% c. 94%
what will be the value of the second part? d. 80% e. 85%
a. ` 680 b. ` 840 c. ` 1360 65. The two items having the ratio 1 : 2 are
d. ` 1020 e. None of these
a. tea only and tea and smoking only
59. Ram and Shyam together can do a work in 8 b. coffee and smoking only and tea only
days. Both jointly started a work. Ram fell ill c. coffee and tea but not smoking and smoking but not
after 3 days. Shyam working alone, completed coffee and tea
the remaining work in 15 days. In how many d. Data insufficient
days can Shyam alone complete the work? e. None of the above

Part III Reasoning Ability

66. How many such pairs of letters are there in the 68. In a certain code language, POETRY is written
word CONFIRM each of which has as many as QONDSQX and OVER is written as PNUDQ.
letters between them in the word as in the How is MORE written in that code language?
English alphabet? a. NNNQD b. NLPQD c. NLNQD
a. None b. One c. Two d. LNNQD e. None of these
d. Three e. More than three
69. The positions of the first and the sixth digit in
67. How many such digits are there in the number the number 5109238674 are interchanged.
37152869 each of which is as far away from the Similarly, the positions of the second and the
beginning of the number as when the digits are seventh digit are interchanged and so on.
arranged in ascending order within the Which of the following will be the third digit
number? from the right end after the rearrangement?
a. None b. One c. Two a. 9 b. 0 c. 6
d. Three e. More than three d. 3 e. None of these

102
 70. In a certain code, BRING is written as Directions (Q. Nos. 77-80) Study the information below and
53@2 and GUIDE is written as 2S@76. answer the given questions.
How is GINGER written in that code? Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle,
a. 2@253 b. 2@263 not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing
c. 532@3 d. 35@26 outside and four of them are facing the centre. E faces
e. None of these
outside. Both the immediate neighbours of E face the centre.
71. In a certain code, you are means se pa, H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E. D
see you means lo se and parrots are faces the centre. Both the immediate neighbours of D face
means ni pa. What does see parrots outside. G sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right
mean in that code language? of H. F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate
a. lo pa b. lo ni neighbour of G. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.
c. se ni d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these 77. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate
right of H?
Directions (Q. Nos. 72-73) Study the following a. A b. D c. C
information carefully and answer the questions d. G e. None of these
given below.
P Q means P is brother of Q.
78. Who amongst the following sits third to the right
of A?
P Q means P is sister of Q. a. D b. E c. F
P + Q means P is father of Q. d. A e. None of these
P Q means P is mother of Q.
79. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical
72. Which of the following represents M is order, in clockwise direction, starting from A, the
nephew of N? position of whom amongst the following remains
a. N K + M b. N K M the same (Excluding A)?
c. N K M d. N K + M T a. E b. F c. C
e. None of these d. G e. None of these

73. Which of the following represents F is 80. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way,
daughter of W? based on the information given above and so form
a. W R + F b. W R F a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
c. W + R F T d. W + R F + T that group?
e. None of these a. HA b. FH c. GC d. DA e. AE
74. A class of girls stands in a single line. One Directions (Q. Nos. 81-84) In the following questions, the
girl is 19th in order from both the ends. symbols @, , H, % and $ are used with the following
How many girls are there in the class? meaning as illustrated below.
a. 27 b. 37 c. 38 P Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
d. 39 e. None of these
P @ Q means P is smaller than Q.
Directions (Q. Nos. 75-76) Read the following P $ Q means P is greater than Q.
information carefully and answer the questions
P H Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.
that follow.
P % Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q.
There is a group of five girls. Kamini is second in
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given
height but younger than Rupa. Pooja is taller than
statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II
Monika but younger in age. Rupa and Monika are
given below them is/are definitely true?
of the same age but Rupa is tallest between them.
Neelam is taller than Pooja and elder to Rupa. Give answer
a. if only conclusion I is true
75. If they are arranged in the ascending order b. if only conclusion II is true
of height, who will be in the third c. if either conclusion I or II is true
position? d. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
a. Monika
e. if both conclusions I and II are true
b. Rupa
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Cannot be determined
81. Statements J $ N, N % F, F H D
e. None of the above Conclusions I. F @ J II. D % N
76. If they are arranged in descending order 82. Statements J % N, N D, D @ K
of their ages, who will be in the fourth Conclusions I. D J II. D @ J
position?
83. Statements R M, M @ V, V $ F
a. Monika or Rupa
b. Monika Conclusions I. F @ M II. V $ R
c. Kamini
d. Cannot be determined 84. Statements N @ K, K H F, F $ W
e. None of the above Conclusions I. F % N II. W @ K

103
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-88) Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and
Give answer
a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d. if the data in both statements I and II together are
not sufficient to answer the question
e. if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question
85. What does Pa stand for in the code language?
I. Ra Hi Kok Pa means I will tell you and Hi
Kok Pa Rt means he will tell you in the code
language.
II. Hi Pa Po Rt means will he call you and Pa
Rok Pac Hi means how will you go.
86. Who amongst A, B, C, D, E and F is the shortest?
I. A is shorter than C and E but not as short as F,
who is shorter than B and D.
II. C is the third in height in the ascending order
and not as tall as F, A and E. B is shorter than
C but not the shortest.
87. Who amongst A, B, C, D, E and F read the novel
first?
I. F, who gave the novel to B after reading, was
the third to read the same.
II. C, who read the novel before A, was the third
to read the novel after E.
88. Who is paternal uncle of A?
I. A is brother of M, who is daughter of H, who
is sister of K, who is brother of S.
II. Z is brother of B, who is husband of M, who
is mother of G, who is sister of A.
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-92) The following questions are
based on the diagram given below.
3
10
Government 2 5
1 Graduates
employees 7 6
Clerks
8 11 4 c. car 85 14 27 few new house 91
9 Urban people
89. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All government employees are clerks.
b. Some government employees are graduates as well as
clerks.
c. All government employees are graduates.
d. All clerks are government employees but not graduates.
e. None of the above
104
90. Choose the correct statement.
a. Some clerks are government employees.
b. No clerk is from urban areas.
c. All graduates are from urban areas.
d. All graduates are government employees.
e. None of the above
91. Which of the following number represents
urban government employees, who are
graduate but not clerks?
a. 9 b. 4 c. 10
d. 5 e. None of these
92. Which number represents clerks, who are
government employee but neither graduates
nor live in urban areas?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 9
d. 10 e. None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 93-96) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input base 35 or gone 62 49 87 ahead
Step I 87 base 35 or gone 62 49 ahead
Step II 87 ahead base 35 or gone 62 49
Step III 87 ahead 62 base 35 or gone 49
Step IV 87 ahead 62 base 49 35 or gone
Step V 87 ahead 62 base 49 gone 35 or
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per
the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each
of the following questions the appropriate step for the
given input.
93. Input how was your stay 56 25 36 64
Which of the following will be Step VI?
a. 64 how 56 was your stay 25 36
b. 64 how 56 stay 36 was 25 your
c. 64 how 56 stay 36 was your 25
d. There will be no such step
e. None of the above
94. Input power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
a. IV b. V c. VI
d. VII e. None of these
95. Step III of an Input 91 car 85 14 27 few new
house
Which of the following is definitely the input?
a. 85 14 91 car 27 few new house
b. car 91 85 14 27 few new house
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of the above
96. Step II of an Input 75 down 16 24 farm eager
62 sky
How many more steps will be required to complete
the rearrangement?
a. Four b. Five c. Six
d. Seven e. None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 97-100) In each of the questions below 98. Statements Some plates are houses.
are given three statements followed by two conclusions I All houses are rooms.
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even Some rooms are hammers.
if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Conclusions
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
I. Some hammers are plates.
conclusion logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. II. Some rooms are plates.
Give answer 99. Statements Some ropes are sticks.
a. if only conclusion I follows Some sticks are rods.
b. if only conclusion II follows Some rods are bridges.
c. if either conclusion I or II follows Conclusions
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows I. Some bridges are sticks.
e. if both conclusions I and II follow II. Some rods are ropes.
97. Statements Some doors are tables. 100. Statements All books are pencils.
Some tables are pots. No pencil is rock.
All pots are dishes. Some rocks are stones.
Conclusions Conclusions
I. Some dishes are doors. I. Some stones are books.
II. Some dishes are tables. II. No stone is book.
Hints & Solutions
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (e) 36. (b) Here, 103 1003 + 999999999 200
and Ashok can complete = =5
6. 7. 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 40
(c) (d) = 10 3 (10 2 )3 + 10 9
units of work in 1 day
11. (e) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) = 10 3 10 6 + 10 9 = 10 3 + 6 + 10 9
Both can complete ( 8 + 5) = 13
16. (a) 17. (e) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d) = 10 9 + 10 9 units of work in 1 day
21. (e) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (e) 25. (b) So, in 5 days, they can complete
37. (d) 134% of 3894 + 38.94% of 134
26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d) = 13 5 = 65 units
= 134% of 3894 + 3894 of 134
.
31. (a) The pattern of the series is Rest work = 200 65 = 135 units
= 134% of 3894 + 134
. % of 3894 135 units of work completed by
14 1 1 = 13
= 135.34% of 3894 = 52701396
. 135
13 2 4 = 22 Ashok = = 27 days
= 5270 5
22 3 9 = 57
38. (e) (21 + 99) ( 30 19.02 ) 48. (a) Failed in all (one or both)
57 4 16 = 212
= 120 10.98 = 120 11 = 1320 = ( 36 + 30 20) = 46%
212 5 25 = 1035 Passed in both = (100 46) = 54%
Hence, the wrong number is 55. 39. (d)
2 6 2 3 72 1 49. (a) Initially, the mixture contains 2 L of
32. (c) The pattern of the series is = = = 02
.
3 8 3 5 72 5 5 alcohol and 18 L of water.
217 + 7 = 224 Afterwards, the mixture contains 2 L
224 11 = 213
40. (a) of alcohol and 20 L of water.
213 + 13 = 226 16.9 169 13 Percentage of alcohol
41. (e) = =
25.6 256 16 2 100 1
226 17 = 209 = 100 = =9 %
209 + 19 = 228 42. (c) 11111
. + 11111
. + 11111
. + 111110
. 20 + 2 11 11
Hence, the wrong number is 210. = 12344.321 1
50. (a) Here, gain = 22 % = 22.5%
1 1 1 1 2
33. (e) The pattern of the series is 43. (a) ? = + = +
2 1 1 3 7 7 This implies that 122.5% of the cost
153 + 7 3 = 496
3

