OCET 2010

Code No.: 210101

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Code No. of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
 M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/210101
1. Frequency divider is :
(A) Locked oscillator divider (B) Bistable multivibrator divider
(C) Astable multivibrator divider (D) Regenerative divider
2. The spectral density of white noise is :
(A) Exponential (B) Uniform
(C) Poisson (D) Gaussian
3. In a delta modulation system, the granular noise occurs when the :
(A) Modulation signal increases rapidly (B) Pulse rate decreases
(C) Modulating signal remains constant (D) Pulse amplitude decreases
4. The SSB can be obtained from balanced modulator by connecting a ______ at its output.
(A) adder (B) clipper
(C) filter (D) buffer
5. The waiting time for telephonic conversation via communication satellite is of the order of :
(A) 250 m sec (B) 540 m sec
(C) 200 m sec (D) 740 m sec
6. Short term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by :
(A) Increased transmitted power (B) Changing the antenna
(C) Changing the modulation scheme (D) Diversity reception and transmission
7. Long wave AM broadcast transmitters need :
(A) Very large carrier power (B) Large carrier power
(C) Small carrier power (D) Very small carrier power
8. To separate channels in an FDM receiver, it is necessary to use :
(A) AND gate (B) Bandpass filter
(C) Differentiation (D) Integration
9. Which of the following crystal filter is used only at the higher frequencies ?
(A) Ladder (B) Full lattice
(C) Half lattice (D) Crystal gate
10. In a satellite system, circular polarization is to be obtained. The antenna used is :
(A) parabolic antenna (B) horn antenna
(C) log-periodic antenna (D) helical antenna
11. The effect of adding poles and zeros can be studied quickly for determining phase and gain margin
from :
(A) Nicholas plot (B) Nyquist plot
(C) Bode plot (D) Magnitude versus phase plot
M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/210101/DNB-11690 1 [Turn over
 1 + 0·5 s
12. The transfer function is , it represents a :
1+s
(A) lead network (B) lag network
(C) lag-lead network (D) proportional controller
13. The resolution of potentiometer depends upon :
(A) Composition of wire material (B) Shape of wire cross-section
(C) Size of wire (D) Type of contact
14. The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram cuts (–1, 0) circle is known as :
(A) gain crossover frequency (B) phase crossover frequency
(C) damping frequency (D) natural frequency
15. With negative feedback, the system stability and system gain :
(A) Increases, Increases (B) Increases, Decreases
(C) Decreases, Increases (D) Decreases, Decreases
16. Two systems obeying equations of the same form are said to be :
(A) similar systems (B) identical systems
(C) equivalent systems (D) analogous systems

10
17. A system is represented by the transfer function . The dc gain of this system is :
(s + 1) (s + 2)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 10

4(s + 1) (s + 3)
18. For very high frequencies, the driving point admittance function y(s) = behaves as :
s(s + 2) (s + 4)
(A) a resistance of 3/2 ohm (B) a capacitance of 4 f
(C) an inductance of 1/4 H (D) an inductance of 4 H
19. The double integration of a unit step function results in :
(A) a unit ramp function (B) a unit impulse
(C) a unit parabola (D) a unit doubles
20. The circuit whose properties are not same in either direction is known as :
(A) reversible circuit (B) irreversible circuit
(C) unilateral circuit (D) bilateral circuit
21. Lead is widely used in :
(A) transformers (B) switch gears
(C) galvanised pipes (D) batteries

