OCET 2010

Code No.: 210101

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Paper : I
Subject : M.Tech. (Instrumentation)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Code No. of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. If you want to change an already marked answer, erase the shade in the darkened bubble completely.
10. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
11. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
12. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
13. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
14. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
15. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
16. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer
whose decision shall be final.
17. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
 M.Tech. (Instrumentation)/210101
1. ______ can not be used to measure pressure.
(A) Strain gauge (B) Pyrometer
(C) LVDT (D) Pirani gauge
2. Which of the following is the best method for the measurement of temperature of the hot bodies
radiating energy in the visible spectrum ?
(A) Thermopile (B) Bolometer
(C) Optical Pyrometers (D) Thermocouple
3. Which may be used to measure accurately the inter-electrode capacitance ?
(A) VTVM (B) DE Sauty’s Bridge
(C) Wein’s Bridge (D) Schering Bridge
4. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only
(A) Junction in the networks (B) Battery e.m.fs.
(C) Closed loop in networks (D) Electric circuits
5. The circuits whose properties are same in either direction is known as
(A) Unilateral circuit (B) Bilateral circuit
(C) Irreversible circuit (D) Reversible circuit
6. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference (in degrees) between
the current and voltage is
(A) 180 (B) 90
(C) 60 (D) 0
7. Maxwell’s curl equation for the static electric field E can be expressed as
(A) Δ × E = 0 (B) Δ × E = Constant
(C) Δ · E = Constant (D) Δ · E = 0
8. The electric field at the equipotential surface is
(A) Zero (B) Infinite
(C) Always parallel to the surface (D) Always perpendicular to the surface
9. Air is considered as
(A) Ferromagnetic (B) Diamagnetic
(C) Non-magnetic (D) Paramagnetic
10. The transient response with the feedback system
(A) rises slowly (B) rises quickly
(C) decays slowly (D) decays quickly
11. In an automatic control system which of the following is not used ?
(A) Error Detector (B) Sensor
(C) Final Control Element (D) Oscillator
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12. In a control system the output of the controller is given to the
(A) Final Control Element (B) Amplifier
(C) Comparator (D) Sensor
13. Conduction of electrons through conductor takes place by
(A) Photons (B) Neutrons
(C) Bound electrons (D) Free electrons
14. One eV of energy is equivalent to
(A) 2·0 ergs (B) 1·6 × 10–19 joule
(C) 0·16 × 10–19 joule (D) 3·14 × 10–19 joule
15. Fermi level represents the energy level with probability of its occupation of
(A) Zero (B) 25%
(C) 50% (D) 100%
16. A semiconductor in its purest form is called
(A) Insulator (B) Superconductor
(C) Instrinsic semiconductor (D) Extrinsic semiconductor
17. ______ has the highest mobility.
(A) Electron (B) Positive ions
(C) Negative ions (D) Neutrons
18. A notch or a tab on the transistor cap denotes
(A) Emitter pin (B) Base pin
(C) Collector pin (D) Not a transistor
19. In FET the drain voltage above which there is no increase in the drain current is called ______
voltage.
(A) Pick-off (B) Pinch-off
(C) Breakdown (D) Critical
20. The operation of a JFET involves a flow of
(A) Minority Carriers (B) Majority Carriers
(C) Recombination Carriers (D) Size of Depletion Region
21. The line frequency of TV system in India is
(A) 50 Hz (B) 625 Hz
(C) 15,625 Hz (D) 16,265 Hz
22. In TV system
(A) Picture is A.M. & sound is F.M. (B) Picture is F.M. & sound is A.M.
(C) Picture & sound both are F.M. (D) Picture & sound both are A.M.
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23. The aspect ratio in TV receiver is
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 5 : 4
24. Which of the following devices does not have negative resistance characteristics ?
(A) UJT (B) Tunnel Diode
(C) SCR (D) FET
25. As compared to UJT, SUS
(A) Triggers only in one direction (B) Does not have –ve resistance characteristics
(C) Needs definite polarity of applied voltage (D) Triggers only at one particular voltage
26. Which of the following PN PN device has two gates ?
(A) Triac (B) SCS
(C) SUS (D) Diac
27. DTL stands for
(A) Delayed tracking logic (B) Diode transistor logic
(C) Digital timing logic (D) Dynamic transient logic
28. A ring counter is same as
(A) Shift Register (B) Parallel Counter
(C) Up-Down Counter (D) Decade Counter
29. A BYTE stands for a string of ______ BITS.
(A) Two (B) Four
(C) Eight (D) Twelve
30. Which of the following circuits can be used as parallel-to-serial converter ?
(A) Multiplexer (B) De-multiplexer
(C) Decoder (D) Digital Counter
31. The D flip-flop and T flip-flop are respectively used as
(A) Delay and Toggle Switch (B) Toggle switch and delay gate
(C) Both used as toggle switch (D) Both used as delay gates
32. Subroutines are used in larger programs not
(A) To reduce program extension time (B) To increase programming ease
(C) To reduce storage equipment (D) For ease debugging during programming
33. Which of the following is not hardware ?
(A) Printer (B) CRT
(C) Card (D) Assembler