4 3 4 price is equal to ` 392 (the sale).
496 + 6 3 = 712 7 4 7 392
= + = =1 Profit = 22.5
712 + 5 3 = 837 3 7 7 122.5
392 225
837 + 4 3 = 901 44. (a) ? = 0.02 + 0.0049 = = ` 72
1225
3 = 0.02 + 0.07 = 0.09 = 0.3
901 + 3 = 928 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (e) 54. (b) 55. (b)
15 56 64 100 54
Hence, the wrong number is 495. 45. (c) Here, 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)
18 8 4 60 14
34. (b) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (e) 64. (c) 65. (c)
2 100 3 = 600 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (b)
35. (d) Here, the series is
1 1000
488 2 + 10
. = 245 46. (b) Here, = = 250 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d)
0.004 4
245 2 + 15
. = 124 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
124 2 + 2.0 = 64
47. (e) Let total units of work to be done 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (d)
is 200 units.
64 2 + 2.5 = 34.5 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a)
Then, Deepak can complete
34.5 2 + 3.0 = 2025
. 200 91. (d) 92. (e) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (d)
= = 8 units of work in 1 day
Hence, the wrong number is 35. 25 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (c)

For extensive solutions visit our facebook pagehttp://www.facebook.com/bankinggurumagazine

 ONLINE EXAM
in January 2016

CRACK SET IV
IBPS CWE-V
Clerical Cadre
Main Exam 2015
General Instructions
(i) This crack set consists of 200 questions in five parts.
(ii) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
(iii) Answer the questions quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy.
Do not spend too much time on any question.
Number of Questions 200 Time 120 min Max. Marks 200
Questions
Part Subject Number of Questions
from to
I Reasoning Ability 40 1 40
II English Language 40 41 80
III Quantitative Aptitude 40 81 120
IV General Awareness 40 121 160
V Computer Knowledge 40 161 200

Part I Reasoning Ability

1. If each vowel of the word PRINCELY is a. India b. Asia c. Antarctica
changed to the next letter in the English d. Australia e. Europe
alphabetical series and each consonant is 5. The positions of first and the sixth letters of the
changed to the previous letter in the English word CARPET are interchanged. Similarly, the
alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus positions of second and fifth letters and third
formed are arranged in alphabetical order from and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new
left to right, which of the following will be arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets
fourth from the left? are there between the letter which is second
a. M b. J c. B from the right and the letter which is second
d. O e. K from the left end, in the English alphabetical
2. What will come in the place of question mark in series?
the following series? a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More than three
AC DG HL ? SY
a. QU b. MR c. NS 6. Among A, B, C and D, A has to travel more than
d. NU e. MS any other friend to the office. C travels a certain
distance, which is not as much as B, but greater
3. How many meaningful English words can be than D. Who amongst them travels the least
formed with the letters RCA using each letter distance to reach office?
only once in each word?
a. B b. D c. A
a. None b. One c. Two d. Cannot be determined e. None of these
d. Three e. More than three
7. A mountain would necessarily have
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain a. some trees b. a valley c. a peak
way and so form a group. Which is the one that d. a steep cliff e. snow
does not belong to that group?
 8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the 16. What is the position of S with respect to P?
word TACK E, each of which has as many letters a. Third to the right b. Second to the left
between them in the word (in both forward and c. Immediately to the right d. Second to the right
backward directions) as they have between them e. Immediately to the left
in the English alphabetical series?
17. If all the persons are made to sit in
a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More then three
alphabetical order from left to right, the
positions of how many will remain
9. In a certain code, FETCH is coded as GBSDE and unchanged as compared to the original
DRIVE is coded as DUHQC. In the same code seating positions?
GROUND will be coded as a. None b. One c. Two
a. HSPVOE b. FQNTMC c. EOVPSH d. Three e. Four
d. CMTNQF e. CMQNTF
18. Who sits to the immediate right of R?
10. Rubber is related to Tree in the same way as a. V b. T
Silk is related to c. P d. Q
a. Cloth b. Insects c. Fabric e. Cannot be determined
d. Handicraft e. Weave
19. How many persons sit between R and V?
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each questions below is given a. None b. One c. Two
a group of letters followed by five combinations of number/ d. Three e. Four
symbol codes numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the 20. Which of the following pairs sits at the
group of letters based on the following coding system and extreme corners of the line?
the conditions and mark the number of that combination as a. TS b. VS c. RT
your answer. d. PQ e. None of these

Letter W R P A E Q K F H M C I U B T Directions (Q. Nos. 21-22) Read the following

Number/Symbol 9 4 2 # 5 H @ 7 3 $ % 8 6 information carefully and answer the questions, which
Code follow.
Conditions A B means A is son of B.
(i) If both the second and the fifth elements are A + B means A is daughter of B.
consonants, both these are to be coded as the code A B means A is brother of B.
for the fifth element. A B means A is wife of B.
(ii) If the third element is a consonant and the fourth a
vowel, the fourth element is to be coded as = 21. How is C related to F if C + D E F ?
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are consonants, a. Daughter-in-law b. Father-in-law
c. Grand-daughter d. Grandson
the codes for both these are to be interchanged. e. Mother
11. QIMRAH 22. Which of the following means P is father of
a. 3$#4H b. 3$4#H c. H$4#3 K ?
d. 3$4#3 e. H$#43
a. K L P R b. K L + R P
12. BEIFWU c. K + R L P d. R P L + K
e. None of these
a. 85$79% b. 859$7% c. 857$9%
d. 85=79% e. %5$798 Directions (Q. Nos. 23-27) In each question below
13. UBTAIP are two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the two given
a. %86#$2 b. %68=$2 c. %8=#$2
d. %8#6$2 e. %86=$2 statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide
14. HAIQRF which of the given conclusions logically follows from
a. 3#$H47 b. 7#4$H3 the given statements disregarding commonly known
c. 3#=H47 d. 7#$H47 facts.
e. 7#$H43
Give answer
15. AMUKCE a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
a. #%@5 b. #%@5
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
c. #%@5 d. #%@5
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. #%@5
e. if both conclusions I and II follow
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions. 23. Statements All volcanoes are craters.
P, Q, R, S, T, and V are sitting in a straight line facing No crater is a mountain.
North. Q sits third to right of T. T sits second to right of P. Conclusions
V is not an immediate neighbour of T. R sits second to left I. Some volcanoes are mountains.
of S. II. No mountain is a volcano.

107
 24. Statements Some lines are circles. Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) Read the information/
All circles are balls. statement given in each question carefully to answer the
Conclusions questions.
I. All balls being lines is a possibility. 33. Which of the following expressions will not be
II. There is a possibility that some balls are true if the expression A = C B > D is
neither circles nor lines. definitely true?
a. B > A b. D < C c. A B
25. Statements All cats are dogs. d. D < A e. All are true
Some dogs are elephants.
Conclusions 34. In which of the following expressions will the
expression L > M be definitely true?
I. All elephants being cats is a possibility.
a. M N P > L b. L > N M > P
II. All elephants can never be dogs. c. M N = P L d. L > N M < P
e. None of these
26. Statements No air is wind.
All wind are typhoons. 35. Which of the following expressions will be true
Conclusions if the expression Z < Y W = V is definitely
I. No air is typhoon. true?
II. All air being typhoons is a possibility. a. V > Y b. Z < W c. V Z
d. W Z e. None is true
27. Statements Some diamonds are stones. Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Following questions are
All rocks are stones. based on five words given below :
Conclusions LAP BUT CAR SON HID
I. No rock is a diamond.
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned
II. All diamonds being stones is a possibility. operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) Study the following English words.)
information earefully and answer the given questions. 36. If the positions of the first and the third
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and X are sitting around a circular alphabets of each of the words are
table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same interchanged, which of the following would
order. form meaningful words with new
R sits third left of W. X sits second to right of T. T is not arrangement?
an immediate neighbour of R and W. Two people sit a. HID b. SON
between P and S. Neither P nor S is an immediate c. LAP and BUT d. CAR
neighbour of X. Q is not an immediate neighbour of X e. CAR and LAP
and P. 37. If the given words are arranged in the order as
28. Who amongst the following represent the they would appear in a dictionary from left to
immediate neigbours of S? right, which of the following will be fourth
a. W, T b. R, Q from the left?
c. R, X d. X, T a. LAP b. BUT c. CAR
e. W, P d. SON e. HID

29. What is the position of V with respect to P in 38. If in each of the given words, each of the
the given arrangement? consonants is changed to previous letter and
a. Third to the right b. Immediate left each vowel is changed to next letter in the
c. Fifth to the right d. Immediate right English alphabetical series, in how many words
e. Second to the right thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
30. Who sits third to the right of Q? a. None b. One c. Two
d. Three e. More than three
a. P b. S c. X
d. T e. V 39. How many letters are there in the English
31. What will come in place of the question mark alphabetical series between the third letter of
according to the given seating arrangement? the word which is third from the right and the
first letter of the word which is first from the
X P S V ? left of the given words?
a. Q b. R c. T
d. P e. W a. Two b. Five c. Six
d. Nine e. Three
32. Four of the following five are similar in a
certain way based on their positions in the 40. If second alphabet in each of the words is
given seating arrangement. Which of the changed to next alphabet in the English
following does not belong to that group? alphabetical order, how many words having
a. SR b. RX
no vowels will be formed?
c. WP d. QS a. None b. One c. Two
e. XV d. Three e. More than three