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22. Thermionic emission of electrons results from :
(A) photovoltaic effect (B) electrostatic fields
(C) high temperatures (D) strong magnetic fields
23. For a half wave rectified sine wave the ripple factor is :
(A) 1.65 (B) 1.45
(C) 1.21 (D) 1.00
24. An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero :
(A) becomes extrinsic semiconductor (B) behaves like an insulator
(C) disintegrates into pieces (D) becomes superconductor
25. A FET differs from a bipolar transistor as it has :
(A) simpler fabrication (B) negative resistance
(C) high input impedance (D) low input impedance
26. As the temperature of a semiconductor increases its :
(A) conductivity increases (B) resistivity increases
(C) atomic number decreases (D) temperature co-efficient becomes zero
27. The best value of rectification efficiency for a full wave rectifier could be around :
(A) 50 percent (B) 65 percent
(C) 80 percent (D) 95 percent
28. If the lattice temperature is increased, then the Hall coefficient of a semiconductor will :
(A) decrease (B) increase
(C) first increase to peak and then decrease (D) remain constant
29. With increase of reverse bias, the reverse saturation current in PN diode :
(A) increases (B) remains constant
(C) decreases (D) increases as inverse of reverse bias
30. In a transistor ______ region is lightly doped and ______ region is heavily doped.
(A) Base, emitter (B) Collector, base
(C) Emitter, collector (D) Emitter, base
31. In a common emitter amplifier, the unbypassed emitter resistance provides :
(A) Voltage shunt feedback (B) Current series feedback
(C) Negative voltage feedback (D) Positive current feedback
32. The oscillator with the best frequency stability and accuracy is :
(A) Hartley oscillator (B) Colpitts oscillator
(C) Tickler feedback oscillator (D) Crystal controller oscillator

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33. The power gain of an emitter follower usually is :
(A) Less than one (B) Equal to one
(C) More than one (D) Independent of component values
34. Which of the following h-parameter relations is not correct ?
(A) hic = hie (B) hrc = 1 + hre
(C) hfc = – (1 + hfe) (D) hoc = hoe
35. In a transistor amplifier, the reverse saturation current Ico :
(A) doubles for every 10ºC rise in temperature (B) doubles for every 1ºC rise in temperature
(C) increases linearly with temperature (D) doubles for every 5ºC rise in temperature
36. Common base configuration is little used because :
(A) it has low output impedance (B) it has high input impedance
(C) it does not heat up (D) it has very high gain
37. Which component of RC coupled amplifier is mainly responsible for the fall of gain in low frequency
range ?
(A) Transistor (B) Coupling capacitor
(C) Grid leak resistor (D) Stray shunt capacitance
38. In a pnp transistor biased to operate in the active region, the current in the base region consists of
______.
(A) only holes (B) only electrons
(C) predominantly holes (D) predominantly electrons
39. Which one of the following is expected to have the highest input impedance ?
(A) MOSFET (B) JFET amplifier
(C) CE bipolar transistor (D) Common collector bipolar transistor
40. The emitter resistance in a differential amplifier is used to :
(A) provide a high output impedance (B) provide a high gain
(C) bias the transistor in active region (D) provide a constant current source
41. In an LC filter, the ripple factor :
(A) increases with the load current (B) increases with the load resistance
(C) remains constant with the load current (D) has the lowest value
42. An infra-red LED is usually fabricated from :
(A) Ge (B) Si
(C) GaAs (D) GaAsP
43. α-cut off frequency of a bipolar junction transistor :
(A) increases with the increase in base width (B) increases with increase in the collector width
(C) increases with the increase in temperature (D) increases with decrease in the base width

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44. For the high pass circuit to act as a differentiator, the time constant must be :
(A) small
(B) very small in comparison to the time period of the input signal
(C) very high in comparison to the time period of the input signal
(D) of moderate value
45. High order active filters are used for variable :
(A) bandwidth (B) gain in the pass-band
(C) impedance (D) roll-off rate
46. A 4-bit binary ripple counter uses flip-flops with a propagation delay time of 25 ns each. The maximum
possible time required for change of state will be :
(A) 25 ns (B) 50 ns
(C) 75 ns (D) 100 ns
47. A full adder can be made out of :
(A) two half adders (B) two half adders and a NOT gate
(C) two half adders and an OR gate (D) two half adders and an AND gate
48. In digital circuit, Schottky transistor is preferred over normal transistor because of :
(A) lower propagation delay (B) higher propagation delay
(C) lower power dissipation (D) higher power dissipation
49. Which of the following circuit exhibits memory ?
(A) Astable multivibrator (B) Bistable multivibrator
(C) NAND gate (D) Ex OR gate

50. The Boolean expression AB + ABC + (A + B + C ) simplifies to :

(A) AB + BC (B) AB + BC
(C) AB + B C (D) AB + B C
51. An interrupt in which the external device supplies its address as well as the interrupt request, is
known as :
(A) vectored interrupt (B) maskable interrupt
(C) polled interrupt (D) non-maskable interrupt
52. BCD numbers are obtained by :
(A) converting binary to decimal
(B) converting decimal number to binary
(C) each decimal digit is represented by a four bit binary number
(D) converting decimal to octal numbers