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34. _______ language uses mnemonic op-codes.
(A) Machine (B) BASIC
(C) Assembly (D) High level
35. A device that converts from decimal to binary number is called
(A) Decoder (B) Encoder
(C) CPU (D) Converter
36. What does 4 K represents ?
(A) 4000 (B) 4048
(C) 4096 (D) 4182
37. Which of the following hexadecimal to decimal conversion is incorrect ?
(A) FFh = 255d (B) C8h = 210d
(C) 4Eh = 78d (D) 2Fh = 47d
38. Which of the following flip-flops is used as latch ?
(A) JK F/F (B) D F/F
(C) RS F/F (D) T F/F
39. In the expression A(A + B) by writing the first term A as A + 0, the expression is best simplified as
(A) A + AB (B) AB
(C) A (D) A + B
40. The sum S of A and B in a half adder can be implemented by using K NAND gates. The value of K
is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
41. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are
(A) Loop Antennas (B) Log Periodic Antenna
(C) Parabolic Antenna (D) Rhombic Antenna
42. The logic represented by the abbreviation ECL is
(A) Emitter Coupled Logic (B) Electron Carrier Logic
(C) Encoding Clock Logic (D) Electrostatic Channel Logic
43. While ______ is the fastest unsaturated logic gate ______ has excellent noise immunity.
(A) ECL, TTL (B) TTL, ECL
(C) ECL, RTL (D) RTL, DTL
44. A shift register can be used for all of the following except
(A) Ring Counter (B) A/D Conversion
(C) Series to Parallel Conversion (D) Generation of Delay
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45. Programmable logic array uses
(A) RAM matrices (B) ROM matrices
(C) PROM matrices (D) Silo memory
46. ______ is a substance which changes its electrical resistance when illuminated by light.
(A) Photoconductive (B) Photoelectric
(C) Photovoltaic (D) Photomultiplier
47. Which of the following rectifiers requires minimum amount of filtering ?
(A) SCR half wave rectifier (B) Half wave rectifier
(C) Full wave rectifier (D) Voltage doubler circuit
48. Inverters as compared to oscillators provide _______ output.
(A) High frequency (B) Low frequency
(C) Distortionless (D) Highly stabilized
49. A DVM measures ______ value.
(A) Average (B) R.M.S.
(C) Peak-To-Peak (D) Peak
50. A low Q factor has
(A) Flat response (B) Peaked response
(C) Lower losses (D) Higher losses & flat response
51. Dead Zone of an instrument is
(A) The largest change of input quantity for which there is no output of the instrument
(B) The unmeasured quantity which is more than maximum range of the instrument
(C) Low sensitivity
(D) High sensitivity
52. Hall’s effect pick-up is not used for the measurement of
(A) Flux density (B) Current through the metal
(C) Electron concentration in a semi-conductor (D) Resistivity of the metals
53. Compared with a bipolar transistor voltmeter, a vacuum tube voltmeter is
(A) Superior (B) Inferior
(C) Equally good (D) Test wide band amplifiers
54. Helipots are
(A) Multi turn potentiometers (B) Defects in metallic transducers
(C) Primary sensor to measure X-ray (D) Thermopiles
55. The transducer that converts the input physical phenomenon into an electrical output in the form
of pulses are known as
(A) Secondary transducer (B) Tuned transducer
(C) Analogue transducer (D) Digital transducer
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56. A decade counter requires
(A) 10 F/F (B) 4 F/F
(C) 3 F/F (D) 2 F/F
57. Constantan is an alloy of
(A) Nickel and copper (B) Nickel and silver
(C) Lead and zinc (D) Aluminium and copper
58. Which of the following primary transducers does not convert velocity to pressure ?
(A) Orifice (B) Venturi
(C) Pitot tube (D) Vanes
59. Class-A amplifier is used when
(A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest v/g gain is required
(C) D.C. v/gs are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired
60. Which amplifier would be preferred for highest gain ?
(A) Darlington’s pair (B) Single stage amplifier
(C) Cascade amplifier (D) Depends upon circuitry
61. Class-B amplifier has less efficiency compared to
(A) Class-A (B) Class-B
(C) Class-C (D) A, AB and C
62. Common mode rejection ratio for an op-amp should be
(A) Close to zero (B) Close to unity
(C) As small as possible (D) As large as possible
63. In op-amp a virtual ground is a ground for
(A) Voltage but not for current (B) Current but not voltage
(C) Both current and voltage (D) Neighter current nor voltage
64. In an op-amp by using binary weighted resistors the summing ckt
(A) can build a D/A converter (B) can build a A/D converter
(C) can be used as differentiator (D) can be used as an integrator
65. Which among the following is not an imaging technique ?
(A) Ultrasound (B) X-ray
(C) NMR (D) Diathermy
66. For recording bioelectric potential of neuronal activity of the brain the instrument used is
(A) ECG (B) EMG
(C) EEG (D) EOG

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67. The amplifier used in signal conditioner of ECG unit operates on frequency band of
(A) dc to 10 kHz (B) 15 kHz to 25 kHz
(C) 11 kHz to 20 kHz (D) 30 kHz to 3 MHz
68. In amplitude modulation, the modulation index lies between
(A) –1 to 1 (B) 0 to 1
(C) 1 to infinity (D) – infinity to + infinity
69. FM broadcasting is done using
(A) Medium waves (B) Short waves
(C) VHF and UHF waves (D) Microwaves
70. Find the odd one
(A) TRAP (B) SID
(C) SOD (D) PSW
71. Flag bits in ALU provide which of the following ?
(A) Facility to recheck (B) Status type information
(C) Repeatability (D) Branching facility
72. Find the odd one
(A) 8051 (B) 8251
(C) 8751 (D) 8951
73. Most popular oscillator configuration for audio applications is
(A) Hartley Oscillator (B) Colpitt’s Oscillator
(C) Wein-bridge Oscillator (D) R-C Phase Shift Oscillator
74. One of the following oscillator types provides extremely stable output frequency
(A) Hartley Oscillator (B) Colpitt’s Oscillator
(C) Crystal Oscillator (D) Clapp Oscillator
75. A unique advantageous feature of CMOS logic family is its
(A) Speed (B) Use of NMOS circuits
(C) Dependence on frequency (D) Power dissipation in nW range

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 ROUGH WORK

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 ROUGH WORK

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