108
 Part II English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 41-55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
After the Liberalisation, Globalisation and the consequent change in the new international economic order as
well as new information technology order, a new catch-phrase is being coined : A New Health order. Talking
About setting it up is the theme of the WHO-sponsored international conference on primary health and
medicare, currently being held at Milan, Italy. While much has been said and written on establishing new
order, little has actually been done. Will the conference at Milan too swear by the new health order, go home
and then forget about it, while the present medical and healthcare set-up in poor countries further entrenches
itself? This does not have to be the fate of the radical resolutions that will undoubtedly be passed at Milan.
Unlike creating a new world economic or information order, establishing a new health set-up is essentially a
matter for individual countries to accomplish. No conflict of international interests is involved. But this
advantage is, at least until it begins to take concrete shape, only theoretical. The million-dollar question is
whether individual Third-world governments are able and willing to muster the will, the resources, the
administrative and other infrastructure to carry out what it is entirely within their power to attain and implement.
The dimensions of the problem are known and the solutions broadly agreed on. The present medical and healthcare
system is urban-based, closely geared to drugs, hospitals and expensively trained apathetic doctors. The bulk of the
population in poor countries who live in rural areas are left untouched by all this and must rely on traditional
healers. The answer is to turn out medical/health personnel sufficiently, but not expensively trained to handle
routine complaints and to get villagers to pay adequate attention to cleanliness, hygienic sanitation, garbage
disposal and other elementary but crucial matters. More complicated ailments can be referred to properly
equipped centres in district towns, cities and metropolises. Traditional healers, whom villagers trust can be among
these intermediate personnel. Some Third-world countries, including India, have launched or are preparing
elaborate schemes of this nature. But the experience is not quite happy. There is resistance from the medical
establishment which sees them as little more than licensed quackery but is not prepared either to offer condensed
medical courses such as the former licentiate course available in this country and unwisely scrapped. There is the
question of how much importance to give to indigenous system of medicine. And there is the difficult matter of
striking the right balance between preventive healthcare and curative medical attention. These are complex issues
and the Milan conference would perhaps be more fruitful if it were to discuss such specific subjects.
41. The author is doubtful whether 45. The author thinks that the solution to the
a. an individual country cant set-up a new health order problem of medical/healthcare lies in
b. the Miln conference would pass radical resolutions a. opening hospitals in rural areas
c. under developed countries have the capacity to b. conducting inexpensive medical courses
organise their resources c. improving the economic condition of the masses
d. traditional healers could be trained as intermediate d. expediting the setting up of a new health order
health personnel e. making cheap drugs available
e. the problem has been understood at all
46. To make the conference really useful, the author
42. The author has reservations about the utility suggests
of the Milan conference because a. resolving the international conflicts involved
a. it is expected only to discuss but not decide upon b. that it should address itself to specific issues
anything c. that it should give importance to indigenous system of
b. earlier conferences had failed to reach any medicine
decisions d. that it should not pass radical resolutions
c. the medical profession is opposed to a new health e. None of the above
order
d. while new orders are talked and written about, not 47. What does the author suggest for the cure of the
much is actually done cases involving complications?
e. None of the above a. Treating such cases at well-equipped hospitals in district
43. The contents of the passage indicate that the places
b. Training such victims in preliminary hygiene
author is opposed to
c. Training semi-skilled doctors to treat such cases
a. traditional healers
d. Issuing licenses to semi-skilled doctors to treat such cases
b. licentiate practitioners
c. allopathic system of medicines e. None of the above
d. hospitals 48. The medical establishment seems to be reluctant
e. None of the above
to trust
44. It can be inferred from the contents of the a. allopathic medical practitioners
passage that the authors approach is b. traditional healars
a. sarcastic b. constructive c. urban-based medical practitioners
c. indifferent d. fault-finding d. expensively trained allopathic doctors
e. hostile e. None of the above

109
 49. For a new health order, the author recommends 57. Which sentence should be the LAST in the
all of the following expect paragraph?
a. motivating villagers to pay attention to cleanliness a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
b. setting up well equipped centres in district towns
c. discontinuing the present expensive medical courses 58. Which sentence should be the FIRST in the
d. training traditional healers to function as medical health paragraph?
personnel a. G b. F c. E d. D e. C
e. striking a balance between preventive healthcare and
curative medical attention 59. Which sentence should be the SECOND in
the paragraph?
Directions (Q.Nos. 50-52) Choose the word which is most a. G b. F c. E d. D e. C
nearly the same in meaning to the word printed in bold as
used in the passage. 60. Which sentence should be the THIRD in the
paragraph?
50. Launched a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
a. Participated b. Accomplished c. Elevated
d. Planned e. Started Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) In the following passage
there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
51. Muster This numbers are printed below the passage and
a. Enlist b. Summon c. Manifest against each five words are suggested one of which fits
d. Extend e. Enrich
the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
52. Entrench in each case.
a. Being deteriorating b. Surround completely Desire and action are often coordinated in that the
c. Establish firmly d. Enclose carefully desire may (61) the person to action or that desire
e. Finish radically may be (62) from action. If P is seen as trying to do X,
Directions (Q.Nos. 53-55) Choose the word which is most it is often inferred that. P desire X. However, desire
nearly opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as and action are not (63) coordinated. The person may
used in the passage. desire X without (64) in any action directed towards
the attainment of X. This event happens when X
53. Condensed appears (65) or when the other effects resulting from
a. Concentrated b. Envigoured c. Expanded the action (66) to attain X are sufficiently undesirable
d. Lengthened e. Inexplicable as to (67) the desire for X. Sometimes, of course, no
54. Crucial action is necessary, the desire may or not be (68)
a. Trivial b. Critical c. Significant quite independently of Ps action. Furthermore, a
d. Marvellous e. Conspicuous given desire may lead to different actions, depending
upon the environmental requirements. Actions are
55. Resistance (69) not only be desire but also by the way the person
a. Opposition b. Agreement c. Repulsion (70) the causal structure of the environment.
d. Acceptance e. Compliance
61. a. dampen b. hinder c. indulge
Directions (Q.Nos. 56-60) Rearrange the following seven d. arouse e. prohibit
sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions 62. a. expelled b. ceased c. abstained
given below them. d. refrained e. inferred
A. People thoroughly dedicated to social service, but 63. a. invariably b. hopefully c. deliberately
not fulfilling the eligibility requirements would not d. purposely e. negatively
be able to contest elections.
B. Those who fulfil the stipulated criteria of age and 64. a. wanting b. associating c. engaging
formal education may not be necessarily devoted to d. supporting e. exhibiting
social service. 65. a. manageable b. valuable c. unattainable
C. This system has both advantages and disadvantages. d. reachable e. approachable
D. Therefore, imposing such eligibility requirements is
likely to be counter productive. 66. a. hostile b. necessary c. incidental
d. insensible e. detrimental
E. In certain democratic countries, elections can be
contested by anybody. 67. a. express b. appreciate c. reciprocate
F. People would be deprived of the probable benefit d. damage e. neglect
accrued from services of such people.
68. a. realised b. hypothesised c. verbalised
G. There are no eligibility requirements of formal
d. criticised e. actualised
education and upper age limit stipulated in their
Constitution. 69. a. projected b. determined c. controlled
d. galvanised e. pronounced
56. Which sentence should be the FOURTH in the
paragraph? 70. a. downgrades b. fabricates c. develops
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E d. sees e. enlarges

110
Directions (Q.Nos. 71-73) In the given questions a part of a. successful; drawing b. meaningful; projecting
the sentence is typed in bold and there are options that may c. reliable; evolving d. strong; following
improve that part. Choose the most suitable option that may e. challenging; lamenting
improve the sentence grammatically. In case there is no 76. The human mind in never ; it
improvement needed then choose No correction required. advances or it .
71. India has announced a programme of measures a. absolute; diminishes b. dynamic; stops
c. perfect; disintegrates d. stationary; retrogrades
designed to open its long awaited markets and e. happy; decomposes
appease foreign trade negotiators.
a. a measured programme designed to open its long 77. If misery is the effect of ill-fortune, it ought to
awaited markets be pitied, if of to be .
b. a long awaited program of measures designed to open a. virtue; criticised b. calamity; revered
its markets c. virtue; protected d. vice; revered
c. the design of progrmme to open its long awaited e. virtue; revered
markets
d. a designed programme to measure the opening of its 78. It would be impossible for us to continue
long awaited markets living in this world if each of us
e. No correction required exactly what fate had in for him.
a. follow; plan b. appreciate; strategy
72. Had he taken the medicine regularly he would c. design; anticipation d. visualise; hidden
have felt better much quicker. e. knew; store
a. felt better more quickly
b. feeling better much quicker Directions (Q.Nos. 79-80) In each questions below an
c. been felt better more quickly incomplete sentence is given which is followed by three
d. felt much better and quicker possible fillers denoted by A, B and C. Find out which
e. No correction required one, two or three of these fillers can make the sentence
73. We must concentrate more on the prevention meaningfully complete and grammatically correct.
and not only the cure of diseases. 79. Natural calamities such as flood, earthquakes,
a. than on the cure b. and also the cure etc. occur so suddenly and unexpectedly that
c. but also the cure d. and the cure .
e. No correction required
A. people get hardly any time to save themselves
Directions (Q.Nos. 81-85) Pick out the most effective B. man realises his limitations and supremacy
word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the of nature
sentence meaningfully complete.
C. devastation cannot be prevented
74. Vision is usually most effectively a. Only A b. Only B c. A or B
when many different are used. d. A or C e. Any one of the three
a. developed; manifestations 80. the poor students had managed to
b. adapted; organisations
come out successfully with flying colours.
c. communicated; vehicles
d. exhibited; forms A. Despite lack of resources
e. described; thought B. Owing to adverse circumstances
75. People who have been through difficult, painful C. It was a mere coincidence that
and not very change efforts often end up a. Only A b. A or B c. B or C
both pessimistic and angry conclusions. d. A or B e. Anyone of the three

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) What will come in place of 85. 36% of 245 40% of 210 = 10 ?
the questions mark (?) in the following questions? a. 4.2 b. 6.8 c. 4.9
d. 5.6 e. None of these
81. 360 225 2 + 379 = ?
a. 17 b. 19 c. 279 86. A sum of ` 731 is divided among A, B and C,
d. 289 e. None of these such that A receives 25% more than B and B
receives 25% less than C. What is Cs share in
82. 9 3 81 2 27 3 = ( 3 ) ? the amount?
a. 8 b. 4 c. 5 a. ` 172 b. ` 200 c. ` 262
d. 6 e. None of these d. ` 258 e. None of these
83. 572 26 12 200 = ( 2 ) ? 87. Sum of square of first number and cube of
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 second number together is 568. Also square of
d. 8 e. None of these the second number is 15 less than square of 8.
1 5 17 What is the value of three-fifth of the first
84. 4 2 = ? 1 number? (Assuming both the numbers are
2 6 12
1 5 7 positive)
a. 3 b. 3 c. 2
4 12 12 a. 18 b. 8 c. 9
3 d. 16 e. None of these
d. 3 e. None of these
4
88. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family Directions (Q. Nos. 97-101) What should come in place
five years ago was 94 years. Today when the of the questions mark (?) in the following number series.
daughter has been married off and replaced by
a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92.
97. 15 16 14 17 13 18 ?
a. 24 b. 20 c. 16
Assuming that there has been no other change d. 12 e. None of these
in the family structure and all the people are
alive, what is the difference in the age of the 98. 15 50 155 470 1414 ?
daughter and the daughter-in-law? a. 4250 b. 7078 c. 4245
a. 22 yr b. 11 yr c. 25 yr d. 19 yr e. 15 yr d. 7015 e. None of these