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53. SN7401 IC is :
(A) quad 2 input NAND gate
(B) quad 2 input NAND gate with open collector output
(C) quad single input NAND gate with open collector output
(D) quad single input NAND gate
54. The basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of :
(A) a capacitance (B) a transistor
(C) a flip-flop (D) a transistor acting as a capacitor
55. State transition table and state transition diagrams, form part of the design steps in the case of :
(A) combinational circuits (B) amplifier circuits
(C) delay circuits (D) sequential circuits
56. If interrupt service requests have been received from all of the following interrupts, then which one
will be serviced first ?
(A) RST 5.6 (B) RST 6.5
(C) RST 7.5 (D) INTR
57. Which of the following storages has greatest capacity with less cost per bit ?
(A) coincidence current memory (B) magnetic tape
(C) magnetic drum (D) semi-conductor memory
58. Among the digital IC families—ECL, TTL and CMOS
(A) ECL has the least propagation delay (B) TTL has the largest fan-out
(C) CMOS has the least noise margin (D) TTL has the lowest power consumption
59. A crystal oscillator is used in digital circuits for timing purposes because of its :
(A) low cost (B) high frequency stability
(C) simple circuitry (D) ability to set the frequency at desired value
60. If instruction RST4 is written in a program the program will jump to location :
(A) 0020 H (B) 0024 H
(C) 0028 H (D) 002C H
61. In microwave power measurements using bolometers, the principle of working is variation of :
(A) inductance with absorption of power
(B) resistance with absorption of power
(C) capacitance with absorption of power
(D) cavity dimensions with heat generated by the power
62. A cavity resonator can be represented by :
(A) an LC circuit (B) an LCR circuit
(C) a lossy inductor (D) a lossy capacitor
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63. Laplacian of scalar function V is :
(A) gradient of V (B) divergence of V
(C) gradient of gradient of V (D) divergence of the gradient of V
64. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity :
(A) increases with increasing frequency
(B) decreases with increasing frequency
(C) is independent of frequency
(D) will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range
65. Radiation from a helical antenna is :
(A) plane polarised (B) partially plane polarised
(C) circularly polarised (D) elliptically polarised
66. A stripline can be considered as analogous to :
(A) a waveguide (B) a parallel wire line
(C) a balun (D) a flattened coaxial line
67. Periodic permanent magnet focusing is used with TWT to :
(A) allow pulsed operation
(B) improve electron bunching
(C) avoid the bulk of an electromagnet
(D) allow coupled cavity operation at the higher frequencies
68. The directivity of an isotropic antenna is :
(A) zero (B) less than unity
(C) unity (D) infinity
69. In microwave communication, sometime, microwave signals reach large distances by following the
Earth’s curvature. This phenomenon is called :
(A) Tropospheric scatter (B) Faraday effect
(C) Ionospheric reflection (D) Ducting
70. Medium wave radio signals may be received at far off distances at night because :
(A) radio waves travel faster at night (B) ground wave attenuation is low at night
(C) the sky wave is stronger at night (D) there is no fading at night
71. In delta modulation, the slope overload distortion can be reduced by :
(A) decreasing the step size (B) decreasing the granular noise
(C) decreasing the sampling rate (D) increasing the step size

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72. A transmission line is feeding 1 watt of power to a horn antenna having a gain of 10 dB. The antenna
is matched to the transmission line. The total power radiated by the horn antenna into the free
space is :
(A) 10 watts (B) 1 watt
(C) 0.1 watt (D) 0.01 watt
73. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor have an average drift velocity V in a direction
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. The electric field E induced due to Hall effect acts in
the direction :
(A) V × B (B) B × V
(C) along V (D) opposite to V
74. A MOS capacitor made using P type substrate is in the accumulation mode. The dominant charge in
the channel is due to the presence of :
(A) holes (B) electrons
(C) positively charged ions (D) negatively charged ions
75. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of :
(A) CC—CB (B) CE—CB
(C) CB—CC (D) CE—CC

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 ROUGH WORK

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 ROUGH WORK

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