89. Suresh invested a sum of ` 15000 at 9% per 99. 888 888 444 148 ? 7.4
annum simple interest and ` 12000 at 8% per a. 32 b. 37 c. 35
annum compound interest for a period of d. 36 e. None of these
two years. What amount of interest did Suresh 100. 7 26 63 124 215 ?
earn in two years? a. 330 b. 321 c. 342 d. 356 e. 339
a. ` 4096.60 b. ` 4696.80 c. ` 4896.60
d. ` 4698.60 e. None of these 101. 3 19 115 691 ? 24883
a. 6923 b. 4147 c. 2719
90. 4 men or 16 boys can do a piece of work in d. 1463 e. None of these
40 days. In how many days will 3 men and
20 boys do this work? 102. A, B and C started a business with investment
a. 16 days b. 20 days c. 24 days in the ratio 5 : 6 : 8 respectively. After one year,
d. 40 days e. None of these C withdrew 50% of his capital and A increased
his capital by 60% of his investment. After two
91. An electric pole 20 m high stands upright on years, in what ratio should the earned profit be
the ground with the help of steel wire tied to distributed among A, B and C respectively?
its top and affixed on the ground. If the steel a. 2 : 3 : 3 b. 4 : 3 : 2 c. 13 : 12 : 12
wire makes 60 with the horizontal ground, d. Cannot be determined e. None of these
find the length of the steel wire.
a. 25 b. 30 c. 20
103. 5 L of water is added to a certain quantity of
d. 23.1 e. None of these pure milk costing ` 3 per litre. If by selling the
mixture at the same price as before, a profit of
92. Two equal glasses are respectively 2/3 and 1/4 20% is made, then what is the amount of pure
full of milk. They are then filled up with water milk in the mixture?
and the contents are mixed in a tumbler. The a. 20 L b. 30 L c. 25 L
ratio of milk and water in the tumbler, is d. 35 L e. None of these
a. 5 : 6 b. 11 : 13 c. 13 : 11 Directions (Q. Nos. 104-108) The following pie-chart
d. Cannot be determined e. None of these
represents a total expenditure of ` 540000 on different
93. The area of the largest circle that can be drawn items in constructing a flat in a town. Study the pie-chart
inside a rectangle with sides 20 cm by 14 cm, is and answer the questions.
a. 136 cm 2 b. 154 cm 2 c. 139 cm 2 Steel
d. 158 cm 2 e. None of these 45 Labour

94. The average temperature of the first three day Bricks 100

22C and that of the next three days is 24 C the 75 90

Cement Timber
average for the whole weak is 23.5 C, the
temperature of the last day of the week is
a. 26.8 C b. 26.5 C c. 26.4 C
d. 26.2 C e. None of these 104. The expenditure on bricks is
a. ` 75000 b. ` 67500 c. ` 150000
95. An article is marked at ` 4500 and the d. ` 70000 e. None of these
shopkeeper allows three successive discounts
of 20%, 10% and 10% respectively. Find the 105. The expenditure on bricks is less than the
selling price of the article. expenditure on timber by
a. ` 10000 b. ` 12500 c. ` 60000
a. ` 2916 b. ` 2700 c. ` 2812
d. ` 65000 e. None of these
d. ` 2600 e. None of these
106. The percentage of the total expenditure spent
96. A alone can complete a work in 12 days and B on steel and cement is
alone in 48 days. Starting with B, they work on 1
alternate days. The total work will be a. 33.23% b. 25% c. 33 %
3
completed in d. 30% e. None of these
a. 18 days b. 19 days
1
c. 19 days d. Data insufficient
107. Which is the item of maximum expenditure?
2 a. Cement b. Steel c. Timber
e. None of these d. Labour e. None of these

112
108. The expenditure on cement is a. Two b. One c. Five
d. Three e. None of these
a. ` 75000 b. ` 90000 c. ` 135000
d. ` 112500 e. None of these 114. For which of the given years, the percent rise
109. A man walked at a speed of 4 km/h from point (from the previous year) was the least? (Years
A to B and came back from point B to A at the 2001 and 2003 are not to be considered.)
speed of 6 km/h. What would be the ratio a. 2000 b. 2004
between the time taken by man in walking c. 2006 d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these
from point A to B to point B to A respectively?
a. 5 : 3 b. 2 : 3 c. 2 : 1 d. 4 : 3 e. 3 : 2 115. If the production in year 1998 was 1000 units,
how much was the production in year 2002?
110. There are two inlets A and B connected to a
a. 35280 units b. 64680 units
tank. A and B can fill the tank in 16 h and 10 h, c. 46200 units d. Cannot be determined
respectively. If both the pipes are opened e. None of these
alternately for 1 h, starting from A, then how
much time will the tank take to be filled? 116. Two trains of lengths 50 m and 65 m are
1 6 2 moving in the same direction at 18 m/s and
a. 13 h b. 11 h c. 12 h
4 8 5 17 m/s, respectively. Find the time taken by the
1
d. 12 h e. None of these
faster train to cross the slower train.
4 a. 100 s b. 114 s c. 95 s
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Study the following graph d. 115 s e. None of these
carefully and answer the questions that follow. 117. A boatman takes twice as long to row a
The Percent Rise in Production from the Year 1999 to 2006 distance against the stream as to row the same
Y distance with the stream. Find the ratio of
160
speeds of the boat in still water and the stream.
a. 2 : 1 b. 3 : 1 c. 1 : 2
140
d. 1 : 3 e. None of these
120
118. A man has ` 480 in the denominations of ` 1
Percent rise

100
notes, ` 5 notes and ` 10 notes. The number of
80
notes of each denomination is equal. What is
60
the total number of notes that he has?
40 a. 45 b. 60 c. 75
20 d. 90 e. None of these
X
1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 119. A merchant has 1000 kg rice, part of which he
Year sells at 6% profit and the rest at 15% profit. He
gains 8.8% on the whole transaction. The
111. For how many years, the percent rise was more quantity sold at 6% profit is
than 100%? a. 412 kg b. 521 kg
a. One b. Two c. Three c. 512 kg d. 421 kg
d. Five e. None of these e. None of these
112. What was the average of percent rise over the 120. The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the
given years? age of his son. Ten years hence, fathers age
a. 110% b. 105% c. 100.5% will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their
d. 92.5% e. None of these present ages, is
a. 5 : 2 b. 7 : 3
113. For how many years, the percent rise was c. 9 : 2 d. 13 : 4
lower than the average of the percent rise over e. None of these
the given years?

Part IV General Awareness (with Special Reference to Banking Industry)

121. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical 123. Consider the following rivers :
characteristic of 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri
a. Equatorial climate b. Mediterranean climate Which of the above flow/flows through Arunachal
c. Monsoon climate d. All of these Pradesh?
e. None of these a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3
d. All these e. None of these
122. Turkey is located between
a. Black sea and Caspian sea 124. With which one of the following is BRIT
b. Black sea and Mediterranean sea (government of India) engaged?
c. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean sea a. Railway Wagons b. Information Technology
d. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead sea c. Isotope Technology d. Road Transport
e. All of the above e. None of these

113
125. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
people used to be nomadic herders. This a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
statement best describes which of the following d. Neither 1 nor 2 e. None of these
regions? 133. Consider the following statements :
a. African Savannah b. Central Asian Steppes 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India
c. North American Prairies d. Siberian Tundra
e. None of these can be larger in size than half of the
Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
126. Variations in the length of day time and night 2. The Governor of a State nominates the
time from season to season are due to Chairman of Legislative Council of that
a. the Earths rotation on its axis particular State.
b. the Earths revolution round the Sun in an elliptical Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
manner
c. latitudinal position of the place a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. revolution of the Earth on a tilted axis d. Neither 1 nor 2 e. None of these
e. None of the above
134. Which one of the following is the best
127. In India, Deficit Financing is used for raising description of the term Ecosystem?
resources for a. A community of organisms interacting with one another.
a. economic development b. That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
b. redemption of public debt organisms.
c. adjusting the balance of payments c. A community of organisms together with the
d. reducing the foreign debt environment in which they live.
e. None of the above d. The flore and fauna of a geographical area.
e. All of the above
128. Which one of the following pairs of islands is
separated from each other by the Ten Degree 135. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow
Channel? because
a. Andaman and Nicobar b. Nicobar and Sumatra a. the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
c. Maldives and Lakshadweep b. most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
d. Sumatra and Java c. most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
e. None of the above d. leaves get damaged during transplantation
e. None of the above
129. Improper handling and storage of cereal
grains and oilseeds result in the production of 136. The most important fishing grounds of the
toxins known as aflatoxins, which are not world are found in the regions where
generally destroyed by normal cooking a. warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
process. Aflatoxins are produced by b. rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
a. bacteria b. protozoa c. moulds c. warm and cold oceanic currents meet
d. viruses e. None of these d. continental shelf is undulating
e. None of the above
130. The Delhi High Court sought the Centres
response on a plea by Digital Radio 137. The Balance of Payment (BoP) of a country is a
Broadcasting Limited. Which FM Radio runs systematic record of
against the governments decision and denying a. all import and export transactions of a country during
a given period of time, normally a year
it permission to participate in the third phase
b. goods exported from a country during a year
of FM auction?
c. economic transaction between the government of one
a. Red FM b. Radio City c. Radio Mirchi country to another
d. Big FM e. None of these d. capital movements from one country to another
131. Which of the following diseases can be e. None of the above
transmitted from one person to another 138. India recently signed the National Cyclon Risk
through tattooing? Mitigation Project-II with World Bank to
1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis-B a. give early warning dissemination system
3. HIV-AIDS b. give 200 ambulance in coastal areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. c. give signals to State capital in all coastal region
a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. provide life support systems in all coastal town hospitals
d. All of these e. None of these e. None of the above

132. With reference ot India economy, consider the
following statements :
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic
Product has steadily increased in the last
decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices
(in rupees) has steadily increased in the last
decade.
139. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
a. big banks shouid try to open offices in each district
b. there should be stiff competition among the various
nationalised banks
c. individual banks should adopt particular districts for
intensive development
d. all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilise
deposits
e. None of the above

114
140. The government constituted All India Council 150. As per the UN-Habitals Global Report on
of Sports as a/an Human Settlements 2009, which one among
a. supervisory body to look after the security of the team the following regions has shown the fastest
b. deliberate effort to implement the policies of the growth rate of urbanisation in the last three
government decades?
c. advisory body of the Ministry of Sports a. Asia b. Europe
d. advisory body to deliberate on matters relating to the c. Latin America and Caribbean
promotion and development of sports d. North America e. None of these
e. None of the above
151. What causes wind to deflect towards left in the
141. In which one of the following places is the Southern hemisphere?
Shompen tribe found? a. Temperature b. Magnetic field
a. Nilgiri hills b. Nicobar islands c. Rotation of the Earth d. Pressure
c. Spiti valley d. Lakshadweep islands e. None of these
e. None of these
152. Consider the following statements with respect
142. Consider the following statements : to the Saraswati Samman :
1. India does not have any deposite of Thorium. 1. President Pranab Mukherjee presented the
2. Keralas monazite sands contains Uranium. 24th Saraswati Samman for 2014 to AA
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Manavalan for his epic Sri Ramayana
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 Mahanveshanam written in Malayalam.
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 2. The first Saraswati Samman was awarded to
e. None of these Harivansh Rai Bachchan in 1991 for Auto-
143. Which one of the following rivers does not biography in four volumes written in Hindi.
originate in India? Which of the statements given above is/are true?
a. Beas b. Chenab c. Ravi a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Setluj e. Krishna d. Neither 1 nor 2 e. None of these

144. At which one of the following places do two 153. Consider the following statements :
important rivers of India originate; while one of 1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along
them flows towards North and merges with the Western margins of continents within
another important river flowing towards Bay of the trade wind belt.
Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian sea? 2. In India, the East Himalayan region gets
a. Amarkantak b. Badrinath c. Mahabaleshwar high rainfall from North-East winds.
d. Nasik e. None of these
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
145. In India, which one of the following States has a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
the largest inland saline wetland? d. Neither 1 nor 2 e. None of these
a. Gujarat b. Haryana 154. Which amongst the following provided a
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Rajasthan
common factor for tribal insurrection in India
e. Punjab
in the 9th century?
146. Disguised unemployment generally means a. Introduction of a new system of land revenue and
a. large number of people remain unemployed taxation of tribal products.
b. alternative employment is not available b. Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
c. marginal productivity of labour is zero c. Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and
d. productivity of workers is low revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas.
e. None of the above d. The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of
the tribal communities.
147. In which State is the Buddhist site Tabo e. None of the above
Monastery located?
a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Himachal Pradesh 155. Economic growth in country X will necessarily
c. Sikkim d. Uttarakhand have to occur if
e. Madhya Pradesh a. there is technical progress in the world economy
b. there is population growth in X
148. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which c. there is capital formation in X
one of the following rivers? d. the volume of trade grows in the world economy
a. Beas b. Chenab c. Ravi e. None of the above
d. Setluj e. Narmada
156. Which one of the following is the correct
149. Among the following who are the Agaria sequence in the order of decreasing length of
community? the three structural parts, given below, of
a. A traditional toddy tappers community of Andhra small intestine in the human body?
Pradesh a. Jejunum-Duodenum-Ileum
b. A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra b. Ileum-Duodenum-Jejunum
c. A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka c. Jejunum-Ileum-Duodenum
d. A traditional salt pan workers, community of Gujarat d. Ileum-Jejunum-Duodenum
e. None of the above e. None of the above

115
157. In human body, which one of the following a. an indigenously developed radar system inducted into
hormones regulates blood calcium and Indian Defence
phosphate? b. Indias satellite to provide services to the countries of
Indian Ocean Rim
a. Glucagon b. Growth hormone c. a scientific establishment set-up by India in Antarctic
c. Parathyroid hormone d. Thyroxine region
e. None of these
d. Indias underwater observatory to scientifically study
158. How do most insects respire? the Arctic region
a. Through skin b. Through gills e. None of the above
c. By lungs d. By tracheal system 160. Production of which one of the following is a
e. None of these
function of the liver?
159. The term IndARC, sometimes seen in the a. Lipase b. Urea c. Mucus
news, is the name of d. Hydrochloric acid e. None of these

Part V Computer Knowledge

161. A set of information that
defines the status of
resources allocated to a
process is
a. process control
b. ALU
c. control unit
d. register unit
e. process description
162. A method of implementing
a memory management
system is
a. bridgeware
b. buddy system
c. broadband coaxial system
d. firmware
e. satellite system
163. Interface electronic circuit is
used to interconnect
input/output devices to a
computers CPU or
a. ALU b. register c. buffer
d. memory e. control unit
164. One of the feature of office
that makes it easy to edit
embedded objects is known
as
a. Pasting
b. Visual Editing
c. Tools, Update, Links
d. Edit, Links
e. Copying
165. Which is true when you
insert an Excel worksheet
into a Word document?
a. Word is the destination
document.
b. Excel is the destination
document.
c. Word is the source document.
d. The worksheet is the
destination document.
e. The document is the source
document.
166. Which of the following is best
for quick copy operation?
a. Copy and Paste
b. Windows Clipboard
c. Drag and Drop
d. Auto Text
e. Auto Format
167. Personal computers used a 174. Which of the following
number of chips mounted performs modulation and
on a main circuit board. demodulation?
What is the common name a. Fibre optics b. Satellite
for such boards? c. Co-axial cable d. Modem
a. Daughter board e. Twisted pair cable
b. Black box c. Father board
d. Dash board e. Motherboard 175. What does 3.0 denote in the
term 3.0 GHz P IV?
168. Which computer memory is a. Clock speed
used for storing programs b. Power consumption
and data currently being c. Microprocessor architecture
processed by the CPU? d. Number of ports to attach
a. Mass memory peripherals
b. Internal memory e. Memory architecture
c. Non-volatile memory
d. PROM 176. Superscript, subscript, outline,
e. External memory emboss, engrave are known as
a. Text effects b. Font effects
169. Which of the following is not c. Word art d. Clip art
a type of software? e. Picture
a. System software
b. Application software 177. How to select one hyperlink
c. Utility software after another during a slide
d. Entertainment software presentation?
e. Multimedia software a. Ctrl + K b. Ctrl + D c. Tab
d. Ctrl + H e. Ctrl + S
170. Which characteristic of
computer distinguishes it 178. The boxes that are displayed
from electronic calculators? to indicate that the text,
a. Accuracy b. Storage pictures or objects are placed
c. Versatility d. Automatic in it, is called
e. None of these
a. Word Art b. Placeholder
171. When the pointer is c. Auto Text d. Text Box
positioned on a ............., it is
e. Clip Art
shaped like a hand. 179. Where the result of an
a. hyperlink b. grammar error arithmetic and logical
c. screen tip d. spelling error operation is stored?
e. formatting error
a. Accumulator
172. A set of rules that computer b. Cache memory
c. ROM
on a network use to d. RAM
communicate with each e. Instruction registry
other are called
a. Protocol b. Regulation 180. Automated office refers to the
c. Rule d. Netiquette merger of ......... in an office
e. Boundary environment.
a. computers
173. Two or more computers b. office
connected to each other for c. telecommunications
sharing information form a d. All of the above
a. pipeline b. router c. server e. Other than those given as
d. tunnel e. network options
181. After counting 0, 1, 10, 11, 190. What is the intersection of a 198. A form of access to a computer
the next binary number is column and a row on a or network with specified
a. 100 b. 12 c. 101 worksheet called? username and password is
d. 110 e. None a. Column b. Value c. Address referred to as
d. Cell e. Row a. Algorithm b. Address
182. What is the process of c. Account d. Log-in
copying software programs 191. The background of any e. Log-out
from secondary storage Word document
media to the hard disk called? a. is always of white colour 199. Which of the following
a. Configuration b. Download b. is always of grey colour would cause quickest access?
c. Storage d. Upload c. is the colour present under the a. Direct access from a magnetic
e. Installation option menu tape
d. is always the same for the entire b. Direct access from a cassette
183. A file is corrected immediately document tape
after the input of a transaction. e. can have any colour you choose c. Direct access from a floppy disk
This is an example of d. Direct access from a hard disk
a. online updating 192. When the margins on both e. Direct access from a solid state
b. batching sides are straight and equal, drive
c. sorting then there is ........... in 200. The part of machine level
d. off-line updating document. instruction, which fells the
e. searching a. full justification central procession what was
184. Computer follows a simple b. full alignment to be done is
c. left justification
principle called GIGO, which d. right justification a. Operation code
means b. Address c. Operand
e. partial justification
a. Garbage In Garbage Out d. Operator e. Storage
b. Garbage Input Good Output 193. What happens when you
c. Great Instructions Great Output press Ctrl + V key? Answers
d. Good Input Good Output a. A capital V letter is typed into your
e. Good Input Garbage Output 1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
document at the cursor point.
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
185. Pick out the wrong definition b. The selected item is pasted from
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (e) 14. (e) 15. (c)
the clipboard.
a. EDP acronym for Electronic 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
c. The selected item is pasted to
Data Processing 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (e) 25. (d)
the clipboard.
b. COBOL a language used for 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (e) 30. (d)
d. The selected drawing objects are
business data processing 31. (e) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (e)
distributed vertically on the page.
c. Control Unit heart of a 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (e)
e. The selected drawing objects
computer 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (e) 44. (b) 45. (b)
are distributed horizontally on
d. Access time time needed to 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (e)
the page.
access the output 51. (b) 52. (e) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d)
e. None of the above 194. Which hardware converts 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
computers digital signal to 61. (d) 62. (e) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c)
186. A large number of computers an analog signal that can 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d)
in a wide geographical area 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
travel over telephone line?
can be efficiently connected by 76. (d) 77. (e) 78. (e) 79. (d) 80. (a)
a. Router b. Modem 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (e)
a. twisted pair lines c. SMPS d. Repeater
b. co-axial cable 86. (e) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (b)
e. Ethernet cable
c. communication satellites 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (e) 94. (b) 95. (a)
d. modem 195. Programs such as Mozilla 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (c)
e. repeater Firefox that serve as 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (c)
106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (e) 110. (c)
187. Which of the following does navigable windows into the
111. (e) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (c) 115. (e)
not represent on web are called as 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (e) 120. (b)
Input/Output device? a. Hypertext b. Networks 121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (b)
a. Speaker which beeps c. Internet d. Web browsers 126. (d) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (a)
b. ALU c. Plotter e. world wide web 131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (d) 134. (c) 135. (c)
d. Joystick e. Light pen 196. Restarting a computer that is 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (d)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d)
188. What is the maximum already on, is referred to as
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (d) 150. (a)
number of primary a. Warm booting b. Cold booting 151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (c)
partitions that can be created c. Shut down d. Hibernate 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (d) 159. (d) 160. (b)
e. Stand by
on a hard disk? 161. (e) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (a)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 e. 5 197. Which of the following 166. (c) 167. (e) 168. (b) 169. (d) 170. (c)
option will you select to see 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (e) 174. (d) 175. (a)
189. Which key combination is how text and graphics will 176. (b) 177. (c) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (d)
used to close a open applica- 181. (d) 182. (e) 183. (a) 184. (a) 185. (d)
appear on the printed page? 186. (c) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (d)
tion in Windows machine?
a. Normal b. Print Layout 191. (e) 192. (a) 193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (d)
a. Alt + F8 b. Ctrl + X c. Alt + F4 c. Outline d. Web Layout
d. Shift + P e. Ctrl + F4 196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (d) 200. (c)
e. Master Layout

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 OCTOBER 4,
2015

IBPS CWE-V
PO/MT Part I English Language
Pre. Exam 2015

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of
the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer
is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

General Instructions 1. How serious is the country's/ economic problems, and how/ big an
impact will these/ have on the world economies?
This question paper has 100 a. How serious is the countrys b. economic problems, and how
multiple choice questions, which c. big an impact will these d. have on the world economies
are divided into three parts e. No error
namely English Language,
Quantitative Aptitude and 2. Shuber, the taxi service provider, is/ growing like a weed,/
Reasoning Ability. spending millions of rupees/ to establish its roots in the country.
a. Shuber, the taxi service provider, is b. growing like a weed,
Before the completion of time c. spending millions of rupees d. to establish its roots in the country
limit, the candidates are not e. No error
permitted to submit their 3. The survey asked respondents/ from more than 50 countries to/
answers. identify kinds of people/ they would want of neighbours.
a. The survey asked respondents b. from more than 50 countries to
To navigate between questions, c. identify kinds of people d. they would want of neighbours
the candidates can click on the e. No error
question number displayed to
the right of the screen. 4. The pace and scale of/ the countrys economic transformation/ have
no/ historical precedent.
Part Subject No. of Questions
a. The pace and scale of b. the countrys economic transformation
I English Language 30 c. have no d. historical precedent
e. No error
II Quantitative Aptitude 35
III Reasoning Ability 35 5. The countries most/ affected by the country's slowdown/ are likely
to be/ those whose export raw materials.
* Based on Memory a. The countries most b. affected by the country's slowdown
c. are likely to be d. those whose export raw materials
e. No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences/group of
sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. Its undefined. No one knows if you reach it. It gives the flexibility to
revise it later, he added.
B. Off late, doubts are being raised concerning the health of the worlds
second-largest economy, China.
C. This change is relatively small but suggests that the countrys effort to
meet its official growth target was tougher than it seemed.
 D. It comes as worries grow that China will struggle 11. he had mixed success in the past with
to reach this year's goal of about 7%. his new technique; this time around the player
E. Thats the beauty of using about in your had enough up his sleeve to win
targets, said IHS Global Insight economist Brian this match.
Jackson. a. Since; talent b. Despite; drama
F. The reasons for these doubts stem from the fact c. Although; tricks d. Because; energy
e. Hence; magic
that the country revised its 2014 growth rate to
7.3% from 7.5% due to a weaker than reported 12. Name of the roles offered to me the
contribution from the service sector. strong, funny and dynamic Indian woman that
6. Which of the following should be the FIRST I had grown up .
sentence after rearrangement? a. stated; today b. said; surrounded
c. reflected; around d. depicted; to
a. A b. C c. B d. F e. E e. assessed; within
7. Which of the following should be the SIXTH 13. The to the free sim-card scheme
(LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
offered by the telecom company has been
a. C b. F c. D d. B e. A
and most people expressed complete
8. Which of the following should be the FOURTH ignorance about the scheme.
sentence after rearrangement? a. reaction; stupendous b. access; cordial
a. A b. D c. C c. contract; simple d. takers; high
d. F e. E e. response; abysmal

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND 14. In our close relations it is easy to come
sentence after rearrangement? clever men and women, but
a. A b. B c. F to find virtuous ones.
d. D e. C a. find; simpler b. up; arduous c. see; terrible
d. across; difficult e. close; impossible
10. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
sentence after rearrangement? 15. Due to the number of swine-flu cases
a. A b. E c. D in the district, the health department has
d. F e. C decided to spread about the disease.
a. raising; alertness
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Each sentence below has b. populated; knowledge
two blanks, each blank indicates that something has c. prolonged; understanding
been omitted. Choose the words that best fits the d. increasing; awareness
meaning of the sentence as a whole. e. high; ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-25) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
There is good news in the form of Europe's unemployment falling from 11.1% in June to 10.0% in July. But
unemployment generally lags behind the economic cycle. Business surveys, which provide more up-to-date
readings of activity, point to a continuing subdued recovery in Europe. The European commission's long-running
economic-sentiment indicator, which combines business as well as consumer confidence and tends to track
GDP has been broadly stable since picking up in early 2015. This suggests that the Euro area is not about to
break out of its unspectacular growth. This is worrying because the euro-zone economy is benefitting from a
powerful triple stimulus. Lower energy costs caused by the slump in global oil prices have been providing the
same effect as a tax cut. A big programme of Quantitative Easing (QE); has been under way since, early in the
year under, which the European Central Bank (ECB) is creating money to buy 60 billion ($ 67 billion) of ponds
each month. As well as pushing down long-term interest rates QE as helped to keep the euro down on the
currency markets to the benefit of exporters. Given the extent of help that the euro area has been getting, growth
should be faster. The sluggish performance leaves it vulnerable to China's slowdown. A particular worry is the
impact of weakening Chinese growth on Germany, the hub economy of the region, whose resilience has been
crucial in sustaining Europe since the euro crisis started five years ago. One reason has been strong Chinese
demand for traditional German manufacturing strengths. Even though German exports appear to be holding up
for the time being, that boost from China is waning. Lacklustre growth in the euro area will in turn make it
harder for the ECB to meet its goal of pushing inflation back towards its goal of almost 2%. Although core
inflation (excluding in particular energy and food) has moved up from its low of 0.6% earlier this year, to 1.0%,
headline inflation has been stuck at 0.2% over the summer. There is increasing concern that the ECB's effort to
break the grip of lowflation will be swamped by global deflationary effects. The ECB's council is not expected to
make a change in policy and is likely to indicate that the ECB recognises the downside risk to growth and stands
ready to respond if they materialise. That may in turn produce a policy erasing later this year. One option would
be to raise the amount of assets that it is buying each month from the current amount of 60 billion. A more likely
decision would be for the ECB to extend the planned length of its purchase some for another year. Whether that
is enough is question for another day.

119
16. What is the authors view regarding the reforms a. Only B b. Only A
implemented by ECB? c. All of these d. A and C
e. B and C
a. He is outraged that these measures are being continued.
b. He is doubtful about the reforms as inflation is rising. 23. Choose the word which is most opposite in
c. These reforms are tough and unpopular in Euro meaning to the word Materialise given in
countries. bold as used in the passage.
d. These are not focused and have not been effective at all. a. Disappear b. Perform
e. Other than those given as options c. Terrorise d. Occur
e. Substance
17. What do the statistics cited in the passage about
ECB convey? 24. Which of the following is the central idea of
a. Its stimulus package for Europe's economy is too low the passage?
in value. a. The European economy is buoyant as its energy and
b. ECB is likely to fast run out of bailout funds. manufacturing sectors are doing well.
c. Despite the ECBs best efforts, its reforms have been b. Emerging markets have been responsible for
unsuccessful. Europe's slow economic performance.
d. It is time ECB withdraws its stimulus package to rich c. The European Central Bank is denial about the
countries. imminent crisis Europe is facing.
e. ECB has not been proactive in the economic recovery. d. Europe has reduced its exposure to America
and Asia.
18. Choose the word which is most opposite in e. The European economy is stagnating leaving it
meaning to the word Subdued given in bold vulnerable to future crises.
as used in the passage. 25. Choose the word which is most nearly the
a. Passive b. Necessary same in meaning to the word Grip given in
c. Sleep d. Diluted
bold as used in the passage.
e. Expansive
a. Understanding b. Authority
19. Choose the word which is most opposite in c. Awareness d. Clutches
meaning to the word Broadly given in bold as e. Fascination
used in the passage. Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following passage,
a. Widely b. Barely there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
c. Softly d. Responsibly Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits
e. Dimly
the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
20. Which of the following best describes the each case.
conclusion which can be drawn from economic Creating a few more schools or allowing hundreds of
indicators from Europe? colleges and private universities to (26) is not going to
a. Investors do not have confidence in European markets. solve the crisis of education in India. And a crisis it is
b. Germany in the only economy unaffected by the crisis we are in a country where people are spending their
of 2008 and Chinas slowdown. parents savings and borrowed money on
c. Tax rates in Europe are being raised which has educationand even then not getting standard
hampered growth. education, and struggling to find employment of their
d. By and large Europes economic performance is (27). In this country, millions of students are (28) of an
steady but not accelerating. unrealistic, pointless, mindless rat race. The mind
e. Europe has not taken measures to protect itself from numbing competition and rote learning not only (29)
the crisis in emerging markets. the creativity and originality of millions of Indian
21. Which of the following is true in the context of students every year, but also (30) brilliant students to
the passage? adopt drastic measures.
a. Germany's economic performance is linked to the 26. a. base b. mushroom
Chinese market. c. point d. set
b. Europe's large economies have recovered from the e. crop
global crisis.
c. Exorbitant oil prices are negating the effects of ECBs 27. a. parents b. money
stimulus. c. fashion d. equal
d. Europe's unemployment rate is rising but it may not e. choice
continue to do so.
e. None of the given options is true in the context of
28. a. victims b. member
c. party d. associates
the passage. e. together
22. According to the passage, which of the 29. a. crush b. flourish
following has affected inflation in Europe? c. stir d. halting
A. Global deflation is prevailing. e. push
B. Frequent rising of ECBs interest rates. 30. a. aim b. drive
C. The ECB has withdrawn its Quantitative c. stop d. responsible
Erasing programme. e. make

120
 Part II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the table and answer a. 1/14 b. 2/7 c. 5/7
the given questions. d. 3/14 e. None of these
Data Related to Number of Employees in 5 Different 37. The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder
Companies in December, 2012 is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is
Total Out of Total Number of Employees 1672 m 2 , what is the volume of the cylinder?
Number of Percentage Percentage of Percentage a. 3080 m 3 b. 2940 m 3 c. 3220 m 3
Company
Employees of Science Commerce of Art d. 2660 m 3 e. 2800 m 3
Graduates Graduates Graduates
M 1050 32% Directions (Q. Nos. 38-42) What will come in place of
N 700 31% 40% question mark (?) in the given number series?
O 30% 30%
P 40% 20% 38. 264 262 271 243 308 ?
Q 35% 50% a. 216 b. 163 c.194 d. 205 e. 182

Note I. Employees of the given companies can be cate- 39. 1.5 2.5 7 24 100 ?
gorised only in three types : Science graduates, a. 345 b. 460 c. 525 d. 380 e. 505
Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.
II. Few values are missing in the table (indicated by 40. 71 78 92 120 ? 288
). A candidate is expected to calculate the a. 160 b. 164 c. 199 d. 208 e. 176
missing value, if it is required to answer the 41. 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?
given question, on the basis of the given data a. 192 b. 80 c. 114 d. 76 e. 90
and information.
42. 79 39 19 94 ?
31. What is the difference between the number of a. 0. 2 b. 1.5 c. 0.5 d. 2 e. 1
Arts graduate employees and Science graduate
employees in Company N? 43. The respective ratio between the speed of the
a. 87 b. 89 c. 77 d. 81 e. 73 boat upstream and speed of the boat
downstream is 2 : 3. What is the speed of the
32. The average number of Arts graduate boat in still water if it covers 42 km
employees and Commerce graduate employees downstream in 2 h 20 min?
in Company Q was 312. What was the total
a. 13.5 km/h b. 15 km/h c. 14.5 km/h
number of employees in Company Q? d. 12 km/h e. Other than those given as options
a. 920 b. 960 c. 1120 d. 1040 e. 1080
44. Present age of Raman is equal to the Meeras 8
33. If the respective ratio between number of years back age. The ratio between Meeras and
Commerce graduate employees and Arts Ramans age after four years will be 5 : 4. What
graduate employees in Company M was 10 : 7., is the present age of Raman?
what was the number of Arts graduate a. 28 yr b. 24 yr c.32 yr d. 40 yr e. 20 yr
employees in M?
a. 294 b. 266 c. 280 d. 308 e. 322 Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) What should come at the
place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
34. Total number of employees in Company N
increased by 20% from December, 2012 to 2013. 45. 421 35 299. 97 25. 05 = ? 2
If 30% of the total number of employees in a. 22 b. 24 c. 28 d. 12 e. 18
Company N in December, 2013 was Science
graduates, what was the number of Science 46. 197 6 . 99 + 626. 96 = ?
graduate employees in Company N in a. 885 b. 725 c. 825 d. 650 e. 675
December, 2013? 47. 19. 99 15 . 98 + 224 . 98 + 125 . 02 = ?
a. 224 b. 266 c. 294 d. 252 e. 238 a. 620 b. 580 c. 670 d. 560 e. 520
35. Total number of employees in Company P was 48. 3214 . 99 + 285 . 02 + 600 . 02 4 . 01 = ?
3 times the total number of employees in a. 3650 b. 4120 c. 4200
Company O. If the difference between number d. 3225 e. 3400
of Arts graduate employees in Company P and
that in Company O was 180, what was the total 49. ?% of 1239. 96 + 59. 87% of 449. 95 = 579. 05
number of employees in Company O? a. 35 b. 15 c. 25 d. 20 e. 30
a. 1200 b. 1440 c. 720 d. 900 e. 1080
50. A man sold an article for ` 6800 and incurred a
36. A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and loss. Had he sold the article for ` 7850, his gain
5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at random would have been equal to half of the amount
from the bag, one after another, what is the of loss that he incurred. At what price should
probability that first ball is red and the second he sell the article to have 20% profit?
ball is yellow? a. ` 7500 b. ` 9000 c. ` 8000 d. ` 8500 e. ` 9200

121
 51. A certain sum is divided among P , Q and R is 60. The number of watches sold in Town X in July
1 zwas 10% more than the number of watches
such a way that P gets ` 40 more than the of
2 sold in the same Town in May. What is the
3 respective ratio between the number of
the sum. Q gets ` 120 less than th of the sum
8 watches sold in July and those sold in January
and R gets ` 200. What is the total sum? in the same town?
a. ` 960 b. ` 850 c. ` 906 a. 34: 23 b. 32: 25 c. 31: 20
d. ` 805 e. None of these d. 33: 23 e. 33: 20
Directions (Q. Nos. 52-56) In these questions, two 61. What is the difference between the total number
equations numbered I and II are given. You to solve both of watches sold in both the towns together in
the equations and mark the appropriate option. June and the total number of watches sold in
Give answer both the towns together in March?
a. if x > y b. if x < y a. 50 b. 90 c. 60 d. 70 e. 80
c. if x y d. if x y
e. if relationship between x and y cannot be established 62. A tank has two inlets : P and Q. P alone takes
52. I. 3 x + 11 x + 6 = 0 2 2
II. 3 y + 10 y + 8 = 0 6 hours and Q alone takes 8 hours to fill the
empty tank completely when there is no
53. I. 3 x 2 7 x + 2 = 0 II. 2 y 2 9 y + 10 = 0 leakage. A leakage was caused which would
empty the full tank completely in X hours
54. I. x 2 = 9 II. 2 y 2 19 y + 44 = 0 when no inlet is open. Now, when only inlet P
55. I. 2 x 2 15 x + 28 = 0 II. 4 y 2 23 y + 30 = 0 was opened, it took 15 hours to fill the empty
tank completely. How much time will Q alone
56. I. 2 x 2 15 x + 27 = 0 II. 5 y 2 26 y + 33 = 0 take to fill the empty tank completely?
a. 15 h b. 10 h c. 17 h
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) Refer to the graph and d. 20 h e. 28 h
answer the given questions.
Number of Watches of PQR Brand Sold in 63. At present, the respective ratio between the
Town X and Y in 6 Different Months ages of A and B is 3 : 8 and that between A and
Number of Watches Sold

300 C is 1 : 4. Three years ago, the sum of ages of A,

250 B and C will be 83 years. What is the present
200 age of C?
150 a. 32 yr b. 12 yr c. 48 yr d. 54 yr e. 15 yr
100
50 64. The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the
0 sum invested in Scheme A. Investment in
Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% per annum
January February March April May June simple interest and in Scheme B for 2 years at
Town X 120 140 180 150 180 240
13% per annum simple interest. The total
Town Y 220 120 150 210 230 180
interest earned from both the schemes is 1320.
57. What is the average number of watches sold in How much was invested in Scheme A?
Town X in January, February, March and June? a. ` 1200 b. ` 1140 c. ` 960
d. ` 1500 e. ` 840
a. 180 b. 190 c. 175 d. 170 e. 185
58. The number of watches sold in Town Y in April 65. Kim and Om are travelling from point A to B,
is what percent more than the number of which are 400 km apart. Travelling at a certain
watches sold in Town X in the same month? speed Kim takes one hour more than Om to
a. 42% b. 40% c. 30% d. 50% e. 38%
reach point B. If Kim doubles her speed she
will take 1 hour 30 min less than Om to reach
59. The number of watches sold in Town Y increased point B. At what speed was Kim driving from
by what percent from February to May? point A to B?
1 2 2 a. 90 km/h b. 70 km/h c. 160 km/h
a. 96% b. 92 % c. 97% d. 91 % e. 95 %
3 3 3 d. 80 km/h e. 100 km/h

Part III Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) In these questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II
have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to at variance from commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows b. if only conclusion II follows c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows e. if both conclusions I and II follow
66. Statements Some tasks are hurdles. All hurdles are jobs. Some jobs are works.
Conclusions I. All works being hurdles is a possibility.
II. At least some works are tasks.
 67. Statements Some tasks are hurdles. 75. What is the position of U with respect to S?
All hurdles are jobs. a. Third to the right b. Immediate left
Some jobs are works. c. Second to the left d. Second to the right
e. Immediate right
Conclusions I. Some jobs are tasks.
II. All jobs are tasks. 76. Which of the following statements is true
regarding N?
68. Statements Some problems are solutions. a. Only two persons sit between N and M.
No solution is a trick. b. N sits at an extreme end of the row.
All rules are tricks. c. N faces one of the immediate neighbours of R.
Conclusions I. No rule is a solution. d. None of the given statements is true.
e. L sits to the immediate right of N.
II. Some problems are definitely
not tricks. 77. Who amongst the following is facing T?
69. Statements All ministers are deans. a. N b. M c. K d. J e. L

Some deans are heads. Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) In these questions,
Some heads are principals. relationship between different elements is shown is the
Conclusions I. No principal is a minister. statement(s). The statements are followed by
II. All heads being ministers is a conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given
possibility. statements and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
70. Statements No queue is a line. a. if only conclusion I follows
Some queues are rows. b. if only conclusion II follows
Conclusions I. No row is a line. c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. All rows are lines. e. if both conclusion I and II follow
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-72) Study the following 78. Statements P < L A= N E D; Q N < O
information and answer the given questions.
Conclusions I. L E II. P < Q
D is the father of A. D is married to P. P is the mother of J. P
has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is the son of L. 79. Statements P U = N C H > S; K C
71. How is J related to L? Conclusions I. P C II. U > H
a. Daughter b. Granddaughter 80. Statements P < L A = N E D; Q N < O
c. Cannot be determined d. Niece
e. Daughter-in-law Conclusions I. Q D II. A < D
72. How is A related to U? 81. Statement D I > S M A < L
a. Cannot be determined b. Brother-in-law Conclusions I. D A II. L> I
c. Brother d. Sister
e. Sister-in-law 82. Statements P U = N C H > S; K C
Directions (Q. Nos. 73-77) Study the given information Conclusions I. K > U II. U = K
carefully and answer the given questions. Directions (Q. Nos. 83-87) Study the given information
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing carefully to answer the given questions.
five people each, in such a way that there is equal In certain code language,
distance between adjacent persons. In row1 J, K, L, M committee to review papers is written as es fr re pt
and N are seated (not necessarily in the same order) review meeting in morning is written as ch ba mo fr
and all of them are facing North. In row-2 R, S, T, U and
meeting to appoint members is written as re dv ch gi
V are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all
of them are facing South. Therefore in the given seating appoint chairman in review is written as mo gi fr yu
arrangement each member seated in a row faces (All the codes are two-letter codes only)
another member of the other row.
83. What is the code for morning in the given
V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two code language?
people sit between V and R. The one who faces R sits to
a. mo b. yu c. ch
the immediate left of L. Only one person sits between L d. Other than those given as options e. ba
and K. The one who faces K sits to the immediate left of
S. N sits second to the right of J. Neither K nor L face U. 84. In the given code language, what does the
code pt stands for?
73. Who amongst the following is facing M? a. appoint b. Either papers or committee
a. U b. R c. T d. V e. S c. morning d. review
e. Either for or members
74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and 85. What is the code for review call in the given
hence form a group. Which of them does not code language?
belong to that group? a. dv Iq b. Iq gi c. Iq fr
a. NK b. JL c. ML d. RU e. ST d. gi es e. fr dv

123
 86. What is the code for to in the given code a. S b. T c. R d. U e. V
language? 94. If the number of occupants of bus R is more than 7
a. mo b. fr c. gi d. dv e. re and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but
87. If appoint new members is coded as dv wz gi not 5, how many occupants are there in bus R?
in the given code language, then what is the a. 9 b. 21 c. 15 d. 27 e. 19
code for new chairman meeting? 95. How many occupants does bus V possibly have?
a. wz ch es b. ch wz yu c. yu mo wz a. 43 b. 72 c. 20 d. 46 e. 68
d. fr es wz e. ch yu fr
Directions (Q. Nos. 88-92) Study the given information Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100 ) Study the following
carefully to answer the given questions. information and answer the questions.
C, D, E, F, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q. R and S have an
table facing the centre with equal distance between each anniversary but not necessarily in the same order, in seven
other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one different months (of the same year) namely February,
of them is also related to D in some way or the other. P March, April, June, September, October and November.
sits third to the right of E. D sits to the immediate left of Each of them also likes a different flower namely Rose,
E. Only one person sits between P and D's son. R sits to Jasmine, Lily, Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower and Orchid,
the immediate right of D's son. Only three people sit but not necessarily in the same order.
between D's husband and R. Only one person sits R has an anniversary in the month which has more than
between D's husband and C. F sits to the immediate right 30 days. Only one person has an anniversary between R
of Q. Ds father sits second to the right of F. Only three and the one who likes rose. Both S and O have an
people sit between Ds father and Ds brother. Ds anniversary in one of the months after the one who likes
daughter sits second to the right of S. Ds sister sits third Rose. S has an anniversary immediately before O. The
to the right of Ds mother. one who likes Lily has an anniversary in the month which
has less than 30 days. Only three people have an
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE anniversary between the one who likes Lily and the one
with respect to the given information? who likes Orchid. Only two people have an anniversary
a. S is the brother of R. between S and the one who likes Marigold. P has an
b. Only three people sit between Q and S.
anniversary immediately after the one who likes
c. E sits third to the right of D's daughter.
d. All the given options are true. Marigold. Only two people have an anniversary between
e. R is an immediate neighbour of D. P and Q. M has an anniversary immediately before the
one who likes Jasmine. O does not like Sunflower.
89. Who amongst the following is the brother of D?
a. Q b. E c. F d. C e. R 96. Which of the following represents the month in
which S has an anniversary?
90. As per the given seating arrangement, Q : P in a. Cannot be determined b. October
the same way as R : E. Then following the same c. March d. April
pattern D : ? e. September
a. R b. S c. Q d. C e. F
97. Which of the following does O like?
91. Who sits to the immediate left of Ds son? a. Rose b. Jasmine c. Marigold
a. Ds father b. R c. Q d. Daffodil e. Orchid
d. S e. Ds mother
98. As per the given arrangement, Lily is related to
92. How is Q related to P? April and Marigold is related to September
a. Sister b. Sister-in-law c. Niece following a certain pattern, which of the following
d. Brother-in-law e. Aunt is Orchid related to following the same pattern?
Directions (Q. Nos. 93- 95) Read the given information a. February b. June c. October
carefully and answer the given questions. d. November e. March
Each of the six buses R, S, T, U, V and W has different 99. Which of the following represents the people
number of occupants. T has more number of occupants who have an anniversary in April and
than R and S but less than V. U has less number of November respectively?
occupants than only W. S does not have the lowest a. N, M b. Q, M c. Q, O d. N, O e. N, S
number of occupants. The bus having second lowest
number of occupants has 20 occupants and the bus 100. How many people have an anniversary
having second highest number of occupants has 64 between the months in which Q and M have an
occupants. T has 21 less number of occupants than U. anniversary?
93. Which of the following buses has third lowest a. None b. One c. Three
d. Two e. More than three
number of occupants?

Answers & Explanations

1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a). 24. (e) 25. (d)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (a) 26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (e)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (d) 15. (d) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d)
16. (b) 17. (e) 18. (e) 19. (b) 20. (d) 36. (e) 37. (a) 38. (e) 39. (e) 40. (e)
41. (e) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (d) 1100 1100 8 2 66. (a)
= = = 91 = 91 %
46. (b) 197 6. 99 + 626. 96 = ? 120 12 12 3 Job
60. (e) Number of watches sold in July in Task Hurdle
(?) = 196 7 + 627
180 110
= 14 7 + 627 Town X = = 198 Work
100
(?) = 725 Number of watches sold in January in
47. (c) 48. (b) Town X = 120 Conclusions I. () II. ()
198 66 33 So, only conclusion I follows.
49. (c) ? % of 1240 + 60% of 450 = 580 Required ratio = = =
120 40 20
~ ? 60 67. (c)
1240 + 450 = 580 = 33 : 20
100 100 Job
~
? 12.40 + 270 = 580
61. (b) Total number of watches sold in Task Hurdle
both the town together in June
? 12.40 = 310 = 240 + 180 = 420 Work
310
? = = 25 Total number of watches sold in both
12.4 the town together in March Conclusions I. Complementary
50. (b) Let the loss incurred be ` x = 180 + 150 = 330 pair
II.
According to question, Required difference
= 420 330 = 90 So, either conclusion I or II follows.
CP = x + 6800 (i)
x 62. (e) Let, empty tank will be completely 68. (e) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (e) 72. (b)
CP + = 7850 (ii)
2 filled by inlet Q in t hours 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (e)
Solving Eqs (i) and (ii) Then, tank filled by P and Q in t hours Solutions (Q. Nos. 78-82) According to
x + Portion filled by P in t hours = 1 the given information.
x + 6800 + = 7850 t t (t + 15)
2 + =1 78. (b) Statements P < L A = N E D;
3x 6 8 6
= 1050 4 t + 3 t 4 t 60 Q N< O
2 =1 Q
1050 2 24

x= 3 t 60 3 (t 20) Therefore, P<L A=NED
3 =1 =1

>
24 24 O
x = 700
t 20 = 8 t = 8 + 20
CP = 700 + 6800 = ` 7500 Conclusions I. L E ()
t = 28 h
SP to hare 20% profit II. P < Q ()
Hence, Inlet Q will alone completely
120 So, only conclusion II follows.
= 7500 = ` 9000 filled the tank in 28 h.
100 79. (a) Statements P U = N C > H > S;
63. (c) The present age of A, B and C are
51. (a) 52. (e) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (e) 3 x, 8 x and 12 x respectively. K C
56. (c) I. 2 x 2 15 x + 27 = 0 According to the question, 3 yr ago There fere,
i.e., 3 x 3 + 8 x 3 + 12 x 3 = 83 PU=NC>H>S
2 x 2 6 x 9 x + 27 = 0

3 x + 8 x + 12 x 9 = 83 K
2 x ( x 3) 9 ( x 3) = 0
23 x = 92 Conclusions I. P C ()
(2 x 9) ( x 3) = 0 92
x= II. U > H ()
9
x= ,3 23 So, only conclusion I follows.
2
x=4
II. 5 y 2 26 y + 33 = 0 80. (a) Statements P < L A = N E D;
Present age of C
2 Q N< O
5 y 15 y 11y + 33 = 0 = 12 x = 12 4 = 48 yr.
Therefore, Q

5 y ( y 3) 11 ( y 3) = 0 64. (a) Let the sum invested in Scheme A P<L A=NED

( 5 y 11) ( y 3) = 0 = `x
<

11 O
Ny = , 3 and the sum invested in Scheme B
Conclusions I. Q D ()
5 = `3 x
x 4 8 3 x 2 13 II. A < D ()
Hence, x y + = 1320
100 100 So, only conclusion I follows.
57. (d) Average number of watches sold
in Town X in January, February, March 32 x 78 x 110 x 81. (d) Statements D I > S M A < L
+ = 1320 = 1320
and June 100 100 100 Conclusions I. D A ()
120 + 140 + 180 + 240 680 1320 II. L > I ()
= = = 170 x= 100
4 4 110 So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
x = ` 1200 82. (c) Statements P U = N C H > S;
58. (b) Number of watches sold in Town Y
in April = 210 The sum invested in scheme A K C
Number of watches sold in Town X in = ` 1200
There fore,
April = 150 65. (d) Let the speed of Kim be x km/h and P U = N C H > S

Required percentage speed of Om be y km/h.

K
210 150 According to question, Conclusions
= 100 = 40%
150 400 400
=1 (i) I. K > U Complementary
x y pair
59. (d) Number of watches sold in Town Y II. U = K
in February = 120 400 400 1
=1 (ii) So, either conclusion I or II follows.
Number of watches sold in Town Y in y 2x 2
83. (e) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (e) 87. (b)
May = 230 Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii),
Required percentage We get, x = 80 km/h 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (e)
230 120 110 y = 100 km/h 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (d)
= 100 = 100
120 120 Hence, speed of Kim be 80 km/h. 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)

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